ICSE 10

2024-25

SAVIOUR OF
PHYSICS

A Complete Saviour of ICSE Class 10 Physics.

It Includes -:
High Graphic Theory Notes
Chapter wise Multiple Choice Questions
Numericals Of each Chapter
Boards Centric Short Answer Questions
 Table of Contents
CLASS 10TH PHYSICS THEORY MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
NOTES
Chapter wise Mcqs : Mcqs after Each
Comprehensive Coverage: Provides detailed explanations of all
Chapter for quick revision and to grasp the
ICSE Class 10 Physics topics According to the latest ICSE Boards
concepts
Syllabus
Based On Latest Techniques : Mcqs Based
Structured Learning: Organized in a systematic manner for easy
understanding and quick revision.
on Latest Techniques Released By the ICSE
Clarity and Conciseness: Presents complex concepts in a clear and
concise manner, aiding retention.
Illustrative Examples: Includes relevant examples to reinforce
theoretical concepts. Numericals
Chapter Wise Numericals : Numericals
with Solutions After Each Chapter To
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS Practice The Mathematical Concepts of The
Chapter
Chapter wise Short Answer Questions : 20 Short
Answer Questions at the end of each Chapter to
Retain all the concepts.
Boards Centric : Based On Latest Techniques Of ICSE
and According to the Questions Asked in ICSE
Examination
Force
 Force
Translation The Fan is Pivoted on the
Motion Ceiling , and is rotating its
wings along the axis , so
When a force acts on a stationary rigid body this is a type of Rotational
which is free to move, the body starts moving Motion !
in a straight path in the direction of the
force. This is called linear or translational The Man is trying to push
motion. the object in a linear path
, so this is a type of a
Rotational linear motion !

Motion
When the body is pivoted at a point,
the force applied on the body at a Diagrams to Illustrate
suitable point rotates the body about
the axis passing through the pivoted
these Motions :
point. This is called rotational
motion.

Moment of Force
(Torque)
The turning effect of the force acting on
the body about an axis is due to the Examples of Torque
moment of force or torque.
When you push or pull a door to open or close it,
The moment of force (or torque) is equal you're applying a force at some distance from the
door's hinges, which acts as the pivot point.
to the product of the magnitude of the
force and the When you turn the steering wheel of a car, you
perpendicular distance of the line of apply a force on the wheel at a certain distance
action of force from the axis of rotation. from the center, which acts as the pivot point.

S.I Unit : newton metre (N m). When you push down on the pedals, you apply a
C.G.S Unit : (gf m). force at a distance from the center of the pedal
crank (the rotating part attached to the pedals).
Clockwise and AntiClockwise Moments
Force
when the turning effect on the body is
anticlockwise, the moment of force is
called the anticlockwise moment and
it is taken as positive,

while if the turning effect on the body

is clockwise the moment of force is
called the clockwise moment and it is
taken as negative.
Rotational Equilibrium
The SI unit of the moment of force is Condition : The resultant moment of all the
newton metre (N m). In gravitational forces acting on the body about the point of
units, the MKS unit is (kgf m) and the rotation should be zero, i.e. the sum of the
CGS unit is (gf m). 1 N m = 10^7 dyne anticlockwise moments about the axis of
rotation must be equal to the sum of the
cm, 1 kgf m = 9.8 N m, 1 gf m = 980
clockwise moments about the same axis.
dyne cm
Example: A seesaw balanced perfectly with
Translational Equilibrium equal weights on both sides experiences no
Condition : The resultant of all the forces rotation. The clockwise torque is equal to the
acting on the body should be equal to zero. anticlockwise torque, so the seesaw remains in
rotational equilibrium.
Example: Imagine a book lying on a table.
The force of gravity pulling it down is
balanced by the table pushing it up. Since
these forces cancel each other, the book is
in translational equilibrium.
 Force
principle of moment Centre of Gravity
The force with which the Earth attracts every
If the algebraic sum of moments of all the forces
acting on the body about the axis of rotation is particle towards its centre is known as the
zero, then the body is in equilibrium. This is called force of gravity. It is also known as the
the principle of moments. weight of the particle.
Sum of anticlockwise moments = Sum of clockwise
moments
A body can be made up of several particles,
each of weight ‘w’. As the size of the body is
quite small in comparison to the size of the
Earth, the pull of gravity w acting on these
Position of Centre of gravity of some particles can be regarded as parallel to each
bodies other.
 Force
Uniform Circular Motion
Uniform circular motion refers to the motion of an object
traveling in a circular path at a constant speed. Although the
speed remains constant, the direction of the object’s velocity is
continuously changing, which means the object is accelerating.
As an Example of Constant Speed
In uniform circular motion, the speed of the object is constant. This
means that the distance traveled per unit time does not change. For
example, a car moving around a circular track at a steady speed of
30 m/s maintains a constant speed..

Differences between centrifugal and centripetal

force.
Centripetal Force Centrifugal Force
Definition: The force directed towards Definition: The apparent force that
the center of a circular path that keeps acts outward on an object moving in a
an object moving in a circle. circular path, experienced in a rotating
Direction: Always acts towards the frame of reference.
center of the circular path. Direction: Acts outward, away from the
Nature: A real force; it can be center of the circular path.
gravitational, tension, friction, or any Nature: A fictitious or pseudo force; it
other force that provides the necessary is not a real force acting on the object
centripetal acceleration. but is perceived due to inertia when in
Effect: Responsible for changing the a rotating frame.
direction of an object’s velocity, Effect: Feels like a force pushing the
allowing it to maintain circular motion. object away from the center; arises due
Example: The tension in a string when to the inertia of the object.
swinging a ball in a circle provides Example: A passenger feels pushed
centripetal force. against the door of a car when it takes
a sharp turn, experiencing centrifugal
force.
Multiple Choice Questions
Recall:
1.What is the SI unit of torque?
a) Dyne-cm
b) Joule
c) Newton-meter
d) Erg

Understanding:
2.Which of the following is an example of rotational motion?

a) A car driving on a straight road

b) A spinning top
c) A book sliding off a table
d) A person running in a straight line

Application:

3.If a force of 10 N is applied perpendicular to a door at a distance of 0.5 m from its hinge, what is
the torque produced?

a) 5 Nm
b) 10 Nm
c) 0.5 Nm
d) 20 Nm

Recall:
4.Which of the following conditions is required for a body to be in equilibrium?

a) Only the net force should be zero

b) Only the net moment (torque) should be zero
c) Both net force and net moment (torque) should be zero
d) None of the above

Analysis:

5.A meter rule is balanced using two spring balances and slotted weights. If the weight on one
side is increased, what will happen to the meter rule?

a) It will remain balanced

b) It will tilt towards the heavier side
c) It will tilt away from the heavier side
d) It will rotate 360 degrees

Recall and Application:

6.Which of the following best defines the center of gravity of an object?
a) The point where the entire mass of the body is concentrated
b) The point where the weight of the body is maximum
c) The point where the force acts to produce acceleration
d) The point where the net torque is maximum
Understanding and Recall:
7.Which of the following objects will have its center of gravity at the center?
a) A triangle
b) A rectangle
c) A uniform sphere
d) An irregular lamina

Application:

8.If a bicycle pedal is pushed downward with a force of 15 N at a distance of 0.2 m from its axis,
calculate the torque produced.

a) 3 Nm
b) 30 Nm
c) 0.3 Nm
d) 75 Nm
Analysis:

9.What type of motion does a satellite in orbit around the Earth exhibit?
a) Translational motion
b) Rotational motion
c) Uniform circular motion
d) Simple harmonic motion
Understanding:
10.In uniform circular motion, the direction of acceleration is:
a) Tangential to the circle
b) Towards the center of the circle
c) Away from the center of the circle
d) Parallel to the velocity
Recall:

11.Which of the following best describes centrifugal force?

a) A real force acting away from the center
b) A fictitious force acting away from the center
c) A real force acting towards the center
d) A fictitious force acting towards the center

Recall:

12.What is the CGS unit of torque?

a) Joule
b) Dyne
c) Dyne-cm
d) Erg

Application:

13.A beam is balanced at its midpoint, with a weight of 5 N hung 30 cm from one end. How much
force should be applied at 60 cm from the midpoint on the other side to balance it?

a) 1.25 N
b) 2.5 N
c) 5 N
d) 10 N
Analysis:
14.If the weight on a meter rule suspended by two spring balances is increased, what will happen
to the readings on the spring balances?
a) Both readings increase equally
b) Only one reading increases while the other decreases
c) Both readings decrease equally
d) One reading remains the same while the other increases

Recall and Application:

15.The torque produced by a force is zero when:
a) The force acts parallel to the pivot point
b) The force acts perpendicular to the line of action
c) The force acts through the pivot point
d) The force acts at an angle of 45 degrees

Understanding:
16.In uniform circular motion, the speed of the object is:
a) Constant and the direction changes
b) Constant and the direction remains unchanged
c) Changing, but the direction remains constant
d) Variable with no fixed direction

Recall:
17.The principle of moments states that for a body to be in rotational equilibrium:
a) Sum of clockwise moments equals the sum of anticlockwise moments
b) Sum of clockwise moments is greater than the sum of anticlockwise moments
c) Only the forces must be balanced
d) The net torque must be maximized

Application:

18.If a door is pushed at an angle other than 90 degrees to the hinge, how is the effective torque
affected?

a) It remains the same

b) It decreases
c) It increases
d) It becomes zero

Understanding:
19.Which of the following forces is responsible for keeping an object in uniform circular motion?
a) Centripetal force
b) Centrifugal force
c) Gravitational force
d) Frictional force

Recall:
20.A freely suspended object will have its center of gravity:
a) Directly above the point of suspension
b) Directly below the point of suspension
c) At the center of mass
d) At the edge of the object
Solutions

1. Newton-meter
2. A spinning top
3. 5 Nm
4. Both net force and net moment (torque) should be zero
5. It will tilt towards the heavier side
6. The point where the entire mass of the body is concentrated
7. A uniform sphere
8. 3 Nm
9. Uniform circular motion
10. Towards the center of the circle
11. A fictitious force acting away from the center
12. Dyne-cm
13. 2.5 N
14. Both readings increase equally
15. The force acts through the pivot point
16. Constant and the direction changes
17. Sum of clockwise moments equals the sum of anticlockwise moments
18. It decreases
19. Centripetal force
20. Directly below the point of suspension

Numericals
1. A force of 8 N is applied at a distance of 0.4 m from the hinge of a door. Calculate the torque
produced. Answer: 3.2 Nm
2. A meter rule is balanced at its midpoint. If a 4 N weight is hung 20 cm from one end, what
weight should be placed at a distance of 40 cm from the midpoint on the other side to
balance it? Answer: 2 N

3. A uniform rod of length 1 m is balanced at the center. If a 6 N weight is placed 25 cm from the
center on the left, what weight should be placed 50 cm from the center on the right to keep
the rod in equilibrium? Answer: 3 N

4. A force of 12 N is applied at an angle of 30° to the horizontal at a point 0.5 m from the pivot.
Calculate the effective torque produced. Answer: 3 Nm

5. A torque of 10 Nm is applied on a lever at a distance of 0.25 m from the pivot. What is the force
applied? Answer: 40 N

6. A beam is balanced using a 5 N weight placed 15 cm from the pivot. What should be the
weight placed at 30 cm from the pivot on the opposite side to balance it? Answer : 2.5 N

7. A car is moving at a constant speed of 20 m/s in a circular path of radius 50 m. Calculate the
centripetal acceleration of the car. Answer: 8 m/s²

8. Two forces, 8 N and 10 N, act on opposite ends of a beam at distances of 0.3 m and 0.4 m,
respectively, from the pivot. Calculate the net torque if the 8 N force acts clockwise and the 10
N force acts anticlockwise. Answer: 1.6 Nm (Anticlockwise)

9. A spanner is used to tighten a bolt by applying a force of 15 N at a distance of 0.2 m from the
center of the bolt. Calculate the torque produced if the force is applied perpendicularly.
Answer: 3 Nm

10. A 10 N weight is placed 50 cm from the pivot on one side of a balanced beam. What force
should be placed 25 cm on the other side to maintain equilibrium? Answer: 20 N
Short Answer Type Questions
Recall:

1.What is the SI unit of torque?

Answer: Newton-meter (Nm)
Understanding:
2.What is meant by the center of gravity of an object?
Answer: The center of gravity is the point where the entire weight of an object is considered to be
concentrated.
Application:
3.If a force of 5 N is applied at a distance of 0.3 m from a pivot, what is the torque produced?
Answer: Torque = 5 N × 0.3 m = 1.5 Nm
Analysis:
4.How can you determine if a beam is in equilibrium?
Answer: A beam is in equilibrium if the sum of clockwise moments equals the sum of anticlockwise
moments and the net force is zero.
Recall:
5.What is the difference between translational and rotational motion?
Answer: Translational motion occurs when an object moves in a straight line, while rotational motion
occurs when an object rotates around an axis.
Understanding:
6.Why is the moment of force called torque?
Answer: The moment of force is called torque because it refers to the rotational effect or turning
force applied to an object around a pivot point.
Recall:
7.What is the CGS unit of torque?
Answer: Dyne-centimeter (dyne-cm)
Application:
8.What will happen if you apply a force perpendicular to a door at its handle?
Answer: The door will rotate around its hinges, producing a maximum torque because the force is
applied perpendicularly.

Recall:
9.In which direction does the centripetal force act in uniform circular motion?
Answer: The centripetal force acts towards the center of the circle.

Understanding:
10.Why is uniform circular motion considered accelerated motion even if the speed is constant?
Answer: Uniform circular motion is considered accelerated because the direction of the velocity
changes continuously, resulting in a change in velocity.
Analysis:
11.What would happen to a freely suspended object if its center of gravity is not directly below
the point of suspension?
Answer: The object would rotate until its center of gravity aligns directly below the suspension
point, achieving equilibrium.
Recall:
12.What is meant by anticlockwise and clockwise moments?
Answer: Anticlockwise moment is the torque produced when a force causes a body to rotate in the
anticlockwise direction, while clockwise moment is the torque that causes clockwise rotation.
Application:
13.How can you balance a beam using weights placed at different distances?
Answer: By adjusting the weights and their distances from the pivot point so that the clockwise
and anticlockwise moments are equal, the beam can be balanced.

Understanding:

14.What is meant by the equilibrium of a body in terms of force and moment?

Answer: A body is in equilibrium when the net force acting on it is zero and the sum of clockwise
moments equals the sum of anticlockwise moments.
Recall:

15.What happens to the torque if the force applied is parallel to the pivot point?
Answer: The torque becomes zero because the perpendicular distance is zero when the force is
applied parallel to the pivot.

Application:
16.Explain why a steering wheel allows easier turning of a car.
Answer: The steering wheel increases the distance (lever arm) from the axis of rotation, allowing a
smaller force to produce a greater torque, making it easier to turn.
Recall:

17.What is centrifugal force?

Answer: Centrifugal force is a fictitious force that acts outward from the center in a rotating
reference frame, experienced as an effect of inertia.
Understanding:
18.How does the principle of moments help verify the equilibrium condition of a meter rule?
Answer: The principle of moments states that for equilibrium, the sum of clockwise moments
should equal the sum of anticlockwise moments. This can be verified using a meter rule by
suspending weights at varying distances and observing balance.

Application:
19.Why do bicycle pedals provide more torque when force is applied perpendicularly?
Answer: When force is applied perpendicularly, the effective distance from the pivot is maximized,
resulting in greater torque and more efficient rotation.
Recall:
20.What is the relationship between centripetal force and velocity in circular motion?
Answer: Centripetal force is directly proportional to the square of the velocity and inversely
proportional to the radius of the circular path.
Work,Energy and
Power
 Work,Energy and Power
Work
Work is any physical or mental activity which one
does to perform daily tasks. However, in scientific
parlance, work is done when a force produces
motion in an object. 
The amount of work depends on two factors: The
magnitude and direction of force applied to an
object , The distance/displacement through which
the object moves
Displacement is in the
Work = Force×Displacement W = F ×s, The SI unit of direction of force
work is newton metre (N m) or joule (J). hence work done here
Work is a scalar quantity. The expression of work is positive
is W = F *s cosθ W = F* s, θ= 0
If the displacement is in the direction of the
force, i.e. θ= 0 then the work done is W = F * s
θ = 90, No work is done
This work is maximum and positive. 
If the displacement is normal to the direction here
of the force, i.e. θ = 90, then the work done
is W = 0 .Thus, no work is done.

Energy Power
energy is defined as the capacity to do work.The Power is defined as the rate of doing work or
amount of energy possessed by a body is the amount the rate of transfer of energy P=W/t, Power is
of work it can do when that energy is released. a scalar quantity.
Energy is a scalar quantity. If displacement is at an angle θ then the
The SI unit of energy is joule (J), and its CGS power is P=W/t = Fs cosθ / t = Fv Cos θ
unit is erg. Another unit = kilowatt hour. Its SI unit is watt (W) or joule per second
commercial unit = kilowatt hour (kW h) or unit, (J/s), and its CGS unit is erg per second
1 kW h = 3.6×10^6 J = 3.6 MJ (erg/s). 
Heat energy is usually measured in calorie. One Another unit = kilowatt (kW), 1 kW =
calorie is the energy required in raising the 1000 W, 1 MW = 10^6 W ,1 horsepower =
temperature of 1 g of water through 1°C., 1 J = 746 W = 0.746 kW
0·24 calorie, 1 calorie = 4·18 J, 1 kilocalorie =
1000 calorie = 4180 J
1 eV is the energy gained by an electron when it
is accelerated through a potential difference of
1 volt, 1 eV = 1·6 × 10^−19 J
 Work,Energy and Power
Types of Energy Potential Energy
The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its specific position or
Mechanical Energy changed configuration is called potential energy. It is denoted by
The energy possessed by a body due to ‘U’.
its state of rest or of motion is called The potential energy possessed by a body due to its position
mechanical energy. The total relative to the centre of the Earth is called its gravitational
mechanical energy of a body is equal to potential energy
the sum of its kinetic energy and The gravitational potential energy of a body at a height above
potential energy. the ground is measured by the amount of work done in lifting it
up to that height against the force of gravity.
Let a body of mass m be lifted from the ground (or Earth
surface) to a vertical height h. The work W done on the body in
lifting it to a height h is W = Force of gravity (mg) x
displacement (h) =mgh 

This work is stored in the body when it is at a height h in the form of

Here the wheel barrow (body) is in the its gravitational potential energy. Thus, gravitational energy is U =
state of motion and possesses mgh.
mechanical energy (Potential energy)
which will be converted to another form
Kinetic Energy
of mechanical energy (Kinetic energy) The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its
when the wheel barrow moves down the state of motion is called kinetic energy. It is
slope denoted by ‘K’. Suppose a body of mass m is
moving with a velocity ‘v’. It is brought to rest by
applying a constant opposing force F. Let ‘a’ be the
Forms of Kinetic Energy uniform retardation produced by the force, and the
the kinetic energy of the body due to motion in a body travels a distance ‘S’ before coming to rest.
straight line is called translational kinetic energy.
Kinetic energy = Work done by retarding force
and the kinetic energy of the body due to in stopping it = Retarding force * displacement
rotational motion is called rotational kinetic = F * S = ma * s Thus, the kinetic energy is
energy or simply rotational energy. given as = 1/2 * mv^2
The kinetic energy and momentum are related
The kinetic energy of the body due to its as P = √2mK
vibrational motion is called vibrational kinetic
energy or simply vibrational energy
 Work,Energy and Power
Different forms of Energy
The energy released on burning coal, oil, wood or gas is heat energy.

Light energy is the form of energy which helps other objects to be seen.The
Sun is the natural source of light energy. The moon reflects light from the
Sun. Other sources such as fire, candle, tube light, bulb etc. provide light
energy.

The energy possessed by fossil fuels such as coal, petroleum and

natural gas is called chemical energy or fuel energy.

When two dry bodies are rubbed together, they get charged due to the
movement of free electrons from one body to the other. Thus, they
possess electrical energy. An electric cell is a source of electrical
energy.

The energy released during the process of nuclear fission and fusion is
called nuclear or atomic energy.

A vibrating body possesses sound energy. It is sensed by our ears.

When the disturbance produced in atmospheric air layers by a
vibrating body reaches our ears and produces vibrations in the ear
membrane, sound is heard.
 Work,Energy and Power
Conversion of Energy
In a hydroelectric power station water stored in a dam has potential energy which is
converted to kinetic energy while falling and then this mechanical energy is converted to
electrical energy by the generator.

In an electric motor, the electrical energy is passed through the coil which is freely
suspended between the poles of a magnet. This causes the coil to rotate converting the
electrical to mechanical energy.

In a loudspeaker electrical energy is converted to sound energy.

When a candle burns the chemical energy inside the wax gets converted to light energy.

In a photocell, light energy incident on gets converted to electrical energy.

In automobiles, the chemical energy of petrol is used to run the engine and convert to
mechanical energy of the vehicle.

Law of Conservation of Energy

According to the law of conservation of energy, energy can neither be created nor be
destroyed. It only changes from one form to another.

The total mechanical energy of an isolated system at any instant is equal to the
sum of its kinetic energy and potential energy
Multiple Choice Questions
recall:
1.What is the SI unit of work?
a) Erg
b) Joule
c) Calorie
d) Electron-volt
Understanding:
2.If a force of 5 N moves an object by 2 m in the direction of the force, what is the work done?
a) 2 J
b) 5 J
c) 10 J
d) 1 J
Application:
3.A weight of 10 kg is lifted to a height of 5 m. What is the work done? (Take g = 9.8 m/s²)
a) 490 J
b) 50 J
c) 98 J
d) 100 J
Recall:
4.What is the formula for power?
a) P = W × t
b) P = W/t
c) P = F × s
d) P = mgh
Analysis:
5.If θ = 90°, what is the work done by the force applied?
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Equal to force
Recall and Application:
6.What is the work done when θ = 0°?
a) Zero
b) Equal to FS
c) Maximum
d) Minimum
Understanding and Recall:
7.Which of the following is a unit of energy?
a) kW
b) Calorie
c) Newton
d) Volt
Application:
8.A man applies a force of 20 N to push a cart for 3 m. If the force is applied at an angle of 0° to the
motion, calculate the work done.
a) 60 J
b) 40 J
c) 20 J
d) 10 J
Recall:
9.What is the relationship between kilowatt-hour and joules?
a) 1 kWh = 3600 J
b) 1 kWh = 1000 J
c) 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶ J
d) 1 kWh = 746 J
Understanding:
10.How is potential energy defined for an object raised to a height ‘h’?
a) U = ½ mv²
b) U = mgh
c) U = Fs cos θ
d) U = ½ kx²
Recall:
11.What is the SI unit of power?
a) Watt
b) Erg
c) Calorie
d) Newton
Recall:
12.What is the mechanical energy of an object composed of?
a) Only kinetic energy
b) Only potential energy
c) Kinetic and potential energy
d) Thermal energy
Application:
13.An object of mass 2 kg is moving at a speed of 4 m/s. Calculate its kinetic energy.
a) 8 J
b) 16 J
c) 32 J
d) 4 J
Analysis:
14.If an object’s speed is doubled, how does its kinetic energy change?
a) It doubles
b) It remains the same
c) It quadruples
d) It triples
Recall and Application:
15.A 5 kg object is raised to a height of 10 m. What is its potential energy? (Take g = 9.8 m/s²)
a) 490 J
b) 500 J
c) 980 J
d) 1000 J
Understanding:
16.What does 1 horsepower (hp) equal in watts?
a) 736 W
b) 746 W
c) 1000 W
d) 746 kW
Recall:
17.How is kinetic energy defined?
a) Energy possessed by an object due to its position
b) Energy possessed by an object due to its motion
c) Energy released in a chemical reaction
d) Energy obtained from electrical sources
Application:
18.If an object falls freely under gravity from a height of 20 m, what is the work done by gravity if its
mass is 2 kg? (Take g = 9.8 m/s²)
a) 392 J
b) 196 J
c) 98 J
d) 49 J
Understanding:
19.In the equation W=FScos⁡θW = FS \cos\thetaW=FScosθ, what does θ represent?
a) The angle between force and displacement
b) The angle of elevation
c) The angle between force and velocity
d) The angle of refraction
Recall:
20.Which of the following energies is considered mechanical energy?
a) Chemical energy
b) Electrical energy
c) Gravitational potential energy
d) Heat energy
Solutions
b) Joule
c) 10 J
a) 490 J
b) P = W/t
c) Zero
b) Equal to FS
b) Calorie
a) 60 J
c) 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶ J
b) U = mgh
a) Watt
c) Kinetic and potential energy
b) 16 J
c) It quadruples
c) 980 J
b) 746 W
b) Energy possessed by an object due to its motion
a) 392 J
a) The angle between force and displacement
c) Gravitational potential energy

Numericals
A force of 40 N is applied to move a box horizontally over a distance of 6 meters. Find the
work done. Answer: 240 J
A person pulls a sled with a force of 80 N at an angle of 45∘ to the horizontal, covering a
distance of 10 meters. Calculate the work done. Answer: 565.7 J
A 10 kg object is lifted to a height of 5 meters. Calculate the gravitational potential energy
gained. (g=9.8 m/s2). Answer: 490 J
Problem: A 1500 kg car is moving at a speed of 15 m/s. Find its kinetic energy. Answer:
168,750 J
Problem: A machine does 5000 J of work in 25 seconds. Calculate its power output.
Answer: 200 W
Problem: A person does 300 J of work in lifting a 15 kg object. What height was the object
lifted to? (g=9.8 m/s2) Answer: 2.04 m
Problem: Calculate the work done when a force of 120 N is applied at an angle of 60∘ to
move an object 7 meters. Answer: 420 J
Problem: An electric heater uses 1500 W of power for 2 hours. How much energy is
consumed in kilowatt-hours (kWh)? Answer: 3 kWh
Problem: A 50 kg person climbs a staircase of height 8 meters. Find the work done against
gravity. (g=9.8 m/s2) Answer: 3920 J
Problem: A motor lifts a 200 kg object to a height of 10 meters in 5 seconds. Calculate the
power generated by the motor. (g=9.8 m/s2) Answer: 3920 W
Short Answer Type Questions
Recall
1.What is the SI unit of work?
The SI unit of work is the Joule (J). 1 Joule is equivalent to the work done when a force of 1
Newton moves an object by 1 meter in the direction of the force.
Recall
2.State the formula for kinetic energy.
The formula for kinetic energy (K) is K=1/2mv^2 where m is the mass of the object, and v is its
velocity.
Recall
3.What is the value of 1 horsepower (hp) in watts?
1 horsepower (hp) is equal to 746 watts (W).
Application
4.A force of 15 N moves an object 3 meters in the direction of the force. Calculate the work
done.
W=F×s=15 N×3 m=45 J
Application
5.A 2 kg object is lifted to a height of 8 m. Find its potential energy. (Take g=9.8 m/s^2)
U=mgh=2 kg×9.8 m/s2×8 m=156.8J
Application
6.An object of mass 4 kg is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s. Calculate its kinetic energy.
K=1/2mv^2=12×4 kg×(5 m/s)2=50 J
Understanding
7.Why is the work done zero when the force is perpendicular to the direction of motion?
When the force is perpendicular to the displacement (θ=90), Therefore, W=F×s×cos⁡θ=0W
Understanding
8.Explain why the potential energy of an object increases as it is raised to a higher height.
Potential energy (U=mghU ) depends on the height (h) above the ground. As the height
increases, the potential energy increases because the object is lifted further against gravity.
Understanding
9.How does kinetic energy differ from potential energy?
Kinetic energy is the energy an object possesses due to its motion, while potential energy is
the energy stored in an object due to its position or configuration.
Analysis
10.If the speed of an object is doubled, how does its kinetic energy change?
Kinetic energy (K=12mv^2)is proportional to the square of the velocity. If the speed is doubled,
the kinetic energy becomes four times greater.
Analysis
11.A force of 25 N is applied at an angle of 90∘90^\circ90∘ to the motion of an object. Analyze the
work done.
Since θ=90 Therefore, the work done is zero because the force is perpendicular to the direction of
motion.
Analysis
12. If an object of 5 kg is moving with a speed of 10 m/s, calculate its kinetic energy and analyze the
effect if the speed is increased to 20 m/s.
For 10 m/s: K=12×5 kg×(10 m/s)2=250 J, For 20 m/s: K=12×5 kg×(20 m/s)2=1000 J
The kinetic energy quadruples as the speed doubles.
Recall and Application
13.Calculate the potential energy of a 6 kg object raised to a height of 10 m. (Take g=9.8 m/s^2)
U=mgh=6 kg×9.8 m/s2×10 m=588 J
Recall and Application
14.An object weighing 50 N is lifted vertically by 3 meters. Calculate the work done.
W=F×s=50 N×3 m=150 J
Recall and Application
15.If an object of mass 1.5 kg falls freely from a height of 12 m, what is its kinetic energy just before
hitting the ground? (Assume no air resistance and g=9.8 m/s^2)
U=mgh=1.5 kg×9.8 m/s2×12 m=176.4 J, This potential energy is converted to kinetic energy, so K=176.4
J
Understanding and Recall
16.How is work defined when the force applied is at an angle to the displacement?
Work is defined as W=F×s×cos⁡θ where thetaθ is the angle between the direction of the force and the
direction of displacement.
Understanding and Recall
17.Describe the relationship between joules and kilowatt-hours.
1 kilowatt-hour (kWh) is equal to 3.6 million joules (J). It represents the amount of energy consumed
when 1 kW of power is used for 1 hour.
Analysis and Application
18.A car does 4000 J of work in 20 seconds. Calculate its power output.
P=W/t= 4000 J / 20 s= 200 W
Analysis and Application
19.If a person applies a force of 40 N at an angle of 60∘to push an object over 2 m, calculate the
work done.
W=F×s×cos⁡θ= 40 N×2 m×cos⁡60∘= 40 J
Application
20. An electric bulb uses 100 W of power and is on for 5 hours. Calculate the total energy consumed
in joules.
Energy=P×t=100 W×5×3600 s=1.8×10^6 J
Machines
 Machines
Functions and uses of simple machines:
A machine can be defined as a device by which we can either overcome a large resistive
force (or load) at some point by applying a small force (or effort) at a convenient point
and in a desired direction or by which we can obtain a gain in speed.

Functions and uses of simple machines: Machines perform the following functions, and they
are useful to us in the following four ways:

1. In changing the point of application of effort to a convenient point

2. In changing the direction of effort to a convenient direction
3. For obtaining a gain in speed
4. In lifting a heavy load by applying a less effort
Some Common Examples Of Machines
A pulley is a simple machine used to lift heavy loads with less effort. It
consists of a wheel with a groove, allowing a rope to pass over it. By
changing the direction of force, pulleys make lifting easier. In
combination (block and tackle), they help overcome large loads by
distributing the force across multiple pulleys, reducing the effort needed
to lift heavy objects.

A lever is a simple machine that consists of a rigid bar pivoting on

a fixed point called a fulcrum. It is used to lift or move heavy loads
by applying a small effort. By adjusting the position of the fulcrum,
the lever can multiply the applied force, making it easier to
overcome large loads with less effort. Examples include crowbars,
seesaws, and scissors.
Terms Related to Machines
The resistive or opposing force to be overcome by a machine is called load (L).
The force applied on the machine to overcome the load is called effort (E).
The ratio of the load to the effort is called the mechanical advantage of the
machine.
 Machines
Mechanical advantage(M.A.) = Load(L)/Effort(E)
M.A > 1 : In a machine used to overcome a certain load, the effort needed is less than the
load.That Machine acts as a force Multiplier
M.A < 1 : In a machine used to overcome a certain load, the effort needed is greater than
the load. That Machine gives a gain in speed
M.A = 1 : The effort needed is equal to the load. That machine is used to change the
direction of effort as there is no gain in force or speed.
Unit: Because MA is the ratio of two similar quantities, it has no unit.

Velocity Ratio (V.R) = Velocity of effort(Ve)/Velocity of load(Vl)

If dl and de are the distances moved in the same time t by the load and effort,
respectively, then
Velocity of load(Vl) = dl/t, Velocity of effort(Ve) = de/t therefore Velocity ratio(V.R) =
de/dl
Thus V.R = the ratio of the displacement of effort to the displacement of load.
A machine works as a force multiplier if its V.R > 1
V.R = 1 if the displacement of load is equal to the displacement of effort. Such a machine
changes the direction of effort.
Unit: Because VR is also the ratio of two similar quantities, it has no unit.

Efficiency η The work done by the machine on the load is

efficiency is the ratio of the work output called the work output (W output). Work output
to the work input. It is denoted by the = Work done on the load
symbol η (eta).

Efficiency η = Work output(W output)/ The work done on the machine by the effort is
Work input(W input) called the work input (W input). Work input =
Work done by the effort
it is usually expressed in percentage, so
we have

Work output(W output)/ Work input(W

Efficiency, M.A and V.R
input) * 100 Efficiency η = Work output(W output)/
Work input(W input)
η = L × Dl / E × De = L/D × Dl / De
η = M.A / V.R OR M,A = η × V.R
 Machines
Principle Of Levers
A lever works on the principle of moments.
Moment of load about the fulcrum =
Moment of effort about the fulcrum

The two moments are always in opposite

direction. Load × Load arm = Effort × Effort Important note
arm => L × BF = E × AF = L/E = AF/BF = M.A I. If effort arm = load arm, then MA = 1.
II. If effort arm < load arm, then MA < 1.
Thus, we have MA of a lever as the ratio of III. If effort arm > load arm, then MA > 1.
length of its effort arm to the length of its
load arm. This is known as the law of
levers.

Types of levers
Class I lever : the fulcrum F is in between the effort E and
the load L. MA and VR can have any value—either greater
than 1 or equal to 1 or less than 1. A Class 1 lever changes
the direction of the applied force.
Class II lever : the load L is somewhere in between the
effort and the fulcrum F. the effort arm is always longer
than the load arm. MA and VR of Class II levers are
always more than 1. Class II levers always act as a force
multiplier.
Class III lever : the effort E is in between the fulcrum F
and the load L, and so the effort arm is always smaller
than the load arm.MA and VR for Class III levers are
always less than 1. With levers of Class III, This lever
gives a gain in speed.

See saw ; A common Wheel Barrow ; A common Fishing Rod ; A common

Example of Class I lever Example of Class II lever Example of Class III lever
with fulcrum in the middle with Load in the middle with Effort in the middle
 Machines
Examples of levers found in human body
Class I lever: Action of nodding of the head.
Class II lever: Raising the weight of the body on the toes.
Class III lever: Raising a load by the forearm.

Pulley System
A single pulley or a combination of two or more pulleys fixed in a frame is
called a block, while a string (rope or chain) which winds around the
pulleys in different blocks is known as tackle.

Single fixed Pulley

A pulley which has its axis of rotation fixed in position is called a fixed
pulley. It is used for lifting a small load. MA, VR and η of a single fixed
pulley =>
L = T , E = T Hence M.A = L/E = 1
V.R = de/dl = 1

Single Movable Pulley

A pulley whose axis of rotation is not fixed in position is called a movable
pulley. MA, VR of a single movable pulley => The load L is balanced by the
tension in two segments of the string, and the effort E balances the
tension T at the free end.
L = T + T = 2T, MA = L/E = 2
A single movable pulley acts as a force multiplier. = V.R = de/dl = 1
 Machines
Block and Tackle System
If the total number of pulleys used in both the
blocks is n and the effort is being applied in the
downward direction, then the tension in n
segments of the string supports the load;
therefore, we have M.A. = n

The effort required to balance the load is E=N/L

V.R = nd/d = n.
Thus, VR is always equal to the number of strands
of tackle (or sections of the string) supporting the
load.
Multiple Choice Questions
Recall:
1.What is the formula for Mechanical Advantage (MA)?
a) MA = dE/dL
b) MA = VE/VL
c) MA = L/E
d) MA = E/L
Understanding:
2.If a machine has a mechanical advantage (MA) of 2, what does it indicate?
a) The machine doubles the effort applied.
b) The load lifted is half the effort applied.
c) The machine increases the force applied two times.
d) The load is reduced by half.
Application:
3.In a pulley system, an effort of 100 N lifts a load of 400 N. What is the mechanical advantage (MA)?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Recall:
4.The velocity ratio (VR) of a machine is defined as:
a) VR = dE/dL
b) VR = VE/VL
c) VR = L/E
d) VR = E/L
Analysis:
5.If the velocity ratio (VR) of a machine is 5 and its mechanical advantage (MA) is 4, what is its
efficiency (η)?
a) 80%
b) 90%
c) 70%
d) 60%
Recall and Application:
6.For an ideal machine, what is the relationship between MA and VR?
a) MA > VR
b) MA < VR
c) MA = VR
d) MA = 0
Understanding and Recall:
7.Which class of lever has the fulcrum located between the effort and the load?
a) First-class lever
b) Second-class lever
c) Third-class lever
d) None of the above
Recall:
8.What is the mechanical advantage (MA) of a single fixed pulley?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) Variable
Understanding:
9.In a block and tackle system, if there are 4 pulleys, what is the velocity ratio (VR)?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Recall:
10.How is the efficiency (η) of a machine calculated?
a) η = (VR/MA) × 100
b) η = (MA/VR) × 100
c) η = (E/L) × 100
d) η = (L/E) × 100
Application:
11.If the velocity ratio (VR) of a machine is 6 and the efficiency (η) is 75%, what is the mechanical
advantage (MA)?
a) 3
b) 4.5
c) 5
d) 6
Analysis:
12.Why does the efficiency (η) of a practical machine always remain less than 100%?
a) Due to friction and energy losses
b) Because MA is always less than VR
c) Because VR is always less than MA
d) Due to incorrect design
Recall and Application:
13.Which type of lever is the human arm when lifting an object with the biceps?
a) First-class lever
b) Second-class lever
c) Third-class lever
d) None of the above
Understanding:
14.What is the principle of conservation of energy?
a) Energy can be created and destroyed.
b) Energy cannot be created but can be destroyed.
c) Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another.
d) Energy remains constant only in closed systems.
Recall:
15.Which of the following is an example of a third-class lever?
a) Seesaw
b) Fishing rod
c) Nutcracker
d) Crowbar
Application:
16.A load of 200 N is lifted using a lever with a mechanical advantage (MA) of 4. What is the effort
needed?
a) 50 N
b) 100 N
c) 200 N
d) 400 N
Recall:
17.The MA of a single movable pulley is:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) Variable
Understanding:
18.In a simple pendulum, what type of energy conversion takes place when it swings from its highest to
its lowest point?
a) Kinetic energy to potential energy
b) Potential energy to kinetic energy
c) Mechanical energy to thermal energy
d) Chemical energy to kinetic energy
Recall:
19.Why is the velocity ratio (VR) of a single fixed pulley always 1?
a) It multiplies the force applied but does not change the direction.
b) It only changes the direction of the force but does not multiply it.
c) It increases the speed of the load.
d) It decreases the effort required.

Solutions
c) MA = L/E
c) The machine increases the force applied two times.
c) 4
b) VR = VE/VL
a) 80%
c) MA = VR
a) First-class lever
b) Nutcracker
b) 1
b) 4
b) η = (MA/VR) × 100
b) 4.5
a) Due to friction and energy losses
c) Third-class lever
c) Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another.
b) Fishing rod
a) 50 N
b) 2
b) Potential energy to kinetic energy
b) It only changes the direction of the force but does not multiply it.
Numericals
A machine has a mechanical advantage (MA) of 3. If the effort applied is 50 N, what is the load
lifted? Answer: 150
If the velocity ratio (VR) of a machine is 5 and the effort applied is 20 N, calculate the load lifted
when the efficiency is 80%. Answer: 80 N
A lever with an effort arm of 2 m and a load arm of 0.5 m is used to lift a load of 100 N. What is the
effort required? Answer: 25 N
In a block and tackle system with a VR of 4, the effort applied is 60 N. What is the load lifted if the
efficiency is 75%? Answer: 180 N
A single movable pulley lifts a load of 200 N. What is the effort applied if the pulley’s efficiency is
80%? Answer: 125 N
If the velocity ratio (VR) of a machine is 6 and the mechanical advantage (MA) is 4.5, what is the
efficiency? Answer: 75%
A lever with an effort arm of 1.5 m and a load arm of 0.5 m has an effort of 40 N applied.
Calculate the load. Answer: 120 N
A machine has a VR of 3 and an efficiency of 66.67%. If the effort applied is 90 N, what is the load
lifted? Answer: 180 N
In a pulley system, an effort of 30 N is used to lift a load of 90 N. What is the mechanical
advantage (MA)? Answer: 3
A machine lifts a load of 150 N using an effort of 50 N. The velocity ratio (VR) is 4. Calculate the
efficiency. Answer: 75%
A lever with an effort arm of 3 m and a load arm of 1 m is used to lift a 300 N load. Calculate the
effort required. Answer: 100 N

Short Answer Type Questions

Recall:
1.What is the definition of Mechanical Advantage (MA) in simple machines?
Answer: MA is the ratio of the load lifted (L) to the effort applied (E), expressed as MA = L/E.
Understanding:
2.Why is the velocity ratio (VR) important in evaluating the performance of a machine?
Answer: VR measures how much the distance moved by the effort compares to the distance moved
by the load, indicating the machine’s efficiency in terms of speed.
Application:
3.If the mechanical advantage (MA) of a pulley system is 4 and the load is 200 N, what effort is
required to lift the load?
Answer: The effort required is 50 N (E = L/MA = 200 N / 4).
Analysis:
4.Why is the efficiency (η) of all practical machines less than 100%?
Answer: Due to energy losses primarily caused by friction and other resistive forces, which prevent a
machine from converting all input energy into useful output energy.
Recall and Application:
5.How do you calculate the efficiency of a machine using MA and VR?
Answer: Efficiency (η) is calculated as η = (MA/VR) × 100%.
Recall:
6.What is the VR of a single fixed pulley?
Answer: The VR of a single fixed pulley is 1.
Understanding:
7.Explain why the MA of a single fixed pulley is always 1.
Answer: A single fixed pulley only changes the direction of the applied force without
multiplying it, so the load lifted is equal to the effort applied.
Application:
8.In a lever system with a load arm of 0.5 m and an effort arm of 1.5 m, calculate the
velocity ratio (VR).
Answer: VR = Effort Arm / Load Arm = 1.5 m / 0.5 m = 3.
Recall:
9.What is the principle of a lever?
Answer: The principle of a lever states that the effort multiplied by its distance from the
fulcrum equals the load multiplied by its distance from the fulcrum.
Analysis:
10.In a third-class lever, what happens if the effort is applied closer to the fulcrum than
the load?
Answer: The effort required will be greater than the load lifted, resulting in a mechanical
advantage of less than 1.
Recall and Application:
11.How is the efficiency of a pulley system affected if friction increases?
Answer: Efficiency decreases because increased friction leads to more energy losses,
reducing the effective output compared to the input.
Understanding:
12.What is the role of the fulcrum in a lever?
Answer: The fulcrum is the pivot point around which the lever rotates, and it supports the
load and effort to achieve balance and lift.
Recall:
13.Name an example of a first-class lever found in the human body.
Answer: The human neck when lifting the head acts as a first-class lever, where the fulcrum
is at the neck joint.
Application:
14.A block and tackle system has a VR of 6. If the effort applied is 60 N, what is the
maximum load that can be lifted, assuming 100% efficiency?
Answer: The maximum load is 360 N (Load = Effort × VR = 60 N × 6).
Recall:
15.What type of energy is converted when using a simple machine like a lever?
Answer: Mechanical energy is converted, typically transforming potential energy into kinetic
energy or vice versa.
Understanding:
16.Explain how a movable pulley reduces the effort needed to lift a load.
Answer: A movable pulley provides mechanical advantage by allowing the load to be
shared between the effort and the pulley system, effectively reducing the force needed.
Recall:
17.What is the mechanical advantage (MA) of a single movable pulley?
Answer: The MA of a single movable pulley is 2.
Application:
18.A lever has an effort arm of 2 m and a load arm of 0.4 m. If the load is 100 N, what effort
is needed?
Answer: The effort required is 20 N (Effort = Load × Load Arm / Effort Arm = 100 N × 0.4 m / 2
m).
Analysis:
19.How does the principle of conservation of energy apply to a block and tackle system?
Answer: The principle states that the work input (effort × distance moved by effort) is equal
to the work output (load × distance moved by load), minus any energy lost to friction.
Recall:
20.Describe how the efficiency of a machine changes if its mechanical advantage (MA) is
less than its velocity ratio (VR).
Answer: If MA is less than VR, the efficiency (η) will be less than 100% because it indicates
that some energy is lost due to friction or other factors.
Refraction of light
 Refraction of light
The change in direction of the path of light when
it passes from one transparent medium to another
transparent medium is called refraction. The
refraction of light is a surface phenomenon.
When a ray of light travels from a
rarer medium to a denser medium, 1st Law of refraction : The incident ray, the
it bends towards the normal refracted ray and the normal to the interface of
two transparent media at the point of incidence,
all lie in the same plane.
2nd Law of refraction : The ratio of the sine of
the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle
of refraction is a constant for a given pair of
When a ray of light travels from a
media and for a given wavelength of light.
denser medium to a rarer medium, it This law is also known as Snell’s law. => sin i /
bends away from the normal, sin r = constant 1μ2, μ = Refractive Index
(mew)
Change in speed, direction and wavelength of
light due to refraction
Due to the change in the speed of light from one
medium to another, the direction of the ray of light
changes except for ∠ i = 0°
When a ray of light passes from a rarer medium to
a denser medium, its speed decreases. While if it
The ray of light which is incident passes from a denser to a rarer medium, its speed
normally on the surface separating
increases.
the two media passes undeviated.
Because the frequency of light depends on the
source of light, it does not change on refraction.
In refraction of light from one medium to another
medium, due to the change in the speed of light,
the wavelength of light also changes because its
frequency remains unchanged.
 Refraction of light
conditions for a light ray to pass undeviated : When the angle of incidence at the
boundary of two media is zero. When the refractive index of medium 2 is the same
as that of refractive index of medium 1.

speed of light (c) in vacuum = 3×10^8 The refractive index (μ) of a medium
m/s, is defined as the ratio of the speed of
In air = 2.997×10^8 m/s
In water = 2.26×10^8 m/s
light in a vacuum (c) to the speed of
In glass = 2×108 m/s light in that medium (v) , μ = c/v

The refractive index of medium 2

μ of Water = 1.33 with respect to medium 1 is given as
μ of Glass = 1.5 to 1.9 1μ2 = Speed of light in medium
μ of Diamond = 2.42 1/Speed of light in medium 2
2μ1 = Speed of light in medium 2
/Speed of light in medium 1
 Refraction of light
Refraction of Light through a Rectangular Glass Block
Consider a rectangular glass block PQRS.

A light ray AO falls on the surface PQ.

NOM is the normal to the surface PQ at
the point of incidence O. At the surface
PQ, the ray AO travels from air to glass,
so it bends towards the normal NOM and
travels inside the glass in a straight line
path along OB.

At the surface RS, the ray OB suffers

refraction again. N1BM1 is the normal to
the surface RS at the point of incidence
B.

Ray OB travels from glass to air, so it

bends away from the normal and travels
along BC.
Ray OB travels from glass to air, so it bends away from the normal and travels
along BC.

The ray AO is called the incident ray, OB the refracted ray and BC the emergent
ray. ∠AON is the angle of incidence i, ∠BOM is the angle of refraction r and
∠CBM1 is the angle of emergence.

Because refraction occurs at two parallel surfaces PQ and RS, ∠MOB = ∠N1BO
and ∠i = ∠e, i.e. the angle of incidence i is equal to angle of emergence e by the
principle of reversibility of the path of a light ray. Thus, the emergent ray BC is
parallel to the incident ray AO.
 Refraction of light
Lateral Displacement
Due to refraction of light through a parallel-sided
glass block, the angle of incidence is equal to the
angle of emergence, so the incident ray AO and the
emergent ray BC are parallel, but they are not along
the same line.

The emergent ray is laterally displaced from the path

of the incident ray. The path of the incident ray AO in
the absence of a glass block is shown by the dotted
line OD.

The perpendicular distance XY between the path of the

emergent ray and the direction of the incident ray is
called lateral displacement.

multiple images in thick glass plate/mirror;

When light reflects off both surfaces of a thick glass
plate/mirror, multiple reflections occur, leading to the
formation of multiple images.

Some light reflects off the front surface, while the rest
refracts into the glass. The refracted light reflects off the
back surface and some of it exits, creating additional
images.

The first image is the brightest and closest to the original

object.Subsequent images are fainter and form deeper inside
the glass.

Thickness of the glass plate affects the distance between

images. Reflectivity of surfaces influences the brightness of
each image.

Found in mirrors, thick glass windows, and other optical

devices where multiple reflections occur.
 Refraction of light
Refraction Of a Light Through a Glass Prism
The principal section ABC of a prism is shown . The angle of the prism is ∠BAC = A

A monochromatic ray of light OP strikes

the face AB of the prism at an angle of
incidence i1. It suffers refraction making
an angle of refraction r1 and travels along
PQ inside the prism. Thus, PQ is the
refracted ray.

PQ strikes the face AC of the prism at an angle of incidence r2. It suffers refraction and
emerges out of the prism as QR at an angle of emergence i2. Thus, QR is the emergent ray.
Thus, the ray of light suffers refraction at two surfaces AB and AC of the prism.
The angle between the direction of the incident ray (OP produced forward) and the emergent
ray (QR produced backward) is called the angle of deviation.

Detailed Derivation
 Refraction of light
Real and Apparent Depth
An object placed in a denser medium when viewed from a rarer medium appears to be at a
depth less than its real depth. This is because of the refraction of light.
In the figure, for the incident ray OB, the angle of
incidence i = ∠ OBN' and the angle of refraction
r = ∠ CBN. Because AO and BN' are parallel and
OB is a transversal line, ∠ AOB = ∠ OBN' = i

Similarly, IA' and BN are parallel and IC is the

transversal line, so ∠ BIA' = ∠ CBN = r Now,
from the right-angled triangle BAO, we have sin i
= BA/OB, Similarly in the right-angled triangle
IAB, we have Sin r = BA/IB
Detailed Derivation

Critical Angle
It is the angle of incidence in the denser
medium corresponding to which the angle
of refraction in the rarer medium is 90°.
i. When the angle of incidence is small, i.e.
i < ic
ii. When the angle of incidence is equal to
the critical angle, i.e. i = ic
iii. When the angle of incidence is greater
than the critical angle, i.e. i > ic
 Refraction of light
Essential Conditions for Total Internal Reflection
For Total Internal Reflection (TIR) to occur, two main conditions must be satisfied:
Light Must Travel from a Denser to a Rarer Medium:
The light ray should move from a denser medium (like glass or water) to a rarer
medium (like air).
Example: Light traveling from water to air.
Angle of Incidence Must Be Greater Than the Critical Angle:
The angle of incidence (the angle at which the light hits the boundary) must be
greater than the critical angle for the pair of media.
The critical angle is the minimum angle of incidence at which light is refracted
along the boundary, making the angle of refraction 90°.

Total internal reflection in a triangular glass prism

Total internal reflection through a prism with each angle as 60°, i.e. an equilateral
prism
A prism with each angle of 60° can be used to deviate a light ray through 60°
by total internal reflection.
Ray diagram

Total internal reflection through a 45°,

90°, 45° prism

Ray diagram
 Refraction of light
Total internal reflection and refraction through a 30°, 60°, 90° prism
i. Incident normally on face BC (side opposite to 30°)

Ray diagram

Incident normally on face AB (side opposite to 60°)

Ray diagram

Incident normally on face AC (side opposite to 90°) b. Incident normally in

a. Incident normally in the portion AD the portion DC
 Refraction of light
iTo deviate a ray of light through 180° through prism

Total Internal Reflection vs Reflection from a plane mirror

Reflection from a plane mirror: Total internal reflection

It occurs when light is incident on a It occurs only when light passes from a
plane mirror from any medium at any denser medium to a rarer medium at an
angle of incidence. angle of incidence greater than the
Only a part of light is reflected while critical angle for that pair of media.
the rest is refracted and absorbed. The entire light is reflected.
There is a loss of energy. The energy of There is no loss of energy. The energy
the reflected light is less than that of of the reflected light is the same as
the incident light. that of the incident light
The image is less bright and the The image is much brighter, and the
brightness gradually decreases as brightness is permanent.
silvering on mirror becomes old and
rough.
Multiple Choice Questions
Recall:
What happens to the speed of light when it enters a denser medium from a rarer medium?
a) It increases
b) It decreases
c) It remains the same
d) It doubles
Answer: b) It decreases
Understanding:
If a light ray passes from air into glass, what happens to its wavelength and frequency?
a) Both wavelength and frequency decrease
b) Wavelength decreases, frequency remains unchanged
c) Wavelength remains unchanged, frequency decreases
d) Both wavelength and frequency increase
Answer: b) Wavelength decreases, frequency remains unchanged
Application:
The refractive index of water is approximately 1.33. If the speed of light in a vacuum is
3×1083 \times 10^83×108 m/s, what is the speed of light in water?
a) 2.26×10^8
b) 2.54×10^8
c) 2.00×10^8
d) 1.75×10^8
Answer: a) 2.26×10^8
Recall:
Which of the following remains unchanged when light refracts through different media?
a) Speed
b) Wavelength
c) Frequency
d) Refractive index
Answer: c) Frequency
Analysis:
A ray of light passes from glass to air at an angle of incidence equal to the critical angle.
What happens to the light ray?
a) It refracts and bends towards the normal
b) It refracts and bends away from the normal
c) It travels along the boundary of the two media
d) It is totally internally reflected
Answer: c) It travels along the boundary of the two media
Recall and Application:
If the critical angle for a glass-air interface is 42°, what is the refractive index of glass?
a) 1.33
b) 1.5
c) 1.41
d) 2.0
Answer: b) 1.5
Understanding and Recall:
Which law of refraction states that the ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine
of the angle of refraction is a constant?
a) Newton’s law
b) Snell’s law
c) Law of reflection
d) Fermat’s principle
Answer: b) Snell’s law
Application:
A light ray enters a glass block and emerges from the opposite side parallel to the incident
ray. What is this phenomenon called?
a) Total internal reflection
b) Refraction
c) Lateral displacement
d) Diffraction
Answer: c) Lateral displacement
Recall:
What is the refractive index of diamond, approximately?
a) 1.5
b) 1.33
c) 2.42
d) 1.00
Answer: c) 2.42
Understanding:
In which condition does a light ray pass undeviated through two media?
a) When the angle of incidence is 45°
b) When the angle of incidence is 0°
c) When the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle
d) When the refractive indices of the media are the same
Answer: b) When the angle of incidence is 0°
Recall:
What is the speed of light in a vacuum?
a) 3×10^8
b) 3.5×10^8
c) 2.5×10^8
d) 1.5×10^8
Answer: a) 3×10^8
Application:
A light ray passes from water (μ=1.33) to air. If the angle of incidence is greater than the
critical angle, what occurs?
a) The light refracts and bends towards the normal
b) The light refracts and bends away from the normal
c) The light is totally internally reflected
d) The light travels along the boundary
Answer: c) The light is totally internally reflected
Analysis:
If a light ray passes through a glass prism and bends towards the base, what does this
indicate about the prism’s orientation?
a) The light ray enters perpendicular to the surface
b) The light ray enters at an oblique angle
c) The prism is inverted
d) The prism is placed horizontally
Answer: b) The light ray enters at an oblique angle
Recall and Application:
What is the formula for calculating the refractive index using the critical angle (C)?
a) μ=sin⁡C
b) μ=1/cos⁡C
c) μ=1/sin⁡C
d) μ=tan⁡C
Answer: c) μ=1/sin⁡C
Understanding:
In a glass prism, if the angle of incidence is increased beyond the critical angle, what
phenomenon occurs?
a) Reflection
b) Refraction
c) Dispersion
d) Total internal reflection
Answer: d) Total internal reflection
Recall:
What is the approximate value of the refractive index of glass?
a) 1.33
b) 1.5
c) 2.0
d) 2.42
Answer: b) 1.5
Application:
If an object appears to be at a depth of 1.5 m in water (μ=1.33\mu = 1.33μ=1.33), what is its
real depth?
a) 1.5 m
b) 2.0 m
c) 1.33 m
d) 2.5 m
Answer: b) 2.0 m
Analysis:
How does a right-angle prism produce a deviation of 90°?
a) By total internal reflection at one surface
b) By refraction at the base
c) By dispersion of light
d) By partial reflection and refraction
Answer: a) By total internal reflection at one surface
Recall:
Which of the following conditions is necessary for total internal reflection to occur?
a) The light must pass from a rarer to a denser medium
b) The angle of incidence must be less than the critical angle
c) The light must pass from a denser to a rarer medium
d) The light must be parallel to the boundary
Answer: c) The light must pass from a denser to a rarer medium
Understanding:
When light passes through a glass block, why does the emergent ray appear parallel to
the incident ray?
a) Because of the lateral displacement
b) Due to the dispersion of light
c) Because of total internal reflection
d) Because the glass block has no refractive index
Answer: a) Because of the lateral displacement

Numericals
A light ray enters water (refractive index = 1.33) from air. If the speed of light in
air is 3×10^8 m/s, what is the speed of light in water? Answer: 2.26×10^8
The refractive index of glass is 1.5. Calculate the critical angle when light passes
from glass to air. Answer: 41.8°
A ray of light passes from air into glass with a refractive index of 1.5. If the angle
of incidence is 30°, find the angle of refraction. Answer: 19.5°
The speed of light in a certain medium is 2.25×10^8 m/s. If the speed of light in
a vacuum is 3×10^8 m/s, calculate the refractive index of the medium. Answer:
1.33
An object is placed at the bottom of a tank filled with water (refractive index =
1.33) and appears to be 1.2 m deep. Calculate the real depth of the object.
Answer: 1.6 m
If the refractive index of diamond is 2.42, calculate the speed of light in
diamond. (Speed of light in a vacuum is 3×10^8 m/s). Answer: 1.24×10^8 m/s
A light ray enters from air (μ=1.00) into water (μ=1.33) at an angle of incidence
of 45°. Calculate the angle of refraction. Answer: 32.1°
The refractive index of water is 1.33, and that of glass is 1.5. A ray of light passes
from water into glass at an angle of 30°. Find the angle of refraction in the
glass. Answer: 26.0°
Calculate the apparent depth of an object lying 2.5 m below the surface of
water (refractive index = 1.33). Answer: 1.88 m
A light ray passes from a medium with a refractive index of 1.4 to air. If the
critical angle is 45°, verify the refractive index using the critical angle formula.
Answer: 1.4
Short Answer Type Questions
Recall:
Define the refractive index of a medium.
Answer: The refractive index of a medium is the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum (c) to
the speed of light in that medium (v). It is expressed as μ=c/v
Understanding:
What happens to the speed and wavelength of light when it passes from air into water?
Answer: The speed of light decreases, and the wavelength shortens when light passes from air
(a rarer medium) into water (a denser medium).
Application:
A light ray passes from air to glass at an angle of incidence of 30°. The refractive index of
glass is 1.5. What happens to the angle of refraction?
Answer: The angle of refraction will be less than 30° because the light slows down as it enters
the denser medium (glass) and bends towards the normal.
Analysis:
Why does a light ray bend when it passes from one medium to another?
Answer: A light ray bends when it passes from one medium to another due to a change in
speed. The change in speed causes a change in direction according to Snell's law.
Recall and Application:
What is the critical angle for water if the refractive index is 1.33?
Answer: The critical angle for water is approximately 48.8°, calculated using C=sin⁡−1(1/μ)
Recall:
State Snell’s law of refraction.
Answer: Snell's law states that the ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the
angle of refraction is a constant, which is equal to the refractive index. Mathematically,
sin⁡isin⁡r=μ\frac{\sin i}{\sin r} = \musinrsini​=μ.
Understanding:
What is lateral displacement in a glass slab?
Answer: Lateral displacement is the perpendicular distance by which a light ray shifts from its
original path after passing through a glass slab without changing its direction.
Recall:
What is total internal reflection, and when does it occur?
Answer: Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from a denser medium to a rarer
medium at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle, causing the light to be
reflected entirely within the denser medium.
Application:
A light ray traveling through water strikes the water-air interface at an angle greater than
the critical angle. What happens to the light ray?
Answer: The light ray undergoes total internal reflection and reflects back into the water.
Analysis:
Why does a stick appear bent when partially submerged in water?
Answer: The stick appears bent due to the refraction of light as it passes from water (denser
medium) to air (rarer medium), causing the submerged part of the stick to appear at a
different position.
Recall:
What remains unchanged when light passes from one medium to another: speed,
wavelength, or frequency?
Answer: The frequency of light remains unchanged when it passes from one medium to
another.
Understanding:
Explain why the apparent depth of an object in water is less than its real depth.
Answer: Due to the refraction of light as it passes from water to air, objects appear closer to
the surface than they actually are, making the apparent depth less than the real depth.
Recall:
What is the speed of light in a vacuum?
Answer: The speed of light in a vacuum is 3×10^8
Application:
if the refractive index of glass is 1.5, and a light ray enters at an angle of incidence of 45°,
what happens to the angle of refraction?
Answer: The angle of refraction will be less than 45°, as the light bends towards the normal
when entering a denser medium (glass).
Recall and Application:
Calculate the speed of light in diamond if its refractive index is 2.42 (speed of light in
vacuum = 3×10^8)
Answer: The speed of light in diamond is approximately 1.24×10^8
Understanding:
Why does the refractive index of a material have no unit?
Answer: The refractive index is a ratio of two similar quantities (the speed of light in a
vacuum to the speed of light in the medium), making it a dimensionless quantity.
Recall:
What is the value of the refractive index of water?
Answer: The refractive index of water is approximately 1.33.
Analysis:
Why does light not deviate when it passes through a glass slab at a perpendicular angle
(normal incidence)?
Answer: When light enters the glass slab at a perpendicular angle, it passes straight through
without bending because the angle of incidence and refraction is 0°.
Recall:
Define critical angle.
Answer: The critical angle is the angle of incidence in the denser medium at which the angle
of refraction in the rarer medium is 90°.
Application:
A light ray enters a glass block (refractive index = 1.5) and emerges from the other side. If
the angle of incidence is 30°, what is the angle of emergence?
Answer: The angle of emergence is 30° because the light ray exits parallel to its original
direction, demonstrating lateral displacement.
Lenses
 Lenses
A lens is a transparent refracting medium bounded by two curved surfaces, of
which one or both surfaces are spherical.
A classic Convex Lens

Converging Lens or Convex Lens

A lens with both surfaces bulging outwards. It’s Three Types
It converges the light rays incident on it to a point.
Three Types :
A bi-convex - has both its surfaces convex.
A plano-convex : lens has one surface plane and
the other surface convex.
A concavo-convex lens has one surface convex and
the other surface concave such that it is thicker in
the middle than at the periphery.
A classic Concave Lens Concave or Diverging Lens
A lens with both surfaces curving inwards
It’s Three Types A concave lens diverges the light rays incident on
it.Three Types
A bi-concave : has both its surfaces concave.
A plano-convex lens has one surface plane and the
other surface concave.
A convexo-concave lens has one surface concave
and the other surface convex such that it is thicker
at the periphery than at the middle.

Action Of a lens as a set of prism Action Of a lens as a set of prism

Prismatic effect of a Lens:
Convex Lens: Acts like a series of prisms with bases facing Each portion of the lens bends light differently, much like a
outward.Bends light rays inward (converges) because prisms on prism would.
either side cause light to bend toward the principal axis.Parallel The curvature of the lens influences how light bends at different
light rays converge to a focal point after passing through the lens. points.

Concave Lens: Acts like a series of prisms with bases facing Application:
Used in optical instruments (e.g., cameras, microscopes) for
inward.Bends light rays outward (diverges) as prisms direct rays
focusing light and forming images.
away from the principal axis.Parallel light rays diverge, appearing
to originate from a virtual focal point.
 Lenses
Centre of curvature
Each surface of a spherical mirror forms a part of a
sphere. The centre of this sphere whose part is the lens
surface is called the centre of curvature of that surface
of the lens. It is represented by C1 and C2.

Radius of curvature
it is the radius of the sphere of which the part is the lens
surface. PC1 and PC2 are the radii of curvature of the
convex lens. Similarly, P1C1 and P2C2 are the radii of
curvature of the concave lens

Principal axis
The horizontal line joining the centre of curvature of
the two surfaces of the lens is known as the principal
axis.

Focal Plane
It is an imaginary plane that is perpendicular to the
principal axis of a lens or mirror. It passes through the
focus (F), where light rays that are parallel to the
principal axis converge (for a convex lens/mirror) or
appear to diverge from (for a concave lens/mirror).

Focal Length
The distance between the optical center of a lens or
mirror and its focus (F). It is the point where
parallel rays of light either converge (for a convex
lens/mirror) or appear to diverge from (for a
concave lens/mirror) after refraction or reflection.
 Lenses
Characteristics and Location of Images for a Convex Lens
Case 1 : Case 2 :

Case 3 : Case 4 :

Case 5 : Case 6 :
 Lenses
Characteristics and Location of Images for a Concave Lens
Case 1 : Case 2 :

Real image: When the rays from a point of

Lens Formula : The lens formula relates the object object after refraction through the lens
distance (u), the image distance (v), and the
actually meet at a point, the image is real.
focal length (f) of a lens. 1/f = 1/v - 1/u.
Where: f = Focal length of the lens, v = Image
If a screen is placed at this point, then the
distance (distance from the lens to the image), u image will be formed on it, i.e. a real
= Object distance (distance from the lens to the image can be obtained on a screen.
object)

Virtual image: When the rays from a point of

object after refraction through the lens do not Sign Conventions: Distances measured in
actually meet at a point, but they appear to the direction of the incident light are
positive.
diverge from a point, the image is virtual. A
Distances measured against the direction
screen placed at this point will not show any of incident light are negative.
image on it, i.e. a virtual image cannot be The focal length is positive for convex
obtained on a screen. However, when an eye is lenses and negative for concave lenses.
kept between the diverging rays, it is able to
see the image because the eye lens being
convex converges the rays to form the image
on its retina.
 Lenses
Characteristics and Location of Images for a Concave Lens
Case 1 : Case 2 :

Real image: When the rays from a point of

Lens Formula : The lens formula relates the object object after refraction through the lens
distance (u), the image distance (v), and the
actually meet at a point, the image is real.
focal length (f) of a lens. 1/f = 1/v - 1/u.
Where: f = Focal length of the lens, v = Image
If a screen is placed at this point, then the
distance (distance from the lens to the image), u image will be formed on it, i.e. a real
= Object distance (distance from the lens to the image can be obtained on a screen.
object)

Virtual image: When the rays from a point of

object after refraction through the lens do not Sign Conventions: Distances measured in
actually meet at a point, but they appear to the direction of the incident light are
positive.
diverge from a point, the image is virtual. A
Distances measured against the direction
screen placed at this point will not show any of incident light are negative.
image on it, i.e. a virtual image cannot be The focal length is positive for convex
obtained on a screen. However, when an eye is lenses and negative for concave lenses.
kept between the diverging rays, it is able to
see the image because the eye lens being
convex converges the rays to form the image
on its retina.
 Lenses
Principle ray or constructing Ray
First rule: A ray of light passing through the optical
centre of the lens will emerge without any deviation.

Second rule: A ray of light incident parallel to the

principal axis, after refraction from a convex lens,
passes through the second focus F2. In case of a
concave lens, the ray appears to diverge from the
first focus F1.

Third rule: A ray of light passing through the first

focus, after refraction from a convex lens, will emerge
parallel to the principal axis. Whereas a ray of light
appearing to meet at the first focus of a concave
lens, after refraction, will emerge parallel to the
principal axis.
Power of a Lens
Lenses
The measure of deviation produced by a lens in the path of rays
refracted through it is called the power of a lens.
The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length. It is
represented by the letter P. The power P of a lens of focal length f is
given as. P=1 / f. The SI unit of power is dioptre (D).

simple microscope:
The magnifying power (M) of a simple microscope (convex lens) is the
ratio of the angle subtended by the image at the eye to the angle
subtended by the object when placed at the least distance of distinct
vision (usually 25 cm).
M= 1 + D / F
Where: M = Magnifying power, D = Least distance of distinct vision
(typically 25 cm), f = Focal length of the convex lens
A simple microscope uses a convex lens to magnify small objects.
The object is placed between the lens and its focal point, producing
an enlarged, virtual, and upright image.
The shorter the focal length of the lens, the greater the magnifying
power.

Applications of lenses.
Magnifying Glass (Convex Lens): A convex lens is used to magnify objects, making small
details visible to the naked eye
Convex lenses are used in cameras to focus light and form clear images on the film or
sensor. They help control image sharpness and focus.
Convex lenses correct hypermetropia (farsightedness) by converging light before it reaches
the eye.
Concave lenses correct myopia (nearsightedness) by diverging light to form the image
correctly on the retina.
Convex lenses are used in telescopes to gather and focus light from distant objects like stars
and planets.
Multiple Choice Questions
Recall:
Which of the following is a converging lens?
a) Concave lens
b) Convex lens
c) Plano-concave lens
d) Bifocal lens
Answer: b) Convex lens
Understanding:
A convex lens acts like a set of prisms. In which direction do these prisms bend the
light rays?
a) Away from the optical axis
b) Towards the optical axis
c) Parallel to the optical axis
d) Perpendicular to the optical axis
Answer: b) Towards the optical axis
Application:
Where will the image be formed when an object is placed at 2F of a convex lens?
a) At F on the opposite side
b) At infinity
c) At 2F on the opposite side
d) Between F and the lens
Answer: c) At 2F on the opposite side
Recall:
What type of lens has a focal length that is negative?
a) Convex lens
b) Concave lens
c) Cylindrical lens
d) Plano-convex lens
Answer: b) Concave lens
Analysis:
If an object is placed between the focal point (F) and the optical center (O) of a
convex lens, what is the nature of the image formed?
a) Real, inverted, and diminished
b) Virtual, upright, and magnified
c) Real, upright, and magnified
d) Virtual, inverted, and diminished
Answer: b) Virtual, upright, and magnified
Recall and Application:
What happens to parallel rays of light when they pass through a concave lens?
a) They converge at a point
b) They remain parallel
c) They diverge as if coming from the focal point
d) They converge to the optical center
Answer: c) They diverge as if coming from the focal point
Understanding and Recall:
What is the power of a lens with a focal length of 0.5 m?
a) +2 D
b) -2 D
c) +1 D
d) -1 D
Answer: a) +2 D
Application:
If the focal length of a concave lens is 10 cm, what is its power?
a) -10 D
b) -5 D
c) -2 D
d) -0.1 D
Answer: c) -10 D
Recall:
What is the principal axis of a lens?
a) The line joining the focal points
b) The line passing through the optical center and the centers of curvature
c) The line perpendicular to the focal plane
d) The line parallel to the optical axis
Answer: b) The line passing through the optical center and the centers of curvature
Understanding:
In a convex lens, what happens to an object placed beyond 2F?
a) The image is formed at F
b) The image is formed between F and 2F
c) The image is formed beyond 2F on the opposite side
d) The image is formed at infinity
Answer: b) The image is formed between F and 2F
Recall:
What is the focal length of a convex lens if its power is +4 D?
a) 0.25 m
b) 0.5 m
c) 2 m
d) 4 m
Answer: a) 0.25 m
Application:
An object is placed at F of a convex lens. Where will the image be formed?
a) At infinity
b) At F on the opposite side
c) Between F and the lens
d) No image is formed
Answer: a) At infinity
Analysis:
Which lens can be used as a magnifying glass?
a) Convex lens
b) Concave lens
c) Bifocal lens
d) Plano-convex lens
Answer: a) Convex lens
Recall and Application:
What happens to the image formed by a concave lens regardless of the object’s
position?
a) It is always real and inverted
b) It is always virtual, upright, and diminished
c) It is always real and magnified
d) It is always virtual and magnified
Answer: b) It is always virtual, upright, and diminished
Understanding:
In a concave lens, where is the focal point located?
a) In front of the lens
b) Behind the lens
c) At the optical center
d) It does not have a focal point
Answer: a) In front of the lens
Recall:
If the focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm, what is the power of the lens?
a) +5 D
b) -5 D
c) +2.5 D
d) +0.05 D
Answer: c) +2.5 D
Application:
Which lens is used to correct myopia (short-sightedness)?
a) Convex lens
b) Concave lens
c) Cylindrical lens
d) Plano-concave lens
Answer: b) Concave lens
Recall:
What is the center of curvature of a lens?
a) The point where light rays converge
b) The center of the spherical surfaces that form the lens
c) The midpoint of the principal axis
d) The point where the image is formed
Answer: b) The center of the spherical surfaces that form the lens
Understanding:
How does a convex lens form an image of an object placed at infinity?
a) At the optical center
b) At the focal point
c) At 2F
d) Between F and 2F
Answer: b) At the focal point
Recall:
Which of the following correctly describes a concave lens?
a) It is thicker at the center than at the edges.
b) It is thicker at the edges than at the center.
c) It forms a real, inverted image for an object placed at F.
d) It can only be used as a magnifying glass.
Answer: b) It is thicker at the edges than at the center.

Numericals :
A convex lens has a focal length of 15 cm. An object is placed 30 cm from the lens.
Calculate the image distance. Answer: 30 cm
A concave lens has a focal length of 10 cm. An object is placed 20 cm from the lens.
Find the image distance. Answer: -6.67 cm
The power of a convex lens is +4 D. Calculate its focal length. Answer: 25 cm
An object is placed at 2F (20 cm) of a convex lens. If the focal length is 10 cm, where
is the image formed? Answer: 20 cm (at 2F on the opposite side)
A lens has a focal length of -12.5 cm. What is the power of the lens? Answer: -8 D
An object is placed 15 cm from a concave lens with a focal length of 10 cm. Find the
image distance. Answer: -6 cm
A convex lens has a focal length of 50 cm. If an object is placed 100 cm away,
calculate the image distance. Answer: 50 cm
A concave lens has a power of -2 D. What is its focal length Answer: -50 cm
An object is placed 10 cm from a convex lens with a focal length of 20 cm. Find the
image distance. Answer: 20 cm
A lens has a focal length of 40 cm. Calculate the power of the lens. Answer: +2.5 D

Short Answer Type Questions :

Recall:
What is a convex lens?
Answer: A convex lens is a converging lens that is thicker at the center than at the edges. It
converges light rays to a focal point.
Recall:
What is a concave lens?
Answer: A concave lens is a diverging lens that is thinner at the center than at the edges. It
diverges light rays as if they are coming from a focal point behind the lens.
Understanding:
Explain the function of the optical center in a lens.
Answer: The optical center is the point on the principal axis of the lens where a ray of light
passing through it does not deviate.
Application:
Where will the image be formed when an object is placed at 2F in front of a convex lens?
Answer: The image will be formed at 2F on the opposite side of the lens.
Recall:
Define focal length.
Answer: The focal length is the distance between the optical center of the lens and its focal
point.
Understanding:
Why does a convex lens converge light rays while a concave lens diverges them?
Answer: A convex lens converges light rays because its shape causes light rays to bend
towards the principal axis. A concave lens diverges light rays as its shape bends light rays
away from the principal axis.
Application:
What type of image is formed when an object is placed between the focal point (F) and the
optical center (O) of a convex lens?
Answer: A virtual, upright, and magnified image is formed.
Recall:
What is the power of a lens with a focal length of 0.25 m?
Answer: The power of the lens is +4 D.
Analysis:
How does the image size change as the object moves closer to a convex lens from infinity to
the focal point?
Answer: As the object moves closer to the lens, the image size increases and becomes larger
than the object when it is placed between F and 2F.
Recall:
What is the principal axis of a lens?
Answer: The principal axis is the line that passes through the optical center and the centers of
curvature of both surfaces of the lens.
Understanding:
Why is the focal length of a concave lens negative?
Answer: The focal length of a concave lens is negative because it diverges light rays, and the
focal point is located on the same side as the object.
Application:
A convex lens has a power of +5 D. What is its focal length?
Answer: The focal length is 20 cm.
Recall:
What is meant by lateral inversion in lenses?
Answer: Lateral inversion is the phenomenon where the left and right sides of an
image are reversed when viewed through a lens.
Understanding:
Explain the concept of magnification in lenses.
Answer: Magnification is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object.
It indicates how much larger or smaller the image is compared to the object.
Recall:
What is the center of curvature of a lens?
Answer: The center of curvature is the center of the imaginary sphere of which the lens
surface forms a part.
Application:
What type of lens would you use to correct myopia (short-sightedness)?
Answer: A concave lens is used to correct myopia as it diverges light rays to focus on
the retina.
Recall:
State the lens formula.
Answer: The lens formula is 1f=1/v−1/u where f is the focal length, v is the image
distance, and u is the object distance.
Understanding:
Why does the image formed by a concave lens appear diminished regardless of the
object’s position?
Answer: The concave lens diverges light rays, resulting in an image that is always
smaller than the object.
Application:
An object is placed at infinity in front of a convex lens. Where will the image be
formed?
Answer: The image will be formed at the focal point (F) on the opposite side of the
lens.
Recall:
Define the term “virtual image” in the context of lenses.
Answer: A virtual image is an image that cannot be obtained on a screen and
appears to be located on the same side of the lens as the object.
Spectrum
 Spectrum
Deviation Produced by a Triangular Prism
When a ray of light passes from
one medium to another medium,
it gets deviated from its path
because of the difference in
speeds of light in the two media.

Dependence of Deviation on Colour (or Wavelength) of Light

Light of different colours has different speeds in a medium. The speed of
light in a transparent medium decreases with the decrease in the
wavelength of light.
the refractive index of glass increases with decrease in the wavelength of
light, so the deviation increases with decrease in the wavelength.
in the visible spectrum, red colour (λ = 7000 Å) is deviated the least and
violet (λ = 4000 Å) is deviated the most.
What is a spectrum ?
Newton allowed the white light from
the Sun to enter a darkened room
through a small aperture in a
window and placed a glass prism in
the path of light rays and found
light emerging with the colours of a
rainbow.This coloured band is
termed a spectrum.the colours in the
spectrum on the screen are in the
following order: Violet, Indigo, Blue,
Green, Yellow, Orange and Red. The
order of colours can easily be
remembered as VIBGYOR.
 Spectrum

What is a Dispersion ?
The phenomenon of splitting of white light by a prism into
its constituent colours is known as dispersion.

Causes of Dispersion
The cause of dispersion is the change in speed of light with wavelength (or
frequency).
Red colour is deviated the least, while violet colour is deviated the most.
On the second surface of the prism, only refraction occurs (from glass to air),
and different colours are deviated through different angles, i.e. violet is
deviated the most and red the least.
As a result, the colours get further separated on refraction at the second
surface. The light coming out of the prism thus has different colours that
spread out to form a spectrum

Electromagnetic Spectrum
The portion of the spectrum between red and violet
colours is the visible spectrum, and it is only a
small part of the entire electromagnetic spectrum.

The portion of the spectrum just beyond the red

end is called the infrared spectrum, while the
portion of the spectrum just before the violet end
is called the ultraviolet spectrum.
The speed of these waves is
equal to the speed of light,
i.e. c = 3 × 10^8 m s−1 .
The waves of wavelength longer than the red part
The speed, frequency and of the visible spectrum in increasing order of
wavelength of wavelength are infrared radiations, microwaves
electromagnetic waves are and radio waves, while the waves of wavelength
related as c = Vλ shorter than the violet part of the visible spectrum
in decreasing order are ultraviolet rays, X-rays
and gamma rays.
 Spectrum

Properties of Electromagnetic Waves

These waves do not require any material medium for their

propagation.
They travel with the same speed in vacuum (or air) which
is same as the speed of light, i.e. c = 3 × 10^ 8 m s−1 .
They exhibit the properties of reflection and refraction.
These waves are not affected by electric and magnetic
fields.
These waves are transverse waves

Properties of Ultraviolet Radiations

They can pass through quartz, but they are absorbed by glass.
They travel in a straight line with a speed of 3 × 10^ 8 m s−1 in air (or vacuum).
scattered by dust particles present in the atmosphere.
They obey the laws of reflection and refraction.
They strongly affect a photographic plate as they are chemically more active.
They produce fluorescence on striking a zinc-sulphide screen.
They cause health hazards such as skin cancer if the body is exposed to them for long.

Uses: i. For sterilising purposes.

ii. For detecting the purity of gems, eggs, ghee etc.
iii. In producing Vitamin D.
iv. In producing food of plants and animals.
 Spectrum
Properties of Infrared Radiations
They travel in straight lines as light does, with a speed equal to 3 × 10^8 m s−1 in vacuum (or
air).
They obey the laws of reflection and refraction. When a source of heat (an infrared lamp) is
placed at the focus of a parabolic mirror, a parallel infrared beam is obtained.
They do not affect an ordinary photographic film. However, they affect a specially treated
photographic film.
They are absorbed by glass, but they are not absorbed by rock salt.
They are detected by their heating property using a thermopile or a blackened bulb
thermometer. High doses of infrared radiations may cause skin burns.
They are scattered in the atmosphere because of their long wavelengths and can even
penetrate fog.
Uses:
(i). They are used for therapeutic purposes by doctors.
(ii). They are used in the remote control of the television and
other gadgets.
(iii) They are used in photography at night and also in mist and
fog because they are not scattered much, so they can penetrate
appreciably through these.

Question - Why The Sky Appears Blue

During day time ?

The blue color of the sky is due to

the scattering of sunlight by the
Earth's atmosphere,Sunlight
consists of different colors, each
with different wavelengths. Blue
light has a shorter wavelength and
is scattered more than other colors Based on Simple application of
like red, which have longer
scattering of light
wavelengths.
Multiple Choice Questions
Recall:
What happens to white light when it passes through a triangular prism?
a) It reflects
b) It disperses into a spectrum
c) It scatters in all directions
d) It remains unchanged
Answer: b) It disperses into a spectrum
Understanding:
Which color of light deviates the most when passing through a prism?
a) Red
b) Green
c) Violet
d) Yellow
Answer: c) Violet
Application:
If a light ray enters a prism and deviates, what does this indicate about the angle of
incidence?
a) It is equal to the angle of deviation
b) It is greater than the critical angle
c) It is different from the angle of refraction
d) It remains constant
Answer: c) It is different from the angle of refraction
Recall:
Which phenomenon is responsible for the splitting of white light into its constituent
colors?
a) Reflection
b) Refraction
c) Dispersion
d) Diffraction
Answer: c) Dispersion
Analysis:
Why does red light deviate the least when passing through a prism?
a) It has the shortest wavelength
b) It has the longest wavelength
c) It travels slower than other colors
d) It is less intense
Answer: b) It has the longest wavelength
Recall and Application:
Which of the following represents the correct order of colors in the visible spectrum?
a) Red, Yellow, Blue, Violet
b) Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, Violet
c) Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red
d) Violet, Indigo, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red
Answer: b) Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, Violet
Understanding and Recall:
What is the effect of increasing the wavelength on the deviation produced by a
prism?
a) Deviation increases
b) Deviation decreases
c) Deviation remains unchanged
d) Deviation becomes zero
Answer: b) Deviation decreases
Application:
Which radiation in the electromagnetic spectrum has a wavelength longer than
visible light but shorter than microwaves?
a) Ultraviolet radiation
b) X-rays
c) Infrared radiation
d) Gamma rays
Answer: c) Infrared radiation
Recall:
What is the range of wavelengths for visible light?
a) 400 - 700 nm
b) 200 - 400 nm
c) 700 - 1000 nm
d) 100 - 300 nm
Answer: a) 400 - 700 nm
Understanding:
Why is the sky blue?
a) Due to the dispersion of light
b) Due to the scattering of blue light
c) Due to the reflection of sunlight
d) Due to the absorption of red light
Answer: b) Due to the scattering of blue light
Recall:
Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in order of increasing wavelength:
X-rays, Ultraviolet, Infrared, Radio waves.
a) Ultraviolet, X-rays, Infrared, Radio waves
b) X-rays, Ultraviolet, Infrared, Radio waves
c) Infrared, Ultraviolet, X-rays, Radio waves
d) Radio waves, Infrared, Ultraviolet, X-rays
Answer: b) X-rays, Ultraviolet, Infrared, Radio waves
Application:
Which radiation is used for night vision and thermal imaging?
a) X-rays
b) Ultraviolet rays
c) Infrared radiation
d) Gamma rays
Answer: c) Infrared radiation
Analysis:
Why is ultraviolet radiation not visible to the human eye?
a) It has a shorter wavelength than visible light
b) It has a longer wavelength than visible light
c) It is less intense than visible light
d) It has the same wavelength as infrared
Answer: a) It has a shorter wavelength than visible light
Recall and Application:
Which electromagnetic radiation is commonly used for sterilization purposes?
a) Infrared radiation
b) Ultraviolet radiation
c) Microwaves
d) Visible light
Answer: b) Ultraviolet radiation
Understanding:
What is common among all electromagnetic waves?
a) They all require a medium to travel
b) They travel at the same speed in a vacuum
c) They have the same wavelength
d) They have the same energy
Answer: b) They travel at the same speed in a vacuum
Recall:
Which color of light has the shortest wavelength?
a) Red
b) Blue
c) Yellow
d) Violet
Answer: d) Violet
Application:
If white light is passed through a prism and violet light deviates the most, what is the
relationship between wavelength and deviation?
a) Deviation is directly proportional to wavelength
b) Deviation is inversely proportional to wavelength
c) Deviation is equal to wavelength
d) There is no relationship between deviation and wavelength
Answer: b) Deviation is inversely proportional to wavelength
Recall:
Which electromagnetic radiation has the shortest wavelength?
a) Ultraviolet radiation
b) Gamma rays
c) Infrared radiation
d) X-rays
Answer: b) Gamma rays
Understanding:
Why does dispersion occur when light passes through a prism?
a) Due to the uniform refraction of different wavelengths
b) Due to the different refractive indices for different wavelengths
c) Due to the scattering of light
d) Due to total internal reflection
Answer: b) Due to the different refractive indices for different wavelengths
Recall:
What is the main use of infrared radiation in everyday life?
a) Disinfection
b) Communication through fiber optics
c) Thermal imaging and heating
d) Sterilization of medical equipment
Answer: c) Thermal imaging and heating

Short Answer Type Questions

Recall:
What is dispersion of light?
Answer: Dispersion is the splitting of white light into its constituent colors when it
passes through a prism.
Understanding:
Why does a prism cause light to split into a spectrum?
Answer: A prism causes light to split into a spectrum because it refracts different
wavelengths of light by different amounts, with shorter wavelengths bending more
than longer wavelengths.
Application:
Which color deviates the most when white light passes through a triangular prism?
Answer: Violet light deviates the most because it has the shortest wavelength.
Analysis:
Why does red light deviate the least in a prism?
Answer: Red light deviates the least because it has the longest wavelength and,
therefore, experiences the least bending when passing through the prism.
Recall:
What is the order of colors in the visible spectrum from longest to shortest
wavelength?
Answer: Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, Violet.
Understanding:
What is the relationship between wavelength and deviation in a prism?
Answer: The deviation is inversely proportional to the wavelength; shorter wavelengths
deviate more than longer wavelengths.
Application:
Why is the sky blue?
Answer: The sky appears blue due to the scattering of shorter wavelengths of light
(blue) by the molecules in the atmosphere.
Recall:
What is the electromagnetic spectrum?
Answer: The electromagnetic spectrum is the range of all types of
electromagnetic radiation, arranged in order of increasing wavelength.
Understanding:
Why is ultraviolet radiation not visible to the human eye?
Answer: Ultraviolet radiation has a shorter wavelength than visible light, falling
outside the range that the human eye can detect.
Application:
If a light ray enters a prism and emerges with colors spread out, what
phenomenon is responsible?
Answer: The phenomenon responsible is dispersion, where the different
wavelengths of light are refracted at different angles.
Recall:
Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in increasing order of
wavelength: Infrared, Ultraviolet, X-rays, Radio waves.
Answer: X-rays, Ultraviolet, Infrared, Radio waves.
Understanding:
Why do infrared waves have a longer wavelength than visible light?
Answer: Infrared waves have less energy compared to visible light, which
corresponds to longer wavelengths according to the electromagnetic spectrum.
Recall:
Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is responsible for heat radiation?
Answer: Infrared radiation is responsible for heat radiation.
Analysis:
How does the deviation of light change with the wavelength when light passes
through a prism?
Answer: As the wavelength increases, the deviation decreases; therefore, colors
like red deviate less than colors like violet.
Application:
What is the use of ultraviolet radiation in everyday life?
Answer: Ultraviolet radiation is used for sterilization and disinfection as it can kill
bacteria and viruses.
Recall:
Which electromagnetic wave has the shortest wavelength?
Answer: Gamma rays have the shortest wavelength.
Understanding:
Why is red light used in stop signs and signals?
Answer: Red light is used because it has the longest wavelength and is least
scattered, making it visible over longer distances.
Recall:
What property is common to all electromagnetic waves?
Answer: All electromagnetic waves travel at the speed of light in a vacuum.
Application:
What would happen if you pass white light through a glass block instead of a
prism?
Answer: White light would not split into its constituent colors because the
parallel sides of the glass block cause the light to emerge without dispersion.
Analysis:
Why do shorter wavelengths scatter more in the atmosphere than longer
wavelengths?
Answer: Shorter wavelengths, like blue, scatter more because they are absorbed
and re-emitted by air molecules more efficiently than longer wavelengths,
according to Rayleigh scattering
Sound
 Sound
Echo : The repetition of sound caused by the reflection of sound waves from
an obstacle after the original sound has ceased is known as echo
Conditions for Echo:
The minimum distance between the source and the reflecting surface should be 17 meters.

This is because sound needs at least 0.1 seconds to travel to the surface and back to the
listener, as the speed of sound in air is approximately 344 m/s.

If d is the distance between the observer and the obstacle and V is the speed of sound, then
the total distance travelled by the sound to reach the obstacle and then to come back is 2 d
and the time taken is t = Total distance travelled/Speed of sound = 2d/v => d=vt/2

Uses of Echoes
The sounds produced by flying bats get
reflected from an obstacle in front of it. By Since Sonar has been mentioned
hearing the echoes, bats are able to detect
obstacles in the dark. Hence, they can fly SONAR stands for sound navigation and
safely without colliding with the obstacles. ranging. It consists of a transmitter and
This process of detecting obstacles is called detector. The transmitter transmits the
sound ranging. ultrasonic sound. These waves travel
through water, and after striking an
Dolphins detect their enemy and obstacles by underwater object (e.g. submarine, iceberg,
emitting ultrasonic waves and hearing their sunken ship), reflect and are detected by a
echo. They use ultrasonic waves for hunting detector.
their prey.

A fisherman sends a pulse of ultrasonic waves

from a source into the sea and receives the
waves reflected from the shoal of fish via a
detector.

In medicine: Ultrasonic waves are made to

reflect from various parts of the heart and
form the image of the heart. This technique is
called Echocardiography. Ultrasonography is
used to obtain the images of patient’s organs
such as the liver, kidneys etc. It helps to detect
stones in the kidneys.
 Sound
Natural (free) Vibrations
Free vibrations occur when a system oscillates at its
natural frequency without any continuous external Applications of Free Vibrations
force acting on it after the initial disturbance. Instruments like guitars, pianos, and drums
Natural Frequency: The frequency at which a system rely on free vibrations to produce sound when
strings or surfaces are struck or plucked.
naturally vibrates.
No External Force: Only the initial displacement Quartz crystals vibrate freely when
causes oscillations. electrically stimulated, providing accurate
Energy Conservation: The total energy remains timekeeping in quartz watches.
constant (ignoring damping).
Damped Vibrations
Applications of Damped Vibrations Damped vibrations occur when the amplitude of
Shock absorbers use damped vibrations to provide a oscillation gradually decreases over time due to
smooth ride by reducing the oscillations of the vehicle an external resistive force (e.g., friction or air
after hitting a bump. resistance).
Amplitude Decreases: Vibrations lose energy and
Speakers and microphones use damping to prevent
unwanted resonances and distortions in sound become weaker over time.
production. No Constant Frequency: The frequency remains
nearly the same initially but may reduce as the
amplitude decreases.

Forced Vibrations
Forced vibrations occur when an external Applications of Forced Vibrations
periodic force continuously drives a system to Forced vibrations are used in structural testing to
oscillate. simulate real-world stresses on bridges, buildings,
External Force Applied: The system vibrates due and aircraft to check their durability.
to a force acting at a specific frequency.
Speakers and microphones use damping to
Driven Oscillations: The object vibrates at the
prevent unwanted resonances and distortions in
frequency of the applied force, not its natural sound production.
frequency.

Applications of Resonance Resonance

MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging): Resonance is the When the frequency of an externally applied
principle behind MRI technology, which uses magnetic
fields and radio waves to create detailed images of periodic force on a body is equal to its natural
organs and tissues. frequency, the body readily begins to vibrate with
increased amplitude. This phenomenon is known as
Strings and Air Columns: Instruments like guitars,
violins, and flutes utilize resonance to amplify sound,
resonance.
where the body resonates at the instrument's natural The vibrations of large amplitude are called
frequencies. resonant vibrations.
 Sound
Loudness and Intensity of sound
Loudness is the property by which a loud
sound can be distinguished from a faint one,
both having the same pitch and quality
The loudness or softness of a sound is
determined by the amplitude (or intensity) of
the wave. loudness is not the same as
intensity. Intensity is a measurable quantity,
while loudness is a sensation.

Sound level in decibels

The unit of loudness is phon. The loudness of
a sound in phon is the loudness in decibel
(dB) of an equally loud pure sound of
frequency 1 kHz. The sound level is usually
expressed in decibel (dB).
Derivation
Thus, we can define 1 dB as the change in
level of loudness when the intensity of
sound is changed by 26%.

Noise Pollution
disturbance produced in the environment due to
undesirable loud and harsh sound of level above
120 dB from various sources such as
loudspeakers, sirens, moving vehicles etc. is
called noise pollution.
 Sound
Pitch and Frequency
Pitch: The sensation or perception of how high
or low a sound is.
Dependence on Frequency: Higher frequency
sounds have a higher pitch, while lower
frequency sounds have a lower pitch.The
pitch of a note depends on the wavelength
or frequency of wave.
Frequency: The number of vibrations (or cycles)
produced per second by a vibrating body.
Unit: Hertz (Hz).
Higher Frequency = Higher Pitch
Pitch refers only to musical
quality and waveforms sounds, and each musical
note has a definite pitch. If
Quality (Timbre): The characteristic of sound that
distinguishes it from others of the same pitch and
the pitch is higher, then the
loudness. sound is said to be shrill,
Dependence: Quality depends on the waveform and if the pitch is lower,
of the sound. then the sound is flat.
Example: A violin and a piano playing the
same note have different qualities due to
different waveforms.
Waveforms: The shape of the sound wave produced by a vibrating source.
Simple Waveform: Produces a pure tone (e.g., tuning fork).
Complex Waveform: Produces a rich, complex sound (e.g., musical instruments).
Harmonics: The presence of overtones or harmonics in complex waveforms gives
different instruments their unique sound.

Relationship Between the Two

The quality of sound is determined by the waveform produced, which includes the fundamental
frequency and harmonics.
Multiple Choice Questions
Recall:
What is the minimum distance required for an echo to be heard?
a) 10 m
b) 17 m
c) 34 m
d) 50 m
Answer: b) 17 m
Understanding:
Why do bats use echoes for navigation?
a) To see objects in the dark
b) To detect objects using reflected sound waves
c) To communicate with other bats
d) To locate food only
Answer: b) To detect objects using reflected sound waves
Application:
If a sound wave travels at 340 m/s, what is the time taken for an echo to return when
the reflecting surface is 85 m away?
a) 0.25 s
b) 0.5 s
c) 1.0 s
d) 2.0 s
Answer: b) 0.5 s
Recall:
What is SONAR used for?
a) Detecting underwater objects using light
b) Measuring the depth of the ocean using sound waves
c) Communicating between submarines using radio waves
d) Navigating airplanes
Answer: b) Measuring the depth of the ocean using sound waves
Analysis:
Why can echoes not be heard in a small room?
a) The walls absorb the sound completely
b) The distance is too short for the echo to be distinct
c) The sound waves are too weak
d) The air pressure is too high
Answer: b) The distance is too short for the echo to be distinct
Recall and Application:
Which of the following animals uses echolocation to find its way and detect prey?
a) Cats
b) Dolphins
c) Elephants
d) Birds
Answer: b) Dolphins
Understanding and Recall:
What is resonance?
a) A sound wave bouncing off a surface
b) The amplification of a sound when the frequency of forced vibrations matches the natural
frequency of an object
c) A decrease in the amplitude of sound waves over time
d) The change in pitch due to motion
Answer: b) The amplification of a sound when the frequency of forced vibrations matches
the natural frequency of an object
Application:
Which phenomenon explains why a tuning fork vibrates when another fork of the same
frequency is struck nearby?
a) Echo
b) Reflection
c) Resonance
d) Diffraction
Answer: c) Resonance
Recall:
Which unit is used to measure sound intensity levels?
a) Hertz (Hz)
b) Watt (W)
c) Decibel (dB)
d) Newton (N)
Answer: c) Decibel (dB)
Understanding:
What is the relationship between pitch and frequency?
a) Pitch increases as frequency decreases
b) Pitch is unrelated to frequency
c) Pitch increases as frequency increases
d) Pitch remains constant regardless of frequency
Answer: c) Pitch increases as frequency increases
Recall:
Which of the following is an example of a natural vibration?
a) A tuning fork vibrating after being struck
b) The vibration of a string when plucked
c) The vibration of a drum skin when struck
d) The swinging of a pendulum
Answer: d) The swinging of a pendulum
Application:
What happens to the frequency of sound when the pitch is increased?
a) Frequency increases
b) Frequency decreases
c) Frequency remains the same
d) Frequency becomes zero
Answer: a) Frequency increases
Analysis:
Why do noise pollution levels need to be controlled?
a) To avoid damage to infrastructure
b) To protect human hearing and reduce health risks
c) To conserve animal habitats
d) To improve sound quality in music
Answer: b) To protect human hearing and reduce health risks
Recall and Application:
What is the condition required for the formation of an echo?
a) The distance of the reflecting surface should be more than 17 m
b) The sound wave should travel in a straight line
c) The air temperature should be high
d) The distance of the reflecting surface should be less than 10 m
Answer: a) The distance of the reflecting surface should be more than 17 m
Understanding:
What is the difference between loudness and intensity?
a) Loudness is subjective and depends on the listener, while intensity is objective and
measurable
b) Loudness and intensity are the same
c) Intensity depends on the distance from the source, while loudness remains constant
d) Loudness depends on the speed of sound, while intensity depends on the frequency
Answer: a) Loudness is subjective and depends on the listener, while intensity is objective
and measurable
Recall:
What kind of vibrations occur when a guitar string is plucked?
a) Damped vibrations
b) Forced vibrations
c) Natural vibrations
d) Resonant vibrations
Answer: c) Natural vibrations
Application:
If a sound wave takes 2 seconds to return as an echo when the speed of sound is 340 m/s,
what is the distance of the reflecting surface?
a) 170 m
b) 340 m
c) 680 m
d) 85 m
Answer: b) 340 m
Recall:
What is the principle of SONAR based on?
a) Reflection of sound waves
b) Absorption of light waves
c) Refraction of sound waves
d) Diffraction of light waves
Answer: a) Reflection of sound waves
Understanding:
Which type of vibration occurs when an external force continues to act on an object to
maintain its motion?
a) Forced vibrations
b) Natural vibrations
c) Damped vibrations
d) Resonance
Answer: a) Forced vibrations
Recall:
Which of the following frequencies is likely to be used for ultrasound in medical imaging?
a) 20 Hz
b) 20 kHz
c) 2 MHz
d) 200 MHz
Answer: c) 2 MHz

Numericals
A sound wave travels at 340 m/s. If the time taken for the echo to return is 2 seconds,
calculate the distance of the reflecting surface. Answer: 340 m (Distance = speed ×
time/2)
A dolphin emits a sound wave that travels at 1500 m/s in water. If it detects an echo 4
seconds later, what is the distance to the object? Answer: 3000 m (Distance = speed ×
time/2)
A sound wave travels 1360 m in 4 seconds. Calculate the speed of the sound wave.
Answer: 340 m/s (Speed = distance/time)
A bat uses echolocation to detect prey 50 m away. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s, how
long does it take for the echo to return? Answer: 0.29 seconds (Time = 2 ×
distance/speed)
A ship uses SONAR to detect the depth of the ocean floor. If the time for the echo to return
is 6 seconds and the speed of sound in water is 1500 m/s, calculate the depth. Answer:
4500 m (Depth = speed × time/2)
If a sound wave has a frequency of 500 Hz and travels at a speed of 340 m/s, what is its
wavelength? Answer: 0.68 m (Wavelength = speed/frequency)
A fisherman uses a SONAR device that emits a sound wave traveling at 1500 m/s. If the
echo returns after 8 seconds, what is the distance to the seabed? Answer: 6000 m
(Distance = speed × time/2)
A sound wave has a wavelength of 1.7 m and a frequency of 200 Hz. Calculate its speed.
Answer: 340 m/s (Speed = wavelength × frequency)
A sound wave travels at 343 m/s and takes 0.5 seconds to reach a wall and return.
Calculate the distance to the wall. Answer: 85.75 m (Distance = speed × time/2)
A submarine sends a pulse that travels at 1500 m/s in water. If the echo returns in 10
seconds, calculate the depth of the ocean. Answer: 7500 m (Depth = speed × time/2)
Short Answer Type Questions
Recall:
Define an echo.
Answer: An echo is a reflected sound wave that is heard when sound bounces off a surface
and returns to the listener after a time interval.
Recall:
What is the minimum distance required for an echo to be heard clearly?
Answer: The minimum distance required for an echo to be heard clearly is 17 meters.
Understanding:
Explain why bats use echolocation.
Answer: Bats use echolocation to navigate and locate prey in the dark by emitting sound
waves and listening for echoes that bounce back from objects.
Application:
How does SONAR work?
Answer: SONAR (Sound Navigation and Ranging) works by emitting sound waves into the
water and measuring the time it takes for the echo to return after reflecting off an object,
determining the object’s distance.
Recall:
What is resonance?
Answer: Resonance is a phenomenon where an object vibrates at its natural frequency when
exposed to external vibrations of the same frequency, resulting in increased amplitude.
Understanding:
Differentiate between loudness and intensity of sound.
Answer: Loudness is a subjective measure of how strong or weak a sound seems to the
listener, while intensity is an objective measure of the sound’s power per unit area, expressed
in decibels (dB).
Application:
Why do doctors use ultrasound in medical imaging?
Answer: Doctors use ultrasound because it is a non-invasive technique that uses high-
frequency sound waves to create images of internal body structures, such as organs and
tissues.
Recall:
What is the unit used to measure the intensity of sound?
Answer: The intensity of sound is measured in decibels (dB).
Analysis:
Why is it difficult to hear an echo in a small room?
Answer: In a small room, the walls are too close, so the reflected sound returns too quickly
and overlaps with the original sound, making it difficult to distinguish an echo.
Recall:
Define frequency in the context of sound waves.
Answer: Frequency is the number of vibrations or cycles of a sound wave that occur in one
second, measured in hertz (Hz).
Understanding:
How does the pitch of sound relate to its frequency?
Answer: The pitch of a sound is directly proportional to its frequency; higher frequency results
in a higher pitch, while lower frequency results in a lower pitch.
Application:
Explain how dolphins use sound to navigate and find food.
Answer: Dolphins use echolocation, emitting sound waves and interpreting the returning
echoes to determine the location, size, and shape of objects underwater.
Recall:
What is natural vibration?
Answer: Natural vibration occurs when an object vibrates freely at its own natural frequency
without any continuous external force acting upon it.
Understanding:
What is the difference between forced vibrations and resonance?
Answer: Forced vibrations occur when an object is made to vibrate by an external force, while
resonance occurs when the frequency of the forced vibrations matches the object’s natural
frequency, amplifying the vibrations.
Application:
Why is resonance important in musical instruments?
Answer: Resonance enhances the sound produced by musical instruments by amplifying
vibrations, resulting in louder and more vibrant tones.
Recall:
What type of wave is a sound wave?
Answer: Sound waves are longitudinal waves, where the vibrations of the particles are parallel
to the direction of wave propagation.
Analysis:
Why does the loudness of sound decrease as the distance from the source increases?
Answer: The loudness decreases because sound energy spreads over a larger area as it
travels, reducing the intensity of sound that reaches the listener.
Recall:
What is the speed of sound in air at room temperature?
Answer: The speed of sound in air at room temperature (around 20°C) is approximately 340
m/s.
Understanding:
Explain why the speed of sound is faster in water than in air.
Answer: The speed of sound is faster in water because water molecules are closer together
than air molecules, allowing sound waves to travel more efficiently.
Application:
How can the principle of echoes be applied in measuring the depth of a lake?
Answer: By using SONAR, a sound pulse is sent from the surface to the lakebed, and the time
taken for the echo to return is measured. The depth is calculated using the speed of sound in
water.
Current Electricity
 Current Electricity
Current is the rate of flow of charge across a cross-section normal to the
direction of flow of current. Current I = Charge Q/Time T
It is a scalar quantity. Its SI unit is ampere (A), Current is one ampere if the
rate of flow of charge is one coulomb per second.

Potential Difference
Potential difference is the work done to move a unit positive charge between two
points in an electric field.
V = W/Q, Where V = Potential difference (in volts, V), W = Work done (in joules,
J), Q = Charge (in coulombs, C)
The SI unit of potential difference is the volt (V).It is a scalar quantity

Resistance and Charge

Charge : Charge is a fundamental
Resistance : It is the property of a material that
opposes the flow of electric current through it property of matter that causes it to
R=V/T Where: R = Resistance (ohms, Ω), V = experience a force when placed in an
Potential difference (volts, V), I = Current electric or magnetic field.
(amperes, A) The SI unit of charge is the
The SI unit of resistance is the ohm ( Ω) coulomb (C). Types of Charge:
Factors Affecting Resistance: Length of the Positive and Negative.
conductor.Cross-sectional area.Material of Formula: Q = I × t Q = I, Where: Q=
the conductor and Temperature. Charge (coulombs, C), I = Current
(amperes, A), t = Time (seconds,
Ohm’s Law s)

Ohm's Law states that the current (I) flowing through a conductor is directly
proportional to the potential difference (V) across its ends, provided the
temperature remains constant.
Formula: V = IR, Where: V= Potential difference (volts, V), I = Current (amperes,
A), R = Resistance (ohms, Ω)
The graph of V vs. I is a straight line, indicating the direct proportionality
between voltage and current.
 Current Electricity
graph of V vs I
The slope of the graph is the
reciprocal of the resistance of the
conductor Slope = ΔI/ΔV
=1/Resistance of the conductor
Conductance: It is defined as the
reciprocal of resistance.
Conductance = 1/Resistance

ohmic and non-ohmic resistors

Ohmic Resistors:Resistors that obey Ohm's Law, where the current is
directly proportional to the voltage at constant temperature.

Characteristics: Linear V-I Graph: Straight line.

Constant Resistance: Resistance remains the same regardless of
the applied voltage. Examples: Metals like copper, resistors used in
circuits.
Non-Ohmic Resistors: Resistors that do not obey Ohm's Law, where the
relationship between current and voltage is non-linear.

Characteristics : Non-Linear V-I Graph: Curved line.

Variable Resistance: Resistance changes with voltage or
current.Examples: Filament of a bulb, diodes, transistors.
 Current Electricity
Factors Affecting Resistance
Length of the Conductor: Resistance (R) is directly proportional to the length
(L) of the conductor. Longer wire = more resistance.

Cross-sectional Area: Resistance is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional

area (A). Thicker wire = less resistance.

Material of the Conductor: Different materials have different resistivities,

affecting resistance. Conductors like copper have low resistance, while
insulators have high resistance.

Temperature: For most conductors, resistance increases with temperature. For

some materials (like semiconductors), resistance decreases with an increase in
temperature.

Specific Resistance (Resistivity):

Resistivity (ρ) is the resistance offered by a material of unit length and unit
cross-sectional area. Formula: ρ = RA / l

Unit: Ohm meter (Ω⋅m). Resistivity is a material property and only depends on
the nature of the material, not its dimensions.

internal resistance:
Internal resistance refers to the resistance within a battery or cell, which
opposes the flow of current inside the power source.

Impact: Reduces the terminal voltage available to an external circuit, The total
potential difference V supplied by the cell is reduced by the internal resistance,
especially under heavy loads.

Formula: V = E −I R, Where: V = Terminal voltage, E = EMF of the cell, I =

Current, r = Internal resistance.
 Current Electricity
Superconductors
Superconductors are materials that exhibit zero resistance to the flow of electric current
when cooled below a certain temperature called the critical temperature.

Characteristics:
Zero Resistance: At very low temperatures, the resistance drops to zero, allowing
current to flow without any energy loss
Critical Temperature: The specific temperature below which a material becomes
superconducting. Different materials have different critical temperatures.
Perfect Diamagnetism: Superconductors expel magnetic fields from their interior
(Meissner effect).

Examples - Mercury, lead, and certain ceramics become superconductors at very low
temperatures.
Applications: Maglev trains Use superconducting magnets to levitate and propel
trains,MRI machines uses Superconducting magnets are used in medical imaging, Power
cables Superconductors can transmit electricity with no energy loss.

Electromotive Force
When no current is drawn from a cell, i.e. when Factors Affecting the EMF of a Cell
the cell is in open circuit, the potential The emf of a cell depends on o Material of
difference between the terminals of the cell is the electrodes o Electrolyte used in the cell
called its electromotive force (emf). The emf of It is independent of: Shape of electrodes
a cell is denoted by the symbol (epsilon). Its Distance between the electrodes, Amount of
electrolyte
unit is volt (V)

The emf of a cell is also defined as the energy

spent (or work done) per unit charge in taking a
positive charge around the complete circuit of
the cell.
Formula = E= W/Q ​Where: E = EMF (volts, V) W = Work done or energy supplied (joules, J), Q
= Charge (coulombs, C)
 Current Electricity
Resistors in Series

The current in series remains the same across all the resistors.
The resultant resistance of the circuit is given as Rs = R1 + R2 + R3
Here, Rs is the resultant resistance. The resultant resistance is greater than
all the resistances.

Resistors in Parallel

The potential difference in parallel remains the same across all the
resistors. The resultant resistance of the circuit is given as
1/Rp = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3. Here, Rp is the resultant resistance. The
resultant resistance is lesser than all the resistances.
Multiple Choice Questions
Recall:
What is the SI unit of electric current?
a) Volt (V)
b) Ohm (Ω)
c) Ampere (A)
d) Coulomb (C)
Answer: c) Ampere (A)
Understanding:
Which of the following is the correct unit for measuring potential difference?
a) Coulomb (C)
b) Watt (W)
c) Ohm (Ω)
d) Volt (V)
Answer: d) Volt (V)
Application:
If the resistance in a circuit is 5 Ω and the current flowing through it is 2 A, what is the
potential difference across the circuit?
a) 5 V
b) 10 V
c) 15 V
d) 20 V
Answer: b) 10 V
Recall:
What is the relationship between current (I), voltage (V), and resistance (R) as per Ohm’s
law?
a) I=V/R
b) V=IR
c) R=V/IR
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Analysis:
A graph of potential difference (V) versus current (I) for a metallic conductor at constant
temperature is:
a) Parabolic
b) A straight line passing through the origin
c) A horizontal line
d) A vertical line
Answer: b) A straight line passing through the origin
Recall and Application:
Which of the following components shows non-ohmic behavior?
a) A metallic conductor
b) A filament bulb
c) A resistor
d) A superconductor
Answer: b) A filament bulb
Understanding and Recall:
How does resistance vary with temperature in a metallic conductor?
a) Increases with temperature
b) Decreases with temperature
c) Remains constant
d) Depends on the length of the conductor
Answer: a) Increases with temperature
Application:
What is the equivalent resistance of two resistors, 4 Ω and 6 Ω, connected in series?
a) 10 Ω
b) 2.4 Ω
c) 24 Ω
d) 1.67 Ω
Answer: a) 10 Ω
Recall:
What is the SI unit of resistance?
a) Volt (V)
b) Ampere (A)
c) Ohm (Ω)
d) Coulomb (C)
Answer: c) Ohm (Ω)
Understanding:
How does resistance depend on the length (L) and area (A) of a conductor?
a) R∝LR
b) R∝1/LR
c) R∝AR
d) R∝1/LR
Answer: a) R∝LR
Recall:
What is the SI unit of resistivity?
a) Ohm-meter (Ω·m)
b) Ohm (Ω)
c) Coulomb (C)
d) Ampere-meter (A·m)
Answer: a) Ohm-meter (Ω·m)
Application:
Calculate the equivalent resistance when two resistors, 3 Ω and 6 Ω, are connected in parallel.
a) 2 Ω
b) 9 Ω
c) 1.8 Ω
d) 4.5 Ω
Answer: a) 2 Ω
Analysis:
If a conductor has a constant voltage applied but its resistance is doubled, what happens to the
current flowing through it?
a) The current doubles
b) The current remains the same
c) The current is halved
d) The current becomes zero
Answer: c) The current is halved
Recall and Application:
What is the total resistance of three resistors, 2 Ω, 4 Ω, and 6 Ω, connected in parallel?
a) 12 Ω
b) 1 Ω
c) 4 Ω
d) 0.55 Ω
Answer: b) 1 Ω
Understanding:
Which of the following factors does NOT affect the resistance of a conductor?
a) Length of the conductor
b) Cross-sectional area of the conductor
c) Material of the conductor
d) Speed of the electrons
Answer: d) Speed of the electrons
Recall:
What is meant by electromotive force (emf)?
a) The energy provided per unit charge by a cell or battery
b) The force that moves electrons in a conductor
c) The voltage drop across a resistor
d) The resistance of a conductor
Answer: a) The energy provided per unit charge by a cell or battery
Application:
If a battery has an emf of 12 V and internal resistance of 2 Ω, what is the terminal voltage when a
current of 1 A flows through it?
a) 10 V
b) 12 V
c) 14 V
d) 8 V
Answer: a) 10 V
Analysis:
How does adding resistors in series affect the overall resistance?
a) It decreases the overall resistance
b) It increases the overall resistance
c) It does not change the overall resistance
d) It makes the overall resistance zero
Answer: b) It increases the overall resistance
Recall:
What is a superconductor?
a) A conductor with infinite resistance
b) A conductor with zero resistance at very low temperatures
c) A material that does not conduct electricity
d) A resistor that behaves according to Ohm's law
Answer: b) A conductor with zero resistance at very low temperatures
Understanding:
In a circuit, if three identical resistors are connected in parallel and each has a resistance of 6 Ω,
what is the equivalent resistance?
a) 18 Ω
b) 2 Ω
c) 3 Ω
d) 4 Ω
Answer: b) 2 Ω
Numericals
A circuit has a resistance of 10 Ω, and a current of 3 A flows through it. Calculate
the potential difference across the circuit. Answer: 30 V (V = IR = 3 A × 10 Ω)
Calculate the equivalent resistance when two resistors, 4 Ω and 6 Ω, are
connected in series. Answer: 10 Ω (R_eq = R1 + R2 = 4 Ω + 6 Ω)
If a current of 5 A flows through a resistor of 8 Ω, what is the voltage across the
resistor?Answer: 40 V (V = IR = 5 A × 8 Ω)
Find the equivalent resistance when two resistors, 3 Ω and 6 Ω, are connected in
parallel. Answer: 2 Ω (1/R_eq = 1/3 + 1/6, R_eq = 2 Ω)
A battery has an emf of 9 V and internal resistance of 1 Ω. If the current flowing is
2 A, find the terminal voltage. Answer: 7 V (V_terminal = emf - Ir = 9 V - 2 A × 1
Ω)
A conductor has a resistivity of 1.6×10^-8 Ω·m, a length of 2 m, and a cross-
sectional area of 1×10^-6 m². Calculate its resistance. Answer: 0.032 Ω (R = ρL/A
= 1.6×10−81.6 \times 10^{-8}1.6×10−8 Ω·m × 2 m / 1×10^-6
Three resistors of 5 Ω, 10 Ω, and 20 Ω are connected in series. Calculate the total
resistance. Answer: 35 Ω (R_eq = 5 Ω + 10 Ω + 20 Ω)
An electric circuit has a voltage of 12 V and a resistance of 4 Ω. Calculate the
current flowing through the circuit. Answer: 3 A (I = V/R = 12 V / 4 Ω)
If the equivalent resistance of two resistors connected in parallel is 2.4 Ω, and
one of the resistors is 6 Ω, find the value of the other resistor. Answer: 4 Ω
(1/R_eq = 1/R1 + 1/R2; 1/2.4 = 1/6 + 1/R2; solve for R2)
Calculate the power dissipated in a resistor of 5 Ω when a current of 2 A flows
through it. Answer: 20 W (P = I²R = (2 A)² × 5 Ω)

Short Answer Type Questions

Recall:
What is Ohm’s Law?
Answer: Ohm's Law states that the current (I) passing through a conductor is directly proportional to
the potential difference (V) across it, provided the temperature remains constant. It is expressed as
V=IRV = IRV=IR.
Understanding:
What happens to the current in a circuit if the resistance is doubled while the voltage remains
constant?
Answer: The current is halved because I=V/RI = V/RI=V/R. If RRR is doubled, III is reduced to half.
Application:
A resistor of 10 Ω is connected to a 5 V battery. What is the current flowing through the resistor?
Answer: 0.5 A (I = V/R = 5 V / 10 Ω).
Recall:
Define the term “resistivity.”
Answer: Resistivity is the resistance offered by a material of unit length and unit cross-sectional area.
It depends on the material and is expressed in ohm-meters (Ω·m).
Understanding:
How does the resistance of a conductor change with its length and cross-sectional area?
Answer: The resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its length (L) and inversely
proportional to its cross-sectional area (A), expressed as R∝L/A
Application:
Two resistors of 6 Ω and 12 Ω are connected in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance?
Answer: 4 Ω (1/R_eq = 1/6 + 1/12, R_eq = 4 Ω).
Recall:
What is the SI unit of electric current?
Answer: The SI unit of electric current is the ampere (A).
Understanding:
Why does the resistance of a metallic conductor increase with temperature?
Answer: As the temperature of a metallic conductor increases, the atoms vibrate more vigorously,
obstructing the flow of electrons and increasing resistance.
Application:
A battery has an emf of 12 V and an internal resistance of 1 Ω. If the circuit draws a current of 2 A,
what is the terminal voltage of the battery?
Answer: 10 V (V_terminal = emf - Ir = 12 V - 2 A × 1 Ω).
Recall:
What is the formula for calculating power in terms of current and resistance?
Answer: Power (P) is given by P=I2RP = I^2RP=I2R, where I is the current and R is the resistance.
Understanding:
How does the total resistance change when resistors are connected in series?
Answer: When resistors are connected in series, the total resistance increases and is the sum of the
individual resistances
Application:
What is the total resistance of three resistors, each of 4 Ω, connected in series?
Answer: 12 Ω (R_eq = 4 Ω + 4 Ω + 4 Ω).
Recall:
What is meant by electromotive force (emf)?
Answer: Electromotive force (emf) is the total energy supplied by a battery per unit charge. It is the
maximum potential difference between the terminals of the battery when no current flows.
Understanding:
Why does a filament bulb not follow Ohm’s law?
Answer: A filament bulb is a non-ohmic conductor because its resistance increases as the
temperature of the filament rises, causing the current to change non-linearly with voltage.
Application:
Calculate the power dissipated in a resistor of 8 Ω when a current of 2 A flows through it.
Answer: 32 W (P = I²R = (2 A)² × 8 Ω).
Recall:
What is the unit of resistivity?
Answer: The unit of resistivity is ohm-meter (Ω·m).
Analysis:
How does adding more resistors in parallel affect the overall resistance of a circuit?
Answer: Adding more resistors in parallel decreases the overall resistance because the total
resistance is the reciprocal of the sum of reciprocals of the individual resistances.
Recall:
What is the potential difference if a charge of 5 C flows through a circuit and the energy supplied is
20 J?
Answer: 4 V (V = W/Q = 20 J / 5 C).
Understanding:
Explain how the slope of a V-I graph represents resistance.
Answer: The slope of a V-I graph (voltage on the y-axis and current on the x-axis) represents
resistance because R=V/IR = V/IR=V/I. A straight line passing through the origin indicates constant
resistance.
Electrical Power
 Electrical Power
Electrical energy is the energy derived from electric potential
energy or kinetic energy of charged particles in an electric field.
The SI unit of electrical energy is the joule (J), but it is commonly
measured in kilowatt-hours (kWh) in practical applications.

Examples of Electrical Energy Applications:

Heater:
Function: Converts electrical energy into thermal energy
(heat).
Examples: Electric kettles, room heaters, and electric stoves.
Principle: Uses the Joule heating effect where current passing
through a resistor generates heat.
Motor:
Function: Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
Examples: Electric fans, washing machines, and electric
vehicles.
Principle: Operates on the interaction between magnetic
fields and electric current, resulting in motion.
Lamp:
Function: Converts electrical energy into light energy.
Examples: Incandescent bulbs, LED lights, and fluorescent tubes.
Principle: Different types of lamps use various mechanisms (e.g.,
thermal radiation in incandescent bulbs, electron excitation in LEDs) to
produce light.

Loudspeaker:
Function: Converts electrical energy into sound energy.
Examples: Speakers used in radios, televisions, and public
address systems.
Principle: Utilizes the magnetic field interaction with the
electric current to create vibrations that produce sound
waves
 Electrical Power
Electrical Power
Power is the rate of doing work, i.e. it is the work done (or energy
consumed) in 1 s. In an electrical circuit, we define power as the
rate at which electrical energy is supplied by the source.

Measurement of Electrical Energy

One joule of work is done when one coulomb of electric charge flows from higher potential to
lower potential through a potential difference of one volt.
when Q coulomb of electric charge flows through a potential difference of V volt, the work done
W is given by W= QV
But we know that Q = It. Thus, we have W=VIt joule.
This work W measures the electrical energy supplied by the external source in providing I ampere
current for t seconds in the conductor under a potential difference of V volt.
Electrical Power
In an electrical circuit, we define power as the rate
expressions for electrical energy at which electrical energy is supplied by the
by using Ohm's law source.
W = VIt = I^2 Rt, W = (V/R)^2, RT = V^2t/R Power = energy supplied /time = w/t,
The SI unit of electrical energy is joule Power = Vlt/t = VI
(J). Power = V^2/R or (IR)^2/R = I^2R

S.I Unit = The SI unit of power is watt (W) or J s−1 .

One watt is the power consumed when a current of 1 ampere flows through a circuit with a
potential difference of 1 volt.
1 kilowatt (1 kW) = 1000 W
1 megawatt (1 MW) = 10^6 W
1 horsepower (1 hp) = 746 W
Commercial Unit of Energy : , the unit used for energy is watt hour and its bigger form is kilowatt
hour.
One watt hour is the electrical energy consumed when an appliance of one watt power is used
for one hour.
One kilowatt hour is the energy consumed by an electrical appliance of power 1 kW when it is
used for one hour. It is termed unit.
1 kWh = 3.6 * 10^6 J
The electricity bill which one pays is the bill for consuming energy which is needed to keep the
electrons flowing in the circuit.
 Electrical Power
Power Rating of electrical Appliances
An electrical appliance such as an electric bulb, geyser or heater is rated
with power and voltage. The following two quantities can be calculated from
this rating:
i. Resistance of filament of the bulb when it is glowing
ii. Safe limit of current which can flow through the bulb while in use
Resistance of the filament of the bulb as R = V^2/P = (Voltage rating on
appliance)^2/Power rating on the appliance.
safe limit of the current through the filament of the bulb is = I = P/V =
Power rating on appliance/Voltage rating on the appliance

Household Consumption of Electrical Energy

Electrical energy consumption in households is measured in kilowatt-hours (kWh).
1 kWh is equivalent to using 1 kilowatt (1000 watts) of power for 1 hour.
Formula : Energy (kWh)=Power (kW) × Time (hours) or Voltage in volt × Current in ampere ×
time in hours/1000
The cost of electricity will then be the product of energy consumed in kWh with the rate per
kWh.
An electric meter is commonly used to
measure the Household Consumption of
Electrical Energy

Calculation of Total Energy Consumed by Electrical

Appliances
Formula : Total Energy (kWh)=(Power (kW)×Time (hours) => W=Pt
The total energy consumed by electrical appliances is the amount of electrical energy used by
devices over a period of time.
Multiple Choice Questions
Recall:
What is the SI unit of electrical energy?
a) Watt (W)
b) Volt (V)
c) Joule (J)
d) Kilowatt-hour (kWh)
Answer: c) Joule (J)
Understanding:
How is electrical power defined?
a) The rate at which electrical energy is consumed or produced
b) The amount of charge flowing per second
c) The product of resistance and voltage
d) The total energy consumed in an hour
Answer: a) The rate at which electrical energy is consumed or produced
Application:
A heater uses 2000 W of power and operates for 3 hours. Calculate the total energy
consumed in kilowatt-hours (kWh).
a) 2 kWh
b) 4 kWh
c) 6 kWh
d) 8 kWh
Answer: c) 6 kWh (Energy = Power × Time = 2000 W × 3 hours = 6000 Wh = 6 kWh)
Recall:
Which of the following equations correctly expresses electrical power?
a) P = VI
b) P = V/R
c) P = I/R
d) P = VR
Answer: a) P = VI
Analysis:
If the current through a resistor is doubled, what happens to the power dissipated in it?
a) It remains the same
b) It doubles
c) It triples
d) It quadruples
Answer: d) It quadruples (P = I²R)
Recall and Application:
An electric bulb is rated 60 W. If it operates for 5 hours, how much energy does it consume
in kWh?
a) 0.1 kWh
b) 0.3 kWh
c) 0.5 kWh
d) 1.0 kWh
Answer: b) 0.3 kWh (Energy = Power × Time = 60 W × 5 hours = 300 Wh = 0.3 kWh)
Application:
A lamp operates at 220 V and draws a current of 0.5 A. What is the power of the
lamp?
a) 110 W
b) 55 W
c) 220 W
d) 440 W
Answer: a) 110 W (P = VI = 220 V × 0.5 A)
Recall:
What is the formula for electrical energy in terms of voltage (V), current (I), and time
(t)?
a) W = V²/R
b) W = VIt
c) W = I²Rt
d) W = IRt
Answer: b) W = VIt
Understanding:
Which of the following statements is true about the power rating of an appliance?
a) It indicates the energy consumed per minute
b) It represents the maximum power the appliance can use when operating
c) It is the voltage the appliance operates on
d) It shows the efficiency of the appliance
Answer: b) It represents the maximum power the appliance can use when operating
Recall:
What is the power dissipated in a resistor if the voltage across it is 12 V and the
current is 2 A?
a) 24 W
b) 12 W
c) 48 W
d) 6 W
Answer: a) 24 W (P = VI = 12 V × 2 A)
Application:
An electric motor consumes 3 kWh of energy in 2 hours. What is its power rating?
a) 1.5 kW
b) 3 kW
c) 6 kW
d) 9 kW
Answer: b) 3 kW (Power = Energy/Time = 3 kWh / 2 hours)
Analysis:
A resistor has a resistance of 4 Ω and carries a current of 3 A. What is the power
dissipated in the resistor?
a) 12 W
b) 24 W
c) 36 W
d) 48 W
Answer: c) 36 W (P = I²R = (3 A)² × 4 Ω)
Recall and Application:
A refrigerator uses 800 W of power and runs for 10 hours daily. Calculate the energy
consumed in a day in kWh.
a) 8 kWh
b) 6 kWh
c) 4 kWh
d) 2 kWh
Answer: a) 8 kWh (Energy = Power × Time = 800 W × 10 hours = 8000 Wh = 8 kWh)
Understanding:
How is the efficiency of an electrical device calculated?
a) Output energy / Input energy
b) Input power / Output power
c) Input energy / Output energy
d) Output power / Input energy
Answer: a) Output energy / Input energy
Recall:
What is the power consumed by an appliance if it draws 4 A of current at a voltage of
110 V?
a) 220 W
b) 440 W
c) 330 W
d) 550 W
Answer: b) 440 W (P = VI = 110 V × 4 A)
Application:
If a device is rated at 1500 W, how much current does it draw when connected to a
250 V source?
a) 3 A
b) 6 A
c) 5 A
d) 4 A
Answer: d) 6 A (I = P/V = 1500 W / 250 V)
Analysis:
How much energy is consumed by a 100 W bulb that operates for 12 hours?
a) 1.2 kWh
b) 0.5 kWh
c) 0.2 kWh
d) 1.5 kWh
Answer: d) 1.2 kWh (Energy = Power × Time = 100 W × 12 hours = 1200 Wh = 1.2 kWh)
Recall:
What is the formula for power in terms of resistance (R) and current (I)?
a) P = IR
b) P = I²R
c) P = V/R
d) P = I²/V
Answer: b) P = I²R
Understanding:
A toaster is rated at 1000 W and is used for 15 minutes. How much energy does it
consume in kWh?
a) 0.25 kWh
b) 0.5 kWh
c) 0.125 kWh
d) 0.75 kWh
Answer: c) 0.125 kWh (Energy = Power × Time = 1000 W × 0.25 hours = 0.25 kWh)

Numericals
A heater has a power rating of 1500 W and is used for 3 hours. Calculate
the total energy consumed in kilowatt-hours (kWh). Answer: 4.5 kWh
(Energy = Power × Time = 1500 W × 3 hours = 4500 Wh = 4.5 kWh)
An electric bulb operates at 240 V and draws a current of 0.5 A. What is
the power of the bulb? Answer: 120 W (P = VI = 240 V × 0.5 A)
A motor uses 5 kW of power and runs for 2.5 hours. Calculate the energy
consumed in kilowatt-hours. Answer: 12.5 kWh (Energy = Power × Time
= 5 kW × 2.5 hours)
If an appliance is rated at 200 W and is used for 10 hours, how much
energy does it consume in kilowatt-hours? Answer: 2 kWh (Energy =
Power × Time = 200 W × 10 hours = 2000 Wh = 2 kWh)
A refrigerator with a power rating of 800 W runs for 12 hours a day.
Calculate the energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per day. Answer:
9.6 kWh (Energy = Power × Time = 800 W × 12 hours = 9600 Wh = 9.6
kWh)
A fan draws a current of 2 A at a voltage of 220 V. Calculate the power
consumed by the fan. Answer: 440 W (P = VI = 220 V × 2 A)
An electric iron is rated at 1200 W. How much current does it draw when
connected to a 240 V source? Answer: 5 A (I = P/V = 1200 W / 240 V)
A washing machine uses 1500 W of power. If it runs for 2 hours, calculate
the total energy consumed in kilowatt-hours. Answer: 3 kWh (Energy =
Power × Time = 1500 W × 2 hours = 3000 Wh = 3 kWh)
A 60 W light bulb is used for 8 hours. Calculate the total energy
consumed in joules. Answer: 1,728,000 J (Energy = Power × Time = 60
W × 8 hours = 480 Wh = 480 × 3600 J = 1,728,000 J)
An electric kettle has a power rating of 2 kW and is used for 30 minutes.
Calculate the total energy consumed in kilowatt-hours. Answer: 1 kWh
(Energy = Power × Time = 2 kW × 0.5 hours = 1 kWh)
Short Answer Type Questions
Recall:
What is the SI unit of electrical power?
Answer: The SI unit of electrical power is the watt (W).
Understanding:
Explain how electrical power is calculated in terms of voltage (V) and current (I).
Answer: Electrical power is calculated using the formula P=VIP = VIP=VI, where VVV is the
voltage and III is the current.
Application:
An electric iron operates at 220 V and draws a current of 4 A. What is the power rating of the
iron?
Answer: 880 W (P = VI = 220 V × 4 A).
Recall:
What is the commercial unit of electrical energy used for billing purposes?
Answer: The commercial unit of electrical energy is the kilowatt-hour (kWh).
Understanding:
How is electrical energy related to power and time?
Answer: Electrical energy (W) is the product of power (P) and time (t), expressed as W=PtW =
PtW=Pt.
Application:
A 100 W bulb is used for 5 hours. Calculate the total energy consumed in kilowatt-hours.
Answer: 0.5 kWh (Energy = Power × Time = 100 W × 5 hours = 500 Wh = 0.5 kWh).
Recall:
Define 1 kilowatt-hour.
Answer: 1 kilowatt-hour (kWh) is the amount of energy consumed when a device with a power
rating of 1 kW operates for 1 hour.
Understanding:
Why does a higher wattage appliance consume more energy than a lower wattage
appliance when used for the same time?
Answer: A higher wattage appliance uses more power, meaning it consumes energy at a
faster rate compared to a lower wattage appliance, resulting in greater total energy
consumption.
Application:
Calculate the energy consumed in joules by a 60 W appliance used for 2 hours.
Answer: 432,000 J (Energy = Power × Time = 60 W × 2 hours = 120 Wh = 120 × 3600 J).
Recall:
What is the formula for electrical energy in terms of charge (Q) and voltage (V)?
Answer: W=QV where W is the electrical energy, Q is the charge in coulombs, and V is the
voltage.
Understanding:
Explain the difference between kilowatt and kilowatt-hour.
Answer: A kilowatt (kW) is a unit of power, representing the rate at which energy is consumed
or generated, while a kilowatt-hour (kWh) is a unit of energy, representing the amount of
energy used when 1 kW of power is consumed for 1 hour.
Application:
A refrigerator with a power rating of 300 W runs for 8 hours. Calculate the energy consumed
in kilowatt-hours.
Answer: 2.4 kWh (Energy = Power × Time = 300 W × 8 hours = 2400 Wh = 2.4 kWh).
Recall:
What is the power dissipated in a resistor when the current is 5 A and the
resistance is 8 Ω?
Answer: 200 W (P = I²R = (5 A)² × 8 Ω).
Understanding:
Why is it important to know the power rating of an electrical appliance?
Answer: The power rating indicates the maximum amount of power the
appliance uses, helping determine its energy consumption and cost of
operation.
Application:
If a 2 kW heater runs for 3 hours, calculate the energy consumed in kilowatt-
hours.
Answer: 6 kWh (Energy = Power × Time = 2 kW × 3 hours).
Recall:
What is the formula for power in terms of resistance (R) and voltage (V)?
Answer: P=V2/RP = V^2/RP=V2/R.
Analysis:
If two bulbs, one rated 60 W and the other 100 W, are used for the same
duration, which will consume more energy?
Answer: The 100 W bulb will consume more energy as it uses more power per
unit of time.
Recall:
A device has a power rating of 1500 W. How much energy does it consume in 1
hour?
Answer: 1.5 kWh (Energy = Power × Time = 1500 W × 1 hour).
Understanding:
Why is electrical energy measured in kilowatt-hours instead of joules in
household billing?
Answer: Kilowatt-hours are a larger and more practical unit for measuring the
large amounts of energy typically used in households, making it easier for
consumers to understand and manage their consumption.
Application:
An electric fan uses 200 W of power. If it operates for 12 hours, how much
energy is consumed in kilowatt-hours?
Answer: 2.4 kWh (Energy = Power × Time = 200 W × 12 hours = 2400 Wh = 2.4
kWh).
Household Circuits
 Household Circuits
The Ring System of House wiring
The ring system of electric wiring is shown in
the figure
This system has a ring circuit. The wires
starting from the main fuse box run
around all the main rooms of the house
and then come back to the fuse box
again forming a ring.
One terminal of the appliance is
connected to the live wire through a
separate fuse and a separate switch and the other terminal to the neutral wire. The earth
terminal or metal covering of the appliance is connected to the earth wire.
Advantages
Efficient use of wire: Requires less cable compared to radial circuits.
Equal distribution of load: Electrical load is evenly distributed across the entire circuit.
Higher power capacity: Can handle more appliances since current flows in both directions.
Fault tolerance: If one part of the loop is damaged, current can still flow through the other
path.
Power Distribution
Main Circuit: Three wires:
Live (Phase) wire: Carries current from the power source to the appliances.
Neutral wire: Returns current to the source, completing the circuit.
Earth (Ground) wire: Provides safety by diverting excess current to the ground.

Fuse
A fuse is a safety device used in electrical circuits
to protect appliances from damage due to
overcurrent or short circuits.
Made of a thin wire of low melting point,
typically of materials like tin or lead alloy.
When excessive current flows through the circuit,
the fuse wire heats up, melts, and breaks the
circuit, preventing further damage.
Fuses are rated in amps (A), indicating the
maximum current they can safely carry.
 Household Circuits
MCB: Miniature circuit breakers (MCBs) are
Reason for Connecting the Fuse in the Live Wire used for each individual circuit these days.
The fuse is always connected in the live wire
They switch off the circuit in very short
of the circuit. Due to voltage fluctuation (or time duration (25 ms).
short circuiting), the fuse F blows off, the
circuit becomes incomplete and no current After repairing the fault in the circuit, the
flows in the appliance. MCB is again switched on. Thus, the use of
Current rating of fuse = Total power of MCB is better than a fuse because it avoids
appliances in circuit/ Voltage of the supply the inconvenience of connecting a new fuse
wire and it is much safer due to its quick
response.
Two way Switch : A two-way switch is a type of electrical switch that allows
control of a single light or appliance from two different locations. Commonly used
in staircases, hallways, or rooms with multiple entrances to control the lighting.
Staircase Wiring
Staircase wiring is a system where a light can be controlled from two different switches located
at the top and bottom of a staircase.
Components: Two two-way switches, One light or appliance.
Working: Flipping either switch can turn the light on or off, providing convenient control
from both ends of the staircase.
Application: Commonly used in staircases, corridors, or hallways.
Advantage: Ensures safety and convenience when moving between floors.

Need for Earthing

Safety: Protects individuals from electric
shocks by providing a safe pathway for fault
currents to the ground.
Equipment Protection: Prevents damage to
electrical appliances by diverting excessive
current caused by faults or surges.
Fire Prevention: Reduces the risk of fire
hazards due to short circuits or faults in the
electrical system.
 Household Circuits
Three-Pin Plug
Three pin Plug : It is a fixture provided with three
metallic (usually brass) pins in an ebonite case. In
a three pin plug, the top pin is for earthing, the pin
on the left is for live and the pin on the right is for
neutral. In good quality plugs, these are marked as
E, L and N, respectively.
The earth pin is thicker and longer than the other
two. The earth pin is made long so that the earth
connection is made first. The earth pin is thicker so
that even by mistake it cannot be inserted into the
hole for the live or neutral connection of the socket.
Socket
A socket is a fixture in an electric circuit in which
the plug is inserted. The socket has three holes
whose inner walls are made of hollow metallic tubes
usually of brass, forming the terminals at their
back, which are connected to the live, neutral and
earth wires of the line.
Safety Precautions
Two major dangers while using electricity are (i) a fire and (ii) an electric shock. A fire is
caused by over-heating of line wires (or cable) for various reasons such as break of
insulation or short circuiting. To avoid it, one must use wires (or cables) of current-
carrying capacity higher than the total current which can flow through the circuit when
using all the appliances at the same time

An electric shock may be caused either due to poor insulation of wires or when the electric
appliances are touched with wet hands. To avoid it, the insulation of wires must be of
good quality and it should be checked from time to time,an electrical appliance such as a
switch, plug, socket or electric wire should never be operated (or touched) with wet hands,
and they should always be kept in a dry condition.
 Household Circuits
Color Coding of Wires
Color coding helps in identifying the function of each wire in an electrical circuit,
ensuring safe and correct connections.
Live Wire:
Color: Red or Brown
Function: Carries current from the power source to the appliance.

Neutral Wire:
Color: Black or Blue
Function: Returns current to the power source, completing the circuit.

Earth Wire:
Color: Green or Green/Yellow striped
Function: Provides a safe path for fault current to the ground, protecting
against electric shocks.
Multiple Choice Questions
Recall:
What is the purpose of the live wire in a domestic circuit?
a) To provide a return path for current
b) To supply current to the appliance
c) To act as a safety wire
d) To connect to the earth
Answer: b) To supply current to the appliance
Understanding:
Why is the earth wire important in electrical appliances?
a) It supplies voltage to the appliance
b) It acts as a neutral wire
c) It provides a path for leakage current to the ground, preventing electric shock
d) It improves the efficiency of the appliance
Answer: c) It provides a path for leakage current to the ground, preventing electric shock
Application:
Which color is typically used for the live wire in house wiring?
a) Blue
b) Brown
c) Green/yellow
d) Black
Answer: b) Brown
Recall:
What is the function of a fuse in an electrical circuit?
a) To increase the voltage
b) To prevent overloading by breaking the circuit when the current exceeds a safe level
c) To provide a continuous flow of current
d) To supply power to the earth wire
Answer: b) To prevent overloading by breaking the circuit when the current exceeds a safe
level
Analysis:
In a three-pin plug, which terminal is connected to the longest pin?
a) Live terminal
b) Neutral terminal
c) Earth terminal
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Earth terminal
Recall and Application:
Which wire is connected to the right terminal in a standard 3-pin plug?
a) Neutral
b) Live
c) Earth
d) Both live and neutral
Answer: b) Live
Understanding and Recall:
Why is it necessary to use a fuse in the live wire and not in the neutral wire?
a) The fuse only operates when placed in the neutral wire
b) The live wire carries the current to the appliance, so cutting it off ensures the
appliance is safe
c) The neutral wire has no current flow
d) It is cheaper to place the fuse in the live wire
Answer: b) The live wire carries the current to the appliance, so cutting it off ensures
the appliance is safe
Application:
What is the advantage of using an MCB (Miniature Circuit Breaker) over a traditional
fuse?
a) MCBs are reusable and can be reset after tripping
b) MCBs are cheaper
c) MCBs allow more current to flow
d) MCBs are connected only to the neutral wire
Answer: a) MCBs are reusable and can be reset after tripping
Recall:
Which color is typically used for the neutral wire in house wiring?
a) Brown
b) Blue
c) Green/yellow
d) Red
Answer: b) Blue
Understanding:
Why is earthing required in household electrical appliances with metallic bodies?
a) To reduce the power consumption
b) To create a magnetic field
c) To prevent electric shock by diverting leakage current to the ground
d) To increase the appliance’s lifespan
Answer: c) To prevent electric shock by diverting leakage current to the ground
Recall:
What is the role of the neutral wire in an electrical circuit?
a) It supplies current to the appliance
b) It acts as a return path for the current
c) It serves as a safety wire
d) It regulates voltage
Answer: b) It acts as a return path for the current
Application:
Which type of wiring system is commonly used for staircase lighting?
a) Parallel wiring
b) Two-way switch wiring
c) Ring system
d) Series wiring
Answer: b) Two-way switch wiring
Analysis:
If a fuse blows frequently, what might be the problem?
a) The appliance is not connected properly
b) There is an overload or short circuit in the circuit
c) The fuse has a high resistance
d) The neutral wire is not connected
Answer: b) There is an overload or short circuit in the circuit
Recall and Application:
In a household circuit, what happens if the earth wire is not connected properly?
a) The appliance will work normally
b) The appliance will not work at all
c) The appliance will pose a risk of electric shock
d) The fuse will not work
Answer: c) The appliance will pose a risk of electric shock
Understanding:
What is the purpose of a three-pin plug over a two-pin plug?
a) To reduce the power consumption
b) To provide an additional path for current flow
c) To ensure earthing for safety
d) To supply higher voltage
Answer: c) To ensure earthing for safety
Recall:
In a three-core cable, what is the conventional color for the earth wire?
a) Brown
b) Blue
c) Green/yellow
d) Red
Answer: c) Green/yellow
Application:
Why is it recommended to switch off the main power before replacing a fuse or MCB?
a) To save electricity
b) To prevent electric shock
c) To ensure the fuse fits properly
d) To check the circuit for continuity
Answer: b) To prevent electric shock
Analysis:
What is the main disadvantage of using an improperly rated fuse in a circuit?
a) The fuse might not blow during an overload, causing a fire hazard
b) The circuit will consume more electricity
c) The fuse will blow even during normal operation
d) The appliance will not work
Answer: a) The fuse might not blow during an overload, causing a fire hazard
Short Answer Type Questions
Recall:
What is the purpose of the live wire in a household circuit?
Answer: The live wire carries the current from the power source to the appliance.
Recall:
Why is the neutral wire used in house wiring?
Answer: The neutral wire provides a return path for the current back to the power
source.
Understanding:
Explain the role of the earth wire in a three-pin plug.
Answer: The earth wire provides a safe path for any leakage current, preventing
electric shock by directing it to the ground.
Application:
In a three-pin plug, which terminal is connected to the longest pin?
Answer: The earth terminal is connected to the longest pin.
Recall:
What is the function of a fuse in an electrical circuit?
Answer: A fuse protects the circuit from overloading by breaking the circuit when the
current exceeds a safe level.
Understanding:
Why is it important to use the correct fuse rating in a circuit?
Answer: Using the correct fuse rating ensures that the fuse will blow when the current
exceeds safe levels, preventing damage to appliances and reducing the risk of fire.
Application:
If a fuse keeps blowing in a circuit, what could be the potential problem?
Answer: The circuit may be overloaded, or there could be a short circuit causing
excessive current flow.
Recall:
What is the color code for the live wire in standard house wiring?
Answer: The live wire is typically brown.
Recall:
What is the standard color for the neutral wire in house wiring?
Answer: The neutral wire is typically blue.
Understanding:
Why is earthing important for electrical appliances with metallic bodies?
Answer: Earthing ensures that any leakage current is directed to the ground, reducing
the risk of electric shock.
Application:
Explain why an MCB (Miniature Circuit Breaker) is preferred over a traditional fuse.
Answer: An MCB is preferred because it can be reset and reused after tripping, unlike a
traditional fuse which needs to be replaced once it blows.
Recall:
What is the conventional color for the earth wire in a three-core cable?
Answer: The earth wire is usually green/yellow.
Understanding:
Why should the main power switch be turned off before replacing a fuse or
MCB?
Answer: Turning off the main power switch prevents electric shock and ensures
safety while working on the circuit.
Application:
Describe the purpose of the ring system in house wiring.
Answer: The ring system allows multiple sockets to be connected, distributing
the load evenly and reducing the risk of overloading.
Recall:
What is the standard position of the live terminal in a three-pin plug?
Answer: The live terminal is positioned on the right side when looking at the plug
from the front.
Understanding:
Explain the function of a two-way switch in staircase lighting.
Answer: A two-way switch allows control of the same light from two different
locations, such as at the top and bottom of a staircase.
Recall:
What safety precaution is associated with handling electrical appliances with
wet hands?
Answer: Handling electrical appliances with wet hands increases the risk of
electric shock, so it should be avoided.
Application:
What would happen if the earth wire is disconnected from an appliance with a
metal body?
Answer: If the earth wire is disconnected, any leakage current would not have a
safe path to the ground, increasing the risk of electric shock.
Analysis:
Why is the live wire connected to the fuse and not the neutral wire?
Answer: The live wire carries current to the appliance, so placing the fuse in the
live wire ensures that the circuit is broken and the appliance is disconnected
from the power supply during overload.
Recall:
In a three-pin plug, why is the earth pin longer than the live and neutral pins?
Answer: The earth pin is longer to ensure that the appliance is earthed before
the live and neutral connections are made, providing additional safety.
Electromagnetism
 Electromagnetism
Oersted’s Experiment on the Magnetic Effect of
Electric Current

The experiment suggests that a

current-carrying wire produces a
magnetic field around it. This is
called the magnetic effect of electric
current.
 Electromagnetism
Magnetic Field and Field Lines due to a Current in a Straight
Conductor
The magnetic field lines form concentric circles around
the wire with their plane perpendicular to the straight wire
and with their centres lying on the wire.
When the direction of current in the wire is reversed, it is
seen that the pattern of iron filings does not change, but
the direction of deflection of the compass needle gets
reversed.
On increasing the current in the wire, the magnetic field
lines become denser and the iron filings get arranged in
circles up to a larger distance from the wire, showing that
the magnetic field strength has increased, and so, it is
effective up to a larger distance.

Right hand thumb rule

The direction of magnetic field is given by the right-hand
thumb rule, Imagine that you are holding a current-
carrying straight conductor in your right hand such that
the thumb points towards the direction of current. Then,
your fingers will encircle the conductor in the direction of
the field lines of the magnetic field.
 Electromagnetism
Magnetic Field due to Current in a Loop
When a current is passed through the coil by closing the key and the cardboard is gently
tapped, the iron filings get arranged in a definite pattern representing the magnetic field lines
due to the current carrying loop
The direction of the magnetic field at a point is in the direction in which the north pole of the
compass needle rests at that point.
From the pattern of magnetic field lines, it is observed that
i. Near wire at P and Q, the magnetic field lines are nearly circular.
ii. Within the space enclosed by the wire, the magnetic field lines are in the same direction.
iii. Near the centre of the loop, the magnetic field lines are nearly parallel and the magnetic
field is assumed to be nearly uniform in a small space near the centre.
iv. At the centre, the magnetic field lines are along the axis of the loop and normal to the
plane of the loop.
v. The magnetic field lines become denser if a. The strength of the current in the loop is
increased. b. The number of turns in the loop is increased.
One face of the loop acts as a north
pole because the magnetic field lines
emanate from it, and the other face of
the loop acts as a south pole because
the magnetic field lines enter at it.
The polarity at the faces of a loop
depends on the direction of current in
the loop. On reversing the direction of
current in the loop, the polarity at the
faces of the loop gets reversed.

Clock Rule
When the current at the face of the loop is
anticlockwise, it behaves as the north pole,
whereas when the current at the face of the
loop is clockwise, it behaves as the south
pole.
 Electromagnetism
Electromagnets
An electromagnet is a temporary strong magnet made of a piece of soft iron
when current flows in the coil wound around it. It is an artificial magnet.

Types of electromagnets
I-shaped electromagnet (or bar magnet) : An I-shaped
electromagnet is constructed by winding a thin
insulated copper wire in the form of a solenoid around
a straight soft iron bar. The ends of the wire are
connected to a battery through an ammeter, rheostat
and key.
When current is passed through the winding of a
solenoid by closing the key, one end of the bar
becomes the South Pole (S) because the current at U-shaped (or horseshoe) electromagnet : a
this face is clockwise, while the other end at thin insulated copper wire is spirally wound
which the current is anticlockwise becomes the on the arms of a U-shaped soft iron core,
North Pole (N). such that the winding on the two arms as
seen from the ends is in the opposite sense
When current is passed through the
winding by closing the key, one end of
the arm becomes the South Pole (S) as
the current at this face is clockwise, and
the other end of the arm becomes the
North Pole (N) as the current at this face
is anticlockwise

Electromagnets are mainly used for the following purposes:

To lift and transport large masses of iron scrap, girders, plates etc.
To load furnaces with iron.
To separate magnetic substances such as iron from debris and raw
materials.
To remove pieces of iron from wounds.
In several electrical devices such as electric bell, telegraph, electric
tram, electric motor, relay, microphone, loud speaker etc.
In scientific research, to study the magnetic properties of a substance in
a magnetic field.
 Electromagnetism
Electromagnets vs Permanent Magnets
electromagnets
It produces a magnetic field as long as the current flows through its
coils.
It is made of soft iron.
The magnetic field strength can be changed
The polarity of an electromagnet can be reversed
It can be easily demagnetised by switching off the current.
Permanent magnet
It produces a permanent magnetic field.
It is made of steel.
The magnetic field strength cannot be changed.
The polarity of an electromagnet cannot be reversed.
It cannot be easily demagnetised.

Fleming's left-hand rule.

The direction of force on a current-carrying conductor
placed in a magnetic field is obtained by the
Fleming's left-hand rule. Fleming's left-hand rule:
Stretch the forefinger, middle finger and thumb of
your left hand mutually perpendicular to each other.
If the forefinger indicates the direction of the
magnetic field and the middle finger indicates the
direction of the current, then the thumb will indicate
the direction of motion of the conductor.
 Electromagnetism
D.C Motor
An electric motor is a device which converts electrical energy
into mechanical energy.
Principle: A DC motor works on the principle that when an
electric current is passed through a conductor placed
normally in a magnetic field, a force acts on the conductor
as a result of which the conductor begins to move and
mechanical energy (or work) is obtained. The direction of
force is obtained by Fleming's left-hand rule.

electromagnetic induction
Whenever there is a change in the number of magnetic field
lines associated with a conductor, an electromotive force
(emf) is developed between the ends of the conductor which
lasts as long as the change is taking place. This
phenomenon is called electromagnetic induction.

Fleming's right-hand rule

Stretch the thumb, middle finger and forefinger of your right
hand mutually perpendicular to each other. If the forefinger In India, the frequency of
indicates the direction of the magnetic field and the thumb AC supply is 50 Hz
indicates the direction of the motion of the conductor, then (Hertz), meaning the
the middle finger will indicate the direction of the induced current alternates 50
current. times per second.
 Electromagnetism
A.C Generator
An AC generator is a device which converts mechanical
energy into electrical energy using the principle of
electromagnetic induction.
In a generator, a coil is rotated in a magnetic field. Due
to rotation, the magnetic flux linked with the coil
changes and therefore an emf is induced between the
ends of the coil. Thus, a generator acts like a source of
current if an external circuit containing a load is
connected between the ends of its coil.

Advantage of AC over DC
The use of AC is advantageous over DC because the voltage of AC can be stepped up by using a
step-up transformer at the power generating station before transmitting it over long distances.
This reduces the loss of electrical energy as heat in the transmission line wires.
The AC is then stepped down to 220 volt by using step-down transformers at the successive
substations before supplying it to the houses or factories.
If DC is generated at the power generating station, then its voltage cannot be increased for
transmission. Due to the passage of high current in the transmission line wires, there will be a
huge loss of electrical energy as heat in the line wires.

Transformer
A transformer is a device by which the amplitude of an alternating emf can be increased or
decreased.
transformer does not affect the frequency of the alternating voltage. The frequency remains
unchanged (= 50 Hz).
A transformer works on the principle of electromagnetic induction and makes use of two coils.
When there is a change of magnetic field lines due to varying current in one coil, an induced
varying current of the same frequency flows in the other coil.
A transformer cannot be used with a direct current (DC) source

Types of Transformers
Step-up transformer: The transformer used to change a low voltage alternating emf to a high
voltage alternating emf (of same frequency) is called a step-up transformer. In a step-up
transformer, the number of turns in the secondary coil is more than the number of turns in the
primary coil.

Step-down transformer: The transformer used to change a high voltage alternating emf to a
low voltage alternating emf (of same frequency) is called a step-down transformer. In a step-
down transformer, the number of turns in the secondary coil is less than the number of turns in
the primary coil.
Multiple Choice Questions
Recall:
What did Oersted’s experiment demonstrate?
a) The relationship between electricity and magnetism
b) The principles of electromagnetic induction
c) The working of a DC motor
d) The structure of an atom
Answer: a) The relationship between electricity and magnetism
Understanding:
According to the right-hand thumb rule, if the thumb points in the direction of the current,
what do the curled fingers represent?
a) Direction of force
b) Direction of magnetic field lines
c) Direction of electric field
d) Direction of current flow
Answer: b) Direction of magnetic field lines
Application:
Which device uses an electromagnet to function?
a) Compass
b) Refrigerator magnet
c) Electric bell
d) Bar magnet
Answer: c) Electric bell
Recall:
What is the difference between an electromagnet and a permanent magnet?
a) An electromagnet has a fixed magnetic field, while a permanent magnet does not
b) An electromagnet’s magnetic field can be switched on and off, while a permanent
magnet’s cannot
c) A permanent magnet is stronger than an electromagnet
d) An electromagnet works without electricity
Answer: b) An electromagnet’s magnetic field can be switched on and off, while a
permanent magnet’s cannot
Analysis:
What happens to the magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor if the
current is reversed?
a) The magnetic field direction remains the same
b) The magnetic field disappears
c) The magnetic field direction reverses
d) The strength of the magnetic field doubles
Answer: c) The magnetic field direction reverses
Recall and Application:
According to Fleming’s Left Hand Rule, what does the thumb represent?
a) Direction of current
b) Direction of magnetic field
c) Direction of force or motion
d) Direction of voltage
Answer: c) Direction of force or motion
Analysis:
If the number of turns in the primary coil of a transformer is greater than in the
secondary coil, what type of transformer is it?
a) Step-up transformer
b) Step-down transformer
c) It could be either, depending on the current flow
d) It’s an autotransformer
Answer: b) Step-down transformer
Recall and Application:
What is the main function of a transformer?
a) To convert AC to DC
b) To change the voltage levels of an alternating current
c) To store electrical energy
d) To increase the frequency of the current
Answer: b) To change the voltage levels of an alternating current
Understanding:
In which type of circuit does an electromagnet lose its magnetism when the current
is switched off?
a) AC circuit
b) DC circuit
c) Closed circuit
d) Any circuit using an electromagnet
Answer: d) Any circuit using an electromagnet
Recall:
Which rule is used to determine the direction of motion in a DC motor?
a) Fleming’s Left Hand Rule
b) Fleming’s Right Hand Rule
c) Right Hand Thumb Rule
d) Left Hand Thumb Rule
Answer: a) Fleming’s Left Hand Rule
Application:
What is the function of brushes in a DC motor?
a) To supply current to the coil through the commutator
b) To increase the speed of the motor
c) To provide insulation to the coil
d) To reverse the direction of the magnetic field
Answer: a) To supply current to the coil through the commutator
Analysis:
Why does a current-carrying loop produce a magnetic field?
a) The current aligns the electrons in the conductor
b) The movement of charges creates a magnetic effect around the conductor
c) The magnetic field is inherent to the wire
d) The loop concentrates magnetic monopoles
Answer: b) The movement of charges creates a magnetic effect around the
conductor
Short Answer Type Questions
Recall:
What did Oersted’s experiment demonstrate?
Answer: Oersted’s experiment demonstrated that an electric current produces a magnetic
field around the conductor.
Understanding:
How does the right-hand thumb rule help determine the direction of the magnetic field
around a current-carrying conductor?
Answer: The right-hand thumb rule states that if the thumb of the right hand points in the
direction of the current, the curled fingers show the direction of the magnetic field lines
around the conductor.
Application:
What is an electromagnet, and how is it different from a permanent magnet?
Answer: An electromagnet is a magnet created by passing electric current through a coil
wrapped around a soft iron core. Unlike a permanent magnet, its magnetic field can be
switched on or off.
Recall:
State Fleming’s Left Hand Rule.
Answer: Fleming’s Left Hand Rule states that if the thumb, forefinger, and middle finger of
the left hand are stretched perpendicular to each other, the thumb indicates the direction
of motion (force), the forefinger indicates the direction of the magnetic field, and the middle
finger indicates the direction of the current.
Understanding:
Why does reversing the current in a straight wire also reverse the direction of the
magnetic field around it?
Answer: The direction of the magnetic field is directly related to the direction of the current.
Reversing the current changes the direction of the electron flow, thereby reversing the
magnetic field’s direction.
Application:
How is an electromagnet used in an electric bell?
Answer: In an electric bell, an electromagnet attracts the hammer when current flows,
striking the bell. When the circuit breaks, the electromagnet loses its magnetism, and the
hammer returns to its initial position, ready to strike again when the circuit is completed.
Recall:
What is the purpose of split ring commutators in a DC motor?
Answer: The split ring commutators reverse the direction of current in the coil after every
half turn, ensuring that the coil continues to rotate in the same direction.
Understanding:
Explain the energy transformation that occurs in a DC motor.
Answer: In a DC motor, electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy as the
current-carrying coil rotates within the magnetic field.
Application:
What is the function of the brushes in a DC motor?
Answer: The brushes maintain contact with the rotating split ring commutators, allowing
current to flow into the coil, ensuring continuous rotation.
Recall:
What is Fleming’s Right Hand Rule used for?
Answer: Fleming’s Right Hand Rule is used to determine the direction of induced current in a conductor
when it moves within a magnetic field.
Understanding:
How does a transformer work to change the voltage of alternating current (AC)?
Answer: A transformer changes the voltage of AC by using two coils, the primary and secondary,
wrapped around a magnetic core. The alternating current in the primary coil induces a varying magnetic
field that generates a current in the secondary coil, either increasing or decreasing the voltage
depending on the number of turns in each coil.
Application:
Why is AC used for long-distance power transmission instead of DC?
Answer: AC is used because its voltage can be easily transformed to higher levels, reducing power loss
during transmission. DC cannot be easily transformed, making it less efficient for long-distance power
transmission.
Recall:
What is the frequency of AC supply in household circuits in India?
Answer: The frequency of AC supply in household circuits in India is 50 Hz.
Understanding:
Explain why an electromagnet loses its magnetism when the current is switched off.
Answer: An electromagnet’s magnetic field is created by the flow of electric current through the coil.
When the current is switched off, the magnetic field disappears because it is dependent on the current.
Application:
In an AC generator, what type of energy transformation takes place?
Answer: In an AC generator, mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy as the coil rotates
within a magnetic field.
Recall:
What is the function of the slip rings in an AC generator?
Answer: The slip rings provide a continuous connection between the rotating coil and the external circuit,
allowing AC to flow without interruption.
Understanding:
What is the main difference between a step-up and a step-down transformer?
Answer: A step-up transformer increases the voltage from the primary to the secondary coil, while a
step-down transformer decreases the voltage.
Application:
Why is it important for the secondary coil of a step-down transformer to have fewer turns than the
primary coil?
Answer: Having fewer turns in the secondary coil reduces the voltage according to the transformer’s
principle, making it suitable for applications that require lower voltage.
Recall:
What is the role of the soft iron core in an electromagnet?
Answer: The soft iron core enhances the magnetic field produced by the coil, making the electromagnet
stronger.
Understanding:
Why is the magnetic field stronger inside a coil of wire than around a straight wire?
Answer: The magnetic field inside a coil of wire is stronger because the magnetic field lines are
concentrated and reinforced by the loops, resulting in a more intense field.
Heat
 Heat
Heat and it’s units
The SI unit of heat is joule (J). The other most commonly used
unit of heat is calorie (cal).
The heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water
through 1°C is known as calorie.
The unit calorie is related to the SI unit joule as follows: 1 calorie
(or 1 cal) = 4·186 J or 4·2 J
Tempreature and it’s Units
Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a
substance. It indicates how hot or cold an object is.
Units of Temperature:
Celsius (°C): Most commonly used unit.Freezing point of water: 0°C, Boiling point
of water: 100°C
Kelvin (K): SI unit of temperature,Used in scientific contexts,Absolute zero
(theoretically the lowest possible temperature): 0 K, Relation to Celsius: K = °C +
273.15

Heat Capacity
The heat capacity of a body is the amount of heat energy Heat capacity is related
required to raise its temperature by 1°C or 1 K. It is denoted to specific heat capacity
by the symbol C′. through the mass of the
C ' = Amount of heat energy supplied/Rise in temperature
substance: C = M * c
= C= Q/ΔT Where C = heat capacity (in joules per degree
C = heat capacity, m =
Celsius or joules per Kelvin) Q= amount of heat added or
removed (in joules), ΔT = change in temperature (in °C or mass, c = specific heat
K) capacity
The SI unit of heat capacity is the joule per kelvin (J/K).
also written as joule per degree C (or J °C−1 ).
Specific Heat Capacity
The specific heat capacity of a substance is the amount of
C of Some Substances
heat energy required to raise the temperature of a unit
ice = 2.1 J/(g·°C)
mass of that substance through 1°C (or 1 K).
Water = 4.18 J/(g·°C)
C = Q / m⋅ΔT Where: c = specific heat capacity (in
Copper = 0.39 J/(g·°C)
joules per kilogram per degree Celsius, J/(kg·°C) or
J/(kg·K)), Q = amount of heat added or removed (in
joules, J), m = mass of the substance (in kilograms,
kg), ΔT= change in temperature (in degrees Celsius,
°C, or Kelvin, K)
SI unit : joule per kilogram per Kelvin (or J kg−1 K −1 )
 Heat
Principle of Method of Mixtures
The method of mixtures is based on the principle of conservation
of energy.
When two substances at different temperatures are mixed, heat
lost by the hotter substance is equal to the heat gained by the
cooler substance, provided no heat is lost to the surroundings.
Mathematical Statement:
Heat lost=Heat gained => m1⋅c1 ⋅(T1​−T final​) = m2​⋅c2​⋅(Tfinal​−T2​)
m1​,m2​= masses of substances 1 and 2, c1​,c2​= specific heat capacities of substances 1 and
2, T1​,T2​= initial temperatures of substances 1 and 2, Tfinal​= final equilibrium temperature
after mixing

Natural Phenomenon Involving

Specific Heat
Land and Sea Breezes: Due to the different specific heat
capacities of water and land, land heats up and cools down
faster than water.
Moderation of Climate by Water: Water has a high specific heat
capacity, meaning it absorbs and releases large amounts of
heat with minimal temperature change. This property of water
helps regulate coastal climates, preventing extreme
temperature fluctuations.

Consequences of High Specific Heat of Water

The climate near the seashore is moderate.
Hot water bottles are used for fomentation: Water does not cool quickly due to its large
specific heat capacity, so a hot water bottle provides heat energy for fomentation for a longer
period.
Water is used as an effective coolant.  Farmers fill their fields with water to protect the crops
from frost.
All plants and animals have a high content of water in their bodies.
 Heat
Change of Phase
The process of change from one state to
another at a constant temperature is called
the change of phase.

heating curve for water

Stage 1: Solid (Ice) Heating: Temperature
increases as ice absorbs heat. State: Solid
(ice) Phase: Temperature rises, but no phase
change occurs.

Stage 2: Ice begins to melt at 0°C. During

this phase, temperature remains constant
as ice absorbs latent heat of fusion. State:
Solid + Liquid Phase: Melting (no
temperature change).

Stage 3: Temperature increases as liquid

Latent Heat and Specific Latent Heat water absorbs heat, State: Liquid (water),
Phase: Temperature rises, but no phase
of Fusion change occurs.
The heat energy exchanged in change of phase is
not externally manifested by any rise or fall in Stage 4: Water boils at 100°C. Temperature
temperature, and hence, it is considered to be remains constant as water absorbs latent
hidden in the substance and is called the latent heat of vaporization, State: Liquid + Gas,
heat. Latent heat when expressed for unit mass Phase: Boiling (no temperature change).
of the substance is called the specific latent
heat. Stage 5:Temperature increases as steam
The specific latent heat of fusion of a substance (water vapor) absorbs heat, State: Gas
is the heat energy released when a unit mass of a (steam), Phase: Temperature rises, but no
substance changes from liquid to solid without a phase change occurs.
change in temperature.

The SI unit of specific latent heat is J kg−1 .

Other common units are cal g−1 and kilo-
calorie kg−1
1 kilo - cal kg = 1 cal joule
1 Cal joule = 4.2 J g -1
1 cal g = 4.2 * 10^3 J kg
 Heat
Common physical phenomena involving
latent heat of fusion.
Melting of Ice: When ice melts into water at 0°C, it
absorbs heat without any rise in temperature. This heat
absorbed is the latent heat of fusion.

Formation of Ice from Water: When water at 0°C freezes into

ice, it releases the latent heat of fusion to the surroundings,
while the temperature remains constant.

Snow Formation: Water vapor in the atmosphere loses latent

heat of fusion to form snowflakes, keeping the temperature
constant during the phase change.

Use of Ice in Cooling: Ice absorbs a large amount of heat

(latent heat of fusion) when it melts, making it effective for
cooling drinks or preserving food.
Multiple Choice Questions
Recall:
What is the SI unit of heat energy?
a) Calorie
b) Joule
c) Kelvin
d) Celsius
Answer: b) Joule
Understanding:
Which of the following is the correct unit for temperature in the SI system?
a) Calorie
b) Joule
c) Kelvin
d) Celsius
Answer: c) Kelvin
Application:
If 500 J of heat is added to a substance causing its temperature to rise by 10°C, what is its
heat capacity?
a) 50 J/°C
b) 5000 J/°C
c) 5 J/°C
d) 100 J/°C
Answer: a) 50 J/°C (Heat capacity, C′=Q/ΔT=500J/10°C=50J/°CC' = Q/ΔT = 500 J / 10 °C = 50
J/°CC′=Q/ΔT=500J/10°C=50J/°C)
Recall:
What is the specific heat capacity of water in SI units?
a) 4.18 J/g°C
b) 1 cal/g°C
c) 2.1 J/g°C
d) 4.18 J/kg°C
Answer: a) 4.18 J/g°C
Analysis:
Which of the following substances has the highest specific heat capacity?
a) Ice
b) Copper
c) Water
d) Iron
Answer: c) Water
Recall and Application:
Which equation represents the relationship between heat energy, mass, specific heat
capacity, and change in temperature?
a) Q=mCΔTQ = mCΔTQ=mCΔT
b) Q=C/mΔTQ = C/mΔTQ=C/mΔT
c) Q=ΔT/CQ = ΔT/CQ=ΔT/C
d) Q=mΔT/CQ = mΔT/CQ=mΔT/C
Answer: a) Q=mCΔTQ = mCΔTQ=mCΔT
Understanding and Recall:
Why is water used as a cooling agent in car engines?
a) It is inexpensive
b) It has a low specific heat capacity
c) It has a high specific heat capacity
d) It has a high boiling point
Answer: c) It has a high specific heat capacity
Application:
Which of the following units is equivalent to 1 calorie?
a) 2 J
b) 4.18 J
c) 10 J
d) 5 J
Answer: b) 4.18 J
Recall:
What is latent heat?
a) The heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1 degree
b) The heat absorbed or released during a change of state without changing
temperature
c) The heat required to evaporate a liquid
d) The heat released when a solid cools down
Answer: b) The heat absorbed or released during a change of state without
changing temperature
Understanding:
Why does the temperature of ice remain constant at 0°C while it melts?
a) The ice loses heat
b) The latent heat of fusion is used to change the state
c) The temperature of the surroundings decreases
d) The ice is insulated
Answer: b) The latent heat of fusion is used to change the state
Recall:
What is the SI unit of specific latent heat?
a) J/kg
b) J/g
c) Cal/kg
d) Cal/g
Answer: a) J/kg
Application:
If 334 J/g is the specific latent heat of fusion for ice, how much heat energy is
required to melt 10 g of ice at 0°C?
a) 3340 J
b) 334 J
c) 3000 J
d) 4000 J
Answer: a) 3340 J (Heat energy, Q=mL=10g×334J/g=3340JQ = mL = 10 g \times 334
J/g = 3340 JQ=mL=10g×334J/g=3340J)
Analysis:
Why does water take longer to heat up and cool down compared to other
substances like copper?
a) It has a higher latent heat
b) It has a higher specific heat capacity
c) It has a higher density
d) It has a lower boiling point
Answer: b) It has a higher specific heat capacity
Recall and Application:
The heat capacity of a substance is 200 J/°C. If it absorbs 600 J of heat, what
will be the change in temperature?
a) 2°C
b) 3°C
c) 5°C
d) 6°C
Answer: b) 3°C (Change in temperature, ΔT=Q/C′=600J/200J/°C=3°CΔT = Q/C'
= 600 J / 200 J/°C = 3°CΔT=Q/C′=600J/200J/°C=3°C)
Understanding:
How does the specific heat capacity of a substance affect its ability to store
thermal energy?
a) Higher specific heat capacity allows it to store more energy
b) Lower specific heat capacity allows it to store more energy
c) It does not affect energy storage
d) It affects only the rate of energy release
Answer: a) Higher specific heat capacity allows it to store more energy
Recall:
What is the specific latent heat of fusion?
a) The amount of heat required to convert 1 kg of solid to liquid at constant
temperature
b) The heat needed to raise 1 kg of liquid by 1°C
c) The energy required to evaporate 1 kg of liquid
d) The energy released when a solid cools
Answer: a) The amount of heat required to convert 1 kg of solid to liquid at
constant temperature
Application:
If 4200 J of heat is needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C, what
is the specific heat capacity of water?
a) 420 J/kg°C
b) 4200 J/kg°C
c) 1000 J/kg°C
d) 2500 J/kg°C
Answer: b) 4200 J/kg°C
Analysis:
When a hot metal is placed in cold water, why does the metal cool down while
the water heats up?
a) Heat flows from the hotter object (metal) to the colder object (water)
b) The water absorbs all the metal’s energy
c) The metal loses its magnetic properties
d) The water creates an insulation effect
Answer: a) Heat flows from the hotter object (metal) to the colder object
(water)
Recall:
What principle is used in the method of mixtures?
a) Heat loss by the hot object is equal to the heat gain by the cold object
b) Heat gain is greater than heat loss
c) Heat remains constant
d) There is no exchange of heat
Answer: a) Heat loss by the hot object is equal to the heat gain by the cold
object
Understanding:
Why is the specific heat capacity of water important for maintaining Earth’s
climate?
a) Water’s high specific heat capacity allows it to absorb and release large
amounts of heat without a significant change in temperature, stabilizing the
climate
b) Water’s low specific heat capacity makes it evaporate quickly, cooling the
surroundings
c) Water’s heat capacity keeps the oceans at a constant temperature
d) Water’s high heat retention helps maintain the greenhouse effect
Answer: a) Water’s high specific heat capacity allows it to absorb and release
large amounts of heat without a significant change in temperature, stabilizing
the climate

Numericals
A piece of copper with a mass of 200 g is heated from 25°C to 75°C. If the specific heat capacity of
copper is 0.39 J/g°C, calculate the amount of heat absorbed. Answer: 3900 J (Q = mcΔT = 200 g ×
0.39 J/g°C × (75°C - 25°C) = 3900 J)
Calculate the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 2 kg of water from 20°C to 80°C.
(Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kg°C) Answer: 504,000 J (Q = mcΔT = 2 kg × 4200 J/kg°C
× (80°C - 20°C) = 504,000 J)
Problem: How much heat energy is needed to melt 500 g of ice at 0°C if the specific latent heat of
fusion for ice is 334 J/g? Answer: 167,000 J (Q = mL = 500 g × 334 J/g = 167,000 J)
Problem: A metal block with a mass of 1 kg has a specific heat capacity of 500 J/kg°C. How much
heat is required to increase its temperature by 10°C? Answer: 5000 J (Q = mcΔT = 1 kg × 500 J/kg°C
× 10°C = 5000 J)
If 1000 J of heat is added to 50 g of water, what is the temperature rise? (Specific heat capacity of
water = 4.18 J/g°C) Answer: 4.78°C (ΔT = Q / (mc) = 1000 J / (50 g × 4.18 J/g°C) = 4.78°C)
 A 0.5 kg block of metal is heated from 30°C to 60°C, absorbing 6000 J of heat.
Calculate its specific heat capacity. Answer: 400 J/kg°C (c = Q / (mΔT) = 6000 J /
(0.5 kg × 30°C) = 400 J/kg°C)
How much energy is required to convert 2 kg of water at 100°C to steam? (Latent
heat of vaporization of water = 2260 kJ/kg). Answer: 4520 kJ (Q = mL = 2 kg × 2260
kJ/kg = 4520 kJ)
A 100 g piece of ice at 0°C is heated until it becomes water at 0°C. Calculate the
amount of heat absorbed. (Latent heat of fusion of ice = 334 J/g) Answer: 33,400 J
(Q = mL = 100 g × 334 J/g = 33,400 J)
If 300 g of a substance absorbs 4500 J of heat and its temperature rises by 15°C,
what is its specific heat capacity? Answer: 1 J/g°C (c = Q / (mΔT) = 4500 J / (300 g
× 15°C) = 1 J/g°C)
How much heat energy is required to raise the temperature of 500 g of copper
from 25°C to 100°C? (Specific heat capacity of copper = 0.39 J/g°C) Answer: 14,625
J (Q = mcΔT = 500 g × 0.39 J/g°C × (100°C - 25°C) = 14,625 J)

Short Answer Type Questions

Recall:
What is the SI unit of heat energy?
Answer: The SI unit of heat energy is the joule (J).
Recall:
Define specific heat capacity.
Answer: Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature
of 1 kg of a substance by 1°C.
Understanding:
Why does water have a high specific heat capacity?
Answer: Water has a high specific heat capacity because it can absorb and store a
large amount of heat energy without undergoing a significant temperature change.
Application:
Calculate the heat required to raise the temperature of 2 kg of water by 5°C. (Specific
heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kg°C)
Answer: 42,000 J (Q = mcΔT = 2 kg × 4200 J/kg°C × 5°C)
Recall:
What is latent heat?
Answer: Latent heat is the heat absorbed or released during a phase change of a
substance without changing its temperature.
Understanding:
Why does the temperature remain constant when a substance changes state?
Answer: The temperature remains constant during a phase change because the heat
energy is used to break or form intermolecular bonds, not to change the temperature
Application:
A 500 g block of ice is heated at 0°C until it melts. Calculate the heat energy
absorbed. (Latent heat of fusion of ice = 334 J/g)
Answer: 167,000 J (Q = mL = 500 g × 334 J/g)
Recall:
What is the specific heat capacity of water in SI units?
Answer: The specific heat capacity of water in SI units is 4200 J/kg°C.
Understanding:
Explain the principle of the method of mixtures.
Answer: The principle of the method of mixtures states that when a hot object
and a cold object are mixed, the heat lost by the hot object is equal to the heat
gained by the cold object, assuming no heat loss to the surroundings.
Application:
If a hot metal piece is placed in cold water, why does the metal cool down while
the water heats up?
Answer: The metal loses heat, which is transferred to the water, causing the
metal to cool down and the water to heat up.
Recall:
What is the unit of specific latent heat in the SI system?
Answer: The unit of specific latent heat in the SI system is joules per kilogram
(J/kg).
Understanding:
How does the high specific heat capacity of water affect the climate?
Answer: Water’s high specific heat capacity helps stabilize the climate by
absorbing heat during the day and releasing it slowly at night, moderating
temperature fluctuations.
Application:
Calculate the amount of heat required to convert 1 kg of ice at 0°C to water at
0°C. (Latent heat of fusion of ice = 334,000 J/kg)
Answer: 334,000 J (Q = mL = 1 kg × 334,000 J/kg)
Recall:
Define thermal capacity.
Answer: Thermal capacity is the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of an object by 1°C.
Understanding:
Why is water used as a cooling agent in car radiators?
Answer: Water is used because of its high specific heat capacity, which allows it
to absorb a large amount of heat, preventing the engine from overheating.
Application:
A 100 g metal block is heated from 25°C to 75°C, absorbing 1950 J of heat.
Calculate its specific heat capacity.
Answer: 0.39 J/g°C (c = Q / (mΔT) = 1950 J / (100 g × 50°C))
Recall:
What is the relationship between heat capacity and specific heat capacity?
Answer: Heat capacity is the product of the specific heat capacity and the mass
of the object (C' = mc).
Understanding:
Why does steam at 100°C cause more severe burns than water at 100°C?
Answer: Steam contains additional energy in the form of latent heat of
vaporization, making it more capable of transferring heat and causing burns.
Application:
If 2 kg of a substance requires 8000 J of heat to increase its temperature by 4°C,
what is its specific heat capacity?
Answer: 1000 J/kg°C (c = Q / (mΔT) = 8000 J / (2 kg × 4°C))
Recall:
Why is it important to know the specific heat capacity of a material?
Answer: Knowing the specific heat capacity of a material helps determine how
much energy is required to change its temperature, which is important in various
applications such as heating and cooling systems.
Radioactivity
 Radioactivity
Nucleus
An atom consists of a positively charged nucleus surrounded by electrons
revolving around the nucleus in different orbits of some definite radii.
The neutrons are uncharged particles.
The atom is electrically neutral.

Nuclear Structure
The nucleus at the centre of an atom, whose size is of the order of 10^−15 m
to 10^−14 m, consists of protons and neutrons.
number of protons in the nucleus is called the atomic number = Z.
The protons and neutrons which are the main constituents of the nucleus are
called nucleons. total number of nucleons in the nucleus is called the mass
number of the element = A

Radioactivity as Spontaneous Disintegration

Radioactivity is the spontaneous disintegration of
unstable atomic nuclei, where the nucleus breaks
down naturally without any external influence.
It is a natural process that occurs in unstable
isotopes, leading to the emission of radiation
(alpha, beta, or gamma particles) to achieve a
more stable state.
Key Characteristics: Spontaneous: It occurs on its
own, without external triggers like heat or
pressure, Random: The exact time when a nucleus
will disintegrate cannot be predicted, Energy
Release: During disintegration, energy is released
in the form of radiation.
Those which turn to the left (as given by Fleming’s left-hand rule) must be positively
charged and are called alpha (α) particles.
Those which turn to the right must be negatively charged and are called beta (β) particles.
The β particles are deviated more than the α particles.
Those which pass undeviated must be uncharged (or neutral) and are called gamma (γ)
radiations. γ-radiations are electromagnetic waves similar to light and are therefore not
affected by the magnetic field.
Similarly, if the radiations given out by a radioactive substance are subjected to an
electric field in a direction perpendicular to their path, they again separate out into three
constituents.
α (Alpha) Radioactivity
Nature: Consists of 2 protons and 2 neutrons (Helium nucleus).
Charge: Positively charged (+2).
Mass: Heavy (4 atomic mass units).
Speed: Slow (about 1/10th the speed of light).
Penetration: Low (can be stopped by a sheet of paper or skin).
Ionization Power: High (causes intense ionization).
Effect in Magnetic/Electric Field: Deflected towards the negative plate.

Beta (β)
Nature: Consists of high-energy electrons or positrons.
Charge: Negative (β⁻, electron) or Positive (β⁺, positron).
Mass: Very small (about 1/2000th of a proton).
Speed: Fast (close to the speed of light).
Penetration: Moderate (can be stopped by thin metal sheets).
Ionization Power: Moderate.
Effect in Magnetic/Electric Field: Deflected towards the positive plate (for β⁻) and
negative plate (for β⁺).

Gamma (γ)
Nature: Electromagnetic waves (photons).
Charge: No charge (neutral).
Mass: No mass.
Speed: Speed of light.
Penetration: Very high (can pass through several centimeters of lead).
Ionization Power: Low.
Effect in Magnetic/Electric Field: No deflection (neutral).

Changes within the Nucleus in Emission of Alpha, Beta and

Gamma Particles
Alpha Emission : If an unstable nucleus contains more neutrons than the number of
protons, then it may emit two protons and two neutrons tightly bound together in a single
particle, known as an alpha particle. A stream of α-particles is called α-rays.
 Radioactivity
Beta Emission : In emitting a β-particle, the number of nucleons in the nucleus remains
the same, but the number of neutrons is decreased by one and the number of protons is
increased by one.
In other words, by the emission of a β-particle, the mass number A does not change, but
the atomic number Z is increased by one.

Gamma Emission ; The γ-rays take no mass and no electric charge from the nucleus, i.e.
no neutrons or protons are lost, and hence, the nucleus does not decay into a different
nucleus, i.e. there is no change in the mass number A and atomic number Z of the nucleus
in gamma e

Uses of radioactivity - Radio Isotopes

Medical Use:
Diseases such as leukaemia and cancer are cured by radiation therapy. Radiations from cobalt-60 (~Co) are
used to treat cancer by killing the cells in the malignant tumour of the patient.
The salts of weak radioactive isotopes such as radio-sodium chloride, radio-iron and radio-iodine are used
for diagnosis. Such radio isotopes are called tracers.
γ-rays emitted by radio isotopes are used to sterilise bandages, dressings, syringes and other equipment to
make them free of germs. This method is quicker, more reliable and cheaper than sterilisation by heat.

Scientific Use;
Alpha particles emitted from radio isotopes are used as projectiles for nuclear reactions. The scattering of
alpha particles from the nucleus helps in estimating the size of the nucleus and in understanding the nature
of nuclear forces.
The radioactive tracers are used in agricultural science to study the growth of plants with respect to the
chemical manure used
The age of rocks and hence buried plants is estimated by the study of the rate of decay of Carbon in the
remains of dead plants. The process is called carbon dating.

Industrial Use:
Radio isotopes are used as fuel for atomic energy reactors.
Radio isotopes are used by engineers in factories to avoid the accumulation of charge on moving parts due
to friction.
The ionising effect of radiations from radio isotopes is used in making certain luminescent signs.
The thickness of paper, plastic and metal sheets is controlled during manufacture when the penetrating
power of β-radiations emitted from radio isotopes is known.
 Radioactivity
Harmful Effects of Radioactivity
Health Hazards: Cell Damage: Radioactive radiation can damage living cells, leading to
mutations and cell death.
Cancer: Long-term exposure can cause cancer, especially leukemia and thyroid cancer.
Radiation Sickness: High exposure leads to nausea, vomiting, hair loss, and fatigue.
Environmental Impact: Contamination: Radioactive materials can contaminate air, water,
and soil, affecting ecosystems.
Long-term Radiation: Some radioactive isotopes remain active for thousands of years,
posing long-term risks.
Genetic Mutations:
Hereditary Effects: Radiation can cause genetic mutations, potentially affecting
future generations.

Safety Precautions
Shielding:
Use proper shielding materials like lead or concrete to block radiation.
Distance:
Maintain a safe distance from radioactive sources to minimize exposure.
Limited Exposure:
Limit the time spent near radioactive materials to reduce exposure.
Protective Gear:
Wear protective clothing like gloves, goggles, and lead aprons to protect skin and eyes.
Handling with Tools:
Use tongs, robotic arms, or other tools to handle radioactive substances, avoiding direct
contact.

Background Radiation
Background Radiation refers to the low-level, natural radiation that is always present in the
environment. Sources of Background Radiation:
Natural Sources: Cosmic Rays, Earth’s Crust, Atmosphere
Man-made Sources: X-rays, CT scans, and radiation therapy, Fallout from nuclear
weapons tests and accidents like Chernobyl, Radioactive materials used in power plants
and other industries.
 Radioactivity
X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation with high energy
and short wavelength. They are invisible and can pass through
most substances, including the human body.
Properties of X-rays: Uses of X-rays:
Can penetrate through soft tissues but Used in X-ray machines to create
are absorbed by denser materials like images of bones and tissues for
bone and metal. diagnosis.
Can ionize atoms, potentially Used at airports to scan luggage and
damaging or altering biological cells. people for hidden objects.
Cannot be seen by the human eye. Used to inspect the integrity of
X-rays move in straight lines at the materials like metals and detect
speed of light. flaws.

Harmful Effects: Prolonged exposure can

cause cell damage, cancer, and radiation
burns, making protection essential.
Radioactive Fallout from Nuclear Plants and Other Sources : Radioactive Fallout
refers to the release of radioactive materials into the environment, usually
following a nuclear explosion or accident at a nuclear power plant.

Nuclear Energy: Safe Disposal of Waste and Safety Measures

Disposal Safety Measures

Waste is buried deep underground in stable Implementing national and international

geological formations to isolate it from the regulations to govern the handling,
biosphere. transport, and disposal of nuclear waste.
Temporary storage of waste above ground, Continuous monitoring of storage sites for
usually in robust containers, until long-term radiation levels and potential leaks.
solutions are implemented. Developing and enforcing protocols to
Transmutation: A process that involves ensure public safety during the
changing radioactive isotopes into less transportation of nuclear materials.
harmful ones through nuclear reactions. Regular training for workers in the nuclear
Encapsulation: Radioactive waste is often industry and awareness programs for the
encapsulated in glass or ceramic to prevent public about the risks and safety measures
leakage of radioactive materials into the related to nuclear energy.
environment.
 Radioactivity
Nuclear fission and fusion;
Nuclear Fission : Nuclear fission is the process in which a heavy nucleus
is splits into two light nuclei nearly of the same size by bombarding it
with slow neutrons. In each fission reaction, a tremendous amount of
energy of approximately 190 MeV is released.
It was first observed by German Scientist Otto Hahn and Fritz
Strassmann in 1983 in nuclear fission heavy nucleus splits into two
smaller nuclei with liberation of energy.
When uranium with Z = 92 is bombarded with neutron, it splits into
two fragments namely barium (Z = 56) and krypton (Z = 36) and a
large amount of energy is released which appears due to decrease in
the mass

Nuclear fusion : is the process in which two light nuclei combine to form
a heavy nucleus and release a huge amount of energy. This is because the
mass of the product nucleus is less than the sum of masses of the two
combining nuclei. According to the mass energy equivalence relation this
loss in mass is released in form of energy E = Mc^2
When two deuterium nuclei fuse, nucleus of helium isotope He is
formed and 3·3 MeV energy is released. This helium isotope again
gets fused with one deuterium nucleus to form a helium nucleus He
and 18·3 MeV of energy is released in this process
Multiple Choice Questions
Recall:
What does the atomic number (Z) of an element represent?
a) The number of neutrons in the nucleus
b) The total number of protons and neutrons
c) The number of protons in the nucleus
d) The atomic mass of the element
Answer: c) The number of protons in the nucleus
Understanding:
What happens during radioactive decay?
a) An atom absorbs electrons from the surroundings
b) An unstable atomic nucleus spontaneously disintegrates, emitting radiation
c) An atom gains mass by absorbing energy
d) An atom splits into two equal parts
Answer: b) An unstable atomic nucleus spontaneously disintegrates, emitting
radiation
Application:
Which type of radiation has the highest ionizing power?
a) Alpha (α) radiation
b) Beta (β) radiation
c) Gamma (γ) radiation
d) X-rays
Answer: a) Alpha (α) radiation
Recall:
What is the charge of a beta (β) particle?
a) Neutral
b) Negative
c) Positive
d) It varies
Answer: b) Negative
Analysis:
If a nucleus undergoes beta decay, how does its atomic number change?
a) It increases by 2
b) It remains the same
c) It decreases by 1
d) It increases by 1
Answer: d) It increases by 1
Recall and Application:
Which type of radiation consists of high-energy electromagnetic waves and has no
charge?
a) Alpha (α) radiation
b) Beta (β) radiation
c) Gamma (γ) radiation
d) Neutron radiation
Answer: c) Gamma (γ) radiation
Understanding and Recall:
During alpha decay, what happens to the atomic number (Z) of the nucleus?
a) It increases by 2
b) It remains the same
c) It decreases by 2
d) It decreases by 4
Answer: c) It decreases by 2
Application:
If a uranium-238 nucleus emits an alpha particle, what will be the new mass number
(A) and atomic number (Z) of the resulting nucleus?
a) Mass number = 236, Atomic number = 90
b) Mass number = 234, Atomic number = 90
c) Mass number = 238, Atomic number = 92
d) Mass number = 234, Atomic number = 88
Answer: b) Mass number = 234, Atomic number = 90
Recall:
What is the primary purpose of using radioisotopes in medicine?
a) Generating electricity
b) Treating and diagnosing diseases
c) Producing heat
d) Controlling chemical reactions
Answer: b) Treating and diagnosing diseases
Understanding:
Why is gamma radiation used for sterilizing medical equipment?
a) It has a high penetrating power and can kill bacteria and viruses
b) It is easy to contain and control
c) It does not emit heat
d) It is less expensive than other methods
Answer: a) It has a high penetrating power and can kill bacteria and viruses
Recall:
What is the main characteristic of nuclear fission?
a) The combining of two light nuclei to form a heavier nucleus
b) The splitting of a heavy nucleus into lighter nuclei, releasing energy
c) The emission of electrons from the nucleus
d) The absorption of neutrons by the nucleus
Answer: b) The splitting of a heavy nucleus into lighter nuclei, releasing energy
Application:
Which type of nuclear reaction powers the sun?
a) Nuclear fission
b) Nuclear fusion
c) Radioactive decay
d) Gamma emission
Answer: b) Nuclear fusion
Analysis:
In nuclear fusion, why is it difficult to achieve the conditions necessary for the reaction?
a) The nuclei need to be cooled down to very low temperatures
b) The nuclei must overcome their electrostatic repulsion, which requires extremely high
temperatures and pressure
c) The process requires a large amount of water
d) Fusion only occurs in the presence of alpha particles
Answer: b) The nuclei must overcome their electrostatic repulsion, which requires extremely
high temperatures and pressure
Recall and Application:
If thorium-234 undergoes beta decay, what will be the resulting element’s atomic number
and mass number?
a) Mass number = 234, Atomic number = 90
b) Mass number = 230, Atomic number = 88
c) Mass number = 234, Atomic number = 91
d) Mass number = 230, Atomic number = 89
Answer: c) Mass number = 234, Atomic number = 91
Understanding:
What are the potential harmful effects of radiation exposure?
a) It can enhance the immune system
b) It can cause cancer, burns, and genetic mutations
c) It only causes temporary discomfort
d) It improves cell regeneration
Answer: b) It can cause cancer, burns, and genetic mutations
Recall:
Which form of radiation is most penetrating?
a) Alpha radiation
b) Beta radiation
c) Gamma radiation
d) X-rays
Answer: c) Gamma radiation
Application:
Why are protective clothing and lead shields used when handling radioactive materials?
a) To increase the rate of radioactive decay
b) To reduce exposure to harmful radiation
c) To keep the radiation active
d) To prevent contamination from water
Answer: b) To reduce exposure to harmful radiation
Analysis:
How is nuclear waste safely stored to minimize environmental impact?
a) It is disposed of in rivers
b) It is buried in deep geological formations with secure containment
c) It is left exposed to air to neutralize
d) It is mixed with household waste
Answer: b) It is buried in deep geological formations with secure containment
Recall:
What is the role of a control rod in a nuclear reactor?
a) To increase the speed of fission
b)To absorb neutrons and control the rate of the nuclear reaction
c) To convert heat into electricity
d) To protect the reactor from gamma radiation
Answer: b) To absorb neutrons and control the rate of the nuclear reaction
Understanding:
What is the advantage of using nuclear fusion over nuclear fission for energy production?
a) Fusion produces less energy
b) Fusion produces minimal radioactive waste
c) Fusion requires less heat
d) Fusion is easier to achieve at low temperatures
Answer: b) Fusion produces minimal radioactive waste

Short Answer Type Questions

Recall:
Define atomic number (Z).
Answer: The atomic number (Z) is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom. It determines the
element's identity.
Recall:
What is mass number (A)?
Answer: The mass number (A) is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.
Understanding:
Explain radioactivity.
Answer: Radioactivity is the spontaneous disintegration of an unstable atomic nucleus, emitting
radiation in the form of alpha, beta, or gamma particles.
Application:
How does the atomic number change during alpha decay?
Answer: During alpha decay, the atomic number decreases by 2 because an alpha particle (which
contains 2 protons and 2 neutrons) is emitted.
Recall:
What is a beta particle?
Answer: A beta particle is a high-energy, high-speed electron or positron emitted from the nucleus
during beta decay.
Understanding:
Why does the mass number remain unchanged during beta decay?
Answer: In beta decay, a neutron is converted into a proton and an electron. The mass number
remains the same because the total number of nucleons (protons and neutrons) does not change.
Application:
If a uranium-238 nucleus emits an alpha particle, what is the resulting element's atomic number
and mass number?
Answer: The resulting element will have an atomic number of 90 (uranium’s original atomic number
92 minus 2) and a mass number of 234 (uranium’s original mass number 238 minus 4).
Recall:
What are the three main types of radiation emitted during radioactive decay?
Answer: The three main types of radiation are alpha (α), beta (β), and gamma (γ) radiation.
Understanding:
Understanding
Why is gamma radiation more penetrating than alpha or beta radiation?
Answer: Gamma radiation is more penetrating because it consists of high-energy electromagnetic
waves that do not have mass or charge, allowing them to pass through most materials more easily.
Application:
How is radioactivity used in medicine?
Answer: Radioactivity is used in medicine for diagnostic imaging (such as PET scans) and for treating
diseases like cancer through radiotherapy.
Recall:
What is the primary use of control rods in a nuclear reactor?
Answer: Control rods are used to absorb neutrons and regulate the rate of the nuclear reaction in a
reactor.
Understanding:
Why is background radiation present in our environment?
Answer: Background radiation is present due to natural sources like cosmic rays, radon gas, and
radioactive materials in the soil, as well as artificial sources such as medical equipment and nuclear
facilities.
Application:
Explain why proper disposal of nuclear waste is important.
Answer: Proper disposal of nuclear waste is important to prevent radiation leakage, which can harm
the environment and pose health risks to humans and animals.
Recall:
What is nuclear fission?
Answer: Nuclear fission is the process of splitting a heavy nucleus into two lighter nuclei, releasing a
large amount of energy.
Understanding:
How does nuclear fusion differ from nuclear fission?
Answer: Nuclear fusion involves combining two light nuclei to form a heavier nucleus, releasing energy,
while nuclear fission splits a heavy nucleus into lighter ones.
Application:
Why is nuclear fusion considered a cleaner source of energy compared to nuclear fission?
Answer: Nuclear fusion produces minimal radioactive waste and does not generate long-lived
radioactive materials like nuclear fission does.
Recall:
What happens to the atomic number when a nucleus emits an alpha particle?
Answer: The atomic number decreases by 2 when a nucleus emits an alpha particle.
Understanding:
Why is alpha radiation not as dangerous externally but harmful when ingested or inhaled?
Answer: Alpha particles cannot penetrate the skin, making them less dangerous externally. However,
when ingested or inhaled, they can cause significant damage to internal tissues due to their high
ionizing power.
Application:
If a thorium-234 nucleus undergoes beta decay, what will be the resulting element's atomic number
and mass number?
Answer: The atomic number will increase by 1 (from 90 to 91), and the mass number will remain the
same at 234.
Recall:
What safety precautions are necessary when working with radioactive materials?
Answer: Safety precautions include wearing protective clothing, using lead shields to block radiation,
minimizing exposure time, and maintaining a safe distance from the source.