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Question Booklet Sl. No.

Question Booklet Alpha Code

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Total Number of Questions : 100 Time : 90 Minutes

Maximum Marks : 100

INSTruCTIoNS To CANdIdATeS
1. The Question Paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four
versions of Question Booklets with Question Booklet Alpha Code viz. A, B, C & d.
2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet
of the Question Booklet.
3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position in
the Examination Hall.
4. If you get a Question Booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha
code in the seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator ImmEdIATEly.
5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your
Question Booklet is un-numbered, please get it replaced by new Question Booklet with same

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alpha code.
6. The Question Booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should
not open the Question Booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that
the Question Booklet supplied to him/her contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The
Question Booklet does not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should
bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha
code. This is most important.
8. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the Question Booklet. This may be used for rough
work.
9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before
marking your answers.
10. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (d) having one correct answer.
Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number
using Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the OmR Answer Sheet.
11. each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be
deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and
without handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure
that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and
that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any
kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.
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1. dipotassium salt of EdTA is recommended in CBC because it is

A) more water soluble B) more water solvent
C) less water soluble d) less water solvent

2. 1 mm thickness of buffy coat approximately equal to total leucocyte count of about

A) 1,000 B) 5,000
C) 10,000 d) 12,000

3. method of estimation of Haemoglobin from the amount of oxygen it absorbed is

A) Gasometric method B) Cyanmeth haemoglobin method
C) Oxy haemoglobin method d) Sahli’s method

4. Inclusion bodies seen in RBCs of patients with G6PD deficiency

A) Schuffner’s granules B) Heinz bodies
C) Howel – Jolly bodies d) Pappen heimer bodies

5. Substitution of valine for glutamic acid in position 6 of the β globin chain of haemoglobin
causes
A) A plastic anaemia B) leukaemia
C) Sickle cell anaemia d) Thalassemia

6. Test used to measure fructose concentration in semen

A) Benedict’s test B) Osazone test
C) Resorcinol test d) GOd – POd test

7. In which condition increased urobilinogen is found ?

A) Haemolytic anaemia B) Pernicious anaemia
C) malaria d) All the above

8. Urine preservative which causes a false positive reaction for proteins

A) Thymol B) Formalin
C) Boric acid d) HCl

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9. Normal adult CSF pressure when the patient is lying in the horizontal position
A) 100 – 200 mm of water B) 200 – 300 mm of water
C) 250 – 350 mm of water d) 10 – 50 mm of water

10. For the earliest pregnancy determination, one should use

A) Urine B) Serum
C) Vaginal fluid D) Saliva

11. Name the subgroup of B group blood

A) B1 type and B2 type B) Bx type and Bm type
C) Both (A) and (B) d) None of the above

12. monoclonal antibodies to blood groups are derived from

A) Hybridoma cell lines B) Antibioma cell lines
C) Sarcoma cell lines d) Plasmacytoma cell lines

13. In direct agglutination tests which of the following is used to enhance the reactivity
of blood grouping and typing antibodies ?
A) Bovine serum globulin B) Bovine serum albumin
C) Bovine serum ceruloplasmin d) None of the above

14. Which of the serological test not performed on blood after collection from donor for
blood transfusion ?
A) HIV test B) Hepatitis B virus test
C) Test for syphilis d) Test for typhoid

15. The following statements are correct regarding a delayed haemolytic transfusion
reaction.
A) Blood film shows spherocytosis B) Positive direct antiglobulin test
C) Unconjugated bilirubin raised d) All the above

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16. Saturated formaldehyde solution in water is of __________ percentage.

A) 20 B) 30
C) 40 d) 10

17. Following are micro anatomical fixatives except

A) Zenker’s fluid B) Bouin’s fluid
C) Buffered neutral formalin D) Clarke’s fluid

18. Best clearing agent used for research purpose

A) Chloroform B) Cedar wood oil
C) Xylene d) Toluene

19. For cutting thin sections of most tissue temperature of cryostat should be kept at
A) –20°C B) –10°C
C) –5°C d) –25°C

20. Perl’s prussian blue reaction is done for demonstration of

A) Reticulin B) Haemosiderin
C) Connective tissue d) Glycogen

21. Most commonly used cytological fixative

A) Absolute alcohol B) 95% ethyl alcohol
C) methanol d) Formalin

22. Special fixative for cytological preparation of sputum

A) Carnoy’s fluid B) Carbowax
C) Saccomanno’s Fixative d) 50% ethanol

23. Stain used for identification of Barr Body

A) Biebrich Scarlet – Fast green B) methyl green
C) Shorr’s Stain d) PAP Stain

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24. Chemical Ripening agent used in Harri’s haematoxylin is

A) Sodium iodate B) mercuric oxide
C) Aluminium sulfate d) Chloral hydrate

25. Coating fixative are usually sprayed over smear at a distance of ________
A) 25 – 30 cm B) 10 – 12 cm
C) 5 – 10 cm d) 3 – 6 cm

26. metaphase arrest solution used in karyotyping is

A) Colchicine B) TC 199
C) PHA d) methanol

27. Stain used in Karyotyping

A) leishman B) Wright stain
C) Giemsa d) PAS

28. The correct determination of human diploid chromosome number 46, by

A) Tijo and levan B) Jacobs and Strung
C) Friedrich miescher d) Watson and Crick

29. down’s Syndrome is

A) Trisomy 13 B) Trisomy 21
C) Trisomy 18 d) None of the above

30. method of choice for demonstrating philadelphia chromosome is

A) Blood B) Bone marrow
C) CSF D) Amniotic fluid

31. Biological hazard can be caused by

A) m. tuberculosis B) Hepatitis B Virus
C) HIV d) All of the above

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32. Antibiotic Penicillin is discovered by

A) Edward Jenner B) Alexander Fleming
C) Robert Koch d) louis Pasteur

33. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can be differentiated by

A) Coagulase Test B) Oxidase Test
C) Catalase Test d) lndole Test

34. H2S production can be detected by

A) TSI Agar B) TCBS Agar
C) Blood Agar d) ImViC Test

35. Liquid paraffin is sterilized by

A) Hot air oven B) Autoclave
C) Filtration d) lnspissation

36. The decolourising agent used for m. leprae in AFB stain is

A) 20% H2SO4 B) 15% H2SO4
C) 10% H2SO4 d) 5% H2SO4

37. Nocturnal periodicity is characterised by

A) Microfilaria B) Leishmania
C) P. falciparum d) Trypanosomes

38. Hook worm is the common name of

A) Trichuris Trichiura B) Ancylostoma duodenale
C) Ascaris lumbricoides d) Enterobius vermicularis

39. QBC technique is a rapid test used for the diagnosis of

A) Filariasis B) leishmaniasis
C) Amoebiasis d) malaria

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40. Hydatid Cyst seen in

A) Cysticercosis B) Trypanosomiasis
C) Echinococcosis d) Filariasis

41. Trichomonas vaginalis life cycle consists of

A) Trophozoite B) Precystic stage
C) Cyst d) All of the above

42. The Source of infection in Ancylostoma duodenale is

A) Water B) Soil
C) Food d) Insect Vector

43. “Satellitism” is a characteristic feature of

A) Staphylococcus B) H.influenzae
C) Pneumococci d) y.pestis

44. Trench fever is caused by

A) R.rickettsii B) R.conori
C) Ro.quintana d) R.tsutsugamushi

45. “Inclusion blenorrhea” is a form of ____________

A) conjunctivitis B) diarrhoea
C) meningitis d) pneumonia

46. Klebs-Loeffler bacillus is _____________

A) m.tuberculosis B) m.leprae
C) B.anthracis d) C.diphtheriae

47. Oxidase reagent is

A) P-dimethyl amino benzaldehyde
B) Hydrogen peroxide
C) Naphthylamene
d) Tetra methyl p-phenylene hydrochloride

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48. Plague bacillus is

A) l.interrogans B) y.pestis
C) Borrelia vincentii d) B.burgdorferi

49. moniliasis is commonly caused by

A) P.brasiliensis B) C.albicans
C) H.duboisii d) C.neoformans

50. Black fungus disease is

A) Histoplasmosis B) Phycomycosis
C) mucormycosis d) Coccidiomycosis

51. Asexual spores produced by Phycomycetes are

A) ascospores B) basidiospores
C) zygospores d) sporangiospores

52. dermatophytes are examples of

A) moulds B) yeast
C) dimorphic fungi d) yeast like fungi

53. Commonly used culture media in mycology is

A) Chocolate agar B) Cornmeal agar
C) Blood agar d) mHA

54. Black piedra is a fungal infection caused by

A) Piedraia hortai B) Trichosporon beigellii
C) Cladosporium wernickii d) C.albicans

55. Hepatitis A virus belongs to the family

A) Flavi virus B) Calci virus
C) Arena virus d) Picorna virus

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56. Japanese encephalitis is transmitted by

A) Tick B) mosquito
C) Sand fly D) House fly

57. An example of RNA virus is

A) Adenovirus B) Parvovirus
C) Picornavirus d) Herpesvirus

58. Inclusion bodies in braincells of animals in case of rabies

A) Negri bodies B) Guarnieri bodies
C) Bollinger bodies d) molluscum bodies

59. “Kissing disease” is related to

A) Cytomegalo virus B) Herpes virus
C) Epstein-Barr virus d) Pox virus

60. Bullet shaped virion is a feature of

A) Arbovirus B) Rhabdovirus
C) Herpesvirus d) Orthomyxovirus

61. Anticoagulant used for blood glucose estimation

A) Fluoride oxalate mixture B) EdTA
C) Heparin d) Citrate

62. The characteristic feature of metabolic acidosis is _______

A) Primary deficiency of alkali
B) Primary excess of bicarbonate
C) Primary excess of carbonic acid
D) Primary deficiency of bicarbonate

63. __________ refers to reproducibility of the result.

A) Accuracy B) Precision
C) Specificity d) Sensitivity

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64. Choose the chromatographic separation technique for glycated haemoglobin.

A) Gas liquid chromatography
B) Ion exchange chromatography
C) Affinity chromatography
D) Gel filtration chromatography

65. Pipette used to deliver variable quantities of fluid is ______

A) Pasteur pipette B) Volumetric pipette
C) Graduated pipette d) Serological pipette

66. Identify the toxic chemical from the following.

A) Sodium azide B) Benzidine
C) Naphthyl amine d) Selenite

67. ____________ is the purest form of water.

A) distilled water B) Rain water
C) Tap water d) deionized water

68. Solution containing one gram molecular weight of substance in 1000 gram of a solvent
is __________
A) Normal solution B) molar solution
C) Percentage solution d) molal solution

69. Which of the following is used as SI unit of time ?

A) minute B) hour
C) second d) none of these

70. Glassware used for the preparation of standard solution

A) Volumetric flask B) Flat bottomed flask
C) Round bottomed flask D) Erlenmeyer flask

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71. Glucometer works on the principle of ______________

A) Optical absorption B) dry chemistry
C) Emission spectroscopy d) Radioactivity

72. Identify the location reagent used for visualization of phospholipids in chromatographic
separation.
A) Acetic acid B) diphenyl amine
C) Ninhydrin d) Sulphuric acid

73. Routine laboratory work is performed by __________

A) medical laboratory technologist
B) laboratory supervisor
C) laboratory incharge
d) medical laboratory technician

74. Blood flow of heart could be analyzed by ________

A) 99Tc B) 90Sr

C) 131I d) 51Cr

75. Which of the following is not a urine preservative ?

A) Toluene B) Boric acid
C) Formalin d) Oxalic acid

76. during laboratory waste disposal, sharp objects like needles are put in ________
containers.
A) yellow B) White
C) Green d) Black

77. Instrument in which prism is used as monochromator is _______

A) Flame photometer B) Fluorimeter
C) Spectrophotometer d) Colorimeter

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78. Pick out the primary standard chemical from the following.
A) Oxalic acid B) Sulphuric acid
C) Hydrochloric acid d) Sodium hydroxide

79. pH of plasma is _______

A) 7.9 B) 6.4
C) 7.4 d) 6.9

80. Identify the autoanalyzer which is parameter oriented.

A) Selective analyzer B) Batch analyzer
C) Random access analyzer d) STAT analyzer

81. Insulin is a __________

A) polypeptide hormone B) steroid hormone
C) amino acid derivative d) fatty acid derivative

82. Synthesis of glucose from non carbohydrate sources is known as ________

A) gluconeogenesis B) glycolysis
C) glycogenesis d) glycogenolysis

83. Which of the following parameter is not included in lFT ?

A) AlP B) SGOT
C) Creatinine d) Albumin

84. Conjugated bilirubin is ____________

A) water soluble B) water insoluble
C) partially soluble d) lipid soluble

85. The maximum energy per gram on oxidation is yielded from ___________
A) fat B) protein
C) carbohydrate D) dietary fibre

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86. The most abundant immunoglobulin is ____________

A) Ig A B) Ig E C) Ig G d) Ig m

87. The major component of gastric juice is __________

A) sulphuric acid B) hydrochloric acid
C) carbonic acid d) phosphoric acid

88. Which urinary crystal has coffinlid shaped appearance ?

A) calcium oxalate B) calcium carbonate
C) triple phosphate d) amorphous phosphate

89. T lymphocytes, provide which type of immunity to our body ?

A) cell mediated immunity B) antibody mediated immunity
C) humoral immunity d) natural immunity

90. Appearance of m band in the electrophoresis of plasma proteins is an indicator

of _________
A) leukaemia B) lymphoma
C) polycythemia d) multiple myeloma

91. Xerophthalmia is caused by the deficiency of vitamin ________

A) A B) C
C) E d) d

92. The end product of nucleic acid metabolism

A) urea B) uric acid
C) bilirubin d) creatinine

93. The pigment formed from the haemoglobin degradation in liver cells of human beings
A) bilirubin B) iron
C) urobilinogen d) myoglobin

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94. The most reliable and sensitive marker for alcoholic liver disease
A) AlT B) AlP
C) AST d) GGT

95. In acute pancreatitis which enzyme is found to be increased ?

A) ldH B) AST
C) AlT d) Amylase

96. Paradimethylaminobenzaldehyde PABA is the reagent used to detect ________ in

urine.
A) blood B) bilirubin
C) bile salt d) UBG (urobilinogen)

97. BSP test is used to detect

A) excretory function of liver B) synthetic function of liver
C) detoxifying function of liver d) none of these

98. The technique used for the identification of specific DNA fragment is _________
A) southern blot B) western blot
C) northern blot d) all of the above

99. The technique of PCR includes ______________

A) denaturation B) annealing
C) amplification D) all of the above

100. CRP, a plasma protein that is elevated in inflammations and infections, CRP falls
into which category of the following proteins ?
A) transport proteins B) clotting proteins
C) plasma enzymes d) acute phase proteins

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Space for rough Work

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