Financial Management 2020 Question Bank
Financial Management 2020 Question Bank
FINANCIAL
MANAGEMENT
Question Bank
www.icaew.com
Financial Management
The Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales
ISBN: 978-1-5097-2782-7
Previous ISBN: 978-1-5097-2137-5
© ICAEW 2019
Risk management
26 Fratton plc (June 2011) 9, 10 30 45 40 198
27 Sunwin plc (December 2012) 9 26 39 41 200
28 Padd Shoes Ltd (March 2014) 9, 10 30 45 42 203
29 Lambourn plc (Sample paper) 9, 10 30 45 43 205
30 Bridge Engineering plc
(December 2015) 9 30 45 44 208
Appendix
Formulae and discount tables
Syllabus Study
learning Manual
Topic area outcome(s) Question number(s) chapter(s)
2 Profitis plc
Profitis plc has a continuing need for a machine. At the level of intensity of use by the company,
after four years from new the machine is not capable of efficient working. It has been the
company's practice to replace it every four years. The production manager has pointed out that
in the fourth year the machine needs additional maintenance to keep it working at normal
efficiency. The question has therefore arisen as to whether to replace it after three years instead
of the usual four years.
3 Horton plc
3.1 The objective of the directors of Horton plc (Horton) is the maximisation of shareholder
wealth. The directors are currently considering Horton's capital investment strategy for
20Y0. Five potential investment projects have been identified, each one having an
expected life of four years. However, at this stage the directors are uncertain of the precise
financial situation the company will be in on 31 December 20X9 when it will actually make
its chosen investments. The company accountant has already undertaken net present value
calculations for each of the five potential investment projects as follows:
Initial Investment (31.12.X9) Net Present Value (31.12.X9)
£ £
Project 1 (2,400,000) 2,676,600
Project 2 (2,250,000) (461,700)
Project 3 (3,000,000) 4,111,500
Project 4 (2,630,000) 2,016,250
Project 5 (3,750,000) (45,250)
Whilst these net present value calculations include the impact of corporation tax, which the
company pays at 17%, they do not include the effect of capital allowances. Project 3 is the
only project that will attract capital allowances and these allowances will apply just to the
initial £3 million investment. The allowances will be at a rate of 18% per annum on a
4 ProBuild plc
ProBuild plc (ProBuild) runs a network of builders' merchants in northern England. The company
has a small subsidiary, Cabin Ltd (Cabin) that hires out various types of portable cabin used on
building sites. In recent years, Cabin's performance (relative to that of ProBuild's core business)
has been disappointing and the directors of ProBuild have decided that they should focus
resources on their core operations and dispose of Cabin.
Having advertised the business for sale, ProBuild has now been approached by the directors of
Brixham plc (Brixham) with an offer to buy Cabin on 31 December 20X3. Brixham has agreed, in
principle, to pay ProBuild the net present value (as at 31 December 20X3) of the projected
incremental net cash flows of Cabin over the four-year period to 31 December 20X7.
You have been asked by Brixham's directors to calculate an appropriate purchase price using
the following information which has been provided by ProBuild and verified by independent
accountants:
(1) All cash flows can be assumed to occur at the end of the relevant year unless otherwise
stated.
(2) Inflation is expected to average 2% pa for all costs and revenues.
(3) The real discount rates applicable to the appraisal of this investment are:
20X4: 5%
20X5: 6%
20X6: 7%
20X7: 7%
(4) During the past five years, Cabin's annual revenue (at 31 December 20X3 prices) has been
extremely volatile, having peaked at £2 million in one year, whilst falling to a low of
£1.2 million in another year.
(5) During the past five years, Cabin's variable costs have been similarly volatile, being as low
as 25% of annual revenue in one year, whilst having been as high as 30% of annual revenue
in another year. There has been no direct correlation between annual revenue and variable
costs during the past five years.
(6) It has been estimated that under Brixham's ownership, annual fixed costs will be
£0.6 million (at 31 December 20X3 prices), including a share of Brixham's existing head
office costs equal to £0.25 million.
To: A Newman
From: Diana Marshall
As you are aware, our chief accountant, John Smith, left Frome Lee earlier this week following a
disagreement over company policy.
As a result we desperately need financial advice from you. We are considering the purchase of
capital equipment for the manufacture of a new radio, The Pink 'Un. Our marketing team feels
that we would have a competitive advantage with this new radio for three years. Mr Smith had
prepared some estimated figures which we were going to consider at our next meeting on
Monday and he left some of them behind. You will find my summary of them (with some of my
notes) in the Appendix below. We would want to purchase the equipment at the end of our
financial year on 30 September, commence production very soon after and sell the equipment
at the end of September 20Y1.
Demand in each subsequent year of the project's life would remain at the first year's expected
level.
Financial information about the new machinery and NBL 1114 is shown here in Table 2:
Table 2
NBL 1114's period of competitive advantage (1 April 20X1 to 31 March 20X4) 3 years
Maximum annual output of new machinery (units of NBL 1114) 12,800
Cost of new machinery (payable on 31 March 20X1) £480,000
Scrap value of new machinery (at end of three year period, ie, 31 March 20X4) £nil
NBL 1114's contribution per unit (based on a selling price per unit of £65) £33
Additional annual fixed costs incurred (including annual depreciation charge of
£160,000) £300,000
Extra working capital required at 31 March 20X1 (recoverable in full on
31 March 20X4) £50,000
Working capital
The working capital requirement for each year must be in place at the start of the relevant year.
7 Newmarket plc
Newmarket plc (Newmarket), a listed company, has recently developed a new lawnmower, the
NL500. Development of the NL500 was supported by market research which was undertaken by
an external agency who agreed that their £10,000 fee would only be payable if the NL500 was
actually launched, with payment due at the end of the NL500's first year on the market.
Newmarket's directors estimate that the market life of the NL500 will be five years but they
would be willing to launch the NL500 only if they were satisfied that the required investment
would generate a net present value of at least £300,000, using a discount factor of 10% pa.
Production and sale of the NL500 would commence on 1 July 20X3 and would require
investment by Newmarket in new production equipment costing £750,000, payable on 30 June
20X3. On 30 June 20X8 it is expected that this equipment could be sold back to the original
vendor for £50,000. Newmarket depreciates plant and equipment in equal annual instalments
over its useful life.
The company's directors would like to assume that the corporation tax rate will be 17% for the
foreseeable future, and it can be assumed that tax payments would occur at the end of the
accounting year to which they relate. The directors are also assuming that the new production
facilities would attract capital allowances of 18% pa on a reducing balance basis commencing in
the year of purchase and continuing throughout the company's ownership of the equipment. A
balancing charge or allowance would arise on disposal of the equipment on 30 June 20X8. It
can be assumed that sufficient profits would be available for Newmarket to claim all such tax
allowances in the year they arise.
9 Wicklow plc
Wicklow plc (Wicklow) is a manufacturer of prestige cast iron cookers, having a long-standing
reputation for selling distinctive high price, high quality cookers to an increasingly global
market. In the face of growing competition from firms offering slightly more modern style
cookers at much lower prices, Wicklow's recent strategy has been to introduce a 'Heritage'
version of some of its major product lines. The aim has been to emphasise the original design
features of the brand and to differentiate itself further from its competitors.
Wicklow is currently considering the introduction of a 'Heritage' version of its existing 'Duo'
product, a standard two-oven cooker. Wicklow has recently spent £375,000 developing the new
version of the product, to be known as the Duo Heritage (DH).
Production of the DH would require Wicklow to invest £2 million in new machinery and
equipment on 31 December 20X8. Based on past experience, the directors are assuming that
this machinery and equipment will have a disposal value on 31 December 20Y2 of £200,000.
Sales of the DH would be expected to commence during the year ending 31 December 20X9.
Based on a unit selling price of £7,000, Wicklow's marketing director has estimated that unit
sales in 20X9 will be either 1,500 (0.65 probability) or 2,000 (0.35 probability). In view of the
uncertainty of unit demand in the first year of production, the marketing director has also
forecast that if 20X9 sales were to be 1,500 units, then 20Y0 sales would be estimated at either
1,800 units (0.7 probability) or 2,000 units (0.3 probability). However, if 20X9 sales were to be
2,000 units, 20Y0 sales would be estimated at either 2,200 units (0.6 probability) or 2,500 units
(0.4 probability). In 20Y1 and 20Y2 unit sales would be 110% of the expected unit sales in 20Y0.
In each year production will equal sales, which can be assumed to occur on the last day of each
year.
As with other similar 'Heritage' product launches, the company invariably experiences a
consequent loss of sales on the original product line. In this particular case, the expectation is
that for every two DHs sold, the sale of one standard Duo oven will be lost. This effect would be
10 Daniels Ltd
Daniels Ltd (Daniels) is a large civil engineering company and it has a financial year end of
31 May. Much of Daniels' work involves long-term contracts for the railway industry. You work for
Daniels and have been asked for advice by the board on the following problems:
Problem 1
Daniels is considering a major investment involving five possible projects in the West of England
and South Wales which have been put out to tender. Daniels' board of directors has prepared
the following estimated cash flows (and resultant net present values at 31 May 20X7) for the five
projects:
Investment Year to Year to Year to
Project Location on 31/5/X7 31/5/X8 31/5/X9 31/5/Y0 NPV
£'000 £'000 £'000 £'000 £'000
B Bristol (4,150) (1,290) 530 7,270 577
C Cardiff (3,870) (1,310) 3,130 1,550 (1,309)
G Gloucester (6,400) 1,770 2,160 3,160 (632)
S Swansea (5,000) (2,610) 6,450 6,520 2,856
T Tiverton (4,600) 1,290 2,870 3,620 1,664
You can assume that the net present values shown in the table above are accurate.
Due to financial constraints, the company, if successful with its tenders, would be unable to take
on all five projects. The board is prepared to release £8 million for initial investment (on 31 May
20X7) into one or more of the projects, but might increase this figure to £9 million if there are
grounds for doing so. An alternative scenario which has been considered would be to make
available sufficient funds to start all five projects in May 20X7, but this would limit the capital
available in the year to 31 May 20X8 to a maximum of only £500,000.
Problem 2
Daniels runs a fleet of vans to support its operations. Currently it replaces those vans every three
years, but the board is not sure whether this is in the company's best interests. Vans cost, on
average, £12,400 each. Daniels' transport manager has prepared the following schedule of
costs and resale values for the vans:
Maintenance and
running costs Resale value
£ £
In first year of van's life 4,300 After one year 9,800
In second year of van's life 4,800 After two years 7,000
In third year of van's life 5,100 After three years 5,000
12 Alliance plc
You should assume that the current date is 31 December 20X5.
Alliance plc (Alliance) is a manufacturer of electronic devices. At a recent board meeting two
agenda items were discussed as follows:
(1) The possible development of an automatic watering system (Autowater) for indoor potted
plants in private houses and business premises. The sales director commented that there
are similar more expensive products on the market and it is likely that competitors will
develop their technology and bring down their prices in future. Therefore, it would be
prudent to assume a life cycle of four years for the Autowater.
(2) For other projects that have already been appraised using NPV analysis, the 20X6 capital
expenditure budget (excluding Autowater) should not exceed £350 million. The
£350 million will be allocated to projects, excluding Autowater, on the basis of maximising
shareholder wealth.
The chairman of Alliance closed the meeting with the following statement:
"We will continue to see excellent opportunities to invest in profitable projects across
our business and we have no difficulty in raising finance. However we will be
disciplined in our approach to committing to capital expenditure. I would now like the
finance director to evaluate the Autowater project and to determine in which other
projects the £350 million 20X6 capital expenditure budget is going to be invested."
A 100 180
B 50 90
C 40 100
D 140 150
E 100 140
Requirements
12.1 Using money cash flows, calculate the net present value of the Autowater project on
31 December 20X5 and advise the board whether it should accept the project. (16 marks)
12.2 Ignoring the effects on working capital, calculate the sensitivity of the Autowater project to
changes in sales revenue and indicate whether there is a sufficient margin of safety for the
project to go ahead. (4 marks)
13 Turners plc
Turners plc (Turners) is a listed company in the food retailing sector and has large stores in all
the major cities in the UK. Turners' board is considering diversifying by opening holiday travel
shops in all of its stores.
At a recent board meeting the directors were discussing how the holiday travel shops project
('the project') should be appraised. The sales director insisted that Turners' current weighted
average cost of capital (WACC) should be used to appraise the project as the majority of its
operations will still be in food retailing. The finance director disagreed because the existing cost
of equity does not take into account the systematic risk of the new project. The finance director
also said that the company's overall WACC, which reflects all of the company's activities, would
change as a result of the project's acceptance. The board were also concerned about the
market's reaction to their diversification plans. A further board meeting was scheduled at which
Turners' advisors would be asked to make a presentation on the project.
You work for Turners' advisors and have been asked to prepare information for the presentation.
You have established the following:
Turners intends to raise the capital required for the project in such a way as to leave its existing
debt:equity ratio (by market values) unchanged following the diversification.
Extracts from Turners' most recent management accounts are shown below:
Balance sheet at 31 May 20X4
£m
Ordinary share capital (10p shares) 233
Retained earnings 5,030
5,263
6% Redeemable debentures at nominal value (redeemable 20X8) 1,900
Long term bank loans (interest rate 4%) 635
7,798
On 31 May 20X4 Turners' ordinary shares had a market value of 276p (ex-div) and an equity beta
of 0.60. For the year ended 31 May 20X4 the dividend yield was 4.2% and the earnings per
share were 25p. The return on the market is expected to be 8% pa and the risk-free rate 2% pa.
Turners' debentures had a market value of £108 (ex-interest) per £100 nominal value on 31 May 20X4
and they are redeemable at par on 31 May 20X8.
Companies operating solely in the holiday travel industry have an average equity beta of 1.40
and an average debt: equity ratio (by market values) of 3:5. It has been estimated that if the
project goes ahead the overall equity beta of Turners will be made up of 90% food retailing and
10% holiday travel shops.
Assume that the corporation tax rate will be 17% pa for the foreseeable future.
Requirements
13.1 Ignoring the project, calculate the current WACC of Turners using:
(a) The CAPM (8 marks)
(b) The Gordon growth model (6 marks)
13.2 Using the CAPM, calculate the cost of equity that should be included in a WACC suitable for
appraising the project and explain your reasoning. (6 marks)
14 Middleham plc
Middleham plc (Middleham) is a company involved in the production of printing inks used in a
wide range of applications in the food packaging industry. The directors of Middleham are
currently considering a £2 million investment in new production facilities. At the present time,
the company's finance director is seeking to establish an appropriate cost of capital figure for
use in the appraisal of the proposed investment. Extracts from Middleham's most recent
financial statements for the year ended 31 March 20X3 are shown below:
£'000
Ordinary share capital (50p shares) 3,200
5% irredeemable preference share capital (50p shares) 1,400
Reserves 7,000
11,600
7% debentures (at nominal value) 1,500
13,100
Current liabilities 3,700
Total equity and liabilities 16,800
£'000
Profit before taxation 3,000
Taxation (510)
Preference share dividends (70)
Ordinary share dividends (1,088)
The market prices for the company's shares and debentures on 31 March 20X3 were:
(1) Ordinary shares: £1.42 each (cum-div)
(2) 5% irredeemable preference shares: £0.20 each (ex-div)
(3) 7% debentures: £105.00 (per £100 nominal)
The ordinary dividend for the year ended 31 March 20X3 is due to be paid shortly. This is the
first dividend paid since the year ended 31 March 20W9, when the dividend payout ratio was
40% and the earnings per share were £0.35. Middleham's directors expect future dividends to
grow at the annual growth rate implied by the dividends paid in 20W9 and 20X3. The number of
ordinary shares in issue has not changed since March 20W9.
The annual debenture interest has recently been paid. The 7% debentures are redeemable at
par in 10 years' time.
Shares in the industrial sector in which Middleham operates typically have an equity beta of 1.3
with a debt to equity ratio of 1:1. The risk free rate is 6% pa and the return from the market
portfolio is 14% pa.
The company's finance director has proposed that, if the investment is undertaken, then an issue
of redeemable debentures is used to finance it. However, Middleham's Chief Executive has
expressed concerns about the possible use of redeemable debentures. His view is that
increasing the number of debentures issued by the company will increase the company's
16 Puerto plc
You should assume that it is now 1 December 20X3.
Puerto plc (Puerto) is listed on the UK stock market and operates in the vehicle leasing industry.
During a period of expansion from 20W3 to 20W7 the company funded growth by way of
convertible loans obtained from an investment bank, SM Capital (SMC). As a result of the global
economic downturn Puerto has experienced a number of trading difficulties, and the company
ceased to pay dividends to its ordinary shareholders in 20W8. Since 20W9 Puerto has embarked
on a significant restructuring of its business. Although in the current year to 30 November 20X3
the company has sustained losses, industry conditions have stabilised giving both the board of
Puerto and SMC confidence in the company's future. This confidence is also shared by the UK
stock market as Puerto's share price has been increasing over the last six months to 10p per
ordinary share on 30 November 20X3.
Extracts from Puerto's most recent management accounts are shown below:
Income statement for the year ended 30 November 20X3
£'000
Operating profit 2,280
Interest (2,460)
Profit/(loss) before tax (180)
Taxation 0
Profit/(loss) after tax (180)
The board of Puerto is now considering a further restructuring that includes the purchase on
1 December 20X3 of another vehicle leasing business that in the last financial year achieved a
pre-tax operating profit of £3 million. The purchase price for this business is £24 million. The
board is confident it will be able to raise the additional borrowings required for this purchase on
1 December 20X3, particularly as SMC, as part of the restructuring, has agreed to exercise its
option to convert its convertible loans into equity on that date in order to participate in Puerto's
future growth potential. The board and SMC believe that Puerto's share price will increase
immediately on 1 December 20X3 by 35% as a result of the restructuring.
17 Abydos plc
Abydos plc is considering a large strategic investment in a significantly different line of business
to its existing operations. The scale of the new venture is such that a significant injection of
£12.5 million of new capital will be required.
The current gearing of Abydos is 80% equity and 20% debt by market value.
The new project will require outlays immediately as follows:
£'000
Plant and equipment (purchased on first day of financial year) 10,000
Working capital 1,500
Equity issue costs (not tax allowable) 700
Debt issue costs (not tax allowable) 300
12,500
On 30 November 20X5 BBB's ordinary shares each had a market value of 360p (cum-div) and an
equity beta of 1.10. For the year ended 30 November 20X5, the dividend declared was 10p per
ordinary share and the earnings yield (earnings per share divided by ex-div share price) was 7%.
BBB's debentures had a market value at 30 November 20X5 of £99 (cum-interest) per £100
nominal value and are redeemable at par on 30 November 20X9.
The market return is expected to be 7% pa and the risk free rate 2% pa.
Assume that the corporation tax rate will be 17% pa for the foreseeable future.
Requirements
19.1 Ignoring the Climbhigh project, calculate the WACC of BBB at 30 November 20X5 using:
(a) The CAPM (8 marks)
(b) The Gordon growth model (6 marks)
19.2 Using the CAPM, calculate a WACC that is suitable for appraising the Climbhigh project
and explain the rationale for using this as the discount rate for the project. (6 marks)
19.3 By calculating an overall equity beta and using the CAPM, estimate the overall WACC of
BBB assuming that the Climbhigh project goes ahead and comment upon the implications
for the value of BBB of any change from the WACC that you have calculated in 19.1(a)
above. (6 marks)
19.4 Advise BBB on how political risk could potentially affect the value of the Climbhigh project
and how it might limit its effects where such risk exists. (6 marks)
19.5 Explain the ethical issues for the finance director in relation to the email received from the
contractor who wishes to tender for building one of the climbing walls, and briefly outline
the action that he should take. (3 marks)
Total: 35 marks
20 Cern Ltd
20.1 Cern Ltd (Cern) is an unquoted company that manufactures a range of products used in the
construction industry. Extracts from the most recent management accounts of Cern are set
out below:
Income statement for the year ended 30 September 20X2
£
Profit before interest and tax 1,080,000
Interest (180,000)
Profit before tax 900,000
Tax (17%) (153,000)
Profit after tax 747,000
Non-current assets £ £
Intangibles 900,000
Freehold land and property 1,800,000
Plant and equipment 3,600,000
Investments 900,000
7,200,000
Current assets
Inventory 540,000
Receivables 1,080,000
Cash 180,000
1,800,000
Current liabilities (1,080,000)
720,000
7,920,000
Equity and non-current liabilities
Ordinary share capital (£1 shares) 3,600,000
6% Preference shares (£1 shares) 720,000
Retained earnings 1,800,000
6,120,000
10% Debentures 1,800,000
7,920,000
The following information is also available:
(1) In the two previous financial years the profit before interest and tax was:
• year ended 30 September 20X1: £440,000.
• year ended 30 September 20X0: £1,800,000.
(2) The current market value of the preference shares has been estimated at £0.90 per
preference share.
(3) The current market value of the debentures has been estimated at £110 per £100 of
debentures.
(4) The current rental value of the freehold land and property is £270,000 pa and this
represents a 6% return.
21 Wexford plc
Wexford plc (Wexford) is a listed manufacturer of dairy products. In recent years the company
has experienced only modest levels of growth, but following the recent retirement of the chief
executive, his replacement is keen to expand Wexford's operations.
It is currently December 20X8 and the board of directors has recently agreed to support a
proposal by the new chief executive that the company purchase new manufacturing equipment
to enable it to expand its range of yoghurt-based products. The new equipment will cost
£25 million and the company is seeking to raise new finance to fund the expenditure in full.
However, the board of directors is undecided as to how the new finance is to be raised. The
directors are considering either a 1 for 5 rights issue at a price of 250p per share or a floating
rate loan of £25 million at an initial interest rate of 8% per annum. The company's bank has
agreed to provide the £25 million loan. The loan would be for a term of five years, with interest
paid annually in arrears and with the capital being repaid in full at maturity. The loan would be
secured against the company's freehold land and buildings.
You are employed by Wexford as a company accountant and have been able to obtain the
following additional information:
As a result of the investment in the new machinery, the directors aim to increase the
company's revenue by 15% per annum for the foreseeable future.
It is expected that direct costs, other than depreciation, will, on average, increase by 18% during
the year ending 30 November 20X9 due to the 'learning curve' effects associated with the new
machinery.
Indirect costs are expected to increase by £10 million in the year to 30 November 20X9.
The ratios of receivables to sales and payables to direct costs (excluding depreciation) will
remain the same as in the year to 30 November 20X8.
Depreciation on assets existing at 30 November 20X8 is forecast to be £18 million in the
year ending 30 November 20X9.
Depreciation on the new machinery will be 20% per annum on a straight line basis
commencing in the year of purchase.
Capital allowances can be assumed to be equal to the depreciation charged in a particular
year.
The company's inventory levels are expected to increase by £10 million as a result of the
increased levels of business.
Tax is payable at a rate of 17% per annum in the year in which the liability arises.
Dividends are payable the year following their declaration and the board of directors has
confirmed to the bank its intention to maintain the company's current dividend payout ratio
for the foreseeable future.
Requirements
21.1 For each of the financing alternatives being considered, prepare a forecast income
statement for the year ending 30 November 20X9 and a forecast Balance sheet at
30 November 20X9. (16 marks)
Note: Transaction costs on the issuing of new capital and returns on surplus cash invested
in the short term can both be ignored.
21.2 Write a report (including appropriate calculations) to Wexford's board of directors that fully
evaluates the two potential methods of financing the company's expansion plans.
(14 marks)
Total: 30 marks
Notes
1 These assets have been professionally valued on 28 February 20X4 as follows:
Hampton Richmond
£m £m
Non-current assets 45.2 24.1
Current assets 25.1 35.2
2 The non-current liabilities are all debentures, redeemable within the next six years, with
coupon rates as follows: Walton 7%, Hampton, 7%; Richmond, 8%. The debentures are
currently trading at: Walton £125, Hampton £110, Richmond £80.
Assume that the corporation tax rate will be 17% pa for the foreseeable future.
Client Two
Jackie Wight has run a very successful fashion business, Regent Spark Ltd, for many years and is
now considering selling it and taking early retirement. She has read a recent article in the
financial press and is concerned that she won't get a fair price for her company. As a result she
has contacted Loxwood for guidance. The following is an extract from the article:
'Angel Ventures (AV) recently bid for biometrics company Praed Bio (PB), offering PB's
shareholders £5.20 a share. Maida Money (MM), a hedge fund that owns PB shares, disliked
23 Sennen plc
You should assume that the current date is 31 May 20X4.
Sennen plc (Sennen) is a UK listed company in the chemical industry. Morgan plc (Morgan) is a
UK listed company that has a policy of expanding by way of acquisition. As a result of financing
its acquisitions with borrowings, Morgan's gearing is high compared to its competitors.
Morgan has identified Sennen as a potential takeover target and intends to make an offer for all
of the ordinary shares of the company. The finance director of Morgan wishes to value Sennen's
ordinary shares including any synergistic benefits that may arise following the acquisition. He is
also considering the advantages and disadvantages of the different methods that can be used to
pay for the ordinary shares. The intended offer for Sennen is not public knowledge.
The market values of Tower's long-term finance on 31 August 20X4 are shown below:
£1 ordinary share capital £4.20/share
6% £1 preference shares £0.80/share
5% debentures £110%
As a result of these discussions the board decided to explore the implications of making a 1 for
2 rights issue which would raise sufficient funds to purchase and cancel 60% of Tower's
debentures by market value.
25 Brennan plc
Brennan plc is a family run business, which obtained a stock market listing around three years
ago. The board is comprised of 75% of members of the founding family. Brennan plc has a
current stock market capitalisation of £250 million and the board owns 45% of the issued shares.
The net book value of assets held by Brennan plc is £300 million.
Brennan currently enjoys competitive advantage through being a low cost producer and the
board feels that this competitive advantage is likely to continue for the next six years. The
following information relating to Brennan and the period of competitive advantage is available.
Current sales revenue £200 million
Estimated sales growth 6%
Operating profit margin after depreciation 15%
Additional working capital investment 7% of sales increase
Additional non-current asset investment 12% of sales increase
Following the end of the period of competitive advantage, cash flows are expected to remain
constant for the foreseeable future.
Brennan plc currently has no long-term debt and holds short-term investments worth
£2.5 million. The corporation tax rate is expected to be 17% for the foreseeable future.
Brennan plc has an equity beta of 0.75, the risk free rate of interest is 3% and the return on the
market portfolio is 11%.
Brennan plc has a policy of paying out 10% of its post-tax earnings as dividends.
26 Fratton plc
26.1 Fratton plc (Fratton) trades extensively in Europe. The firm is due to receive €2,960,000 in
three months' time. The following information is available:
(1) The spot exchange rate is currently €1.1845 – 1.1856/£.
(2) The three-month forward rate of exchange is currently at a 0.79 – 0.59 cent premium.
(3) The prices of three-month sterling traded option contracts (premiums in cents per £
are payable up front, with a standard contract size of £10,000) are as follows:
Exercise price Calls Puts
€1.18 2.40 1.20
(4) Annual interest rates at the present time are as follows:
Deposit Borrowing
UK 1.15% 2.40%
Eurozone 0.75% 1.60%
Requirements
(a) Calculate the net sterling receipt that Fratton can expect in three months' time if it
hedges its foreign exchange exposure using:
the forward market
the money market
the options market, assuming the spot exchange rate in three months is:
– €1.1185 – 1.1200/£
– €1.1985 – 1.2000/£ (14 marks)
(b) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using futures contracts as opposed to
forward contracts when hedging foreign currency exposure. (7 marks)
26.2 In addition, in three months' time Fratton will be drawing down a three-month £2.5 million
loan facility which is granted each year by its bank to see the firm through its peak
borrowing period. The following information is available:
(1) The quotation for a '3–6' forward rate agreement is currently 2.60 – 1.35.
(2) The spot rate of interest today is 2.40% pa and the relevant three-month sterling
interest rate futures contract (standard contract size £500,000) is currently trading at
97.20.
Requirements
(a) Explain how Fratton could use a forward rate agreement to resolve the uncertainty
surrounding its future borrowing costs and show the effect if, in three months' time, the
spot rate of interest is 3% pa. (4 marks)
(b) Explain how Fratton could use sterling interest rate futures to hedge its exposure to
interest rate risk and show the effect if, in three months' time, the spot rate of interest is
3% pa and the price of the interest rate futures contract has fallen to 97. (5 marks)
Total: 30 marks
Call Put Call Put Call Put Call Put Call Put
Requirements
Demonstrate how FTSE 100 index options can be used by the trustees to hedge the pension
fund's exposure to falling share prices and show the outcome if, on 31 December 20X2, the
portfolio's value:
(a) Rises to £6.608 million and the FTSE index rises to 5,900
(b) Falls to £4.592 million and the FTSE index falls to 4,100 (8 marks)
27.2 It is 1 December 20X2 and Sunwin's board of directors has recently agreed to purchase
machinery from a UK supplier on 28 February 20X3. The firm's cash flow forecasts reveal
that the firm will need to borrow £4 million on 28 February 20X3 for a period of nine months.
The directors are concerned that short-term sterling interest rates may rise between now
and the end of February and are considering the use of either sterling short-term interest
rate futures or traded interest rate options on futures to hedge against the firm's exposure
to interest rate rises.
The spot rate of interest on 1 December is 3% pa and March three-month sterling interest
rate futures with a contract size of £500,000 are trading at 96. Information regarding traded
interest options on futures on 1 December 20X2 is as follows:
Calls Puts
29 Lambourn plc
Throughout both parts of this question you should assume that today's date is 30 June 20X2.
29.1 Lambourn plc (Lambourn) is a UK company that trades in a range of pharmaceutical
products. It buys and sells these products in the UK and also in the USA, where it trades with
three companies – Biotron Inc., Hope Inc. and USMed Inc.
In the past, the relatively low level of trading with US companies has meant that Lambourn
has not hedged its foreign currency exposure. However, due to increases in the level of
trade conducted in the USA, Lambourn's finance director is now considering the use of a
variety of hedging instruments.
Receipts and payments in respect of the following exports and imports (designated in the
currencies shown) are due in six months' time:
Receipts due from exports to:
Biotron Inc. $600,000
Hope Inc. £400,000
USMed Inc. $200,000
Payments due on imports from:
Biotron Inc. $1,100,000
Hope Inc. £900,000
USMed Inc. $1,250,000
Exchange rates at the present time are as follows:
Spot $1.6666 – 1.6720/£
3-month forward premium 0.90c – 0.98c
6-month forward premium 2.49c – 2.65c
Sterling currency options (standard contract size £10,000) are currently priced as follows
(with premiums, payable up front, quoted in cents per £):
Calls Puts
Strike Price September December September December
$1.63 3.67 4.59 0.06 1.69
$1.65 2.35 3.07 1.63 3.43
$1.67 1.82 2.65 2.04 5.55
Notes
1 New equipment required for the production of AP525 will cost £1,150,000 on 31 March
20X6 and will be sold on 31 March 20X9 for an agreed price of £100,000 (in 31 March 20X9
prices).
AP depreciates its equipment on a straight-line basis. A full year's depreciation is charged
in the year of purchase and none in the year of sale.
If this new equipment is purchased, existing equipment, which originally cost £120,000
many years ago and has a tax written down value of zero, will be sold on 31 March 20X6 for
£70,000.
The new equipment will attract 18% (reducing balance) capital allowances in the year of
expenditure and in every subsequent year of ownership by the company, except the final
year. In the final year, the difference between the equipment's written down value for tax
purposes and its disposal proceeds will be treated by the company either as a:
balancing allowance, if the disposal proceeds are less than the tax written down
value; or
balancing charge, if the disposal proceeds are more than the tax written down value.
2 The new equipment will take up extra space, which will have to be rented for three years.
The rent would be at a fixed annual amount of £80,000, payable in advance, with the first
payment due on 31 March 20X6.
3 £130,000 of these fixed costs per annum are existing head office costs that will be allocated
to the project.
34 Zeus plc
You should assume that the current date is 30 June 20X6.
Zeus plc (Zeus) is a large clothing retailer. Over the past five years it has built up an internet
based division, Venus, which specialises in selling to 16–24 year old female customers.
At a recent board meeting the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Zeus stated that:
"Venus has been successful, but we have not been able to get the value out of it that we initially
expected and the management time involved in running Venus is damaging the financial
performance of the group as a whole. Because internet-based companies have very high values
compared to non-internet companies with similar earnings, I feel that there could be more value
in Venus if it operated outside of our group. I think that we should divest ourselves of Venus and
appoint a financial advisor to assist us in the process. I wonder whether an Initial Public Offering
(IPO), where the shares are brought to the stock market for the first time, is a possibility."
The board agreed with the CEO and voted in favour of the divestment of Venus. Starr
Accountants (SA), a firm of ICAEW Chartered Accountants, has been appointed to give advice to
Zeus regarding the value of Venus and the potential IPO. In their valuation SA would like to use
net present value analysis and also a multiple of earnings. In addition to general corporate
finance work, SA also has a team that specialises in giving investment advice to clients who buy
shares in IPOs.
Extracts from Venus's most recent management accounts are shown below:
Balance sheet value of net assets at 30 June 20X6: £39 million.
Income statement for the year ended 30 June 20X6
£m
Sales 140.0
Cost of sales (56.0)
Gross profit 84.0
Selling and administration costs (72.0)
Operating profit 12.0
Taxation 17% (2.0)
Profit after tax 10.0
On 31 May 20X6 Ross's ordinary shares each had a market value of 576p (cum-div) and an
equity beta of 0.65. For the year ended 31 May 20X6, the dividend declared was 11p per
ordinary share and the earnings yield (earnings per share divided by the ex-div share price) was
6%.
Ross's 6% coupon debentures had a market value on 31 May 20X6 of £111 (cum-interest) per
£100 nominal value and are redeemable at par on 31 May 20Y0.
Requirements
35.1 Ignoring the Happytours project, calculate the WACC of Ross at 31 May 20X6 using:
(a) The Gordon growth model (12 marks)
(b) The CAPM (2 marks)
35.2 Explain the limitations of the Gordon growth model. (3 marks)
35.3 Using the CAPM, calculate a WACC that is suitable for appraising the Happytours project
and explain your rationale. (6 marks)
35.4 Assuming that £75 million is raised from the new 4% coupon debentures issued on 1 June 20X6,
calculate the issue price per £100 nominal value and the total nominal value that will have
to be issued. Comment on the issue terms for these new debentures. (7 marks)
35.5 Explain what is meant by a convertible debenture and outline the advantages and
disadvantages for Ross in raising finance using this type of debt. (5 marks)
Total: 35 marks
36.3 Sheldon's managers would like an explanation regarding the time value of the FTSE 100
index options.
Requirement
Explain the three factors that will affect the time value of the FTSE 100 index options in
36.2 above. (3 marks)
Total: 30 marks
Email attachment:
Income statement for the year ended 31 August 20X6
£'000
Revenue 9,390
Working assumptions
(1) Darlo's fixed assets were revalued at 31 August 20X6 as follows:
£'000
Freehold land and buildings 3,150
Equipment 3,370
These revalued amounts have not been recognised in the balance sheet at 31 August 20X6.
(2) The average price/earnings ratio for listed businesses in Darlo's industrial sector is 10 and
the average dividend yield is 8%.
(3) A discount rate of 12% pa appropriately reflects the risk of Darlo's cash flows.
40 Ribble plc
You should assume that the current date is 31 December 20X6.
Ribble plc (Ribble), a UK company, manufactures hoverboards and other products. Hoverboards
are a form of self-balancing scooter powered by rechargeable batteries. In the last two years
total UK sales of hoverboards have increased rapidly but major concerns have arisen over their
safety and, even though they are still in high demand, some retailers have stopped selling them.
At a recent directors' meeting of Ribble the chief executive officer (CEO), who is an ICAEW
Chartered Accountant, presented a research and development report (that had cost £100,000)
on a new and safer hoverboard; the Ribbleboard. The CEO stated that he believed the new
Ribbleboard could be successfully marketed for a period of four years and would replace the
company's existing hoverboard, the Ribflyer. The directors decided that a project appraisal
should be undertaken to ascertain whether the Ribbleboard should be marketed. Some
directors felt that as there is a continuing demand for the Ribflyer, even though there are
concerns about its safety, it should still be manufactured and sold rather than taking the risk of
marketing the Ribbleboard. There was also concern that a rival company was known to be developing
a new safer hoverboard and it is likely to launch it onto the market on 31 December 20X7.
The following information is available regarding the Ribbleboard project:
• The selling price will be £299 per unit in the year to 31 December 20X7 and will remain
fixed in each subsequent year of the product's life. The contribution for the year to
31 December 20X7 is expected to be 45% of the selling price. The variable cost of
producing the Ribbleboard is expected to increase by 5% pa in the three years to
31 December 20Y0.
• The number of units sold in the year to 31 December 20X7 is expected to be 8,000 per
month. For the year to 31 December 20X8 the number of units sold is expected to increase
by 20%. For the remaining two years to 31 December 20Y0, the number of units sold is
expected to decline by 15% pa.
• The new specialist equipment required to manufacture the Ribbleboard requires more
space than Ribble currently has available. Therefore, Ribble will use factory space that it
currently owns and rents out for storage to another company for a fixed rent of £1 million pa
payable in advance on 31 December. The space will be re-let for £1 million pa at the end of
the project on 31 December 20Y0.
• If the project goes ahead, two managers who had already accepted voluntary redundancy
would be asked to remain employed until 31 December 20Y0 and manage the project at a
salary of £60,000 pa each. These managers were due to leave on 31 December 20X6 and
receive lump sum payments of £50,000 each at that time. They will now receive lump sum
payments of £60,000 each on 31 December 20Y0 when their services will no longer be
required. The managers were also due to receive consultancy fees of £25,000 pa each for
the two years ended 31 December 20X7 and 20X8. These consultancy fees would not be
paid to them if they remained employed to manage the project. All of the above salaries,
lump sums and fees are stated in money terms.
• It is estimated that for every 10 Ribbleboards sold there will be a loss of sales of one unit of
the Ribflyer, which Ribble expects to sell at a fixed selling price of £100 and a contribution
of 25%, in each of the four years to 31 December 20Y0.
Additional information:
• Middleton has an equity beta of 1.1
• The risk free rate is expected to be 3% pa
• The market return is expected to be 8% pa
• Middleton's current share price is £5 per share ex-div
• Middleton has 40 million ordinary shares in issue
Requirements
(a) Calculate, using the CAPM, Middleton's cost of capital on 31 December 20X6.
(1 mark)
(b) Assuming a 1 for 2 rights issue is made on 1 January 20X7:
• Calculate the discount the rights price represents on Middleton's current share
price.
• Calculate the theoretical ex-rights price per share.
• Discuss whether the actual share price is likely to be equal to the theoretical ex-
rights price. (5 marks)
(c) Alternatively, assuming debt is issued on 1 January 20X7:
• Calculate the issue price and total nominal value of the debentures that will have
to be issued to give a yield to redemption equal to that of Wood's debentures.
• Discuss the validity of the use of the yield to redemption of Wood's debentures in
the above calculation. (7 marks)
(d) Outline the advantages and disadvantages of the two alternative sources for raising the
£70 million, discuss the concerns of the board regarding the debenture issue (using
the gearing and interest cover information provided by the finance director) and advise
Middleton's board on which source of finance should be used. (12 marks)
42 Orion plc
You should assume that the current date is 30 November 20X6.
Orion plc (Orion) is a UK company that manufactures nutrition products which it exports to the
USA and receives payment in dollars. Orion imports raw materials from a number of countries
located in Europe and makes payments to suppliers in euros.
At a recent board meeting of Orion concern was expressed about several aspects of the
company's foreign exchange rate risk (forex) hedging strategy. Below is an extract from the
minutes of the meeting:
Managing director: "We have always hedged our forex and we should continue to do so.
But I am worried that because we import our raw materials and export our finished
products, we are subject to economic risk."
Production director: "We use derivative instruments to hedge forex and I think they are too
complicated. How do the banks calculate forward rates for example? Also can someone
explain to me what economic risk is?"
It was decided that at the next board meeting the finance director should make a presentation
to the board on the subject of forex. The finance director has asked you to prepare some
information for his presentation including an example of how receipts are hedged using
different hedging techniques.
You have the following information available to you at the close of business on 30 November 20X6:
Orion currently has substantial sterling funds on deposit.
Receipts due from USA customers on 31 March 20X7 are $5,000,000.
Exchange rates:
Spot rate ($/£) 1.4336 – 1.4340
Four month forward discount ($/£) 0.0086 – 0.0090
March currency futures price (standard contract size £62,500) $1.4410/£
Over-the-counter (OTC) currency option
A March put option to sell $ is available with an exercise price of $1.4390/£. The premium is
£0.03 per $ and is payable on 30 November 20X6.
The market values of Sentry's ordinary shares and debentures on 28 February 20X7 are:
Ordinary shares £3.44 (cum div)
7% debentures £111% (cum int)
The £20 million required would be raised on 1 March 20X7 by either:
(1) A rights issue at £2.50 per ordinary share; or
(2) An issue of 8% debentures at par, redeemable in 20Y3.
You have been asked by the directors to assume the following for the year to 28 February 20X8:
Sales will increase by 20%
The contribution to sales ratio will remain unchanged
Fixed costs will increase by £2 million pa
The current level of dividends per share will be maintained
Corporation tax will remain at 17%
45 ST Leonard Foods
You should assume that the current date is 31 March 20X7.
ST Leonard Foods (STL) is a UK frozen food company. It buys raw vegetables and fish from its
suppliers and, following processing and freezing, sells them to its customers.
You work in STL's finance team and have been asked to prepare calculations that will help STL's
management decide on the best strategy with regard to these two issues:
Issue 1 – foreign exchange rate hedging
Earlier this year STL's management signed a contract worth €1,750,000 with one of its Spanish
suppliers and the goods arrived at STL last week. In addition, it has agreed to sell €600,000
worth of frozen goods to a new customer, a French hypermarket, and these goods will be
despatched to France in 10 days' time.
46 Brighton plc
Brighton plc (Brighton) manufactures and sells various types of lock. After undertaking market
research that cost £50,000, Brighton is considering manufacturing and selling a new type of lock
for bikes. For the purposes of the initial project appraisal it can be assumed that the locks would
be manufactured in the UK. However, the board of Brighton are considering manufacturing
them overseas where labour costs and associated safety standards for employees are much
lower than in the UK. The bike lock market is highly competitive with companies entering and
leaving the market on a regular basis.
The decision on whether to introduce the new lock will be based on net present value analysis.
At a recent board meeting one of Brighton's directors quoted from a recent financial newspaper
article that he had read:
"Shareholder wealth maximisation is the generally accepted corporate objective. Net
present value analysis is the most logical way to achieve this when used in conjunction with
Shareholder Value Analysis."
The director felt that Brighton should be concerned with more than just the shareholders since
there are other stakeholders who also contribute to the business. However, some of the other
directors felt that if shareholder wealth is maximised they had fulfilled their obligations and that
the company should not be concerned about these other stakeholders.
The following data relates to the new bike lock
• The bike lock's product life-cycle is estimated to be four years and the sales volume is
expected to be 5,500 units per month in the year to 30 June 20X8. The sales volume is
expected to increase by 5% in the year to 30 June 20X9 and then decrease at the rate of
10% pa (compound) in the two years to 30 June 20Y1.
• The selling price will be £100 per lock in the year to 30 June 20X8 and will increase at
2% pa for the three years to 30 June 20Y1. The contribution per unit is expected to be 45%
of the selling price.
• Fixed production overhead costs are estimated to be £0.2 million in the year to
30 June 20X8. 50% of these fixed production overheads are centrally allocated. The fixed
production overheads are expected to increase by 3% pa in the three years to 30 June 20Y1.
• Selling and administration costs are estimated to be £0.5 million in the year to 30 June
20X8 and are expected to increase by 3% pa in the three years to 30 June 20Y1.
• Warehousing and office space that Brighton currently owns and lets to third parties for an
annual fixed rent of £0.4 million pa, payable in advance on 30 June, will be used for the
bike lock project. The rent will not increase with inflation. At the end of the project the
warehousing and office space will be re-let to third parties.
• An investment in working capital of £1 million will be required on 1 July 20X7. This will
increase at the start of each subsequent year in line with sales volume growth and selling
price increases. Working capital will be fully recoverable on 30 June 20Y1.
• An investment in plant and machinery costing £8 million will be required on 30 June 20X7
and this will not have any scrap value on 30 June 20Y1. The plant and machinery will attract
18% (reducing balance) capital allowances in the year of expenditure and in every
subsequent year of ownership by the company, except the final year.
47 Easton plc
Easton plc (Easton) is a listed company and a specialist retailer of pet-related products and
operates stores throughout the UK. The company is considering diversifying by opening
veterinary practices ('the project'), which will operate from dedicated space in all of its stores.
At a board meeting of Easton it was agreed to appraise the project using net present value
analysis. However, considerable debate took place regarding the discount factor to use and
whether the company should be diversifying at all. At the meeting the finance director said:
"I will have to calculate a weighted average cost of capital (WACC) that reflects the
systematic risk of the project. I also intend to raise the capital required for the project in
such a way as to leave our existing debt:equity ratio (by market values) unchanged
following the diversification".
Various comments made by the other attendees at the meeting were as follows:
"Why can't we just use our current WACC?"
"I have read that the shareholders of listed companies should diversify away unsystematic
risk. But I am confused as to what systematic and unsystematic risks are."
"I think that we should stick to what we know and not attempt to diversify. I am worried
about the stock market's reaction to this diversification."
"What happens if we can't maintain our existing capital structure? How do we then appraise
the project?"
On 31 May 20X7 Easton's ordinary shares had a market value of 252p each (cum-div). The
company declared a dividend of 10p per ordinary share during the year to 31 May 20X7 and it is
expected to be paid shortly. The equity beta of Easton is 0.45. The return on the market is
expected to be 9% pa and the risk free rate 2% pa.
On 31 May 20X7 Easton's 4% redeemable debentures had a market value of £109 (cum-interest)
per £100 nominal value. The debentures are due to be redeemed at par on 31 May 20Y5.
A listed company operating solely in the veterinary practices market had an equity beta of 0.80
and a debt:equity ratio by market values of 3:7 on 31 May 20X7. It has been estimated by the
finance director that if the project goes ahead the overall equity beta of Easton will be made up
of 75% pet-related products and 25% veterinary practices.
Assume that the corporation tax rate will be 17% for the foreseeable future.
Requirements
47.1 Ignoring the project, calculate the current WACC of Easton on 31 May 20X7 using the
CAPM. (8 marks)
47.2 Using the CAPM, calculate a cost of equity that reflects the systematic risk of the project and
explain your reasoning. (6 marks)
47.3 Assuming that the project goes ahead, estimate, using the CAPM, the overall WACC of
Easton and comment upon the implications of any permanent change in the overall WACC.
(6 marks)
47.4 Explain what is meant by systematic and unsystematic risk and give two examples of each
for Easton. (6 marks)
47.5 Discuss whether Easton should diversify its operations and how its shareholders and the
stock market might react to the proposed project. (4 marks)
47.6 Identify and describe the appropriate project appraisal methodology that should be used if,
as a result of financing the project, the current capital structure of Easton is not maintained.
Using the data relating to Easton, calculate the project discount rate that should be used in
these circumstances. (5 marks)
Total: 35 marks
48 Lake Ltd
Lake Ltd (Lake) is a UK company that has recently started exporting leather goods to the USA.
Lake is fully aware of its exposure to foreign exchange rate risk ('forex risk') and the need to
hedge it. However, Lake is concerned that there may be other overseas trading risks that it
should be protecting itself against.
You work for Lake and have been asked to advise the board on how to hedge the forex risk
associated with its US trading activities. You have the following information available to you at
the close of business on 30 June 20X7:
Notes
1 Coastal's non-current assets originally cost £52.8 million. They were valued at
£37.8 million on 31 August 20X7 and its current assets were valued at £4.2 million on
the same date. Neither of these valuations is reflected in the balance sheet at
31 August 20X7.
2 Coastal's debentures were trading at £110% on 31 August 20X7.
3 Average figures for listed UK commercial radio companies:
P/E ratio 8.5
Dividend yield 5%
Enterprise value multiple 6.5
Requirements
(a) Calculate the value of one Coastal share based on each of the following methods:
Price earnings ratio
Dividend yield
Enterprise value
Net assets basis (historic cost)
Net assets basis (revalued) (12 marks)
Beyond
Year to 31 August (budgeted) 20X8 20X9 20Y0 20Y0
Sales growth 5% 3% 2% 0%
Operating profit margin 8% 9% 9% 9%
Incremental non-current asset investment
(as a % of sales increase) 6% 5% 2% 0%
Incremental working capital investment
(as a % of sales increase) 5% 5% 4% 0%
Requirements
(a) Calculate the value of Albion's equity using SVA. (12 marks)
(b) Outline the methods by which Albion's directors might raise the funds necessary for
the proposed MBO of the company. (3 marks)
Total: 35 marks
You are Ramsey's finance director and an ICAEW Chartered Accountant. At its 22 August 20X7
meeting, the board considered two proposed new investments. You were asked to prepare
workings and recommendations in advance of the next meeting regarding those two
investments, details of which are shown below:
Investment 1
Ramsey wishes to invest £9.5 million in a new computerised manufacturing system, making use of
robotic techniques. Half of this investment would be funded from Ramsey's retained earnings and
the balance via a bank loan at an agreed rate of 7.5% pa. A report was presented by the
production director at the 22 August board meeting. It concluded that this new system would
generate efficiencies that would increase manufacturing profit by 6–8% pa. At the same meeting,
one of Ramsey's other directors, Michael Bateman, said that "because the company should be
striving for a higher share price, any press releases regarding the new system should state that
profits are expected to increase by at least 15% pa."
Investment 2
Ramsey's board is considering a major change in strategy by investing in the development of
driverless cars. A driverless car is a vehicle that is capable of sensing its environment and
navigating without human input. The finance for this investment would be raised in such a way
so as not to alter Ramsey's current gearing ratio (measured as debt:equity by market values).
The debt element of the finance will come from a new issue of 9% irredeemable debentures at
par.
Ramsey's directors want to establish a cost of capital that could be used to appraise the
investment in driverless cars. They are aware that such a diversification would be very risky and is
likely to increase Ramsey's equity beta which is currently 1.25.
The following data, collected at 31 August 20X7, should be used when preparing your workings
for the next board meeting:
Driverless cars industry sector
Equity beta 2.10
Ratio of long-term funds (debt:equity) by market values 16:72
Expected risk free rate 2.25% pa
Expected return on the market 9.15% pa
The board also discussed the possible negative impact of this risky investment on Ramsey's
share price. One director, Laura Young, commented "It's okay. Markets are efficient. Even if it
does fall, the share price will soon adjust to its normal level."
52 Innovative Alarms
Assume that the current date is 31 December 20X7.
Innovative Alarms (Innovative) is a division of a major quoted company and manufactures and
sells a single alarm system to private houses and commercial premises. The financial
management department of Innovative is considering two separate issues:
Issue One: Whether to launch onto the market a new type of alarm system, the Defender, which
when triggered will not only ring a bell but also play a realistic recording of dogs barking.
Issue Two: How often the division's fleet of delivery vans should be replaced.
You are asked to provide advice on both of these issues and report to the head of the financial
management department.
52.1 Issue One: The Defender Project
The Defender is to be evaluated over a planning horizon of three years from 31 December
20X7. It has been agreed that on 31 December 20Y0 the rights to manufacture the
Defender will be sold to a team made up of the current management of Innovative ('the
team') as by that date the Defender is expected to be Innovative's only product. The
finance director of Innovative, who is an ICAEW Chartered Accountant, will be a member of
the team and is responsible for calculating the value of the rights to manufacture the
Defender.
The following information is available regarding the Defender project:
The selling price will be £399 per unit in the year to 31 December 20X8 and the
contribution per unit is expected to be 40% of the selling price. The selling price and
variable costs per unit are expected to increase by 3% pa in the two years to 31
December 20Y0.
The number of units sold in the year to 31 December 20X8 is estimated to be 30,000
and is expected to increase by 6% pa in the two years to 31 December 20Y0.
On 31 December 20X7 the project will require an investment in working capital of
£2 million, which will increase at the start of each subsequent year in line with sales
volume growth and sales price increases. Working capital will be fully recoverable on
31 December 20Y0.
Incremental fixed costs for the year ended 31 December 20X8 are expected to be
£0.5 million and are expected to increase by 5% pa in the two years to 31 December 20Y0.
The Defender will require two hours of skilled labour per unit. Skilled labour is
expected to be in short supply over the next three years. Innovative will need to
transfer skilled labour from its existing product, which requires half the skilled labour
time per unit of the Defender. The existing product has a selling price of £175 and an
expected material and skilled labour cost of £150 in the year to 31 December 20X8.
The selling price and variable costs are expected to increase by 3% pa in the two years
to 31 December 20Y0, the end of the existing product's life cycle. Innovative's skilled
labour is paid at the rate of £15 per hour (in 31 December 20X8 prices). Any working
capital adjustments associated with the existing product can be ignored.
The number of shares in issue has not changed during the period from 1 December 20X2 to
30 November 20X7.
Additional information:
The cum-div share price on 1 December 20X7 is £2.92 per ordinary share. The special
dividend was paid in June 20X7.
The 7% debentures have a cum-interest market value of £111 per £100 nominal value.
Peel has an equity beta of 1.3.
A company that supplies domestic appliances has an equity beta of 1.1 and a debt:equity
ratio of 40:60 by market values.
The risk free rate is expected to be 3% pa.
The market risk premium is expected to be 6% pa.
Assume that the rate of corporation tax will be 17% for the foreseeable future.
Debbie has asked you to provide her with certain information so that she can prepare a
report for the board of Peel.
Requirements
53.1 Calculate Peel's WACC on 1 December 20X7 using:
(a) The dividend valuation model (dividend growth should be estimated using the earliest
and latest dividend information provided)
(b) The CAPM (10 marks)
53.2 Explain and evaluate whether either of the WACC figures calculated in 53.1 above would
be appropriate for appraising Peel's diversification into supplying domestic appliances.
(5 marks)
53.3 Determine whether the £200 million finance required should be raised from either debt or
equity sources. You should discuss the likely reaction of both shareholders and the financial
markets, and make reference to the gearing and interest cover data provided and give
advice to Debbie on which source of finance should be used. (12 marks)
53.4 Assuming that Peel raises the £200 million finance required wholly from debt, identify the
most appropriate project appraisal methodology that could be used to appraise the
diversification. Also determine the project discount rate that should be used in these
circumstances. (3 marks)
53.5 Discuss whether Peel's dividend policy over the last five years is appropriate for a listed
company. (5 marks)
Total: 35 marks
Email extract
.....................The board has managed to
keep our expansion plans very quiet so
far. Do be very careful who you share
this information with as the proposals
are likely to have an impact on the Wells
share price.....................
Assume that the corporation tax rate will be 17% for the foreseeable future.
Requirements
55.1 Ignoring the investment in retail bakery outlets, calculate Wells' weighted average cost of
capital (WACC) at 31 March 20X8 using:
(a) The dividend growth model and (14 marks)
(b) The CAPM (2 marks)
55.2 Discuss the points raised by the three directors at the 27 February 20X8 board meeting.
(6 marks)
55.3 Calculate an appropriate WACC that Wells could use when appraising the £17 million
investment in retail bakery outlets and explain the reasoning behind your approach.
(10 marks)
55.4 Identify and explain the ethical implications of Alison Hughes' email for you, as an ICAEW
Chartered Accountant. (3 marks)
Total: 35 marks
Additional information:
(1) Evans's current assets include cash balances and short-term investments, which total
£7 million.
(2) The market value of Evans's non-current assets at 31 May 20X8 was estimated to be
£59 million.
(3) Average multiples for a sample of listed companies in the same market sector as Evans
at 31 May 20X8 are:
Enterprise value 6.5
Price earnings (P/E) ratio 12.1
Requirements
(a) Calculate the value of one Evans ordinary share at 31 May 20X8 based on each of the
following methods:
Enterprise value
P/E ratio
Net assets basis (historic)
Net assets basis (re-valued) (8 marks)
(b) Recommend and justify to the board of Evans an issue price per share on 30 June 20X8
for the company's ordinary shares. Refer to the range of values calculated in part (a)
above. (4 marks)
59 Blackstar plc
Assume that the current date is 30 June 20X8.
Mitchells is a firm of ICAEW Chartered Accountants. Mitchells has been asked to advise a listed
client, Blackstar plc (Blackstar), on the following two issues:
Issue 1: Blackstar intends to raise additional funds of £150 million to fund an expansion of its
existing operations.
Issue 2: Blackstar is concerned about its existing dividend policy.
59.1 Issue 1: Raising additional funds of £150 million
Blackstar has always maintained a policy of no gearing. Other companies in Blackstar's
market sector have average gearing ratios (measured as debt/equity by market values) of
25%, with a maximum of 35%, and an average interest cover of eight times, with a minimum
of six. The finance director of Blackstar is considering raising the £150 million by either a
rights issue or by the company now borrowing and issuing debentures.
The details of the alternative sources of finance are as follows:
Rights Issue: The £150 million would be raised by a 2 for 3 rights issue, priced at a discount
on the current market value of Blackstar's ordinary shares.
Debt issue: The £150 million would be raised by an issue of 6% coupon debentures,
redeemable at par on 30 June 20Y5. The gross redemption yield would be based on the
current gross redemption yield of other debentures issued by companies in Blackstar's
market sector. One such company is Blue plc (Blue). Details for Blue's debentures are as
follows:
Coupon 5%
The current market price on 30 June 20X8 is £109 cum interest
Redemption at par on 30 June 20Y3
Further information regarding Blackstar:
The forecast pre-tax operating profit for the year ending 30 June 20X8 is £50 million
The corporation tax rate is 17%
The current share price at 30 June 20X8 is £7.50 ex-div
The number of ordinary shares in issue is 60 million
On 30 November 20X8 Continental's ordinary shares each had a market value of £46 (ex-div).
Continental's debentures are redeemable at par (£100) in four years' time and the current price
of the debentures is £94 (ex-interest).
Profits and dividends for the years to 30 November:
20X4 20X5 20X6 20X7 20X8
£m £m £m £m £m
Profits after tax 372 391 1,222 414 433
2. TP's profit before interest figures for the five trading years to 28 February 20X9 were:
20X5 20X6 20X7 20X8 20X9
£'000 £'000 £'000 £'000 £'000
3,600 11,800 3,800 4,800 7,200
PPF wishes to use this information to derive an average earnings figure for use in a P/E
valuation of TP.
3. TP has paid a constant dividend per share since 20X4. TP's last issue of ordinary shares was
in 20X3.
4. TP's debentures are redeemable in 20Y0.
5. TP's non-current assets are independently valued at:
£'000
Land and buildings 23,200
Plant and machinery 20,800
Vehicles 1,150
These values are not reflected in TP's balance sheet at 28 February 20X9.
6. You should assume that the corporation tax rate has been and will remain at 17%.
Requirements
67.1 Prepare a report for PPF's board that
(a) Calculates the value of one share in TP at 28 February 20X9 using the P/E, dividend
yield and asset-based valuation methods (13 marks)
(b) Comments on the strengths and weaknesses of the three valuation methods used and
(10 marks)
(c) Outlines two methods by which PPF could pay for Violet and Arthur's shares. (4 marks)
67.2 Identify how the shareholder value analysis (SVA) approach to company valuation differs
from the valuation methods used in part 67.1 above. (4 marks)
67.3 Explain how an MBO works and the means by which the managers could finance it.
(4 marks)
Total: 35 mark
71 Stable plc
Assume that the current date is 31 May 20X9.
Stable plc (Stable) operates department stores and has an accounting year ending 31 May.
Because of a decline in sales and profits, Stable is seeking to diversify and has identified another
quoted company, Exito plc (Exito), as a likely takeover target. Stable's finance department has
estimated that Exito could be purchased for £300 million. The £300 million purchase price
represents the present value of Exito's free cash flows discounted using an appropriate risk
adjusted WACC. The finance to purchase Exito would be raised in such a way as to leave
Stable's existing gearing (measured as debt:equity by market values) unchanged after the
acquisition.
The CEO of Stable would like the finance director (who is an ICAEW Chartered Accountant) to
address the following points raised at a recent board meeting:
The board would like an explanation of how the WACC used to establish the purchase price
of Exito was calculated and why this differs from Stable's current WACC.
Requirements
71.1 Ignoring the acquisition of Exito, calculate the cost of equity of Stable at 31 May 20X9
using:
the dividend valuation model (dividend growth should be estimated using the earliest
and latest dividend information provided) (3 marks)
the CAPM. (1 mark)
71.2 Ignoring the acquisition of Exito and using the CAPM, calculate the current WACC of Stable
at 31 May 20X9. (6 marks)
71.3 Using the CAPM, calculate the risk adjusted WACC that Stable will have used to find the
present value of Exito's free cash flows. Explain why this is different to Stable's current
WACC that you have calculated in 71.2 above. (8 marks)
71.4 Assuming that £80 million is raised from the new 3% coupon debentures issued on
1 June 20X9, calculate the issue price per £100 nominal value and the total nominal value
that will have to be issued to give a redemption yield equal to that of Stable's current 5%
debentures. Also comment upon whether it is appropriate to use the redemption yield on
the current debentures to establish the new issue's price. (6 marks)
Jackett's board is keen to explore the implications of expanding the company's operations into
South East Asia and Australia. The demand for package holidays to these areas has grown
steadily in the past five years and this is expected to continue, but at a slower rate, for at least
another five years. The board commissioned market research and the key financial implications
noted in the research report are shown below:
Table
Initial cost of investment £7 million
Impact on sales and variable costs 20% increase pa
Impact on fixed costs Increase by £1.5 million pa
Other information
Jackett's board plans to maintain the dividend per share payout for at least another 12 months.
Corporation tax will be payable at the rate of 17% for the foreseeable future.
The board has decided that, were this investment to proceed, it would commence on
1 October 20X9 when the £7 million required for the initial investment would be raised via:
a 1 for 4 rights issue of ordinary shares; or
an issue of 5% debentures (redeemable in 20Y8) at par.
The current market values of Jackett's shares and debentures are:
Ordinary shares £2.58 (ex-div)
7% debentures £105% (ex-int)
Emails
You have recently received emails from Jackett's sales director, Michael Ayres and a colleague
in the finance team, Ann Baker. An extract from each email is shown below:
Michael Ayres:
"I'm an amateur investor and have been tracking the Jackett share price for about four
years. Past patterns suggest that it will decrease by about 25% in the next quarter, so we
need to make sure that we don't overprice any rights issue."
Ann Baker:
"I'm worried that Jackett's share price will fall if debt is used to finance the expansion.
Please let me know what the board decide so I can sell my Jackett shares if necessary
before the market finds out."
Requirements
74.1 For both the 1 for 4 rights issue and the 5% debenture issue, prepare forecast income
statements for Jackett for the year to 30 September 20Y0. (9 marks)
74.2 For both the 1 for 4 rights issue and the 5% debenture issue, calculate Jackett's:
Earnings per share for the year to 30 September 20Y0.
Gearing ratio (long-term borrowings/total long-term funds at book value) as at
30 September 20Y0. (5 marks)
Marks
1.1 Machinery 1
Tax saving 2
Tax on income 1
Working capital investment 2
Discounting and NPV 1
Recommendation 1
No market research costs 1
No fixed costs 1
Selling price 1
Raw materials 1
Variable overheads 1
Loss of contribution 3
Labour costs ignored 1
17
1.2 NPV 1
IRR 1
Advice on usefulness 4
6
1.3 Relevant discussion
6
29
1.1
March 20X3 March 20X4 March 20X5 March 20X6
£'000 £'000 £'000 £'000
Machinery (4,900.000) 980.000
Tax saving (W1) 149.940 122.951 100.820 292.690
Income (W2) 2,008.500 3,500.970 1,803.000
Tax on income (W2) (341.445) (595.165) (306.510)
Working capital investment (W3) (750.000) (22.500) (23.175) 795.675
Total cash flows (5,500.060) 1,767.506 2,983.450 3,564.855
11% factor 1.000 0.901 0.812 0.731
PV (5,500.060) 1,592.523 2,422.561 2,605.909
NPV 1,120.933
As the NPV is positive SGS should proceed with the investment as this will enhance
shareholder wealth.
No market research costs.
No fixed costs.
(2)
March
20X3
Contribution/unit £
Selling price 190
Less: Raw materials (43)
Variable overheads (45)
Loss of Boom-Boom contribution ([£99 – £28 – £35] 2) (72)
Contribution/unit 30
Marks
2.1 Calculations:
Time 0 1
Time 1 1
Time 2 1.5
Time 3 2.5
Time 4 1
PV 2
Equivalent annual cost 3
Conclusion 1
13
2.2 1½ marks per point max 4
17
Marks
3.1 (a) Calculation of capital allowances 3
Calculation of NPV 1
4
(b) Scenario 1 1
Scenario 2 4
Scenario 3 5
Scenario 4 2
12
(c) Characteristics of finance leases 3
Characteristics of operating leases 3
Reasons why leasing might be a preferred source of finance:
1 mark per valid point max 2 8
3.2 (a) Calculations for:
1 year cycle 1
2 year cycle 1
3 year cycle 1
Annual equivalent cost, 0.5 marks per cycle 1.5
Conclusion 0.5
5
(b) 1.5 marks per valid issue discussed max 6
35
Examiner's comments:
Candidates generally coped well with the calculation of capital allowances in the opening
section of part 3.1 and it was a rare script that failed to pick up full marks (where this did happen,
it was most commonly due only to arithmetical slips of the pen). With the four capital rationing
scenarios most candidates were able to identify the correct projects to pursue in scenario 1.
However, in scenario 2 there were weaker candidates who simply failed to use the ranking
methodology based on NPV per £ invested. Weaker candidates also found scenario 3 rather
challenging, overlooking the need to consider Project 5 in spite of its negative NPV in view of
the cash released in the second period. Most candidates coped well with scenario 4. Most
candidates picked up high marks on the technical knowledge part of the lease discussion, but
scored less strongly on the whole in discussing the relative merits of leasing over outright
purchase. Another notable feature was that some candidates tended to answer the question
with their 'financial reporting' hat on rather than their 'financial management' hat – the
examination is a test of candidates' knowledge of the financial management learning materials.
Most candidates found little to trouble them in the standard replacement analysis question in
part 3.2.
Marks
4.1 Best case scenario:
Plant and equipment 2
Capital allowance 2
Operating cash flow 2
Tax 1
Working capital 2
Discount factor and NPV 2
Worst case scenario:
Capital allowance 2
Operating cash flow 1
Tax 2
NPV 1
17
4.2 Discussion of uncertainty and risk 6
Examiner's comments:
The first question on the paper was a standard investment appraisal question, supplemented by
tests of technical knowledge and its practical application. For the most part, candidates scored
strongly on the first part of the question, the majority clearly being well-drilled in the quantitative
techniques involved in this part of the question. Equally apparent was that the majority of
candidates were ill-equipped in terms of simple technical knowledge to pick up full or even high
marks in the second and third parts of the question, with many scripts scoring zero or at most
very low marks on both parts.
In the first part of the question, probably the most common error was inaccurate calculation of
the inflation-adjusted discount factors. However, there were many instances of full marks.
The second part of the question was a straightforward test of knowledge of elements from the
learning materials, but many candidates were completely unacquainted with them and
consequently there was much waffling and little accuracy and substance to many of the
candidates' responses. In the final part of the question, many candidates were completely
unaware of what a 'real option' was in an investment decision-making context, with many
candidates incorrectly interpreting 'real' as meaning after taking account of the effects of
inflation, thereby betraying their lack of study of the learning materials. The last part of the
question was of a different character to the second part in that it was not merely looking for
technical knowledge, but also the application of that knowledge to the scenario in the question
and weaker candidates too often simply presented theory rather than practical application.
Marks
5.1 Net present value 15
5.2 Inflation 4 max 3
5.3 Diana Marshall note 5 max 4
5.4 Real investment options 6 max 4
26
Comments:
The NPV is positive and so Frome should proceed with the investment as shareholder value is
enhanced.
WORKINGS
(1)
Cost 400.000 328.000 268.960 220.547
WDA @ 18% (72.000) (59.040) (48.413) (160.547)
WDV 328.000 268.960 220.547 60.000
(2)
Working capital increment 32,000 5,000 3,000 (40,000)
Working capital total 32,000 37,000 40,000
Sales (WC total 10) 320,000 370,000 400,000
(3)
Sales (W2) 320,000 370,000 400,000
Total costs (101,000) (121,800) (133,700)
Taxable profits 219,000 248,200 266,300
(4)
Discount factor (1/1.05/1.03) 0.925
(1/1.05/1.03/1.05/1.03) 0.855
(1/1.05/1.03/1.05/1.03/1.05/1.04) 0.783
5.2 Inflation has to be taken properly into account so that the correct NPV is calculated. Inflation
will have a negative effect on the real value of money and an investor will need to be
compensated for that loss of value. As a result it is important to match real cash flows with
real interest/discount rate. This method can be problematic and so it is preferable, if
possible, to match money (nominal) cash flows, ie, actual cash flows, with an inflated
discount rate. This discount rate is calculated as follows: (1 + m) = (1 + r) (1 + i), where
m = money rate, r = real rate and i = inflation rate.
Examiner's comments:
This question scored the highest average mark for the paper and was done very well.
The first part was relatively straightforward and most candidates scored high marks. The main
errors were candidates inflating the cash flows (unnecessarily) or getting the discount factor to t2
and t3 incorrect.
The second part was done reasonably well, but too few candidates were able to adequately
explain the reasons for their approach to inflation.
Most candidates failed to explain the meaning of the cost of capital in part 5.3. Otherwise it was
done well.
Part four was generally done well and those candidates who scored well here explained the real
options in the context of the question.
Marks
6.1 Calculation of expected sales 2.5
Initial investment 1
Tax savings 3
Contribution 1
Fixed costs 1.5
Tax on extra profit 1.5
Working capital 2
Discount factor 1
Optimistic contribution 1
Optimistic tax on extra profit 1.5
Average NPV 1
Conclusion 1
18
6.2 Calculation of money cost of capital 1
Calculation of difference in contribution 2
Calculation of difference in working capital 3
6
24
6.1
Pessimistic Optimistic
Annual Annual
sales (units) p EV sales sales (units) p EV sales
6,000 25% 1,500 10,000 25.0 % 2,500
10,000 50% 5,000 12,800 37.5% 4,800
12,800 25% 3,200 12,800 37.5% 4,800
9,700 12,100
EITHER
Pessimistic
t0 t1 t2 t3
20X1 20X2 20X3 20X4
£ £ £ £
Machine (480,000) 0
Tax saved on m/c (W1) 14,688 12,044 9,876 44,992
Contribution (W2) 320,100 320,100 320,100
Fixed costs (W3) (140,000) (140,000) (140,000)
Tax on extra profit (W4) (30,617) (30,617) (30,617)
Working capital (50,000) 50,000
Total cash flows (515,312) 161,527 159,359 244,475
Discount factor 10% 1.000 0.909 0.826 0.751
PV (515,312) 146,828 131,631 183,601
NPV (53,252)
53,252 +110,166
Average NPV = £28,457
2
OR
Overall expected sales = (9,700+12,100)/2=10,900 units
t0 t1 t2 t3
20X1 20X2 20X3 20X4
£ £ £ £
Machine (480,000) 0
Tax saved on m/c 14,688 12,044 9,876 44,992
Contribution (@£33) 359,700 359,700 359,700
Fixed costs (140,000) (140,000) (140,000)
Tax on extra profit (W7) (37,349) (37,349) (37,349)
Working capital (50,000) 50,000
Total cash flows (515,312) 194,395 192,227 277,343
Discount factor 10% 1.000 0.909 0.826 0.751
PV (515,312) 176,705 158,780 208,285
NPV 28,458
t1 t2 t3 Total
'Money' cash flow (inflated) £336,105 £352,910 £370,556
'Money' discount factor (1/1.155) (1/1.1552) (1/1.1553)
'Money' Present Value £291,000 £264,545 £240,496 £796,041
NPV difference 0
(2) Working capital – the NPV will be affected by the impact of inflation on the working
capital investment as there will be incremental increases to the working capital in the
three years of the project and there will be an inflated working capital figure at the end
of the project.
t0 t1 t2 t3 Total
'Real' cash flow [see (a)] (50,000) 0 0 50,000 0
'Real' discount
factor (10%) 1.000 (1/1.10) (1/1.102) (1/1.103)
'Real' Present Value (50,000) 0 0 37,566 (12,434)
t0 t1 t2 t3 Total
'Money' cash flow (50,000) (2,500) (2,625) 55,125 0
'Money' discount
factor (15.5%) 1.000 (1/1.155) (1/1.1552) (1/1.1553)
'Money' Present Value (50,000) (2,164) (1,968) 35,777 (18,355)
NPV difference (5,921)
So the total impact of 5% annual inflation on contribution and working capital will be an
NPV figure that is £5,921 lower.
Examiner's comments:
This question had the highest average mark on the paper and most candidates scored high
marks.
This question tested the investment decisions element of the syllabus. The scenario was that of a
manufacturer wishing to introduce a new product to the market and therefore needing to make
a major capital investment.
In the first part, for 18 marks candidates were presented with a lot of information, as in a typical
NPV setting, and were required to calculate the NPV of the proposal. The question was unusual
in that candidates had to calculate the level of customer demand by using expected values. In
addition, this demand was constrained by the fact that the new equipment had a maximum level
of output. Despite this intricacy, candidates could secure a good mark here if they followed the
key elements of an NPV calculation. In the second part, for six marks required candidates to
explain the implications for their NPV calculation in the first part if the contribution and working
capital figures were adjusted to take account of a 5% annual inflation rate.
Marks
7.1 Discount factor 1
Equipment cost 1
Incremental unit costs 2
Incremental salary 1
Market research fee 1
Tax 2
Writing down allowance 2
Sale proceeds 1
Price calculation – revenue 1
Price calculation – tax on revenue 1
Price calculation – equation 1
Price calculation – selling price 1
15
7.2 1 mark per point max 6
7.3 1 mark per point max 6
7.4 Existence of real options 1
Follow on options 2
Abandonment options 2
Timing option 2
Growth option 2
max 8
35
Examiner's comments:
Rather surprisingly, this was the lowest scoring question on the paper, which is not something
we normally associate with the investment appraisal question, albeit on a paper with a relatively
high pass rate of 88%. The final stage of the first part of the question proved beyond many
candidates, who up until that point had generally coped well with the standard demands of the
question. Parts two and three proved relatively straightforward for well-prepared candidates,
but the failure of many weak candidates to complement their learning of technique with the
acquisition of basic knowledge led to many of them often sacrificing all 12 of the marks available
on these parts of the question.
Overall, the performance in the first part of the question was strong, although where errors were
made the most common ones related to the inclusion and timing of the fee payment, the
inclusion of irrelevant costs and an inability to use the net present value calculation to accurately
address the final stage of the question.
For the most part, well-prepared candidates scored full marks in the second part, but there were
still a surprising number of scripts that missed the opportunity to score strongly, often veering off
course into other areas of the syllabus, notably derivatives, which were not relevant to the precise
requirements of the question.
Although the third part covers an element of the syllabus that is tested relatively infrequently, the
majority of candidates coped well with it, although there were still a significant number of
weaker scripts that displayed a complete misunderstanding of the terms and that were,
consequently, unable to apply them meaningfully to the scenario in the question.
Marks
8.1 Equipment cost and residual value 0.5
Tax saving 2
Income 0.5
Materials and labour 1
Overheads 2
Lost contribution 1
Tax on extra profit 2
Working capital 2
Discount factor 1
Conclusion 1
13
8.2 Calculation of decrease 2
Minimum value of second instalment 1
3
8.3 1 mark per point max 5
8.1
20X2 20X3 20X4 20X5
Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3
£'000 £'000 £'000 £'000
Machinery (30,000) 5,000
Tax saving (W1) 918 753 617 1,962
Income 10,000 85,000
Materials and labour (W2) (7,280) (8,653) (10,124)
Overheads (W3) (2,600) (3,245) (3,937)
Lost contribution (W4) (4,200) (4,410) (4,631)
Tax on extra profit (W5) (1,700) 2,394 2,772 (11,272)
Working capital (W6) (5,000) (1,240) (1,331) 7,571
Total Cash Flows (25,782) (12,173) (14,250) 69,569
8% factor 1.000 0.926 0.857 0.794
PV (25,782) (11,272) (12,212) 55,238
NPV 5,972
As the NPV is positive GMI should proceed with the investment as this will enhance
shareholder wealth.
(2)
Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3
£'000 £'000 £'000 £'000
Materials and labour (7,000) (8,000) (9,000)
Inflation @ 4% pa 1.04 1.042 1.043
(7,280) (8,653) (10,124)
(3)
Overheads (excluding Head office costs) (2,500) (3,000) (3,500)
Inflation @ 4% pa 1.04 1.042 1.043
(2,600) (3,245) (3,937)
(4)
£'000 £'000 £'000
Lost contribution (4,000) (4,000) (4,000)
Inflation @ 5% pa 1.05 1.052 1.053
(4,200) (4,410) (4,631)
(5)
Income 10,000 85,000
Materials and labour (7,280) (8,653) (10,124)
Overheads (2,600) (3,245) (3,937)
Lost contribution (4,200) (4,410) (4,631)
Profit/(loss) 10,000 (14,080) (16,308) 66,308
Tax @ 17% on profit/(loss) (1,700) 2,394 2,772 (11,272)
(6)
Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3
£'000 £'000 £'000 £'000
Total investment (money terms) 5,000
£6,000 1.04 (year 1) 6,240
£7,000 1.04 (year 2)
2 7,571 0
(Increase)/decrease in WC (5,000) (1,240) (1,331) 7,571
8.2 For NPV to fall to zero then the second instalment will need to fall by:
£
£5,972,000/0.794/0.83 = (9,061,940)
Estimated second instalment = 85,000,000
Minimum value of the second instalment 75,938,060
8.3 GMI's money cost of capital already takes into account GMI's estimated inflation rate. So if
the cash flows are inflated at the same rate then the correct NPV will be calculated.
If the South American inflation rates are higher than predicted then inflate further the
money cost of capital and the estimated cash flows. NPV will not be affected.
However, for the WDA, equipment resale and the second instalment, the NPV will fall as the
money discount rate rises. These are in money terms already.
8.5 Political risk is the risk that political action will affect the position and value of a company.
Candidates' discussion should be based on the following possible risks:
Quotas/tariffs/barriers imposed by the overseas government
Nationalisation of assets by the overseas government
Stability of the overseas government
Political and business ethics
Economic stability/inflation
Remittance restrictions
Special taxes
Regulations on overseas investors
Examiner's comments:
This question was a good discriminator between those students who have learned the
calculations and underlying theory by rote and those who really understand the topic.
In general, in the first part, a fairly standard NPV calculation, most candidates scored high marks.
The most common errors were made with regard to working capital investment and the
corporation tax flows.
The second part was done reasonably, but a surprising number of candidates forgot to take
taxation into account in their calculations.
The discursive nature of the third part caught out many candidates – they failed to adequately
explain the impact of using an erroneous inflation rate and therefore to demonstrate that they
fully understood this part of the syllabus. A common error made by candidates was to forget that
revenue from the project was fixed.
The final part was done poorly and too few candidates were able to adequately deal with the
discounting techniques required.
Marks
9.1 Capital allowances 3
Revenue 3
Material costs 2
Lost contribution 3
Labour 2
Working capital 4
Tax 1
NPV calculation 1
max 18
9.1
20X8 20X9 20Y0 20Y1 20Y2
Investment (2,000,000) 200,000
Capital allowances (W1) 61,200 50,184 41,151 33,744 119,721
DH revenue (W2) 11,725,000 14,147,000 15,561,000 15,561,000
DH material costs (W3) (6,365,000) (7,679,800) (8,447,400) (8,447,400)
Duo lost contribution
(W4) (2,500,592) (3,016,824) (3,318,208) (3,318,208)
Additional labour (W5) (167,500) (202,100) (222,300) (222,300)
New manager 35,000 (40,000) (40,000) (40,000) (60,000)
Working capital (W6) (941,700) (194,625) (113,625) 1,249,950
Taxation (17%) (5,950) (450,824) (545,407) (600,626) (597,226)
NCF (2,851,450) 2,056,643 2,590,395 2,966,210 4,485,537
df (8%) 1 0.926 0.857 0.794 0.735
DCF (2,851,450) 1,904,451 2,219,969 2,355,171 3,296,870
NPV £6,925,011
The recommendation to the directors should, therefore, be to proceed with the 'Heritage'
version of the Duo cooker.
(2) DH Revenue
20X9: 1,500 (0.65) + 2,000 (0.35) = 1,675 £7,000 = £11,725,000
20Y0: 1,800 (0.65 0.7) + 2,000 (0.65 0.3) + 2,200 (0.35 0.6) + 2,500 (0.35 0.4) =
2,021 £7,000 = £14,147,000
20Y1 and 20Y2: 110% 2,021 = 2,223 £7,000 = £15,561,000 p.a.
(3) DH Material Costs
Unit sales £3,800
20X9: 1,675 units = £6,365,000
20Y0: 2,021 units = £7,679,800
20Y1 and 20Y2: 2,223 units = £8,447,400 p.a.
(4) Duo Lost Contribution
The effective lost contribution on each Duo = £6,500 – £3,516 = £2,984 as the labour
cost and fixed overheads will still be incurred.
20X9: 838 £2,984 = £2,500,592
20Y0: 1,011 £2,984 = £3,016,824
20Y1 and 20Y2: 1,112 £2,984 = £3,318,208 p.a.
(5) Additional Labour Costs
The standard Duo product will simply provide half of the labour required to
manufacture the 'Heritage' version of the product.
20X9: 1,675 units 8 = 13,400/2 = 6,700 £25 = £167,500
20Y0: 2,021 units 8 = 16,168/2 = 8,084 £25 = £202,100
20Y1 and 20Y2: 2,223 units 8 = 17,784/2 = 8,892 £25 = £222,300 p.a.
(6) Working Capital
Next year's
sales value 15%
DH:
20X8 11,725,000 (1,758,750)
20X9 14,147,000 (2,122,050)
20Y0 15,561,000 (2,334,150)
20Y1 15,561,000 (2,334,150)
20Y2 0 0
9.2 (a) To calculate the sensitivity of changes in sales price, it is assumed sales quantity is fixed
and then the relevant cash flows from part 9.1 are considered.
20X9 20Y0 20Y1 20Y2
DH revenue 11,725,000 14,147,000 15,561,000 15,561,000
Tax on revenue (1,993,250) (2,404,990) (2,645,370) (2,645,370)
Cash flow 9,731,750 11,742,010 12,915,630 12,915,630
df (8%) 0.926 0.857 0.794 0.735
Present value 9,011,601 10,062,903 10,255,010 9,492,988
NPV = £5,413,661
IRR for this project = 8 + (6,925,011/(6,925,011 – 5,413,661))(15 – 8) = 40.1%
The cost of equity would need to increase to 40.1% (an increase of almost 400% from
its current level) before the investment decision would change.
9.3 The NPV calculated in 10.1 at £6,925,011 is for an ungeared firm.
The PV of the tax shield (interest = £2m 0.05 = £0.1m) is calculated as follows:
Time £ per annum df @ 5% PV (£)
1–4 0.1m 0.17 = 0.017m 3.546 60,282
Therefore the adjusted present value = £6,925,011 + £60,282 = £6,985,293.
9.4 The APV technique is based upon the assumptions of Modigliani and Miller with tax.
That means that issues which may affect the attractiveness of debt finance are not reflected
in the technique:
Direct and indirect costs of bankruptcy
Agency costs and covenants
Tax exhaustion
Perfect market assumptions eg, risk-free debt
Examiner's comments:
Most candidates found the first part of the question to their liking. The initial calculation of
expected values proved largely unproblematic, but common errors among weaker candidates
were incorrect calculation of the lost contribution from the existing product and an inability to
calculate accurately the net working capital impact of the project. In this latter regard, a surprising
number of candidates correctly calculated the impact of the new product, but then failed to
deduct the off-setting impact of the existing product. It was also apparent that a significant number
of candidates appear to believe that it is an effective time-saving tactic not to bother with the
calculation of discount factors and/or the actual discounting of cash flows and simply to say that if
the resultant NPV was positive their recommendation would be to accept the project (or vice
versa). Given that marks were explicitly available for both the discount factors and the discounting
process itself, this was a potentially costly omission.
Section 3 and 4, proved to be effective discriminators between stronger and weaker candidates.
Many weaker candidates were unable to make any meaningful attempt, some simply believing
that what was required was to discount the net cash flows calculated in the first section at a
discount factor of 5%. Common errors among candidates who were able to adopt the correct
approach were to use an incorrect annuity factor in the calculation or to use the post-tax cost of
debt, but for well prepared candidates this proved to be easy marks.
Section 4 polarised performance, although unlike in the third section it was the majority rather
than the minority of candidates who struggled. The question required candidates to think
laterally across the syllabus to establish the link to underlying theory. However, many candidates
resorted simply to listing all they knew about the limitations of issues such as WACC and CAPM.
Performance overall was relatively strong on this question with the majority of candidates
scoring well in the first section, although the adjusted present value sections of the question
served to polarise performance.
Marks
10.1 (a) Reasoning: 1 Figures: 1 2
(b) Method and figures: 2 Ranking: 1 3
(c) Method: 1 Calculations: 2 Conclusions and reasoning: 2 5
10
10.2 Reasoning: 2 Conclusion: 1 NPV: 1 4
10.3 Calculations: 4 Limitations: 2 6
10.4 PV calculations: 3 Conclusion and reasoning: 2 5
25
(b) Capital rationing of £8 million on 31/5/X7 (t0). Rank according to NPV/£ invested:
Bristol Cardiff Gloucester Swansea Tiverton
£'000 £'000 £'000 £'000 £'000
NPV (£'000) 577 (1,309) (632) 2,856 1,664
Investment t0 4,150 3,870 6,400 5,000 4,600
NPV/£ 0.139 n/a n/a 0.571 0.362
Rank 3 1 2
Alternatively, if Gloucester is considered and its positive t1 cash flow utilised then there is
£3,560,000 capital available (£1,790,000 + £1,770,000) at t1.
Based on the same ranking, for t1 choose 100% Swansea and use the balance (£950,000) to
fund Bristol, ie, (higher ranking than Bristol) and do 73.6% (£950/£1,290) of it. Thus the total
NPV would be:
£'000
Tiverton 1,664
Swansea (100%) 2,856
Bristol (73.6% £577,000) 425
Gloucester (632)
4,313
Thus it is preferable if the Gloucester project is taken on as this produces the higher total
NPV.
Marks
The NPV is positive and so the investment should go ahead as it will enhance
shareholder wealth.
The market research fee is not a relevant cash flow as it is sunk/committed (candidates
needed to state this to get the mark and not just ignore).
(1)
£'000 £'000 £'000 £'000
Cost/WDV 4,500.000 3,690.000 3,025.800 2,481.156
WDA @ 18%/Bal. allowance (810.000) (664.200) (544.644) (1,481.156)
WDV/sale 3,690.000 3,025.800 2,481.156 1,000.000
(4)
Sales units 50,000 95,000 45,000
Material cost/unit £53 1.04 £53 1.042 £53 1.043
Materials 2,756.000 5,445.856 2,682.801
(5)
Sales units 50,000 95,000 45,000
Unskilled cost/unit £28 1.04 £28 1.042 £28 1.043
Unskilled costs 1,456.000 2,877.056 1,417.329
(6)
Sales units 50,000 95,000 45,000
Lost contribution/unit ([£96 – £74] 2) £44 1.04 £44 1.042 £44 1.043
Variable costs 2,288.000 4,521.088 2,227.231
(8)
Sales 8,060.000 15,926.560 7,845.926
Sales increment 8,060.000 7,866.560 (8,080.634)
Working capital at 10% (806.000) (786.656) 808.063 784.593
(b)
Sales 8,060.000 15,926.560 7,845.926
Discount rate at 12% 0.893 0.797 0.712
PV of sales 7,197.580 12,693.468 5,586.299
Total PV of sales 25,477.347
less: Tax at 17% (4,331.149)
21,146.198
= 3.25%
Examiner's comments:
This question had the highest average mark on the paper. Candidate performance was very
good.
This was a four-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the investment
decisions and valuation element of the syllabus.
In the scenario a UK manufacturer of household appliances was planning (1) the development of
a new product and (2) the possible purchase of an electrical goods retailer. Part (a) of the first
requirement, for 16 marks, required candidates to advise the company's board, based on an
NPV calculation, whether the proposed product manufacture should proceed. Candidates were
required to deal with relevant cash flows, tax allowances and costs, inflation and working capital.
In part 1(b) of the first requirement, for seven marks, they had to calculate the sensitivity of their
calculations to changes in the proposed selling price and estimated sales volumes. The second
part was worth 12 marks and required candidates to calculate a range of values for the target
retailer and then provide guidance for the board on the inherent dangers of buying another
company and the best method with which to pay for it, ie, cash or shares.
In part (a) of requirement 1 most candidates scored well. The main weakness evident was the
opportunity cost calculation, which was either completely ignored (by the weakest candidates)
or halved instead of doubling the lost volume. Also many candidates included calculations
regarding skilled labour, which was not a relevant cost. A number of candidates failed to
calculate the balancing charge arising on the sale of the old machinery.
Part (b) of requirement 1 was generally done well, but a disappointing number of candidates
used contribution rather than sales revenue in their first set of sensitivity calculations.
In the second requirement candidates coped well, as expected, with the book value and P/E
methods of valuation, but many were unsure of themselves (as in previous papers) when valuing
the company based on discounted cash flows. A high proportion of candidates struggled with
the reasons for the failure of acquisitions, but in general the cohort was stronger when
explaining the implications of buying in cash or shares.
Marks
12.1 Calculation of net present value:
Contribution per unit 1
Annual sales units 1
Total contribution per year, Year 1 to Year 4 2
Fixed costs 1
Annual rent 1
Machinery and equipment 1
Tax 1
Tax saved on capital allowances 2
Working capital flows 3
Use of correct discount rate 1
NPV and conclusion 2
16
12.2 Correct contribution figure, after tax 2
Calculation of NPV 1
Correct sensitivity 0.5
Conclusion 1.5
max 4
12.3 Disadvantages of sensitivity analysis – 1 mark per point 3
Advantages of simulation as a technique – 1 mark per point 3
6
12.4 (a) Explanation of hard capital rationing 1
Explanation of soft capital rationing 2
Form that is being adopted by Alliance 1
Use of evidence from the scenario 1
5
(b) Allocation to combination that yields the highest NPV 1
Determination of best combination 2
Conclusion 1
4
35
12.1
0 1 2 3 4
£m £m £m £m £m
Contribution 34.56 41.73 39.44 37.27
NPV 35.37
Examiner's comments:
This was a four-part question, which tested the candidates' understanding of the investment
decisions element of the syllabus. The scenario was that a UK company was considering
launching a new product on the market, and also planning additional investment into other
projects.
The first part was well answered by many candidates; common errors that weaker candidates
made were failing to calculate annual demand from monthly data, inflating cash flows which had
already been inflated because of price increases, deducting contribution from sales, treating
WDAs as outflows rather than inflows, failing to put rent in advance and using real discount rate for
money flows. All easy things, where errors should have been avoided. The hardest part was WC
flows (as expected). The second part was not well answered by the majority of candidates, with
weaker candidates using sales instead of contribution. Responses to part 3 were mixed and often
lacked detail or included irrelevant material (eg, advantages of sensitivity). In the final part (a) was
well answered by many students; however weaker candidates thought that hard versus soft capital
rationing meant the difference between indivisible and divisible projects. However, part (b) had
very mixed and unclear answers, with many candidates using NPV/£ invested, which applies to
divisible rather than indivisible projects. The question clearly stated that the projects were
indivisible.
Marks
13.1 (a) Ke 1
Kd 3
Loans 1
WACC 3
8
(b) Retentions rate 2
Shareholders' return 1.5
Growth 0.5
Ke 1
WACC 1
6
13.2 Degearing equity beta 1.5
Regear asset beta 1.5
Ke 1
State discount rate should reflect systematic risk 1
State discount rate should reflect financial risk 1
6
13.3 Weighted average beta of enlarged group 1
Ke 1
WACC of enlarged group 1
Implications 3
Capital structure theory; max 2
6
13.4 Diversification plans 5
EMH max 3
5
13.5 Project appraisal methodology and discount rate 4
35
13.1 (a) The current WACC using CAPM is calculated as follows: Ke = 2 + 0.60 (8 – 2) = 5.6%
Calculation of Kd
The cost of the debentures the cost can be calculated using linear interpolation
5% 1%
T0 (108) 1 (108) 1 (108)
T1–4 6 3.546 21.276 3.902 23.412
T4 100 0.823 82.3 0.961 96.1
(4.424) 11.512
Examiner's comments:
This was a six-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a company was considering
diversifying its activities. The diversification was to be financed in such a way that the gearing of
the company remained unchanged. The first part of the question required candidates to calculate
the current WACC of the company using CAPM and also the Gordon growth model. The second
part of the question required candidates to calculate, using CAPM, the cost of equity to be
included in the WACC that should have been used to appraise the new project. The third part of
the question required candidates to calculate the overall WACC of the company after the
diversification. The fourth part of the question required candidates to discuss whether the
company should diversify its operations. The fifth part of the question required candidates to
discuss how the project should have been appraised assuming that there was a major change in
financial gearing of the company. Also candidates were required to calculate a discount rate that
should have been used in these circumstances.
Part (a) of the first requirement was designed to give a basic eight marks to build on and was set
at a textbook level with no tricks or complications. However, weaker candidates lost many of
these marks by: completely ignoring the cost of a bank loan (two marks) or not deducting tax
(one mark); incorrect calculation of the cost of the redeemable debentures, incorrect
interpolation calculations, incorrect coupon and timing (three marks), correct interpolation but
no tax adjustment (one mark); incorrect equity beta or correct beta but error in computation (one
mark).
Part (b) of the first requirement was a discriminator as expected, however many candidates
demonstrated poor knowledge of what a dividend yield is, many students multiplying earnings
by the dividend yield.
In the second part again many basic errors were made: eg, degearing using market values but
regearing using book values, even though the formulae sheet states market values on the key to
the formulae and despite the examiner's comments regarding March 2014, omitting tax
completely from the computations and poor mathematical ability using beta equations. Also no
explanation of what candidates were doing threw away two marks in this part.
The third part was well answered by many candidates. However in the discursive part of their
answers some candidates mainly discussed capital structure theory.
The forth part had very mixed responses but flexible marking allowed candidates to pick up two
to three marks.
In the fifth part most candidates mentioned APV but many did not calculate the discount rate
needed.
Marks
14.1 Earnings in 20W8 1
Dividend in 20W8 1
Dividend growth rate 1
Dividend per share in 20X2 1
Current ex-dividend share value 1
Cost of equity 1
Cost of preference shares 1
Cost of debentures – two present values calculated 2
Cost of debentures – IRR calculation 1
WACC calculation 3
13
14.2 1 mark per point max 5
Examiner's comments:
A generally very well answered question which was the second highest scoring question on the
paper.
A very common error on this relatively straightforward cost of capital question was a failure to
follow the instructions in the question – many candidates chose to use the Gordon growth model
rather than the dividend growth model – an easy way to lose marks. Other common errors were
an inability to accurately calculate the dividend growth rate from the data provided, errors in
calculating market values in the final WACC calculation and in calculating the cost of debt a
number of candidates betrayed basic misunderstanding by firstly applying one discount rate
that produced a negative NPV and then choosing a larger rather than smaller discount rate for
their second choice.
The second to fifth parts were generally well answered.
Marks
15.1 (a) Dividend growth rate 1
Cost of equity 1
IRR 3
Market value of equity 1
Market value of debt 1
WACC 1
15.1 (a)
Dividend per share 20Y0 (29.5m/165m) = 17.9 pence
d1 (£0.179 1.04)
Cost of equity = +g + 4% = 11%
MV £2.65
Cost of debt
Year Cash Flow 5% factor PV 10% factor PV
0 (98.00) 1.000 (98.00) 1.000 (98.00)
1–4 8.00 3.546 28.37 3.170 25.36
4 100.00 0.823 82.30 0.683 68.30
NPV 12.67 NPV (4.34)
Examiner's comments:
Most candidates scored well on this question and it had the highest average mark in the paper.
It was based on a supermarket operation and covered the topics of cost of capital and dividend
policy. The first part was worth 10 marks and required candidates to calculate the company's
WACC based on (a) the dividend growth model and then (b) the CAPM model.
The second part was worth 11 marks and tested the candidates' understanding of geared and
ungeared betas and required them to calculate the relevant cost of capital for the company to
use if it diversified its operations into a new product range. The fourth part made up six marks
and candidates had to explain the relationship between a company's dividend policy and the
value of its shares.
Marks
17 Abydos plc
Marking guide
Marks
17.1 Capital allowances/tax saving 2
Base case NPV 3–4
Financing side effects 2–4
Give credit for technique max 10
Year 0 1 2 3 4
£'000 £'000 £'000 £'000 £'000
Pre-tax operating cash flows 3,000 3,400 3,800 4,300
Tax @ 17% (510) (578) (646) (731)
Tax savings from capital allowances 306 251 206 169
Investment cost (11,500)
Issue costs
After tax realisable value 4,000
Net cash flows (11,500) 2,796 3,073 3,360 7,738
Discount factor 11% 1.000 0.901 0.812 0.731 0.659
Present values (11,500) 2,519 2,495 2,456 5,099
Issue costs
£1 million, because they are treated as a side-effect they are not included in this NPV
calculation.
Present value of tax shield
1 1
1– 4 = 3.312
0.08 1.08
Sales director
The sales director believes that the net present value method should be used, on the basis
that the NPV of a project will be reflected in an equivalent increase in the company's share
price. However, even if the market is efficient, this is only likely to be true if:
the financing used does not create a significant change in gearing (finance ratio
current gearing so gearing may change).
the project is small relative to the size of the company.
the project risk is the same as the company's average operating risk (but different line
of business).
Finance director
The finance director prefers the adjusted present value method, in which the cash flows are
discounted at the ungeared cost of equity for the project, and the resulting NPV is then
adjusted for financing side effects such as issue costs and the tax shield on debt interest.
The main problem with the APV method is the estimation of the various financing side
effects and the discount rates used to appraise them. The ungearing process assumes risk
free debt (5%) which it is not as it costs 8%.
Problems with both viewpoints
Both methods rely on the restrictive assumptions about capital markets which are made in
the capital asset pricing model and in the theories of capital structure. The figures used in
CAPM (risk-free rate, market rate and betas) can be difficult to determine. Business risks are
assumed to be constant.
Neither method attempts to value the possible real options for abandonment or further
investment which may be associated with the project.
Marks
18.1 Total funds calculations 1
Total geared funds 1
Gearing calculation 2
One mark per relevant point max 5
9
18.2 Rights issue calculations 2
Theoretical ex-rights price 1
Value of a right per new share 1
4
Traditional view
Loan finance is cheap because (a) it is low risk to lenders and (b) loan interest is tax
deductible. This means that as gearing increases, WACC decreases.
Shareholders and lenders are relatively unconcerned about increased risk at lower levels of
gearing.
As gearing increases, both groups start to be concerned – higher returns are demanded
and so WACC increases.
Thus, WACC decreases (value of equity increases) as gearing is introduced. It reaches a
minimum and then starts to increase again. This is the optimal level of gearing.
Modigliani and Miller (M&M) view
Shareholders immediately become concerned by the existence of any gearing.
Ignoring taxes, the cost of 'cheap' loan finance is precisely offset by the increasing cost of
equity, so WACC remains constant at all levels of gearing. There is no optimal level –
managers should not concern themselves with gearing questions. M&M '58 position Vg =
Vu.
Taking taxation into account, interest is cheap enough to cause WACC to fall despite
increasing cost of equity. This leads to an all-debt-financing conclusion. M&M '63 position
Vg = Vu + DT (Tax shield).
The earnings per share figure will fall by 7.5% (from £0.240 to £0.222).
The proposed rights issue will, as the board suggests, cause a dilution of the EPS figure as
the additional shares issued have a greater negative impact than the interest saved from the
debenture redemption. Whilst in theory (TERP) the market price of BL's ordinary shares will
fall, at least initially, it is very difficult to predict what will happen to the market value of the
shares in practice. As gearing is being reduced the market may react favourably (ie, there
would be a share price increase). However, based on market values the gearing level is
currently not high (26.2% or 35.5%), and so the market may react negatively (ie, there would
be a share price decrease) if it considers that insufficient use is being made of the tax
savings that gearing affords.
18.4 Current earnings per share (EPS) £32.4m/135m £0.240
Examiner's comments:
This question was, overall, done poorly and produced the weakest set of answers in the
examination.
In general, the first part was not done well. The book value of equity often excluded retained
earnings. When calculating the market value, a majority of candidates included retained
earnings in the equity figure. Very few of them could calculate the gearing ratio correctly – far
too many included preference shares as equity. In the discursive part of the answer, some
candidates made no reference to the theories on capital structure at all and some referred to the
'Modigliani and Miller traditional theory'. Disappointingly, very few candidates made reference
to the ratios that they had calculated (high/low gearing level etc).
Answers to the second part were better and the most common mistake was to confuse the
market value and the book value of debt when calculating the redemption figure.
The third part was very poorly answered. The vast majority of candidates ignored the reduction
in interest post-redemption. Also, far too many candidates restricted their discussion to a
consideration of the impact of the rights issue on the shareholders' wealth. This was not relevant
to the question, which was about gearing.
In the final part there were some good attempts, but often candidates' answers just consisted of
identifying a 5% fall in EPS.
Marks
19.1 (a) Calculation of WACC using CAPM:
Cost of equity 1
Cost of debt:
Use of ex interest debenture price 1
PV calculation 1
IRR calculation 1
Post-tax cost of debt 1
Ex-div share price 1
Market value of equity 0.5
Market value of debt 0.5
WACC calculation 1
8
19.1 (b) Calculation of WACC using Gordon growth model:
Earnings per share 1
Proportion retained 1
Total earnings 0.5
Calculation of ARR 1.5
Growth rate 0.5
Cost of equity 1
WACC calculation 0.5
6
19.2 Suitable WACC for appraising Climbhigh:
Commentary on use of appropriate equity beta 2
Degearing and regearing calculations 2
New cost of equity 1
Revised WACC 1
6
19.3 Overall WACC of BBB if Climbhigh goes ahead:
Overall equity beta 1
Overall cost of equity 1
Overall WACC 1
Appropriate commentary upon implications 3
6
19.4 Political risk areas – 1 mark per point 4
Ways of limiting the effects of political risk factors 4
max 6
19.5 Ethical considerations – 1 mark per point 3
35
The accounting rate of return (r) = £447m/ [£5,153 – (1,825m £0.145)]m = 9.1%
The growth rate is: 0.091 0.59 = 0.054 or 5%
Using the Gordon growth model Ke = ((10 1.05)/350) + 0.05 = 0.08 or 8%
WACC = (8 0.76) + (5.73 0.24) = 7.46%
19.2 The gearing of BBB will be unchanged after the diversification and it is therefore
appropriate to apply the existing gearing ratio of debt:equity 0.24:0.76 in the calculation of
the WACC to be used to appraise the Climbhigh project.
However, the cost of equity to be included in the WACC calculation should reflect the
systematic risk of the climbing wall industry. This can be achieved by using an appropriate
equity beta in the CAPM. An equity beta for a company operating in the climbing wall
industry is 1.90, but the company has a different gearing ratio to BBB and gearing
adjustments will have to be made.
Degearing the equity beta: Ba = 1.90 (6/(6 + 4 (1 – 0.17)) = 1.22
Regearing using BBB's gearing ratio Be = 1.22 ((0.76 + 0.24(1 – 0.17))/0.76) = 1.54
Ke = 2 + (1.54 (7 – 2)) = 9.7%
The appropriate WACC to appraise the project is:
(9.7 0.76) + (5.73 0.24) = 8.75%
Examiner's comments:
This was a five-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a company was considering
diversifying into a different industry sector. The diversification would have been in non-domestic
countries, some of which would be in developing countries.
Part (a) of the first requirement saw many basic errors, which really should not be occurring
given how many times this has been set. The errors included inability to calculate numbers
correctly, incorrect use of the CAPM equation, incorrectly calculating the number of shares in
Marks
20.1 (a) Freehold land and property adjustment 1
Investments adjustment 1
Preference shares adjustment 1
Debentures adjustment 1
Net assets value per share 1
Calculation of dividend per share 1
Choice of yield 0.5
Valuation per share 1
Non-marketability discount 0.5
Calculation of average EBIT 1
Calculation of profit after tax 1
EPS 1
Choice of P/E ratio 0.5
Valuation per share 1
Non-marketability discount 0.5
13
(b) Basic weaknesses of net asset, dividend yield and P/E valuations 2
Other issues – 1 mark per point 5
Max 4
(c) 1 mark per point Max 4
20.2 Calculation of each possible replacement cycle – 2.5 marks 10
31
20.1 (a)
Net asset valuation: £
Intangibles 900,000
Freehold land and property 4,500,000
Plant and equipment 3,600,000
Investments 1,350,000
Inventory 540,000
Receivables 1,080,000
Cash 180,000
12,150,000
Less
Current liabilities 1,080,000
Preference shares 648,000
Debentures 1,980,000
8,442,000
£8,442,000/3,600,000 = £2.345 per share
Dividend yield valuation:
Dividend in 20X2 = £180,000
Number of shares = 3,600,000
Examiner's comments:
Whilst there were many strong responses to the valuation questions, less well-prepared
candidates were undoubtedly exposed by the question and were particularly weak in dealing
with the technicalities of both the dividend yield and price/earnings valuation techniques. In the
second section, whilst many candidates were able to list classic text-book commentary on the
respective valuation techniques, far fewer were able to augment this basic analysis with
insightful commentary on the relevance of the techniques to the specific scenario set out in the
question. The third and final section of the first part of the paper, on take-over motives, was,
however, generally very well answered across the board.
The second part of the question was, again, very well answered by the stronger candidates but
performance was somewhat polarised as those candidates who had clearly banked on there
being a traditional NPV question found their lack of a firm grasp of the replacement
methodology exposed. Even some candidates who scored well on the calculations themselves
arrived at incorrect conclusions as a result of treating the calculated figures as equivalent annual
costs rather than net revenues.
Marks
21.1 Forecast income statement 8
Forecast balance sheet 8
16
21.2 Rights issue: Up to 2 marks per valid point max 7
Floating rate loan: Up to 2 marks per valid point max 6
Report format 1
14
30
21.2 REPORT
To: The board of directors
From: Company Accountant
Date: x – x – xx
Subject: Methods of financing expansion plans
In terms of gearing, the rights issue will produce lower gearing than the floating rate loan
(ie, a lower level of financial risk), although in neither case does the proposed level of
gearing appear beyond the ability of the company to service (see interest cover below).
In terms of eps, the rights issue will produce a figure of 73.5p per share, whilst the floating
rate loan will boost eps to 84.9p per share.
In terms of interest cover, with the rights issue interest cover is a comfortable 11.6 times
against 8.3 times with the floating rate loan. In neither case, therefore, does interest cover
appear to be a cause for concern.
In terms of cost of capital, the floating rate loan may reduce the company's cost of capital as
a result of the tax shield applying to loan interest (depending on what happens to the cost
of equity as a result of the increased financial risk).
Examiner's comments:
A question which most candidates found to their liking with many scoring very strongly in the
numerical first section. The second section once again served to polarise performance between
stronger and weaker candidates.
For the most part candidates performed well on first section of the question, although there
were some common errors among weaker candidates, most notably the incorrect treatment of
both the cash and dividend figures. Weaker candidates completely overlooked the fact that cash
was the balancing figure in the whole exercise and simply chose to leave the original cash figure
unchanged. In similar fashion, the dividends were often left at their original level with no
changes incorporated to reflect profits in 20X9.
In the second section, stronger candidates combined relevant discussion of the two sources of
finance with the calculation of relevant calculations to underpin that discussion. However, a
feature among weaker candidates was their failure to undertake any calculations in spite of the
precise instruction in the question. Another common feature of weaker answers was a lack of
breadth in their response. For example, there was a tendency for some candidates to correctly
identify the issue of the potential impact on the firm's cost of capital but then to write at great
length all they knew on the underlying theory. Whilst this invariably earned the full marks
available for this aspect of the answer, this represented minimal reward in the context of the
overall question and was often achieved at the cost of many more marks that were available for
discussion of other relevant issues.
Marks
22.1 Total asset value 1
Total revalued assets 2
Dividend valuation 2
Earnings valuation 2
EV/EBITDA multiples 4
Profit before tax 2
Profit after tax 1
Retained profit after dividends 1
Strengths and weaknesses of each valuation method 10
25
22.2 SVA explanation 3
Problems of future cash flow and residual value 4
7
22.3 Discount at an effective 1% pa 1
Present value calculation 2
Compare to £500k offered and advise not to sell land 1
Ignore £120,000 as common to both alternatives 1
5
22.4 Professional accountants' conduct:
Be honest and truthful 1
Avoid making exaggerated claims of what they can do, and
their qualifications and experience 2
Avoid making disparaging claims of others 1
Not use confidential information from other clients in campaign 1
max 3
40
22.1
Hampton Richmond
Total asset value (historic) £21.7m £22.7m
Value per share (£21.7m/17.6m) £1.23 (£22.7m/9.8m) £2.32
Walton
£m
PBIT 36.2
Less interest (£70m 7%) (4.9)
Profit before tax 31.3
Tax at 17% (5.3)
Profit after tax / earnings 26.0
Commentary
Asset values – historic so not equal to MV and only considers tangible assets and ignores
income. Revalued figures are better as more up to date, but still have the same
disadvantages.
The P/E ratio is a better guide for Hampton as it will give the company's actual market value
at 28 February 20X4 but based only on a small number of shares changing hands at any
one time – a premium would normally be paid above MV to get control. Also, have there
been significant changes since 28 February which would affect the value?
It is a takeover bid and so, presumably, Walton will be looking forwards and intending to
generate future earnings from Hampton, not liquidate (asset strip) it as in asset values. For
Richmond (a private company) it would be reasonable to use Hampton's P/E ratio (same
market), but it will be necessary to discount (by 25% to 50%) this valuation because
Richmond's shares will be less marketable. For both companies, are the current year's
earnings reasonable ie, not distorted in any way? Synergy is also ignored in the calculations.
When it comes to the EV/EBITDA valuation, the market value of Richmond's debt (£15.44m)
will need to be deducted to obtain an equity valuation, giving a range between
£34.948 million and £53.53 million.
These figures are before any discount that might be made for the non-marketability of
Richmond's shares. If we were to apply say a 25% discount, this would give a range of
values between £26.21 million and £40.15 million.
22.2 Shareholder value analysis (SVA) concentrates on a company's ability to generate value and
thereby increase shareholder wealth. SVA is based on the premise that the value of a
business is equal to the sum of the present values of all of its activities.
The value of the business is calculated from the cash flows generated by drivers 1–6 which
are then discounted at the company's cost of capital (driver 7). SVA links a business' value
to its strategy (via the value drivers).
The seven value drivers are a key element of the SVA approach to valuing a company.
(1) Life of projected cash flows
(2) Sales growth rate
(3) Operating profit margin
(4) Corporate tax rate
(5) Investment in non-current assets
(6) Investment in working capital
(7) Cost of capital
Company projections tend to show cash flows growing steadily upwards into an indefinite
future. In the real world, economies falter, competition increases and margins decline.
The majority of a DCF value estimate comes from the 'residual value', the worth of the
company at the end of the projection period. That, naturally, depends heavily on the cash
flows estimate in the final year modelled – a result, logically, of the trend in the early years.
22.3 £60k inflating at 3% pa discounted at 4% pa is the same as £60k discounted at an effective
1% pa so:
[£60,000 9.471] + [£120,000 0.905] (assuming land sold at year 10) = £676,860 (Present
Value) vs £500,000 offered, so do not sell the land.
£120,000 ignored as common to both alternatives
22.4 When marketing themselves and their work, professional accountants should:
be honest and truthful.
avoid making exaggerated claims about (a) what they can do (b) their qualifications and
experience.
avoid making disparaging references to the work of others.
not use confidential information from other clients in the campaign.
Marks
23.1 REPORT
To: Partner in NWCF
From: Accountant
Date: x – x – xx
Subject: Possible acquisition of Sennen plc
(a)
Year
0 1 2 3
£m £m £m £m
Sales revenue 21.00 22.05 23.15
Operating profit 3.15 3.31 3.47
Tax (17%) –0.54 –0.56 –0.59
After tax synergies 0.53 0.55 0.58
Working capital –0.21 –0.22 –0.23 –0.24
Additional CAPEX –0.42 –0.44 –0.46
Free cash flow –0.21 2.50 2.63 2.76
Present value factor (7%) 1.00 0.935 0.873 0.816
Present value –0.21 2.34 2.30 2.25
£m
Present value years 1–3 1.45
Amount in terminal value (0.58(1 + 0.02)/(0.07 – 0.02)) 0.816 9.65
Total present value of synergies 11.10
£11.10m/£54.62 = 20.3%.
Synergies represent 20.3% of the value of debt plus equity.
(c) The earnings per share has to be calculated:
£m
Operating profit £20m 0.15 3
Less interest £10m 0.05 (0.5)
Add investment income £2m 0.03 0.06
Taxable 2.56
Tax at 17% (0.44)
Profit after tax 2.12
Earnings per share £2.12m/17m = 12.47p
Note: Credit any attempt to calculate prospective EPS rather than historic.
The share price using the p/e ratio for recent takeovers = 12.47p 17 = 212p
The p/e ratio basis is a market measure and has the advantage of valuing the shares by
comparison to other takeovers. However we do not know how comparable to Sennen
the other companies are. Also the valuation is based on historic EPS and a more
realistic measure might be a prospective EPS.
(d) The range in values is 212p – 262p.
The free cash flow valuation can be considered as a maximum value, however the
valuation is quite sensitive at 20.3% to the synergistic savings which may or may not be
made and the growth rate of sales in perpetuity.
Examiner's comments:
This was a six-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the investment
decisions element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a company had
identified a takeover target.
The acquirer has had a policy of expanding by acquisition and, as a result, is highly geared
compared to its peers. Also there is a potential bid from the management of the target in the
form of a management buyout (MBO). Part (a) of the first requirement required candidates to
use Shareholder Value Analysis (SVA) to value the target. The valuation included after tax
synergies, also candidates were required to state the strengths and weaknesses of the valuation
method. Part (b) of the first requirement needed candidates to calculate how sensitive the
valuation using SVA was to a change in the synergies. Part (c) of the first requirement required
candidates to value the target using p/e ratios and to state the strengths and weaknesses of the
valuation method. Part (d) of requirement one required candidates to discuss the range of
values and whether the acquirer should have offered the target company's shareholders a bid
premium. The final part of the first requirement required candidates to discuss the methods that
the acquirer could have used to pay for the shares of the target. The second requirement of the
question required candidates to discuss the ethical position of the members of the MBO team.
In part (a) of requirement one, the basic discounting was fine with some candidates making the
usual timing errors, however the inclusion and computation of the perpetuity flow and
discounting it was variable. Few candidates made adjustments to the present value of the free
cash flows for the debt and investments. Many candidates wasted time by stating the seven
drivers of SVA, which was not required.
In part (b) of requirement one many candidates were able to calculate the present value of the
after tax synergies but did not realise that this should then be stated as a percentage of the value
calculated in part (a).
Part (c) of requirement one was very disappointing since p/e valuations have been tested several
times in the past. Many candidates lost marks by making no attempt to calculate the earnings.
Instead a common calculation was to divide the target share price by the p/e ratio given in the
question for recent takeovers in the sector and then multiplying the resultant figure back up
again:
17 eps = 160p, eps = 9.41p, Offer price = 9.41p 17 = 160p!
Marks
24.1 Theoretical ex-rights price:
Funds to be raised by rights issue 1
Market value 1
TERP calculation 1
3
24.2 (a) Current EPS 1.5
Current earnings plus debenture interest saved 2
New earnings 1
New EPS 1
(b) New EPS if EPS reduces by 10%
New total shares 1
Current shares in issues 1
New shares to be issued 0.5
Rights issue price/share 0.5
Rights issue would be unsuccessful as above current 1
market price 1.5
11
24.3 Gearing level (BV) 1
Gearing level (MV) 2
Advise whether there is gearing problem max 3
Gearing theory max 3
9
24.4 Dividend policy and share price 7
Impact of special dividend 2
9
24.5 Ethical implications 3
35
(b) If EPS reduces by 10%, then new EPS is £0.324 (1 – 10%) £0.2916
New total shares £6.509m/£0.2916 22,322m
Current shares in issue 16.500m
New shares to be issued 5.822m
Rights issue price/share £30.855m/5.822m £5.30
As this is above the current market price (£4.20) the rights issue would not be
successful.
24.3
Gearing level (BV) £54,750/£97,670 56.1%
So gearing at MV is under 50%. Gearing would be a problem if it was causing WACC to rise
(tax advantage outweighed by debenture holders and shareholders wanting a higher
return) and MV to fall.
Gearing theory – Traditional view/Modigliani & Miller (MM) view/Modern view – balance
between tax benefits and bankruptcy costs.
24.4 Dividend policy and share price – Traditional view/MM and irrelevance theory/Modern view
– including signaling, clientele effect and agency theory.
Impact of special dividend – the market is not in favour of such dividends generally, ie, the
share price may well fall as a result, and so it seems to defeat the object of retaining profit
for investment.
24.5 Unpublished information of a price sensitive nature should remain confidential, not be
disclosed and not be used to obtain a personal advantage.
Examiner's comments:
This question had the second highest average mark on the paper and the majority of candidates
did well enough to 'pass' it.
This was a five-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus.
In the scenario the board of a UK manufacturer was concerned about the company's gearing
levels. The board is considering either (a) a rights issue to buy back debt or (b) reducing future
dividend payments.
In the first part for three marks candidates were required to calculate the company's theoretical
ex-rights price. The second requirement was worth 11 marks. Half of these were allocated to
part (a) which required candidates to calculate next year's EPS figure (based on the fact that
some of the debt would have been repaid). In part (b) of this requirement candidates were
required to calculate and explain the implications for the rights issue of restricting the change in
25 Brennan plc
Marking guide
Marks
25.1 Sales calculations 1.5
Operating profit 1
Tax 1
Working capital investment 1.5
Non-current asset investment 1.5
Discount rate 1
Post year six cash flows 1.5
Short-term investments 1
Comment 3
13
25.2 1–2 marks per valid comment max 7
20
Marks
26.1 (a) Forward market:
Forward rate 1
Net receipt 1
Money market:
Euro borrowing 1
Sterling conversion 1
Interest 1
Option market:
Type of option 1
Number of contracts 1
Premium in euros 1
Premium in sterling 1
Scenario 1: Option not exercised 1
Scenario 1: Sterling receipt 1
Scenario 2: Option exercised 1
Scenario 2: Gain on option 1
Scenario 2: Sterling receipt 1
14
(b) Transaction costs 1
Exact date does not need to be known 2
Cannot tailor contracts 1
Hedge inefficiencies 1
Limited number of currencies 1
More complex than forwards 1
7
26.2 (a) Buy a 3–6 FRA at a fixed rate 1
Calculation of amount bank to pay Fratton 1
Payment on the underlying loan 1
Net payment on the loan 1
4
(b) Sell three-month interest rate futures 1
Number of contracts 1
Calculation of gain 1
Futures outcome 1
Payment in the spot market 1
5
30
Marks
27.1 Type of contract 1
Value of one contract 1
Number of contracts needed 1
Premium 1
If index rises – abandon 1
Outcome if index rises 1
Gain if index falls 1
Outcome if index falls 1
8
27.2 (a) Type of contract 1
Number of contracts 1
Futures outcome 1
Net outcome 1
Effective interest rate 1
Hedge efficiency 1
6
27.1 Sunwin requires an option to sell – a December put option with an exercise price of 5,000.
Portfolio value = £5.6m Exercise price = 5,000
Value of one contract = 5,000 £10 = £50,000
Number of contracts required = £5.6m/50,000 = 112 contracts
Premium: 70 points £10 per point 112 contracts = £78,400
(a) If the index rises to 5,900, the put option gives Sunwin the right to sell @ 5,000, so the
option would be abandoned (with zero value).
Overall position: £
Value of portfolio 6,608,000
Gain on option –
Less premium (78,400)
6,529,600
(b) If the index falls to 4,100, the put option gives Sunwin the right to sell @ 5,000, so the
option would be exercised (value = £9,000 {900 £10} 112 contracts = £1,008,000).
Overall position: £
Value of portfolio 4,592,000
Gain on option 1,008,000
Less premium (78,400)
5,521,600
Examiner's comments:
Following its introduction into the syllabus at the last review, this subject area was initially very
challenging for many candidates. However, at this sitting and in a reflection of an emerging
trend on the paper in more recent sittings, candidates' grasp of the material appears to get
stronger and stronger, so much so that it was this question, rather than the traditional NPV
question, that provided many candidates with the basis of their pass on the paper.
Most candidates performed strongly on the first part of this question, although where errors
were made they primarily related to incorrect calculation of the number of contracts and the
premium.
The only real areas of weakness in most candidates' responses to the second requirement were
in their being unable to effectively calculate hedge efficiency (many candidates simply did not
even make an attempt to do so) and in the mis-calculation of time-period adjustments and,
consequently, premiums. However, overall candidate strength in this area of the syllabus is
pleasing to see.
Marks
28.4 Option 2
FRA 2
No hedge 1
Recommendation 2
7
30
28.1
INR 200,000,000
Sterling receipt at spot rate = £2,094,394
95.4930
(a) Sterling receipt if rupee INR 200,000,000 INR 200,000,000
£2,073,658
weakens by 1% (95.4930 1.01) 96.4479
INR 200,000,000
(b) Option (@ exercise price) £2,093,145
95.5500
Less cost (£8,000)
£2,085,145
(c) Forward INR 200,000,000 INR 200,000,000
£2,089,438
contract (95.4930 + 0.2265) 95.7195
Less cost (£4,500)
£2,084,938
Option
Exercise? Indifferent Yes
Rate (4%) (4%)
Premium (0.75%) (0.75%)
(4.75%) (4.75%)
Annual interest payment (on £8.5m) (£403,750) (£403,750)
FRA
Pay at LIBOR +1 (4%) (7%)
(Payment to)/receipt from bank (0.5%) 2.5%
(4.5%) (4.5%)
Annual interest payment (on £8.5m) (£382,500) (£382,500)
No hedge
Pay at LIBOR + 1 (4%) (7%)
Annual interest payment (on £8.5m) (£340,000) (£595,000)
If LIBOR is 3% then it's better not to hedge and at 6% the FRA seems to be the cheapest
option.
It also depends on the board's attitude to risk.
The FRA eliminates down side risk (rates rising) as well as upside risk (rates falling).
Examiner's comments:
The average mark for this question was the highest in the paper, equated to a clear pass and so,
overall, was done well.
This was a four-part question that tested the financial risk element of the syllabus.
The scenario was based on a UK footwear manufacturer/exporter and included relevant
exchange rates and interest rates. The question tested (a) candidates' understanding of foreign
Marks
29.1 (a) Net currency exposure 1
Forward rate 1
Cost of payment 2
29.1 (a) Lambourn's net foreign currency exposure is the net $ payment due = $1,550,000.
The sterling payments and receipts can be ignored.
The forward rate would be 1.6666 – 0.0249 = $1.6417/£.
The cost of the payment would therefore be 1,550,000/1.6417 = £944,143.
(b) The current spot rate is $1.6666/£ so Lambourn should buy December put options on
£ with a strike price of $1.67 as $1.65/£ and $1.63/£ are worse than current spot rate.
Number of contracts = $1,550,000/1.67/10,000 = 92.8 = 93 contracts
Premium = 93 10,000 0.0555 = $51,615 at spot ($1.6666) would cost £30,970
Outcome if the spot rate is $1.6400/£: Exercise the option
Option $1.67 Spot $1.64 so profit of ($0.03 93 10,000) = $27,900
Convert $1,550,000 – $27,900 = $1,522,100/1.64 = £928,110 + £30,970 = £959,080
Alternatively:
This will realise 10,000 93 $1.67 = $1,553,100
Excess $ = $3,100 which at spot would realise £1,884 (3,100/1.6454)
Cost = (10,000 93) + 30,970 – 1,884= £959,086
(c) Sell December futures @ 1.6496
$1,550,000/1.6496 = £939,622
Therefore 939,622/62,500 =15.03 = 15 contracts
Futures market outcome:
Sell at 1.6496
Buy at 1.6400
Profit 0.0096 15 62,500 = $9,000
Spot market outcome: Buy $1,541,000 @ $1.6400/£ = £939,634
(d) Lambourn requires $1,550,000 in six months' time – the company therefore needs to
deposit $1,546,135 now (1,550,000/1.0025).
To buy $1,546,135 now will cost £927,718 (1,546,135/1.6666).
The cost of this payment with six months' interest is £941,634 (927,718 {1+0.015}).
Examiner's comments:
This risk management question produced the highest average mark of the three questions. This
reflects the fact that a firm knowledge of the techniques involved provides candidates with a
good opportunity to score highly on such questions, particularly when (as many do) they benefit
from the application of the 'follow-through' principle when such questions are marked. As usual,
however, there was very little middle ground – the failing candidates on the paper overall had
little or no grasp of the techniques involved in this question and scored poorly.
The most common errors in the first part were a failure to correctly calculate the firm's net
transaction exposure, often including the sterling amounts, incorrect identification of the correct
type of option, a failure to accurately calculate the number of contracts and the use of the wrong
rate when calculating the premium.
The second part was generally well answered.
Marks
Examiner's comments:
This was a six-part question that tested candidates' understanding of the risk management
element of the syllabus. The scenario was that a company had used derivative instruments to
hedge risk that locked the company into one rate or asset price. The finance director of the
company wished to know more about the use of financial options in risk management. Two risks
in particular that the finance director was concerned about were the risks associated with buying
shares and the interest rate risk associated with taking out loans.
There were many weak answers to the first part of the question, but there were some excellent
answers, which demonstrated a good understanding of the characteristics of options. The
second part was poorly answered, which is surprising since this has been examined before.
However, again, there were some excellent answers.
There were many weak answers to the third part of the question, however there were some
excellent answers, which demonstrated a good understanding of the characteristics of options.
In the fourth part, many students successfully applied the knowledge that they had acquired
from their studies of FTSE 100 index options. However, basic errors included using calls instead
of puts and picking the incorrect month of exercise. The fifth part has been examined before, yet
there were many basic errors which included using calls instead of puts, an incorrect number of
contracts, the wrong date for the contracts and an inability to calculate an effective interest rate.
The final part was well answered by the majority of candidates.
Marks
(2)
Equipment purchase/WDV 1,150,000 943,000 773,260 634,073
WDA @ 18%/Bal.allowance (207,000) (169,740) (139,187) (534,073)
WDV/sale 943,000 773,260 634,073 100,000
Tax
(17% WDV/Bal.allowance) 35,190 28,856 23,662 90,792
(3)
Sales (March 20X6 prices) 2,600,000 700,000
Inflate at 2% pa (1.02)2 (1.02)3
"Money" sales income 2,705,040 742,846
(4)
Variable cost 1,180,000 220,000
(March 20X6 prices)
Inflate at 3% pa (1.03)2 (1.03)3
"Money" variable cost 1,251,862 240,400
(6)
Sales (W3) 2,705,040 742,846
Variable costs (W4) (1,251,862) (240,400)
Rent (80,000) (80,000) (80,000)
Fixed costs (W5) _ (164,800) (169,744) (174,836)
Trading profit/(loss) (80,000) (244,800) 1,203,434 327,610
(7)
Total working capital 0 260,000 70,000 0
1.03 (1.03)2
"Money" total working capital 0 267,800 74,263 0
£(64, 012)
% change in variable costs required 6.1%
£(1, 048, 890)
Thus, ignoring all other factors, variable costs would need to fall by 6.1% before the NPV
became positive and the AP525 was viable. This is a relatively small change required to
make the NPV positive.
31.3 With shareholder value analysis (SVA), a company's value is based on the present value of
its future cash flows, so it is forward-looking. This is theoretically the most superior valuation
method. SVA considers seven value drivers, which link to (or drive) company strategy:
(1) Life of projected cash flows
(2) Sales growth rate
(3) Operating profit margin
(4) Corporate tax rate
(5) Investment in non-current assets
(6) Investment in working capital
(7) List of capital
Predictions are very difficult, as cash flows are technically in perpetuity. Once a company's
period of competitive advantage is over then its growth rate is much slower and a terminal
(residual) value is calculated, based on its cash flows to perpetuity. This terminal value is
often the major part of the overall value of the company.
Examiner's comments:
This question had easily the highest percentage mark on the paper. Overall, the candidates'
performance was very good indeed.
This was a four-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the investment
decisions element of the syllabus. In the scenario a pharmaceutical company was considering
the development of a new product and the possible takeover of a competitor. In the first part,
for 18 marks, candidates were required to calculate the net present value of the proposed
product development. They were given forecast life-cycle data for the new product and had to
take account of non-relevant cash flows, inflation rates and corporation tax implications.
Secondly, for five marks, they were required to calculate the sensitivity of that decision to the
variable costs of the product. For a further six marks they were asked to outline how Shareholder
Value Analysis (SVA) could be used when valuing a target company. Finally, for six marks,
candidates were required to apply their understanding of agency theory to three specific
elements of the scenario.
The first part was very well answered by most candidates. However, common errors noted were:
no balancing charge calculated on the old equipment to be disposed of.
rental costs (fixed) were inflated and/or in arrears, not in advance.
tax savings from negative cash flows in Year 0 and Year 1 were omitted.
working capital – did not net to zero, was applied to the wrong years, the inflation
calculations were poor.
Also, many candidates lost marks for not explaining why depreciation, head office costs and
interest charges were not relevant cash flows. 'Not relevant' was insufficient. In the second part,
the sensitivity calculations were generally fine. The most common errors were (a) using sales or
contribution figures rather than variable costs and (b) missing out the effect of taxation in the
calculations.
As in previous papers the candidates' understanding of SVA was generally poor. A
disappointing number of them concentrated, wrongly, on NPV rather than PV and discussed
SVA in regard to a project and not the valuation of a target company. Thus, many candidates did
not mention terminal value. Agency theory was generally answered well. The weakest area here
was candidates' explanation of the conflicts that might arise in relation to short-term versus long-
term performance appraisal in the context of the project. Too many used a takeover context
instead.
Marks
TERP = £1.5429
Value of a right = £1.5429 – £1.15 £0.3929
Current wealth 10,000 £1.70 17,000
(a) Take up rights £ £
Investment ex-rights 10,000 7/5 1.5429 21,600
Cost of extra shares 10,000 2/5 £1.15 (4,600) 17,000
(b) Sell rights
Investment ex-rights 10,000 1.5429 15,429
Sale of rights 10,000 2/5 £0.39 1,571 17,000
(c) Ignore rights
Investment ex-rights 10,000 1.5429 15,429
32.4 OW's current earnings per share (EPS) £21.12m/192.0m £0.11
OW's current p/e ratio £1.70/£0.11 15.5
[or £326.4m/£21.12m = 15.5 for 2 marks]
Examiner's comments:
This question had the lowest percentage mark on the paper. The majority of candidates
achieved a "pass" standard in the question, however.
This was a six-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus and there was also a small section with an ethics element to it. It was
based around a design company which was planning to restructure its balance sheet. This would
be achieved by financing the redemption of long-term debt via a rights issue of ordinary shares.
The first part of the question, for three marks, required candidates to calculate the current
gearing levels of the company, using both book and market values. In the second part, for six
marks, they were asked to discuss the impact of a change in the company's gearing levels on its
share price. Candidates were expected to make reference to relevant theories and their
calculations from the first part. The third part, for nine marks, required the candidates to
calculate the theoretical ex-rights price (TERP) of the company and the impact of the proposed
rights issue on the wealth of a shareholder holding 10,000 of the company's shares. The fourth
part (seven marks) tested candidates' understanding of (a) the company's P/E figure and (b) the
impact of the debt redemption on the company's earnings figure. The fifth part, again for seven
marks, required candidates to apply their understanding of dividend policy theory to the
scenario. Finally, for three marks, the final part required candidates to comment as an ICAEW
Chartered Accountant on the ethical implications of issuing misleading information to
shareholders.
Marks
33.1 (a) Hedging strategies:
Forward contract 2
Money market hedge 3
OTC currency option 3
8
(b) Advice on hedge:
Use of spot rates to analyse costs 3
Conclusion re options 1
Effect of continually weakening rouble on spot rate 1
Advantages of options (flexibility) 2
Other factors to consider (risk attitudes, political risk) 2
9
(c) Three month forward rate:
Interest rate parity 2
Calculation of three-month forward rate using IRP
formula 2
Calculation of discount 1
5
33.2 Interest rate swap:
Calculation of interest rate differences 1
Details of swap 2
Net new rate for TC 1.5
Net new rate for SSM 1.5
Details of new interest payments 2
8
30
R145.6m
Payment in sterling would be (£1,823,419)
79.85
plus: Option premium 145.6 £90 (£13,104)
(£1,836,523)
R145.6m
(b) Sterling payment at spot rate (£1,847,481)
78.81
R145.6m
Comparative payment at earlier dates 31/12/X4 (£1,832,599)
78.81
R145.6m
31/12/X5 (£1,903,019)
78.81
Stronger sterling gives the lowest payment, and weaker sterling the highest.
The forward contract discount suggests a weakening of the rouble. It has weakened
from December 20X5 to February 20X6, so this may be a trend.
In order (lowest to highest cost)
Option (£1,836,523)
Money market hedge (£1,838,371)
Forward contract (£1,840,501)
Spot (£1,847,481)
The option gives the best outcome (it has a slightly lower cost than the money market
hedge and the forward contract). However, if the rouble continued to weaken then the
sterling cost would fall further. For example, a 1% increase in the spot value of sterling
over the next three months would make this the lowest sterling payment
(145.6mR/(78.81 1.01) = £1,829,146.
An option gives flexibility (the ability to abandon, or to take advantage of any upside)
unlike the money market hedge or forward contract (which are both fixed, binding, and
have no upside/downside).
The directors' attitude to risk is important, as is a consideration of issues such as the
potential for political risk associated with operations in Russia.
The rouble interest rates are higher than those of sterling. Using the interest rate parity
(IRP) equation above, the value of sterling against the rouble will rise. The rouble's loss
of value is called a discount.
Average UK rate 3.25% pa or 0.8125% per 3 months
Average Russian rate 6.1% pa or 1.525% per 3 months
Average spot = (90.62 – 78.81)/2) + 78.81 = 84.715
Forward = 84.715 (1.01525/1.008125) = 85.31 ie, a discount of 0.6
Average discount given = 0.59, so IRP is working
33.2
TC SSM Difference
Fixed 5.2% 6.4% 1.2%
Variable LIBOR + 1.2 LIBOR + 1.6 0.4%
Difference between differences 0.8%
This potential gain can be split evenly, ie, 0.4% to each party. This means that TC would pay
LIBOR + 0.8% (LIBOR + [1.2% – 0.4%] and SSM would pay fixed 6.0% (6.4% – 0.4%).
The interest rate swap would look like this:
TC SSM
Currently pays (5.2%) (LIBOR + 1.6)
TC pays SSM (LIBOR) LIBOR
SSM pays TC (balancing figure) 4.4% (4.4)
New net payment (LIBOR + 0.8) (6.0%)
TC and SSM would both pay at less (0.4% in each case) than their available fixed and
variable rates.
TC SSM
New net interest rate (LIBOR + 0.8) 4.3% pa 6.0% pa
£'000 £'000
Interest on £18.5m pa (795.5) (1,110.0)
Alternatively
£'000 Rate £'000 £'000 Rate £'000
Interest paid now 18,500 (5.2%) (962.0) 18,500 (5.1%) (943.5)
SSM pays TC 4.4% 814.0 (4.4%) (814.0)
TC pays SSM (3.5%) (647.5) 3.5% 647.5
New interest
payment (795.5) (1,110.0)
Marks
Examiner's comments:
This was a seven-part question, which tested candidates' understanding of the investment
decisions element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a company is divesting
itself of a division by offering it to the public through an Initial Public Offering.
The first part was well answered by many candidates. Common errors that weaker candidates
made were: including operating cash flows in time zero; incorrect calculation of the continuing
value; adding the 18% growth and 2% price increase figures together instead of compounding
them; omitting to explain why certain inputs were not to be included in the cash flows; applying
a non-marketability discount to the final valuation.
The second part was also well answered by the majority of candidates. However, many
candidates applied a non-marketability discount to the p/e ratio, which was inappropriate for the
valuation of an IPO. Responses to the third part were mixed and often did not relate to the
scenario of the question despite the requirement specifically asking for this. Very few students
submitted correct answers to the fourth part of the question, and often made up definitions.
Responses to the fifth part were mixed, with a lot of candidates showing that they did not
understand what underwriting means. Responses to the sixth part were good, although often
candidates did not consider the scenario of the question. The final part was well answered by
the majority of candidates. However, as in previous sittings, a number of candidates did not use
the language of ethics.
Marks
Examiner's comments:
This was a five-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a company is expanding its
operations into a different sector of its market.
There were many basic errors in the first part which really should not be occurring given how
many times this has been set. The errors included the inability to calculate numbers correctly;
incorrectly calculating the number of shares in issue; not calculating the ex-div share price
and/or the ex-interest debenture price; for the cost of debt calculating positive and negative
values and interpolating outside of the range calculated; no tax adjustment for the cost of debt
and using book values for the WACC calculation. In the second requirement part (b) it was
disappointing to see that many candidates were deducting the risk free rate from the market risk
premium. Also a number of candidates were using the 1.3 equity beta from the sightseeing tour
sector rather than Ross's existing equity beta of 0.65.
The second part was well answered by the majority of candidates. Answers to the third part were
mixed and often there were no reality checks made, with some candidates clearly demonstrating
that they have a very shallow knowledge of the topic. Errors included calculating unrealistic
equity betas (over 300 in one script); degearing using Ross's market values and regearing the
gearing ratio of the holiday and sightseeing tour sector; regearing using book values despite
the formulae sheet stating market values; degearing and regearing with the same debt/equity
ratio and ending up with a different figure from the start; when regearing changing the gearing
ratio, even though the question states that this will not change; very brief or non-existent
explanations of the rationale.
Despite the fourth part being set before, and with a very similar detailed example in the Study
Manual, most candidates made a poor attempt. Few candidates used the redemption yield of
the existing debentures, which they had calculated in the first part; there were only brief or no
explanations of the terms of the debenture issue.
The fifth part was well answered by the majority of candidates, but some answers gave
explanations of Modigliani and Miller, which was not relevant to this question.
Marks
(b) Sheldon should exercise the options since the index has fallen to 5,875, which is below
the put option exercise price.
The gain on exercising the options = £962,000 ((6,525 – 5,875) £10 148)
Overall position £
Portfolio 8,695,000
Gain on options 962,000
Original value 9,657,000
Less option premium (235,320)
9,421,680
36.3 The three factors that affect the time value of the FTSE 100 options are:
Time to maturity – For example: The longer the time to maturity the more chance there
is that the option will be in the money at expiry. Also there will be a greater interest
element in the option value.
The risk free rate – For example: The level of the risk free rate will affect the interest
element in the options value. The higher it is the more interest element.
Volatility – For example: Higher volatility will increase the option value since there is
more chance of the option being in the money, or deeper in the money, at expiry.
Examiner's comments:
This was a four-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the risk management
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a risk management company is
giving advice to two clients: to one client, on hedging foreign exchange rate risk and to the
second on hedging the fall in the value of a portfolio of FTSE 100 shares.
The first requirement was well answered by most candidates. However some of the errors
demonstrated by weaker candidates included calculating the number of futures contracts using
the spot rate rather than the futures price; stating that currency futures should be initially sold;
treating an over the counter option like a traded option; confusing puts and calls. There were
average responses from a lot of candidates to part (b), often without any reference to the
numbers calculated in part (a); however there were some excellent answers. There were some
excellent answers to the second part from the majority of candidates. Weaker candidates
confused calls and puts and demonstrated that they clearly did not know the difference between
the two. There were many excellent answers to the third part, with a good understanding of the
factors that contribute to the time value of options. However weaker candidates tended to only
give one correct factor and then made up the other two.
Marks
37.1 FRA 2
Option 2
No hedge 1
Interest rate swap not applicable 1
Appropriate commentary 3
9
37.2 (a) Currency futures contracts 5
(b) OTC currency option 3
(c) Forward contract 2
(d) Money market hedge 3
13
37.3 Spot rate calculations 2
Appropriate commentary – 1 mark per point 6
8
30
37.1
LIBOR + 2 7% 9%
FRA
Pay at LIBOR +2 (7.00%) (9.00%)
(Payment to)/receipt from bank (0.25%) 1.75%
(7.25%) (7.25%)
Total interest payment over 12 months (on £9.5m) (£688,750) (£688,750)
Option
Exercise? Yes Yes
Rate (6.5%) (6.5%)
Premium (1.0%) (1.0%)
(7.5%) (7.5%)
Total interest payment over 12 months (on £9.5m) (£712,500) (£712,500)
No hedge
Pay at LIBOR + 2 (7%) (9%)
Total interest payment over 12 months (on £9.5m) (£665,000) (£855,000)
An interest rate swap would not be appropriate here as it is short-term and would in all
likelihood be very difficult to arrange.
If LIBOR is 5% then it would be best not to hedge. If LIBOR is 7% the FRA gives the lowest
interest figure. The figures are not conclusive, and the board's attitude to risk will be
important. The FRA eliminates downside risk (rates rising) as well as upside risk (rates
falling).
$
Cost of consignment (4,800,000)
Profit on futures 47,813
Net cost (4,752,187)
Net cost at spot rate ($4,752,187)/1.4895 (£3,190,458)
(31/1/X7)
(b) OTC currency option
If the spot rate at 31/1/X7 was $1.4895 then the option would be exercised.
A call option would be used (ie, at $1.5020/£)
Receipt in sterling would be $4.8m (£3,195,739)
1.502
plus: Option premium 4.8m £0.011 (£52,800)
(£3,248,539)
37.3
Sterling payment at spot rate 30/9/X6 $4.8m (£3,168,317)
1.5150
Sterling payment at spot rate 31/1/X7 $4.8m (£3,222,558)
1.4895
The forward contract premium suggests a strengthening of the $. A weaker £ means a
higher payment, and vice versa for a stronger £.
Order (cheapest first)
Spot at 30/9/X6 £3,168,317
Currency futures contracts £3,190,458
MMH £3,202,755
Forward contract £3,211,113
Spot at 31/1/X7 £3,222,558
OTC option £3,248,539
Examiner's comments:
This question had easily the highest percentage mark on the paper. Overall, the candidates'
performance was very good. This was a three-part question which tested the candidates'
understanding of the risk management element of the syllabus. In the scenario a UK electricity
generator was considering hedging (1) the interest costs of a large loan and (2) its exposure to
foreign exchange rate risk on a planned purchase from an American supplier. In the first part, for
nine marks, candidates were required to calculate the interest payments that would arise on its
planned loan were it to make use of an FRA, an option or a swap. Two different rates of LIBOR
were given to the candidates. Candidates were then required to recommend which of the
hedging techniques the company should choose at each of the LIBOR rates. The second
requirement was worth 13 marks and asked candidates to calculate the sterling cost arising from
a range of hedging techniques applied to the American purchase. Finally the third part, for eight
marks, required candidates to advise the company's board whether it should hedge the
American (dollar) payments.
The first part was answered well by many candidates. However, common errors made were:
• candidates based their calculations on a borrowing period of six months rather than 12
(the loan was to be taken out for 12 months, starting in six months' time).
• the majority of candidates failed to calculate the implications of not hedging the borrowing
and so comparisons were difficult.
• a significant number of candidates abandoned the option when LIBOR was 5% because
they compared 5% v 6.5% instead of 7% v 6.5% ie, they failed to recognise that the
company was borrowing at LIBOR + 2% pa.
Very few candidates spotted that the swap was irrelevant because it was a short-term borrowing
(ie, 12 months). Most candidates' answers to the second part were very good, but the most
common errors noted were:
• currency futures – many chose the wrong date for calculating the number of futures
contracts, bought futures instead of sold them and calculated the profit on the futures trade
in £ instead of $.
• OTC currency options – far too many candidates exercised puts rather than calls.
The forward contract calculations were generally very good as were those for the money
market hedge. The main stumbling blocks with the latter were (1) choosing the wrong
interest rate and (2) using three months rather than four. The advice given by candidates on
the foreign exchange hedging in part three was generally good, but, if candidates did not
calculate the relevant spot rates then they lost marks. The performance of overseas
candidates in this section was, overall, very poor.
Marks
38.1 (a)
Ordinary dividend per share in 20X6 (£3,797,500/15,500,000) 24.5 pence
Ordinary dividend growth rate = £0.201/£0.245, which over four years 5% p.a.
Cost of equity (ke) = (d1) + g (£0.245 1.05) 9.95%
+ 5%
MV £5.20
Cost of preference shares (kp) d (£540,000/9m) £0.06 5.55%
=
MV £1.08
38.1 (b)
Cost of equity (1.2 (9.5% – 1.9%)) + 1.9 = 11.02%
Examiner's comments:
This question had, marginally, the lowest percentage mark on the paper. The majority of
candidates achieved a 'pass' standard in the question, however.
This was a five-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus. It was based around a UK engineering company which was planning to
diversify into the UK fracking industry. As a result various calculations regarding its current and
future cost of capital were deemed necessary. The first part of the question, for 13 marks,
required candidates to calculate the current weighted average cost of capital (WACC) of the
company using (1) the dividend growth model and (2) the CAPM. In the second part, for three
marks, candidates were asked to explain whether the company should continue to use its
existing hurdle rate for its decisions on large-scale investments. The third part, for five marks,
required candidates to explain the underlying logic of employing the CAPM within a WACC
calculation. The fourth part was worth 10 marks. Here, candidates were tested on their ability to
re-work their CAPM calculations, which was necessary because of the company's proposed
diversification into fracking, which would alter the level of systematic risk. Finally, for four marks,
candidates were asked to explain the circumstances in which it would be appropriate to use the
adjusted present value approach to investment appraisal.
Most candidates did well in the first requirement, part (a) but common errors were:
• inaccurate (and, at times, inappropriate) calculations of the dividend growth rate.
• not using the market value (MV) when calculating the cost of preference shares.
• for the cost of redeemable debentures – not using the ex-interest MV, choosing four years
to redemption rather than three, inaccurate IRR calculation from NPV's.
• irredeemable debentures – not using the ex-interest MV, using the post-tax coupon rate as
the cost of debt.
Combining the costs of the redeemable and irredeemable debt, rather than treating them
separately.
Part (b) was done very well. Only a few candidates failed to calculate the CAPM correctly.
The second part was generally well answered and most candidates were able to identify the key
issue – ie, Roper could be making poor investment decisions. In the third part too few
candidates answered the question fully and concentrated more on a discussion of de-
gearing/re-gearing. In the fourth part the de-gearing/re-gearing calculations were mostly done
well, but too many candidates' explanation of their approach here concentrated on 'how' rather
than 'why' it was done. The fifth part was, overall, done well and candidates demonstrated a
reasonable understanding of APV.
Marks
39.1 (a)
Per
share
Net Assets £4,998 £10.00
(historic cost)
500
Net Assets (£4,998 +£3,150 +£3,370 – £2,400 – £3,200) £5,918 £11.84
(revalued) 500 500
W1
WDV b/f 920 754 618
WDA @ 18%/Bal All (166) (136) (618)
WDV c/f 754 618 0
W2
Pre-tax cash profits 2,900 3,000 3,100
WDA/BA (W1) (166) (136) (618)
Taxable profits 2,734 2,864 2,482
(b) Net Assets (historic cost) – tends towards low historic values, so an undervaluation.
Intangibles are ignored. Earnings potential and future earnings are ignored.
Net Assets (revalued) – as above, except that the asset values used are current.
P/E ratio – Looks at earnings. Will it be a majority stake? If so, then control will be
gained, so shares for this controlling stake should cost more. In this scenario it gives a
much higher value than assets. However, are these earnings stable into the future? Is
the company over-reliant on the two successful games from 20X3? Future earnings –
are there new games planned? Will they be successful?
Dividend yield – this is based on dividend income and is applicable where it's to be a
minority stake. Are these dividends stable? Will there be dividend growth?
PV of future cash flows – considers cash flows not profits and estimates forwards. These
are large estimates, especially the terminal value. Is it over-reliant on the two successful
games (as above)?
Overall – a value close to £30/share should be a minimum price.
Examiner's comments:
This was a three-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the investment
decisions element of the syllabus and there was also a small section with an ethics element to it.
In the scenario a software development company was considering investing in a company that
designs games for use on computers and mobile phones. Candidates were given financial
information relating to the target company.
In the first requirement, part (a) was worth 14 marks and required candidates to calculate the
value of one share in the target company using five different valuation methods. Whilst in part
(b), for 10 marks, candidates had to explain, making reference to their previous calculations, the
advantages and disadvantages of using each of the valuation methods. The second
requirement, for eight marks, candidates were required to explain the reasoning underpinning
the shareholder value analysis (SVA) method of valuation. They also had to explain whether SVA
could be used to value this particular target company, bearing in mind the information
provided. Finally, in the third requirement, for three marks, candidates had to explain the ethical
issues arising for an ICAEW Chartered Accountant who is privy to price-sensitive information
which is not in the public domain.
Generally the first requirement part (a) was answered well. A surprising number of candidates
were unable to calculate the share value based on the net asset basis (historic cost), but were
able to calculate it with the net asset basis revalued. The P/E and dividend yield valuations were
generally done very well. Most candidates scored well using the PV of future cash flows method
of valuation.
Candidates' discussion was limited to mainly knowledge in the first requirement part (b) – few
considered whether the techniques were suitable for a majority/minority holding despite being
guided in that direction in the question. The vast majority of candidates ignored the 'elephant in
the room', ie, the fact that the target company's computer games had a limited life of three to
five years and the successful games were three years old.
In general candidates' understanding of the theory of SVA was good, but too few were able to
explain adequately whether it could be used in this particular scenario. Candidate's
understanding of the ethical issues was generally good.
Marks
40.1 Net present value calculation:
Contribution 3
Rent, managers costs, consultancy saved 4
Contribution lost 2
Fixed overhead 2
Tax, working capital, capital allowances 6
NPV and conclusion 3
20
40.2 (a) Sensitivity to sales revenue:
Contribution 1
Tax and discount factor 1.5
PV calculation 0.5
Sensitivity and conclusion 1
4
(b) Sensitivity to the residual value of equipment:
Maximum loss of scrap value 0.5
Increase in the balancing charge 1
PV calculation 0.5
Sensitivity and conclusion 1
3
40.3 Real options:
1 mark to identify, and 1.5 marks to explain
(two real options required) 2.5 2 5
35
40.1
0 1 2 3 4
Units million 0.096 0.115 0.098 0.083
Selling price £ 299.00 299.00 299.00 299.00
Variable costs per unit £ –164.45 –172.67 –181.3 –190.37
Contribution per unit £ 134.55 126.33 117.7 108.63
NPV 8.59
The NPV is positive and Ribble should therefore accept the project to increase shareholder
wealth.
Marks are awarded for not including the research and development costs of £100,000 and
allocated fixed overheads, since they are sunk costs and allocated costs respectively.
Units:
1 8,000 12 = 96,000
2 96,000 1.2 = 115,200
3 112,200 (1 – 0.15) = 97,920
4 97,920 (1 – 0.15) = 83,232
Lost contribution:
1 (96,000 units/10) £25 = £240,000
2 (115,200 units/10) £25 = £288,000
3 (97,920 units/10) £25 = £244,800
4 (83,232 units/10) £25 = £208,080
Working capital
cumulative Increment
0 –1 –1
1 –1.2 –0.2
2 –1.02 0.18
3 –0.87 0.15
4 0 0.87
Total PV = 32.08
Sensitivity NPV/PV
(8.59/32.08) 27%
Given the risky nature of this project, the board of Ribble might consider the project to be
too sensitive to changes in the sales revenue.
Sensitivity to the residual value of equipment:
£m
Maximum loss of scrap value 4
Increase in the balancing charge 17% –0.68
Net cash flows 3.32
Although this represents 26% (2.27/8.59) of the overall NPV, the project is insensitive to the
residual value, since there would be a substantial NPV even if the value fell to zero.
40.3 Ribble has:
The option to delay the project for one year to see whether the competitor launches their
hoverboard onto the market.
The option to abandon the project should sales levels be below those estimated eg, if the
rival company's hoverboard is launched and proves to be more popular than the
Ribbleboard.
There is a follow on option in that Ribble could expand if the competitor's product fails
and/or sales of the Ribbleboard are better than expected.
Candidates might also state growth or flexibility options.
40.4 The CEO should disregard the comments that Ribble should continue to manufacture an
unsafe hoverboard. The CEO should act with integrity and ensure that he is not corrupted
by self-interest. He should be objective and not come under the undue influence of other
board members. He should act with professional competence and exercise sound and
independent judgement.
Marks
Examiner's comments:
This was a seven-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the financing
options element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a corporate finance firm is
giving advice to two clients. Client one (requirement 1) is a company seeking to raise additional
funds and client two (requirement 2) is a management buyout team.
Part (a) of the first requirement of the question was well answered by the majority of candidates.
However in the CAPM equation a surprising number did not deduct the risk free rate from the
market return.
Part (b) of the first requirement was also well answered by the majority of candidates. However,
considering that the area has been examined many times before some basic errors were made
which included: incorrectly calculating the number of new shares to be issued; not calculating
the discount that the rights price represents on the current share price of the company (despite
this being specifically asked for).
Also, many candidates were unable to comment on whether and why the actual share price
might not be equal to the theoretical ex-rights share price after the rights issue.
Responses to part (c) of the first requirement were mixed and, since the topic has been
examined many times before, rather disappointing. Candidates were asked to calculate the yield
to redemption (YTR) of debentures that a similar company to the client company already had in
issue. They then had to use the YTR that they had calculated to price a new debenture issue, and
to calculate the total nominal value of the new issue. Common errors included: using the cum-
interest debenture price in the YTR computation; attempting to calculate the YTR on the new
issue; deducting tax from the YTR; incorrectly calculating the total nominal value of the new
issue; many mathematical errors in the YTR computations; calculating, and using, the interest
yield of the debentures rather than the YTR for the new issue, using the coupon rate to calculate
the issue price (and not arriving back at the par value!); for the new issue, using the cost of
equity to calculate the issue price.
Also comments on whether the YTR of the similar company was appropriate to use for the client
company were poor.
Responses to part (d) of the first requirement were extremely disappointing considering that
similar questions have been asked before. In the scenario the candidates were provided with
average and maximum gearing ratios for the industry sector that the client operated in, and also
a definition of gearing as debt/equity by market values. Also the candidates were given the
average and minimum interest cover for the industry. Candidates were instructed in the question
requirement to refer to this data when discussing whether the client company should raise the
finance required by debt or a rights issue.
Many candidates gave very generic answers to this part of the question, just brain dumping the
advantages and disadvantages of debt and equity without referring to the industry data or the
scenario of the question. Disappointingly a large number of candidates also gave a detailed
Marks
Examiner's comments:
This was a four-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the risk management
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that of a company reviewing its foreign
exchange rate risk hedging strategy.
The first part was well answered by most candidates. However some of the errors demonstrated
by weaker candidates included: calculating the number of futures contracts using the spot rate
rather than the futures price; stating that currency futures should be initially sold rather than
bought; calculating the futures gain in £ rather than $; treating an over the counter option like a
traded option; calculating the option premium in $ rather than £; omitting interest on the option
premium.
There were a lot of average responses to the second part, some without any reference to the
numbers calculated in the first part. Many candidates did not give a firm conclusion. However
there were some excellent answers.
Responses to the third part were mixed, with many candidates demonstrating a lack of
understanding of interest rate parity. Very often computations did not make sense and were very
difficult to follow.
Few candidates gave adequate answers to the fourth part, and showed little knowledge of what
economic risk is. However again there were some excellent answers.
Marks
43.1
Rights issue Debt issue
£m £m
Sales (£78.5m 1.20) 94.200 94.200
Variable costs (72% sales) (67.824) (67.824)
Fixed costs (£13.85m + £2m) (15.850) (15.850)
Profit before interest 10.526 10.526
Interest (Workings) (1.421) (3.021)
Profit before tax 9.105 7.505
Tax @ 17% (1.548) (1.276)
Profit after tax 7.557 6.229
Dividends payable (4.920) (3.000)
Retained earnings 2.637 3.229
43.2
Rights issue Debt issue
£m £m
Ordinary share capital (additional 8m shares) 20.500 12.500
Share premium (8m new shares £1.50) 12.000 0.000
Retained earnings 13.923 14.515
46.423 27.015
Debentures 20.300 40.300
Total long term funds 66.723 67.315
£0.369 £0.498
30.4% 59.9%
43.3
Current EPS £5.568m £0.445m
12.500
£0.445m
20.500
Target earnings £9.123m
Add back tax (17%) ÷ 83%
Target profit before tax £10.992m
Add back interest 1.421m
Add back fixed costs 15.850m
Target contribution £28.263m
Contribution/sales ratio ÷ 28%
Target sales £100.939m
43.4 Sentry's current earnings per share figure is 44.5p. The predicted EPS are 36.9p (rights
issue) and 49.8p (debt issue). So the rights issue leads to a lower EPS whilst the debt issue
increases EPS and may, for this reason, be favoured by shareholders.
Rights issue:
As would be expected, the level of gearing is much lower than under the debenture issue
option (30.4% compared to 59.9%). It's also lower than Sentry's current level of gearing
(46.0% [£20,300/44.086]).
Marks
44.1 (a) Relevant money cash flows
Newcastle sales & contribution 2
Tax on profit 0.5
Factory closure 0.5
Tax on closure 0.5
Working capital 0.5
Machinery sale 0.5
Tax saving on machinery 1
Lease cancellation 0.5
Tax saving 0.5
Newcastle working capital 1.5
Discount factor 1
Irrelevant costs: lease, head office, fixed 2
11
London sales 1
London variable costs 1
London fixed costs 1
Tax on profit 0.5
Factory closure 0.5
Tax on closure 0.5
Lease payments 0.5
Tax saved on lease 0.5
Machinery sale 0.5
Tax saving 1.5
London working capital 1.5
Discount factor 1
10
44.1 (b) Advice 1
W1
Newcastle sales £1.3m 1.02 1,326.000
£1.5m 1.02 1.03 1,575.900
W2
Newcastle contribution
(sales 65%) 861.900 1,024.339
W3
WDV 3,100.000
Balancing Allowance (1,400.000)
Sale 1,700.000
W4
Working capital (132.600) (157.590) 0.000
Balance b/f 0.000 132.600 157.590
Increment (132.600) (24.990) 157.590
W1
London sales £7.2m 1.02 7,344.000
£5.5m 1.02
1.03 5,778.300
W2
London fixed costs £1.4m 1.02 (1,428.000)
£1.4m 1.02
1.03 (1,470.840)
W3
London contribution (sales 60%) 4,406.400 3,466.980
less: London fixed costs (1,428.000) (1,470.840)
London 'profit' 2,978.400 1,996.140
W4
WDV 3,100.000 2,542.000 2,084.440
WDA (558.000) (457.560) (1,484.440)
WDV/sale 2,542.000 2,084.440 600.000
W5
Working capital (734.400) (577.830) 0.000
Balance b/f 800.000 734.400 577.830
Increment 65.600 156.570 577.430
44.1(b) White should choose March 20X9 for closure of the London factory as it has the higher
NPV and will enhance shareholder wealth the most.
Indivisible projects
1 2 3 4 Total
£'000 £'000 £'000 £'000
Invested 6,000 4,700 3,850 14,550
NPV 621 869 622 2,112
1 2 3 4 Total
£'000 £'000 £'000 £'000
Invested 4,500 4,700 3,850 13,050
NPV 563 869 622 2,054
The highest NPV is achieved via the combination of projects 1, 3 and 4. This would
generate an NPV of £2,112,000.
44.3 The efficient markets hypothesis (EMH) holds that stock markets are considered in the main
to be efficient, ie, all share prices are 'fair'. Investment returns are those expected for the
risks undertaken. Information is rapidly and accurately incorporated into share values.
When share prices at all times rationally reflect all available information, the market in which
they are traded is said to be efficient. In efficient markets investors cannot make consistently
above-average returns other than by chance.
An efficient market is one in which share prices reflect all of the information available. There
are three levels of efficiency:
Weak form – prices only change when new information about a company is made available.
There are no changes in anticipation of new information. Information arrives in a random
manner (the random walk theory) and so the chartist theory (technical analysis) will not hold
up here. The market is efficient in the weak form if past prices cannot be used to earn
consistently abnormal profits.
Examiner's comments:
This question had the lowest percentage mark on the paper. The majority of candidates
achieved a 'pass' standard in the question, however.
This was a three-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the investment
decisions element of the syllabus.
It was based around a UK cosmetics manufacturing company which has three factories (in
London, Newcastle and Manchester). In the first part of the question, for 22 marks, the company
had decided to close the London factory and relocate some of its production to the Newcastle
factory. Its board is not sure of the best closure date (20X7 or 20X9). Candidates were given
financial information about the two factories and were asked to calculate the relevant money
cash flows associated with closing the London factory (a) in 20X7 and (b) in 20X9. From these
calculations candidates were required to calculate the NPV for each scenario. The second part,
for six marks, considered the Manchester factory and tested candidates' understanding of
capital rationing. The third part, for seven marks, required candidates to explain the key
principles of the Efficient Market Hypothesis and the influence of behavioural factors.
As expected, in the first requirement parts (a) and (b) were very effective discriminators. A good
number of candidates did really well here, but a significant minority really struggled and were
unable to identify the relevant cash flows adequately. This was largely due to an inability to stand
back and think the scenario through carefully before diving in and doing the calculations.
Typical errors made were:
The inclusion of opportunity costs (despite instructions to the contrary)
Including irrelevant cash flows, eg, leases, head office costs, fixed costs
Inaccurate inflation adjustments
Poor working capital calculations
Too many candidates mixed together the London and Newcastle sales/contribution figures
Many candidates considered only 20X7 cash flows for the 20X7 closure date and will have
lost marks
Most candidates scored well in the second part and the most common error was a failure to
apply the trial and error approach for the indivisible projects.
The third part was answered well by most candidates.
Marks
45.1 Net payment due 1
No hedge 2
OTC option 3
Money market hedge 3
Forward contract 2
11
45.2 Hedging advice comparing the methods
under each exchange rate 8
45.1
Net payment due at 30/6/X7 = €1,750,000 – €600,000 €1,150,000
(£917,065) (£902,315)
plus: Premium cost
(€1,150k/€100 £0.70) (8,050) (8,050)
Total cost (£925,115) (£910,365)
Forward contract
Sterling payment €1,150,000 1,150,000 (£913,133)
(1.2652 – 0.0058) 1.2594
At the lower LIBOR rate it is best not to hedge, but with LIBOR at 6% the option is slightly
cheaper than the FRA.
Examiner's comments:
Most candidates demonstrated a good understanding of this area of the syllabus and this
question had the highest average mark on the paper.
This was a four-part question which tested the candidates' understanding of the risk
management element of the syllabus.
In the scenario a UK frozen food company was considering hedging its exposure to (a) foreign
exchange rate risk on a planned €1.15 million (net) payment (three months ahead) and (b)
interest rate risk on a £4.2 million loan from its bank (also three months ahead).
The first part was worth 11 marks and asked candidates to calculate, at two spot rates, the
sterling cost arising from a list of hedging techniques that could be applied to the euro
payment. In the second part, for eight marks, candidates were required to advise the company's
board whether it should hedge the euro payment. In the third part, for seven marks, candidates
were required to calculate the annual interest payments that would arise on its planned loan
were it to make use of an FRA, an option or to not hedge at all. Two different rates of LIBOR
were given to the candidates. From these calculations, candidates were then required to
recommend which of the hedging techniques the company should choose at each of the LIBOR
rates given. Finally, for four marks, candidates were asked to explain how FRA's differ from
interest rate futures.
The first part was generally answered well. However, a minority of candidates added the euro
receipt to the euro payment or kept them separate and so will have lost marks. One disturbing
error, which occurred too frequently, was that candidates calculated two different MMH and
forward contract results using the two future spot rates given, rather than a single result for each,
based on the current spot rate. Also, many wasted time by recalculating the correct MMH and
forward contract results for the second set of spot data, rather than just stating 'no change'. The
examining team has no explanation for this as many similar questions have been set in the past
without these issues occurring. With the currency option, the most common errors were (a)
choosing a put rather than a call option and (b) using a traded option rather than an OTC.
Overall, the second part was disappointing in that too few candidates went beyond only
comparing the best outcome at each spot rate. Most answers here needed to demonstrate a
deeper understanding of the issues involved.
In the third part many candidates scored full marks, which was good to see. However, a number
of candidates lost marks as they were confused by the timings in the scenario. Rather than
calculate the annual interest cost as required, they calculated, incorrectly, a three month cost, ie,
between now and when the loan is to be taken out.
Overall, the final part was answered well.
Marks
46.1 NPV calculation:
Contribution 3
Costs 1.5
Recognition of sunk costs 0.5
Rent forgone 1
Tax 1
New equipment/capital allowances 3
Working capital 2.5
Discount factor 1
NPV conclusion 1.5
15
46.2 PV of contribution 2.5
Sensitivity % 0.5
Conclusion 1
4
46.3 Listing the seven value drivers 2
Application to the scenario 4
6
46.4 1 mark for each option, 1 mark for application 4
46.1
0 1 2 3 4
£m £m £m £m £m
Contribution 2.97 3.18 2.92 2.68
Fixed overheads –0.10 –0.10 –0.11 –0.11
Selling and administration –0.50 –0.52 –0.53 –0.55
Rent forgone –0.40 –0.40 –0.40 –0.40
Operating cash flows –0.40 1.97 2.16 1.88 2.02
After tax operating cash flows –0.33 1.64 1.79 1.56 1.68
Working capital
Total Increment
0 –1 –1
1 –1.07 –0.07
2 –0.98 0.09
3 –0.9 0.08
4 0.9
The discount factor should be calculated as follows:
(1.07 1.025) –1 = 0. 0968 It is acceptable to round this to 0.10 (10%).
46.2
£m £m £m £m
Sensitivity:
Contribution (1– 0.17) 2.47 2.64 2.42 2.22
PV factors 0.909 0.83 0.75 0.68
PV 2.25 2.18 1.82 1.52
Total PV 7.77
Sensitivity
– 2.28/7.77 = –29.3%
Sales revenue will have to increase by 29.3% to arrive at a zero NPV. The project is therefore
relatively insensitive to revenue changes.
Marks
47.1 Cost of equity 1
Cost of debt 4
MV equity 1
MV debt 1
WACC 1
8
47.2 Explanation 2
De-gearing 1.5
Re-gearing 1.5
Cost of equity associated with the project 1
6
47.3 Overall equity beta 1.5
Cost of equity 1
WACC 1.5
Commentary 2
6
47.4 2 marks for definitions; 0.5 marks for each examples 6
Examiner's comments:
This was a six-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was a company considering diversifying its
activities, and calculating the WACC that should be used to appraise the diversification. Also
there is debate about whether the company should be diversifying in the first place, and how the
markets and shareholders might react.
Responses to the first part were good. However a number of candidates made basic errors when
calculating the cost of debt, with a surprising number not able to carry out interpolation
correctly. Strangely, some candidates correctly calculated the cost of equity using the CAPM, but
then used this number in the DVM as growth. They then attempted to use the DVM model to
calculate the cost of equity.
Responses to the second part were disappointing, but there were some excellent answers.
Common mistakes were: de-gearing the company's existing equity beta; de-gearing the correct
beta but re-gearing using book values rather than market values. Explanations of the rationale
for calculating the cost of equity for the project were poor.
Responses to the third part were mixed. A number of candidates did not calculate the overall
equity beta of the company, and used the equity beta from the second part. Explanations of the
effect of a rise in the overall WACC of the company were poor. Responses to the fourth part were
poor, and many candidates were confused about what the terms systematic and unsystematic
risk mean. Often students quoted incorrect examples of each risk.
Responses to the fifth part were also mixed, with many candidates not able to demonstrate a
good grasp of the topic area. Few candidates mentioned that diversified companies often trade
at a conglomerate discount.
Responses to the sixth part were reasonable. Many candidates were able to identify APV and
describe the process. However, few candidates calculated the appropriate discount rate.
Marks
48.1 Forward contract 2
Money market hedge 3
Currency futures 4
OTC currency options 5
14
48.2 Implications of hedging techniques 3
Advantages and disadvantages 5
Recommendation 2
10
48.3 2 marks for each risk identified and explained 4
Ways to mitigate the risks 2
6
30
Examiner's comments:
This was a three-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the risk management
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was a company that has recently started
exporting to the US, and a member of staff is asked to give advice to the board on hedging
FOREX, and other risks associated with overseas trading activities.
The first part was well answered by most candidates. However some of the errors demonstrated
by weaker candidates included: calculating the number of futures contracts using the spot rate
rather than the futures price; stating that currency futures should be initially sold rather than
bought; calculating the futures gain in £ rather than $; choosing put options rather than call
options; treating an over the counter option like a traded option; calculating the option premium
in US$ rather than £; omitting interest on the option premium.
There were average answers to the second part from a lot of candidates, some without any
reference to the numbers calculated in the first part. Many candidates did not give a firm
conclusion, but there were some excellent answers.
Responses to the third part were mixed, with many candidates demonstrating a lack of
knowledge of overseas trading risks. Even though the requirement stated that the risks identified
should be other than FOREX, a number of candidates quoted this as one of their two risks.
Marks
49.1 (a) Valuation:
P/E ratio 2
Dividend yield 2
EBITDA 5.5
Net assets at historic cost 1
Net assets revalued 1.5
12
(b) 1 point per valid point on each of the valuation methods 7
Advice on price range 1
8
49.2 (a) SVA:
Sales and operating margin 2
Tax and depreciation 2
Non-current assets 2
Working capital 1
Terminal value 2.5
Present values 0.5
Short term investments 1
Long term debt 1
12
(b) Methods to fund MBO – 1 mark per point 3
35
49.1 (a)
Total Value per
value share
£'000 £
P/E ratio £6,391,000 8.5 = 54,324 /3,500 15.52
Lower marketability
(25% discount, say) 11.64
(b) Asset valuations are the lowest. They are historic figures and balance sheet-based, with
no intangibles. Merikan is buying Coastal to run it, not to break it up.
P/E and enterprise value are the most relevant as they are forward-looking and based
on profits/earnings.
Using the dividend yield is acceptable, but it is a 100% purchase and the yield
calculation is only relevant for minority interests. Also, this method ignores growth. So
a price range of £12 to £16 per share looks reasonable.
49.2 (a)
Terminal
20X7 20X8 20X9 20Y0 value
£m £m £m £m £m
Sales 70.0 73.5 75.7 77.2 77.2
Operating margin 5.9 6.8 6.9 6.9
Tax (17%) (1.0) (1.2) (1.2) (1.2)
Depreciation 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.5
Operating cash flows 6.4 7.2 7.3 7.3
Replacement non-current assets (1.5) (1.5) (1.5) (1.5)
Incremental non-current assets (0.2) (0.1) 0.0 0.0
Incremental working capital (0.2) (0.1) (0.1) 0.0
Free cash flows 4.5 5.4 5.7 5.8
Discount factor (8%) 0.926 0.857 0.794 0.794
4.6
/8%
Present values 4.2 4.7 4.5 57.2
Total present value 70.6
plus: Short-term investments 0.7
less: Long-term debt
(£10m £95%) (9.5)
Market value of equity 61.8
So GB's equity is worth approximately £61.8m
(b) Methods by which management might fund its MBO:
From management's equity
From venture capitalists – via equity and debt
Borrowing from bank(s) – debt
Marks
(£275 83%)
Cost of irredeemable debt (kdi) = 3.80%
£6,000
Examiner's comments:
This was a six-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of financing options, with
a small ethics element. It was poorly done and had the lowest percentage mark on the paper.
The majority of candidates failed to reach a 'pass' standard. It was based around a UK-listed car
manufacturer that was considering investing in (1) a computerised manufacturing system and (2)
the development of driverless cars.
There were many very good answers to the first part, with candidates securing the full marks
available. The calculation of WACC has been examined frequently. However, in this exam
candidates were, not for the first time, given total figures, rather than unit figures, to work with.
Many candidates, when given the total nominal value and the nominal value per share or
debenture, were incapable of deducing the number of shares or debentures in issue. Also a
significant number altered the share and debt values to make them ex-div, despite the fact that
the question stated that all dividends and interest due for the year had already been paid.
Marks
51.1
£ £
(a) OTC currency option
Put option £5,200,000 3,200,985
1.6245
Lend @ UK 3,132,907
1.007 3,154,837
(d) Strengthening £
1.6385 1.05 = 1.7204 £5,200,000 3,022,509
1.7204
51.2
Conversion at spot rate £5,200,000 £3,173,634
1.6385
If £ strengthens 3,022,509
Option 3,161,985
Forward 3,139,056
Money market hedge 3,154,837
The current spot rate gives best result.
The worst result is from the strengthening £, and the forward contract discount predicts a
strengthening of the £.
C$ is depreciating, and £ strengthening, which is bad for UK exporters. The forward contract
provides certainty, as does the money market hedge.
An option gives flexibility, but it is expensive.
51.3 Jenson's imports are purchased mostly in euros. If exports were, for example, mostly in
Canadian dollars then Jenson would be disadvantaged by both a strong euro and a weak
dollar (as in 51.1 and 51.2 above).
51.4 Advantages of using currency futures over forward contracts:
Lower transaction costs
The exact date of receipt or payment does not have to be known
Disadvantages of using currency futures over forward contracts:
The contracts cannot be tailored to the user's exact requirements.
Hedge inefficiencies (due to needing a whole number of contracts, and basis risk) may
occur.
Only a limited number of currencies can make use of futures contracts.
If neither currency is $US, then this can complicate matters.
Examiner's comments:
Most candidates demonstrated a reasonable understanding of this area of the syllabus and this
question had the highest average mark on the paper. It was a six-part question which tested the
candidates' understanding of the risk management element of the syllabus.
The scenario was centred on a UK-based manufacturer of industrial pumps. The company was
considering hedging its exposure to (1) foreign exchange rate risk on a C$5.2 million receipt
(three months ahead) from a Canadian customer and (2) a fall in the value of a large quoted
shareholding.
Foreign exchange risk is a regular topic in this examination, and the first part was generally
answered well. However, many candidates lost marks unnecessarily, eg, choosing a call rather
than a put option, failing to deal with fees correctly, or choosing the wrong interest rates for the
MMH. Over half of the candidates believed that strengthening sterling meant getting less
foreign currency.
Generally the second part was answered adequately, but bearing in mind how frequently this is
examined, it was disappointing. Too few candidates went beyond only comparing the best
outcome at each rate. Answers here needed to demonstrate a deeper understanding of the
issues involved. Many candidates stated, wrongly, that interest rates indicated that sterling would
weaken. Also too few commented on the negative impact of a stronger pound on an exporter.
In the third part few candidates scored full marks. Those that did explained how a strengthening
pound when exporting and a weakening pound when importing would both be bad for the
company in question. The fourth part was generally answered well, but many candidates just
listed the advantages and disadvantages of currency futures and/or a forward contract, rather
than answering the question as set. The fifth part has been examined before, albeit rarely. A
minority of candidates answered it well and scored full marks, but most were unable to calculate
the values required. The sixth part was answered well and most candidates scored full marks.
Marks
52.1 (a) NPV calculation:
Contribution/contribution lost 5
Fixed overheads 1
Tax charge 1
Sale proceeds 2
Working capital 2
Machinery and equipment 1
Tax saved on capital allowances 2
PV and recommendation 2
16
52.1 (b) Disadvantages of sensitivity analysis 3
Simulation 3
Total possible marks 6
Marks available 4
52.1 (a)
Units pa 30,000
0 1 2 3
Units 000's
( 1.06) 30.00 31.80 33.71
Selling price £ ( 1.03) 399.00 410.97 423.30
The Defender project has a positive NPV, which will increase shareholder wealth. The
project should therefore be accepted.
Working capital
Year Cumulative Increment
£'000 £'000
0 (2,000.00) (2,000.00)
1 (2,183.60) (183.60)
2 (2,384.05) (200.45)
3 2,384.05
Contribution lost
The contribution of the other product is:
£
Selling price 175
Materials and skilled labour (150)
Contribution 25
Examiner's comments
This was a five-part question, which tested candidates' understanding of the investment
decisions element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that of a company launching
a new product onto the market, and also considering how often it should replace its fleet of
delivery vans. Part (a) of the first requirement was well answered by many candidates, but there
were common errors: incorrect calculation of contribution; timing errors for cash flows; incorrect
calculations of the contribution lost; incorrect calculations of the value of the rights at the end of
the project and in some cases ignoring it altogether; not explaining why the project should be
accepted; not providing workings so no marks could be awarded when the figure presented
was incorrect. Responses to part (b) of the first requirement were mixed, with many candidates
not able to adequately explain the disadvantages of sensitivity analysis. The question only asked
for disadvantages, but many candidates wasted time by stating advantages. The explanations of
simulation as an alternative to sensitivity analysis were poor. Responses to parts (c) and (d) of the
first requirement were good. However some candidates did not read the question and stated
real options which did not apply at the end of the project. Responses to the second question
requirement were mixed.
Marks
53.1 Dividend valuation model:
Ordinary dividend growth 1.5
Ex-div share price 1
Cost of equity 0.5
Cost of debt 4
WACC calculation 2
CAPM 1
10
53.2 Systematic risk unchanged 2.5
Explanation 2.5
5
53.3 Calculations (max 3 marks if no use made of historic information) 6
Discussion and advice 6
12
53.4 Identification and explanation of APV 2
Calculation of discount rate 1
3
53.5 Identification of 50% payout ratio over time 2
Appropriate discussion 3
5
35
Examiner's comments
This was a five-part question that tested understanding of financing options. The scenario of the
question was that of a company diversifying its operations and raising finance by either debt or
equity. Candidates were also asked to discuss the company's dividend policy. Responses to the
first part were mixed. Many candidates did not consider whether their answers were reasonable,
for example using a cost of equity of 50% in their WACC computations. There were basic errors
in many calculations.
Answers to the second part were disappointing, with many candidates demonstrating that they
do not know the basic assumptions regarding the use of WACC. Hardly any candidates
mentioned that since the company is raising a large amount of capital by either debt or equity
the gearing might not remain constant and that, because of its size, the project could not be
considered marginal. Most candidates centred their discussion of systematic risk, which they
assumed would change. However if some very basic calculations were carried out it could be
seen that the systematic risk of the new project was the same as existing projects.
Responses to the third part were extremely disappointing despite an almost identical question
being asked in a recent past paper. The question gave industry gearing and interest cover
figures, so that candidates could perform analysis looking at current gearing and interest cover,
and then gearing and interest cover after raising the new finance by either debt or equity. Five
years' historic information was also given to calculate interest cover figures. It was very
disappointing that a large number of candidates did not use this information or calculated the
gearing in a different way to that specified, or used book values despite the question stating
market values had been used. In addition many candidates did not consider the likely reaction
of shareholders and markets to the finance being raised by either debt or equity. Finally, a large
number of candidates wasted time explaining the theories of M & M when theory was not asked
for in the question.
Responses to the fourth part were mixed, with many candidates identifying APV as an alternative
to WACC/NPV. However few candidates calculated the discount rate that should be used in
APV. Again this has been examined many times before. Responses to the fifth part were also
mixed, with many candidates not able to demonstrate a good understanding of dividend policy.
Few candidates used the historic information to establish the company's current dividend policy.
Many repeated theory, despite this not being required.
Marks
54.1 (a) Forward rate and resulting receipt 2
OTC option 4
6
54.1 (b) Advantages and disadvantages of each 2.5
Advice and recommendation 2.5
Total possible marks 5
Marks available 4
54.2 (b) Reasons why hedge is not efficient (1 mark per point) 2
54.1 (a) The forward rate is: $/£ 1.2526 (1.2492 + 0.0034)
This results in a sterling receipt of £6,386,716 ($8,000,000/$1.2526)
Over the counter option:
The option premium is $8,000,000 2p = £160,000.
The premium with interest lost is £160,000 (1+0.03 4/12) = £161,600.
If the spot price on 31 March is $/£1.2700, Orion will exercise the options.
The sterling receipt will be ($8,000,000/$1.2400) – £161,600 = £6,290,013.
(b) The forward contract locks Jewel into an exchange rate and does not allow for upside
potential.
Forwards:
Tailored specifically for Jewel.
There is no secondary market.
OTC currency options:
The options are expensive.
There is no secondary market.
However, the options allow Jewel to exploit upside potential and protect
downside risk.
Examiner's comments
This was an eight-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the risk
management element of the syllabus.
Part (a) of the first requirement was well answered by most candidates. However some of the
errors demonstrated by weaker candidates included: using the incorrect spot rate; deducting
the forward discount; not including interest on the option premium, or including interest but
taking a whole year; treating the OTC option as a traded option.
Part (b) of the first requirement produced average answers from a lot of candidates, some
without any reference to the numbers calculated in part (a). Many candidates did not give a firm
conclusion. Responses to part (c) of the first requirement were good.
Responses to parts (a) and (b) of the second requirement were also good, however some
candidates made some basic errors as follows: incorrect calculation of the number of contracts
and the value of one contract by using the current index price and not the current futures price;
incorrect computation of the loss on the portfolio; stating that contracts should be initially
bought not sold; incorrect computation of the gain on futures by using the current index price
and not the futures price.
Responses to the third requirement were good, but many candidates did not read the question
when they demonstrated the cash flows that would typically occur when the swap was
implemented.
Marks
55.1 (a) Cost of equity (dividend valuation model) 3
Cost of preference shares 1
Cost of irredeemable debt 2
Cost of redeemable debt 4
WACC calculation 4
14
55.1 (b) Cost of equity (CAPM) 1
WACC calculation 1
2
55.2 Appropriate discussion of directors' views 6
£1.716m
Latest dividend (d0) = £0.26
6.6m
Ex div market value per share = (£3.46 – £0.26) = £3.20
(d1) (£0.26 1.03)
Cost of equity (ke) +g + 3% 11.36%
MV (£3.20)
d1 £0.07
Cost of preference shares (kp) 5.19%
MV £1.34
(i – t) (£6 83%)
Cost of irredeemable debt (kdi) 4.70%
MV £106
WACC
Total MVs
£m £m Cost weighting WACC
Equity (6.6m £3.20) 21.120 12.90% 21.120/25.470 10.70%
Pref. Shares (1m £1.35) 1.350 5.19% 1.35/25.470 0.28%
Irredeemable debt (£1.2m 1.06) 1.272 4.70% 1.272/25.470 0.23%
Redeemable debt (£1.8m 0.96) 1.728 4.57% 1.728/25.470 0.31%
4.350 0.82%
Total market value 25.470 11.52%
55.2 Phil Turner – to use the cost of preference shares would be completely wrong, as it is only
one element of the firm's total long-term finance and 7% is the coupon rate, not the current
cost.
Alana Clarke and Alison Hughes – ordinary shares (cost of equity) should be taken into
account. It makes sense to use Wells' current WACC figure for the investment appraisal if:
(1) the historical proportions of debt and equity will not change.
(2) the systematic business risk of the firm will not change.
(3) the new finance is not project-specific.
Regarding the above, the bank borrowing will not change the gearing as sufficient equity
will be raised to maintain the gearing at its current level. The systematic business risk of the
firm is likely to change as it is moving into a different market. The finance is not project-
specific.
Examiner's comments
This was a four-part question that tested candidates' understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus, and there was also a small section on ethics. In the scenario a UK-listed
bakery company was planning to open a number of retail outlets across the UK. This investment
would cost the company £17 million, which would be raised in such a way as to not alter its
existing gearing ratio. In the first part, for 16 marks, candidates were required to calculate the
company's current WACC from the information given, based on (1) the dividend growth model
and (2) the CAPM. The majority of candidates did really well in part (a) of the first requirement
and many scored full marks. Typical errors made were (1) incorrect number of years used in the
dividend growth calculation (2) not adjusting the cum-div and cum-int market prices (3)
forgetting the tax adjustment in the cost of debt and (4) not using market values in the WACC
calculation.
The second part was worth six marks and required candidates to respond to recent comments
made by three of the company's directors about the best discount rate to use when appraising
the
£17 million investment. Overall, candidates' answers to the second part were disappointing. The
comments made were rather general and so marks will have been lost. Too few scripts
considered the conditions that need to apply for the current WACC to be used, ie, gearing and
systematic risk to remain unchanged, and any new finance is not project-specific.
Marks
56.1 (a) Sell June futures 1
Number of contracts 1
Profit/loss on futures 4
Interest cost 1
Total cost 1
8
56.1 (b) Options cost – 1 mark for each scenario 3
£4,500,000
No of contracts: 6/3 = 18
£500,000
(a) (b) (c)
Interest rate 7.50% 8.00% 5.50%
(b) Options
(a) (b) (c)
Interest rate 7.50% 8.00% 5.50%
Take up option Y Y N
Interest cost % 7.30% 7.30% 5.50%
(c) If interest rates increase, then futures are less costly than options.
If rates fall, then options are lower cost.
56.2 (a) (1) Sterling weakens by 5%
Examiner's comments
This question was based on a UK manufacturer of timber products. The first half of the scenario
considered the company's need to borrow £4.5 million of short-term finance via a bank loan and
its plan to hedge the interest costs of that loan. In the second half of the question the company
had agreed to purchase €1.7 million of timber from a Finnish supplier. Candidates had to
investigate the foreign exchange risk implications of this contract for the company. In part (a) of
the first requirement of the question, for eight marks, candidates were required to calculate the
cost to the company if it used traded sterling interest rate futures to hedge its interest rate risk.
Part (b) of the first requirement, for three marks, required candidates to calculate the cost to the
company if it used OTC interest rate options to hedge the risk. Part (c) of the first requirement
was worth two marks and asked candidates to conclude, based on their calculations, which of
the hedging methods should be chosen. For the first requirement there were many very good
answers with candidates demonstrating a thorough understanding of the techniques involved.
Those areas where candidates struggled were: (1) a failure to identify that the company would
sell interest rate futures (2) charging 12 months interest rather than six (3) using six months,
rather than three months, in the futures gain/loss calculation and (4) a failure to calculate the
option premium correctly (a very common error).
Part (a) of the second requirement, for seven marks, asked candidates to calculate the (sterling
equivalent) payment to the Finnish supplier if (1) there was a weakening of sterling and (2) two
hedging techniques were employed. In part (b) of the second requirement, also for seven marks,
candidates were required to advise the company's board whether it should hedge the euro
payment. Finally, part (c) of the second requirement, for three marks, asked candidates to
identify the differences between traded currency options and OTC currency options. The
second part was, overall, done well. The calculations in part (a) were good, but typical errors
Marks
57.1 Construction costs and land clearance 1.5
Sales 1
Rental income 2
Bad debts 1
New staff 1
Extra costs 1
Tax 1.5
Green machine and tax 3
Net cash flows 2
Discount factors 2
PVs 1
NPV 1
18
57.2 Sales and tax 1.5
Discount factors 0.5
Sensitivity 1
Minimum selling price 1
4
57.3 Incremental construction costs 1
Tax 2
Discount factors 1
NPV and conclusion 1
5
57.4 Sensitivity analysis v simulation – 1 mark per point 4
The development produces a positive NPV and so should be accepted as it will enhance
shareholder wealth.
WORKINGS
(3)
20X9 20Y0 20Y1
Y1 Y2 Y3
£'000 £'000 £'000
Green machine cost/WDV 1,200 984 807
WDA (18%)/Balancing allowance (216) (177) (707)
WDV/Sale price 984 807 100
57.2
Y1 Y2 Total
£'000 £'000 £'000
Sales 25,500 25,500
Tax (4,335) (4,335)
Total cash flows 21,165 21,165
6% factors 0.943 0.890
PV 19,967 18,837 38,804
1, 436
Sensitivity = 3.7%
38,804
The NPV would decrease by £314,000, and so it is less likely that Bishop's board would
proceed with the development.
Examiner's comments
The scenario was based around a UK property company that builds low-cost houses for sale and
for rent. The company had the opportunity to invest in a new development of 500 identical low-
energy houses on one of its vacant sites. The company planned to use a house-building firm to
construct the houses over a two year period. The first part was worth 18 marks and required
candidates to make use of the information given and calculate the NPV of the proposed
investment. It was a difficult NPV calculation and so it was good to see that, overall, candidates
did well here. The main areas of difficulty were: (1) the tax calculation for the allowable building
costs (2) the timing of the cash flows and (3) the need to include cash flows (and then discount
them) for Years 4 to 20. The second and third parts, for four marks and five marks respectively,
tested candidates' proficiency with, and understanding, of sensitivity analysis. The second part
was also done well, but some candidates used the price per house figure rather than the total
sales figure and so will have lost marks. The third part was a more difficult proposition and
candidates' answers here were very variable. Those who produced a set of calculations revised
from the first part scored well, but too many produced a discussion rather than calculations. The
fourth part was worth four marks and here candidates were asked to compare the strengths and
weaknesses of sensitivity analysis with those of simulation. The fourth part was, overall, done well
and a majority of candidates scored full marks. In the fifth part, again for four marks, candidates
had to explain the concept of real options and to identify two real options that could apply to the
development in question. In the fifth part most candidates were able to identify examples of real
options from the scenario, but too few explained the more general issue of real options, ie, that
of turning a negative NPV into a positive one.
Marks
58.1 (a) Enterprise value 4.5
P/E ratio 1.5
Net assets historic 1
Net assets revalued 1
8
58.1 (b) Discussion of asset v income based measures 3
Recommendation 1
4
58.1 (c) Discussion of SVA, including drivers and problems 3
Examiner's comments
The scenario of the question was consideration of two tasks for a firm of corporate financiers:
Task 1 The valuation of a company that is considering an IPO.
Task 2 A quoted conglomerate is considering divesting itself of one of its subsidiaries.
The first part was well answered by many candidates, however the following were common
errors: for enterprise value: incorrect EBITDA; no deduction of debt and addition of cash to
arrive at the value of the shares; using the incorrect multiple; calculating a negative share price
and making no comment that this is not possible. For P/E ratio: using profits before tax. For net
assets (historic): using gross assets; using gross assets and only deducting long-term debt. For
net assets basis (re-valued): many candidates re-valued the non-current assets and then made
the same errors as for the net assets (historic) computations.
Overall a large number of candidates reduced their valuations to take into account non-
marketability. Since this is an IPO, such adjustments were not necessary.
Responses to part (b) of the first requirement were mixed. Many candidates only referred to their
range of values and did not recommend an issue price. The justification of the price was quite
poor. Responses to part (c) were good. However, poorer candidates only stated what the seven
value drivers in SVA are, with no further explanation of the methodology. Responses to part (a)
of the second requirement were generally good. However a large number of candidates
Marks
59.1 (a) The number of new shares to be issued = 40 million (60 2/3)
The price per share = £3.75 (150/40)
This represents a discount on the current share price of 50% or £3.75. (3.75/7.50)
The theoretical ex rights price is:
Number of shares Value per share Number value
£ £
Existing shares 3 7.50 22.50
New shares 2 3.75 7.50
Examiner's comments
The scenario of the question involves giving advice to a listed client on two issues:
Issue 1 Whether to raise additional funding by debt or equity.
Issue 2 A review of dividend policy and also an ethical situation.
Marks
60.1 Net payment 1
Forward rate 1.5
Sterling equivalent 0.5
Sell September futures 1
Number of contracts 1
Loss on futures on closeout 2
Dollar purchase 1
Call options to buy dollars 1
Option calculations 3
12
60.2 Advantages and disadvantages of hedging techniques 5
Advice 2
7
Examiner's comments
The scenario of the questions is that of a board wanting some clarification on forex issues. The
first part was well answered by most candidates. However some of the errors demonstrated by
weaker candidates included: using the incorrect spot rate; deducting the forward discount;
incorrect computation for the number of futures contracts; making the incorrect decision of
whether to sell or buy futures; assuming that the futures loss was in £; choosing the put option
and not the call option; not including interest on the option premium, or including interest but
taking a whole year; treating the OTC option as a traded option; not netting receipts and
Marks
61.1 Revised Economic Value:
Sales correct in summary calculation 1
Sales workings
Y1 Expected Value 1
Y1 Inflation 1
Y2 Expected Value 1
Y2 Inflation 1
Y3 Expected Value 1
Y2 Inflation 1
Variable Cost 1
Fixed Cost 2
Close down costs 1
Tax 1
Sale of Plant and Machinery 1
Tax saved on Plant and Machinery 2
Working capital 1
Discounting 1
Economic Value 1
18
61.2 Revised Economic Value:
Scrap value 1
Tax rebate 1
Discounting 1
New economic value 1
4
61.3 Ethics and fundamental principles:
Behave with integrity 1
Behave objectively with no conflict of interest 1
Behave professionally 1
3
61.4 Impact of real options:
Explain impact of real option on – NPV 1
Identify abandon real option and explain using scenario 2
Identify growth real option and explain using scenario 2
5
61.5 Shareholder Value Added (SVA)
Explain SVA 1
Advantage of SVA 1
Explain seven drivers of SVA 2
Disadvantage of predicting 1
Disadvantage of terminal value on SVA 1
Adjust SVA with short terms investments and debt 1
7
Max 5
35
WORKINGS
1
Y1 Y2 Y3
£'000 £'000 £'000 £'000
Sales (£7m 0.7) 4,900 (£5m 0.6) 3,000 2,500
(£4.5m 0.3) 1,350 (£4m 0.4) 1,600 (1.02)3
6,250 4,600 0.7 3,220 2,653
1.02 (£4m 0.4) 1,600
6,375 (£3m 0.6) 1,800
3,400 0.3 1,020
4,240
(1.02)2
4,411
2
£'000
Annual fixed cost cash flows = (£1.7m – £0.6m) £1.1m 1.02 1,122 (Y1)
£1.1m (1.02)
2
Depreciation excluded as not a cash flow 1,144 (Y2)
£1.1m (1.02)
3
1,167 (Y3)
Close down costs = £0.6m (1.02)
3
3 £637,000
4
Y1 Y2 Y3
£'000 £'000 £'000
Sales 6,375 4,411 2,653
VCs (1,913) (1,323) (796)
FCs (1,122) (1,144) (1,167)
Close down costs (637)
Taxable profit 3,340 1,944 53
Tax payable @ 17% 568 330 9
61.3 An ICAEW member is being asked to falsify the economic value of Snowdog and thus
mislead potential buyers, ie, Snowdog's directors. To do so would break the principles of
the ICAEW Ethical Guide which states, inter alia:
A member should behave with integrity – ie, be honest and truthful. The member's
advice and work should not be influenced by the interests of other parties, which
would be the case here were s/he to overvalue Snowdog.
A member should strive for objectivity in all professional and business judgements – ie,
there should be no bias, conflict of interest or undue influence of others. The member
has a conflict of interest here. S/he is being asked to act with bias in favour of one party
(Rumsey's directors) over another (Snowdog's directors).
A member should behave professionally – ie, avoid any action that discredits the
profession. If the member falsified the valuation of Snowdog then the ICAEW's
reputation is at risk.
61.4 NPV analysis only considers cash flows related directly to a project. However, a project with
a negative (or low) NPV could be accepted for strategic reasons. This is because of (real)
options associated with a project that outweigh the poor NPV.
With regard to Snowdog two real options are:
abandonment – if there is no MBO Snowdog could be closed before the three years
are up.
growth (calling it follow on or timing also ok) – if Snowdog performs better than
expected it could be kept open longer than three years.
61.5 With SVA a company's value is based on the PV of its future cash flows, so it is forward-
looking.
The advantage is that this is theoretically the most superior valuation method compared
with earnings (which may be manipulated) or assets (which don't focus on the income
generated).
SVA considers seven value drivers, which link to (or drive) company strategy:
(1) Life of projected cash flows
(2) Sales growth rate
(3) Operating profit margin
(4) Corporate tax rate
(5) Investment in non-current assets
(6) Investment in working capital
(7) Cost of capital
Examiner's comments:
This question had the highest percentage mark on the paper. The vast majority of candidates
achieved a 'pass' standard in this question.
This was a five-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the investment
decisions element of the syllabus.
The scenario was based on a UK manufacturer of computer hardware. The company's board has
decided to close down one of its subsidiary companies in three years' time. This is due to the
latter's recent poor performance. The board has learned that the subsidiary's senior
management would like to investigate the possibility of a management buy-out (MBO). The
board has decided that the subsidiary's buy-out price would be its current economic value,
based on predicted trading results for the next three years. The first part was worth 18 marks
and required candidates to make use of the information given and calculate the subsidiary's
economic value, based on discounted future cash flows. The second part, for four marks,
candidates were asked to re-work their figures from the first part because of a change in the
data provided. This tested their understanding of sensitivity analysis. The third part was worth
three marks and examined the Ethical Guide, with particular reference to the issues of integrity,
objectivity and professional behaviour. The fourth part, for five marks, tested candidates'
understanding of real options and asked them to identify two real options that could apply to
the subsidiary as alternatives to the MBO. Finally, again for five marks, candidates had to explain
the shareholder value analysis (SVA) approach to company valuation, with its advantages and
disadvantages.
In the first part the majority of candidates produced good answers. Relevant cash flows were, in
the main, correctly identified. However, the expected sales calculations did cause many
candidates problems. Common errors made by candidates were:
poor expected value (EV) calculations for Year 2. Some candidates showed no real
understanding by producing an EV higher than any of the individual sales figures.
no explanation of why depreciation is ignored in the cash flows.
closure costs were ignored as irrelevant when they were not.
the tax written down value brought forward was treated as a cash outlay.
an extra writing down allowance was included in Year 0.
the money discount rate (given) was increased by the inflation rate in the question.
The second part was answered very well by most candidates. They demonstrated a good
understanding of the key factors involved in the sensitivity analysis.
Answers for the third part were very variable. Candidates who scored well will have explained
why the key ethical issues (integrity, objectivity and professional behaviour) are under threat in
the given scenario. Many candidates failed to do this and produced a 'shopping list', without
explanation. In addition, a lot of candidates rolled integrity and objectivity into one issue rather
than two.
The fourth part was done well by the majority of candidates, but it was disappointing to see a
number of scripts where the candidate did not know the definition of a real option. Also, many
candidates did not apply their real option knowledge to the actual scenario. Instead, they listed
Marks
62.2 Gordon's Growth Model (GGM) is also known as Earnings Retention Model. Dividend
growth based on proportion of dividends that are retained and the rate of return on those
retained profits. Thus g = rb. The GGM is based on the premise that these profits are the
only source of funds. Growth is achieved by re-investing earnings. This is then put into the
Dividend Valuation Model to get the cost of equity, assuming the value of a share = PV of
growing future dividends.
CAPM – specific/unsystematic risk can be diversified away by investors, so it is assumed that
investors are rational and that they have a diversified portfolio. Systematic risk can't be
diversified away – macro-economic factors. A company's beta is calculated from the
performance of its share price against the market average and is taken as a measure of the
market's view of the risk attached to the security in question. The higher the perceived risk,
then the higher the beta figure and thus the higher the equity return required by investors.
62.3 When using WACC to appraise projects the following assumptions are implied:
(1) Heath's historic proportions of debt and equity are not to be changed (which they are –
see below).
(2) Heath's systematic business risk is not to be changed (it does not change as it's still the
same industry).
(3) The finance is not project-specific (eg, cheap government loans, which it is not).
In this case the finance is very substantial, ie, 42% of total funds at market value
(£10m/£24m) and as it would be borrowed money then this will affect the company's
gearing level significantly (it is only just over 12% at present and would increase to 38% @
MV).
APV – increased gearing may lead to a fall in WACC because of the tax shield on loan
interest. To find the new WACC requires the new MV of the company's shares. However,
this requires the NPV of the proposed investment to be known, which needs the new
WACC. So:
(1) Calculate a base case value
(2) Calculate the PV of the tax shield
(3) Adjust for issue costs
Total up 1, 2 and 3 to give APV – if positive then proceed with investment.
Examiner's comments:
This question had the second highest percentage mark on the paper. A large majority of
candidates reached a 'pass' standard in the question.
This was a four-part question which tested the candidates' understanding of the financing
options element of the syllabus.
The question was centred on an online retailer of baby products which is based in the UK. The
company's market share has been falling and its board is investigating the possibility of
establishing a small chain of shops across the UK, at a cost of £10 million. This expansion could
be funded by a bank loan, thereby taking advantage of current low interest rates. An alternative
view within the board is that the company should invest in a completely different type of
business, in this case a chain of care homes. In the first part, for 20 marks, candidates were
required to calculate the company's current WACC figure, based on (a) Gordon's Growth Model
and (b) the CAPM. The second part, for five marks, required candidates to compare and contrast
the two valuation methods above. In the third part (six marks) candidates were asked to advise
the company's board whether the existing WACC figure (from the first part) should be used in
when appraising the proposed investment in shops. The candidates' understanding of the APV
technique was also tested here. Finally, for four marks, candidates were required to explain the
portfolio effect and discuss the validity of the proposal to invest in a completely different type of
business.
The requirements of the first part have been examined regularly in recent examinations.
Accordingly, many candidates produced very good answers, scoring heavily. As expected, for
candidates the most difficult element here was the calculation of the dividend growth rate
(based on g = b r). It was clear that some candidates had no idea how to approach the
calculation of g = b r. In addition, many candidates calculated unrealistically high figures for g,
b and r (and then the cost of equity) without question. Elsewhere, it was disappointing to see a
number of candidates (wrongly) deducting the ordinary dividend for their preference share
calculations and using the ordinary dividend growth rate with preference dividends. Also, a
surprising number of candidates used 5% (the coupon rate) as the pre-tax irredeemable cost of
debt, omitting to take the current market value of the debt into account. Most candidates' IRR
calculations for the cost of redeemable debt were good. However, too many showed a lack of
understanding from here and produced an illogical IRR calculation from NPV figures that were
correct. The CAPM calculation for cost of equity was very straightforward and the vast majority of
candidates scored full marks. However, a significant number did not put the right numbers in to
the CAPM and so did not calculate the correct cost of equity.
The overall standard of answers given for the remaining parts of the question (theory and
advice) was disappointing when compared to the accuracy of (most of) the calculations in the
first part. Whilst many scripts scored well in the second part, far too many were unable to explain
the basics of Gordon's Growth Model and the CAPM.
Marks
63.1 Hedging strategies:
No hedge 2
FTC outcome 1
FTC fee 1
MMH: Borrow 1
MMH: Convert 1
MMH: Lend and result 1
Option: strategy 1
Option: no of contracts 1
Option: cost of option premium 2
Option: decision 1
Option: gain 1
Option: due from customer 1
Option: convert to £'s 1
Option: net receipt 1
16
63.2 Advice on hedge:
Summary of hedging outcomes 1
Best outcome at $1.3350 2
Best outcome at $1.4050 2
Impact on Eddyson if dollar ($) strengthens 1
6
63.3 Interest rate parity:
State and explain interest rate parity 2
Average UK and US three month rates 1
Average spot rate 1
Calculation of forward rate/average premium 1
5
63.4 Economic risk:
96% UK sales so little exposure 1
Increase in economic risk as US sales increase 1
Weaker $ would be bad for Eddyson 1
3
30
£1,722,846 £1,637,011
Forward contract (FC)
1.3775 – 0.0044 = 1.3731 $2,300,000 £1,675,042
1.3731
Fee $2,300,000 (£6,900)
= 23,000 £0.30
$100 £1,668,142
So with spot rate at 1.3350 (weakening £ and strengthening $) the best outcome for
Eddyson is not to hedge the dollar receipt.
With the spot rate at 1.4050 (strengthening £ and weakening $) the best outcome is to
hedge the dollar receipt via a money market hedge. The FC and the MMH both give a fixed
sterling receipt – the MMH produces a slightly higher figure. The FC and MMH are safest
techniques to use for a risk-averse board.
The £/$ interest rates and the forward contract premium indicate that the market is
expecting the dollar to strengthen (sterling to weaken). This would be good for Eddyson, an
exporter, as sterling receipts would be higher. The board's attitude to risk will be important
here.
63.3
1+ Average dollar interest rate (3 mos.)
Average spot rate = Average forward rate
1+ Average sterling interest rate (3 mos.)
The dollar interest rates are lower than those of sterling. Using the interest rate parity (IRP)
equation above (which shows that differences in interest rates cannot be exploited as
forward rate will adjust to offset any gains), the value of sterling against the dollar will fall.
The dollar's gain in value is called a premium. So, using the data in the question:
Average UK rate 5.10% pa or 1.01275% per three months.
Average US rate 3.6% pa or 1.009% per three months.
Average spot rate = 1.3715
Forward rate = 1.3715 1.009/1.01275 = 1.3664 ie, a premium of $0.0051/£
Average premium given = $0.0052/£ so IRP is working
63.4 Currently very little economic risk as the majority of Eddyson's sales are in the UK (96%).
However, if more sales are to the US then economic risk would increase – $ sales and €
purchases.
A weakening $ and a strengthening € would both be bad for Eddyson.
Examiner's comments:
This question had the lowest average mark on the paper, but most candidates achieved a 'pass'
standard.
This was a four-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the risk management
element of the syllabus.
The scenario here involved a UK manufacturer of home and garden appliances. The company
has recently received a large order from an American customer. Its board is considering whether
or not to hedge the foreign exchange rate risk. The first part of the question, for 16 marks,
required candidates to calculate the net sterling receipt for each of four possible strategies.
These were (a) no hedge, (b) a forward contract, (c) a money market hedge and (d) sterling
traded currency options. The second part was worth six marks and required candidates to
advise the company's board, based on their previous calculations. In the third part (five marks)
candidates needed to demonstrate their understanding of interest rate parity. The fourth part
Marks
64.1 Expected NPV
Contribution working
Expected sales 1
Contribution 1
5% increase 1.5
4% increase 1.5
Max 5
64.3 Advantages and disadvantages:
Per advantage – 1 mark 2
Per disadvantage – 1 mark 2
4
64.4 Options:
Marks awarded for first two only.
Explanation of option to delay (1 if not related to scenario) 2
Explanation of option to abandon (1 if not related to scenario) 2
Explanation of follow on option (1 if not related to scenario) 2
Explanation of growth option (1 if not related to scenario) 2
Max 4
64.5 Ethical and legal principles
Ethical principles 2
Legal principles 1
3
35
Marks
65.1 (a)
LIBOR 1.25% 0.60%
LIBOR + 3 4.25% 3.60%
66 Continental plc
Marking guide
Marks
66.1 (a) WACC Calculation:
Exclude special dividend when calculating growth 1
Calculate growth 1
Dividend per share 1
Calculate ke 1
Calculate PV of debt 2
Calculate yield to maturity 1
Calculate kd 1
Market value of equity 1
Market value of debt 1
10
(b) Using CAPM to calculate ke 1
1
66.1 (a) Growth can be estimated by past ordinary dividend growth for the past four years
excluding special dividend as it's a one-off:
(1/4)
Growth = (141/105) – 1 = 0.0765 or 7.7%
Shares in issue = 190m
2017 dividends per share = 74p (141/190)
Ex div share price = 4600p
Ke = (74(1.077)/4600) + 0.077 = 0.0943 or 9.43%
Kd =
Time Cash flow Factors at 5% PV Factors at 10% PV
£ £ £
0 (94) 1 (94) 1 (94)
1–4 4 3.546 14.18 3.170 12.68
4 100 0.823 82.30 0.683 68.30
2.48 (13.02)
YTM = 5 + ((2.48/(2.48 + 13.02))5) = 5.8%
Kd = 5.8 (1 – 0.17) = 4.81%
Market values:
Equity 190m £46 = £8,740m
The total market value of debt = 1,500 0.94 = £1,410
WACC = (9.43 x 8740 + 4.81 1410)/(8740 + 1410) = 8.79%
66.3 (a) If the diversification is financed by debt the price of the debentures will fall to:
94 (1 – 0.05) = 89.3.
The market value of existing debt will now become: 1500 0.893 = £1339.5m
Total debt will be: 1339.5 + 1000 = £2339.5m
Gearing will be: 2339.5/8740 = 27%
(b) If the diversification is finance by equity the price of the debentures will rise to:
94 (1 + 0.05) = 98.7
The market value of debt will now become: 1500 0.987 = 1480.5
The market value of equity will be: 8740 + 1000 = £9740m
Gearing will be: 1480.5/9740 = 15%
Note: These gearing figures are approximate since it is unlikely that the market value of
existing equity will in reality remain the same after the diversification.
66.4 Gearing:
Current Gearing If financed by debt If financed by equity
16% 27% (from 66.3 above) 15% (from 66.3 above)
The view of the board member that gearing is irrelevant has practical and theoretical
implications as follows:
Practical Considerations:
Equity:
Continental currently has gearing around the market average at 16% and financing the
diversification by equity will change this to 15%, which is not materially different.
Shareholders and the markets should not be worried about this change. However, unless
the equity is raised by way of a rights issue, there might be control issues. Even if there is a
rights issue, there will be control issues for shareholders who do not wish to take up their
rights. To ensure that a rights issue would be fully subscribed it is likely to be underwritten,
which will incur a cost. Dividends do not have to be paid, unlike interest. If some of the
equity comes from cutting the special dividend then this may upset shareholders and have
an adverse impact on the value of the equity (signalling).
Examiner's comments:
This was a four-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus.
The scenario of the question was that a company is diversifying its operations and raising finance
by either debt or equity.
The first part required cost of capital computations before the diversification. The second part
required computations regarding a cost of capital appropriate for the diversification. The third
part required gearing calculations if the diversification is financed by debt or equity. The final
part required a discussion of from what source (debt, equity or a combination) the finance
required for the diversification should be raised.
The examiner commented that the first area has been examined many times before and there
are adequate examples in the learning materials. However, this part of the question was not well
answered and common errors were: not stating that the special dividend should be ignored
Marks
67.1 (a) P/E values:
Average PBIT 1.5
less interest 1
less tax 1
Average P/E 1
Average P/E Average earnings 1
Value per share 0.5
Mark-down for lower marketability 0.5
Dividend yield values:
Average yield of listed companies 1
2019 Dividend/Average yield 1
Value/share 0.5
Mark-down for lower marketability 0.5
Asset-based values:
Net assets 1
Value per share 0.5
Revalued net assets 1.5
Value per share 0.5
13
(b) Strengths and weaknesses of valuation methods
For each well explained point Max 2
10
(c) Payment options:
Paying in cash 2
Paying with shares 2
Paying with loan stock 2
Max 4
67.2 Shareholder Value Added (SVA):
Explain Shareholder value analysis (SVA) 3
Seven value drivers 2
DCF estimate 2
Max 4
67.3 Management Buy Out (MBO)
Definition 1
Funding methods:
Management equity 1.5
Venture capitalists 1.5
Borrowing from banks 1
Max 4
35
Mark-down for lower marketability (non-listed shares) at, say, 70% £2.86
Dividend yield values:
Average yield of listed companies (7.0% + 8.3% + 8%
+ 7.5%)/4 = 7.7%
2019 Dividend (TP) £2.890m
2019 Dividend/Average yield £2.890m/7.7% £37.532m
Value/share £37.532m/8.5m £4.42
Mark-down for lower marketability (non-listed shares) at, say, 70% £3.09
Asset-based values:
Net Assets (per Balance Sheet) £17.080m
Value per share £17.080m/8.5m £2.01
Revalued Net Assets (£17.080m - £36.2m + £23.2m + £20.8m + £1.15m) 26.030m
Value per share £26.030m/8.5m £3.06
(b) Based on the above figures the price range is approximately £2 to £3.50 per share.
This is an offer for 65% of TP's shares. So PPF would then have control of TP – thus
a premium would be payable.
The P/E ratio is normally a better guide as it considers the earnings creating
potential of the company rather than just the value of its assets. However, 2015-
2019 earnings are erratic, so it is prudent to consider past earnings as well as
current. How typical are 2016 and 2019, for example? This suggests a degree of
risk with TP's earnings – so should PPF offer a lower price? Earnings can be
manipulated by accounting policies.
PPF will be looking forwards and intending to generate future earnings from TP,
not liquidate (asset strip) it as in asset values. It will be necessary to discount (by,
say 30%) this P/E valuation because TP's shares will be less marketable.
The dividend yield approach is most effective when an investor is looking for
dividend income rather than control. This is not the case here and future earnings
Marks
WACC
Total MV's
£m £m Cost weighting WACC
Equity (5.5m £8.25) 45.375 11.0% 45.375/52.719 9.5%
Preference shares (2m £1.24) 2.480 6.5% 2.480/52.719 0.03%
Redeemable debt (£2.2m 0.97) 2.134 5.1% 2.134 /52.719 0.02%
Irredeemable debt (£3.0m 0.91) 2.730 5.5% 2.730/52.719 0.03%
7.344 0.08%
Total market value 52.719 10.3%
It would be unwise to use the existing WACC as EP's plan involves a degree of
diversification and therefore a change in the level of systematic business risk (beta rises
from 1.20 to 1.70). Thus, a new WACC must be calculated. Systematic risk is accounted for
by taking into account the beta of the glass/paper market and this is then adjusted to
eliminate the financial risk (level of gearing) in that market. The resultant ungeared beta is
then "re-geared" by taking into account the level of gearing of the new funds being raised
which remains the same ie, financial risk for EP is constant. Higher cost of debt because of
the higher systematic business risk.
68.3 Adjusted Present Value (APV)
Increased gearing may lead to a fall in WACC because of the tax shield on loan interest. To
find the new WACC requires the new MV of the company's shares. However, this requires
the NPV of the proposed investment to be known, which needs the new WACC. To avoid
this circular argument one would use APV, which:
1. Calculates a base case value
2. Calculates the PV of the tax shield
3. Adjusts for issue costs
Add 1, 2 and 3 to give APV - if it is positive then proceed with investment.
68.4 The overriding objective of companies is to create long-term wealth for shareholders.
However, this can only be done if we consider the likely behaviour of other stakeholders.
For example:
Managers will have their own objectives (pay, security, power) which could lead to
agency problems
Employees/Unions – staff morale and job security are important
Lenders/Creditors – will they receive their expected returns/settlements?
Government – a firm should behave legally, pay its taxes on time
Regulators – a firm should follow the relevant regulations
Society will be interested in, for example, pollution levels
Marks
69.1 Hedging strategies:
Forward contract spot rate 1
Plus contract discount 0.5
Arrangement fee 0.5
Forward contract sterling amount 0.5
OTC Option – call option 1
Exercise spot 1
Option fee 0.5
Option sterling amount 0.5
Currency future -buy rupees, sell sterling 1
Number of contracts 1
Loss on future 1
Total cost 0.5
Future sterling amount 1
MMH – invest in rupees now 1
Rupees converted at spot rate 1
Sterling cost MMH 1
13
69.2 Advice on hedge:
Current spot 1
3-month spot 1
Summary of hedging outcomes and best outcome 1
Discussion 5
Recommendation 1
9
69.3 Interest rate parity:
State and explain interest rate parity 2
Average UK and US three month rates 1
Average spot rate 1
Calculation of forward rate/average premium 1
5
69.4 Ethics:
1 mark per ethical consideration 3
3
30
£
Translation of rupees R145m/91.69 (1,581,416)
plus: Arrangement fee R145m/1m £95 (13,775)
(£1,595,191)
Say 25 contracts
At 31/5/19 Buy (92.88)
Sell 92.12
Loss on futures (0.76) 25 62,500 R1,187,500
Contract price R145,000,000
Total R146,187,500
R142,857,100
Convert at spot rate (£1,568,652)
91.07
Sterling borrowed at 3.8% pa (£1,568,652) [1 + (3.8%/4)] (£1,583,554)
R145m
3-month spot At spot rate 31/5/19 (1,568.415)
92.45
SUMMARY STERLING COSTS £
3-month spot (1,568.415)
Option (1,574.712)
Future (1,581,260)
MMH (1,583.554)
Current spot (1,592.182)
Forward contract (FC) (1,595.191)
From these figures, no hedge looks the cheapest option. The option is cheapest hedge.
MMH, futures & FC will give fixed amounts. Option allows upside but expensive premium.
Other general comments re various methods.
What is the management's attitude to risk?
1.01600
91.48 = 92.18 0.70 OK
1.00825
Examiner's comments:
This question had the highest average mark on the paper and a large majority of the candidates
achieved a "pass" standard.
This was a four-part question which tested the candidates' understanding of the risk
management element of the syllabus and there was also a small section with an ethics element
to it.
The company in this question was a UK retailer of sportswear. It imports goods from suppliers in
Europe and India. The company's board was planning to increase the proportion of its imports
that originate in India. As a result, the board was considering whether to (1) hedge against
exchange rate movements on Indian imports and (2) establish a production facility in India.
Candidates were cast as an employee in the company's finance team. In the first part, for 13
marks, candidates were instructed to calculate, using four different hedging instruments, the
sterling cost of a large consignment of Indian goods. The second part, for nine marks, required
candidates to advise the company's board whether to hedge the consignment. In the third part,
for five marks, candidates were asked to explain the principle of interest rate parity and, using
data given in the scenario, to show how it works. The fourth part was worth three marks. Here,
candidates were required to outline the main elements of an ethical employment policy that the
company could adopt were it to open a production facility in India.
In the first part, many candidates scored full marks and showed a really good understanding of
the various hedging techniques involved. Typical errors within the weaker answers were:
deducting, rather than adding, the forward rate discount; deducting, rather than adding, the
arrangement fees; not identifying the option/futures correctly, ie, put/sell; the futures loss (or
gain) was shown in £ and not rupees. The second part was done well by many candidates, but a
lot of answers were too general. So there was discussion of the strengths/weaknesses of various
Marks
70.1 (a) NPV calculation:
Contribution 3
Selling and admin costs 0.5
Fixed costs 0.5
Rent 1
Tax 1
Plant purchase price 0.5
Plant proceeds 0.5
Taxed saved on CAs 2
Working capital 2
NPV 1
Ignoring market research 0.5
Ignoring centrally allocated fixed costs 0.5
Accept project conclusion 1
Calculation of discount factor 1
15
(b) Sensitivity
Contribution before tax 1
Contribution after tax 1
10% discount factors 0.5
Sensitivity percentage 0.5
Comment 1
4
(c) Options:
2 marks each for the first two identified. Only 1 mark if not
related to the scenario 2
Max 4
(d) Shareholder Value Added (SVA):
Seven value drivers 2
Explanation of how used 2
Max 3
70.2 (a) Captial rationing
Trial and error approach needed 1
Exclude project D 0.5
Possible combinations 1.5
Optimal combination C and E 1
0 1 2 3
£000s £000s £000s £000s
Sales 2220.00 2057.94 1907.71
Contribution 70% 1554.00 1440.56 1335.40
NPV 931.43
Market research should be ignored since it is a sunk cost. 50% of fixed costs should be
ignored since they are centrally allocated.
The project should be accepted since it has positive NPV, which will increase
shareholder's wealth.
Discount factor (1.07 1.025) – 1 = 9.7% Round to 10%
Sales
Year 1 18.5 10 12 = 2220
Year 2 2220 1.03 0.90 = 2057.94
Year 3 2057.94 1.03 0.90 = 1907.71
Working capital
Year 1 250 1.03 0.9 = 231.75 Increment 18.25
Year 2 231.75 1.03 0.9 = 214.83 Increment 16.92
Year 3 214.83.
Examiner's comments:
This was a six-part question, which tested the candidates' understanding of the investment
decisions element of the syllabus.
The scenario of the question was that a company is launching a new product onto the market.
Note: Some candidates were not showing workings, which is bad practice and is explicitly
warned against in the CBE software.
Most of the attempts at the first part were good, however, common errors were: not stating why
the research costs should be ignored ie, that they are sunk costs; not stating the reason why 50%
of the fixed costs should be ignored ie, that they are centrally allocated; inflating cash flows
when it is stated that they remain constant; incorrect timing of cash flows; inflating the net cash
flows by the general level of inflation; not using the Fisher formulae to calculate the nominal cost
of capital and merely adding the general level of inflation to the real cost of capital; discounting
money net cash flows by the real cost of capital.
In part the second part, some candidates attempted to calculate sensitivity using units (rather
than £ contribution), going as far as taxing them and discounting them. This is an error that has
appeared in recent examination diets. Other common errors were: calculating sensitivity using
sales rather than contribution; ignoring tax; inverting the sensitivity calculation; inadequate
narrative and not stating whether the project is or is not sensitive to changes in volume.
The third part was quite poorly answered, with many candidates not referring to the scenario of
the question and just giving generic answers.
The fourth part was also quite poorly answered with many candidates outlining company
valuation rather than project appraisal and referencing to the scenario of the question.
There were some good answers to the fifth part, however, many candidates assumed,
incorrectly, that the projects were divisible despite an explicit statement that they were
indivisible. Some candidates allocated projects to the capital budget using NPV per £ invested,
instead of trial and error.
In the final part there were some good answers; however, poorer candidates clearly had not
revised this topic and confused hard and soft rationing with indivisible and divisible projects.
Marks
35
Examiner's comments:
This was a six-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus.
The scenario of the question is that a company is raising finance to fund a diversification.
Note: Some candidates were not showing workings, which is bad practice and is explicitly
warned against in the CBE software.
The first part has been examined many times before and there are many adequate examples in
the learning materials. However, this part of the question was not well answered and common
errors were: not stating that the special dividend should be ignored when calculating growth
from past dividends; calculating growth from past dividends and using the 4th root rather than
the 3rd root; inverting the growth computation; confusion of digits between £ and pence;
incorrect dividend per shares calculations; poor maths eg, many expressed an answer which
should have been 34% based on their figures as 3.4%.
Answers to the second part of the question were often weak. Common errors were: incorrect
market value computations; when calculating the IRR of the debentures: using the cum interest
price, incorrect number of years to maturity, incorrect coupon, incorrect computations with two
negative NPVs, incorrect IRR computation and omitting tax; when using the CAPM for ke,
deducting the risk free rate from the market risk premium.
In the third part the answers were disappointing. Common errors were: inadequate narrative on
why Exito's equity beta should be used; incorrect computations when degearing the equity
beta, in some cases ending up with a higher asset beta than the equity beta; degearing Stable's
equity beta; regearing; attempting to use book values when regearing the asset beta; using
clearly impossible equity betas in the CAPM.
The fourth part has been examined many times and there were some disappointing responses,
common errors were: using Stables post tax cost of debt as the discount rate; using the coupon
rate to calculate the issue price; attempting to calculate a YTM computation for the new
debentures; incorrect computations of the total nominal value; unclear explanations of the
appropriateness of using the YTM from the existing debentures to price the new debentures.
The fifth part was well answered by many candidates. However, common errors were: brief
explanation of the theory; few practical considerations; no conclusion.
In the final there were many good answers, but poorer candidates did not discuss the legal
implications.
Marks
72.1 Hedging strategies:
Forward contract spot rate 1
Plus contract discount 0.5
Sterling receipt 0.5
Money market hedge – borrow in $ 1
Buy £ 1
Total receipt with interest on deposit 1
Buy September futures 1
Number of contracts 1
Gain per £ 1
Total gain 1
Total receipt 1
Put option to sell $ 1
Premium 1
Premium plus interest foregone 1
Exercise option if spot $1.3220 1
Receipt 1
15
72.2 Discussion of hedging instruments:
Forwards 2
Money Market hedge 2
Currency futures 2
OTC currency options 2
Advice – summary of receipts 1
Conclusion 2
Max 9
72.3 Economic risk:
Definition 2
Long term trend example 2
Ways to mitigate risk (1 mark per point) 4
Max 6
30
Examiner's comments
This was a three-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the risk
management element of the syllabus.
The scenario of the question is that a company is importing goods from the Eurozone and
exporting them to the USA.
Note: Some candidates were not showing workings, which is bad practice and is explicitly
warned against in the CBE software.
Responses to the first part of the question were mainly good, but common errors were: for the
forward contract using the incorrect exchange rate and deducting instead of adding the forward
discount; for the money market hedge choosing the incorrect interest rates, incorrect
apportionment of the annual interest and using the incorrect spot rate; for the futures, using the
spot rate rather than the futures price to calculate the number of contracts, treating the gain on
futures as £ rather than $, closing out the contracts using the future spot price rather than the
futures price; for the OTC option choosing the call rather than the put, not taking account of the
interest on the option premium, treating the OTC option as a traded option and incorrect
exercise or abandon decisions.
There were some good responses to the second part but some of the errors that poorer
candidates made include: just stating advantages and disadvantages; not showing the result of
not hedging; not considering the direction of currencies shown by the forward discount; no
recommendation.
Responses to the last part of the question were poor with quite a lot of candidates showing a
lack of understanding of what economic risk is and how it might be reduced despite this being
tested in many recent papers.
Marks
73.1 (a) NPV annual income:
Machinery 1
Tax saved via CA's 2
Labour/materials 2
Fixed costs 2
Sales income 1
Tax on profit 1
Working capital 4
Discount factors 1
NPV 1
Ignore depreciation 1
Ignore interest 1
Decision and reason 1
18
(b) NPV one off income:
Sales income 1
Tax on profit 1
NPV 1
Decision 1
4
Max 22
73.2 Sensitivity analysis and simulation
Explain strengths and weaknesses of sensitivity analysis Max 3
Explain strengths and weaknesses of simulation Max 3
Max 5
73.3 Real options
Definition 1
Example 2
3
73.4 Risks
Overseas trading risks 2
Political risks 2
Cultural risks 2
Max 5
35
Alternative presentation for Decision (b) with changes from original NPV:
20X9 20Y0 20Y1 20Y2
£'000 £'000 £'000 £'000
Change in annual income (550.000) (550.000) 1,350.000
less: Tax at 17% 0.830 0.830 0.830
Discounted at 9% 0.917 0.841 0.772
PV change (418.611) (383.917) 865.030
Overall change to NPV 62.499
NPV in (a) (226.100)
Amended NPV (163.601)
Decision (b) – do not invest. NPV is still negative. Shareholder wealth would decline.
Examiner's comments:
This question had the highest percentage mark on the paper. The vast majority of candidates
achieved a "pass" standard in this question.
This was a four-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the investment
decisions element of the syllabus.
The scenario was based around a UK engineering company, which provides a powder-coating
service for UK customers in the consumer goods sector. This company was considering
diversifying its operations via a three-year contract with DCL, a UK car manufacturer. An
alternative plan was to expand its existing market into India and China. Candidates were cast as
an employee in the company's finance team and were given relevant data. In the first part, for
22 marks, candidates were required to prepare NPV calculations for the DCL proposal. This
would enable them to advise the company's board whether it was worth proceeding with the
contract. In the second part, for five marks, candidates had to compare the strengths and
weaknesses of sensitivity analysis and simulation as methods of assessing the risk of the DCL
proposal. In the third part, for three marks, candidates were asked to explain real options and to
identify a real option that could apply to the DCL scenario. The final part, for five marks, asked
candidates to outline the potential risks that the company could face were it to expand its
existing operations into China and India.
Most candidates scored well on the NPV calculation. Errors made by weaker candidates
included inflating sales figures already given in money terms and inflating costs a year too
early/late. In addition, many candidates included interest costs when they were covered by the
WACC and included depreciation which isn't a cashflow. Regarding the tax charge, a common
error made was the taxing of capital and working capital flows. Some candidates started WDAs a
year too late. The working capital calculation was difficult, and many candidates inflated the
Marks
WORKINGS
W1 Rights Debt
£'000 £'000
Current interest cost 805 805
Extra interest cost (£7m 5%) 0 350
Total interest cost 805 1,155
W2 £'000 £'000
Current dividend (16m £0.15) 2,400 2,400
Extra dividend ([16m/4] £0.15) 600 0
Total dividend 3,000 2,400
74.2
Rights Debt
£'000 £'000
Earnings per share £9,699/20,000 £0.485
£9,408/16,000 £0.588
Current debt 11,500 11,500
Extra debt 0 7,000
New total debt 11,500 18,500
74.3
Current EPS £7,694/16,000 £0.481
Current gearing £11,500/£36,250 31.7%
Examiner's comments:
This question had the lowest percentage mark on the paper. A considerable proportion of
candidates scored less than a pass mark (55%) in this question.
This was a six-part question that tested the candidates' understanding of the investment
decisions element of the syllabus and there was also a small section with an ethics element to it.
In the scenario, the candidate (an ICAEW Chartered Accountant) was employed in the finance
team of Jackett, a UK-listed travel agency and tour operator. Currently, Jackett arranges flights
and package holidays in Europe and North America. The company's board was keen to explore
the implications of expanding its operations into South East Asia and Australia. This would cost
an initial £7 million, to be raised via a rights issue or a debenture issue. Jackett's board had
commissioned a market research report. Candidates were given the key financial implications
noted in the report.
The first part was worth nine marks and required candidates to calculate the next year's profit
figures under the two alternative funding methods. Using these figures, candidates were required
in the second part, for five marks, to calculate the amended earnings per share figures and
gearing ratios. The third part was worth seven marks. It asked candidates to make use of their
calculations and discuss the implications for Jackett's shareholders of the company using equity
or debt to raise the £7 million required. For six marks, the fourth part required candidates to:
calculate the theoretical ex-rights price that would arise with the equity issue; and, explain why
this might be different to the actual ex-rights price. The fifth part was worth five marks and it
tested, via the scenario, candidates' understanding of the efficient market theory. Finally, for three
marks, the sixth part tested, via the scenario, candidates' understanding of ethical guidance.
In the first part many candidates scored full marks (nine). Weaker candidates failed to calculate
the extra interest (new debt) correctly – this was simply 5% of £7 million. Also, with the dividend
calculation, a common failing was the maintenance of a constant payout ratio rather than
dividend per share as specified in the question.
There were very mixed responses to the second part. A small minority of candidates continue to
calculate EPS using retained earnings. Many candidates could not calculate the gearing ratios
correctly. Errors included: the use of market values when book values were required; using
debt/equity when debt/debt+equity was specified; not including the share premium account
when issuing new shares; and, not including retained earnings in the equity book value.
The third part was, overall, disappointing, as most candidates did not calculate the current year
EPS and gearing, and so had nothing meaningful to compare their figures with. A significant
number of candidates wasted time going through the M&M and traditional capital structure
theories when they were not required.
In part four, most candidates could calculate the theoretical ex-rights price correctly, but a
significant minority couldn't because they used the nominal value of the existing and/or new
shares. Many candidates were too brief in explaining why the actual price might be different to
the theoretical price in a four-mark requirement.
The fifth part was also disappointing. Many candidates asserted that the employee was using
weak form efficiency as he'd identified patterns in share price movements, yet in their
explanation of weak form efficiency they stated that this couldn't be done. Few identified that
the employee was promulgating the Chartist theory.
The final part was, generally, done well.
Marks
75.1 (a) Hedging strategies:
Forward contract spot rate 1
Plus contract discount 0.5
Arrangement fee 0.5
Forward contract sterling amount 0.5
MMH – amount to borrow 1
Convert at spot 1
Sterling value 1
Option – November put option 1
Use option 0.5
Option premium 0.5
Sterling value 0.5
8
(b) Advice on hedge:
Sterling receipt at spot rate 1
Discussion 5
6
(c) Forwards compared to futures:
Forward contract 1.5
Currency future 1.5
3
75.2 (a) FTSE hedge outcome:
Sell futures 1
Number of contracts 1
Rounded number of contracts 0.5
Loss in 3 months 1
Futures position – change 1
Gain on future 1
Net decrease in portfolio value 0.5
6
(b) Reason not 100% effective:
Basis risk 1
Rounding contracts 1
2
75.3 LIBOR Hedge:
Total cost (a) and (b) 0.5
Exercise option (½mark for each rate) 1
Total cost (a) and (b) 0.5
Annual cost (1 mark for each rate) 2
Discussion 1
5
30
Futures position
Sell at 7,115
Buy at (7,055)
Change 60
No of contracts 117
£10
Gain on future 70,200
Net decrease in portfolio value (£17,633)
Examiner's comments:
This question had the second highest percentage mark on the paper. The majority of candidates
achieved a "pass" standard in this question.
This was a five-part question which tested the candidates' understanding of the risk
management element of the syllabus.
1 1
The annuity factor: AF1 n = 1 –
r (1+ r)n
D(1 – T)
(d) e = a 1+
E