Xii-Phys MCQS PDF-MR - Anonymous

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PHYSICS HEAT & THERMODYNAMICS CH#11
1. The degree of hotness or coldness of an object is expressed in terms of:

a) Heat capacity b) Heat
c) Temperature d) Heat energy
2. Which of the following properties of matter is used in the construction of a thermometer:
a) Expansion of matter on heating b) Change of color with temperature
c) Increase of resistance with rise of temperature d) All of these
3. Mercury is used in mercury-in-glass thermometer as a thermometric substance because:
a) It does not wet the capillary tube walls b) It is opaque
c) Its expansion is uniform over a wide range of temperature
d) All of above
4. Two fixed points used for the temperature scales are:
a) The temperature of freezing and boiling mercury
b) The temperature of melting ice and boiling water
c) The temperature of water at 0oC and 100oC d) None of these
5. In liquid-in-glass thermometer, the thermometric property used is:
a) Thermal expansion b) Color change on heating
c) Resistance change on heating d) None of these
6. The lower and upper fixed points on Celsius (centigrade) scale are taken to be:
a) 0o and 212o b) 32o and 273o
c) 0o and 100o d) None of these
7. A Celsius (centigrade) degree is greater than a Fahrenheit degree by:
a) 5/9 b) 9/5
c) 18/5 d) 9/10
8. The Centigrade and Fahrenheit scales have the same reading at:
a) 40o b) 140o
o
c) -140 d) -40o
9. The relationship between Celsius and Fahrenheit scales temperature is:
a) Fo = 9/5 Co - 32 b) Fo = 9/5 Co + 32
o o
c) C = 9/5 F + 32 d) None of these
10. The temperature of a normal human body is 98.6 Fo. This temperature corresponds to:
a) 20 Co b) 30 Co
o
c) 37 C d) 66.6 Co
11. The temperature of normal human body is 37 Co. On Kelvin scale, it is equal to:
a) 373 Ko b) 273 Ko
o
c) 310 K d) 236 Ko
12. One degree of centigrade scale is equal to:
a) 1o of Fahrenheit b) 1.8o of Fahrenheit
c) 32o of Fahrenheit d) 3o of Fahrenheit
13. 10 Co corresponds to:
a) 273o K b) 283o K
c) 263o K d) 100o K
14. The temperature of absolute zero corresponds to:
a) -273 Co b) 273 Co
o
c) 0 C d) 20 Co
15. What temperature on Fahrenheit scale corresponds to absolute zero?
a) 212o F b) 32o F
o
c) -32 F d) -460o F
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16. One Calorie is equal to:

a) 41.8 J b) 4.18 J
c) 18.4 J d) 4.35 J
17. SI unit of heat energy is:
a) Calorie b) B.T.U.
c) Joule d) Kilo-Calorie
18. Absolute zero is considered to be the temperature at which:
a) All gases become liquids b) All liquids become gases
c) Water freezes d) Molecular motion in gases would cease
19. The Kelvin and Fahrenheit scales show the same reading at:
a) 57.42o b) 5.74o
o
c) 574.25 d) -574.25o
20. Which of the following does not have the same units:
a) Mechanical energy b) Kinetic energy
c) Heat energy d) Power
21. Melting point of ice and boiling point of water in Fahrenheit scale are taken as:
a) 0o and 100o b) 32o and 272o
c) 100o and 373o d) 32o and 212o
22. Which of the following represents the total energy of the molecules of the substance:
a) Translational K.E. and rotational K.E. b) Rotational K.E. and Vibrational K.E.
c) Vibrational K.E., Translational K.E. and Potential energy
d) Translational K.E, Vibrational K.E, rotational K.E. and Potential energy
23. The average K.E of all the molecules in a substance is a measure of:
a) Heat energy b) Temperature
c) Boiling point d) Specific heat
24. The total sum of all the energies of the molecules in a substance is called:
a) Heat energy b) Kinetic energy
c) Temperature d) Potential energy
25. Keeping temperature of gas constant, the Boyl’s law can be expressed as:
a) V  P b) V  1/P
c) V  1/T d) P  V
27. When pressure of gas remains constant, the Charle’s law can be expressed as:
a) V  T b) V  1/T
c) V  P d) None of these
28. At constant pressure, the graph between volume (V) and temperature (T) is:
a) A curve b) A parabola
c) A hyperbola d) A straight line
29. Real gases strictly obey gas laws at:
a) Low pressure & low temperature b) High pressure & low temperature
c) Low pressure & high temperature d) High pressure & high temperature
30. “Volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature (absolute) while keeping pressure
constant”, this is called:
a) Boyl’s law b) Charle’s law
c) Ideal gas law d) None of these
31. “Volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure while keeping temperature constant”,
this is called:
a) Boyl’s law b) Charle’s law
c) Ideal gas law d) None of these
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32. For a gas obeying Boyl’s law if the pressure is doubled, the volume becomes:
a) Three fold b) Double
c) One-half d) Remains the same
33. The K.E. of the molecules of an ideal gas at absolute zero will be:
a) Zero b) Infinite
c) Very high d) Below zero
34. At absolute zero of temperature, the molecules have:
a) Rotational K.E b) Translational K.E
c) Maximum energy d) Zero energy
35. In an ideal gas, the molecules have:
a) Kinetic energy only b) Potential energy only
c) Both Kinetic and Potential energies d) None of these
36. The molecules of the gas exert pressure on the walls of the container due to:
a) Their velocity b) Their continuous collision
c) Their free motion d) Their energy
37. The relation between Boltzman constant K, gas constant R and Avogadro’s number NA is:
a) K = NA/R b) K= RNA
c) K = R/NA d) K = R - NA
38. The pressure exerted by the gas molecules is:
a) Inversely proportional to average translational K.E. of molecules
b) Directly proportional to average translational K.E. of molecules
c) Inversely proportional to number of molecules per unit volume of the gas
d) None of the above
39. The absolute temperature of an ideal gas is:
a) Directly proportional to average translational K.E. of the molecules
b) Inversely proportional to average translational K.E. of the molecules
c) Directly proportional to the universal gas constant
41. Heat is form of energy associated with:
a) Molecular mass b) Molecular motion
c) Molecular weight d) None of these
42. The pressure of gas, at constant temperature, varies with density as:
a) P  1/  b) P  1/  2
c) P   d) P   2
43. When the pressure is increased, the boiling point of liquid:

a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged d) All of these
44. The pressure is measured in units of:
a) Pascal b) Atmosphere
c) N/m2 d) All of these
45. The change in length per unit length per Kelvin rise temperature is called:
a) Coefficient of superficial expansion b) Coefficient of volume expansion
c) Coefficient of linear expansion d) None of these
46. The linear thermal expansion is related to:
a) Liquids only b) Gases only
c) Both liquids and gases d) Solids only
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47. When most substances are heated:

a) They expand b) Their volume increases
c) Their density decreases d) All of these
48. The change in volume per unit volume per Kelvin rise in temperature is called:
a) Coefficient of linear expansion b) Coefficient of thermal conductivity
c) Temperature coefficient d) Coefficient of volume expansion
49. The relation between coefficient of linear expansion (  ) and coefficient of volume expansion
( ) is:
a)  =  /2 b)  = 
c)  = 2  d)  = 3 
50. An inflated tyre suddenly bursts, due to which the temperature of air:
a) Decreases b) Increases
c) Remains the same d) None of these
51. SI unit of coefficient of linear expansion (or volume expansion) is:
a) C° b) K°
-1 -1
c) C° d) K°
52. The energy of molecular motion appears in the form of:
a) Temperature b) Friction
c) Potential energy d) Heat
53. Ice becomes slippery when man walks on it because:
a) There is no friction b) Increase of pressure causes it to melt
c) Ice surface is smooth d) It is very cold
54. A thermometer made by bonding together two dissimilar metals having different thermal
expansivity is called:
a) A liquid thermometer b) A resistance thermometer
c) A maximum & minimum thermometer d) A bimetallic thermometer
55. Bimetallic thermometer is used:
a) In automobiles for the automatic choke b) In thermostats for refrigerator
c) As an oven thermometer d) All of these
56. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of body through 1 Ko is called:
a) Heat capacity b) Specific heat
c) Calorie d) Heat of fusion
57. The amount of heat energy required to raise temperature of 1 Kg of substance through 1 K is
called:
a) Heat capacity b) Specific heat
c) Molar heat capacity d) Heat of vaporization
58. The relation between heat capacity and specific heat is:
a) Heat capacity = specific heat/mss b) Heat capacity = specific heat  mass
c) Heat capacity = specific heat – mass d) None of these
59. Heat gained (or lost) by a body of mass m and specific heat c when its temperature is raised
through t , is gained by:
a) Q = m T / c b) Q = m c/ T
c) Q = m c T d) Q = m c T / m
60. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1 Co is called:
a) Joule b) Calorie
c) Kilo Calorie d) B.T.U.
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61. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water through 1Ko is called:
a) Calorie b) Kilo Calorie
c) Joule d) None of these
62. The heat capacity per unit mass of a body is called:
a) Heat of fusion b) Latent heat
c) Specific heat d) Calorie
63. Heat needed to melt 1kg of ice at its melting point without change of temperature is called:
a) Heat capacity b) Heat of vaporization
c) Specific heat d) Latent heat of fusion of ice
64. The quantity of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 mole of a substance through 1Ko is
called:
a) Specific heat b) Molar heat capacity
c) Heat capacity d) Joule
65. For a monoatomic gas, if Cp and Cv represent specific heats at constant pressure and at
constant volume respectively, then:
a) Cp < Cv b) Cp = Cv
c) Cp > Cv d) None of these
66. SI units of specific heat are:
a) J Kg/K b) J/Kg K
c) Cal/Kg K d) K Cal/Kg C
67. The product of specific heat of a calorimeter and its mass is called:
a) Latent heat b) Coefficient of heat exchange
c) Water equivalent d) None of these
68. Which one of the expressions can be used to calculate molar specific heat Cm of a substance:
a) Cm = mass  molecular weight b) Cm = specific heat  molecular weight
c) Cm = heat capacity  molecular weight d) Cm = mass  specific heat
69. The difference between Cp and Cv is equal to:
a) One Calorie b) Boltzman constant
c) Universal gas constant d) Zero
70. The ratio Cp/Cv for a diatomic gas like air is:
a) 1.40 b) 1.30
c) 1.50 d) 1.67
71. The ratio Cp/Cv for a monoatomic gas like air is:
a) 1.30 b) 1.40
c) 1.52 d) 1.67
72. Suppose heat is added to a mixture of ice and water at 0 C° until all the ice is melted. During
the melting process the temperature of the mixture:
c) Remains the same d) Decreases first and then increases
73. A system in which there is no transfer of mass and energy across the boundary is called:
a) A closed system b) An isolated system
c) An open system d) None of these
74. The rate of cooling of a body depends on:
a) The nature of the body b) The size of the body
c) The difference in temperature between the body and its surroundings
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75. The first law of thermodynamics is merely a statement of:

a) Law of conservation of momentum b) Law of conservation of mass
c) Law of conservation of energy d) Charle’s law
76. Which of the following relations express first law of thermodynamics:
a) Q = U + W b) Q = U - W
c) W = Q + U d) U = Q + W
77. In SI units, Joule is the unit of:

a) Heat energy b) Change in internal energy
c) Work done d) All of these
78. The process in which the temperature of the system remains constant is called:
a) Adiabatic process b) Isothermal process
c) Isochoric process d) Isobaric process
79. In which of the following processes no heat enters or leaves the system:
a) Isothermal process b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric process d) Adiabatic process
80. The process in which the Pressure of the system remains constant is called:
a) Isobaric process b) Adiabatic process
c) Isochoric process d) Isothermal process
81. In an adiabatic process
a) Work done is positive b) Work is done at the cost of internal energy
c) No work is done d) Neither of these
82. On a hot day or in hot climates white clothes are worn because they are good:
a) Emitters b) Absorbers
c) Reflectors d) Radiators
83. 
The equation PV = constant holds good in:
a) Adiabatic process b) Isothermal process
c) Isobaric process d) Isochoric process
84. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of the system:
c) Remains constant d) None of these
85. Which one of the following is the example of irreversible process:
a) Peltier effect b) Work done against friction
c) Melting of ice d) Isothermal process
86. Which one of the following is the example of reversible process:
a) Heat produced by current b) Melting of ice
c) Work done against friction d) None of these
87. If the temperature of the source increase, the efficiency of the carnot engine:
c) Remains constant d) None of thse
88. If the temperature of the sink is decreased, the efficiency of a carnot engine:
c) Remains constant d) Becomes zero
89. Which property of a system remains constant during adiabatic change:
a) Pressure b) Temperature
c) Internal energy d) Entropy
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90. The efficiency of a carnot engine depends on:

a) The temperature of the source only b) The temperature of the sink only
c) Both temperature of source and sink d) The working substance
91. Entropy is the measure of:
a) Order of the system b) Disorder of the system
c) Internal energy of the system d) Kinetic energy of the system
92. Net change in entropy of a system in a carnot’s cycle is:
a) Negative b) Positive
c) Entropy remains the same d) None of these
93. When the temperature of source and sink of a heat engine becomes equal, the entropy change
will be
a) Maximum b) Minimum
c) Zero d) Negative
94. No entropy change is associated with:
a) Isobaric process b) Adiabatic process
c) Isothermal process d) Isochoric process
95. Entropy is called as “Time Arrow” because the entropy of the universe:
a) Always increases b) Always decreases
c) Remains constant d) Sometimes increases & sometimes
decreases
96. Work done by an expanding gas under adiabatic condition results in:
a) Temperature increases b) Temperature decreases
c) No change in temperature d) Temperature increases first then decreases
97. The natural direction of heat flow between two reservoirs depend upon:
a) Their heat contents b) Their pressures
c) Their temperature d) None of these
98. A perfect gas is that which:
a) Obeys Charle’s law only b) Obeys Boyle’s law only
c) Does not obey gas laws d) Strictly obeys all gas laws
99. The pressure of a gas is defined as:
a) Force per unit length b) Force per unit area
c) Force per unit volume d) Force per unit density
100. The energy possessed by the molecules in a substance consists of:
a) Vibrational energy b) Rotational energy
c) Translational energy d) All of these
102. Alcohol is used as a thermometric liquid because of its:
a) Cohesive properties b) High heat capacity
c) Low freezing point d) Ability to conduct
103. Work done by an expanding gas under adiabatic condition results in:
a) Temperature decrease b) Temperature increase
c) No change in temperature d) Temperature increase first then decrease
104. Solids possess definite shape due to large:
a) Force of adhesion b) Force of cohesion
c) Force of gravitation d) Force of friction
105. Given the basic units of Joule as Kg m2s-2, what are the basic units of specific heat capacity?
a) m s-1 k-1 b) m s-2 k-1
-1 2 -1
c) Kg m k d) m2 s-2 k-1
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106. The temperature of 1 Kg of hydrogen gas is the same as that of 1 kg of helium gas if:
a) The gases have the same internal energy b) The gases radiate energy at the same rate
c) The gas molecules have same average translational kinetic energy
d) The gas molecules occupy equal volumes
107. The molar heat capacity of an ideal gas at constant pressure is greater than that at constant
volume because:
a) Work has to be done against intermolecular forces as the gas expands
b) Work has to be done against external pressure as the gas expands
c) The molecules gain rotational kinetic energy as the gas expands
d) None of these
108. When a monatomic ideal gas undergoes an isothermal change:
a) The number of degrees of freedom of the molecules changes
b) The temperature changes
c) There is no change of internal energy d) No external work is done
109. The internal energy of a fixed mass of an ideal gas depends on:
a) Pressure b) Temperature
c) Volume d) None of these
1 C 26 - 51 D 76 A 101 -
2 D 27 A 52 D 77 D 102 D
3 D 28 D 53 B 78 B 103 A
4 B 29 C 54 D 79 D 104 B
5 A 30 B 55 D 80 A 105 D
6 C 31 A 56 A 81 B 106 C
7 B 32 C 57 B 82 C 107 B
8 D 33 A 58 B 83 A 108 C
9 B 34 D 59 C 84 C 109 B
10 C 35 A 60 B 85 B
11 C 36 B 61 B 86 B
12 B 37 C 62 C 87 A
13 B 38 B 63 D 88 B
14 A 39 A 64 B 89 D
15 D 40 - 65 C 90 C
16 B 41 B 66 B 91 B
17 C 42 C 67 C 92 C
18 A 43 A 68 B 93 A
19 C 44 D 69 C 94 B
20 D 45 C 70 A 95 A
21 D 46 D 71 D 96 B
22 B 47 D 72 C 97 C
23 B 48 D 73 B 98 D
24 A 49 D 74 C 99 B
25 B 50 C 75 C 100 D
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PHYSICS ELECTROSTATICS CH#12
1. The branch of science which deals with study of _______ charges, is called electrostatics:
a) Rest b) Move
c) Simple d) None of these
2. Like charges _______ each other:
a) Attract b) Repel
c) Contract d) None of these
3. Unlike charges _______ each other:
a) Contract b) Directly
c) Attract d) Repel
4. A substance through which an electric current can pass, is called _______:
a) Conductor b) Charge
c) Electric d) None of these
5. The conductor is a substance which contains _______ electrons:
a) Close b) Open
c) Electric d) Free
6. The substance through which an electric current cannot pass, is called _______:
a) Insulator b) Conductor
c) Plastic d) Rubber
7. The insulator is a substance which does not contain _______ electrons:
a) Close b) Open
c) Free d) Pass
8. The force of attraction or repulsion between any two charges is directly proportional to the
magnitudes of the charges and _______ proportional to the square of the distance between
them:
a) Inversely b) Directly
c) Equal d) Conductor
9. According to Coulomb’s law, if “q1” and “q2” are any two charges and “r” is distance between
them, then _______:
Kr 2 q q
a) F = b) F = K 1 2 2 
q 1q 2 r
Kq 1 r 2
c) F = d) None of these
q2
10. The value of “K” is constant and it depends upon the _______ between the charges:
a) Medium b) Force
c) Direction d) None of these
11. The value of “K” = _______:
1 1
a) b)
4 0 6 0
1 1
c) d)
8 0 10 0
12. The value of “ 0 ” in Coulomb’s law is _______:

a) 4.16  10-11 Nm2 b) 8.85  10-12 C2/Nm2
c) 6.14  10-4 Nm2 d) None of these
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13. The force between two charges decreases by placing an _______ between two charges:
a) Insulator b) Iron rod
c) Constant d) None of these
14. The SI unit of charge is _______:
a) Joule b) Coulomb
c) Work d) Kilometer
15. The amount of charges which passes through a wire in one second when a steady current of 1A
is passing in a wire, is called _______:
a) One Coulomb b) One Joule
c) One Kilometer d) None of these
16. The area near an electric charge with in which it exerts force on another charged particle, is
called:
a) Electric Field b) Particle
c) Source charge d) Coulomb
17. The charge which is used to produce an electric field, is called _______:
a) Electric field b) Field charge
c) Electric intensity d) Test charge
18. The field charge is also called _______:
a) Source charge b) Test charge
c) Electric intensity d) None of these
20. The strength of an electric field is known as _______ intensity of the field:
a) Electric b) Positive
c) Coulomb d) Amount
21. Electric intensity is a _______ quantity:
a) Electric b) Scalar
c) Vector d) None of these
22. The general symbol to represent electric intensity is _______:
 
a) R b) F
 
c) C d) E

23. If the field charge applies a force F on the test charge qo, then formula for electric intensity is
_______:

 F  q
a) E = b) E = 0
q0 F
 
c) E = F q0 d) None of these
24. The SI unit of electric intensity is _______:
a) N / Coulomb b) N2 / Coulomb
c) J / Coulomb d) None of these
25. The dimensions of electric intensity are _______:
a) ML2T3 b) ML-1T3
-2 -1
c) MLT C d) MLT-3C2
26. The points where the resultant intensity is zero, are called _______:
a) Extra points b) Neutral points
c) Electric field d) Positive charge
27. The electric lines of forces start from a positive charge and end on a _______:
a) Negative charge b) Each other
c) Perpendicular d) Conductor
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28. The electric lines of forces can never _______ each other:
a) Intersect b) Change
c) Parallel d) None of these
29. The lines of forces are _______ to the surface of the conductor:
a) Intersect b) Perpendicular
30. The lines of forces do not exist inside the _______:
a) Conductor b) Image
31. As we move away from the field the field charge, the density of the lines of force _______:
a) Increase b) Zero
c) Decreases d) Null
32. Electric flux is given as :
   
a)  E = E + A b)  E = E A

E
c)  E =  d) None of these
A
33. Electric flux is a _______ quantity:
a) Scalar b) Vector
c) Zero d) None of these

34. When vector area A makes an angle “  ” with the electric intensity _______:

E  
a)  E =  b)  E = E + A
A
 
c)  E = E . A cos  d) None of these
 
35. When an angle between E and A is 0o, then flux passing through an area will be _______:
a) Minimum b) Maximum
c) Zero d) Full
 
36. When an angle between E and A is 90o, then flux passing through an area will be _______:
a) Minimum b) Maximum
c) Zero d) Null
 
37. When an angle between E and A is greater than 90o, then flux passing through an area will
be _______:
a) Negative b) Positive
c) Null d) None of these
 
38. When an angle between E and A is less than 90o, then flux passing through an area will be
_______:
a) Negative b) Null
c) Positive d) None of these
39. The formula for the electric flux through the surface of a sphere due to a charge “+q” at its
center is _______:
q 
a)  e = b)  e = 0
0 q
c)  e = q + 0 d)  e = q - 0
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40. According to _______ law, “The total electric flux through a closed surface is equal to the
1
product of and charge enclosed in the surface.”
0
a) Newton’s b) Gauss’s
c) Joule’s d) None of these
41. The formula for Gauss’s law is _______:
1
a)  e = Q b)  e = 0  Q
0
c)  e = 1   2 d) None of these
42. The work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to an other point against an
electric field is called _______:
a) Electric field b) Potential difference
c) Potential d) Volt
43. The work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity to that point against the electric
field intensity is called _______;
a) Absolute potential b) Volt
c) Joule d) Coulomb
44. The unit of potential is _______:
a) Joule b) Coulomb
c) Volt d) Newton
45. The formula for 1 volt = _______:
1 Joule 1Coulomb
a) b)
1 Coulomb 1 Joule
1 Kilometer
c) d) None of these
1 Coulomb
46. The general relation for absolute potential or voltage due to point charge “q” at a distance “r”
from it, is _______:
1 q 1 q
a) V = . b) V = .
6  0 r 4 0 r
1 q
c) V = . d) None of these
8 0 r
47. The potential due to n-point charges is _______:

1  in q i  1  n i qi 
a) V =  
4 0  i 1 ri 
 b) V = 
2 0  
i 1 
ri 
1  n i qi 
c) V = 
3 0  
i 1 
ri 
d) None of these
48. The surface which have the same value of potential at all points is called _______:
a) Concentric surface b) Equi surface
c) Equipotential surface d) Charged surface
49. The value of one electron volt = _______:
a) 1 ev = 1.6  10-19J b) 2 ev = 1.6  10-19J
c) 3 ev = 6.1  10-19J d) 1 ev = 2.1  10-19J
50. A capacitor is a device which is used to _______ charges:
a) Negative b) Equal
c) Difference d) Store
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51. The ratio between charge and potential difference is called _______ of a capacitor:
a) Difference b) Capacitance
c) Intensity d) None of these
52. The formula for capacitance is _______:
Q
a) C = b) C = QV
V
V C
c) C = d) V =
Q Q
53. The SI unit of capacitance is called a _______:
a) Joule b) Farad
c) Newton d) Capability
54. The capacitor whose capacitance can be changed, is called _______ capacitor:
a) Constant b) Variable
c) Circular d) None of these
55. The capacitor whose capacitance cannot be changed, is called _______ capacitor:
a) Fixed b) Capacitance
c) Decrease d) Capacitor
56. When a charge falls from higher potential to lower potential, it loses P.E. and _______ K.E.:
a) Fixed b) Gains
c) Loses d) Move
57. Atom is a:
a) Positively charged particle b) Negative charged particle
c) Charged particle d) Neutral particle
59. Concept of electric field theory was introduced by:
a) Michael Faraday b) Newton
c) Dalton d) Kepler
60. If electrons are added in an atom, it becomes:
a) Positively charged particle b) Neutral particle
c) Negatively charged particle d) None of these
61. The force per unit charge is known as:
a) Electric volt b) Electric flux
c) Electric intensity d) Electric potential
62. The law that governs the force between electric changes is called:
a) Ampere’s law b) Coulomb’s law
c) Faraday’s law d) Ohm’s law
63. Which one of the following is the unit of electric charge?
a) Coulomb b) Newton
c) Volt d) Coulomb/volt
64. Which one of the following is the unit of electric field intensity?
a) Volt  Second b) Volt  Joule
c) Volt  Ampere d) Volt  Meter-1
65. The force between two electrons separated by a distance r varies as:
a) r2 b) r
c) r-1 d) r-2
66. When the distance between two charged particles is halved, the force between them becomes:
a) One-fourth b) One-half
c) Double d) Four times
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67. Two charges are placed at a certain distance apart. A brass sheet is placed between them. The
force between them will:
a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Remain unchanged d) None of these
68. Two charges are placed at a distance apart. If a glass slab is placed between them, force
between them will:
a) Be zero b) Increase
c) Decrease d) Remain the same
70. There are two charges +1 micro – coulomb and 5 micro – coulomb. The ratio of the forces
acting on them will be:
a) 1 : 5 b) 1 : 1
c) 5 : 1 d) 1 : 25
71. Fg and Fe represent gravitational and electrostatic force respectively between electrons situated
at a distance of 10 cm. The ratio of Fg / Fe is of the order:
a) 1042 b) 10
c) 1 d) 10-42
72. The ratio of the forces between two small spheres with constant charges (a) in air (b) in a
medium of dielectric constant k is respectively:
a) 1 : k b) k : 1
c) 11 : k2 d) k2 : 1
73. A charge q1 exerts some force on a second charge q2. If third charge q3 is brought near q1, the
force of q1 exerted on q2:
a) Decrease b) Increase
c) Remains unchanged d) Increase if q3 is of same sign as q1 and
decrease if q3 is of opposite sign
74. A soap bubble is given negative charges, then its radius:
a) Decrease b) Increases
c) Remains unchanged d) Nothing can be predicted as information is
insufficient
76. An electric field can deflect:
a) X-rays b) Neutrons
c)  -particles d)  -rays
77. Electric intensity at a place due to a charged conductor is a:

a) Scalar quantity b) Vector quantity
c) Semi vector and semi scalar quantity d) Dimensions quantity
79. The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform surface charge density is:
a) Zero b) Constant less than zero
c) Directly proportional to the distance from the center
80. Electric lines of force about a negative point charge are:
a) Circular, anti-clock wise b) Circular, clock wise
c) Radial, inward d) Radial, outward
81. If an electron has an initial velocity in a direction different from that of an electric field, the
path of the electron is:
a) A straight line b) A circle
c) An ellipse d) A parabola
82. A hollow sphere of charge does not produce an electric field at any:
a) Interior point b) Outer point
c) Beyond 2 metros d) Beyond 10 metros
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83. The force experienced by a unit positive charge when placed in an electric field is called:
a) Potential of electric field at that point b) Moment of electric field at that point
c) Intensity of electric field at that point d) Capacity of electric filed at that point
84. The intensity at a point due to a charge is inversely proportional to the:
a) Amount of charge b) Size of charge
c) Distance of the point d) Square of the distance from the charge
88. Electric potential is a:
a) Scalar quantity b) A vector quantity
c) Dimensions d) Nothing can be said
89. An equipotential surface is that surface:
a) On which each and every point has the same potential
b) Which has negative potential
c) Which has positive potential d) Which has zero potential
90. If a unit charge is taken from one point to another over an equipotential surface, then:
a) Work is done on the charge b) Work is done by the charge
c) Work on the charge is constant d) No work is done
91. An electric dipole is kept in non-uniform electric field. It experiences:
a) A force and a Torque b) A force but not a Torque
c) A Torque but not a force d) Neither a force nor a Torque
92. Which one of the following statements regarding the capacitance of a parallel plate condenser
is wrong:
a) Capacitance of a parallel plate condenser varies linearly with common area of plate
b) Capacitance of a parallel plate condenser varies inversely with separation of the plates
c) Capacitance of a parallel plate condenser varies with the material between the plates
d) Capacitance of a parallel plate condenser varies with the metal of the plates
93. The capacitance of parallel plate condenser varies with:
a) Area of the plates b) Medium between the plates
c) Distance between the plates d) Metal of the plates
94. In a charged capacitor, the energy is stored in:
a) The field between the plates b) The positive charges
c) The negative charges d) All of these
96. Farad is a unit of:
a) Self-inductance b) Capacitance
c) Mutual inductance d) Conductance of an electrolyte
100. The capacitance of a parallel plate condenser is C. Its capacity when the separation between
the plates is halved will be:
a) 4C b) 2C
c) C/2 d) C/4
101. Two condensers of capacitance C1 and C2 respectively are connected in parallel. The
equivalent capacitance of the system is:
a) C1 + C2 b) C1 C2 / (C1 + C2)
c) C1 – C2 d) (1/C1) + (1/C2)
102. The empty space between the plates of a capacitor is filled by a liquid of dielectric constant K.
The capacitance of capacitor:
a) Increases by a factor K b) Decreases by a factor K
c) Increases by a factor K2 d) Decreases by a factor K2
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103. In order to increase the capacity of a parallel plate condenser one should introduce between
the plates a sheet of:
a) Mica b) Tin
c) Copper d) None of these
105. A capacitor is charged by using a battery, which is then disconnected. A dielectric slab is then
slipped between the plates, which results in:
a) Reduction of charge on the plates and increase of potential difference across the plates
b) Increase in the potential difference across the plates, reduction in stored energy, but no change in
the charge on the plates
c) Decrease in the potential difference across plates, reduction in stored energy, but no change in
the charge on plates
106. Electron volt is the unit of:
a) Potential difference b) Electrical energy
c) Electric current d) Capacitance
1 A 26 B 51 B 76 C 101 A
2 B 27 A 52 A 77 B 102 A
3 C 28 A 53 B 78 - 103 A
4 A 29 B 54 B 79 C 104 -
5 D 30 A 55 A 80 B 105 C
6 A 31 C 56 B 81 C 106 B
7 C 32 B 57 D 82 B
8 A 33 A 58 - 83 C
9 B 34 C 59 A 84 B
10 A 35 B 60 C 85 -
11 A 36 A 61 C 86 -
12 B 37 A 62 B 87 -
13 A 38 C 63 A 88 A
14 B 39 A 64 D 89 A
15 A 40 B 65 D 90 A
16 A 41 A 66 D 91 A
17 B 42 B 67 A 92 D
18 A 43 A 68 C 93 A
19 - 44 C 69 - 94 A
20 A 45 A 70 B 95 -
21 C 46 B 71 D 96 B
22 D 47 A 72 B 97 -
23 A 48 C 73 D 98 -
24 A 49 A 74 B 99 -
25 C 50 D 75 - 100 B
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PHYSICS CURRENT ELECTRICITY CH#13
1. Rate of flow of charge through the surface is known as:

a) Charge b) Electric current
c) Ampere d) Coulomb
2. The SI unit of current is:
a) Volt b) Coulomb
c) Ampere d) None of these
4. Free electrons are:
a) Loosely bound b) Tightly bound
c) Fixed d) None of these
5. In liquids and gases, the current is due to the motion of:
a) Positive charges b) Negative charges
c) Both positive and negative charges d) None of these
6. Conventional current (I) is due to the motion of:
a) Flow of positive charge b) Flow of negative charge
c) Flow of neutron d) None of these
7. The direction of conventional current in a circuit is:
a) From negative to positive b) From positive to negative
c) From negative to negative d) From positive to positive
8. One advantage of conventional direction of current is that current flows from:
a) High potential to low potential b) Low potential to high potential
c) Negative potential to positive potential d) None of these
9. The average velocity gained by the electrons in a conductor placed in an electric field is called:
a) Variable velocity b) Phase velocity
c) Drift velocity d) Instantaneous velocity
10. Electronic or electric current ‘I’ in a conductor is defined by the relation:
t Q
a) I = b) I =
Q t
c) I = Qt d) None of these
11. Ampere is a current in which charges flow across any cross-section at the rate of:
a) 2C/S b) 3 CS-1
-1
c) CS d) CS-2
12. Current per unit area is called:
a) Current density b) Electric charge
c) Potential difference d) Resistance
13. The SI unit of current density is:
a) m2/A b) A/m2
c) m2A d) mA2
14. If one ampere current flows through 2m long conductor, the charge flow through this in one
hour will be:
a) 2 C b) 120 C
c) 3600 C d) 7200 C
15. The relation V = IR represents:
a) Coulomb’s law b) Ohm’s law
c) Ampere law d) None of these
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16. “In an electrical circuit, the potential difference across a conductor is directly proportional to
the current flowing through it, provided the temperature of the conductor remains the same”. It is
known as:
a) Ampere’s law b) Coulomb’s law
c) Ohm’s law d) None of these
17. Measure of the opposition to flow of free electrons is knows as:
a) Conductance b) Charge
c) Current d) Resistance
18. The SI unit of resistance is:
a) Coulomb b) Ohm
c) Volt d) Ampere
19. The graphical representation of Ohm’s law is:
a) Hyperbola b) Parabola
c) Straight line d) Ellipse
20. Ohm is defined as:
a) VA-1 b) VC-1
c) AV-1 d) CV-1
21. If potential difference across the conductor is one volt and one ampere current is flowing, then
resistance of the conductor is:
a) One Farad b) One Ohm
c) One Coulomb d) One Ampere
22. Resistance of a conductor depends upon:
a) The potential difference between its ends b) The nature of material of the conductor
c) The dimension of conductor d) All of these
23. The reciprocal of the resistance of a conductor is called:
a) Specific resistance b) Current
c) Conductance d) Effective resistance
24. If the resistance of the conductor is increased then current will:
a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Remain the same d) First increase and then decrease
25. When the temperature of a metallic conductor is increased its resistance:
a) Always decreases b) Always increases
c) May increase or decrease d) Remains the same
26. If A is area of cross-section of a conductor and L is the length of the conductor, then resistivity
“” of a conductor is given by the relation:
RA L
a)  = b)  =
L RA
LA A
c)  = d)  =
R RL
27. The resistance of a conductor of length ‘L’, cross-sectional area ‘A’ and resistivity ‘  ’ is given
by:
LA L
a) R = b) R =
 A
 L
c) R = d) R =
AL A
28. The resistance of a conductor increases with the increase in its:

a) Cross-sectional area b) Diameter
c) Length d) Both diameter and cross-sectional area
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29. The resistance of a certain length of wire having diameter 5 mm is 10 Ohms. If diameter is
changed to 10mm, the new resistance will become:
a) 20 Ohms b) 40 Ohms
c) 5 Ohms d) 2.5 Ohms
30. Practical unit of resistivity is:
a) Ohm-meter b) Ohm-ampere
c) 1  -V d) 1  -F
31. Reciprocal of resistivity is called:
a) Inductance b) Specific resistance
c) Conductivity d) Current
32. Practical unit of conductivity is:
a) (ohm-m)-1 b) Ohm-m
c) (ohm-V)-1 d) (ohm-A)-1
33. The temperature co-efficient of resistivity is given by the relation:
 o  PT T   o
a)  = b)  =
PT  T o  T
PT   o T  o
c)  = d)
PT  T o  T
34. The temperature co-efficient of resistance is given by the relation:
R  RT R  Ro
a)  = o b)  = T
RT T Ro T
Ro RT RT Ro
c)  = d)  =
RT T RT T
35. The change in resistivity per unit original resistivity (or resistance) per degree change in
temperature is called:
a) Resistance b) Conductance
c) Temperature co-efficient of resistivity d) All of these
36. The SI unit of the temperature co-efficient of resistivity of a material is:
a) Ohm-m b) K
c) K-1 d) Ohm
37. The resistance of a conductor at absolute zero is:
a) Zero b) Infinite
c) Positive d) Negative
38. A good electrical conductor has:
a) Low resistivity and high conductivity b) High resistivity and low conductivity
c) No resistivity and no conductivity d) All of these
39. Resistivity of the typical metal increases:
a) With increase in temperature b) With decrease in temperature
c) With constant temperature d) None of these
40. The resistivity of a class of elements at critical temperature “Tc” falls to zero, such elements
(or materials) are called:
a) Semiconductors b) Superconductors
c) Conductors d) Insulators
41. The temperature at which the value of resistivity falls to zero is called:
a) Lowest temperature b) Zero temperature
c) Critical temperature d) Absolute zero temperature
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42. The phenomenon that the resistance of a metal falls exactly to zero at a few degrees above
absolute zero is called:
a) Conductivity b) Low conductivity
c) Super-conductivity d) Low resistivity
43. In a laboratory of Zurich, two scientists Bednorz and Mueller observed that certain ceramic
materials exhibit super-conductivity at much higher temperature, that is at:
a) T = 30 K b) T = 125 K
c) T = 40 K d) T = 20 K
44. New prepared ceramic materials have been found to be super-conductors even at:
a) T = 30K b) T = 125 K
c) T = 75 K d) T = 150 K
46. When the resistors are connected in series, then:
a) The total current through each is the same b) The voltage across each is the same
c) The total resistance is the sum of reciprocals of the individuals
d) The total resistance is the product of the individual resistors
47. If resistors R1, R2, ….. Rn are connected in series, the equivalent resistance Re is given by:
1 1 1 1 1
a) = + + …..+ b) Re = R1+R2+R3+ ….. Rn
R e R1 R 2 R 3 Rn
c) Re = R1R2R3….. Rn d) None of these
48. Why should a resistance be introduced in a circuit in series deliberately?
a) To increase current b) To decrease current
c) To control current d) None of these
49. Why should different resistance be added in series in a circuit?
a) To increase voltage b) To decrease voltage
c) To divide voltage d) None of these
50. When the resistors are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is always:
a) Greater than the greatest resistance in series b) Less than the largest resistance in series
c) Equal to the greatest resistance in series d) Less than the smallest resistance in series
51. If resistors R1, R2, ….. Rn are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance ‘Re’ is given by:
1 1 1 1 1
a) = + + …..+ b) Re = R1+R2+R3+ ….. Rn
R e R1 R 2 R 3 Rn
1 1 1 1
a) Re = + + …..+ b) None of these
R1 R 2 R 3 Rn
52. In a house circuit, all electrical appliances are connected in parallel to each other between the
line an neutral wires to get:
a) Same current b) Same current and potential difference
c) Different current but same potential difference d) Different current & different potential diff.
53. When resistors are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is always:
a) Greater than the sum of individual resistance
b) Greater than the smallest resistance in the combination
c) Less than the smallest resistance in the combination
d) Equal to the sum of individual resistance
54. Three resistors of resistance 2,3 and 6 Ohms are connected in parallel, their equivalent
resistance is:
a) 0.1 ohm b) 1.0 ohm
c) 3 ohms d) 2 ohms
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55. Three resistors of resistance 2,3 and 6 Ohms are connected in series, their equivalent resistance
will be:
a) 0.1 ohm b) 1.0 ohm
c) 6 ohms d) 11 ohms
56. As the charge flows through the conductor energy is dissipated in the form of:
a) Heat b) Light
c) Solar energy d) None of these
57. Power dissipated as heat in the conductor of resistance ‘R’ due to electric current ‘I’ is given
by:
a) P = I2R2 b) P = I2R
I2 R
c) P = d) P =
R I2
58. Power dissipated in the form of ‘V’ and ‘I’ can be defined as:
V
a) P = VI b) P =
I
2
V I2
c) P = 2 d) P = 2
I V
59. Power dissipated in the form of ‘V’ and ‘R’ can be determined as:
V V2
a) P = b) P =
I R
V V2
c) P = d) P =
R2 I
60. Unit of power, Joule/second is called:
a) Joule b) Volt
c) Watt d) Newton
61. If one ampere current flows through a resistor against potential difference of one volt, this is
called:
a) Ampere b) Watt
c) Volt d) Joule
62. Watt is equal to:
a) Joule-coulomb b) Joule-second
c) Joule/second d) None of these
63. The practical unit of power is:
a) Watt b) Kilowatt
64. One kilowatt is equal to:
a) 103 watts b) 106 watts
c) 1012 watts d) None of these
65. Heat energy dissipated in resistors is defined as:
a) VIt b) I2Rt
c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b
66. The unit of electrical energy is:
a) Kilowatt-hour b) Kilowatt
67. Amount of energy delivered by the current in one hour when it supplies energy at the rate of
1000 J/s is known as:
a) Joule b) Kwh
c) Newton d) None of these
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68. 1 Kwh = _______:
a) 3.6  106 J b) 3.6  108 J
c) 6.3  106 J d) 6.3  108 J
70. A 1000 watt heater operates on a 220 volt line for one hour. The current passing through
heater is:
a) 15 A b) 7 A
c) 5.4 A d) 4.5 A
72. A 100 watt bulb is operated by 200 volt, the current flowing through the bulb is:
a) 1 ampere b) 0.5 ampere
c) Zero ampere d) 2 amperes
73. The resistance of 60 watt bulb in a 120 volt line is:
a) 30 ohms b) 120 ohms
c) 240 ohms d) 60 ohms
74. The devices which can maintain a potential difference between points to which they are
attached are known as:
a) Source of electricity b) Source of electromotive force (emf)
c) Source of heat d) None of these
75. The work per unit charge done by the source of emf in moving a charge around a closed loop is
called:
a) Electromotive force (emf) b) Potential difference
c) Potential energy d) Kinetic energy
76. The total energy expended per coulomb of electricity when charge is driven round a circuit is
called:
a) Electromotive source b) Electromotive force (emf)
c) Potential energy d) Kinetic energy
77. The electromotive force of a battery or cell is the voltage between its terminals when:
a) The circuit is closed b) The circuit is open
c) Its internal resistance is minimum d) Its internal resistance is maximum
78. The electromotive force (emf) is defined by the relation:
a) E = IR b) E = IQ
W V
c) E = d) E =
q q
79. When we connect two given cells in parallel the total emf of the combination is equal to:
a) Zero b) Sum of emfs of the individual cells
c) The emf of the small cell d) The emf of the large cell
80. By electromotive force:
a) Sound is produced b) Heat is produced
c) Light is produced d) Current is produced
81. Electric generators convert:
a) Mechanical energy into electrical energy b) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
c) Heat energy into electrical energy d) Kinetic energy into electrical energy
82. Thermocouples convert:
a) Electrical energy into heat energy b) Heat energy into electrical energy
c) Kinetic energy into potential energy d) Light energy into electrical energy
83. Photovoltaic cell converts:
a) Light energy into electrical energy b) Heat energy into electrical energy
c) Chemical energy into electrical energy d) None of these
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84. The unit of electromotive force is:
a) Coulomb per second (ampere) b) Joule per second (watt)
c) Joule per coulomb (volt) d) Coulomb per volt (farad)
85. The source of emf converts some form of energy into:
a) Electrostatic potential (electrical) energy b) Kinetic energy
c) Chemical energy d) Nuclear energy
86. Electromotive force is closely related to:
a) Electric field intensity b) Magnetic flux density
c) Potential difference d) None of these
87. Batteries or cells convert:
a) Heat energy into electrical energy b) Chemical energy into electrical energy
c) Nuclear energy into electrical energy d) Kinetic energy into electrical energy
88. The emf of a source is equal to the potential difference across the terminals of the source when
its internal resistance is:
a) Zero b) Infinite
c) Zero or infinite d) None of these
89. Terminal potential difference ‘Vt’ of a battery of internal resistance ‘r’ and emf ‘E’ is:
a) Vt = E - Ir b) Vt = E + Ir
E
c) Vt = EIr d) Vt =
IR
1 B 21 B 41 B 61 B 81 A
2 C 22 D 42 D 62 C 82 B
3 - 23 C 43 C 63 B 83 A
4 A 24 B 44 B 64 A 84 C
5 C 25 B 45 - 65 C 85 A
6 A 26 A 46 A 66 A 86 C
7 B 27 B 47 B 67 B 87 B
8 A 28 C 48 B 68 A 88 A
9 C 29 D 49 B 69 - 89 A
10 B 30 A 50 A 70 D
11 C 31 C 51 A 71 -
12 A 32 A 52 C 72 B
13 B 33 B 53 C 73 C
14 C 34 B 54 B 74 B
15 B 35 C 55 D 75 A
16 C 36 C 56 A 76 B
17 D 37 A 57 B 77 B
18 B 38 A 58 A 78 C
19 C 39 A 59 B 79 D
20 A 40 B 60 C 80 D
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PHYSICS MAGNETISM & ELECTROMAGNETISM CH#14
1. The sources of magnetic field are:

a) Isolated magnetic poles b) Charges at rest
c) Charges in motion d) None of the above
2. A current carrying straight conductor is placed in a magnetic field perpendicular to it. The
forece experienced by the conductor is:
a) F = BIL b) F = BIL cos 
c) F = BIL sin  d) F0
3. The standard vector symbol for flux density is:
a)  b) B
c) L d) M
4. Flux density is measured in:
a) Webers b) Webers/m2
c) Weber/m d) Heries
5. Gauss (G) is smaller unit of magnetic induction which is related to tesla (T) as:
a) G = 10-1 T b) G = 10-2 T
-3
c) G = 10 T d) G = 10-4 T
6. A 2m length of a wire is carrying a current of 3 amperes at right angles to uniform magnetic
field of 0.4 weber/m2. The force on this length of wire is:
a) 2.4 N b) 15 N
c) 0.27 N d) 0.6 N
7. The force acting on a charge moving in a magnetic field:
a) is proportional to the magnetic of the charge
b) is perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the direction of motion
c) vanishes when the motion is directly opposite to the direction of the field
d) All of the above
8. 1 weber/m2 is equal to:
a) One gauss b) 3  1010 gauss
c) 104 gauss d) 1/3  10-8 gauss
9. The relative permeability of a material is measured in units of:
a) Weber-amp/m b) Weber / amp-m
c) Weber/m2 d) Weber
10. If permeability of material is  and its relative permeability is designated  r then:
a)  r =  /  b)  =  r 
c)  r =   d)  =  &  r
11. Two parallel wires carry current in opposite direction:

a) They repel each other b) They attract each other
c) They do not effect on another d) Their individual magnetic field cancel each
other out
12. The phenomena by which a changing current in one circuit causes an induced emf in another is
called:
a) The Henry effect b) Self-induction
c) Mutual induction d) The magnetic effect
13. The field around a moving charge is called:
a) Gravitational field b) Magnetic field
c) Conservative field d) None of the above
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14. The magnetic effect near the current carrying conductor was discovered by:
a) Ampere b) Bohr
c) Faraday d) Hans Oersted
15. The most suitable material making permanent magnet is:
a) Soft iron b) Steel
c) Aluminum d) Cobalt
16. The magnetic field at a point due to a current carrying conductor is directly proportional to:
a) Thickness of the conductor b) Resistance of the conductor
c) Current passing through the conductor d) Distance from the conductor
17. Two lines of magnetic force:
a) Can cross each other b) Always cross each other
c) Can never cross each other d) None of the above
18. A charged particle moving in a magnetic field experiences a magnetic force given by:
a) Fm = qV  B b) Fm = qV. B
c) Fm = V  B/q d) Fm = V. B/q
19. A charged particle moving in a magnetic field experiences a resultant force:
a) In the direction of the field b) In the opposite direction of the field
c) In the direction perpendicular to both the field and its motion
d) In the direction opposite to its motion
20. The magnetic force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field will be
maximum if it moves:
a) At an angle of 60o to the field b) Parallel to the field
c) Anti parallel to the field d) Perpendicular to the field
22. Force on a charged particle having charge ‘q’ moving with velocity V parallel to magnetic field
of intensity B is given as:
a) F = qVB b) F = qV/B
c) F = VB/q d) F = 0
23. The magnetic force acting on a unit positive charge moving perpendicular to the magnetic field
with a unit velocity is called:
a) Magnetic flux b) Magnetic filed intensity
c) Magnetic induction d) Self inductance
24. The SI unit of magnetic induction is:
a) Weber b) Tesla
c) Weber per meter d) Gauss
25. A current carrying conductor is placed in a uniform magnetic field parallel to it. The magnetic
force experienced by the conductor is:
a) F = I/B b) F = I/B sin 
c) F = 0 d) F = I/B cos 
26. The SI unit of magnetic induction is tesla which is also equal to:
a) Newton / ampere-meter or N/A-m b) Newton / ampere-meter2 or N/A-m2
2 2
c) Newton / ampere -meter or N/A -m d) None of these
27. The relationship between tesla (T) and smaller unit Gauss (G) of magnetic induction is given
by:
a) 1T = 103 G b) 1T = 10-4 G
c) 1T = 10-2 G d) 1T = 104 G
28. A 5 meter wire carrying a current of 2A is at right angles to the uniform magnetic field of 0.5
weber/m2. The force on the wire is:
a) 2N b) 4N
c) 5N d) 1.5N
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29. Total number of lines of magnetic induction passing through any surface placed perpendicular
to the field is called:
a) Flux density b) Magnetic induction
c) Magnetic flux d) Self inductance
30. Magnetic flux in terms of B and area A normal to B is defined as:
a)  = B/A b)  = A/B
c)  = BA d)  = B2A
31. The SI unit of magnetic flux is:

a) NmA-1 b) NAm-1
c) NmA-2 d) Nm2A-1
32. The unit of magnetic flux is:
a) Weber b) Weber-m2
c) Weber-m3 d) Henry
33. Weber is the unit of:
a) Magnetic field intensity b) Magnetic induction
c) Magnetic flux d) Magnetic flux density
34. The SI unit of flux density is:
a) Newton / Amp-m b) Newton-Amp/m
c) Newton-m / Amp d) Newton-m / Amp2
35. The unit of flux density is also given by:
a) Weber/m b) Weber/m2
c) Weber d) Weber-m
36. The SI unit of flux density (or magnetic induction) is:
a) Weber b) Tesla
c) Weber per meter d) Gauss
37. The standard vector symbol for flux density is:
a)  r b)  o
c) H d) B
38. When an ion (or charged particle) is projected along a perpendicular path to a uniform
magnetic field, its trajectory is:
a) Ellipse b) Helix
c) Cycloid d) Circle
39. An electron enters a region where the electric field E is perpendicular to the magnetic field B.
It will suffer no deflection if:
a) E = Be  b) B = eE/ 
c) E = B  d) E = Be  / 2
41. Magnetic field along the axis of a solenoid with n turns per meter carrying a current I is given
by:
a) B =  o NI b) B =  o /NI
c) B =  o nI d) B =  o I/n
42. The equation B =  o NI/2  R for a toroid can be derived by applying:

a) Ohm’s law b) Lenz’s law
c) Ampere’s law d) Faraday’s law
43. Which one of the following particles moving in the magnetic field cannot be deflected?
a)  -particle b)  -particle
c) Electron d) Neutron
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44. The experiments show that whenever there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with a loop
or closed circuit there is always:
a) Inductance induced b) An emf induced
c) A charge induced d) Capacitance induced
45. Electromagnetic induction is the phenomenon in which an emf is induced in the coil (or circuit)
due to the change of flux through it when:
a) The coil is moved in magnetic field b) The coil is placed in magnetic field
c) The coil is moved in electric field d) The coil is placed in electric field
46. Lenz’s law is in accordance with the law of conservation of:
a) Momentum b) Angular momentum
c) Charge d) Energy
47. The process in which a change of current in one coil causes an induced emf in another coil
nearby it is called:
a) Self induction b) Mutual induction
c) Self inductance d) The Henry effect
48. The mutual inductance of coils depends upon:
a) Stiffness of the coils b) Density of the coils
c) Material of the coils d) None of above
49. Mutual inductance has a practical role in the performance of the:
a) Radio choke b) A.C. Generator
c) D.C. Generator d) Transformer
50. The phenomenon of producing emf in the coil due to change of current in the coil itself is
called:
a) Mutual induction b) Self induction
c) Self flux change d) Mutual inductance
52. The SI unit of self inductance or mutual inductance is:
a) Maxwell b) Weber
c) Henry d) Tesla
53. Inductance is measured in:
a) Ohm b) Volt
c) Henry d) Weber
54. A 50mh coil carries a current of 2 amp. The energy stored in its magnetic field is:
a) 0.05 Joule b) 0.1 Joule
c) 10 Joule d) 100 Joule
55. The motional emf developed in a conductor depends upon:
a) Length b) Orientation
c) Magnetic field d) All of these
56. A generator is a device which converts:
a) Mechanical energy into electrical energy b) Chemical energy into mechanical energy
c) Kinetic energy into potential energy d) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
57. The emf is induced in a coil of a A.C. generator under the phenomenon of:
a) Electrostatic induction b) Self-induction
c) Mutual induction d) Electromagnetic induction
58. In case of alternating current, the average value of current and voltage is:
a) Less than zero b) Greater than zero
c) Zero d) 1
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59. An A.C. voltage measures Vo volts in a circuit. Its peak value is given by:
a) Vo b) Vo / 2
c) 2 / Vo d) 2 Vo
60. An alternating current is converted into direct current by a:
a) Motor b) Rectifier
c) Dynamo d) Transformer
61. A.C. can be measured with the help of:
a) Heating effect b) Magnetic effect
c) Chemical effect d) The Henry effect
62. Which of the following converts electrical energy into mechanical energy?
a) Transformer b) Motor
c) D.C. Generator d) A.C. Generator
63. An electric motor is a device which converts:
a) Mechanical energy into electrical energy b) Heat energy into mechanical energy
c) Magnetic energy into mechanical energy d) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
64. For electroplating we use:
a) A D.C. source b) An A.C. source
c) Any source d) None of the above
65. The only difference between construction of D.C generator and an A.C. generator is that of:
a) Carbon brushes b) Coil
c) Commutator d) Magnetic field
66. A.C. and D.C. have the same:
a) Affect in charging a capacitor b) Affect in charging a battery
c) Affect while passing through an inductance d) Heating effect through a resistance
67. Device used for converting A.C. into D.C. is called:
a) An amplifier b) An oscillator
c) A voltmeter d) A rectifier
68. A transformer is a device which:
a) Only steps down A.C. voltage b) Only steps up S.C. voltage
c) Steps up or steps down A.C. voltage d) Steps up D.C. voltage
69. A transformer consists of an iron core with:
a) A primary coil b) A secondary coil
c) Neither primary nor secondary d) Primary coil and secondary coil
70. A transformer is used to change:
a) The voltage of direct current b) The voltage of alternating current
c) The electrical energy d) The magnetic field
71. A device consisting of two coils wound or iron core is called a:
a) Rectifier b) A.C. Generator
c) D.C. Generator d) Transformer
72. The practical application of the phenomenon of mutual induction is:
a) Electric motor b) Transformer
c) A.C. Generator d) D.C. Generator
73. Frequency of A.C. used in Pakistan is:
a) 100 CPs b) 60 CPs
c) 50 CPs d) 120 CPs
74. A wire loop is moved parallel to a uniform magnetic field. The induced emf in the loop:
a) Depends on the shape of the loop b) Depends on the area of the loop
c) Depends on the nature of the loop d) Is zero
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75. Henry is the unit of:
a) Self inductance only b) Mutual inductance only
c) Both self-inductance and mutual inductance d) Induced emf
77. The inductance of a coil plays the same role as:
a) Angular momentum plays in mechanics b) Momentum plays in mechanics
c) Energy plays in mechanics d) Inertia plays in mechanics
78. An alternating current is that which:
a) Changes continuously in magnitude and reverse periodically in direction
b) Gets only its direction reversed after equal intervals of time
c) Varies in magnitude d) Flows intermittently
79. An A.C. voltmeter measures Vo volts in a circuit. Its peak value is:
a) 2Vo b) Vo2
Vo
c) Vo d)
2
81. According to Faraday’s law, the emf induced in a conductor that is moved in magnetic field
depends upon:
a) Change in magnetic flux b) Rate of change of magnetic flux
c) Final magnetic flux d) Initial magnetic flux
82. A transformer is used to:
a) Transform alternating current voltage b) Convert direct current into alternating
current
c) Convert alternating current into direct current d) convert mechanical energy into electrical
energy
83. Tick the incorrect statement:
a) There is always a lateral repulsion between adjacent lines of force
b) The lines of force originate at the north pole and end at the south pole
c) A compass needle sets itself perpendicular to the lines of force
d) Line of force is an imaginary curve
84. Tick the wrong statement in relation to an electric field:
a) The tangent to a line of the force gives the direction of electric field
b) The tangent to a line of force also gives the magnitude of the electric field
c) The lines of force per unit cross-sectional area of field gives the magnitude of electric field
d) The electric field is a conservative field
85. Particles having positive electric charge occasionally come with high velocity from the sky
towards the earth. On account of the magnetic field of the earth, they would be deflected
towards:
a) West b) East
c) South d) North
87. Flux density B is related to the magnetic flux N by the relation:
N B
a) B = b) N =
A A
c) A = BN d) B2 = AN
88. A charge moves through a magnetic field with a certain velocity. Direction of force can be
obtained by applying:
a) Cork screw rule b) Rule of cross product of vectors
c) Fleming’s right hand rule d) Ampere’s rule
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89. In moving coil galvanometer, the deflection  of the coil is related to the electric current by the
relation:
a) I  tan  b) I  
c) I   2 d) I  
90. A compass needle will be deflected if it is kept near a:
a) Positively charged body at rest b) Charged body in motion
c) Negatively charged body d) None of these
92. Magnetic field is measured by:
a) Galvanometer b) Ammeter
c) Fluxmeter d) Thermometer
96. Which of the following substance will be most suitable for the transformer core:
a) Soft iron b) Nickel
c) Copper d) Steel
98. A choke coil is used as a resistance in:
a) Wheatstone circuit b) D.C. potentiometer circuit
c) D.C. circuit d) A.C. circuit
99. A.C. has replaced D.C. in our homes because:
a) A.C. can be transmitted economically b) A.C. is more safe
c) Production cost of D.C. is more d) A.C. can be produced easily
100. When a coil is moved in a magnetic field, the induced emf in it depends on:
a) Initial magnetic flux b) Final magnetic flux
c) Rate of change of magnetic flux d) Change of magnetic flux
104. The ratio of the turns in the primary and secondary coil of transformer is 10, then the ratio of
e.m.f. will be:
a) 10 : 5 b) 20 : 1
c) 10 : 1 d) 1 : 1
105. A current is flowing north along a power line. The direction of the magnetic filed above it,
neglecting the earth’s field, is:
a) West b) South
c) East d) North
107. The magnitude of e.m.f. across the secondary coil of a transformer does not depend upon:
a) The magnitude of the e.m.f. applied across the primary coil
b) The number of turns in the primary coil
c) The number of turns in the secondary coil
d) the resistance of the primary and secondary coils
108. Magnetic fields do not interact with:
a) Moving permanent magnets b) Stationary permanent magnets
c) Moving electric charges d) Stationary electric charges
109. The needle of a magnetic compass:
a) Aligns itself perpendicular to a magnetic field b) Aligns itself parallel to a magnetic field
c) Rotates in the magnetic field of an electric current d) Is affected only by permanent magnets
113. Tick the correct relation:
a) 1T = 103G b) 1T = 104G
c) 1T = 102G d) 1T = 10-2G
114. Tick the wrong statement:
a) The charge moving parallel to B with a certain velocity V experiences no force
b) The charge moving with velocity V perpendicular to B experiences maximum force
c) The force is always perpendicular to V and B
d) The force is inversely proportional to q and V
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115. Electromotive force is most closely related to:
a) Inductance b) Potential difference
c) Magnetic flux density d) Electric field intensity
117. The e.m.f. produced in a wire by its motion across a magnetic field does not depend upon:
a) The orientation of the wire b) the composition of the wire
c) The diameter of the wire d) The length of the wire
118. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field. The effect of the field is to change the
particle’s:
a) Energy b) Velocity
c) Speed d) Direction of motion
119. The time required for a charged particle to make a complete revolution in a magnetic field
does not depend upon:
a) The magnetic flux density b) Its energy
c) Its charge d) Its mass
120. The radius of curvature of the path of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field is directly
proportional to:
a) The flux density of the field b) The particles energy
c) The particle’s momentum d) The particle’s charge
121. The fact that an electric field is produced in a conductor whenever magnetic lines of force
move across it is referred to as:
a) Lenz’s law b) Faraday’s law
c) Ohm’s law d) Ampere’s law
122. The unit of magnetic induction is:
a) weber.m2 b) weber / amp
c) weber / m2 d) weber
123. Transformers are not used in:
a) A.C. circuits b) D.C. circuits
c) Integrated circuits d) Both A.C. and D.C. circuits
125. The direction of an induced current is such that it opposes the cause that produces it, is the
statement of:
a) Faraday’s law b) Lenz’s law
c) Ampere’s law d) Gauss’s law
126. The relation between Tesla and Gauss is:
a) 1 T = 10 G b) 1 T = 102 G
c) 1 T = 103 G d) 1 T = 104 G
127. The effective value of an alternating current is:
a) 3 times its maximum value b) 2 times its maximum value
1 1
c) times its maximum value d) its maximum value
3 2
128. Tesla is equal to:
a) N/Am b) N/Am2
c) N/A2m2 d) N/A2m
130. When a charged particle is projected perpendicularly to a uniform magnetic field its trajectory
is:
a) Straight line b) Elliptical
c) Cycloid d) Circular
132. The induced current is obtained by moving a loop of wire:
a) Across a magnetic field b) Across an electric field
c) Across a gravitational field d) In field free space
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134. The SI unit of magnetic induction is:
a) Webber b) Webber per meter
c) Henry d) Tesla
135. Magnetic flux passing normally through a unit area is called:
a) Flux density b) Magnetic filed intensity
c) Magnetic field lines d) Magnetization
136. The change of magnetic flux through a circuit will produce:
a) Magnetic field b) Electric field
c) Induced emf d) Alternating current
137. A device used for converting AC into DC is:
a) Amplifier b) Rectifier
c) Oscillator d) Generator
138. In Pakistan, the voltage stepped down for domestic use is:
a) 260 volts b) 220 volts
c) 200 volts d) 180 volts
139. The magnetic flux through the area A is:
a) A  B b) B . A
c) B  A d) B / A
140. When a wire of length 3 cm is moved with a velocity of 2m/s perpendicularly in a magnetic
field of strength 10 tesla then the e.m.f. induced is:
a) 0.2 V b) 0.4 V
c) 0.6 V d) 0.8 V
141. A 15 cm wire, moving with a velocity 2 m/sec acquires an induced e.m.f. of 0.003 V whenever
dragged in a magnetic field of strength:
a) 0.01 tesla b) 0.02 tesla
c) 0.03 tesla d) 0.04 tesla
142. Which one of the following is magnitude of force acting on 1 m long wire carrying current 2A
and held perpendicular to the magnetic field of 1 / 2 tesla?
a) 1 N b) 1 / 2 N
c) 1 / 3 N d) 1 / 4 N
143. The phenomenon in which a change of current in one coil produces an induced emf in another
coil nearby is called:
a) Self inductance b) Self induction
c) Mutual induction d) Mutual inductance
145. A force of 5 N is acting on a wire of length 1 m, held perpendicular in a uniform magnetic field
of strength 5 web/m2 then the value of current passing through it will be:
a) 5 A b) 3 A
c) 1 A d) 2 A
146. The particle which cannot be deflected in a magnetic field is:
c) Electron d) Neutron
147. A particle of charge ‘q’ and mass ‘m’ moving with a velocity ‘v’ enters perpendicularly in a
uniform magnetic field ‘B’ describes a circular path. What will be the radius of that path?
a) mv / Bq b) mqv / B
c) mvB / q d) mqB / v
148. 240 KW electric power is sent to an area 20 km away from the power plant. If the transformer
lines have total resistance of 5 Ohm, then 24  103 volts, the power loss will be:
a) 200 watts b) 300 watts
c) 400 watts d) 500 watts
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149. If a certain transformer having 200 turns in its primary coil converts 11000 voltage to 220 volts
for domestic purpose then the number of turns in secondary coil should be:
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
150. Transformer is used to:
a) Increase alternating voltage only b) Decrease alternating voltage
c) Increase or decrease alternating voltage d) Increase or decrease direct current voltage
151. In step-up transformer:
a) Ns > Np b) Ns < Np
c) Ns = Np d) Ns = 0
1 C 31 A 61 A 91 - 121 C
2 A 32 A 62 B 92 C 122 D
3 B 33 C 63 D 93 - 123 B
4 B 34 A 64 A 94 - 124 -
5 D 35 B 65 C 95 - 125 B
6 A 36 B 66 D 96 A 126 D
7 D 37 D 67 D 97 - 127 D
8 C 38 D 68 C 98 D 128 A
9 B 39 C 69 D 99 A 129 D
10 B 40 - 70 B 100 C 130 B
11 A 41 C 71 D 101 - 131 -
12 C 42 C 72 B 102 - 132 A
13 B 43 D 73 C 103 - 133 -
14 D 44 B 74 D 104 C 134 D
15 B 45 A 75 C 105 C 135 A
16 C 46 D 76 - 106 - 136 C
17 C 47 B 77 D 107 A 137 B
18 A 48 C 78 A 108 D 138 B
19 C 49 D 79 A 109 B 139 B
20 D 50 B 80 - 110 - 140 C
21 - 51 - 81 B 111 - 141 A
22 A 52 C 82 A 112 - 142 A
23 D 53 C 83 C 113 B 143 C
24 B 54 B 84 B 114 D 144 -
25 C 55 D 85 A 115 B 145 C
26 A 56 A 86 - 116 - 146 D
27 D 57 D 87 A 117 C 147 A
28 C 58 C 88 B 118 D 148 D
29 C 59 D 89 B 119 B 149 B
30 C 60 B 90 C 120 C 150 C
151 A
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PHYSICS ELECTRONICS CH#16

1. When the magnetic flux changes at the rate of , then at distance “r”, the intensity of
t
induced electric field is _______:
1  
a) E = . b) E = 2  r .
2r t t
1  
c) E = . d) E = 2  r2 .
3r t t

2. When an electric flux changing at the rate of , then the strength of magnetic field “B” is
t
given as:
1 0  e
a) E = 2r b) B = 0
B 2r t
  e
c) B = 0 0 d) None of these
r t
3. According to Maxwell, the velocity of electromagnetic waves is _______ in shape:
1 1
a) b)
4 e 0 1 e e10 1
2
1 0
c) d)
0  0 0
4. According to electric field between two charged plates, we can say that a changing electric flux
creates _______:
a) Magnetic field b) Perpendicular
c) Permeability d) None of these
5. The field produces electromagnetic waves when an accelerating field is applied to a _______:
a) Magnetic field b) Charge
c) Direction d) None of these
6. The electromagnetic waves travel in free space with the speed of _______:
a) Light b) Strength
c) Sound d) None of these
7. Velocity of electromagnetic waves depends upon _______ and electric permittivity:
a) Longitude b) Magnetic permeability
c) Electric field d) None of these
8. Electromagnetic waves emitted from _______ are transverse:
a) Antenna b) Coil
c) Wire d) Straight
9. The natural frequency of an L.C. circuit is _______:
1
a) Antenna b)
2 LC
1
c) d) None of these
3 LC
10. The frequency range of electromagnetic waves is _______:
a) 106 Hz b) 108 Hz
9
c) 10 Hz d) 1011 Hz
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11. The velocity of electromagnetic waves and the velocity of light have _______ value:
a) Different b) Same
c) Opposite d) None of these
12. Sound waves travel with a speed _______ at 0oC:
a) 340 m/s b) 350 m/s
c) 310 m/s d) 330 m/s
13. We can convert sound waves into electrical oscillations by _______:
a) Microphone b) Television
c) Radio d) None of these
14. The frequency range (20 – 20,000 Hz) is called _______ range:
a) Audible b) Simple
c) Electromagnet d) None of these
15. _______ is used for the rectification of the electromagnetic waves:
a) Audible b) Compare
c) Crystal diode d) Valence band
16. A geometrical shape which consists of a diagram like square in each side. If we arranged all the
atoms or molecules in different points, then we said that this structure is called _______:
a) Molecule b) Atom
c) Crystal d) None of these
17. There are _______ ways of space lattice:
a) 14 b) 15
c) 16 d) 19
18. The figure in which eight atoms or molecules are lies at eight corners are called _______:
a) Simple cube b) Face cube
c) Free electron d) Simple square
19. The band theory gives us the simple idea about the classification of _______:
a) Liquids b) Energy
c) Solids d) Atom
20. The highest energy level is completely filled in an _______:
a) Insulator b) Semi-conductor
c) Electron d) None of these
22. The some electrons move from one level to another in _______ band:
a) Semi-conductor b) Insulator
c) Energy d) None of these
24. The value of resistivity for insulator is of the order of _______:
a) 10-4 ohm - meter b) 108 ohm - meter
6
c) 10 ohm - meter d) 1010 ohm - meter
25. The substances which have intermediate values of resistivity are called _______:
a) Semi-conductors b) Electrons
c) Circle d) Overlap
26. The crystals of Germanium and Silicon are the examples of _______:
a) Electrons b) Semi-conductors
c) Conductors d) None of these
27. A pure semiconductor behaves like an insulator at _______ temperature:
a) 120oC b) 140oC
c) Absolute Zero d) 90oC
28. The conduction due to charges produced by pair generation is called _______ conduction:
a) Intrinsic b) Hole
c) Full d) None of these
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29. The pair production and intrinsic conductivity both are low at _______:
a) Road temperature b) Hall temperature
c) Room temperature d) None of these
30. We add impurities such as _______, we can gain an N-types semi-conductors:
a) Antimony, phosphorous or Arsenic b) Carbon, oxygen and Nitrogen
c) Arsenic and oxygen d) None of these
31. The P-type semi-conductor is obtained by adding impurity materials:
a) Carbon, Oxygen and Nitrogen b) Boron, Indium or Gallium
c) Arsenic and Oxygen d) None of these
32. The germanium or silicon crystal formed after adding pentavalent impurity is known as
_______ substances:
a) N-type b) S-type
c) Q-type d) None of these
33. The single crystal of germanium or silicon, formed after adding a trivalent impurity is known
as _______ substance:
a) N-type b) P-type
c) Q-type d) R-type
34. As the conduction in a P-type substances takes place due to holes, so they are known as _____:
a) Majority carriers b) Minority carriers
c) P-type d) N-type
35. Electrons in a P-type substance due to thermal pair-generation are known as _______:
c) P-type d) N-type
36. At 0oK, a semi-conductor acts like _______:
a) P-type b) Minority carriers
c) Insulator d) None of these
37. The conversion of alternating current (A.C) into direct current (D.C) is called _______:
a) Reflection b) Rectifier
c) Reactivity d) None of these
38. There are _______ main types of rectifiers:
a) Four b) Three
c) Two d) Nine
39. In full wave rectifier, _______ diodes are used:
a) Two b) One
c) Three d) Five
40. LEDs are used in _______ watches:
a) Hand b) Digital
c) Simple d) None of these
41. LEDs are used in _______ calculators:
a) Electronic b) Digit
c) Lamp d) Panel
42. A photo diode is a semi-conductor device usually made from _______:
a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen
c) Carbon d) Silicon
43. A photo voltaic cell converts light energy into _______ energy:
a) Electrical b) Simple
c) Metal d) Diode
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44. _______ cells are used in satellites and space vehicles:
a) Electric b) Photo
c) Positive d) Diode
45. Transistor is a semi-conductor device which can amplify both the current as well as _______:
a) Ampere b) Transistor
c) Voltage d) None of these
46. There are _______ main types of transistors:
a) Two b) Three
c) Five d) Four
47. The two transistor are P-n-P transistor and _______:
a) n-P-n transistor b) n-n-p transistor
c) p-p-n transistor d) None of these
48. The middle portion of the transistor is called _______:
a) Middle point b) Base
c) Perpendicular d) Transistor
49. The process which converts low voltage signals to high voltage is called _______:
a) Amplification b) Transistor
c) Output d) Input
52. The semi-conductor diode has the property of _______:
a) Negative b) One way conduction
c) Two way conduction d) None of these
53. The transistor was invented by _______:
a) John Bardeen b) Henry
c) John Henry d) Joule
54. The changing magnetic flux causes induced emf which produces electric field in the region.
With distance from the region of changing magnetic flux, the electric field intensity:
a) Decreases inversely b) Increases inversely
c) Increases directly d) Remains unchanged
55. When magnetic flux changes, an induced emf is produced, which generates electric field in the
region. The strength of the electric field depends upon:
a) The magnetic flux b) Change of magnetic flux
c) Rate of change of magnetic flux d) None of these
56. A changing electric flux develops in the region:
a) An electric field b) A magnetic field
c) Gravitational field d) None of these
57. The changing electric flux gives rise to:
a) Electromagnetic waves b) Sound waves
c) Water waves d) None of these
58. Electromagnetic waves consist of:
a) Electric and magnetic fields moving parallel to each other
b) Electric and magnetic fields moving at right angle to each other
c) Electric field moving with velocity of light
d) Magnetic field moving with velocity of light
59. Electromagnetic waves propagate in free space with the speed of:
a) Electrons b) Sound
c) Light d)  -particle
60. Which of the following are electromagnetic waves:
a) Light waves b) Sound waves
c) Water waves d) Waves along a stretched string
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61. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves:
a) Light waves b) X-rays
c) Heat waves d) Sound waves
62. Which of the following is transported by electromagnetic waves:
a) Current b) Matter
c) Energy d) Charge
63. Which waves are emitted from antenna:
a) Stationary waves b) Longitudinal waves
c) Transverse waves d) Sound waves
64. The resonant frequency of an LC circuit is given by:
LC 1
a) f = b) f =
2 2 LC
LC 2
c) f = d) f =
2 LC
65. Electromagnetic wave transmitted by an antenna have frequency of the order of:
a) 102 Hz b) 104 Hz
6
c) 10 Hz d) 1012 Hz
67. A crystal is said to be face centred when one extra atom (or molecule) lies at eh centre of:
a) Two sides b) Four sides
c) Each of the six faces of the cube d) The cube
68. A completely filled band is called:
a) Valence band b) Conduction band
c) Forbidden band d) None of these
69. Near absolute zero temperature pure semi-conductors behave like:
a) Conductors b) Metals
c) Insulators d) None of these
70. Semiconductors have resistivity of the order of:
a) 108 ohm-m b) 106 ohm-m
c) 104 ohm-m d) 102 ohm-m
71. Germanium and Silicon are the materials used as:
a) Conductors b) Semi-conductors
c) Insulators d) None of these
72. The outer most orbit of each atom in silicon contains:
a) Four electrons b) Two electrons
c) Eight electrons d) No electrons
73. Which one of the following is not a semi-conductor:
a) Silicon b) Germanium
c) Diamond d) Gallium
74. N-type materials are obtained by dopping intrinsic germanium with:
a) Trivalent impurity atoms b) Pentavalent impurity atoms
c) Tetravalent impurity atoms d) None of these
75. P-type materials are obtained by adding germanium with:
a) Tetravalent impurity atoms b) Trivalent impurity atoms
c) Pentavalent impurity atoms d) None of these
76. The charge carries in N-type materials are:
a) Electrons b) Holes
c) Protons d) Positive ions
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77. The charge carries in P-type substances are:
a) Protons b) Electrons
c) Holes d) Negative ions
78. Which of the following is acceptor impurity:
a) Antimony b) Gallium
c) Silicon d) Arsenic
79. Which of the following is donor impurity:
a) Arsenic b) Indium
c) Germanium d) Carbon
80. Minority carriers in N-type substances are:
a) Holes b) Electrons
c) Protons d) Positive ions
81. Minority carriers in P-type substances are:
a) Holes b) Electrons
c) Negative ions d) Protons
82. Majority carriers in P-type substances are:
a) Electrons b) Holes
c) Positrons d) Negative ions
83. Majority carriers in N-type substances are:
a) Protons b) Holes
c) Electrons d) Positive ions
84. The vacant electron site when a bond is broken is called:
a) A positive ion b) A deutron
c) A hole d) An electron
85. Hole is equivalent to:
a) A neutral particle b) A positive charge
c) A negative charge d) An electron
86. A semiconductor diode when forward biased offers:
a) High resistance b) Infinite resistance
c) Low resistance d) None of these
87. A PN junction conducts only when it is:
a) Reverse biased b) Forward biased
c) Neither reverse nor forward biased d) All of these
88. The width of the depletion region in a PN junction depends on the:
a) Doping of p-materials b) Doping of n-materials
c) Doping of both the p and n-materials d) None of these
89. When the PN junction is forward biased, the width of the depletion region:
90. The forward current through a semi-conductor diode circuit is due to:
c) Holes d) Electrons
91. The reverse current through a semi-conductor diode circuit is due to:
c) Electrons d) Holes
92. Rectification is the process of converting:
a) A.C into D.C b) D.C into A.C
c) Both A.C into D.C and D.C into A.C d) None of these
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93. The device used for conversion of A.C into D.C is called:
a) A detector b) An oscillator
c) An amplifier d) A rectifier
94. In full wave rectification, the output D.C voltage is obtained across the load for:
a) The complete cycle of input A.C b) The negative half cycle of input AC only
c) The positive half cycle of input AC only d) None of these
95. In half-wave rectification, the output DC voltage is obtained for:
a) The negative half cycle of input AC only b) The positive half cycle of input AC only
c) The negative and positive half cycles of input AC d) None of these
96. The specially designed semi-conductor diodes used as fast counters in electronic circuit are:
a) Solar cells b) Light emitting diodes
c) Photo diodes d) None of these
97. The specially designed semiconductor diodes used as indicator lamps in electronic circuits are:
a) Light emitting diodes b) Photo diodes
c) Solar cells d) Photo voltaic cells
98. Solar cell (or photo voltaic cell) is a device which converts:
a) Chemical energy into electrical energy b) Light energy into electrical energy
c) Electrical energy into light energy d) Chemical energy into light energy
99. When a transistor is used in a circuit, normally:
a) The emitter-base junction is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased
b) The emitter-base junction is reverse biased and the collector-base junction is forward biased
c) Both the junctions are reverse biased
d) Both the junctions are forward biased
100. A transistor can be used as:
a) A voltage amplifier b) A current amplifier
c) An oscillator d) All of the above
101. Solar cells are thin sandwich of:
a) Semi conductors b) Insulators
c) Conductors d) Wood
102. The material used in making (fabricating) solar cells is:
a) Carbon b) Iron
c) Silicon d) Mercury
103. Which one of the following is not an acceptor impurity:
a) Gallium b) Indium
c) Boron d) Arsenic
104. Waves used for radio transmission have wavelength:
a) Greater than that of infra-red rays b) Smaller than that of infra-red rays
c) Smaller than that of ultraviolet rays d) None of these
105. Which of the following have smaller wavelength:
a)  -rays b) X-rays
c) Ultraviolet rays d) Infra-red rays
106. The direction of magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave is:
a) Parallel to the electric field b) Perpendicular to the electric field
c) At an angle of 60o with the electric field d) None of these
107. The velocity of an oscillating charge as it moves to and fro along a wire is always:
a) Constant b) Changing
c) Zero d) None of these
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108. With the rise of temperature, the conductivity of a pure semi-conductor:
c) Remains constant
d) Some times decreases and sometimes increases
109. The band theory of solids successfully classifies the solids into:
a) Semi conductors only b) Conductors only
c) Insulators only d) All of these
110. The base of the transistor should be of:
a) High doping b) Low doping
c) Zero doping d) None of these
111. A semi conductor diode cannot be used as:
a) A detector b) A modulator
c) A rectifier d) An amplifier
112. On doping the conductivity of the semi conductor:
c) Remains same d) All of these
1 A 13 A 25 A 37 B 49 A 61 B 73 C 85 C 97 C 109 D
2 B 14 A 26 B 38 C 50 - 62 A 74 B 86 B 98 B 110 B
3 C 15 C 27 C 39 A 51 - 63 A 75 B 87 B 99 B 111 D
4 A 16 C 28 A 40 B 52 B 64 C 76 A 88 A 100 A 112 B
5 B 17 A 29 C 41 A 53 A 65 B 77 C 89 C 101 C
6 A 18 A 30 A 42 D 54 A 66 - 78 B 90 B 102 B
7 B 19 C 31 B 43 A 55 C 67 C 79 A 91 A 103 A
8 A 20 A 32 A 44 B 56 B 68 B 80 A 92 A 104 A
9 B 21 - 33 B 45 C 57 A 69 C 81 B 93 B 105 B
10 A 22 A 34 A 46 A 58 B 70 C 82 B 94 B 106 B
11 B 23 - 35 B 47 A 59 C 71 B 83 C 95 C 107 C
12 D 24 B 36 C 48 B 60 A 72 A 84 C 96 C 108 C
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PHYSICS ELECTRICAL MEASURING INSTRUMENTS CH#15
1. A moving coil d Arsenal galvanometer is based on the:

a) Heating effect of current b) Magnetic effect of current
c) Chemical effect of current d) Pettier effect of current
2. A moving coil type of galvanometer is based upon the principle that:
a) Wire carrying a current experiences a force in magnetic field
b) Wire carrying current produces a magnetic field
c) It has a horse shoe type magnet d) All are true
3. In a moving coil galvanometer, we use a radial magnetic field so that the galvanometer scale is:
a) Logarithmic b) Exponential
c) Linear d) None of the above
4. The coil of a sensitive moving coil galvanometer swings too far on both sides. This movement
can quickly be stopped by:
a) Connecting a large resistance across the ends of the coil
b) Holding a magnet near the coil
c) Connecting a short length of copper wire across the ends of the coil
d) Earthing the case of the galvanometer
5. The current that must flow through the coil of a galvanometer so as to produce a deflection of
one division on its scale is called:
a) Charge sensitivity of the galvanometer b) Current sensitivity of the galvanometer
c) Micro-volt sensitivity d) None of the above
6. The sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer depends on:
a) The angle of deflection b) Earth’s magnetic field
c) Torsion constant of the spring d) The moment of inertia of the coil
7. The coil of a suspended coil galvanometer has very high resistance. When a momentary
current is passed through the coil, it:
a) Oscillates with the decreasing amplitude b) Oscillates with the same amplitude
c) Gets deflected and comes to rest slowly d) Shoes steady deflection
10. To measure the current in an electric device:
a) Put an ammeter in parallel with it b) Put a voltmeter in parallel with it
c) Put an ammeter in series with it d) Put a voltmeter in series with it
11. The best instrument for the accurate measurement of the E.M.F. of a cell is:
a) Voltmeter b) Ammeter
c) Potentiometer d) Whetstone bridge
12. A voltmeter always gives lower value of p.d. because:
a) Some energy is lost in moving the needle b) Internal resistance of cell plays its role
c) It absorbs some energy d) Both a) and b) true
13. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting:
a) A high resistance in series b) A low resistance in parallel
c) A low resistance in series d) A high resistance in parallel
14. To convert a moving coil galvanometer into an ammeter one has to connect:
a) A small resistance in series b) A small resistance in parallel
c) A high resistance in series d) A high resistance in parallel
15. Ohm meter is a device for directly measuring the resistance of conductor. It is a modification
of:
a) A moving coil galvanometer b) A voltmeter
c) A rheostat d) All are true
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16. The whetstone bridge is most sensitive when:
a) The ratio arm is equal to one b) The ratio arm is equal to ten
c) Any value d) Both a) and b) are true
17. Meter bridge is an application of:
a) Whetstone bridge b) Potentiometer
c) Neither a) nor b) d) Both a) and b)
18. A potentiometer is an ideal instrument for measurement of p.d. or e.m.f. because:
a) It has a long wire b) It uses a sensitive galvanometer
c) It does not distribute the p.d. it measures d) Both a) and b) are true
19. As for sensitiveness of a potentiometer:
a) Five wires potentiometer is better than ten wires
b) Ten wires potentiometer is better than four wires
c) Both a) and b) have similar merits d) Both a) and b) is good
20. Sensitivity of the potentiometer can be increased by:
a) Increasing the e.m.f. of cell
b) Increasing the length of the potentiometer wire
c) Decreasing the length of the wire of potentiometer
21. A potentiometer is superior to a voltmeter for measuring a potential because:
a) The voltmeter has high resistance
b) The resistance of the potentiometer wire is quite low
c) The potentiometer does not draw any current from the unknown source of e.m.f. to be measured
d) The sensitivity of potentiometer is higher than that of the voltmeter
22. Potentiometer is an ideal instrument to measure potential difference because:
a) At null point no current flows in the potentiometer wire
b) At null point no current flows in the main circuit
c) At null point no current flows in the secondary circuit
23. A post office box has:
a) Only two ratio arms fixed in it b) All the four ratio arms fixed in it
c) Three ratio arms fixed in it d) Both a) and b) are true
24. Post office box is an arrangement for finding resistance of a conductor and it makes use of:
a) Whetstone bridge principle b) Potentiometer principle
c) Fleming’s rule d) None of these
25. A galvanometer of resistance 25 Ohm and having full scale deflection for a current of 10 mA is
changes into voltmeter of range 100 volts by connecting a resistor R in series with the
galvanometer. The resistance R in Ohm is:
a) 10000 b) 110025
c) 975 d) 9975
26. A voltmeter with a resistance of 50  103 Ohm is used to measure voltage in a circuit. To
increase its range to 3 times, the additional resistance to be put in series is:
a) 105 ohm b) 150 k ohm
c) 900 k ohm d) 9  106 ohm
27. An induced e.m.f. is produced when a magnet is plunged into a coil. The strength of the
induced e.m.f. is independent of:
a) The strength of the magnet b) Number of turns of coil
c) The resistivity of the wire of the coil d) Speed with which the magnet is moved
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29. A magnet is moved towards a coil (I) quickly (I) slowly, then the induced e.m.f. is:
a) Larger in case (I) b) Smaller in case (I)
c) Equal in both the cases
d) Larger or smaller depending upon the radius of the coil
30. Lenz’s law is consequence of the law of conservation of:
a) Charge b) Mass
c) Energy d) Momentum
31. The law of electromagnetic induction have been used in the construction of a:
a) Galvanometer b) Voltmeter
c) Electric motor d) Generator
32. A cylindrical bar magnet is kept along the axis of a circular coil. On rotating magnet about its
axis, the coil which have induced in it:
a) A current b) No current
c) Only an e.m.f. d) Both an e.m.f. and a current
33. When a magnet with its magnetic movement along the axis of a circular coil and directed
towards the coil is withdrawn away from the coil, parallel to itself, the current in the coil, as seen by the
withdrawing magnet is:
a) Zero b) Clockwise
c) Anti-clock wise d) None
34. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a battery. If it is taken to galvanometer, its pointer is
deflected, because:
a) Induced current is produced b) The coil acts like a magnet
c) The number of turns in the coil of the galvanometer are changed
35. When the rate of change of current is unity, the induced e.m.f. is equal to:
a) Total flux lined with the coil b) Coefficient of self-induction
c) Number of self-induction d) Thickness of the coil
37. When current i passed through an inductor of self inductance L, energy stored in it is 1/2 L i2.
This is stored in the:
a) Current b) Voltage
c) Magnetic field d) Electric field
38. A dynamo:
a) Creates electrical energy
b) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
c) Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
d) Creates mechanical energy
39. A transformer:
a) Transforms energy b) Transforms frequency
c) Transforms voltage d) Generates e.m.f.
40. Transformer works on:
a) a.c. only b) d.c. only
c) high voltage only d) a.c. and d.c. both
41. In a step-up transformer, the number of turns in:
a) Primary are less b) Primary are more
c) Primary and secondary are equal d) Primary are infinite
43. Alternating current is one which changes in:
a) Directions b) Magnitudes
c) Magnitudes as well as direction d) None of the above
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44. Alternate voltage is:
a) Independent of time b) Varies inversely as time
c) Varies directly with time d) Varies sinusoidal with time
45. Once complete set of positive and negative values of alternating quantities is called:
a) Time period b) Frequency
c) Amplitude d) Cycle
46. The frequency of A.C Mains in Pakistan is:
a) 30 c/s b) 50 c/s
c) 60 c/s d) 120 c/s
47. A.C can be measured with the help of:
a) Moving coil galvanometer b) Hot wire ammeter
c) Tangent galvanometer d) Hot wire voltmeter
48. Hot wire ammeters are used for measuring:
a) A.C. only b) D.C. only
c) Both A.C. and D.C d) None of the above
49. Alternating current cannot be measured by D.C. ammeter because:
a) A.C. cannot pass through D.C. ammeter
b) Average value of current for complete cycle is zero
c) A.C is virtual d) A.C changes its direction
50. Alternating current/e.m.f measuring instrument measure its:
a) r.m.s value b) speak value
c) average value d) square of current and voltage
51. Alternating current is converted to direct current by:
a) Rectifier b) Dynamo
c) Transformer d) Motor
52. A transformer is employed to:
a) Convert A.C. into D.C b) Convert D.C into A.C
c) Obtain a suitable A.C voltage d) Obtain a suitable D.C voltage
55. A capacitor is perfectly insulator for:
a) Direct current b) Alternating current
c) Direct as well as alternating current d) None of the above
65. Galvanometer is used to measure:
a) Large current (A) b) Small current (mA,  A)
c) Voltage (V) d) None of these
66. Ammeter is used to measure:
a) Large current (A) b) Small current (mA,  A)
c) Large Voltage d) Small Voltage
67. A voltmeter measure the voltage of a source of P.D across a circuit, when is connected:
a) In series with the battery of circuit b) In parallel with the battery of circuit
c) In series of parallel with battery or circuit d) All of the above ways
68. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting a suitable:
a) Low resistance in series with its coil b) Low resistance in parallel with its coil
c) High resistance in series with its coil d) High resistance in parallel with its coil
69. Electrical measuring instruments are devices, which convert:
a) Heat energy into electrical energy b) Chemical energy into electrical energy
c) Electrical energy into mechanical energy d) None of the above
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70. Galvanometer has:
a) Variable resistance b) Fixed resistance
c) both a) & b) d) None of the above
71. An ammeter is used to measure:
c) Resistance in the circuit d) None of these
72. The shunt resistance is used with galvanometer to limit the current as:
a) In series combination with galvanometer b) In parallel combination with galvanometer
c) Both a) & b) d) None of these
73. When current flows in a rectangular coil placed in a magnetic field experiences:
a) Magnetic torque b) Electromagnetic torque
c) Does not experience any effect d) None of the above
74. The working of all electrical instruments depend upon:
a) Magnetic effect of current b) Chemical effect of current
c) Electromagnetic effect of current d) None of the above
75. The current passing through coil of galvanometer is:
a) Directly proportional to the angle of deflection b) Inversely proportional to angle of deflection
c) None of the above d) Both of these
76. A galvanometer is used:
a) To measure voltage across a circuit b) To measure the current through the circuit
c) To measure the resistance of the circuit d) None of the above
77. Which of the following is used to measure current, voltage and resistance:
a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter
c) Avometer d) Galvanometer
78. The sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer can be increased by:
a) Decreasing area of coils b) Decreasing the No. turns of coil
c) Increasing the magnetic field d) None of the above
79. Voltmeter is used to measure the:
a) Current b) Resistance
c) Temperature d) Voltage
80. In order to increase the range of an Ammeter, the shunt resistance is:
a) Increased b) Decreased
c) Kept constant d) None of the above
81. A galvanometer can be converted into ammeter by connecting:
a) High resistance in series b) High resistance in parallel
c) Low resistance in series d) Low resistance in parallel with gal’ometer
82. Wheat stone bridge is an arrangement consisting of:
a) Three resistance b) Four resistance
c) Two resistance d) None of these
83. A balanced wheat stone bridge is used to determine:
a) Current b) Potential difference across a resistance
c) An unknown resistance d) Very high resistance
84. When the wheat stone bridge is balanced then:
a) Maximum current flows through the galvanometer
b) Potential difference across galvanometer is zero
c) Potential difference across galvanometer is maximum
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85. Which of the following instrument can measure the unknown resistance with sufficient
accuracy:
a) Potentio meter b) Slide Wire Bridge
c) Galvanometer d) Post office Box
86. Post office box is a practical form of:
a) Potentio-meter b) Ohmmeter
c) Wheat stone bridge d) None of the above
87. Potentio meter can be used as:
a) Ammeter b) Volt meter
c) Galvanometer d) Potential divider
88. A balanced wheat stone bridge is used to determine:
a) An unknown resistance b) The current through a resistance
c) The potential difference across a resistance d) The current through galvanometer
89. The construction of a post office box is based on the principle of:
a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter
c) Galvanometer d) Wheat stone bridge
90. A post office box is used to measure:
a) Current flowing in a circuit b) Voltage across the terminals of a battery
c) P.D between two points of a circuit d) Unknown resistance
91. The construction of a slide wire bridge is based on the principle of a:
a) Galvanometer b) Generator
c) Voltmeter d) Wheat Stone Bridge
92. A potentio meter is used to measure:
c) Unknown resistance d) Internal resistance of a cell
93. A potentio meter is a most accurate potential measuring device because:
a) It has low resistance as compared to a voltmeter
b) In it the potential difference is directly proportional to the length of the wire
c) A uniform and long wire is used in it d) It does not draw any current from the
circuit
94. A galvanometer is connected in a slide wire bridge or potentio meter:
a) To detect the current flowing through the circuit b) To measure the potential difference
c) Because its resistance is very small
d) Because its balance point is located when its deflection is zero
95. An AVO meter is used to measure:
a) Current b) Resistance
c) Voltage d) All of the above
1 B 16 A 31 D 46 B 61 - 76 D 91 D
2 A 17 A 32 B 47 B 62 - 77 C 92 B
3 C 18 C 33 B 48 C 63 - 78 C 93 D
4 C 19 B 34 A 49 B 64 - 79 D 94 D
5 B 20 B 35 B 50 A 65 B 80 B 95 D
6 C 21 C 36 - 51 A 66 A 81 D
7 A 22 C 37 C 52 C 67 B 82 B
8 - 23 C 38 B 53 - 68 C 83 C
9 - 24 A 39 C 54 - 69 C 84 B
10 C 25 D 40 A 55 A 70 B 85 D
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11 B 26 A 41 A 56 - 71 A 86 C
12 B 27 C 42 D 57 - 72 B 87 D
13 A 28 - 43 C 58 - 73 A 88 A
14 B 29 A 44 D 59 - 74 A 89 D
15 A 30 C 45 D 60 - 75 A 90 D
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PHYSICS ADVENT OF MODERN PHYSICS CH#17
1. Modern physics came into existence due to:

a) Einstein special theory of relativity and quantum mechanics
b) Maxwell’s theory of light
c) Newtonian mechanics d) Huygen’s wave theory of light
2. All motions are:
a) Absolute b) Relative
c) Uniform d) None of these
3. A set of co-ordinate axis with respect to which measurements are made is called:
a) Frame of reference b) Inertial frame of reference
c) Non-inertial frame of reference d) None of these
4. An inertial frame of reference is that one:
a) Which moves with uniform velocity on earth b) Which is at rest
c) Which has zero acceleration d) All of these
5. A non-inertial frame of reference is that one:
a) Which has zero acceleration b) Which has some acceleration
c) Which is always at rest d) None of these
6. The classical physics is based upon the laws of:
a) Newtonian mechanics b) Quantum mechanics
c) Wave mechanics d) None of these
7. According to Maxwell’s theory, light consists of:
a) Magnetic field b) Electric field
c) Electric and magnetic field d) None of these
8. Light was considered as electromagnetic wave by the scientist:
a) Newton b) Huygen
c) Faraday d) Maxwell
9. Which one of the following require a material medium for their propagation:
a) Sound waves b) Light waves
c) Heat waves d) X-rays
10. The existence of “Ether wind” was experimentally rejected by:
a) De-Broglie b) Faraday
c) Michelson and Morley d) Einstein
11. In 1905, the theory of relativity was proposed by:
a) Einstein b) Morley
c) Michelson d) De-Broglie
12. According to Einstein’s theory of relativity:
a) All laws of physics are the same in every inertial frame of reference
b) Speed of light in free space is a universal constant
c) Speed of light is independent of the speed of observer
d) All of the above
13. Which one of the following physical quantities changes with relativistic speed:
a) Mass b) Length
c) Time d) All of these
14. The mass of an object will be doubled at speed:
a) 2.6  108 m/s b) 1.6  108 m/s
c) 2.6  10-8 m/s d) None of these
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15. According to special theory of relativity, the relation between rest mass and moving mass is
given by:
mo
a) m = mo 1 ( V ) 2 b) m =
C V
1 ( )
C
mo V
c) m = d) m = mo 1
V C
1 ( ) 2
C
16. According to the special theory of relativity, the relation between the length of the rest object
and moving object is given by:
lo
a) l = lo 1 ( V ) 2 b) l =
C V
1 ( ) 2
C
V
c) l = 1 d) None of the above
C
18. If a material object moves with speed of light its mass becomes:
a) Equal to its rest mass b) Double of its rest mass
c) Infinite d) Zero
19. Einstein’s mass and energy relation is:
a) E = mc2 b) E = mc
m m2
c) E = d) E =
c c
20. One kilogram mass will be equivalent to the energy:
a) 9  108 Joules b) 9  1016 Joules
10
c) 9  10 Joules d) 6  1016 Joules
21. If rest mass of particle is mo and relativistic mass is m, then its kinetic energy (K.E) is:
1
a) mc2 b) mv2
2
1
c) (m-mo)c2 d) (m-mo)c2
2
22. The relativistic changes in mass, length and time in daily life are not observed because:
a) The mass of the objects are very large b) The size of the objects are very small
c) The speed of the objects are very small as compared to speed of light
23. If the energy of the photon is E, it is equivalent to mass:
E C2
a) 2
b)
C E
c) EC2 d) EC
24. The discrete nature of radiation was introduced by:
a) Hertz b) Max Planck
c) J.J. Thomson d) Rayleigh-Jean
25. The electron was discovered by:
a) Milikan b) J. J. Thomson
c) Chadwick d) Bohr
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26. An ideal black body is:
a) The most efficient radiator b) A perfect absorber of radiation
c) A body whose absorber power is unity d) All of the above
27. As the temperature of black body is raised, the wavelength corresponding to maximum
intensity:
a) Shifts towards longer wavelength b) Shifts towards shorter wavelength
28. Planck’s concept was used by:
a) J. J. Thomson b) Rutherford
c) Einstein d) Hertz
29. Radiations are always emitted or absorbed in the form of packets of energy. This is the
statement of:
a) Rayleigh-Jean’s law b) Wein’s displacement law
c) Stefan’s law d) Planck’s quantum law
30. In 1900, who proposed a formula which explained in detail the whole shape of the black body
spectrum for all wavelengths:
a) Rayleigh b) Wein
c) Einstein d) Max Planck
31. Who proposed quantum theory of radiations?
a) Faraday b) Newton
c) Einstein d) Planck
32. Black body can be made by:
a) A surface coated with lamp black b) A hollow cavity within a solid body
c) A highly polished black body d) A tungsten filament
33. A good absorber of heat radiation would be:
a) A white towel b) Black wool blanket
c) A polished plate d) None of the above
34. Absorption power of perfect black body is:
a) Zero b) Infinite
1
c) One d)
2
35. On a hot day or in hot climates white clothes are worn because they are good:
a) Reflectors b) Absorbers
c) Radiators d) Emitters
36. Which theory explains that energy exchange takes place in discrete “bundles” or “quanta”?
a) Special theory of relativity b) Quantum theory
c) Corpuscular theory d) Bohr’s theory
37. Mathematically quantum theory is stated as:
a) E = mC2 b) E = hf
C
c) f = d) None of the above

38. A single quantum of electromagnetic radiation is:
a) Photon b) Proton
c) Meson d) Positron
39. Light consists of particle wave called:
a) Proton b) Electron
c) Neutron d) Photon
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40. Rest mass of photon is:
a) Infinite b) Zero
c) Equal to proton d) None of the above
41. The name of photon for a quantum of light was proposed by:
a) Bohr b) Ampere
c) Thomson d) Planck
42. The magnitude of Planck’s constant is:
a) 1.6  10-19 Joule-second b) 6.63  10-34 Joule-second
c) 6.63  10-54 Joule-second d) None of the above
43. The velocity of photon is:
a) 3  108 ms-1 b) 3  108 cms-1
c) 3  102 ms-1 d) 6  108 ms-1
44. The energy of photon is given by:
1
a) E = mV2 b) E = hf
2
c) E = moC2 d) E = Voe
45. The phenomenon of electron ejection by light is called:
a) Photoelectric effect b) Compton effect
c) Photo cell d) The uncertainty principle
46. Einstein was awarded Nobel prize for the explanation of photoelectric effect in:
a) 1905 b) 1921
c) 1925 d) 1934
47. The photoelectric effect was explained by:
a) Einstein b) Planck
c) Hertz d) Lenar
48. In photoelectric effect,  -rays are completely absorbed with the emission of:
a) Protons b) Positrons
c) Electrons d) Neutrons
49. In photoelectric effect, the light exhibits:
a) Wave nature b) Particle nature
c) Both particle and wave nature d) All of the above
50. A photo-electric cell operates because of:
a) Compton effect b) Photoelectric effect
c) Photo refraction d)  -rays counter
51. The amount of energy required to eject an electron from metal surface is called:
a) Compton effect b) Threshold frequency
c) Work function d) Pair production
52. Joule-second is the unit of:
a) Heat b) Energy
c) Power d) Planck’s constant
53. In which of the following phenomenon, the electromagnetic radiations show particle property:
a) Interference b) Photoelectric effect
c) Diffraction d) None of the above
54. Phenomenon in which electric charges (electrons) are emitted from hot bodies is known as:
a) Photoelectric emission b) Thermionic emission
c) Oscillatory current d) None of the above
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55. Ions emitted from hot metals are called:
a) Electrons b) Protons
c) Neutrons d) None of the above
56. In photoelectric effect, the threshold frequency is:
a) Different for different materials b) Same for all materials
c) Neither different nor the same d) Random
57. Amount of K.E. of emitted photoelectrons depends upon:
a) Temperature of surface b) The intensity of incident light
c) Frequency of incident light d) All of the above
58. A device based on photoelectric effect is called:
a) Photo cell b) Battery
c) Dry cell d) Photo diode
59. The process of scattering of an X-ray photon by an electron is called:
a) Compton effect b) Photoelectric effect
c) Pair production d) None of the above
60. The momentum of photon of frequency f is:
hc fc
a) b)
f h
hf
c) d) hfc
c
61. Compton effect is a phenomenon in which electromagnetic waves (radiation) exhibit:
a) Wave nature b) Particle nature
c) Particle wave nature d) None of the above
62. Compton effect gives a relation between original frequency ‘f’ and scattered photon ‘f’ which
is given by:
1 1 h h
a) = + (1 – cos  ) b) f  = f + (1 – cos  )
f f moc2 moc2
h 1 1 h
c) f = f  + 2
(1 – cos  ) d) = + (1 – cos  )
moc f f moc2
63. In Compton scattering, the change in the wavelength is given by:

h h
a)   cos  b)   (1 - sin  )
moc2 m oc
h h
c)   (1 - cos  ) d)   (1 + cos  )
m oc m oc
64. The momentum of moving photon is:

h
a) Zero b) P =
2
h 
c) P = d) P =
 h
65. Disintegration of photon on striking a nucleus into an electron and positron is known as:
a) Compton effect b) Annihilation of matter
c) Pair production d) All of the above
66. The materialization of energy takes place in the process:
a) Annihilation b) Pair production
c) Compton effect d) Photoelectric effect
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67. Positron is an anti-particle of:
a) An electron b) A neutron
c) A psi-meson d) None of the above
68. The relation, hf = 2moc2 + KEe- + KEe+, holds a:
a) Pair production b) Compton effect
c) Photoelectric effect d) Photo cell
69. The minimum energy required by a photo to create an electron-positron pair is:
a) 3 Mev b) 4 Mev
c) 1.02 Mev d) Zero
70. The reverse process of pair production is called:
a) Pair Annihilation b) Compton effect
c) Photoelectric effect d) None of the above
71. The rest mass energy of an electron is:
a) 9.11  10-31 J b) 6.7 Mev
c) 0.511 Mev d) 1.67  10-27 J
72. If a particle of mass m is moving with a speed v, then De-Broglie’s wavelength ‘  ’ associated
with it will be:
3 h
a)  = b)  =
mV mV
mV 2
c)  = d)  =
h mV
73. The relation of uncertainty principle between energy and time is given by:
a) ( E ) ( P )  h b) ( E ) ( t )  h
c) ( P ) ( t )  h d) ( x ) ( P )  h
74. The relation of uncertainty principle between position and momentum is given by:
a) ( x ) ( P )  h b) ( x ) ( t )  h
c) ( E ) ( t )  h d) ( P ) ( E )  h
1 A 11 A 21 C 31 D 41 D 51 C 61 C 71 C
2 B 12 D 22 C 32 B 42 B 52 D 62 D 72 B
3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 A 53 B 63 B 73 B
4 D 14 A 24 B 34 C 44 B 54 B 64 B 74 A
5 B 15 C 25 B 35 A 45 A 55 A 65 A
6 A 16 A 26 D 36 B 46 B 56 A 66 A
7 C 17 - 27 B 37 B 47 A 57 C 67 C
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 A 48 C 58 A 68 A
9 A 19 D 29 D 39 D 49 B 59 A 69 A
10 C 20 D 30 D 40 B 50 B 60 C 70 C
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PHYSICS the atomic spectra CH#18
1. The central part of atom, “nucleus” was discovered by _______ in 1911:
a) Rutherford b) Joule
c) Maxwell d) Henry
2. According to electromagnetic theory, an electron moving in a circular orbit radiate _______
continuously in the form of radiations and until falls in the nucleus:
a) When an electron jumps from higher energy level
b) Energy
c) Spectrum d) None of these
3. When an electron jumps from higher energy level to lower energy level, it _______ energy:
a) Radiates b) Absorb
c) Positive d) Spectrum
4. Bohr’s formula for the allowed frequencies of emitted radiations was correct for the
experimental verification of the _______ of hydrogen atom:
a) Atom b) Series
c) Spectrum d) Compton
5. The hydrogen atom spectrum was consisted of _______ series:
a) Three b) Two
c) Four d) Five
6. First time, _______ calculated different wavelengths in the spectrum of hydrogen:
a) Henry b) John Glander
c) Johaun Balmer d) None of these
7. The Balmer empirical formula is given as _______:
1  1 1  1  1 1 
a) =R  2  2  b) =R  2  2
n 2 n  n 4 n 
1  1 1 
c) =R  2  2 d) None of these
n 5 n 
1  1 1 
8. In the formula = R  2  2  , “R” is known as _______ constant:
n 2 n 
a) Bohr’s b) Rydberg’s
c) John’s d) None of these
9. The value of “R” is _______:
a) 4.119  10-4 m-1 b) 1.419  10-4 m-1
c) 1.0974  107 m-1 d) None of these
10. The formula for “Paschen” series for hydrogen spectrum is _______ when, n = 4,5,6, _______:
1  1 1  1  1 1 
a) =R  2  2 b) =R  2  2
 3 n   2 n 
1  1 1 
c) =R  2  2 d) None of these
 4 n 
11. Neil Bohr’s model was introduced in _______:

a) 1903 b) 1923
c) 1931 d) 1913
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12. According to Bohr, the angular momentum of the electron is integral multiple of h/2  , so, we
can write it as _______:
nh mv nh
a) mvr = b) =
2 r 2
2
c) mvr = d) None of these
nh
13. If electron moves about its own orbits then its total energy remains _______:
a) Change b) Constant
c) Positive d) None of these
14. When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from higher orbit into second orbit. The set of lines
emitted is called _______:
a) Balmer series b) Lyman series
c) Joule series d) None of these
15. Balmer series _______ in visible region:
a) Moves b) Lies
c) Meet d) Radiate
16. Lyman series lies in _______:
a) Visible region b) Hydrogen atoms
c) Ultraviolet region d) None of these
17. Radius of hydrogen atom is given as _______ for n = 1,2,3, _______:
a) rn = n2  0.053 nM b) rn = 0.053  n3 nM
1
c) rn =  n4 nM d) None of these
0.53
18. The formula for nth number of orbit for hydrogen atom is _______ when n = 1,2,3, _______:
1 n2h2
a) rn = .e2K b) rn =
4  0 4 2 Ke 2 m
2
n h2
c) rn = d) rn =
4 Ke 2 m
2
 2 Ke 2 m
19. When we put n =1, then the value of radius of first orbit is _______:
a) r1 = 0.053 nM b) r1 = 5.30 nM
c) r1 = 0.412 nM d) None of these
20. When we put n =2 then the value of radius of second orbit is _______:
a) 0.492 nM b) 9.123 nM
c) 0.212 nM d) 2.12 nM
21. When we put n = 9 then the value of r9 = ?
a) r9 = 4.293 nM b) r9 = 0.293 nM
c) r9 = 13.214 nM d) None of these
22. We can say that the radii of the orbits are in the ratio _______:
a) 1 : 4 : 19 b) 1 : 4 : 9
c) 4 : 14 : 24 d) 1 : 9 : 18
23. In nth orbit, the K. E. of electron is given by _______:
Ke 2 Ke 3
a) (K.E)n = b) (K.E)n =
2rn 2rn
Ke K
c) (K.E)n = d) (K.E)n =
2rn 2rn
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24. Potential energy of an electron in nth orbit is given as _______:
Ke 2  Ke 2
a) (P.E)n = b) (P.E)n =
2rn rn
Ke 2
c) (P.E)n = d) None of these
rn
25. The total energy of an electron in nth orbit is _______ when n=1,2,3, …..:
 Ke 2 Ke 2
a) En = b) En =
2rn 2rn
e2 e3
c) En = d) En =
rn 2rn
26. The first ground state energy “E1” is given as _______:

a) 1.43 ev b) -13.6 ev
c) 4.13 ev d) 3.136 ev
27. The value of third ground state energy “E3” is given as _______:
a) -1.51 ev b) 1.51 ev
c) 5.15 ev d) 1.63 ev
28. The value of Rhydberg’s constant “RH” is _______:
a) 5.134  10-7 m b) 1.0974  107 m-1
-7
c) 9.013  10 m d) 0.193  107 m-1
29. The amount of energy required to lift an electron to atom from its lower state to higher is
called:
a) Excitation energy b) Photon energy
c) Electron energy d) None of these
30. The P.D. applied to move an electron from lower energy state to higher for the required
excitation energy is called _______:
a) Excitation energy b) Excitation Potential
c) Required energy d) None of these
31. The energy required to remove an electron from the atom is called _______:
a) Ionization energy b) Potential energy
c) Kinetic energy d) None of these
32. An electronic in the ground state of hydrogen atom possesses energy 13.6 ev, then the
accelerating voltage required to ionize it is _______:
a) 13.6 v b) 3.16 v
c) 6.13 v d) 3.61 v
33. The ionization potentials of an element are equal to the number of _______ in its atoms:
c) Visible radiations d) None of these
34. X-rays travel in _______ line with the speed of light:
a) Straight b) Parallel
c) Equal d) None of these
35. X-rays produce _______ in gases:
a) Straight b) Parallel
c) Ionization d) None of these
36. X-rays can _______ living tissues:
a) Damage b) Produce
c) Ultraviolet d) None of these
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37. X-rays were discovered by _______:
a) John Marrey b) Roentgen
c) Maxwell d) Einstein
38. X-rays were discovered in _______:
a) 1895 b) 1985
c) 1805 d) 1920
39. The rest mass of x-ray photon is _______:
a) One b) 1.63  104 m/s
c) Zero d) Two
40. X-rays are _______:
a) Electromagnetic waves b) Positive
c) Solid d) Laser
41. Laser is a device which can produce _______:
a) Gas lasers b) Solid lasers
c) An intense, coherent and monochromatic beam of light
d) None of these
42. Lasers are classified as _______:
a) Solids b) LIquids
c) Gases d) All of these
44. The radiation emitted from hydrogen filled discharge tube, when viewed by dispersing devices
such as prism, gratings etc. shows ______:
a) a line spectrum b) continuous spectrum
c) linear spectrum d) all of the above
45. When an electron jumps from higher to lower orbit:
a) energy is absorbed b) energy is emitted
c) neither absorbed nor emitted d) none of these
46. When electron in hydrogen atom jumps from higher orbit into first orbit. The set of lines
emitted is called:
c) Bracket series d) Paschen series
47. When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from higher orbit into second orbit. The set of lines
emitted is called:
48. When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from higher orbit into third orbit. The set of lines
emitted is called:
49. When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from higher orbit into fourth orbit. The set of lines
emitted is called:
51. Mathematically Balmer series is represented as, where R is called Rydberg’s constant:
1  1 1  1  1 1 
a) = R  2  2  , n = 2,3,4 b) = R  2  2  , n = 3,3,4
n 1 n   n 2 n 
1  1 1  1  1 1 
c) = R  2  2  , n = 4,3,4 d) = R  2  2  , n = 5,3,4
n 3 n  n 4 n 
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52. Mathematically Lyman series is represented as, where R is called Rydberg’s constant:
1  1 1  1  1 1 
a) = R  2  2  , n = 2,3,4 b) = R  2  2  , n = 3,3,4
n 1 n   n 2 n 
1  1 1  1  1 1 
c) = R  2  2  , n = 4,3,4 d) = R  2  2  , n = 5,3,4
n 3 n  n 4 n 
53. Mathematically Paschen series is represented as, where R is called Rydberg’s constant:
1  1 1  1  1 1 
a) = R  2  2  , n = 2,3,4 b) = R  2  2  , n = 3,3,4
n 1 n   n 2 n 
1  1 1  1  1 1 
c) = R  2  2  , n = 4,3,4 d) = R  2  2  , n = 5,3,4
n 3 n  n 4 n 
56. Lyman series lies in:

a) Visible region b) Ultraviolet region
c) Infrared region d) None of the above
57. Balmer series lies in:
58. Paschen series lies in:
59. Brackett series lies in:
60. Pfund series lies in:
61. Which of the following series in the spectrum of the hydrogen lies in the visible region of the
electromagnetic spectrum?
a) Paschen series b) Balmer series
c) Lyman series d) Bracket series
63. Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental postulate of Bohr’s theory of hydrogen
atom?
a) The toal energy of the electron in one of its allowed orbit remains constant as long as it remains
in the same orbit
b) An electron can not revolve in an arbitrary orbit. Only those orbits are possible for which the
h
angular momentum of the electron about the nucleus is an integral multiple of
2
c) The electron can move in all possible orbits
d) An atom radiates energy only when an electron jumps from an allowed orbit of higher energy En
to one of the lower energy Ep
64. According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom, an electron can revolve around a proton
indefinitely if its path is:
a) a perfect circle of any radius b) a circle of constantly decreasing radius
c) a circle of an allowed radius d) an ellipse
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65. In a hydrogen atom the radius of the electron orbit is governed by Bohr’s quantum rule which
states that:
a) the linear momentum of the electron is quantised
b) the angular momentum of the electron is quantised
c) the linear velocity of the electron is quantised
d) the angular velocity of the electron is quantised
66. According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom the angular momentum of the electron about the
nucleus is an integral multiple of _______:
1
a) h b)
h
h h
c) d)
 2
67. According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom the radii rn of stationary electron is given by the
equation:
ke 2 ke 2
a) rn = b) r n = 2
mv n 3 mv n
e2 he 2
c) rn = 2
d) rn = 2
mv n mv n
68. According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom the speed vn of an electron is given by the
equation:
h ke 2
a) vn = n b) vn = n
2 m rn 2 m rn 2
h2 he 2
c) vn = n d) vn = n
2 m rn 2 m rn
73. According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom, the total energy of the hydrogen atom with its
electron revolving in the nth stationary orbit is:
a) Proportional to n b) Proportional to n2
c) Inversely proportional to n d) Inversely proportional to n2
75. When an electron jumps from the nth (higher orbit) orbit to the pth orbit (lower orbit), the
difference of energy is given by the equation:
a) hf = En - Ep b) hf = En + Ep
c) hf = En d) hf = Ep - En
76. The frequency f of electromagnetic radiation is given by the equation:
(where c is the velocity of light.)
1
a) f = c b) f =

c
c) f = d) None of the above

77. If the electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit whose quantum number is n to an
orbit whose quantum number is p, it emits a photon of wavelength  , given by:
1  1 1  1  1 1 
a) = RH  2  2  b) = RH  2  2 
 p  
 n  n p 
1 1 1 1 1  1 1 
c) = RH    d) =  
RH  p2 n2 
 p n   
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78. The transitions of inner-shell electrons in heavy atoms give rise to _______:
a)  -rays b)  -rays
c)  -rays d) x-rays
79. X-rays are a part of electromagnetic spectrum and are characterized by frequencies higher
than those of:
a) visible radiations b) infrared radiations
c) ultraviolet radiations d) none of the above
81. X-rays are:
a) positively charged particles b) negatively charged particles
c) neutral particles d) none of these
82. The study of the spectrum of characteristic x-rays helps us to:
a) measure the energy of the incident electrons
b) measure the wavelength of the incident electrons
c) measure the energy of the emitted x-rays
d) identify the element of which the target is made
83. The maximum frequency limit of the continuous x-rays spectrum depends upon _______:
a) the atomic number of the atoms of the target
b) the kinetic energy of the incident electrons
c) the maximum frequency limit of the characteristic x-rays spectrum
d) the degree of vacuum in the x-ray tube
84. The device that produces an intense, monochromatic and coherent beam of light based on -----
emission of photons from atoms, is called:
a) laser b) x-rays
c) discharge tube d) cyclotron
85. An interesting application of laser is the production of three dimensional images called:
a) polygons b) holgrams
c) ovals d) none of these
88. The laser device used to fragment gallstones and kidney stones is called:
a) laser beam b) laser scanner
c) laser lithotropter d) ruby laser
89. The wavelength of x-rays is of the order of:
a) 10-12 m b) 10-10 m
c) 10-8 m d) 10-6 m
90. When fast moving electrons strike a metal target inside a partially evacuated tube:
a) cathode rays are produced b) cosmic rays are produced
c) x-rays are produced d) alpha rays are produced
91. Production of x-rays is a reverse phenomenon of:
c) Pair production d) Annihilation of matter
92. Choose the wrong statement out of the following:
a) x-rays are not refracted as they pass from one medium to another
b) like visible light, x-rays are diffracted at an obstacle
c) x-rays can cause ionization of the atoms of a liquid
d) x-rays are deflected by electric and magnetic fields
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93. In an x-ray electrons are accelerated by applying a high voltage V. If e is the electronic charge
and h the Planck’s constant, the highest frequency Vmax of the emitted x-rays is given by:
eV 1 e2V 2
a) Vmax = b) Vmax =
h 2 h2
eh e2h 2
c) Vmax = 2 d) Vmax =
V V2
94. X-rays were discovered by:
a) Madam Curie b) Roentgen
c) Coolidge d) Laue
95. X-rays are produced when an element of high atomic weight is bombarded by high energy:
c) Neutrons d) Photons
96. Which one of the following parameters of the emitted x-rays increases when the potential
difference between the electrodes of an x-ray tube is increased?
a) Intensity b) Frequency
c) Wavelength d) Speed
1 A 11 D 21 A 31 A 41 C 51 B 61 B 71 - 81 C 91 A
2 B 12 A 22 B 32 A 42 D 52 A 62 - 72 - 82 D 92 D
3 A 13 B 23 A 33 B 43 - 53 C 63 C 73 D 83 B 93 A
4 C 14 A 24 B 34 A 44 A 54 - 64 C 74 A 84 A 94 B
5 D 15 B 25 A 35 C 45 B 55 - 65 B 75 C 85 B 95 B
6 C 16 C 26 B 36 A 46 B 56 B 66 D 76 A 86 - 96 B
7 A 17 A 27 A 37 B 47 A 57 A 67 B 77 D 87 -
8 B 18 B 28 B 38 A 48 D 58 C 68 A 78 C 88 C
9 C 19 A 29 A 39 C 49 C 59 C 69 - 79 - 89 B
10 A 20 C 30 B 40 A 50 - 60 C 70 - 80 - 90 C
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Superb Academy
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PHYSICS THE ATOMIC NUCLEUS CH#19
1. The scientist who discovered electron from the study of the nature of cathode rays was:
a) Ernest Rutherford b) Einstein
c) J. J. Thompson d) Niles Bohr
2. The nuclear model of the atom was derived partly from experiments involving the scattering of
alpha particles performed by:
a) Newton b) Chadwick
c) Rutherford d) Einstein
3. Neutrons and Protons in the nucleus are together called:
a) Atomic particles b) Mesons
c) Nucleons d) Photons
4. The bulk of the mass of an atom is concentrated in its:
a) Electron shell b) Neutrons
c) Protons d) Nucleus
5. Nuclei having the same nuclear charge but different masses are called:
a) Isotopes b) Isotones
c) Isomers d) Isobars
6. An atom of an element differ from an atom of one of its isotopes in the number of:
a) Protons in the nucleus b) Neutrons in the nucleus
c) Electrons outside the nucleus d) Valence electrons
7. A naturally occurring disintegration involving the emission of high energy electrons is called:
a) Alpha decay b) Beta decay
c) Gamma decay d) Sigma decay
8. Beta particles are:
a) Hydrogen nuclei b) Helium nuclei
c) Electrons d) Photons
9. A deuteron is:
a) A proton and neutron bound together b) A type of proton
c) A type of neutron d) A type of beta particle
11. A particle having the mass of an electron and the charge of a proton is called:
a) Antiproton b) Photons
c) Betatron d) Positron
12. Fusion chain reaction are possible in:
a) A nuclear reactor b) A linear acceleration
c) Sun and Stars d) All of the above
13. Atomic theory was announced by Dalton in:
a) 1895 b) 1905
c) 1808 d) 1885
14. The electron was discovered by J. J. Thomson by passing an electric discharge through:
a) A solid b) A liquid
c) A gas at low pressure d) A gas at high pressure
15. Charge on an electron was determined by:
a) Ampere b) Maxwell
c) Millikan d) Thomson
16. Rutherford bombarded a thin sheet of gold with:
a)  -rays b)  -rays
c)  -rays d) X-rays
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17. Proton was discovered by Rutherford in:
a) 1915 b) 1918
c) 1910 d) 1920
18. Chadwick discovered neutron by the study of scattering of alpha particles from:
a) Gold foil b) Nitrogen
c) Beryllium d) Oxygen
19. Chadwick discovered in 1932:
a) Proton b) Neutron
c) Atom d) Photon
20. Neutron was discovered by:
a) Curie b) Roentgen
c) Rutherford d) Chadwick
21. Isotopes of an element are atoms whose nuclei have:
a) The same atomic number Z but differ in mass A
b) The same mass number A but differ in atomic number Z
c) The same number of neutrons but different number of protons
22. Charge on neutron is:
a) + 1.6  10-19C b) Zero
c) - 1.6  10-19C d) 1.2  10-19C
23. A particle having the mass of an electron and the charge of a proton is called a:
a) Antiproton b) Positron
c) Gamma rays d) Photon
24. The nucleus consists of:
a) Protons and neutrons b) Protons and electrons
c) Protons only d) Electrons and neutrons
25. Mass of neutron is:
a) 1.6  10-31kg b) 1.6  10-27kg
c) 9.1  10-31kg d) 1.6  10-30kg
26. Mass of protons is:
a) 1.6  10-27kg b) 1.6  10-31kg
c) 9.1  10-31kg d) 1.6  10-17kg
27. 1 amu is equal to:
a) 1.66  10-24kg b) 1.66  10-19kg
c) 1.66  10-34kg d) 1.66  10-27kg
28. Atoms in an element whose atomic number are the same but have different mass number are
called:
a) Isobars b) Isotons
c) Isotopes d) Isomers
29. The nuclei having the same mass number but different atomic number are called:
a) Isotopes b) Isobars
c) Isotones d) Isomers
31. A mass spectrograph (Spectrometer) sorts out:
a) Molecules b) Atoms
c) Elements d) Isotopes
32. The chemical behaviour of an atom is determined by:
a) Binding energy b) Number of isotopes
c) Atomic number d) Mass number
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33. The mass of a positron is equal to the mass of:
a) Neutron b) Proton
c) Deutron d) Electron
34. Nuclear force is:
a) Attractive and long range b) Repulsive and long range
c) Attractive and short range d) None of the above
35. The sum of the masses of constituent nucleons as compared to the mass of the resultant nucleus
is:
a) Smaller b) Greater
c) The same d) Sometimes smaller sometimes greater
37. The amount of energy required to break the nucleus is called its:
a) Nuclear energy b) Kinetic energy
c) Potential energy d) Binding energy
38. The amount of energy equivalent to 1 amu is:
a) 9.315 Mev b) 93.15 Mev
c) 931.5 Mev d) 2.224 Mev
39. Radioactivity was discovered by:
a) H. Becquerel b) Madam Curie
c) Rutherford d) Bohr
40.  ,  and  rays are emitted from a radio-active substance:
a) Spontaneously b) When it interacts with the other particle
c) When it is heated d) When it is exposed to light
42. Curie is a unit of:
a) Reluctance b) Binding energy
c) Resistivity d) Radioactivity
43. The reciprocal of decay constant (  ) of a radioactive elements is:
a) Half life b) Mean life
c) Total life d) Curie
44. An alpha particle is emitted from 88Ra226 what is the mass and atomic number of the daughter
nucleus:
Mass Number Atomic Number Mass Number Atomic Number
a) 224 84 b) 220 80
c) 222 86 d) 226 87
45.  -particles are:
a) Hydrogen nuclei b) Electrons
c) Protons d) Photons
46. Gamma rays consist of a stream of:
a) Electrons b) Protons
c) Photons d) Positrons
47. Alpha particles are:
a) Electrons b) Hydrogen nuclei
c) Photons d) Helium nuclei
48. The rate of decay (disintegration per unit time) of radioactive substance:
a) Is constant b) Decreases exponentially with time
c) Varies inversely as time d) Decreases linearly with time
49. The binding energy per nucleon is:
a) Greatest for heavy nuclei b) Least for heavy nuclei
c) Greatest for light nuclei d) Least for medium weight nuclei
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50. A Curie represents a very strong source of:
c) Radioactivity d)  -particle
52. During fission process, a large amount of:

a) Heat energy is released b) Nuclear energy is released
c) Electrical energy is released d) Chemical energy is released
53. Controlled fission chain reaction is maintained in a:
a) Nuclear reactor b) Linear accelerator
c) Cyclotron d) Stellerator
54. Fission chain reaction is controlled by introducing:
a) Graphite rods b) Cadmium rods
c) Iron rods d) Platinum rods
55. The mass of fissionable material required for self-sustaining chain reaction is called the:
a) Atomic mass b) Fermi mass
c) Critical mass d) Super critical mass
56. First atomic reactor was introduced by:
a) Rutherford b) Wilson
c) Enrico Fermi d) Curie
57. The moderator used in a nuclear reactor is:
a) Aluminium b) Sodium
c) Calcium d) Graphite
58. The atomic bomb is an example of:
a) Controlled nuclear fission b) Controlled nuclear fusion
c) Uncontrolled nuclear fission d) Uncontrolled nuclear fusion
59. Tick the correct statement:
a) Moderators slow down the neutrons b) Moderators absorb the fast neutrons
c) Moderators reflect the fast neutrons d) Moderators bring the neutrons to rest
60. In liquid metal fast breeder reactor, the type of uranium used is:
a) 92U235 b) 92U238
234
c) 92U d) 92U239
61. The process in which two or more light nuclei combine together to form heavier nuclei with
release of energy is called:
a) Fission b) Fusion
c) Chain reaction d) Chemical reaction
62. The source of energy in the sun and the stars is mainly due to:
a) Fission reaction b) Fusion reaction
63. Hydrogen bomb is an example of:
a) Nuclear fission b) Nuclear fusion
64. The example of fusion reaction is:
a) The formation of water from oxygen and hydrogen
b) The formation of barium and Krypton from uranium
c) The formation of helium from hydrogen d) None of the above
65. Materials can be identified by measuring their:
a) Hardness b) Density
c) Mass d) Half-life
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66. Radioactivity:
a) is exhibited more by semiconductors in general
b) in exhibited more by the elements when they are coupled with other radio-active elements by a
convalent bond
c) is an atomic property of radioactive elements d) None of these
67. In 1819, J. J. Thomson performed famous experiment relating to the passage of electric
current through:
a) Solids b) Liquids
c) Gases d) None of these
68. The charge on the electron was successfully determined by:
a) Bohr in 1908 b) Millikan in 1909
c) Einstein in 1905 d) Dalton in 1908
69. According to Rutherford atomic model, the positive charge in an atom:
a) is concentrated at its centre
b) are in the form of positive electrons at some distance from its centre
c) is spread uniformly through its volume d) is readily deflected by an alpha particle
70. For an atom having atomic number Z and atomic weight A, the number of neutrons in the
nucleus is:
a) A – Z b) A + Z
c) Z d) A
71. For an atom having atomic number Z and atomic weight A, the charge on the nucleus is:
a) A - Z b) A + Z
c) Z d) A
72. For an atom having atomic number Z and atomic weight A, the number of electrons in the
atom is:
a) A - Z b) A + Z
c) Z d) A
74. Mass of proton is of the order of:
a) 10-31 mg b) 10-27 kg
c) 10-24 g d) All of them
75. Charge on proton is:
a) + 1.59  10-9 C b) + 1.59  10-7 C
c) - 1.59  10-19 C d) + 1.59  10-19 C
76. Mass defect per nucleon is called:
a) average energy of nucleons b) binding energy of nucleus
c) packing fraction of nucleus d) None of these
77. The energy of an electron revolving in the first orbit of hydrogen atom is:
a) -15.4 eV b) -3.4eV
c) +13.6eV d) -13.6eV
78. A gram mole of any substance contains:
a) 6.021  108 atomic nuclei b) 6.022  1016 atomic nuclei
c) 6.022  1023 atomic nuclei d) 6.022  1021 atomic nuclei
81. The half life of phosphorus -32 is 15 days. A given mass of phosphorus-32 will be reduced to ¼
of its original mass in:
a) 60 days b) 30 days
c) 45 days d) 90 days
82. What percent of original radioactive atoms left after five half lives?
a) 3% b) 5%
c) 10% d) 20%
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83. Radioactivity is:
a) Self-disruptive activity b) spontaneous activity
c) exhibited by all elements under proper conditions d) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
84. Gamma rays carry a charge:
a) -e b) +e
c) +2e d) None of these
85. Phenomenon of radioactivity is due to disintegration of:
a) Nucleus b) Neutron
c) Proton d) Molecule
86.  -particle carries a charge:
a) -2ve b) +2ve
c) -ve d) +ve
87. When a radioactive nucleus emits a  -particle, the proton-neutron ratio:
a) decreases b) increases
c) remains the same d) none of these
88. The reciprocal of decay constant of a radioactive element is called its:
a) Half life b) Mean life
c) Total life d) None of these
89. Nuclear reactions can be induced in 92U238 with the bombardment of:
a) Slow neutron b) Fast neutron
c) Photon d) Graviton
90. Electron was discovered by:
a) J. J. Thomson b) Einstein
c) Rutherford d) Neil Bohr
91. Neutrons were discovered by bombarding alpha particles on:
a) Nitrogen b) Gold
c) Beryllium d) Helium
92. The phenomenon of spontaneous nuclear transformation accompanied by emission of energy is
called:
c) Radioactivity d) Pair production
93. Proton was discovered by Rutherford by bombarding nitrogen with:
a) Alpha particles b) Beta Particles
c) Gamma particles d) X-rays
94. An apparatus used to determine the masses of protons, nuclei, ions is:
a) Wilson’s cloud chamber b) Geiger counter
c) Mass spectrometer d) Slid state detector
95. Which one of the following cannot be used as moderator:
a) Graphite b) Heavy water
c) Lead d) None of these
96. Which one of the following can be used as neutron arrestor?
a) Graphite b) Heavy water
c) uranium d) Cadmium
97. Which one of the following isotopes of uranium can undergo fission with bombardment of slow
neutron:
a) 92U235 b) 92U234
c) 92U238 d) None of these
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98. Half life of a given sample of radium is 22 years. The sample will reduce to 25% of its original
value after:
a) 11 years b) 22 years
c) 44 years d) 88 years
99. According to Rutherford the size of the nucleus is of order of:
a) 10-15 m b) 10-14 m
-13
c) 10 m d) 10-12 m
100. In discovery of nucleus Rutherford bombarded a thin gold foil with fast moving:
a) Beta particles b) Gamma particles
c) Alpha particles d) X-rays
102. After alpha decay the atomic number of the atom:
a) increases by four b) decreases by two
c) increases by two d) decreases by four
103. The half-life of radium is 1600 years. What is the fraction of radium sample that would survive
after 6400 years?
a) 1/2 b) 1/4
c) 1/8 d) 1/16
104. Electron was discovered by J.J. Thomson by passing an electric discharge through:
a) a gas at low pressure b) a liquid
c) a solid d) a gas at a pressure higher than atmospheric
pressure
105. Neutron was discovered by:
a) Chadwick b) Rutherford
c) Neil Bohr d) Einstein
106. Electron was discovered in:
a) 1895 b) 1891
c) 1885 d) 1808
107. Radioactivity was discovered by:
a) Rutherford b) Henn Becquad
c) Einstein d) Rontgen
108. The charge on electron was discovered by Millikan in:
a) 1895 b) 1905
c) 1909 d) 1916
109. Structure of the nucleus was explained by:
a) J.J. Thomson b) Bohr
c) Millikan d) Rutherford
110. Rutherford discovered proton in:
a) 1925 b) 1920
c) 1906 d) 1909
111. The diameter of an atom is of the order:
a) 10-125 m b) 10-11 m
c) 10-10 m d) 10-9 m
112. An atom of an element differs from an atom of one of its isotopes in the number of:
a) Neutrons in the nucleus b) Protons in the nucleus
c) Electrons outside the nucleus d) Valence electrons
113. Nuclei that have the same charge number but different mass number are called:
a) Isotones b) Isomers
c) Isotopes d) Isobars
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114. One amu is equal to:
a) 1.66  10-27 kg b) 1.6  10-19 kg
c) 1.66  10-24 kg d) 1.67  10-31 kg
115. The rate of decay of a radioactive substance:
a) decreases exponentially with time b) decreases linearly with time
c) increases linearly with time d) increases exponentially with time
116. Different radioactive materials have:
a) Same half lives b) Different half lives
c) Same mean lives d) Same total lives
117. The half life of a radioactive element is 6 min. If the initial count rate is 824 per min, how long
will it take to reach count rate 206:
a) 12 min b) 18 min
c) 36 min d) 72 min
118. The time required for a radioactive material to decrease in activity by one half is called:
a) half time of the material b) Half life of the material
c) Disintegration time d) Mean life of material
120. After alpha decay the mass of the nucleus:
a) Increases by four b) Decreases by four
c) Does not change d) Increases by two
121. Neutrons are:
a) Positively charged b) Negatively charged
c) Massless d) Neutral
122. Alpha particles are:
a) Hydrogen nuclei b) Helium nuclei
c) Lithium nuclei d) Beryllium nuclei
123. Gamma particles are:
a) Photons b) Electrons
c) Neutrons d) Protons
124. Beta particles are:
c) Photons d) Neutrons
1 B 14 C 27 D 40 A 53 A 66 C 79 - 92 C 105 A 118 B
2 C 15 C 28 C 41 - 54 B 67 C 80 - 93 A 106 B 119 -
3 C 16 C 29 B 42 D 55 C 68 B 81 B 94 C 107 B 120 B
4 D 17 D 30 - 43 B 56 C 69 A 82 A 95 C 108 C 121 D
5 A 18 C 31 D 44 C 57 D 70 A 83 B 96 D 109 D 122 B
6 B 19 B 32 C 45 B 58 C 71 C 84 D 97 A 110 B 123 A
7 B 20 D 33 D 46 C 59 A 72 C 85 A 98 C 111 C 124 B
8 C 21 A 34 C 47 D 60 B 73 - 86 C 99 B 112 A
9 A 22 B 35 B 48 B 61 B 74 D 87 B 100 C 113 C
10 - 23 B 36 - 49 B 62 B 75 D 88 B 101 - 114 A
11 B 24 A 37 D 50 C 63 B 76 C 89 B 102 C 115 A
12 C 25 B 38 C 51 - 64 C 77 D 90 A 103 D 116 B
13 C 26 A 39 A 52 B 65 D 78 C 91 C 104 A 117 A
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Superb Academy
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PHYSICS NUCLEAR RADIATION CH#20
1. An alpha particle exerts larger coulomb force on nearby charges than electron because its
charge is:
a) Less than that of electron b) Greater than that of electron
c) Twice that of election d) Zero
2. Which of the following produces more ionization while passing through a gas:
a) Alpha particles b) Beta particles
c) Gamma particles d) Electrons
3. Alpha particles are highly ionized because of their:
a) Greater mass b) Greater charge and low speeds
c) Greater density d) Greater energy
4. The distance traveled by a particle from the source to point where it is stopped in the medium
is called:
a) Its range b) Its displacement
c) Its velocity d) None of these
5. The range of alpha particles in air is less because:
a) It does interact with matter b) it produces intense ionization
c) It is reflected soon d) None of the above
6. Which of the particles does not produce fluorescence in substance like barium platino-cyanide:
a)  -particles b)  -particles
c) Gamma particles d) None of the above
7.  -particles ionize the atoms due to:
a) Electrostatic force of repulsion b) Electrostatic force of attraction
c) Gravitational force d) Direct collision
8.  - particles are:
a) Positively charged b) Negatively charged
c) Neutral d) None of the above
9. The  -particles have erratic path due to their:
a) Repulsion b) High speeds
c) Frequent deflections d) None of the above
10. The penetration power of  -particles is greater than  -particles due to their:
a) Smaller ionization power b) Greater ionization power
c) Equal ionization power d) None of the above
11. Gamma-rays are:
a) Electromagnetic waves b) High energy photons
c) Having high penetrating power d) All of the above
12. The penetrating power of  -rays is:
a) Greater than  -rays b) Smaller than  -rays and  -rays
c) Equal to  -rays and  -rays d) None of the above
13. The penetrating power of  –particles is:

a) Less than  -particles b) Greater than  -particles
c) Equal to  -particles d) None of the above
14. Which of the following radiations are highly penetrating:
a)  -particles b)  -particles
c)  -rays d) None of the above
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15. In pair-production, Gamma-ray photon is converted into:
a) An electron b) A proton
c) A positron d) A pair of electron and positron
16. The range of  –radiation is:
a) Very small b) Very high
c) Not specific d) Zero
17. Capture of a neutron by a nucleus produces:
a) Radio isotope b) Proton
c) Helium d) Deutron
18. Which of the following is electromagnetic in nature:
a)  -rays b)  -rays
c) Gamma rays d) Cathode rays
19. Which of the following materials is used for shielding  -radiations?
a) Wood b) Lead
c) Air d) All of the above
20. Which of the following is not a radiation detector?
a) Wilson cloud chamber b) Geiger counter
c) Cyclotron d) Solid state detector
21. Wilson cloud chamber is an instrument used for:
a) Accelerating negatively charged particles b) Accelerating positively charged particles
c) Making the path of ionizing particle visible d) All of the above
22. Which of the following is used to produce ions of high energy?
a) A cyclotron b) A betatron
c) A Wilson cloud chamber d) A Geiger counter
23. A solid state detector basically consists of a:
a) Silicon crystal b) Pn-junction diode
c) Transistor d) Germanium crystal
24. In which of the following the paths of  and  -particles are observed:
a) Geiger counter b) Cyclotron
c) Wilson cloud chamber d) Betatron
25. Geiger counter is not suitable for:
a) Slow counting b) Fast counting
c) Slow and fast counting d) None of the above
26. Which of the following can be used for fast counting and operating at a low voltage:
a) Wilson cloud chamber b) Geiger counter
c) Scintillation counter d) Solid state detector
28. Which of the following is the most useful tracer:
a) Iodine-131 b) Cobalt-60
c) Carbon-14 d) Strontium-90
29. An  -particle ionizes the atom:
a) Through electrostatic repulsion b) Through electrostatic attraction
c) Through direct collision d) Through gravitational attraction
30. A-3 Mev  -particle can penetrate through an aluminium foil about:
a) 65 mm b) 56 mm
c) 6.5 mm d) 0.065 mm
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31. The range of 7.7 Mev  -particle in air is about:
a) 10 cm b) 20 cm
c) 17 cm d) 7 cm
32.  -particle can penetrate in aluminium foil of:
a) 0.08 mm thickness b) 0.4 mm thickness
c) 0.04 mm thickness d) 0.05 mm thickness
33. Thyroid concave is cured by:
a) Carbon-14 b) Sodium-24
c) Iodine-131 d) Caesium-137
34. The  -particle has:
a) An erratic or zigzag path b) Curved path
c) Circular path d) Elliptical path
35. Alpha radiation are advised for the treatment of skin of a patient because:
a) They are highly ionizing b) They are helium nuclei
c) They are less penetration d) They are positively charged
36.  -particle has penetration power:
a) 100 times more than the of an  -particle b) 100 times has than that of an  -particle
c) 1000 times less than of an  -particle d) 10 times more than that of an  -particle
37. Capture of a neutron by a nucleus results in the formation of:
a) Tritium b) Radio isotope
c) Deutron d) Proton
38. An alpha particle has a charge of:
a) + 2e b) - 2e
c) +e d) -e
39. Gamma rays are:
a) Electromagnetic radiation b) High energy photons
c) All of the above d) None of the above
40. Why gamma radiation’s are used to kill bacteria to sterilize surgical equipment etc:
a) Because they are charge less b) Because they are mass less
c) Because they are highly penetrating d) All of the above
41.  -particles are highly ionizing due to:
a) Their greater energy b) Their greater mass
c) Their high charge and low speed d) Their greater density
42. The interaction with matter depends on:
a) The mass of the particle b) Energy of the particle
c) Charge of the above d) All of the above
43.  -rays have penetration power:
a) Less than  –rays and  –rays b) More than  –rays and  –rays
c) Equal to  –rays and  –rays
d) Sometimes greater and sometimes smaller than  –rays and  –rays
44. Pair production can take place only with:

a) X-rays b) Heat radiations
c)  -rays d) Ultraviolet rays
45. Beta particles are much less ionizing than alpha particles because of:
a) Their smaller mass b) Their smaller energy
c) Their smaller charge and large speeds d) They’re coming out of the nuclei
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46. Pair production can not take place in vacuum as:
a) Mass is not conserved b) Energy is not conserved
c) Momentum is not conserved d) Charge is not conserved
47.  -particles posses greater penetration power than that of  -particles duet to its:
a) Smaller ionization power b) Greater ionization power
c) Neither greater nor smaller ionization power d) The same ionization power
48. The process of making the gas non-conducting immediately after the passage of ionizing
particle through the tube is called:
a) Gaseous discharged b) De-Excitation of discharge
c) Quenching of discharge d) Excitation of discharge
49.  -rays lose their energy by:
a) Pair production b) Compton effect
c) Photo-electric effect d) All of the above
50. Alpha particles are highly ionizing because of:
a) Their high charge and low speeds b) Their greater mass
c) Their larger energy d) Their constituents
51.  -rays are electromagnetic waves like:
a) X-rays b) Light waves
c) Heat waves d) All of the above
52. Which one of the following radiation is extremely penetrating?
a) Neutrons b)  -rays
c)  -rays d)  -rays
53. The  -particle does not travel far enough in air:

a) Due to its high charge b) Duet to its large mass
c) Due to its intense ionization d) Due to its penetration
54.  -radiations are used to sterilize surgical equipment in order to kill bacteria because:
a) They are mass less b) They are charge less
c) They have high penetration power d) All of the above
56. Gamma rays are:
a) High energy photons b) Highly penetrating power
c) Electromagnetic waves d) All of the above
57.  -radiation is used for the treatment of skin of a patient due to:
a) Highly ionizing power b) Low penetration power
c) Positively charged particles d) Helium nuclei
58.  -particles produce fluorescence in:
a) Calcium tungstate b) Zinc sulphide
c) Barium platinum cyanide d) All of the above
60. A device for producing ion of high energy is called:
a) A Betatron b) A Geiger counter
c) A Cyclotron d) A mass spectrograph
61. A solid state detector mainly consists of a:
a) Germanium Crystal b) Silicon crystal
c) Silicon diode d) Transistor
63. Geiger Muller counter always uses:
a) Argon and Alcohol b) Bromine mixed with neon
c) Different gases at different pressures d) Argon only
-4-
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64. Geiger counter is a device to detect:
a) Mass b) Momentum
c) Charge d) Radiation
65. One micro curie is:
a) A thousand curies b) A thousand of a curie
c) A million curie d) A millionth of a curie
66. In 1911, cloud chamber was invented by:
a) Muller b) Rutherford
c) Lawrence d) C.T.R. Wilson
67. A Wilson cloud chamber uses:
a) Super heated liquid b) Vapour’s
c) Supersaturated vapour d) Saturated vapours
68. It is a drawback of G.M. counter:
a)  -particle counter b) Jon counter
c) Fast counting d)  -ray counter
69. Roentgen is the unit of:

a) Heat radiation b) Electromagnetic radiation
c) Light radiation d) Unit of radiation
70. The most useful tracer is:
a) Iodine-131 b) Strontium-90
c) Carbon-14 d) Cobalt-60
71. A device that may be used to detect the passage of a single, light energy charged particle is
called a:
a) Mass spectrograph b) Wilson’s cloud chamber
c) Geiger counter d) Dosimeter
72. Which of the following will be a better shield against  -rays:
a) Air b) Ordinary water
c) Heavy water d) Lead
73. Wilson cloud chamber is an instrument used for:
a) Accelerating + lively charged particles b) Accelerating – lively charged particles
c) Making the path of ionizing particle visible d) All of them
74. In Wilson cloud chamber, the  -particle leave:
a) Straight and continuous tracks b) No definite tracks
c) Thin and continuous tracks d) Thin and discontinuous tracks
76. A Geiger counter counts radioactive particles by:
a) Amplifying the sound theory make as theory strike the walls of tube
b) Emitting detectable light pulses when struck
c) Collecting and measuring the charges of the particles
d) Under going a chemical reaction with each incident particle
77. A device for actually observing the paths of alpha and beta particles is called a:
a) Cyclotron b) Geiger counter
c) Mass spectrogragh d) Wilson’s cloud chamber
78. For producing one ion pair during ionization the energy used up is:
a) 40 eve b) 70 eve
c) 35 ev d) 95 ev
79. Geiger counter is widely used in:
a) Optical experiments b) Laser experiments
c) Mechanical experiments d) Radioactivity experiments
-5-
Superb Academy
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80. Specially designed solid state detector can be used to detect:
a) Alpha rays only b) Beta – rays only
c) Gamma rays only d) X – rays
81. Geiger counter was designed by:
a) Rutherford and Thomson b) Geiger and Wilson
c) Lawrence and Geiger d) Geiger and Muller
82. By producing radiographs  -rays can be used to detect:
a) Void or fissure in the metal casting b) Cracks in metal plates of welding faults
c) Faults within the heavy machinery like jet engine d) All of the above
83. Geiger counter is suitable:
a) For extremely fast counting b) For fast counting
c) For slow counting d) For fast and slow counting
84. In a Wilson cloud chamber, the alpha particles have:
a) Thin and discontinuous tracks b) Irregular cloud tracks
c) Dense straight and continuous tracks d) No definite tracks
85. Which one of the following detectors can count fast and operate at low voltage:
a) Geiger counter b) Wilson cloud chamber
c) Solid state detector d) Scintillation counter
86. Draw back of Geiger counter is:
a) Very high voltage b) Slow counting
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) None
87.  -rays show _______ in Wilson cloud chamber:
a) Thin and discontinuous tracks b) Irregular cloud tracks
c) Dense straight and continuous tracks d) No definite tracks
88. I31 used for the remedy of:
a) Skin cancer b) Thyroid disabilities
c) Lungs cancer d) None
1 C 11 D 21 C 31 D 41 C 51 D 61 C 71 C 81 D
2 A 12 A 22 A 32 C 42 D 52 D 62 - 72 D 82 D
3 B 13 B 23 B 33 C 43 B 53 C 63 A 73 C 83 C
4 A 14 C 24 C 34 A 44 C 54 D 64 D 74 D 84 C
5 B 15 D 25 B 35 C 45 C 55 - 65 D 75 - 85 C
6 C 16 C 26 D 36 A 46 C 56 D 66 D 76 D 86 C
7 A 17 A 27 - 37 B 47 A 57 B 67 C 77 D 87 D
8 B 18 C 28 C 38 A 48 C 58 D 68 C 78 C 88 B
9 C 19 B 29 B 39 C 49 D 59 - 69 D 79 D
10 A 20 C 30 C 40 D 50 A 60 C 70 C 80 C
-6-

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Superb Academy

1. The degree of hotness or coldness of an object is expressed in terms of:

16. One Calorie is equal to:

43. When the pressure is increased, the boiling point of liquid:

47. When most substances are heated:

75. The first law of thermodynamics is merely a statement of:

77. In SI units, Joule is the unit of:

90. The efficiency of a carnot engine depends on:

12. The value of “ 0 ” in Coulomb’s law is _______:

47. The potential due to n-point charges is _______:

77. Electric intensity at a place due to a charged conductor is a:

1. Rate of flow of charge through the surface is known as:

28. The resistance of a conductor increases with the increase in its:

1. The sources of magnetic field are:

11. Two parallel wires carry current in opposite direction:

31. The SI unit of magnetic flux is:

42. The equation B =  o NI/2  R for a toroid can be derived by applying:

1. A moving coil d Arsenal galvanometer is based on the:

1. Modern physics came into existence due to:

63. In Compton scattering, the change in the wavelength is given by:

64. The momentum of moving photon is:

11. Neil Bohr’s model was introduced in _______:

26. The first ground state energy “E1” is given as _______:

56. Lyman series lies in:

52. During fission process, a large amount of:

13. The penetrating power of  –particles is:

44. Pair production can take place only with:

53. The  -particle does not travel far enough in air:

69. Roentgen is the unit of:

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