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Class 9 Social Studies Sample Paper Set 3

The Class 9 Social Studies Sample Paper Set 3 is designed to help students effectively prepare for their exams by covering all key areas of the curriculum, including History, Geography, Civics, and Economics. These sample papers provide a variety of questions based on the latest CBSE exam pattern, including multiple-choice questions, short and long-answer questions, and map-based exercises.

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Artham Resources
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100% found this document useful (1 vote)
1K views11 pages

Class 9 Social Studies Sample Paper Set 3

The Class 9 Social Studies Sample Paper Set 3 is designed to help students effectively prepare for their exams by covering all key areas of the curriculum, including History, Geography, Civics, and Economics. These sample papers provide a variety of questions based on the latest CBSE exam pattern, including multiple-choice questions, short and long-answer questions, and map-based exercises.

Uploaded by

Artham Resources
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Group by Clicking the Link Below
Series ARSP/03 Set ~ 3
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/3/3
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 07 printed pages.


 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper
ontains
c 37 qustions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

Social Science

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80


General Instructions:

1. Question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All

questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each

question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each

question should not exceed 60 words.


5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question

should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b

from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.

Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.

9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

10. Note: CBQ stands for “Competency Based Question”. 50% weightage allocated for competency-based questions.

Section A
1. No one can employ a child below the age of 14 to work in any factory or mine in any hazardous work, with [1]
which law the mentioned statement is associated ?

a) Right to freedom of religion b) Right against Exploitation

c) Cultural and educational right d) Right to equality


2. Which element does firm maximize? [1]

a) Profit b) Wages

c) Salary d) Remuneration
3. Read the following data that shows the production of Foodgrains in India (Million Tonnes) and select the [1]
appropriate option from the following.
Source: Department of Agricultural, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare, Annual Report, 2018 -19.
In which decade did India experience the highest decadal increase in foodgrain production?

a) 1980-81 b) 1970-71

c) 1990-91 d) 2010-11
4. Choose the appropriate answer. [1]
A. The cabinet decide to give 27% job reservation to backward classes.
B. Parliament upheld reservation as invalid.

a) Both A and B are false b) A is false but B is true

c) A is true but B is false d) Both A and B are true


5. Which of these countries was related to Allied powers: [1]

a) Germany b) Britain

c) Turkey d) Austria
6. In which country free and fair elections are not held? [1]

a) Both China and Mexico b) India

c) Mexico d) China
7. Assertion (A): It was finally in 1946 that women in France won the right to vote. [1]
Reason (R): The Constitution of 1791 reduced women to passive citizens.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


8. Thirty-year-old Lakha Singh works as a daily-wage labourer in an urban area. He lives in a one-room rented [1]
house in a crowded basti in the outskirts of the city. It’s a temporary shack built of bricks and clay tiles. The
money is not enough to sustain his family of six-that includes his wife and four children aged between 12 years
to six months. Lakha Singh is unhealthy and not able to work efficiently as his intake of accepted average calorie
requirement is very low. With respect to the above case analyse what is the standard accepted average calorie
requirement.

a) 4800 per year b) 3600 per month

c) 2100 per day d) 2400 per week


9. Which of the following exercises only nominal powers? [1]

a) Cabinet b) Prime Minister

c) Lok Sabha d) President


10. On the political map of France, A is marked as a place that was in a state of alarm on 14th July 1789 following [1]
the king's command. Identify it from the following options.

a) Bastille b) Nantes

c) Marseillaise d) Paris
11. Which of the following is/are true with refernce to Chief Election Commissioner ? [1]
A. He/She is appointed by the President.
B. Once appointed, he/she is not answerable to the President or the government.

a) A is false but B is true b) A is true but B is false

c) Both A and B are false d) Both A and B are true


12. In which country one person, one vote, and one value is not applied? [1]

a) India b) Nepal

c) Fiji d) Sri Lanka


13. Arrange the following in correct sequence with respect to the period in which the event occurred: [1]
i. Germany pulls out of League of Nation
ii. The situation of Hyperinflation in Germany
iii. Nazi youth League established
iv. Hitler joins the German Worker's Party

a) iv, iii, ii, i b) ii, iv, i, iii

c) iv, ii, i, iii d) i, ii, iii, iv


14. Read the information given below and select the correct option [1]
The Constitution began with a Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen. Rights were established as ‘natural
and inalienable’ rights, that is, they belonged to each human being by birth and could not be taken away. It was
the duty of the state to protect each citizen’s natural rights. With the help of given information, choose which of
the following rights was not established as ‘natural and inalienable’ rights?

a) Right to life b) Freedom of speech

c) Freedom of opinion d) Right to constitutional remedies


15. Which of the following is a Constitutional right? [1]
a) Right to Property b) Right to Equality

c) Right to Freedom and Religion d) Cultural and Educational Right


16. On the political map, A is marked as a metropolitan city characterized by River Yamuna and is located at the [1]
terminal part of the Aravali hill range. Identify it from the given options.

a) Lucknow b) Dehradun

c) New Delhi d) Chandigarh


17. In which of the following states is the Wular lake located? [1]

a) Jammu and Kashmir b) Punjab

c) Rajasthan d) Uttar Pradesh


18. Who in France, wanted the government to encourage cooperatives and replace capitalist enterprises? [1]

a) Robert Owen b) Louis Blanc

c) Rousseau d) Karl Marx


19. Which of the following is a primary economic activity? [1]

a) Banking b) Trade

c) Forestry d) Transport
20. The total length of the coastline of the Indian mainland is [1]

a) 9,000 km b) 8,878 km

c) 7,516 km d) 6,500 km
Section B
21. Write a short note on Himadri. [2]
22. What do you understand by 'people as resource'? [2]
OR
What efforts have been taken by the government in the field of education?
23. Pakistan under General Pervez Musharaff was a democratic country or non democratic. Give reasons. [2]
24. How is food security ensured in India? [2]
Section C
25. How do PDS dealers resort to malpractices? [3]
26. Who was father Gapon? Narrate the events leading to the Bloody Sunday incident and the 1905 Revolution. [3]
OR
Explain the concept of Karl Marx about the socialist society.
27. Explain what measures should be taken to come out of sex unfavorable ratio. [3]
28. How can you prove that elections are democratic? [3]
29. What is the importance of civil servants in running the government? [3]
Section D
30. How did France become a constitutional monarchy? [5]
OR
Explain triangular slave trade carried on during 18th and 19th century.
31. What ideas justify that how temperature varies from place to place and season to season in our country? [5]
OR
Why is the unifying influence of the monsoon on the Indian sub-continent quite perceptible?
32. What is the impact of unemployment? [5]
OR
"Human resource is an indispensable factor of production". Elucidate.
33. "The South African Constitution inspires democrats all over the world". Explain. [5]
OR
What steps were taken by the Constituent Assembly to form the Indian Constitution?
Section E
34. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
‘For this earth is not allotted to anyone nor is it presented to anyone as a gift. It is awarded by providence to
people who in their hearts have the courage to conquer it, the strength to preserve it, and the industry to put it to
the plough.... The primary right of this world is the right to life, so far as one possesses the strength for this.
Hence on the basis of this right a vigorous nation will always find ways of adapting its territory to its population
size.’ -Hitler, Secret Book, ed. Telford Taylor.
i. To what can be the crimes of Nazis be linked? (1)
ii. What, according to Nazi ideology, was the position of the people on this territory? (1)
iii. Explain the Nazi ideology related to the geopolitical concept. (2)
35. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
India is one of the ancient civilisations in the world. It has achieved multifaceted socio-economic progress
during the last five decades. It has moved forward displaying remarkable progress in the field of agriculture,
industry, technology, and overall economic development. India has also contributed significantly to the making
of world history. India is a vast country. Lying entirely in the Northern hemisphere the mainland extends
between latitudes 8°4'N and 37°6'N and longitudes 68°7'E and 97°25'E. The Tropic of Cancer divides the
country into almost two equal parts. To the southeast and southwest of the mainland, lie the Andaman and
Nicobar Islands and the Lakshadweep Islands in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea respectively. The
southernmost point of the Indian Union was submerged under the seawater in 2004 during the Tsunami.
i. Name the southernmost point of the Indian Union that submerged under the seawater in 2004 during the
Tsunami. (1)
ii. Tropic of Cancer divides the country into almost two equal parts. What is the latitudinal value of the
Tropic of Cancer? (1)
iii. Give the names of India's two island groups. (2)
36. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 aims to provide 100 days of wage
employment to every household to ensure livelihood security in rural areas. It also aimed at sustainable
development to address the cause of drought, deforestation and soil erosion. One-third of the proposed jobs have
been reserved for women. Prime Minister Rozgar Yozana is another scheme which was started in 1993. The aim
of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and
small towns. They are helped in setting up small business and industries. Rural Employment Generation
Programme was launched in 1995. The aim of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities in rural
areas and small towns. A target for creating 25 lakh new jobs has been set for the programme under the Tenth
Five Year plan. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana was launched in 1999. The programme aims at bringing
the assisted poor families above the poverty line by organising them into self help groups through a mix of bank
credit and government subsidy. Under the Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yozana launched in 2000, additional
central assistance is given to states for basic services such as primary health, primary education, rural shelter,
rural drinking water and rural electrification. The results of these programmes have been mixed. One of the
major reasons for less effectiveness is the lack of proper implementation and right targeting. Moreover, there has
been a lot of overlapping of schemes. Despite good intentions, the benefits of these schemes are not fully
reached to the deserving poor. Therefore, the major emphasis in recent years is on proper monitoring of all the
poverty alleviation programmes.
i. Explain any one cause for the less effectiveness of poverty alleviation programmes? (1)
ii. Explain any two features of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005? (1)
iii. What objectives did SGSY have? (2)
Section F
37. i. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of the world. Identify then and write their [5]
correct names on the lines drawn near them
A. The city where the fortress-like prison was stormed.
B. Territories under German expansion.
ii. On the outline map of India locate and label ANY THREE of the following with suitable Symbols.
a. Pulicat - Lake
b. Mudumalai - Wildlife Sanctuaries
c. The state has the lowest density of population
d. Ranganthitto - Bird Sanctuaries

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