Bio 241129 214605
Bio 241129 214605
Bio 241129 214605
Carbohydrate chemistry
1. Which of the following Monosaccharide doesn't have asymmetric carbon atom ?:
a. Glucose
b. Glyceraldehyde
c. Fructose
d. Dihydroxyacetone (keto triose)
3. D-glucose and D-mannose are Epimers with respect to carbon atom number:
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5
24. All the following sugars and sugar derivatives are L form except :
a. Ascorbic acid
b. Iduronic acid of Heparan sulfate
c. Fructose of glycoproteins
d. Glucuronic acid
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60. 2 Monosaccharides that differ from each other in 1 carbon not the anomeric :
a. Epimers
b. D & L isomers
c. Aldose Ketose isomers
d. Alpha and Beta anomers
61. 2 Monosaccharides that differ from each other in 1 carbon which is the anomeric :
a. Epimers
b. D & L isomers
c. Aldose Ketose isomers
d. Alpha and Beta anomers
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66. D-sugars :
a. Must be Dextrorotatory
b. Doesn't occur in nature
c. Subterminal OH on the right d. Iduronic acid is an example
73. All the following sugars contain β sugars in their structure except
a. Maltose
b. Sucrose
c. Lactose
d. Cellulose
87. Heparin is :
a. a disaccharide
b. sulfated mucopolysaccharide
c. oligosaccharide
d. an amino sugar
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91. Sorbitolis:
a. A sugar alcohol
b. Obtained from glucose
c. Obtained from fructose
d. All of these
98. The carbon atom which becomes asymmetric when the straight chain form of
monosaccharide changes into ring form is known as:
a. anomeric carbon atom
b. epimeric carbon atom
c. isomeric carbon atom
d. none of these
112. N-acetyl-neuraminic acid (sialic acid) has nine carbon atoms. Its carbon skeleton is
made by condensation of:
a. N-acetyl –glucose -6-phosphate and lactate
b. N-acetyl –glucose -6-phosphate and pyruvate
c. N-acetyl –galactose -6-phosphate and pyruvate
d. N-acetyl –mannosamine and pyruvate
e. N-acetyl –glucosamine -6-phosphate and lactate
114. A person complaining of rapid fatigue was advised to check his blood sugar level.
What is the blood sugar?
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Mannose
d. Galactose
115. What are epimers:
a. Sugars that differ in configuration at two carbon atoms
b. Sugar that differs in the number of carbon atoms
c. Sugars that differ in configuration at one carbon atom
d. Sugars that differ in configuration at the carbonyl group
122. Which of the following is formed from monosaccharide units linked by β-glycosidic
linkage?
a. Amylopectin
b. Maltose
c. Cellulose
d. Glycogen
123. What are the tissue with the highest total glycogen content?
a. Muscle and kidney
b. Kidney and liver
c. Liver and muscle
d. Brain and liver
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124. Which of the following statements about the structure of glycogen is true?
a. It is unbranched chain stored in animal tissue
b. It is copolymer of glucose and galactose
c. Contains only a a,4 glycosidic linkage
d. It contains a1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic bonds
129. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the polysaccharides starch ,
glycogen and cellulose?
a. All have only α-1→4 glucosidic linkages.
b. Starch is built from a different monomer than are the others.
c. Each is built from a single type of monosaccharide.
d. Glycogen and cellulose differ in the extent of their branching.
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132. The protein core of proteoglycan is rich in which of the following? A. Serine and
threonine
b. Serine and methionine.
c. Methionine and threonine.
d. Methionine and cysteine.
133. After digestion of apiece of cake that contain flour, milk, sucrose, as contain flour,
milk, sucrose, as its primary ingredient, the major carbohydrate products entering
blood are:
a. Glucose
b. Glucose and galactose
c. Glucose and fructose
d. Glucose, galactose, fructose
141. A polysaccharide formed from β1,4 glucosidic bond between glucose residue:
a. Inulin
b. Amylose
c. Agar
d. Cellulose
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149. Two sugars which differ from one another in configuration around the
prelistcarbonatomare called:
a. Epimers
b. Anomers
c. D- and L- isomers
d. Aldose/ketose isomers.
155. A patient has a genetic defect that causes intestinal epithelial cells to produce
disaccharides of much lower activity than normal . Compared to a normal person,
after eating a bowel of milk and oatmeal, this patient will have higher levels of :
a. Maltose, sucrose and lactose in stool
b. Starch in stool
c. Galactose and fructose in the blood
d. Glycogen in the muscles.
156. While glycogen and starch consist of long chains of alpha1, 4glycosidic linkage, the
branching points on these molecules are formed through:
a. Alpha 1,6 glycosidic linkage
b. Alpha 1,2 glycosidic bonds
c. Beta 1,6 glycosidic linkage
d. Intramolecular hydrogen bonds
157. The supporting material in cell walls, wood and dietary fiber are examples of what
carbohydrate:
a. Glycogen
b. Starch
c. Cellulose
d. Glucose
161. Α-D-glucoseandβ-D-glucoseare:
a. epimers
b. aldose-ketose isomers
c. anomers
d. stereoisomers
Lipids
1. Which of the following is not a phospholipid ?
a. Sphingomyelin.
b. Cerebroside.
c. Cephalin.
d. Lecithin.
13. Phospholipids containing choline which doesn't include which of the following:
a. Phosphatidyl choline.
b. Sphingomyelin
c. Lecithin
d. Cardiolipins.
19. Fatty acids that are dietary essentials in humans include which of the following:
a. Palmitic acid
b. Stearic acid
c. Oleic acid
d. Linoleic
26. 18 Carbon FA is :
a. Stearic
b. Linoleic
c. Oleic
d. Linolenic
e. All of the above
29. Esters of F.A with higher molecular weight monohydric alcohol are called :
a. Waxes
b. True fats
c. Derived Lipids
38. 2ry Bile Acids are obtained by ......... Dehydroxylation of 1ry Bile Acids .
a. 3
b. 7
c. 12
d. 17
44. Arachidonic acid becomes essential when Linolenic acid is absent from diet:
a. True
b. False
62. The deficiency of lung surfactant dipalmitoyl choline lead to respiratory distress, di-
palmitoyl choline is:
a. Cerebroside
b. Ganglioside
c. Phospholipid
d. Lipoptotein
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73. The number and position of double bond in arachidonic acid are:
a. 18:3;9,12,15
b. 18:1;9
c. 18:2;9,12
d. 20:4;5,8,11,14
81. Fatty acids that are dietary essentials in humans which of the following:
a. Palmitic acid
b. Stearic acid
c. Oleic acid
d. Linoleic acid
83. Hydrolysis of a mixture of phospholipids may yield all of the following except:
a. Serine
b. Choline
c. Galactose
d. Glycerol
e. Phosphate
85. If the choline moiety of lecithin is replaced by ethanolamine the product is:
a. Sphingomyelin
b. Inositol
c. Cephalin
d. Lipositol
86. Carbon number 1 in glycerophospholipid contain which type of fatty acid mostly:
a. Acetic acid
b. Butyric acid
c. Palmitic acid
d. Arachidonic acid
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88. The double bond in cholesterol is present between the following 2 carbon:
a. 4 and 5
b. 5 and 6
c. 7 and 8
d. 22 and 23
90. If the fatty acid is esterified with an alcohol of high molecular weight instead of
glycerol, the resulting compound is:
a. Lipositol
b. Plasmalogen
c. wax
d. cephalin
97. Which of the following fatty acid used as precursor for prostaglandin:
a. Oleic
b. Nervonic
c. Linolenic
d. Arachidonic
99. An infant was born premature with respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the
following is deficient in his lung?
a. Phosphatidic acid
b. Dipalmitoyl choline
c. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine
d. Phosphatidyl inositol
103. Taking a high amount of egg yolk, meat and liver in diet may lead to increase of
which of the following in blood?
a. Phospholipid
b. Sphingomyelins
c. Carotenoid
d. Cholesterol
104. When a person is exposed to sun light, which of the following conversions can take
place in subcutaneous tissue:
a. Cholesterol ------------- 7-dehydro-cholesterol
b. Cholesterol --------------- taminD2
c. 7-dehydro-cholesterol ----------- tamin D2
d. 7-dehydro-cholesterol ----------- taminD3
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112. Which one of the followings is considered of the omege-3 FATTY ACIDS?
a. Oleicacid
b. Nervonic acid
c. Linoleic acid
d. Linolenic acid
114. ....... And ........ Are example on bile acid formed in liver:
a. Cholic and 7-deoxy cholic
b. Chenodeoxycholic and lithocholic
c. Cholic and chenodeocycholic
d. Cholic and lithocholic
117. How are the three fatty acid bonded to the glycerol backbone in a triacylglycerol?
a. Peptide bonded
b. Hydroxylation
c. Esterification
d. Hydrogenation
e. Dehydrogenation
119. Fatty acid containing at least two double bond between its carbon are called:
a. Essential fatty acids
b. Saturated fatty acids
c. Non-essential fatty acids
d. True fats
125. The blood cholesterol level in a patient is 250 mg/dl which fatty acid do they need ?
a. palmitic acid.
b. arachidonic acid.
c. oleic acid
Protein
1. On of the amino acids listed below is not basic :
a. Arginine
b. Histidine
c. Glutamine
d. Lysine
10. Which of the following amino acids has a non-polar side chain?
a. Serine
b. Valine
c. Asparagine
d. Threonine
11. Amino acid responsible for linking tropocollagen molecules together in collagen
a. Hydroxy lysine
b. Hydroxy Proline
c. Glutamine
d. Glycine
12. Which of the following amino acids has a net positive charge at physiological ph?
a. Glutamic acid
b. Lysine
c. Valine
d. Leucine
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17. During denaturation, proteins will not lose their structure, with regard to :
a. Primary structure
b. Secondary structure
c. Tertiary structure
d. Quaternary structure
19. The forces maintaining the secondary, tertiary and quaternary structures of a protein
are the following EXCEPT:
a. Electrostatic (ionic) bonds
b. Hydrophobic forces
c. Van der Waals forces (Hydrogen bonds)
d. Peptide bonds
41.Covalent bond :
a. A weak bond
b. True chemical bond
c. Hydrogen bond
d. Responsible for secondary structure of protein
e- Liable to be denaturated
53. Histidine is :
a. Basic amino acid
b. Contains imidazole group
c. Abundant in Hemoglobin structure
d. All of the above
54. Glycine is :
a. Non optically active
b. Neutral
c. Present in GSH
d. All of the above
57. Sickle Cell Disease is due to replacement of ..... With ......... At 6th position of beta chain
a. Valine , Glutamic Acid
b. Glutamic Acid , Valine
c. Valine , Aspartic Acid
d. Aspartic Acid , Valine
65. The dipolar ion of an A.A at its IEP in an aqueous medium is called:
a. Amphipathic
b. Zwitterion
c. Iso Electric Point
d. None of the Above
73. Which of the following is non polar heterocyclic essential amino acid:
a. Proline
b. Histidine
c. Tryptophan
d. None of the Above
78. Which of the following bonds play the major role in stabilizing the tertiary structure
of proteins ?
a. Peptide bond
b. Disulfide bond
c. Ionic Bond
d. Hydrogen bond
79. Cooking meat allows its digestion because of denaturation of protein with loss of :
a. Primary structure
b. Secondary structure
c. All orders of structures
d. Secondary tertiary and quaternary structures
83. Which of the following amino acids are nutritionally essential amino acids in healthy
human?
a. arginine and glutamine
b. Leucine and asparagine
c. Aspartate and alanine
d. Methionine and lysine
89. All of the following statements about peptide bonds are TRUE EXCEPT:
a. They are covalent bonds
b. Disrupted by denaturation
c. Formed between the COOH of an amino acid the NH2of another amino acid
d. Responsible for the primary structure of proteins
96. Which of the following amino acids are nonpolar and essential ?
a. leucine and isoleucine.
b. leuicine and proline.
c. asparatate and glutamine.
Protein Answers
1- C 2- B 3- A 4- D
5- D 6- A 7- B 8- A
9- C 10 - B 11 - A 12 - B
13 - B 14 - A 15 - B 16 - A
17 - A 18 - A 19 - D 20 - E
21 - B 22 - C 23 - C 24 - D
25 - A 26 - B 27 - C 28 - B
29 - C 30 - B 31 - C 32 - B
33 - B 34 - B 35 - D 36 - D
37 - B 38 - A 39 - B 40 - B
41 - A 42 - B 43 - C 44 - E
45 - B 46 - A 47 - C 48 - B
49 - B 50 - A 51 - D 52 - D
53 - D 54 - B 55 - A 56 - B
57 - D 58 - D 59 - D 60 - C
61 - D 62 - C 63 - C 64 - B
65 - C 66 - C 67 - C 68 - C
69 - D 70 - D 71 - D 72 - C
73 - C 74 - A 75 - D 76 - C
77 - B 78 - D 79 - D 80 - B
81 - C 82 - D 83 - B 84 - B
85 - D 86 - D 87 - C 88 - B
89 - B 90 - A 91 - B 92 - B
93 - B 94 - B 95 - C 96 - A
97 - C 98 - B 99 - B
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Enzymes
1. Which of the following causes conformational change to the active site of enzyme?
a. Proteolyticcleavage
b. Allosteric inhibitor.
c. Coenzymes.
d. Competitive inhibitor.
3. Coenzymes are:
a. Dialyzable, non-protein molecules.
b. Colloidal, protein molecules.
c. Structural analogues of enzymes.
d. Different forms of the same enzyme.
5. The coenzyme
a. Increases the affinity of the enzyme to the substrate.
b. Lowers the activation energy.
c. Increases the number of active sites on the enzyme.
d. Accepts one of the products of the reaction.
6. An enzyme is:
a. Protein in nature.
b. Highly active.
c. Highly specific.
d. All of the above.
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7. The enzyme:
a. Reduces the energy of activation.
b. Increases the total energy of the substrate.
c. Increases the equilibrium constant.
d. Decreases the total energy of the product.
16. In the reaction drawn below, what is the type of the enzyme used to convert molecule
1 to molecule 2?
a. Hydrolase.
b. Ligase.
c. Isomerase.
d. Dehydrogenase.
18. Isoenzymes are enzymes with different amino acid sequence but the same:
a. Tissue.
b. Function.
c. Quaternary structure.
d. Electrophoretic pattern.
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39. Enzymes present in structurally different forms but catalyze the same reactions are:
a. Coenzymes.
b. Isoenzymes.
c. Holoenzymes.
d. Proenzymes.
45. Enzyme acts on a special type of bond at specific site and attached to specific groups:
a. Group Specificity
b. Absolute Specificity
c. Relative Specificity
d. Optical Specificity
52. Non Functional plasma enzymes include all of the following except
a. Prostatic Acid Phosphatase
b. Alkaline Phosphatase
c. Lipoprotein lipase
d. Creatine Kinase
54. Pepsin acts on peptide bonds between amino groups of aromatic amino acid and
carboxylic group of another amino acid:
a. True
b. False
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59. Functional plasma enzymes are characterized by all of the following except
a. Their substrate is present in plasma
b. Their level in plasma is usually low and increase in tissue damage
c. They are synthesized in liver
d. They include lipoprotein lipase and Thrombin
63. Formation of which of the following is considered as the first step in any enzyme
catalyzed reaction?
a. Enzyme-product complex
b. Enzyme-intermediate complex
c. Enzyme-substrate complex
d. Enzyme-cofactor complex
66. What is the name given to enzymes that are always present in a cell at relatively
constant amounts?
a. Inducible enzymes
b. Coenzymes
c. Endoenzymes
d. Constitutive enzymes
67. The “lock and key” model of enzyme action illustrates that a particular enzyme
molecule ..
a. Forms a permanent enzyme-substrate complex
b. May be destroyed and resynthesized several times
c. Interacts with a specific type of substrate molecule
d. Reacts at identical rates under all conditions
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اس َج ِمي ًعأ
68. Which type of specificity does the rigid model of catalytic site show?
a. Absolute specificity
b. Relative specificity
c. Group specificity
d. Stereochemical specificity
69. What does conformational change in the catalytic site of enzymes signify?
a. explains rigid model
b. explains flexible model
c. leads to breakdown of non covalent bond
d. leads to denaturation of enzymes
70. In the provided diagram, what does the point labeled (1)
indicate?
a. Neutral pH
b. Basic pH
c. Acidic pH
d. Optimum pH
73. How does a competitive inhibitor prevent an enzyme from doing its job?
a. By altering the pH
b. By denaturing the enzyme
c. By binding to the active site
d. By binding to the substrate
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اس َج ِمي ًعأ
75. Which of the following statements regarding a non- competitive inhibitor is true?
a. It resembles the substrate in chemical structure
b. It binds to the catalytic site of the enzyme
c. It decreases the Vmax
d. It increases Km
77. Which of the following catalyzes the from substrate to only oxygen?
a. Oxidase
b. Catalase
c. Peroxidase
d. Dehydrogenase
78. What class of enzymes can break a bond without water addition?
a. Hydrolases
b. Ligases
c. Taransferases
d. Lyases
79. What are the inactive enzymes that are not bound to their cofactors called?
a. Apoenzymes
b. Coenzymes
c. Enzyme inhibitors
d. Holoenzymes
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اس َج ِمي ًعأ
80. Which of the following statements regarding covalent modification of enzyme activity
is TRUE?
a. Phosphorylation of the enzyme always activates it.
b. Dephosphorylation of the enzyme releases ATP
c. ProteinkinaseusesADPasphosphatedonor.
d. Phosphate groups are removed by phosphatase.
82. Which of the following is produced by the combination of apoenzyme and coenzyme?
a. Holoenzyme
b. Enzyme substrate complex
c. Prosthetic group
d. Enzyme product complex
84. Which of the following enzymes has absolute specificity for its substrate?
a. Carboxypeptidase
b. Pancreatic lipase
c. Urease
d. Lipoprotein lipase
85. An increase in serum level of LDH1, relative to LDH2 is an indication of which of the
followings ?
a. Muscular dystrophy
b. Leukemia
c. Myocardial infraction
d. Hepatitis with jaundice
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اس َج ِمي ًعأ
86. Which is the only tissue which has mixed MB (CK2) isoenzyme ?
a. Prostate
b. Liver
c. Cardiac tissue
d. Spleen
89. Choose the inhibitor which forms EI or ES complex , but not ESI.
a. competitive.
b. non-competitive.
c. allosteric.
91. Which type of inhibitions the inhibtor is attached to other site that the active site and
decreases the activity of the enzyme?
a. competitive inhibitor.
b. non-competitive inhibition.
c. allosteric inhibition
92.-Which of the following Answers is proportional for relieve the Competitive Inhibition
for Enzymes?
A. Substrate Concentration
B. Product Concentration
C. Enzyme Concentration
D. Co-factor Concentration
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Enzymes Answers
1) b 2) d 3) a 4) a
5) d 6) a 7) a 8) a
9) b 10) a 11) d 12) a
13) c 14) a 15) c 16) d
17) c 18) b 19) d 20) d
21) b 22) b 23) b 24) d
25) c 26) a 27) b 28) d
29) b 30) d 31) c 32) b
33) b 34) a 35) a 36) b
37) a 38) a 39) b 40) d
41) a 42) b 43) d 44) c
45) a 46) c 47) b 48) b
49) d 50) c 51) d 52) c
53) c 54) a 55) b 56) a
57) a 58) d 59) b 60) c
61) b 62) c 63) c 64) d
65) b 66) d 67) c 68) a
69) b 70) d 71) b 72) b
73) c 74) b 75) c 76) b
77) a 78) d 79) a 80) d
81) d 82) a 83) c 84) c
85) c 86) c 87) 88) a
89) a 90) a 91) c 92) a
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Molecular Biology
1. The chief product of catabolism of purines in human being is:
a. Urea
b. Uric acid
c. Hypoxanthine
d. Beta amino isobutyric acid.
3. During DNA replication, 5°- GTCAAT- 3' strand produces a new complementary DNA
strand with the following structure:
a. 5' CAGTTA-3'
b. 5'-ATTGAC-3'
c. -c °5- ACACCG-3'
d. 5'-GCCACA-3'
23. Concerning DNA structure all the following are correct EXCEPT:
a. The 2 strands of DNA run anti parallel.
b. The 2 strands are held together by complementary base pairing
c. Adenine pairs with thymine through 3hydrogen bonds
d. Cytosine pairs with guanine through 3hydrogen bonds
25. Which of-the following is the mrna start codon in most cases?
a. UAA
b. AGU
c. C- AUG
d. UGA
27. For the following DNA sequence, determine the sequence and direction of the
complementary strand: 5° ATCGATCGATCGATCG-3'
a. a 3'-ATCGATCGATCGATCG-5'
b. 5'-CGAUCGAUCAUCGAU-3'
c. 5'-CGATCGATCGATCGAT-3'
d. d-3'-CGATCGATCGATCGAT-3'
29. The coding strand of DNA is the same as the associated mrna EXCEPT for:
a- mRNA uses U instead of T
b- mRNA uses T instead of U
c- mRNA uses G instead of C
d- mRNA uses C instead of G
30. The anticodon is a set of three nuclecotides on the 3°-end of ....., which corresponds to
the codon on the ........
a. tRNA; mRNA
b. mRNA; tRNA
c. tRNA; rRNA
d. rRNA; tRNA
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31. What type of mutations involves a change that produces a stop codon?
a. Unacceptable missense
b. Partially acceptable missense
c. Silent
d. Nonsense
32. During the initiation of translation in eukaryotes, at RNA complex is formed with:
a. His (CAU)
b. Ser(UCG)
c. Met(AUG)
d. Gly (GGG)
33. What causes Peptidyl transferase to hydrolyze the bond between the peptide chain
and trna, terminating translation?
a. tRNA anticodon
b. mRNA condon
c. tRNA stop codon
d. Releasing factors
34. Which of the following relives the supercoil on the parental duplex of DNA caused by
unwinding during synthesis?
a. DNA polymerase
b. Helicase
c. DNA ligase
d. Toposiomerase
35. Which of the following eukaryotic DNA control sequences does not need to be in a
fixed location, and is most responsible for high rates of transcription of particular
genes?
a. Promoter
b. Promoter-proximal element
c. Enhancer
d. Basal expression element
37. What is the most important condition for the formation of a single stranded DNA from RNA?
a. The RNA strand must contain 2°-deoxyribose.
b. The RNA strand must have a high content of G and C
c. A primer must be present
d. A reverse transcriptase must be present.
39. Which of the following proteins can introduce positive supercoils into DNA?
a. Primosome
b. DNA ligase -
c. Helicase
d. Single strand-binding protein
40. If cytosine content ofdna is 20% of the total bases, the adenine content will be:
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
e. 50%
43. Hnrna is modified by adding of ........ To 5' end and ............. To 3' end.
a. Cap - Poly (A) tail
b. Cap - Promotor
c. Poly (A) tail - Cap
d. Promotor – Cap
44. Mutation that involves codon change but produces the same amino acid is called:
a. Acceptable Missense
b. Non sense
c. Silent
d. None of the Above
49. Which of the following relieves Supercoils on the Parental DNA caused by unwinding
during Replication ?
a. DNA Ligase
b. DNA Helicase
c. DNA Polymerase
d. Topoisomerase
50. Telomeres:
a. Interspersed throughout the entire chromosome length
b. DNA sequences that help in DNA packing into compact structure
c. Repititive DNA sequence at the end of human chromosome
d. Has a fixed length throughout the entire life of the cell
53. Which of the Following Pyrimidine Nucleotides is used as Energy source in Chemical
Reactions ?
a. ATP
b. GTP
c. UTP
d. AMP
55. At which Phase of cell Cycle does Pyrimidine dimer error occurs ?
a. G1
b. S
c. G2
d. M
57. Number of High energy bonds broken in initiation of Protein Biosynthesis is:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. None of the Above
59. What causes Peptidyl Transferase to hydrolyze bond between Peptide chain and trna
in (P) site ?
a. mRNA Codon
b. tRNA Anti Codon
c. Releasing Factors
d. All of the Above
e. None of the Above
62. Regulatory region that is responsible for increasing the rate of gene Expression
a. TATA Box
b. CAAT Box
c. GC Box
d. Enhancers
e. Silencers
f. All of the Above
65 - A 13 year old boy suffers from ulceration and extreme sensitivity to sunlight , which
of the following enzymes has a defect ?
a. endonucleases.
b. exonucleases.
c. topoisomerase
67.What makes a different amino acid but with the same function ?
a. UUU --> UAA .
b. UCA --> ACU
c. UCA --> UCU
َ ََّو َم ْن أَحْ يَاهَا فَكَــأَنَّ َما أَحْ يَا الن
اس َج ِمي ًعأ
69. Which of the following amino acids doesn't have a specific code on DNA?
a. cysteine.
b. alanine.
c. valine.
d. cystine.
70. Which of the following presents at the 5 ' end of okazaki fragment?
a. RNA primer.
b. small DNA primer.
c. DNA polymerase binding site
72. What is the type of mutation when deletion or insertion of bases occurs?
a. point mutation.
b. frame shift
َ ََّو َم ْن أَحْ يَاهَا فَكَــأَنَّ َما أَحْ يَا الن
اس َج ِمي ًعأ
Cell signaling
1. Which of the following is true about a hydrophilic signaling molecule?
a. Its receptor is located in the cytosol of-the target cell
b. It can not pass the cell membrane, so it has a cell surface receptor
c. Since it can enter the cell, it directly affects some specific cell process
d. Steroid and thyroid hormones are examples
2. Phosphorylation of a protein:
a. Increases a protein's activity
b. Decreases a protein's activity
c. Either increases or decreases a protein's activity
d. Has no effect
7. Which type of signaling is the transmission of nerve impulse through the synaptic cleft?
a. Endocrine
b. Paracrine
c. Autocrine
d. By direct contact
11. Which type of receptors responsible for transmission of nerve impulse through the
synaptic cleft?
a. ligand-gated ion channels
b. G-protein-linked receptors
c. Intracellular receptors
d. Receptor tyrosine kinases
12. Which of the following is not true about a hydrophobic signaling molecule?
a. Its receptor is located in the cytosol of the target cell
b. It can not pass the cell membrane
c. Since it can enter the cell, it directly affects some specific cell process
d. Steroid and thyroid hormones are examples
َ ََّو َم ْن أَحْ يَاهَا فَكَــأَنَّ َما أَحْ يَا الن
اس َج ِمي ًعأ
1) b 2) c 3) d 4) a
5) c 6) d 7) b 8) d
9) c 10) d 11) a 12) b
13) b 14) c 15) b 16) b