CLOSED DOOR CLUSTER 5: RADIATION SCIENCES

1. What condition will strongly suggest if the sonographic appearance 20. What structures may also be seen in the lower abdominal
demonstrates a double decidual sac with or without a fetal pole. sonographic transverse scan for male patient?

- Intrauterine pregnant - Seminal vesicles

2. What is the typical sonographically appearance of enlarged lymph 21. What describes a mass with distorted architecture, irregular
nodes? borders, and decreased transmission?

- Anechoic masses with no demonstration of through transmission. - Infiltrating mass

3. What ligamentum of the liver is observed during upper abdominal 22. Equivalent dose is
ultrasonography which is seen dividing the caudate from the left
lobe? - Sievert

- Ligamentum venosum 23. What is ultrasonic waves?

4. Weeks gestational sac ultrasonography is equivalent to how many - Mechanical

weeks of menstrual age?
24. Which is equal to the ratio of the operating frequency to the
-6 frequency bandwidth?

5. Gestational sac is often evaluated as - Transducer quality factor

- Anechoic sac surrounded by thick rind of echoic. 25. What interface may produce a comet tail artifact in an ultrasound
examination?
6. 1 Gy is the same as
- Tissue-gas
- 100 cGy
26. What is the sonographic plane that is most comparable with
7. What transducer frequency is more suitable for eye sonography? cranial computed tomography?

- 15 MHz - Axial

8. What medium is a sound travel that effectively? 27. What causes acoustic enhancement?
– Fluid-filled mass
- Compact skull
28. Attaches the liver in diaphragm and abdominal wall
9. An example of a radio sensitizer – Falciform ligament
- Hydroxyurea 29. 50rads is equal to
- 0.5Gy
10. Condition that would cause acoustic enhancement

- Fluid-filled mass 30. Acoustic parameters will determine the intensity of an

ultrasonography wave
11. Attaches the liver in diaphragm and abdominal wall - Particle displacement

- Falciform ligament 31. Typical sonographic appearance of lymph nodes

- Anechoic masses with no demonstrable of through transmission
12. What is the procedure that is also known as "short-distance"
therapy? 32. What ligament of the liver is observed during upper abdominal
ultrasound which is seen dividing the caudate from left lobe?
- Brachytherapy - Ligamentum venosum

13. Which pattern may best demonstrate hydronephrosis 33. Ultrasound waves in tissue are referred to as
sonographically - Longitudinal wave
- Fluid filled pelvicalyceal collecting system 34. Which pattern may best demonstrate hydronephrosis
sonographically
14. The cathode ray tube (CRT) used in ultrasound usually encloses
- Fluid filled pelvicalyceal collecting system
- Vacuum
35. The sonographic texture of normal testis?
15. The unit of energy - Homogenous with medium level echogenicity

- Joule 36. Supervoltage x-ray units operate in the range of

- 500-1000 kVp
16. in ultrasound examination, if the prostate is found to be enlarged,
the sonographer should also check the 37. What is the approximate dose where in a single cobalt-60 can
produce?
- Kidneys for hydronephrosis - 10.5

17. The approximate size at which lymph nodes can be depicted 38. What is the typical radiographic area of echoic lymph nodes?
sonographically - Anechoic Mass of lymph node can represent necrosis or
metastatic hemorrhages, but also suppuration in inflamed lymph
- 3cm nodes
18. The sonographic study that may be utilized to detect regularities 39. What ligament of the liver is observed during upper abdominal
of blood flow. ultrasonography which is seen delineating the caudate from the left
lobe?
- Doppler
- Ligamentous Venosum
19. What is the normal sonographic texture of the spleen?
40. The average energy of cobalt 60 beam
- Moderately echogenic but less echogenic than the liver - 1.2MeV
41. What type of therapy machine is the BEST for treatment of cancer - Angulate the transducer in a 15° caudad
using 10-15kvp?
- Grenz Rays 65. What is added (cm2). If a 15cm margin is added to the all sides of
a 15x15cm field
42. What is the useful depth dose range for Grenz Ray therapy - 31
machine?
- 2 µm 66. PDD at a given depth
- Increasing with Higher Beam Energy
43. What radiation therapy machine uses 50-150 kV potential range?
- Superficial 67. What are example of acoustic barrier of that limits ultrasound
- Bone and air
44. Which of the following is radiosensitizer?
- Hydroxyurea 68. What action should a sonographer perform when scanning a
patient that is near term complaining of feeling faint.
45. Which instrument used to detect frequency shift? - Stop the examination and turn the patient on her side
- Doppler
69. The term GTV is defined by ICRU
46. Medium that has the lowest velocity of sound. - The gross palpable or visible/demonstrable extent and location of
- Air the malignant growth.

47. Medium that has the highest velocity of soundwaves. 70. The penumbra of linear accelerator beam is
- Bone - Smaller than that of Cobalt-60 machine

48. The patient likely to be imaged using linear arrays rather than 71. An axial resolution can be improved by using
phased or curvilinear arrays. - High frequency transducer
- Infants
72. What is the average velocity of ultrasound waves in soft tissue?
49. FOD at given depth. - 1540 m/s
- Increases with lower beam energy.
73. if the frequency of the sound increases, the wavelength
50. Chromatography procedure in nuclear medicine are used to - Decreases
determine
- Radionuclide purity 74. Primarily controls the profile of ultrasound beam.
- Piezoelectric crystals
51. The ability of an imaging to detect weak reflection
- Sensitivity 75. Procedure and patient position during a treatment-planning CT
Scan
52. Radiation therapy unit that operate at approximately 50-120kvp. - Must be supine on flat surface
- Betatron
76. Immobilization is important in the radiotherapy of head and neck
53. Thyroiditis will appear sonographically as cancer due to the.
- Diffusedly enlarge thyroid lobes and decrease echogenicity - Proximity of several radiosensitive organs and often small tumor
margins
54. If as 2MHz frequency is used in a human soft tissue, the
wavelength is approximately 77. How much of a 3.5Mhz pulse be attenuated after passing through
-0.75mm 2cm of soft tissue
- 7dB
55. The three planes in a patient are across the patient, along the
patient in lateral view, along the patient in anterior view, is referred 78. What useful guide is needed to determine the electron beam
to energy in (MeV)
- Axial, Sagittal, Coronal - Multiply the maximum tumor depth in centimeters by 3

56. The level below which the signal is not transmitted through an 79. What is the material possess piezoelectric property?
ultrasound receiving system - Ceramic
- Threshold or negative level
80. What amount of backscatter?
57. The common cause of a sonographic non-visualized GB for fasting - Increase and lower beam energies
patient
- Contraction of the GB due to chronic cholecystitis 81. In an electron beam
- 20% isodose curve bulges out and 90% curve constrict
58. The percentage depth dose is dependent on
- Field size, distance, energy 82. What is the range of frequency that is contained in ultrasound
pulse
59. What sonographic demonstration in diagnosing obstructive - bandwidth
jaundice
- Mass in pancreas with dilated common bile duct 83. Tissue the produces strong reflection
- Hyperechoic/echogenic
60. What is the primary reason why betatron in radiation therapy
became unpopular? 84. Produces microwave to oscillate electron in linear accelerator.
- Produces low dose and limited film size - Magnetron

61. The ability of the imaging system to detect reflection 85. Instrument to detect frequency shift?
- Sensitivity - Doppler

62. The precaution to reduce the risk of ingestion of small fragments 86. Energy range (in Mev) for therapeutic application?
of Cerrobend materials block cutting room? - 150 to 250
- Good hygiene, wash before eating, drinking and smoking
87. Higher acoustic impedance coefficient?
63. What is the point around which the source of the beam rotates - Solid
- Isocenter
88. Material for cleaning transducer
64. When performing a transverse scan of the pelvis. What should the - Alcohol
sonographer apply to demonstrate prostate.
89. Example of radioprotector compound
- Cysteamine - Propagation sound

90. What is the clinical target area as described by ICRU? 122what is the primary effect to ultrasound beam?
- Tissue volume contains a demonstrable gross tissue volume - Detail in piezo electric crystal
(GTV) and subclinical microscopic malignant disease, which has to
be eliminated. 123 what is the sonographic display in an area of anechoic
- Echo free
91. What is the percentage reflected by the intensity of ultrasound
pulse incident upon interface by 0.25 and 0.75 rayls? 124 what type of transducer is used to improve axial resolution
- 25 - High frequency

92-104 SORRY GUYS, XRT NAKA ASSIGNED ANI SO SKIP NALANG 125 what is the factor of USD that refers to the height of the wave
PO - Amplitude

105. What is the main goal of radiation therapy in patients with bone 126 what is the factor in which acoustic impedance depend on
metastasis? - Ultrasound velocity and tissue density

- Reduce the pain and prevent fractures. 127 what is the ultrasound attenuation in soft tissue in db/cm-MGHz
- 1.0
106. What is the area for radiation therapy in which the field size is
defined when using source-skin distance (SSD) technique and a 128 what will not be distinguish in ultrasound
photon beam - Individual cells
- At the rotational axis of machine 129 what is a major factor determining the acoustic power output of
the transducer
107. What is the shape of radiation sources frequently used in
- Magnitude of voltage spike.
tandems and ovoids in radiation therapy

- Tubes 130 what sonographic study is utilized to detect irregularities of the

blood flow
108. What is the most important consideration to avoid radiation- - Doppler
induced pneumonitis in radiation therapy

- Total dose and also which portion of the lung was irradiated. 131. What structures classification are gallstone renal calyx, bone,
fats, tissues and ligaments in USD?
109. What sonographic plane is the most comparable with cranial - Hyperechoic
computed tomography
132. What is the most sensitive and specific non-invasive method in
- Axial diagnosing mitral stenosis?
- Echocardiography
110. What lesions is the most common appearance of hepatic
metastases in ultrasonography 133. In ultrasound what is the factor that is unchanged or constant
when a sound beam is refracted?
- Bull's eye - Frequency
111. What instrument is used to detect frequency shift 134. What would likely result to the near field length if a transducer
element diameter is doubled?
- Doppler
- Quadrupled
112. What is attenuation
135. What is the normal sonographic texture of the spleen?
- The progressive weakening of the beam as it travels through the - Moderately echogenic but less echogenic than liver
medium
136. What is the ultrasound display sign in bowel intussusception?
113. What is the height of the wave - Trident

- Amplitude 137. What is the least obstacle to the transmission of ultrasound?

- Blood
114. What refers to the reflection of the sound beam as it travels
through the medium 138. What is the best method to demonstrate hydronephrosis
sonographically?
- An echo - fluid filled pelvo-calyceal collecting system
115. What is referred to as distance travelled per unit time 139. What is the position that will show the portal vein as a circular
- Propagation speed anechoic structure on a sagittal scan?
- Anterior to the inferior vena cava
116. What is the percentage reflected by the intensity of an
ultrasound pulse incident upon an interface of 0.25 and 0.75 rayls 140. What the given point within the ultrasonic field the ratio of
- 25 pressure to particle velocity?
- Impedance
117. What medium in which ultrasound moves with high velocity
- Bone 141. What is the display that has a little or no valve when applied to
real time in ultrasound?
118 What is the medium where the ultrasound has the lowest velocity - A-mode
- Air
142. What is the major component of a MRI unit in the scanning
119 what would most likely be image using a linear array rather than system?
phased or curvilinear array - Magnet
- Infants
143. What modality would best demonstrate rupture to the spleen as
120 what is the range of frequency that is contained in ultrasound a result of blunt abdominal trauma?
pulse - Computed tomography
- Bandwidth
144. Which statement is true to computed tomography?
121 what is transmission of vibration from particle to particle in the
medium?
- Two essential components in digital image processing system, are - Gamma ray
analog to digital and digital to analog converters
163. What is the chemical form resulting from Tc99m eluated from
145. What is the primary goal of spiral computed tomography? the Tc99m/mo99 generator?

- To improve the volume coverage speed performance - Pertechnetate

146. What application of volume computed tomography is based on 164. What is the half-life and energy of Tc99m?
volume formulation, classifications, and image projection?
- 6 hours and 140 keV
- Three-dimensional imaging
165. What will be the resultant effect when one uses low energy
147. Where will the data from the computed tomography detectors collimator to image a medium energy isotope?
are first sent?
- Decrease resolution
- Per processor
166. What is the best indication for testicular scintigraphy?
148. In computed tomography, What is reffered to as the size, shape,
motion, and path traced by the xray beam? - Testicular torsion

- Beam geometry 167. The total number of echoes collected during time repetition in a
fast scan imaging sequence is referred to as
149. What type of image receptor is used in magnetic resonance
imaging? - Echo train length

- Coil 168. What is the coincidence resulting from two photons detected at
the same time but originate from two independent events in a PET?
150. In magnetic resonance imaging, what would best exhibit an
abnormal tissue character? -Random

- Unexpected pixel brightness 169. What type of detectors are usually used as dose calibrators?

151. What is the principal mechanism in the production of magnetic - Ionization chambers
resonance imaging signal?
170. What type of detectors are usually used as dose calibrators?
- Electromagnetic induction - Ionization chambers

152. What regions are the relaxation centers in magnetic resonance 171. What is the half-life of fluorine 18 (F-18) in minutes?
imaging? - 109.771

- Increased magnetization 172. What is the compound used to label with Technetium 99m
(Tc99m) for biliary scan?
153. What is the measurement of electric current density, induced by - Imminodiacetic acid
transient magnetic fields?
173. When is the BEST time to image the kidney using Technetium
- Ampere per square centimeter 99m dimercaptosuccinic acid (Tc99m DMSA)?
- 4 hours post injection
154. What is the approximate threshold in tesla per second as
induction of magnetic phosphenes and low frequencies?
174. What condition is best indicated for testicular scintigraphy?
-3 - Testicular torsion

155. What is the test object imaging will be performed as required of 175. What is used to reconstruct positron emission tomography (PET)
quality control in a magnetic resonance imaging system? images?
- Filtered back protection
- Daily
176. 18-fluorodeoxyglucose-positron emission tomography (18FDG-
156. What is the principal hazard to patients and personnel in a PET) images will show a map of _____ distribution in the body.
magnetic resonance imaging facility that can cause biological effect? - Glucose

- ferromagnetic projectiles 177. What is the immediate precautionary measure in the event of a
spill of Technetium-99m (Tc-99m) to one’s clothed?
157. What is referred to a pulse sequence? - Remove and store the clothes until radioactivity decays to
background
- Gradient magnetic field pulses and radiofrequency pulses
178. What is the priority activity to perform if the
158. The function of Fourier transform is to change
radiopharmaceutical is spilled on the floor?
- The MR signal into a frequency spectrum - Cover area with absorbent paper and restrict access around it

159. Gyromagnetic ration of hydrogen 179. What is the collimator that will magnify an image in nuclear
medicine?
- 42 Megahertz/Tesla - Converging

160. The production of nuclear magnetic resonance? 180. What is the best way to decrease the radioactive dose to visitors
if a post nuclear medicine procedure patient is surveyed to emit 3
- Free induction decay mR/hr at bedside?
- Have the visitor sit or stand as far as possible from bedside
161. What is the analytical method used to reconstruct CT scan
images? 181. What is the reason why Technitium-99m pertechnetate is taken
up by the thyroid gland?
- Filtered back projection - Same ion size with Iodine
162. What is the radiation detected by gamma cameras in nuclear 182. What is the mechanism of radiopharmaceutical localization in
medicine and single lung scanning?
- Capillary blockade
photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
183. What radiopharmaceutical for " hotspot" myocardial imaging. 202. What radiopharmaceutical is used for dual tracer gastric
- Tc99 PYP (Pyrophosphate) empyting study
- Tc99m DTPA in water and Tc99m sulfur colloid labelled eggs
184. What kidney function will measure with the administration of
DTPA (Diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid) in renal Scan. 203. What is the maximum exposure of other members of the public
that should not be exceeded in mSv from a patient who has received I-
- Glomerular filtration rate 131 therapy
- 5 mSv
185. What will refer IRMA (immunoradiometric assay) rather than RIA
(radioimmunoassay) 204. What is the thyroid carcinoma that can be effectively detected
and stated in a whole-body iodine scintigraphy
- Labeled antibody - Papillary

186. What is the purpose of gastric emptying study in nuclear 205. What disease process is the resultant effect from an increased
medicine radioiodine uptake by the thyroid gland
- Iodine deficiency-induced hypothyroidism
- To determine the time taken for food to be digested by the
stomach 206. What is the use of gastric emptying study in nuclear medicine
- Determine the time take for food to be digested by the stomach
187. What is the treatment in nuclear medicine patient undergoing
therapy of polycythemia. 207. What imaging method in nuclear medicine displays the
distribution of a particular radiopharmaceutical in a specific period
- P-32 Sodium phosphate - Dynamic imaging

188. What is the best position transplant kidney in nuclear medicine. 208. What is the most appropriate study or combination of studies
for the evaluation of a suspected hip joint replacement infection
- Laterally - Labeled leukocyte and sulfur colloid marrow imaging

189. What determined chromatography procedure in nuclear 209. What is the long term adverse effect that can be observed the
medicine. following administration of Iodine 131 Nal in the use of GRAVES
DISEASE?
- Radiochemical Purity - Hypothyroidism

190. What radiopharmaceutical of choice used in salivary gland. 210. In dose calibrator quality control, when is the linearity check?
- Quarterly
- TC- 99 Pertechnetate
211. Typical window size (in percent) on imaging Fluorine 18 on
191. What is the compound coupled with Technetium - 99m that are gamma camera?
used to investigate the brain? - 20

- HMPAO (hexamethylpropylamineoxime) 212. What is the use of survey meters?

- Locate the source of radiation
192. The device that could be utilized to identify spilled radionuclide.
213. The maximum allowed exposure (in cm) to other member of the
- Well counter public from patient who has received an outpatient I-131 Therapy?
-5
193. Radiopharmaceutical that is LEAST likely to localized within the
myocardium as part of the normal physiologic uptake? 214. Hemorrhage in CT scans becomes isodense after?
- 24hrs
- F-18 Florbetaben
215. The physical half-life of a radionuclide is the set for?
194. Radiopharmaceutical that is used as indicator of cellular - The nuclide to decay one half from its original activity
proliferation?
216. What happens when a nutrient deficient nucleus emits positron?
- F-18 Fluorothymidine (FLT) - Atomic mass number remains unchanged

195. What impurity is measured when Mo-99/Tc-99m generator eluate 217. Which of the following phrases is not keeping a radiation
is placed on a special test paper that changes color. exposure at a minimum?
- Chemical - Geometry of container holding radiation sources

196. What type of hyperparathyroidism is often detected in a 218. Gaseous radiopharmaceuticals may only be use to the room that?
parathyroid imaging ________.
- Primary hyperparathyroidism - Where at a negative pressure compare to surrounding room

197. When will a patient resume breastfeeding after administration of 219. Which of the following is an example of radiochemical Impurity?
I-131 - Presence of free technetium 99m in preparation tc99m sulfur
- Next pregnancy colloid

198. What is assessed in captopril renal scan 220. Which of the following phrases is effective half-life?
- Renal artery stenosis - Shorter than physical and biological half life

199. What radiopharmaceutical is used for dual tracer gastric 221. What process is involved in which the entire data set is used for
empyting study high quality, 3D images?
- Tc99m DTPA in water and Tc99m sulfur colloid labelled eggs - Volumetric rendering

200. What radiopharmaceutical is used for hotspot myocardial 222. What imaging modality would best demonstrate the post. Fossa,
imaging cerebellum and brainstem
- Tc99m PYP pyrophosphate - Magnetic resonance

201. What diagnostic imaging procedure is preferred for preoperative 223. What will primarily affect Larmor frequency
localization of hyperfunctioning parathyroid adenoma - Strength of the magnetic field
- Radionuclide scintigraphy
224. What is best to define proton density
- Hydrogen concentration - Empyema

225. What change must be made to use paramagnetic agent effective? 247.What is an abnormal permanent enlargement of the air spaces
- T1 relaxation distal to the terminal bronchioles?
- Emphysema
226. What system is involved repetition time, echo time, relaxation
time. 248. The medical diagnosis of patient who experiencing sign and
- Inversion symptoms of

227. The most common cause of noise in Ct scanning -Cystic fibrosis

- Quantum noise
249. What is a hospital acquired infection and inflammation of the
228. What is a neoplatic condition that destroys bone alveoli?
- Spondylitis
- Nosocomial pneumonia
229. What is circumscribe collection of pus occur in an acute or
250. Determine the gold standard for demonstrating gallstone.
chronic infection in the brain tissue
- Abscess - Ultrasound
230. What primary malignant bone tumor arises from medullary canal 251. What condition is referred to when a patients ventricles are filled
and occurs at a younger age between 5 to 15 years? with a large amount of cerebrospinal fluid?
- Erwing sarcoma
- Hydrocephalus
231. What is the golden standard modality demonstrating the GB
- Ultrasound 252. What is the common cause of hemorrhagic stroke?

232. What is the golden standard modality demonstrating - Aneurysm

anencephaly
- Ultrasound 253. The characteristic of this an esophagus that ends in a blind
pouch.
233. What is describes as loss in uniformity in individual cells and
their architecture orientation - Esophageal atresia
- Dysplasia
254. What is the condition on a radiographic appearance of a large
amount of gas and fluid of a small and large bowel essentially
234. What is benign epithelial neoplasm that grows in a gland-like
representing paralysis and intestinal motility?
pattern
- Adenoma
- Adynamic ileus
235.What is referred to as an avulsion fracture of the 7th cervical 255. Fracture occurs in a bone weakened by a pre-existing condition
vertebra? such as multiple myeloma and metastatic lesion?
- Clay-shoveler
- Pathologic
236.What fracture is referred to following a diving injury?
- Jefferson 256. What is the procedure that also known as short distance therapy

237.What is a lung inflammation caused by bacteria or viruses? - Brachytherapy

- Pneumonia
257. What is also known as soft x-ray
238.What is an inflammation of the small fluid-filled sacs that is
located around the joints causing reduced friction? - Grenz ray
- Bursitis
258. What is the maximum dose of 18 MV x-rays is at____
239.What is a condition characterized by a dilated calyces and renal
- 3.0 – 3.5 CM
pelvis?
- Hydronephrosis 259. The maximum dose of a 6MV photon beam occurs approximately
_____ cm depth.
240.What is the hallmark of radiographic appearance of emphysema?
- Pulmonary overinflation with flattening of domes of diaphragm - 1.5

241. What is the hallmark of a frontal radiograph of the lower neck 260. What radiation therapy machine uses 50-150 kVp potential
that shows a characteristic smooth, fusiform, tapered narrowing of range.
the subglottic airway caused by edema?
- Spasmodic Croup - Superficial

242.What is the condition wherein the radiographic appearance will 261. What is the penumbra of linear accelerator beam?
show a rounded thickening shadow with a configuration of an adult’s
thumb on the lateral neck radiograph? - Smaller than that of Cobalt-60 machine
- Epiglotitis
262. What statement attributed to beta decay?
243.What is considered medically as a “symptom”?
- A positron and negatron are emitted from the nucleus
- Vertigo
263. What is the relationship between the intensity of the beam and
244.What is considered medically as a “sign”? the source of the beam as it travels through a medium?
- Abdominal tenderness
- Inverse Square Law
245.What pathologic condition in which the hallmark manifestation is
the involvement of the pleura with pleural thickening appearing as 264. What material is NOT used as filters to low energy treatment
linear plaques of opacification along the lower chest wall and machines?
diaphragm due to deposition of industrial substances?
- Asbestosis - Tungsten

246.What condition is manifested with the presence of fibropurulent 265. What is the peak that is exhibited for protons and alpha particles
fluid in the pleural space.? at the end of their travel as MOST of their energy is deposited.
- Bragg 286. The device placed between klystron and the
waveguide system in the linear accelerator
266. What statement is NOT true regarding neutron interactions? - Circulator
- Neutron interactions directly ionizing 287. What device is placed between the klystron and the waveguide
system in a linear accelerator?
267. What device used to compensate for missing tissue as well as
increase the dose of the skin during radiation therapy treatment. - Circulator
- Bolus 288. How is a Lucite tray inserted in the path of the beam is
considered?
268. Thermoluminescent Dosimeters (TLD) are commonly made of
______. - Beam spoiler
- Lithium Flouride 289. What radioactive isotope is used in tandems and ovoids?
269. What typical device used as targets in linear accelerator? - Iridium 192
- Tungsten 290. What is NOT necessary to be included in a radiation therapy
prescription?
270. What schedule requirement for testing of door interlock in the
linear accelerator? - Side effect management teaching
- Daily 291. What photon interaction with matter that is MOST likely to occur
with radiation therapy delivery via linear accelerators?
271. What structure in or near the treatment field during radiation
therapy procedures? - Compton effect
- Organs at risk 292. What is the advantage of using optically stimulated
luminescence dosimeter (OSL) over other types of personnel
272. Where is the x-ray tube located in conventional simulator? dosimeter?
- Gantry - Can detect different energies of radiation
273. Thermoplastic devices in radiation therapy is used to 293. What interaction is responsible for neutron contamination in
immobilized______. radiation therapy?
- Head and Neck - Photodisintegration
274. Daily photon output constancy of LINAC must Should be percent 294. What is the chamber that is used to calibrate linear accelerators?
to normal limits.
-3 - Thimble
275. Where is the location of the x-ray tube in a conventional
simulator? 295. What photon interaction with matter is most likely to occur with
- Gantry radiation therapy delivery via orthovoltage?
276. Determine the approximate maximum dose (in cm depth) that
occurs in a 4MV photon beam. - Photoelectric effect
- 1.0
296. How work load is described when determining shielding of
277. What is the equipment that is primarily used to treat superficial radiation oncology departments?
skin lesions?
- Contact therapy - How often the beam is "on" each week

278. The process in which the planned field arrangement is verified 297. What is the component of a linear accelerator that is responsible
using an x-ray machine that mimics the geometry of the therapy for signaling the machine to shut off once the requested dose has
machines and produces diagnostic quality radiographs been delivered?
- Simulation
- Ionization chamber
279. What is the reason why use of betatron in radiation therapy 298. What is an example of a radioprotector compound?
became unpopular?
- Produces low dose rates and limit field size - Cysteamine
280. What is the patient’s plane across the body, along in lateral view,
and along in lateral view as applied in Radiation Therapy? 299. What is the primary purpose for a testicular protection in
- Axial, Sagittal, and Coronal radiation therapy?

281. Determine multi-leaf collimators are different from custom- - Shield the testes from the primary beam
shaped blocks in radiation therapy.
- Produce step-like field edges, leakage can occur between leaves, 300.What is the important consideration to be taken into account and
can only be used with field sizes. the contour of the patient when calculating isodose distribution?

282. What refers to cardiac toxicity from breast irradiation. - Must be accurate because it has an effect on dose
- It is sometimes a serious problem
301.The following are the signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s disease
283. The primary purpose for a testicular protection in radiation EXCEPT?
therapy.
- Shield the testes from the primary beam - Headache

302. A client with myasthenia gravis undergoing radiographic

284. What uncertainties caused margin to be added always around a
procedure.
tumor when the treatment field is designed by radiation oncologists?
- Decrease number of functioning in acetylcholine receptor sites
- Determining tumor extent, penumbra of the beam and patient
motion
303. End result of Guillain Barre Syndrome
285. What happen when aluminum, copper and thin filters are - Respiratory depression
inserted into x-ray beam?
- Low energy x-ray will be absorbed
304. The client with myasthenia Gravis in Gillian Barrie syndrome or - Time of flight, propagation speed
amyotrophic internal sclerosis to experience
324. What is the most typical Doppler shift measured clinically?
- Increase risk of respiratory complications
- 2 kHz
305.A patient who is a victim of mauling and stoning is admitted to
ER and has neurologic manifestations. He has an abnormal injury and 325. Assuming constant frequency, what happens if the diameter of
eyes that reacts only when response to pain. The Glass glow scale is an unfocused circular transducer is increased?

-7 - The beam width in the near field is increased

306. This are the parts of central nervous system 326. A 15 years old girl is noted to be developing odd, twisted
appearance to her back for the past 3 years. On examination she is
- Brain and spinal chord tall and thin. A radiograph reveals an abnormal lateral bowing of the
spine with 20 degrees lateral curvature in the mid-thoracic region.
307.Which is not part of autonomic nervous system
- Asymmetrical cartilage growth of the vertebral body end plates.
- Skeletal muscle
327. A 23 years old man notes some minor discomfort over the lateral
308.The following increases transmission of impulses in the nervous of his right knee after a day working in a cramped (because the IT put
system the desktop work station on the floor). On the physical examination
he has a palpable “bump” in this region. A radiograph of the knee
- Nodes of Ranvier and myelin sheaths lateral bony projection from the lower femoral metaphysis there is no
adjacent soft tissue swelling compose of 3 cm of bony cortex. Which
309. A laborer fell from the 3rd floor of the building where he is of the following is most likely diagnosis?
employed as a Mason. Upon through neurological examination, he
was found to have a deficit cerebellum. The RT on duty knows that - Osteochondroma
the function of cerebellum
328. A 45 years old woman has had a worse breathing for 9 years. She
- Coordinate voluntary movement and maintain trunk stability and has known to sleep in sitting of 2 pillows. She has had a difficulty for
equilibrium the past years. She has now a history. A month ago she had a stroke
with resultant ability to move her left arm she is afebrile. A chest
310.Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI are tested together for radiograph reveals normal ventricular with a prominent left atrial
border. Which of the following conditions is most likely to account
- Constriction, converging, and accommodation
for her finding?
311.The test for cerebellum are the following EXCEPT
- Mitral vein stenosis
- Proprioception test, light touch, finger to nose
329. A 72 years old woman had no major illness. Throughout her life
312. Function of cerebellum. she has had three syncopal episodes during the past 2 weeks after the
past 2 days she has develop short breathing and cough. On physical
- Coordinates voluntary movement and maintains trunk stability examination she has a febrile her blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg.
and equilibrium She has no proliferal edema. A chest radiograph reveals a prominent
313. The following combination quality control test are to be region of the left ventricle. Which of the following is most likely
performed daily on gamma cameras diagnosing?
- Field uniformities, Photopeaking
- Calcific aortic stenosis
314. What is the meaning of thermal index = 37
330. An 80 years old woman has had no major problems, but she has
- Tissue temperatures may rise 3 degrees Celsius never been physically active for most of her life. One day she falls out
to her bed and immediately notes a sharp pain in her left hip, she is
315. Which of the following is the greater output intensity? subsequently unable to ambulate without severe pain. A radiograph
shows not only a fracture for the left femoral head but also a
- Pulsed doppler compress fracture of a T10. Which of the following condition is most
likely to have?
316. The propagation speed US in the AIUM test object is
- Osteoporosis
- 1.54mm/us
331. A 44 years old man with no prior medical history has had
317. Enhancement, multipath and side lobes result in: increasing bad pain and the right hip pain for past decay. The pain is
worst at the end of the day. On the physical examination he has bone
- Artifact enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. A radiograph of the
spine reveals the presence of prominent osteophytes involving the
318. If the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at it’s vertebral bodies. There is a sclerosis narrowing the joint space of the
smallest dimension is right acetabulum seen in the radiograph of the pelvis. Which is likely
to have the condition?
- Increased
- Osteoarthritis
319. If we increased the frequency, the near zone
332. The earliest sonographic findings seen by a normal pregnancy
- Increase
- Intradecidual sac sign
320. If the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of the radial
resolution is: 333. Which of the following would be considered abnormal in the first
trimester of pregnancy
- Increased
- An embryo with a heart rate of 70 BPM
321. Which of the following is the best lateral resolution?
334. Which one of the following combinations of measurement are
- 0.06cm
routinely obtained to determine gestational age
322. What is the unit of longitudinal resolution?
- Biparietal diameter, head circumference, abdominal circumference
- Feet and femur length

323. The range equation relates distant from the reflector to ______ 335. Three minimum structures of fetal brain are
and _______.
- Cavuum septi pellucidi, cisterna magna and ventricular atrium 351. In newborn chest shows diffuse opacification with hour glass
appearance. Which one question is most helpful in making a correct
336. In performing the Ct urography, when it is best to administered diagnosis
fluorocimide
- What is the gestational age
- In all patients, as long as there is no history of allergic sulfa drug.
352. With ground glass, which one is the most helpful in ancillary
337. In which of the following patient with CT urography (including findings
scans before and after IVP contrast material) indicated a
- Pleural effusion
- 70 years old woman with a gross hematuria
352.A newborn chest show diffuse pacification with "ground glass"
338. Which of the following is also administered in addition to IVP appearance, which one question is most helpful in making a correct
gadolinium when performing excretory MRI urography diagnosis?
- What is the gestational age?
- IV Saline and furosemide

339. Which of the following is true about using gadolinium enhance 353.With ground glass What one of the helping ancillary findings?
MR urography for the upper trunk transitional carcinoma - Pleural Effusion
- It should be performed as the first line imaging instead of CT
urography 354.A newborn has aspirated thick meconium and respiratory
distress. What pattern do expect to see on CXR?
340.Which is true regarding T2 weighted MR urography - Coarse Reticular
- It requires an IV Gadolinium
355. all of the following are diagnosed prenatally by ultrasound or
341. All of the following are changes in cirrhosis that maybe seen in
MRI, expect?
the liver imaging EXCEPT
- Pulmonary Interstitial Emphysema
- Dilation heading of the biliary tree

342. A 1.5 nodule in cirrhotic liver that demonstrate per intensity T1 356.The pattern of Apparent cardiomegaly with Increase Pulmonary
weighted imaging, ISO intensity on T2 weighted imaging but without blood flow is seen with?
enhancement of arterial imaging relative parenchyma to represent - Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

- Dysplastic nodule
357.all are possible complication for bacterial infection in children,
343.Hepatic fibrosis, which of the following is true except?
- Pleuropulmonary Blastoma
- Fibrosis is usually associated with volume and refraction of liver
capsules rather than mass affect
358.What is the most definitive test for diagnosing CNS vasculitis?
344. Pseudo cirrhosis associated with metastatic breast cancer, the - CT angiography with 3D volume rendering
liver may demonstrate of the following patterns of lobes contour
abnormality
359.What are the characteristics MRI findings in disseminated
- Absent refraction of capsule cerebral aspergillosis in immunocompromised patients?
- Numerous foci of restricted diffusion in the corticomedullary
- Wide spread refraction of the capsule junction basal ganglia and thalami. with minimum or no
enhancement.
- Diffused nodularity

345. For esophageal cancer, Which of the following neo adjuvant. 360.If a patient is to receive an iodine contrast medium. you should
FDG, PET/CT. ask the patient which question?
- "Are you allergy to shellfish?"
- Used for detection of new interval metastasis that is not present
in the base line imaging
361.Before a chest radiograph procedure, what will you ask the
346. In lung cancer staging which one of the following statements is patient?
true regarding PET/CT - Did you eat before coming for a test
- Improves detection of distant metastasis compared conventional
imaging 362.What radiologic used to diagnosed gallstone?
- Barium Enema
347. Which is a potential cause of acetabular labial tear
363.Which of the following outline size, shape and position of urinary
- Trauma organ?
- KUB radiograph
- Femoral acetabular impingement

- Hip Dysplasia
364.Which of the diagnosed irregularities or compression of spinal
348. Possible sign of femoral acetabular impingement includes cord?
- Ultrasound
- An osseous prominent

- Bump in a femoral neck junction 365.What procedure is used to diagnose for Upper Gastrointestinal
bleeding?
349. The best imaging exam for acetabular labral tear - Retrograde Pyelography

- MR Arthrography 366.Which procedure includes non-ionizing radiation and strong

magnetic field to allow physician to examine internal structures and
350. Which of the following is true regarding to arthrography of the soft tissue in any area of the body?
hip
- Nuclear medicine imaging
- MR Arthrography has a high sensitivity in accuracy of at least
90% of labral tear
367. What would you tell a patient in preparation for a Barium 388. Ultrasound is a cyclic sound pressure with a frequency greater
enema? than the upper limit of human hearing. At what value does
ultrasound begin?
- Instruct the patient to follow all-liquid diet beginning in the - Greater than 20kHz
morning of the procedure.
389. The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that the machine
368. Using Harmonic ultrasound what change will you see in the can use when imaging is limited by the
wavelength? - Depth of penetration
- It is halved 390. Mirror image Artifact is caused by
- Reflection of ultrasound by highly reflective tissue interface
369. The thyroid lab value increases in T3 and T4 the value for TSH
will be?
391. The slice thickness (or elevation plane) of ultrasound can cause
- Decreased - Liquid filled structure to fill echo on adjacent structure on the
same depth
370. Sonographically echinococcus cyst (hydatid disease) will have a
characteristic of? 392. The term 'duty-factor' refers to
- The transmit pulse duration divided by the time between one
- A cyst with double wall transmit pulse and the next.

371. The hormone that is secreted by the adrenal medulla and cortex? 393. When the ultrasound frequency is increased, the Doppler shift
- Increase
- Epinephrine
394. An advantage of spatial compound scanning is that it
372. A name sign associated with a dilated Common Bile Duct. - Reduces speckle
- Shotgun 395. if the ultrasound propagation speed in the tissues under
examination is higher than the value assumed by the machine (1540
373. A benign mass composed of tangle blood vessel in the liver
m/s), object will be displayed in the image as being _their true
- Hemangioma location.
- Less deep than
374. A membranous obstruction of IVC, hypercoagulated state,
compression of hepatic vein (liver tumor or cirrhosis) or liver 396. in Doppler ultrasound the spectral mirror artifact occurs when
invasion. These are causes of what syndrome? - The Droppler angle is 90°

- Budd Chiari Syndrome 397. In colour Doppler, frequency aliasing occurs

- When the colour Doppler PRF is too low
375. What structure that may cause the IVC to be pushed anteriorly?
398. Doppler frequency aliasing can be reduced or eliminated by
- Lymph nodes - Decreasing the ultrasound frequency

376. What is the common age to contract a seminoma? 399. The width of the ultrasound beam at focus will decrease if
- Both the frequency and the aperture are increased
- 15-35
400. Imaging with tissue harmonics
377. Focal fatty infiltration, focal fatty sparring, enlarged caudate - Improves image resolution
lobe, increase echogenicity of liver - Reduces slice thickness artifact
- Reduces side lobe artifacts
- Fatty Liver Disease

378. What organism causing opportunistic infection to patients w/ 401. Echo enhancement in images indicates the presence of tissues
AIDS which have
- Low attenuation
- Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
402. Harmonic imaging is often used in conjunction with ultrasound
379. The typical frame rate of ultrasound contrast agents because it
- Between 5Hz to 50 Hz - Increases the echogenicity of the contrast agent relative to tissue

380. What is the term for concentration of matter 403. You are scanning a patient with a known mass in the left medial
- Density segment of the liver What. anatomical landmark can you use to
identify the left medial segment separate from the
381. When the vessel is halved right anterior segment of the liver?
- The resistance is Halved - Middle hepatic vein

382. The beam is narrowest in what the portion? 404. You suspect enlargement of the caudate lobe in a patient with
- Focus liver disease. What structure located the anterior border of the
caudate lobe will help you identify this lobe of the liver?
383. The area where the velocity is the highest - Fissure for the ligamentum venosum
- Within the center of the lumen
405. This thin capsule surrounding the liver is known as:
384. Type of artifact causes an ultrasound reflection to be placed at
an incorrect depth - Glisson's capsule
- Range Ambiguity
406. You are asked to rule out the presence of a recannalized
385. The width of the beam depends on what? paraumbilical. Which anatomic structure is a useful landmark in
- Depth location of this structure?

- Ligamentum teres
386. The diameter of a disc shapes unfocused piezoelectric crystal is
5mm. Estimate the minimum lateral resolution of the system 407. Which vessel courses within the main lobar fissure?
- 2.5 mm
- Middle hepatic vein
387. I - P / Area is equation of what?
- Intensity 408. Oxygenated blood supplied to the liver via:
- Portal vein and Hepatic vein
425. A 52-year-old patient known to have liver cirrhosis. Liver to rule-
409. Which of the following forms the caudal border of the left portal out focal mass because
vein? - Patient with liver cirrhosis are at increased risk of hepatic
carcinoma
- Ligamentum teres
426. You have performed an ultrasound study of a patient with
410. What ligament divides the left lobe of the liver into medial and enlarged caudate lobe. Shrunken right lobe and splenomegaly. The
lateral segments? hepatic veins could not be identified. No other abnormalities were
discovered. What should you do?
- Ligamentum teres
- Evaluate hepatic vein and IVC with color doppler to confirm
411. You are asked to perform a Doppler study on the hepatic veins patency
in the liver. What differentiates the hepatic veins from the portal
veins? 427. A patient is referred to hepatomegaly. All of which are useful
indicators of hepatomegaly except?
- The portal veins are accompanied by branches of the biliary tree - Increase diameter in main portal vein greater than 1cm
and hepatic artery
428. You have identified a single homogenic hyperechoic lesion
412. You are performing a sonogram on a slender female and notice a measuring 2.4cm in the posterior aspect of the right love of the liver.
long, thin extension of the inferior aspect of the right lobe of the What is the most common with etiology to associate this mass?
liver. This most likely represents: - Cavernous hemangioma

- Reidels Lobe 429. A patient was referred a sonogram of the liver to rule out
metastatic disease. Which of the ff. are appearances in the radiograph
413. You have detect a mass anterior and to the left of the about liver metastasis?
ligamentum venosum. The mass is located in what lobe of the liver? - All of the above appearance may be accumulated with liver
metastasis
- Caudate Lobe

414. Which of the following course interlobar and intersegmental with 431.Which of the following features are NOT part of hepatic cysts?
the liver?
- Increase attenuation
- Hepatic vein
432.You are scanning the liver when you detect irregular liver surface.
415. Which of the following correctly describe probe placement and A nodular liver surface is associated with which of the following
imaging plane to determine the 3 hepatic veins and IVC in one view? abnormalities?
- Subcostal oblique approach with probe angled superiorly to the - Cirrhosis
right
433. Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding fatty liver?
416. Patient referred for Liver ultrasound has a clinical history of
raised serum alpha feto-protein level. What would you look for? - It is an irreversible disorder

- HCC (Hepatocellular carcinoma) 434. What is the most common benign tumor in the liver

417. You are performing an ultrasound exam of the liver on a small - Cavernous hemangioma
patient with a 5 MHz curved linear array. Although you have
increased the overall gain to its maximum setting, the posterior 435. You are scanning through the liver and notice luminal narrowing
border of the liver and diaphragm are not visualized. What should of the hepatic veins. Color and Spectral doppler reveal high velocities
you do? within the strictures, this finding is common associated with which of
the following?
- Rescan the liver with low frequency transducer
- Cirrhosis
418. You are working prior to performing an abdominal ultrasound
exam. Elevated lab values in GGT & ALP. Which of the statement is 436. Which of the following associated condition to the portal vein.
TRUE?
- Concomitant evaluation of both GGT & ALP indicates the source - Hepatocellular Carcinoma
of elevated of the Liver
437. Which of the following forms the caudal border of the left lobe
419. Which of the following lab tests is NOT used in evaluation of of the liver?
liver function?
- Lipase - Ligamentum teres

438. Which of the following is the ultrasonic and least useful in

420.A patient is referred with right upper quadrant pain &
diagnostic imaging
tenderness. Patient has a history of oral contraceptive use. A solid,
hypoechoic mass is identified in the right lobe of the liver. Color - 30 Khz
doppler reveals hypervascularity of the mass. Which of the following
scenarios is most likely? 439. Which of the frequency of wave with meter second period
- Hepatic Adenoma
- 1Khz
421. A liver of the patient on a 49-year-old obese male demonstrates
diffuse increased echogenicity with a focal hypoechoic area anterior 440. If the frequency of the wave is doubled what happen to the
to the portal vein. This most likely represent: period
- Fatty Metamorphosis in the liver with focal sparing
- Halved
422. You are scanning with suspected liver cirrhosis. All of the
following are sonographic features of cirrhosis EXCEPT: 441. The time from the beginning of the pulse until the end is
- Shrunken Caudate Lobe
- Pulse duration
423. UTZ evaluation of liver cirrhosis should include which associated
442. The time that a transducer measured at 18 second of total
condition?
elapsed time. What is the duty factor?
- Portal hypertension
- 0.005
424. Focal fatty liver is most commonly found in which location?
- Anterior to portal veins at the porta hepatic
443. If the wave amplitude is doubled what happen to the power
467. Assuming constant frequency, what happens if the diameter of
- Quadrupled an unfocused circular transducer is increase.
- The beam width in the near field is increase.
444. the level of an acoustic variable ranges from 55 to 105. What is
the amplitude? 468. Which of the following sets of properties of a test phantom is
- 25 most relevant when assessing depth calibration accuracy?
- Reflector spacing and propagation speed
445. If the intensity of a sound beam remains unchanged while the
beam area is reduced in half, what happened to the power? 469. Fill in the anechoic structure as all of the following except:
- Halved - Ghosting artifact

446. Put these intensities in decreasing order 470.According to the AIUM statements on bioeffects, there have been
- SPTP, SATP, SATA no confirmed bioeffects below intensities of_________ watts per
square centimeter SPTA.
447. The duty factor for continuous wave ultrasound is
- 1.0 - 0.1

448. What is the minimum value of the SP/SA factor? 471. What components of the US unit contains the memory bank?
- 1.0
- Scan converter
449. Which pair of intensities has the same value for continuous wave
US? 472. Changing which of the following would not cause ang change in
- Pulse average and temporal average a hard copy image output?

450. The fundamental frequency of a transducer is 2.5 MHZ What is - Display brightness and contrast
the second 4armonic frequency?
473. What are the typical clinical Doppler frequencies?
- 4.8 MHz
- 1-10 MHz
451. A pulse is emitted by a transducer and is travelling in soft tissue.
The go-return time, or time of fight of a sound pulse is 130 474. If 3MHz sound has 2DB of attenuation in 1cm of tissue, what is
microseconds What is the reflector depth? the amount of attenuation of 6MHz sound in 0.5cm of the same
- 10 cm tissue?
452. The relative output of an US instrument is calibrated in db. The - 2 DB
beam intensity is increased by which of the following?
- One million times 475. The distance to a target is doubled. The time of flight for a pulse
to travel to the target and back is
453. The more pixels per inch:
- The better is the spatial resolution - 2 times

454. If we increase the transducer diameter, the beam diameter in the 476. How many bits are needed to represent 14 shades of gray?
far zone is
- Decreased -4

477. What artifact has a grainy appearance and is caused by the

455. If the transducer increases, the lateral resolution at it's smallest
interference effects of scattered sound?
dimension is
- Increased - Speckle
456. If we increase the frequency the near zone length is 478. Multiple reflections that are equally spaced are called?
- Increased
- Reverberation
457. If the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of radial
solution is_____. 479. The angle between an US pulse and the boundary between two
- Increased media is 90 degrees. What is this called?

458. What is the best lateral solution? - Orthogonal incidence

- 0.06
480. Refraction only occurs if there is:
459. What is the meaning of thermal index-37?
-The tissue temperature will decrease to 3° Celsius - Oblique incidence and different propagation speeds

460. Which of the following has the greatest output intensity? 481. Sound is travelling from the medium 1 to medium 2. Propagation
- Pulsed doppler speeds of M1 and M2 are 1600 m/s and 1500 m/s respectively. There
is oblique incidence
461. The propagation speed US in the AIUM test object is?
- Angle of incidence = angle of reflection
- 1.54 mm/us
482. Depth calibration of a machine measures 100mm spaced wires
462. Enhancement, multipath and side lobes result in: to be 90mm apart and reflector 50mm apart. What will the machine
- Artifact calculate the distance to be?
463. If the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at its - 45mm
smallest dimension is
- Increased 483. Analog scan converter. What component stores the image data
- Dielectric mix
464. What are the units of longitudinal resolution
- Feet 484. US machine displays only strong reflecting objects and nothing
else. Sonographer should?
465. The range equation relates distance from the reflector to _____ - Increase output power
and ______.
- Time of flight, propagation speed 485.Performing QA study of USP using tissue equipment phantom
made adjustment using a knob on system console that change
466. What is the most typical doppler shift measured clinically? appearance of reflector brightness from fully bright to barely visible.
- 2 kHz -System sensitivity
486.Location in a sound beam is the SPTA intensity the high the
- Focal point 504. Which of the following lab tests is NOT used in the evaluation of
liver function?
487. The impedance of tissue is 3 x 10^5 rayls and the PZT crystal is
6 x 10^6 rayls. What is the best impedance for the matching layer? - Lipase
- 9.5 x 10^5
505. A patient is referred with right upper quadrant pain and
488.Pulsed doppler measure that continuous wave cannot? tendemess. Patient has a history of oral contraceptive use. A solid,
- Location hypoechoic mass is identified in the right lobe of the liver, Color
Doppler reveals hypervascularity of the mass. Which of the following
489.What is the fraction of time that sound is transmitting scenarios is most likely?
- Duty Factor
- Hepatic adenoma
490.SPTA of the following were equal which would have the lowest 506. A Liver ultrasound on a 49 yrs old obese male demonstrate
SPPA diffuse increased echogenicity with a focal hypoechoic area anterior
- Continuous wave to the portal vein. This most likely represent
491. DB is defined as the __ of two intensities - Fatty metamorphosis of the liver with focal sparing
- Ratio
507. A 52-year-old male with known liver cirrhosis presents for an
492.Power of sound wave is increase by factor of 8. How many abdominal ultrasound. You will carefully evaluate the liver to rule out
decibels? the presence of any focal mass because of which TRUE statement
- 9db below?

493. An ultrasound system is set at 0 dB and is transmitting at full - Patients with liver cirrhosis are at increased risk for
intensity what is the output power when the system is transmitting at hepatocellular carcinoma
50% of full intensity
- 3db 508. You are scanning a patient with suspected liver cirrhosis. All of
the following are sonographically features of cirrhosis EXCEPT
494.An ultrasound system is set at 0 dB and is transmitting at full
intensity what is the output power when the system is transmitting at - Shrunken caudate lobe
10% of full intensity
- 10db 509. Frequency closest to the lower limits of US is?
- 15,000 Hz
495. A Doppler exam is performed with a 5MHz probe & a PRF of 15
kHz. Which of these Doppler shifts will create aliasing? 510. Is the distance covered by one Cycle
- 14 kHZ -Wavelength

511. What determines to the intensity of an ultrasound beam after it

496. You are asked to perform doppler study on the hepatic vein in has traveled through the Body
the liver, differentiate hepatic vein to portal vein? -Sound waves

- Portal vein are branches of biliary tree in the hepatic artery. 512. If we increase the frequency, the near length zone is?
- Decreased
497. You have detected a mass anterior and to the left of the
ligamentum venosum. this mass is located in what lobe of the liver? 513. Which pf the following terms best describes the relationship
between frequency and wavelength for sound travelling in soft tissue?
- Caudate lobe - Inverse
498. The thin capsule surrounds the liver: 514. If the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of the radial
resolution is
- Glissons Capsule. -Increased
499. Which of the following course interlobar and intersegmental with
515. Of the frequency of US is increased from 0.77 MHz to 1.54 MHz.
in the liver:
What happen to the wavelength?
- Hepatic vein -Halved

500.You are performing ultrasound examination of the liver on a 516. If the frequency of wave is double what happen to the period?
small patient with a 5 MHz curved near array. although have -Halved
increased the overall gain to its maximum setting, the posterior order
of the level and diaphragm are not visualized. What should you do? 517. Assuming constant frequency what happen if the diameter of an
unfocused circular transducer increased?
- Rescan the liver with a lower frequency transducer. - The beam width in the near field is increased

501. Which of the following correctly described the probe placement 518-521
and imaging plane you would use to demonstration 3 hepatic veins
and IVC in one view. 522. The major factor in determining the caustic power output of the
transducer is the
- Subcostal oblique approach with the probe angled superiorly and - Size of the transducer
to the right.
523. Wavelength is a measure of
502.A patient is referred for a liver ultrasound with the clinical - Distance
history of raised serum alpha-fetoprotein level. What should you look
for? 524. Which analytical technique is used to reconstruct most
computed tomography images?
- HCC -- reconstruction

503. You are reviewing lab work prior to performing an abdominal 525. With advanced chronologic age, the pancreas
ultrasound exam, Elevated lab values in GGT and ALP. Which - Decreases in size with increased echogenicity
statement is true?
526. Determine the imaging modality that would BEST demonstrate
- Concomitant elevation of both GGT and ALP indicates the source the posterior foosa, cerebellum and brainstem
of the elevated ALP is the liver - Magnetic resonance
527. Which of the following is referred to as the gray matter - Pre-patient
appearance on computed tomography?
- Midbrain 540. Which of the following devices measures the radiation exiting
the patient and feeds back the information to the host computer?
528. Identify the type of hyperparathyroidism often detected in - Data acquisition system
parathyroid imaging.
- Primary hyperparathyroidism 541. The primary mechanisms that produce sound changes in cells
and tissues are
529. Which of the following systems aims to plan and deliver a - Absorption and reflection
uniform dose (+/- 10% from the prescribed or stated dose) throughout
the volume to be treated?
- Patterson-parker 542. Determine which of the following quantitate radiochemical
impurities
530. The MOST common bacterial pneumonia is a - Gamma ray spectral analysis
- Streptococcal pneumonia
543. Which of the following ultrasound displays is seen in bowel
531. What term is used for abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in intussusceptional?
the peritoneal cavity? - Trident sign
- Ascites
544. The medical term used to describe the entry of air into the
532. Attenuation is pleural space
- A progressive weakening of the sound beam as it travels - Pneumothorax

533. What area of the spine is involved in a clay- shoveler's fracture? 545. The characteristics of sound propagation that depends on the
- Lower cervical and upper thoracic density of the medium it travels, is called the
- Acoustic impedance
534. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of noise in
computed tomography scan? 546. In an ultrasound examination, which of the following would
- Quantum noise describe a simple cyst?
- Contains fluid-fluid levels
535. Determine the pathology that is diagnosed in a MAG3
(mercaptoacetyltriglycine) renal scan with Lasix (Furosemide) 547. Which of the following is medically considered a "symptom"?
- Obstructive uropathy - Vertigo

536.Which of the following positions is the protocol for routine head 548. Which of the following is an inflammation of the small fluid-
computed tomography which involves the acquisition of a scout to filled sacs that are located around the joints that reduce friction?
set up the scans at the appropriate angle? - Bursitis
- Lateral
549. Which of the following processes is used for different tissues
537. in an ultrasound examination, the BEST approach for the attenuation values that produce one less accurate pixel reading?
evaluation of the left kidney is - Linear attenuation coefficient
- Supine
550. Ultrasonographically, which of the following structure
classifications are gallstone renal calps, bone, face, tissues, and
538. The depth of maximum dose of 4 MV x-rays is at ligaments?
- 1cm?? - Hyperechoic

539. What component of the collimator in a computed tomography

imager controls patient dose profile?

JEREMIAH 29:11 GOD BLESS FUTURE RRT 😊