IIT/NEET – ACADEMY

XII - NEET - GRAND TEST - 3

Date : 30.11.2022 (NEET MODEL) Time : 3hrs
Max. Marks : 720

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the

answer sheet.

Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry , Botany &

Zoology). Each part contains 45 questions.

Part – A (Physics) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT.

Part – B (Chemistry) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT

Part – C (Botany&Zoology) : Contains 90 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT

Marking Scheme : For each question in every part you will be awarded

4 Marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark

if no bubbles are darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect answer.

SUBJECT PAPER SETTER

PHYSICS Mr.Sivarao
Mr.P.Srinivasarao
CHEMISTRY
Mr.Ali
BOTANY Mr. Lokesh
ZOOLOGY Mrs.Ameena naveed

******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

GT - 3 XII _NEET MODEL-30.11.2022
PHYSICS
1. Which of the following sets cannot enter into the list of fundamental quantities in
any system of units ?
1) Length, time, velocity 2) Length, mass, velocity
3) Mass, time, velocity 4) Length, time, mass
2. A point charge ‘Q’ is placed off centre inside a thin conducting shell of radius ‘R’
 1 
as shown in the figure.  K   . Electric field at point ‘P’ in this situation will
 40 
be :

KQ KQ KQ
1) 2) 3) 4) Data insufficient
25R 2
9R 2
9 R  25R 2
2

3. Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron (ne ) and hole (nh ) concentration of
1.7 1015 m3 . On doping with boron hole concentration nh increases to 4.7 1021 m3 .
The doped semiconductor is of :
1) N–type with electron concentration ne  3.5  1012 m 3
2) P–type with electron concentration ne  6.14  108 m 3
3) N–type with electron concentration ne  8.2  109 m 3
4) P–type with electron concentration ne  2.89  1030 m 3
4. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength  is incident on a photosensitive surface
of negligible work function. If the photoelectrons emitted from the surface have
the de-Broglie wavelength 0 then  is equal to :
2
2mc  2mc  2 h  2mc 
1)  0 2)   0 3) 0 4)   0
h  h  2mc  h 
5. A uniform chain of length 4 m is kept on a table such that 120 cm hangs freely
from the edge of the table. The total mass of chain is 8 kg. The work done in
pulling the entire chain on the table slowly is :
1) 9.6 J 2) 3.6 J 3) 7.2 J 4) 14.4 J
6. Current passed through the switch ‘S’ after closing it in the circuit shown in the
figure is :

1) 1.77 A 2) 2.86 A 3) 5.3 A 4) Zero

7. The escape velocity from a planet is ve . A tunnel is dug along the diameter of the
planet. If a small body of mass m is dropped in to this tunnel then the kinetic
energy of the body as pass through the centre of the planet is :
1 1
1) mve2 2) mve2 3) mve2 4) Zero
2 4
8. Energy level A, B and C of a certain atom corresponds to increasing values of
energy i.e. EA  EB  EC . If 1 , 2 and 3 are wavelengths of radiations corresponding
to transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, then which of the following
relation is correct?
 1 1
1)  3  1 2 2) 1   2  3 3)  3  12   22 4)  3  
1   2 1  2

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GT - 3 XII _NEET MODEL-30.11.2022
9. The network shown below is a part of a complete circuit. If a current of 5A is
flowing through it and it is decreasing at a rate of 103 A/s, then magnitude of
potential difference between the points P & Q will be :

1) 20 V 2) 15 V 3) 10 V 4) 7 V
10. The reading of the ammeter and voltmeters connected in the given circuit are
respectively :

1) 2A, 110 V 2) 2A, 0 V 3) 2A, 55 V 4) 1A, 0 V

11. The equation for a wave travelling in x-direction on a stretched string is given by
y  (5cm)sin{(2 cm1 ) x  (100) s 1t} Acceleration of a particle at x = 8 cm and t = 0.11
s will be :
1) 20 2 cm / s 2 2) 10 2cm / s 2 3) 5 2cm / s 2 4) Zero
12. A block of mass 2 kg is projected on a rough horizontal surface with momentum
30 kg m/s. If block stopped after moving a distance 15 m on the surface then
coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is :
1) 1.4 2) 0.4 3) 0.75 4) 0.25
13. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v making an angle of 450 with the
horizontal. The magnitude of the angular momentum of the projectile about the
point of projection when the particle is at its maximum height h is :
mv3 mv3
1) 2) m 2 gh3 3) 4) Both (1) and (2)
4 2g 2 2g
14. A ball rolls on the top of stair way with a horizontal velocity u m/s. If the steps
are x m high and y m wide if the ball hits the edge of the nth step. Then value of n
will be :
2x 2u xu 2 2xu 2 x 2u
1) n  2) n  2 3) n  4) n 
gy gy gy 2 gy
15. PQ = Q R = l, rod is rotating in a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to plane
of rod as shown about point P. Potential difference between P and R is :

B / 2 B / 2
1) 2) Zero 3) 4) B / 2
2 3
16. Monochromatic light of wavelength 3000Å is incident on a surface area 4 cm2 . If
intensity of light is 150m W / m2 . The rate at which photons strike the target is :
1) 3 1012 / S 2) 6 1015 / S 3) 9 1013 / S 4) 12 1010 / S
17. The radius of a nucleus with nucleon number 16 is 5 1015 m. The radius of other
nucleus with nucleon number 128 will be :
3 128
1) 5 1015 m 2)  1016 m 3) 1014 m 4)  1015 m
5 16

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GT - 3 XII _NEET MODEL-30.11.2022
18. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge of inclination  as shown
in the figure. A force F is applied over the wedge such that block remains
stationary over the wedge. Value of F is :

1) (m  M ) g 2) (m  M ) g cot  3) mg cosec 4) (m  M ) g tan 

19. Two conducting rods are joined to each other to form a composite rod as shown
in the figure.

Their thermal conductivities and lengths are shown. Temperature of junction of

two rods will be :
1) 23.80 C 2) 57.10 C 3) 76.20 C 4) 88.50 C
20. The efficiency of Carnot heat engine working between the temperature 273 K and
2730 C is :
1) Zero 2) 25% 3) 50% 4) 40%
21. A parallel plate capacitor of capacity 20 F with air in the gap between the plates.
Now if one half of the space is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant K = 4
as shown in the figure, then new capacity of the capacitor becomes :

1) 30 F 2) 50 F 3) 48 F 4) 60 F
22. A cylindrical copper rod is reformed to thrice its original length. Resistance
between its ends before the change was R. Now its new resistance becomes :
R
1) 3R 2) 6 R 3) 9 R 4)
9
23. A proton carrying 4 MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of radius R in
uniform magnetic field. Energy of   particle to describe a circle of same radius
in same field should be :
1) 1 MeV 2) 4 MeV 3) 7 MeV 4) 2 MeV
24. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 30 division/mA and its
voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage) is 20 division/V. The
resistance of the galvanometer is :
1) 500 2) 1700 3) 800 4) 1500
25. RMS value of the current in a circuit given by I  (5sin t  7 cos t ) A, will be :
12
1) 32 A 2) 37 A 3) 74 A 4) A
2
26. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz travels in free space along the
 
x direction. At a particular point in space and time E  7.5 ˆj V /m. The value of B
at this point is :
 
8 ˆ
1) 7.5  10  k T 2) 3.5  108 kˆ T 3) 2.5  10 8 kˆ T 4) 2.5  108 kˆ T
27. A person is having hypermetropic eye whose near point is at 125 cm. What is the
power of the spectacles required for that person?
1) 2.5 D 2) –3.2 D 3) 3.2 D 4) –3.6 D
28. A person wants to resolve two thin poles standing near each other from the
distance of 2 km. The minimum separation between poles should be nearly
(limit of resolution of eye, R  1arc min)
1) 30 cm 2) 40 cm 3) 60 cm 4) 120 cm

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GT - 3 XII _NEET MODEL-30.11.2022
29. Assertion (A) : The centre of mas of a proton and an electron, when they released
from their respective positions remains at rest.
Reason (R) : The centre of mass remain at rest, if no external force is applied.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct and R is incorrect.
4) Both A and R are incorrect.
30. Velocity-time graph of two particles A and B moving in a straight line are shown
in the figure. Acceleration of A with respect to B will have magnitude :

4 3 1 7
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 4 3 3
31. If wavelength corresponding to 3rd line of Lyman series is  , then the wavelength
corresponding to last line of Balmer series will be :
15 9 27 24
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 8 16 5
32. The acceleration of a proton at a certain moment moving in a magnetic field
 
B  3iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ is a  2iˆ  xjˆ  kˆ. The value of x is :
1) 1.0 2) 1.25 3) 2.50 4) 2.75
33. A boat having a speed of 5 km/h in still water, crosses a river of width 500 m in
shortest possible path in 10 minutes. The speed of river in km/h is :
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
34. The refracting angle of a prism ‘A’ and refractive index of the material of the
 A
prism is cot   . The angle of minimum deviation is :
2
1) 90  A
0
2) 900  A 3) 1800  2A 4) 1800  2A
35. At constant pressure, how much fraction of heat supplied to gas is converted into
mechanical work ?
  1 
1)   1 2) 3) 4)
 1   1
36. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km above the earth is the same as at
a depth d below the surface of earth. The d is equal to :
1
1) 1 km 2) 2 km 3) 4 km 4) km
4
37. In a stretched string, wave equation is given by y = 0.4 sin(100 t – 10 x), where x
and y are in meter and t is in second and linear mass density  = 0.1 kg/m. Then
the tension in the string is :
1) 10 N 2) 20 N 3) 30 N 4) 40 N
38. In YSDE, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where path difference is 

is l0 . The intensity of light at a point where the path difference is , will be :
4
(Consider intensity of light through both slit is same and  is wavelength of light)
l l l
1) l0 2) 0 3) 0 4) 0
4 2 16
39. At 0 K, intrinsic semiconductor behaves as :
1) A conductor 2) An insulator 3) A superconductor 4) Both (1) & (3)
40. A hollow sphere of volume V is floating on water surface with half immersed in it.
What should be the minimum volume of water poured inside the sphere so that
the sphere now sinks into the water ?
V V V
1) V 2) 3) 4)
3 2 4

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GT - 3 XII _NEET MODEL-30.11.2022
41. An elastic material of young’s modulus Y is subjected to a stress S. The elastic
energy stored per unit volume of the material is :
2Y S2 S2 S2
1) 2 2) 3) 4)
S 2Y Y 2Y 2
42. Match the following columns :
Column-I Column-II
(A) Zener diode (i) Intrinsic semi conductor doped with
acceptor impurity
(B) Energy gap of semiconductor (ii) > 3ev
(C) Energy gap of insulator (iii) Voltage regulator
(D) P-type semi conductor (iv) < 3ev

1) A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i 2) A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii

3) A–i, B–iv, C–iii, D–ii 4) A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i

43. Statement-1 : Magnetic dip at poles is radian.
2
Statement-2 : Horizontal component of earth magnetic field at poles is zero.
1) Both statements I and II are correct.
2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
44. Match Column–I and Column-II and choose the correct match from the given
choices.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Root mean square speed of gas molecules (P) 1 2
nmv
3
(B) Pressure exerted by ideal gas (Q) 3RT
M
(C) Average kinetic energy of a molecule (R) 5
RT
2
(D) Total internal energy of 1 mole of a diatomic gas (S) 3
k BT
2
1) (A)–(R), (B)–(P), (C)–(S), (D)–(Q) 2) (A)–(Q), (B)–(R), (C)–(S), (D)–(P)
3) (A)–(Q), (B)–(P), (C)–(S), (D)–(R) 4) (A)–(R), (B)–(Q), (C)–(P), (D)–(S)
45. A cup of coffee cools from 90 C to 800 C in ‘t’ minutes, when the room
0

temperature is 200 C. The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 800 C
to 600 C at a room temperature same at 200 C is :
13 13 10 5
1) t 2) t 3) t 4) t
10 5 13 13
CHEMISTRY
46. Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism?

1) III only 2) Both I and III 3) Both I and II 4) Both II and III
47. The molar conductance of 0.01M a weak acid HX is 6 S.cm2. mol–1 and the
limiting molar conductivity of HX is 300 S.cm2. mol–1. Then the dissociation
constant of HX is :
1) 4.2 105 2) 4 106 3) 5.2 106 4) 2.5 109
48. Among the following compounds, the correct order of electrophilic substitution
reaction is

1) P>Q>R>S 2) S>Q>P>R 3) Q>P>R>S 4) Q>P>S>R

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49. Reaction P  Q The half-life of the reaction and concentration of P is given in
graph.

Concentration of P decreases from 1 M to 0.25 M in 100 minute, the initial rate of

reaction (in M/minute)
1) 1.25 10–3 2) 4.25 10–3 3) 7.5 10–3 4) 10–2
50. Most stable radical is

51. Consider the following data.

Ion m
 S cm mol 
2 1

Li+ 40
Na+ 50
NO3 70
A solution that is 0.1M in LiNO3 and 0.2M in NaNO3 has conductivity x S cm-1.
The value of x is
1) 0.015 2) 0.028 3) 0.035 4) 0.045
52. In the given reaction,

53. In a solid cation P occupy (1/8)th of the tetrahedral voids and cation Q occupy
(1/4)th of the octahedral voids, and oxide ions are arranged in cubic close packed
structure. The formula of the compound is
1) PQ2O3 2) P2QO4 3) PQO4 4) PQ4O4
54. In the given reaction, the compound (A) is

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55. The sulphide ore is subjected to the following metallurgical processes

(A), (B) and (C) are respectively are

1) Roasting, Oxidation, Hydrolysis 2) Oxidation, Roasting, Electrolysis
3) Calcination, Roasting, Hydrolysis 4) Roasting, Reduction, Electrolysis
56. Which of the following reactions would give isopropyl-benzene as the major
product?

1) I and IV only 2) II and III only 3) II, III, IV only 4) All of the above
57. A 100 mL solution of 0.1 M CH3COOH is titrated with 0.1 M NaOH, calculate the
pH at 25% completion of the titration.
(pKa = 4.74) (log3 = 0.48)
1) 4.26 2) 5.22 3) 4.74 4) 5.00

58.

Correct order of SN2 reaction is

1) iii> i > ii 2) iii > ii > i 3) i > iii > ii 4) i > ii > iii
59. Choose the incorrect statement.
1) Internal energy change (E) is zero for isothermal process involving ideal gas.
2) Enthalpy is a state function.
3) Work done (magnitude only) in isothermal irreversible contraction is always
higher than the work done in isothermal irreversible expansion
4) Work done (only magnitude) in reversible expansion is higher than the work
done in reversible contraction.
60. The compound that reacts the fastest with sodium methoxide is

Cl Cl Cl Cl
NO2
1) 2) 3) 4)

NO2
NO2 NO2
61. 25 mL of H2O2 solution was added to the excess of acidified KI solution. The
iodine so liberated required 40 mL of 0.1 M sodium thiosulphate solution. The
molarity of H2O2 solution is
1) 0.02 M 2) 0.04 M 3) 0.06 M 4) 0.08 M
62. The correct order of acidic nature of the following compound is

1) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 2) 1 > 2 > 4 > 3 3) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 4) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1

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63. An average human brain consumes the equivalent energy of 10 g glucose per
hour. Choose the incorrect option, based on the following data:
H 0f  H 2O, l   286kJ / mol ,
H 0f  CO2 , g   394kJ / mol
H 0f  glu cos e   1260kJ / mol
1) Heat of combustion of glucose is -2820 kJ/mol
2) Brain consumes 156.66kJ energy per hour (average)
3) Heat produced by glucose gets fully stored in body without any loss
4) All of the above
64. Which one among the following alcohols will give iodoform on treatment with
iodine and sodium hydroxide?
C6 H 5  CH  C6 H 5 C6 H 5  CH  CH 3 H 3C  CH 2  CH  C6 H 5
1) 2) H 3C  OH 3) 4)
OH OH OH
65. Which of the following shows relatively lower pH ?
1) aq.NaCl 2) aq.CH3COONa 3) aq.CH3COONH4 4) aq.NH4Cl
66. When CH2 = CH – O – CH2 – CH3 reacts with one mole of HI, one of the products
formed is
1) ethane 2) ethanol 3) iodoethene 4) ethanal
67. Which of the following cannot change the position of equilibrium as well as
magnitude of equilibrium constant ?
1) Concentration 2) Pressure 3) Catalyst 4) Temperature

68.

69. 24g of diffuoroacetic acid in 400g of water has observed freezing point depression
by 1.4K. The observed freezing point depression by 1.4K. The observed freezing
point depression by 1.4K. The van’t Holf factor for diffuoroacetic acid is ( K f of
1
water  186Kkgmol ; Atomic weight of F=19)
1) 1.45 2) 0.60 3) 1.05 4) 1.20

70. Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes
aldol condensation followed by heating?

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71. Out of the following statements, choose an incorrect statement.
1
1) The average oxidation state of nitrogen in N3H is 
3
2) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d5 4s1(Atomic number of Cr=24)
3) The magnetic quantum number may have a negative integer value
4) XeF6 undergoes hydrolysis to give XeO4.
72. The correct order of acidic strength of the carboxylic acids is

1) I > II > III 2) II > III > I 3) III > II > I 4) II > I > III
73. Select the incorrect statement among the following.
1) For the phenomenon of adsorption ∆G < 0
2) At high concentration of soap in water (above CMC), an associated colloid will
be formed
3) For the process of adsorption, ∆S is negative
4) For a negative sol flocculation value of tri positive cation is greater than di
positive cation.
74. The increasing order of basic strength for the following amines in aqueous phase
is
(1) aniline (2) triethylamine
(3) ammonia (4) triphenylamine
1) (1)<(4)<(3)<(2) 2) (4)<(1)<(3)<(2) 3) (3)<(1)<(4)<(2) 4) (3)<(1)<(2)<(4)
75. AgCl becomes more soluble in liquid ammonia due to the formation of a complex
X and CuSO4 gets deep blue colour when dissolved in liquid ammonia due to the
formation of a complex Y. In X and Y the coordination numbers of central metal
ions respectively are :
1) 4,6 2) 2,4 3) 6,4 4) 2,6
76. Assertion : Nylon-6 is a condensation polymer.
Reason : It is a polymer of carpolactum.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is fasle
4) If both assertion and reason are fasle
77. Consider the following complex :
[Cr(NH3)4(NO2)2] ;The oxidation number and number of d-electrons of metal ion
are respectively
1) 2, 4 2) 2, 6 3) 2, 5 4) 3, 3

78. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as

1) antiseptic 2) antipyretic 3) antibiotic 4) analgesic
79. When sulphur in the form of S8 is heated at 900 K, its initial partial pressure of
one atm falls by 50% at equilibrium. This is because of conversion of some S8 to
S2. Find the value of equilibrium constant Kp for this reaction.

1) 6 atm3 2) 32 atm3 3) 8 atm3 4) 4 atm3

80. Among the follwoing, the one which is not a “greenhouse gas”, is
1) N2O 2) CO2 3) CH4 4) O2

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81. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct? (I) An f-orbital can
accommodate maximum 14 electrons. (II) Value of azimuthal quantum number
for f-orbital is 4. (III) For H-atom, energy of 4f-orbital is greater than energy of 4d
h
orbital. (IV) The orbital angular momentum of electron in f-orbitals is 2 3

1) I, II, III, IV 2) II, III 3) I, IV 4) I, III
82. For alkali metals, which one of the following trends is incorrect?
1) Hydration energy : Li+>Na+>K+>Rb+
2) Ionization energy : Li>Na>K>Rb
3) Density : Li < Na < K <Rb 4) Atomic size : Li < Na < K <Rb
83. Match the following:
Column – I Column - II
(A) 1 (P) Charle’s law
P
V
(B) Partial pressure  mole fraction of gas (Q) Boyle’s law
in mixture
(C) V  T at constant P and n (R) Avogadro’s law
(D) V  n at constant T and P (where n = (S) Dalton’s law
.
number of moles of gas)
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) Q S P R 2) S Q P R
3) R S P Q 4) Q P S R
84. The solubilities of CaSO4, BeSO4, MgSO4 and BaSO4 will follows the order.
1) BeSO4> MgSO4> CaSO4> BaSO4 2) BeSO4> CaSO4> MgSO4> BaSO4
3) MgSO4> BeSO4> CaSO4> BaSO4 4) CaSO4> BeSO4> MgSO4> BaSO4
85. The wavelength of a spectral line for an electronic transition is inversely related to
1) Number of electrons undergoing transition
2) The nuclear charge of the atom
3) Velocity of an electron undergoing transition
4) The difference in the energy levels involved in the transition
86. Assertion : H3BO3 is a weak monobasic acid.
Reason : Water extracts the proton of H3BO3.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is fasle
4) If both assertion and reason are fasle
87. Assertion (A) : Mn-atom loses ns electrons first during ionization as compared to
(n-1) d electrons.
Reason (R) : The effective nuclear charge experienced by (n-1)d electrons is
greater than that by ns electrons.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct and R is incorrect. 4) Both A and R are incorrect.
88. Which one of the silicon components does not exist?
1) SiF62  2) Si(OH)4 3) SiCl62  4) SiCl4
89. If AgNO3 solution is added in excess to 1M solution of CoCl3.xNH3, one mole of
AgCl is formed. What is the value of x ?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
90. Which of the following is correct about H-bonding in DNA?
1) A – T, G – C 2) A – G, T – G 3) G – T, A – C 4) A – A, T – T

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BIOLOGY
91. Find the correct match :
1) Albugo – no cross wall, multinucleate, & nonmotile zoospores.
2) Aspergillus – Septate, coenocytic & endogenous origin of Ascospores.
3) Agaricus – Branched, septate & sexual basidiospores produce endogenously.
4) Alternaria – Septate, branched & asexual spores called conidia are produced.
92. Assertion (A) : CJD in humans is caused by an infectious agent consisting of free
RNA.
Reason (R) : Free RNA without protein coat also causes spindle tuber disease in
potato.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is incorrect and R is correct. 4) Both A and R are incorrect.
93. Choose the incorrect match :
1) Perisperm – Persistant nucellus. 2) Pericarp – Wall of seed (seed coat).
3) Periderm – Consists of phellogen, phellem & phelloderm.
4) Perigynous – Ovary half inferior.
94. In the chloroplast stroma lamella membrane :
1) Lack PS II as well as NADP reductase enzyme.
2) Lack PS II but have NADP reductase enzyme.
3) Lack NADP reductase enzyme but have PS II.
4) Have PS II as well as NADP reductase enzyme.
95. Match the Column-I with Column-II :
Column-I Column-II
(a) Apocarpous (i) Papaver
(b) Polypetalous (ii) Citrus
(c) Syncarpous (iii) Michelia
(d) Epiphyllous (iv) Pisum
(e) Polydelphous (v) Lilly
(f) Epipetalous (vi) Brinjal
1) a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–v, e–ii, f–vi 2) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii, e–v, f–vi
3) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–v, e–ii, f–vi 4) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–vi, e–v, f–ii
96. For the sectional view of chloroplast which is given below. Choose the correct
statement.

1) A – Grana, B – Stroma, C – Stroma lamella, D – Ribosomes.

2) A – Stroma lamella, B – Grana, C – Stroma, D – Ribosomes.
3) A – Stroma lamella, B – Stroma, C – Ribosomes, D – Stroma.
4) A – Stroma, B – Stroma lamella, C – Grana, D – Ribosomes.
97. Statement-I : Coconut water is made of thousands of nuclei (multinucleate
condition).
Statement-II : Sieve tube cells of vascular plants and erythrocytes of mammals
are anucleated (have no nucleus).
1) Both statements I and II are correct.
2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
98. Identify the correct ascending orders of taxa with respect to numbers of leaves at
each node.
(A) Calotropis (B) Mustard (C) Alstonia
1) A,B,C 2) C, B, A 3) B, A, C 4) C, A, B

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99. Match the Column-I with Column-II with respect to the scientist and their
contribution to the science :
Column-I Column-II
(I) Friedrich Meischer (A) X-ray diffraction data on DNA
(II) James Watson & Francis Crick (B) Double helix structure of DNA
(III) Maurice wilkins & Rosland franklin (C) Nuclein
(IV) Erwin Chargaff (D) Ratio of A & T and G & C
are constant and equal
to 1 in dsDNA
(V) George Gamov (E) Decipher the genetic code
(F) Enzymatic synthesis of RNA
I II III IV V I II III IV V
1) D C B F E 2) C B A D E
3) A B C D E 4) C D B A F
100. Assertion (A) : DNA dependent RNA polymerase is only capable of catalysing the
process of elongation.
Reason (R) : DNA dependent RNA polymerase associated transiently with
initiation factor () to initiate and termination factor () to terminate the process
of transcription.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct and R is incorrect. 4) Both A and R are incorrect.
101. _______ is a initiation codon and _____,______,_____, are stop terminator codons.
1) AUG and GUG, UAG, UAC 2) AUG and UAA, UAG, UGA
3) GUG and UAA, UAG, GAA 4) AUG and UAA, GGA, AAG
102. The figures below shows 3 phases of mitosis select the option given correct
identification together with the correct event ?

1) C–Telophase–Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters.

2) B–Anaphase–Segregation of homologous chromosomes.
3) A–Prophase–Chromosomes get fully condensed.
4) C–Metaphase–Condensation of chromatin to form chromosome.
103. The spore can develop into a creeping, green, branched and frequently
filamentous stage in A and is called as B (or) develops into inconspicuous,
small but multicellular free living mostly photosynthetic thalloid gametophyte in
C and is called as D . Identify A, B, C & D.
1) A – Mosses, B – Prothallus, C – Pteridophytes, D – Protonema.
2) A – Mosses, B – Protonema, C – Pteridophytes, D – Prothallus.
3) A – Pteridophytes, B – Prothallus, C – Mosses, D – Protonema.
4) A – Pteridophytes, B – Protonema, C – Mosses, D – Prothallus.
104. From the given below how many of the following shows haplontic life cycle.
Volvox, Fucus, Chlamydomonas, Ectocaprus, Spirogyra,
Polysiphonia, Funaria, Equisetum, Pinus.
1) 4 2) 2 3) 3 4) 5
105. Which of the following organelles is not correctly matched with its feature ?
Organelle Feature
1) Smooth endoplasmic – Synthesis of steroidal hormones in
reticulum animals
2) Golgi apparatus – Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
3) Lysosomes – Rich in alkaline hydrolsases
4) Elaioplasts – Store oils and fats

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106. Choose the correct match :
1) Roots arise from the parts of plant other than radicle are called fibrous roots,
present in grass, monstera.
2) Roots coming out from the lower nodes of stem are called prop roots, present
in sugarcane, maize.
3) Roots arising from the branches and hanging, useful for support, are called
stilt roots, present in Banyan tree.
4) Roots come out of the ground and grow vertically upwards, called as
pneumatophores, present in Rhizophora.
107. Molecular scissors are _______ and Molecular glue is _____.
1) Restriction enzymes – only exonucleases, DNA ligase.
2) Restriction enzymes – only endonucleases, DNA ligase.
3) Restriction enzymes – both exonucleases & endonucleases, DNA ligase.
4) DNases, DNA polymerase.
108. Match the following column-I & Column-II :
Column-I Column-II
(A) Spring wood or early wood (I) Lighter in colour
(B) Autumn wood or late wood (II) Density high
(III) Density low
(IV) Darker in colour
(V) Larger number of xylary elements
(VI) Vessels with wider cavity
(VII) Lesser number of xylary elements
(VIII) Vessels with small cavity
Which of the following match is correct ?
1) A–II, IV, VII, VIII; B–I, III, V, VI 2) A–I, II, VIII, VII; B : III, IV, V, VI
3) A–I, III, V, VI; B–II, IV, VII, VIII 4) A–I, III, VII, VIII; B–II, IV V, VI
109. In grasses leaves are exposed when bulliform cells becomes _____ and leaves curl
inwards when they are _______ respectively.
1) Flaccid, Turgid 2) Plasmolysed, Turgid
3) Turgid, Flaccid 4) Both (2) and (1)
110. Match the column I with column II :
Column-I Column-II
(a) Xylem parenchyma (i) Absent in most of the monocots
(b) Sclereids (ii) Long cylindrical tube-like structure
(c) Phloem parenchyma (iii) Food and tannins
(d) Vessel (iv) Fruit walls of nuts
1) a–(i), b–(ii), c–(iii), d–(iv) 2) a–(ii), b–(iv), c–(iii), d–(i)
3) a–(iii), b–(iv), c–(i), d–(ii) 4) a–(iii), b–(ii), c–(i), d–(iv)
111. Which of the following is incorrect ?
1) The acid insoluble fraction, has only four types of organic compounds,
proteins, polysaccharides nucleic acids and lipids.
2) Chemical compounds found in living organisms are of two types, acid soluble
and acid insoluble.
3) The compounds which are found in the acid insoluble fraction are called
micromolecules.
4) The acid soluble pool represents roughly the cytoplasmic composition.
112. Read the following statement (A-D) :
(A) Each protein is a polymer of amino acids.
(B) A protein is a hetero polymer and not a homopolymer.
(C) Dietary proteins are the source of essential amino acid.
(D) Collagen is the most abundant protein in whole of the biosphere.
Identify how many of the statements are correct :
1) Three 2) One 3) Two 4) Four
113. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called :
1) Equatorial plate 2) Kinetochore 3) Bivalent 4) Axoneme

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114. Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer
from the codes given below :
Column-I Column-II
(Type of secondary metabolite) (Example)
(A) Alkaloid (I) Abrin
(B) Toxin (II) Morphine
(C) Lectin (III) Vinblastin
(D) Drug (IV) Concanavalin A
Codes :
A B C D A B C D
1) I II III IV 2) II I IV III
3) II I III IV 4) I II IV III
115. The furrow gradually deepens and ultimately joins in the centre dividing the cell
cytoplasm into two. Here, the cell is :
1) Animal cell 2) Plant cell 3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Only Root tip cells
116. What will be the direction of flow of water when a plant cell is placed in a
Hyptonic solution ?
1) Water will flow in both directions. 2) Water will flow out of the cell.
3) Water will flow into the cell. 4) No flow of water in any direction.
117. The reduction of one molecule of atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into two molecules of
ammonia by the nitrogenase enzyme requires :
1) 4e–, 4H+, and 8ATP 2) 4e–, 4H+, and 16ATP
3) 8e , 8H , and 8ATP
– + 4) 8e–, 8H+, and 16ATP
118. Match the element with its associated functions/roles and choose the correct
option among given below :
Column-I Column-II
(A) Boron (I) Splitting of H 2O to liberate O2 during photosynthesis
(B) Manganese (II) Needed for synthesis of auxins
(C) Molybdenum (III) Component of nitrogenase
(D) Zinc (IV) Pollen germination
(E) Iron (V) Essential for the formation of chlorophyll
Codes :
A B C D E A B C D E
1) I II III IV V 2) IV I III II V
3) III II IV V I 4) II III V I IV
119. Attraction of water molecules to polar surfaces (such as the surface of trachery
elements) is called as :
1) Connation 2) Adnation 3) Cohesion 4) Adhesion
120. Select the incorrect match from the following :
1) One Calvin cycle – Requires 3 ATP and 2 NADPH.
2) C4 plant – First stable product formed is PGA.
3) C3 plants – 20-250C is optimum for photosynthesis.
4) Hatch and Slack – Primary CO2 acceptor pathway is phosphoneolpyruvate.
121. Which statement is wrong for Kreb’s cycle ?
1) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+.
2) There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is reduced to FADH2.
3) During conversion of succinyl Co-A to succininc acid, a molecule of GTP is
synthesised.
4) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl Co-A) with pyruvic
acid to yield citric acid.

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122. Match the column-I with Column II :
Column-I Column-II
(Family – floral diagram) (Family – floral formula)
(I) (A)

(II) (B)

(III) (C)

(IV) (D)

1) I–B, II–C, III–A, IV–D 2) I–B, II–D, III–C, IV–A

3) I–B, II–A, III–C, IV–D 4) I–A, II–B, III–C, IV–D
123. To make bacterial cell competent and take up DNA, which of the following is
required ?
1) 900 C temperature 2) Divalent calcium ions
3) Selectable marker 4) Chitinase
124. The phytohormone, which was first isolated from human urine, shows :
(a) Bolting effect. (b) Apical dominance.
(c) Control of xylem differentiation. (d) Promote young leaf senescene.
(e) Ripening of fruit. (f) Initiation of rooting is stem cuttings
1) b, c and f 2) a, d and e 3) b, e and f 4) a, b and d
125. Which of the following carries a natural plasmid that can most effectively and
exclusively be used in transforming plant cell only ?
1) Meloidogyne incognita 2) Bacillus thuringiensis
3) Agrobacterium tumifaciens 4) Escherichia coli
126. Match the following :
Column-I Column-II
(A) IAA (I) Herring sperm DNA
(B) ABA (II) Increase the length of grape stalk
(C) Ethylene (III) Stomatal closure
(D) GA3 (IV) Weed-free lawns
(E) Cytokinin (V) Ripening of fruits
Codes :
A B C D E A B C D E
1) IV III V II I 2) V III IV II I
3) IV I V III II 4) V III II I IV
127. Which of the following statement is correct ?
1) Strobilanthus Kunthiana flowers once in 12 years.
2) Formation of the haploid embryo is universal in all sexually reproducing
organisms.
3) In the majority of organisms, both male and female gametes are stationary.
4) Sexual reproduction is an elaborate, complex and rapid process as compared
to asexual reproduction.

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128. Given below is a sample of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the :
5’_ GAATTC_3’
3’_CTTAAG_5’
1) Deletion mutation 2) Start codon at the 5’ end
3) Palindromic sequence of base pairs 4) Replication completed
129. Given below are four statements pertaining to separation of DNA fragments using
Gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements.
(a) DNA is negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the
Anode terminal.
(b) Now a days the most commonly used matrix is Algin, extracted from green
algae.
(c) Smaller the size of DNA fragment, larger is the distance it travels through it.
(d) Pure DNA can be visualized directly during electrophoresis.
Choose correct answer from the options given below :
1) (a), (c) and (d) 2) (a), (b) and (c) 3) (b), (c) and (d) 4) (a), (b) and (d)
130. The growth of a root elongating at a constant rate will be represented by :

1) A only 2) B only 3) Both A and B 4) Neither A nor B

131. When recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme
  galactosidase. This results in the following in except :
1) Insertional inactivation.
2) Recombinant colonies do not produce any colour.
3) Inactivation of enzyme (   galactosidase).
4) Chromogenic substrate is converted into product by recombinant colonies.
132. The permanent cure of gene therapy can be :
1) Cells isolated from bone marrow in an adult were cultured and transformed
with corrected gene.
2) Cells isolated from thymus in an adult were cultured and transformed with
corrected gene.
3) Cells isolated from bone marrow in an embryo were cultured and transformed
with corrected gene.
4) Both (1) and (2).
133. Match the columns :
Column-I Column-II
(A) Rosie (I)   1 antitrypsin
(B) ELISA (II) Protein enriched milk
(C) ROP (III) Test to detect antigen or antibody
(D) Emphysema (IV) Codes for protein involved in plasmid replication
1) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I 2) A–I, B–III, C–IV, D–II
3) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV 4) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
134. Read the following statement and select the right choice :
(I) Semi-dwarf varieties, Jaya and Ratna were developed in IRRI, Philipines.
(II) Classical plant breeding involves crossing or hybridization of pure lines.
(III) Saccharum barberi was originally grown in South India.
(IV) Genetic variability is the root of any breeding programme.
1) Only I is correct 2) II and IV are correct
3) I, II and III are correct 4) II, III and IV are correct

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135. Given below are three statements (A-B) each with one or more blanks. Select the
option which correctly fills the blanks in the statements :
(A) Bioactive molecule, _______ is used as immunosuppressive agent in organ
transplant patients, it is produced by the fungus ______.
(B) Primary treatment of sewage involves physical removal of small and large
particles through _______.
Options :
1) A – Antibiotic, Trichoderma polysporum; B – filtration and sedimentation.
2) A – Cyclosporin A, Trichoderma polysporum; B – filtration and sedimentation.
3) A – Cyclosporin A, Trichoderma polysporum; B – Centrifugation and
sedimentation.
4) A – Antibiotic, Trichoderma polysporum; B – Centrifugation and sedimentation.
136. Which is the primary female sex organ?
1) Uterus 2) Ovaries 3) Oviducts 4) Vagina
137. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of lungs is
1) Less than the partial pressure of oxygen in deoxygenated blood
2) Less than the partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood
3) Less than the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air
4) Same as that in blood vessels supplying the tissues.
138. What is common between pigeon, camel and platypus?
1) Oviparity 2) Homeothermy 3) Jaws without teeth 4) Type of skull
139. Which of the following is a member of aschelminthes?
1) Fasciola 2) Earthworm 3) Leech 4) Ascaris
140. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. cockroach.
1) Collaterial gland – Secretion forms ootheca
2) Spermatheca – Stores sperms, received during copulation
3) Anal style – Sexual dimorphism
4) Anal cerci – Present on 9th abdominal segment
141. Arrange the following nephridia in increasing order of their segmental location
starting from anterior end if A = Septal, B = integumentary, C= Pharyngeal.
1) C, A and B 2) C, B and A 3) B, C and A 4) A, C and B
142. Blood transport of CO2 occurs in three forms. The correct percentage of CO2 in
these forms is

As Carbaminohaemoglobin As Dissolved form in

in RBC bicarbonates plasma
1) 20-25% 70% 7%
2) 7% 2-25% 70%
3) 20-25% 7% 70%
4) 70% 20-25% 7%

143. The ovarian stroma is divided into zones

1) Peripheral medulla and inner cortex
2) Peripheral epithelia and inner endothelia
3) Peripheral cortex and inner medulla
4) Peripheral endothelia and inner epithelia
144. What do you call an organization of group of similar cells along with intercellular
substances?
1) Organ 2) System 3) Tissue 4) Cell membrane
145. Which of the following is a simple form of movement?
1) Streaming of protoplasm in amoeba 2) Ciliary movement in paramecium
3 Flagellar movement in Euglena 4) All of these
146. Which of the following reaction occurs due to secretions of the enzyme of
intestinal juice?
1) Peptones 
Trypsin
 Dipeptides 2) Chymotrypsinogen Trypsin
 Chymotrypsin
3) Peptides 
Dipeptidase
 Dipeptide+amino acid 4) Trypsinogen 
Enterokinase
Trypsin
147. Which of the following is not a function of bile?
1) Emulsification of large fat molecules
2) Activates and increases the action of lipase on fats
3) Formation of water insoluble micelles
4) Its constituents provide colour to faeces

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148. Narrowing of lumen of arteries caused due to deposition of calcium, fat,
cholesterol and fibrous tissue that affects blood supply to the myocardium of
heart is called
1) Angina 2) Atherosclerosis 3) Heart failure 4) Cardiac arrest
149. Additional volume of air that can be expired by forceful expiration after normal
expiration.
1) IRV 2) ERV 3) TV-ERV 4) TV+IRV
150. In the alveoli of lung, air left after normal expiration
1) RV 2) RV+ERV 3) RV+IRV+ERV 4) TLC
151. Oxygen-dissociation curve shifts to the right due to increase in all except.
1) pCO2 2) Temperature 3) pO2 4) Both 2 and 3
152. In a blood transfusion case to avoid clumping of blood in a patient havig blood
group A, the donor blood group should be
1) A and AB 2) A, AB and B 3) A and O 4) A, B and O
153. Closure of semilunar valve almost coincides with which part of the ECG?
1) Start of the Q wave 2) End of the P wave
3) End of the T wave 4) During QRS complex
154. Match the terms given under Column I with their functions given under Column
II and select the answer from the options given below:
Column – I Column - II
(A) Lymphatic system (I) Carries oxygenated blood
(B) Pulmonary vein (II) Immune Response
(C) Thrombocytes (III) To drain back the tissue fluid to
the circulatory system
(D)
.
Lymphocytes (IV) Coagulation of blood
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) II I III IV 2) III I IV II
3) III I II IV 4) II III I IV
155. What would be the cardiac output of a person having 72 heart beats per minute
and a stroke volume of 50 mL?
1) 360 mL 2) 3600 mL 3) 7200 mL 4) 5000 Ml
156. Reabsorption of glucose from the glomerular fitrate mainly takes place in the PCT
by
1) Active transport 2) Passive absorption
3) Osmosis 4) Facultative absorption
157. During micturition
1) Urinary bladder muscle contracts and sphincter muscles relaxes
2) Both the urinary bladder and sphincter relax
3) Sympathetic stimulation takes place which leads to micturition
4) Urinary bladder relaxes and sphincter contracts
158. Least concentration of urea is present in
1) Renal artery 2) Hepatic vein 3) Renal vein 4) Inferior venacava
159. Skull is composed of
A) Cranial bones (8) B) Facial bones (14) C) Sphenoid (1)
1) A, C 2) B, C 3) A, B 4) A, B, C
160. Which of the following zone/band is formed only by myosin filaments?
1) A-band only 2) I-band only 3) H-zone 4) Z-line
161. Read the following statemtns and select accordingly.
Statement – I: Tetany can occur due to excess secretion of thyrocalcitonin.
Statement – II: The cross bridges break when a new ATP binds.
1) A is correct, B is incorrect 2) A is incorrect, B is correct
3) Both statements-I and II are true 4) Both statements-I and II are false
162. Which is not a common feature of muscular tissue and nervous tissue present in
PNS?
1) Excitability 2) Elasticity 3) Conductivity 4) All of these
163. The ions mainly responsible for maintaining resting membrane potential in a
neuron are
1) Na+, K+ 2) Ca2+, Na+ 3) Na+, Mg2+ 4)Ca2+, Cl-

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164. Find the incorrect match regarding the structure found in brain and their
location.
1) Medulla – Hind brain 2) Hypothalamus – Forebrain
3) Midbrain – Between thalamus and epithalamus
4) Cerebral aqueduct – passes through midbrain
165. For the following parts labelled A, B and C select the correct labeling.

1) A = Cornea, B= Sclera, C=Aqueous chamber

2) A = Cornea, B= Retina, C=Sclera
3) A = Cornea, B = Choroid, C= Vitreous chamber
4) A = Iris, B = Sclera, C = Aqueous chamber
166. Which of following is not a role of Parathormone?
1) Increeased reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules
2) Increased Ca2+ absorption from the digested food
3) Mobilises Ca2+ from bones into blood
4) Decreased Ca2+ absorption by the renal tubules
167. A muscular sphincter that regulates the opening of oesophagus into stomach is
1) Pyloric sphincter 2) Gastroesophageal sphincter
3) Sphincter of Oddi 4) Cervical sphincter
168. Which of the following contains simple epithelium as their lining?
1) Ducts 2) Tubes 3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Lining of mouth
169. Statement - I: Amniocentesis is often misused.
Statement – II :It is being misused to determine the sex of the foetus, to kill the
normal female foetus
1) Both statements-I and II are true
2) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
3) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
4) Both statements-I and II are false
170. Select the cell with 46 chromosomes .
1) Primary spermatocyte 2) Spermatid
3) Spermatozoa 4) Secondary spermatocyte
171. The part of fallopian tube that is funnel shaped and closer to the ovary is
1) Isthmus 2) Ampulla 3) Infundibulum 4) Uterine fundus
172. Assertion (A) : Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams increases diaphragm’s
contraceptive efficiency.
Reason (R): Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are usually used along with
nutrients.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct and R is incorrect. 4) Both A and R are incorrect.
173. Among the following which is a viral disease?
1) Gonnorhoea 2) Syphillis 3) Chlamydiasis 4) Hepatitis-B
174. Example of homology are all except.
1) Wings of butterfly and bat
2) Heart of vertebrates belonging to different taxa
3) Thorns and tendril of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita respectively.
4) Forelimbs of cat and horse.
175. Evolutionary biology is related to the
1) Origin of universe 2) Origin of earth
3) Study of history of life forms on earth 4) Origin of stars

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GT - 3 XII _NEET MODEL-30.11.2022
176. How many bacterial disease are in the given box?
Rabies, Cholera, Poliomyelitis, Common cold, Malaria, Dengue, Measles,
Pneumonia
1) Two 2) Four 3) Five 4) Three
177. In HIV, the virus destroys majority of
1) B- Lymphocyte 2) Helper T- cells
3) Cytotoxic T- lymphocytes 4) NK cells
178. Assertion: Inbreeding increases heterozygosity.
Reason: Continuous inbreeding usually enhances fertility and even productivity.
1) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.
179. Good breeds should have
(1) High yielding potential under climatic conditions of the area
(2) Resistance to disease (3) Improved quality of the yield (4) All of these
180. Statement - I: UV-B radiation can cause Snow-blindness
Statement – II : High concentration of DDT disturbs calcium metabolis in birds
which causes thinning of egg shell.
1) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
2) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
3) Both statements-I and II are true
4) Both statements-I and II are false

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

GT - 3 XII _NEET MODEL-30.11.2022
: ANSWER KEY:
STD: XII - NEET GRAND TEST - 3 DATE:30-11-2022
SUB: PHYSICS
Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
1 1 11 4 21 2 31 1 41 2
2 2 12 3 22 3 32 4 42 1
3 2 13 4 23 2 33 4 43 1
4 2 14 3 24 4 34 3 44 3
5 4 15 1 25 2 35 3 45 2
6 2 16 3 26 3 36 2
7 2 17 3 27 3 37 1
8 1 18 4 28 3 38 3
9 4 19 2 29 1 39 2
10 2 20 3 30 3 40 3

SUB:CHEMISTRY
Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
46 1 56 4 66 4 76 2 86 3
47 2 57 1 67 3 77 1 87 1
48 3 58 4 68 2 78 1 88 3
49 3 59 4 69 4 79 2 89 4
50 1 60 1 70 1 80 4 90 1
51 3 61 4 71 4 81 1
52 2 62 2 72 2 82 3
53 3 63 3 73 4 83 1
54 2 64 3 74 2 84 1
55 4 65 4 75 2 85 4
SUB : BOTANY
Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
91 4 101 2 111 3 121 4 131 4
92 3 102 1 112 1 122 2 132 3
93 2 103 2 113 3 123 2 133 1
94 1 104 3 114 2 124 1 134 2
95 3 105 3 115 1 125 3 135 2
96 2 106 4 116 3 126 1
97 1 107 3 117 4 127 1
98 3 108 3 118 2 128 3
99 2 109 3 119 4 129 4
100 3 110 3 120 2 130 1
SUB : ZOOLOGY

Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
136 2 146 4 156 1 166 4 176 1
137 3 147 3 157 1 167 2 177 2
138 2 148 2 158 3 168 3 178 4
139 4 149 2 159 3 169 1 179 4
140 4 150 2 160 3 170 1 180 3
141 3 151 3 161 3 171 3
142 1 152 3 162 2 172 3
143 3 153 3 163 1 173 4
144 3 154 2 164 3 174 1
145 1 155 2 165 2 175 3

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY