QN Banks

Total number of printed pages: 6 NB /XII/ENG/1
2023
ENGLISH
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 14 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
SECTION-A (Literature)
1. Answer any five of the following questions: 5x2=10
(a) Jean-Victor developed an admiration for Hardimont. Why?

(b) Which experiences transformed the life of Ellen Johnson Sirleaf?
(c) Describe Susan’s experience of learning to drive the motorbike.
(d) What punishment was pronounced by Red Chief for Bill and Sam?
(e) What is neuro- leadership?
(f) What type of leaders does our modern complex society call for?
2. Answer any one of the following questions in about 150 words: 5
(a) According to Sirleaf, what are the challenges women still face in
many parts of the world?
(b) Write the character sketch of Red Chief.
(c) ‘A Piece of Bread’ is the story of the bond between a duke and a
soldier. Justify the title.
3. Read the lines from the poem and answer any two questions that follow:
I. Let me not to the marriage of true minds

Admit impediments. Love is not love
Which alters when it alteration finds,
(a) What is meant by the ‘marriage of true minds’? 1

(b) Why is the poet not ready to admit any kind of hindrance in love? 1
(c) When is love not love? 1
II. I am not yet born; provide me

With water to dandle me, grass to grow for me, trees to talk to me, sky to
sing to me, birds and a white light in the back of my mind to guide me.
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(a) What does the unborn child want? 1

(b) Is the speaker a lover of nature? 1
(c) What does the poet refer to as’ a white light’? 1
III. Ah! As the heart grows older

It will come to such sights colder
By and by, nor spare a sigh
Though worlds of wanwood leafmeal lie;
And yet you will weep and know why.
Now no matter, child, the name
Sorrow’s springs are the same.
(a) What is the narrator assuring the child? 1

(b) Why will the child be ‘colder’ and ‘not spare a sigh’? 1
(c) What according to the narrator is sorrow’s springs? 1
iv. Plunged in the battery- smoke

Right thro’ the line they broke;
Cossack and Russian
Reel’d from the sabre-stroke
Shatter’d and sunder’d.
Then they rode back, but not
Not the six hundred.
(a) What does ‘battery- smoke’ refer to here? 1

(b) Who rode back and why not the whole Brigade of the six hundred? 1
(c) Identify the poetic device used in lines 4 and 5. 1
4. What message does the poem ‘Prayer before Birth’ convey to the readers? 4
Or
How has the poet described love with reference to the concept of time in the
poem, ‘Let Me Not to the Marriage of True Minds’?
5. I came to bury Caesar, not to praise him.

The evil that men do lives after them,
The good is oft interred with the bones;
So let it be with Caesar. The noble Brutus.
Hath told you Caesar was ambitious;
(a) Who is the speaker? 1

(b) Who is Brutus and why does the speaker call him noble? 2
(c) Does the speaker really believe that Caesar was ambitious?
Give evidence. 2
Or
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Antony uses Caesar’s will to turn his audience completely in his favour and
against the injustice of the assassination. Write a short note on this incident. 5
6. Answer any two of the following questions in about 150 words: 5x2=10
(a) Describe in detail how the ghost speaks of the Garden of Death and
how he explains the verse on the library window.
(b) Write a note on the humour and satirical elements in ‘The Canterville
Ghost’.
(c) Give a detailed character sketch of Sir Simon the ghost.
Section-B (Reading)
7. Too many parents these days can’t say no. As a result, they find themselves
raising ‘children’ who respond greedily to the advertisements aimed right at
them. Even getting what they want doesn’t satisfy some kids; they only want
more. Now, a growing number of psychologists, educators and parents think it’s
time to stop the madness and start teaching kids about what’s really important:
values like hard work, contentment, honesty and compassion. The struggle to set
limits has never been tougher—and the stakes have never been higher. One
recent study of adults who were over indulged as children, paints a discouraging
picture of their future: when given too much too soon, they grow up to be adults
who have difficulty coping with life’s disappointments. They also have distorted
sense of entitlement that gets in the way of success in the work place and in
relationships.
Psychologists say that parents, who overindulge their kids, set them up
to be more vulnerable to future anxiety and depression. Today’s parents
themselves raised on values or thrift and self-sacrifice, grew up in a culture
where ‘no’ was a household word. Today’s kids want much more, partly because
there is so much more to want. The oldest members of this generation were born
in the late 1980s, just as PCs and video games were making their assault on the
family room. They think of MP3 players and flat screen TV as essential utilities,
and they have developed strategies to get them .One survey of teenagers found
that when they crave for something new, most expect to ask nine times before
their parents give in. By every measure, parents are shelling out record amounts.
In the heat of this buying blitz, even parents who desperately need to say no find
themselves reaching out for their credit cards.
Today’s parents aren’t equipped to deal with the problem. Many of
them, raised in the 1960s and 70s, swore they’d act differently from their parents
and have closer relationships with their own children. Many even wear the same
designer clothes as their kids and listen to the same music. And they work more
hours; at the end of a long week, it’s tempting to buy peace with ‘yes’ and not
mar precious family time with conflict. Anxiety about the future is another
factor. How do well intentioned parents say no to all the sports gear and arts and
language lessons they believe will help their kids thrive in an increasingly
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competitive world? Experts agree: too much love won’t spoil a child. Too few
limits will.
What parents need to find, is a balance between the advantages of an
affluent society and the critical life lessons that come from waiting, saving and
working hard to achieve goals. That search for balance has to start early.
Children need limits on their behaviour because they feel better and more secure
when they live within a secured structure.
Older children learn self-control by watching how others, especially
parents act. Learning how to overcome challenges is essential to becoming a
successful adult. Few parents ask kids to do chores. They think their kids are
already overburdened by social and academic pressures. Every individual can be
of service to others, and life has meaning beyond one’s own immediate
happiness. That means parents eager to teach values have to take a long, hard
look at their own.
(Based on your reading of the passage, answer the following questions)
I. (a) What values do parents and teachers want children to learn? 1

(b) What are the results of giving the children too much too soon? 1
(c) Why do today’s children want more? 2
(d) What is the balance which the parents need to have in today’s world?
What is the necessity to set limits for children? 1+1=2
II. Give the antonyms of the words from the passage: 2x1=2
(a) Sanity
(b) Impoverished
8. Read the following passage and prepare notes on the contents of the passage and
summarize in about 80 words using the notes that you have made: 4+3=7
Although stupidity is commonly defined as a lack of normal intelligence,
stupid behaviour is not the behaviour of a person lacking in intelligence but the
behaviour of a person not showing good judgement or sense. In fact, stupidity
comes from the Latin word that means ‘senseless’. Therefore, stupidity can be
defined as the behaviour of a person of normal intelligence who acts in a
particular situation as if he or she isn’t very bright. Stupidity exists at three levels
of seriousness.
First is the simple, relatively harmless level. Behaviour at this level is often
amusing. It is humorous when someone places the food from a fast food restaurant
on the roof of the car while unlocking the door and drives away with the food still
on the roof. We call this absent-mindedness .The person’s good sense or
intelligence was temporarily absent. At this level, other than causing
inconvenience or embarrassment, no one is hurt by stupid behaviour. The next
type – serious stupidity- is more dangerous. Practical jokes such as putting sugar
in the salt shakers are at this level. The intention is humorous, but there is a
chance of harm. Irresponsible advice given to others is also serious stupidity. An
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example is a person who plays psychiatrist on the basis of an introductory

psychology course or doing a TV program on psychiatry. The intention may be to
help, but if the victim really needs psychiatric help, an amateur will only worsen
the situation.
Even worse is the third kind of stupidity. Kind people, who would never
injure another living being, stupidly throw away a box of six-week old kittens
along a country road. Lacking the heart to kill the poor things, they sentence them
to almost certain death from wild animals, infections, exposure or the wheels of a
passing vehicle. Yet, they are able to tell themselves that ‘they will find nice
homes ‘or’ animals can get along in the wild’. Another kind of this stupidity is the
successful local business man who tries to have as many office affairs as he can
get away with. He risks the loss of his business and home. He fails to see that
what he is doing is wrong. His is the true moral stupidity of a person not willing to
think about the results of his actions or to take responsibility for them. The
common defense of a person guilty of stupidity is –‘But I didn’t think….’ This,
however, is not proper excuse, especially when serious or harmful stupidity is
involved.
SECTION-C (WRITING)
9. You are the Manager of Authentic Pick, a family clothing showroom, Dimapur.
Draft a suitable advertisement to be published in the local dailies, offering 50%
discount on all garments.
Or 4
Read the following paragraph and express your opinion in not more than 50
words on whether you agree or disagree with the ideas mentioned in it.
Social media plays a very important role in today’s life. It enables
people to discover and learn new information, share ideas, interact with new
people and organizations and so on. It has changed the way people live their life
and made communication much easier. On the other hand, it creates many
problem involving mental health, emotional insecurities and waste of time. It
acts as a platform for drama, bullying, trolling, harassment and much more.
10. You are John, the secretary of the students union of Riverdale High, Kiphire. Of
late discipline is going down in your school, therefore the principal has asked
you to give a speech on the relevance of ‘Discipline shapes the future of a
student’, to be delivered in the morning assembly. You wish to reiterate the
importance of Discipline in one’s life.
Write the speech that you would make on such an occasion in about 150-200
words.
Or 5
You are Vivi/Charlie, a special correspondent for ‘The Herald’. Write a
newspaper report in about 150 words on ‘Mokokchung Music Club wins First in
India’s Got Talent’.
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11. You are Leno/Noke, the Secretary of the Students’ Forum of Shepherd School,
Wokha. Your school has planned an excursion to Delhi during summer vacation.
Write a letter to the General Manager, Northern Railways, asking for reservation
of a bogie for 60 students from Dimapur to Delhi and back, supplying all the
necessary information. 6
SECTION-D (Grammar)
12. Rewrite the following as directed: 3x1=3
(a) The boy speaks the truth. (Present Continuous Tense)

(b) I ______ (work) on this project for four months by May.
(Future Perfect Continuous Tense)
(c) Aaron was helping mother with the cooking. His friends called.
(Combine the sentences using Past Perfect Continuous Tense)
13. Use the following idioms and phrases to make sentences of your own: 3x1=3
(a) In the nick of time

(b) Wolf in sheep’s clothing
(c) Like chalk and cheese
14. Fill in the blanks with correct modals: 4x1=4
(a) One____ keep one’s promise.

(b) I _____ rather read a novel than watch that stupid movie.
(c) Tom_____ attend the service in the evening.
(d) Till last year, I _______ read without glasses.
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Total number of printed pages: 4 NB/XII/GEO/1
2023
GEOGRAPHY
Total marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii) The question paper consists of 27 questions divided into Section A and Section B.
v) Alternate question for the visually impaired students are provided in question 14
and 27. Only the visually impaired students have to attempt the alternate
question.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Section –A
1. Define human geography. 1
2. What is informal sector of services? 1
3. What is free trade? 1
4. How is systematic geography different from regional geography? 2
5. Write any two important aspects of human development. 2
6. What is remote sensing? Mention one satellite used for remote sensing. 1+1=2
7. What are border roads? Mention its importance. 1+1=2
8. a. Distinguish between push and pull factors of migration with examples.

Or 3
b. Explain briefly the three components of population change.
9. Write any three characteristic features of pastoral nomadism. 3
10. a. Define the following terms: 1+1+1=3

(i) Basic industries
(ii) Agro-based industries
(iii) Private sector industries
Or
b. Distinguish between rural marketing centres and urban marketing
centres. (3)
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11. a. Write three chief characteristics of air transport.

Or 3
b. Differentiate between contiguous zone and exclusive economic zone of
ocean rights.
12. a. Write any five chief characteristic features of plantation agriculture. 5

Or
b. Where is commercial grain cultivation practiced? Mention four chief
characteristics. (1+4=5)
13. a. Write any five advantages of ocean routes.

Or 5
b. Explain the five types of ports on the basis of specialised functions.
14. On the given world map, four areas are numbered. Choose any two and match
with the names given below 1+1=2
(a) Panama canal
(b) Mongolia
For Visually Impaired Students in lieu of Q.no.14

(a) Between which continents is the Panama Canal located?
(b) In which continent is Mongolia located?
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Section –B
15. What are administrative towns? 1
16. Define water pollution. 1
17. What is meant by population composition? 2
18. What is meant by watershed management? 2
19. What is solar energy? Mention one process for tapping solar energy. 1+1=2
20. Name any two major sea ports of India. 2
21. Define the three groups of workers viz., main workers, marginal workers
and non-workers. 3
.
22. a. Differentiate between rural settlement and urban settlement.
Or 3
b. Write three conservative methods of petroleum.
23. a. Explain the cropping seasons in India.

Or 3
b. Mention three strategies adopted by the Government immediately after
independence to increase the production of food grains in India.
24. a. Write any three preventive and control measures for land pollution.
Or 3
b. Mention any three parameters under which a person is counted as poor in
India.
25. a. Write five objectives of rainwater harvesting.

Or 5
b. Write five factors influencing the development of hydroelectric power of
India.
26. a. Briefly explain the five categories of roads of India. 5

Or
b. Why is computer called ‘one of the greatest inventions of man in the
present-day world’? Mention any three main functions performed by
computers. (2+3=5)
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27. On the given map of India, five areas are numbered. Choose any three and
match with the names given below. 1+1+1=3
(a) Digboi oil field
(b) Open Sewer of Delhi
(c) Cottonopolis of India
For Visually Impaired Students in lieu of Q.no.27

(a) Where is Digboi oil field located?
(b) Which river is called the ‘Open Sewer of Delhi’?
(c) Which city is called the Cottonopolis of India?
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Total number of printed pages: 2 NB/XII/ENT/1
2023
ENTREPRENEURSHIP
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 27 questions.
iv) General choice has been provided in some questions.
1. What is meant by environmental scanning? 1
2. Define innovation. 1
3. What is meant by excise duty? 1
4. What is meant by product mix? 1
5. What is a tagline? 1
6. Write the abbreviation of EBITDA. 1
7. State any three common idea fields. 3
8. Write any three features of personal selling. 3
9. Discuss any three importance of negotiation. 3
10. Write any three objectives of budgeting. 3
11. Write any three benefits of inventory control. 3
Answer any five (5) from the following questions: 5x5=25
12. Explain the five main sources of emerging ideas.
13. Explain any five macro environmental factors.
14. Write the five sources of collecting information from environment.

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15. Write five steps how creativity can be designed into enterprise.
16. Write any five legal formalities involved in sole proprietorship.
17. State five basic contents of operational plan.
18. State any five features of franchise.
19. Write any three advantages and any two limitations of horizontal integration.
(3+2=5)
20. Write five differences between primary market and secondary market.
21. State the five functions of Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI).
Answer any three (3) from the following questions: 3x8=24
22. Explain the eight features of Joint Stock Company.
23. Define financial plan. Explain seven major component of financial plan. (1+7=8)
24. Distinguish between advertising and personal selling.
25. Explain any eight causes of business failure.
26. Explain any eight importance of cash flow statement.
27. Explain eight classification of budget as per functional budgets.
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Total number of printed pages : 7 NB-XII/MS/1
2023
MUSIC
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
answers.
iv) Internal choice is given in questions carrying 4 and 6 marks.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Write the middle C on tenor clef and alto clef. 1
2. Draw a demisemiquaver note and rest. 1
3. How is different from time signature ? 1
4. Why is it good to use pentatonic scales to improvise music ? 1
5. Write the key signature for B  minor and G  minor on the bass clef. 1
6. Write the enharmonic equivalents of G double flat and A double sharp. 1
7. Give an example each for upper and lower auxiliary note on C . 1
8. Does the imperfect cadence end on a tonic or the dominant chord ? 1
9. What will diminished 5th and major 7th be inverted to ? 1
10. Define modulation . 1
11. What is the difference between senza pedal and una corda ? 1
12. Give the other two names of plain-song . 1

(2) NB-XII/MS/1
13. Rewrite the tune using tenor clef, so that they sound at the same pitch. 2
14. Add bar lines to agree with the time signature : 2
a)
b)
15. Write a tune for violin using the first five degrees of G harmonic minor
scale to the given rhythm. Use a key signature and finish on the dominant. 2
16. Write the correct inversions to the given intervals and name them. 2
signature on the bass clef in A major, descending and ascending.

17. Write a one-octave arpeggio in the rhythm given below using the key
2
18. Work out the keys of the following pieces : 2
a)
b)
(3) NB-XII/MS/1
19. Add accented passing notes below the asterisks . 2
20. Draw a perfect cadence using crotchets in the key of A major . 2
21. Name two composers from the baroque period . 2
22. Label the following : 2
a)
b)
Answer any five from questions 23-29.
23. Using semiquaver triplets, write a broken chord using the appropriate
triad. Use pattern of 3 notes each time. Finish no more than two leger
lines above or below the stave. Use key signature. 4
a) Chord IV in G major, ascending on tenor clef.
b) Chord ii in F major, descending on bass clef.
24. Continue the following rhythms to fit the following phrases . 4

“ Draw near my friends and neighbours,
Good news to you I’ll bring.
The fame of admiral Nelson
From shore to shore to sing.”
Draw near my friends and

(4) NB-XII/MS/1
25. Construct these scales using minim notes. 4

a) C harmonic minor scale on the treble clef, ascending and
descending. Use key signature.
b) A major scale on the bass clef, down and up. Use accidentals only.
26. Transpose the given melodies : 4

a) Up a minor 3rd
b) Down a perfect 5th
27. Label the chords with roman numerals below the stave and chord symbols
above to show the chord progression. 4
28. Write a 4 bar melody using the C pentatonic major scale. Write them in
2-bar phrases with the first phrase ending on G and the second phrase
on C, on the treble clef. Use time signature. 4
29. Using minims, write 4-part chords using the chords shown by the roman
numerals. Double the root in each case even if the chord is in first or
second inversion. Use key signature. 4
D  major Vc
a) B minor ii dim b
b)
(5) NB-XII/MS/1
Answer any three from questions 30-34.
30. Complete the following as directed : 6

a) Write the bass line (add repeated notes/octaves)
b) Write the melody line (add some passing notes)
31. On the following scales, write the tonic, super-tonic, sub-dominant and
dominant 7th triads. Label them with roman numerals below and chord
B  melodic minor, ascending, bass clef.

symbols above. Use key signatures and necessary accidentals. 6
G  harmonic minor, descending, alto clef.

a)
b)

(6) NB-XII/MS/1
32. Work out the following modulations : 6
a)
Tonic chord in _______ Perfect cadence in ______

The perfect cadence is in the _____
b)
Tonic chord in _______ Perfect cadence in ______

The perfect cadence is in the _____
33. Discuss the music of the 20th century . 6
34. Look at the music and answer the following questions . 6
Scherzando
(7) NB-XII/MS/1
a) In which key is this piece ?

b) Name two unaccented passing notes in bar 5 .
c) Name the interval between the two notes marked with asterisks in bar 6.
d) Describe the dynamic markings in this piece.
e) Write an appropriate roman numeral below the last crotchet beat of bar 7.
f) Give the meaning of scherzando.
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Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XII/HIS/1
2023
HISTORY
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 31 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Alternate questions for visually impaired students is provided in question 31
Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
Answers to question carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words
1. What is the literal meaning of Mohenjodaro? 1
2. What is the approximate year of the Mahabharata given by Arayabhatta? 1
3. What does “Tirthankara” mean? 1
4. When did Nadir Shah invade India? 1
5. Who was the founder of the Vijayanagara Empire? 1
6. Who started the Lingayat Sect? 1
7. When did the Santhal rebellion take place? 1
8. Name the first martyr of the Indian freedom movement. 1
9. Who founded the Swarajist Party? 1
10. Who was elected as the Permanent President of the Constituent Assembly? 1
11. What is the importance of the 6th Century B.C in the history of ancient India? 2
12. What are the two important rules about the Gotra of Women? 2
13. Name the four classes of land recorded in the Ain-i-Akbari. 2
14. What is the condition of Hampi bazaar today? 2
15. Who was Marco Polo and when did he visit India? 2
16. Give two features of Permanent Settlement in Bengal. 2

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17. How did the Archaeologist trace socio-economic differences in the Harappa society?4
18. Briefly describe the assessment system of land revenue during the reign of Akbar. 4
19. Describe the major teachings of Guru Nanak Dev. 4
20. What were the causes of the Deccan Riots of 1875? 4
Answer any two from Q.21 to Q.24 2x6=12
21. Describe the causes of decay and disappearance of the Harappan civilization.
22. Write six arguments in favour of the authenticity of the Mahabharata.
23. Describe the features of the buildings and palaces built by the Vijayanagara rulers at Hampi.
24. Discuss Gandhiji’s Political ideology.
Answer any three from Q.25 to Q.30 3x8=24
25. Discuss the main features of the Mauryan Administration.
26. Describe the teachings of Gautama Buddha.
27. Describe the salient features of the Bhakti movement.
28. Who was Bernier? What did he write about the social and cultural condition of India
with special reference to Bengal? (1+7=8)
29. Name the two Indian historians who supported the revolt of 1857 as the first war of
Independence. Justify the statement “The war of 1857 is the first war of Indian
Independence”. (2+6=8)
30. Examine the basic values of the Indian Constitution.
31. On the map given below six (6) places have been numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6.
Match the numbered places with the questions and name the places. 1x6=6
(a) Kalibangan (Harappa site) (b) Battle that changed the heart and mind of Ashoka
(c) Vijayanagara Empire (d) Buddha’s first sermon
(e) Chauri Chaura incident (f) INC session of 1826
-3- NB/XII/HIS/1
For visually impaired students in lieu of Q no. 31 (1x6=6)
(a) In which State is (Harappan site) Kalibangan located?
(b) Name the battle that changed the heart and mind of Ashoka.
(c) In Which State is Vijayanagara located?
(d) Name the place where Buddha delivered his first Sermon.
(e) In which State did the Chauri Chaura incident take place?
(f) In which city was the INC session of 1826 held?
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Total number of printed pages:5 NB/XII/ACC/1
2023
ACCOUNTANCY
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
1. Define partnership. 1
2. Name any two essential elements of partnership. 1
3. State the accounting treatment of accumulated profits and general reserve. 1
4. How is sacrificing ratio calculated? 1
5. Mention any two factors affecting the valuation of goodwill. 1
6. Define company. 1
7. Write the nature of Debenture Allotment A/C. 1
8. X and Y started business on 1st April 2021 with capital of ` 3,00,000 and
st
` 1,80,000 respectively. On 1 May, X introduced an additional capital of
st
` 60,000 and Y withdrew ` 30,000 from his capital. On 1 October, 2021 X
withdrew ` 1,20,000 from his capital and Y introduced ` 1,50,000. Interest
on capital is allowed @ 6% per annum. Calculate the interest on capital for
the year ending 31st March, 2022. 3
9. M, N and O are presently sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5: 3: 2, decide to
share future profits and losses equally with effect from 1st April 2022. The goodwill
of the firm has been valued at ` 1,08,000. Goodwill already appearing in the books
is at ` 18,000. Write the necessary accounting treatment. 3
10. Write any three points of difference between sacrificing ratio and gaining ratio. 3
-2- NB/XII/ACC/1
11. D Limited has an authorized capital of ` 10,00,000 divided into equity shares of ` 10
each. The company invited applications for 40,000 shares. The issue was fully
subscribed. All calls were made and were duly received except the final call of ` 2
per share on 1000 shares. 500 of these shares on which final call was not received
were forfeited. Show how share capital will appear in the balance sheet of the
company as per Schedule III to the Companies Act 2013. 3
12. Explain three sources of redemption of debentures. 3
13. Write any six points of difference between reserve capital and capital reserve.
14. Zee Limited forfeited 50 shares of ` 100 each issued at 10% premium for non
payment of allotment money of ` 30 per share (including premium) and first call of
` 30 per share. The second and final call of ` 20 per share was not yet called. 20 of
these shares were re-issued at ` 80, paid up for ` 90 per share. Pass journal entries
regarding forfeiture and re-issue of shares.
15. Explain any six types of debentures.
16. Write in brief any six limitations of financial analysis.
17. From the following information, prepare Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss
31.3.2021 31.3.2022
Revenue from operations 200% 125%
(% cost of materials consumed)
Cost of materials consumed ` 1,50,000 ` 3,36,000
Other expenses (% of operating revenue) 10% 10%
Tax rate 30% 30%
18. X Limited has a current ratio of 4.5:1 and quick ratio of 3:1. If its inventories are
` 36,000, find out its total current assets, total current liabilities and quick assets.
19. A, B and C were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3:2
respectively. A died on 28th February 2022. The Balance Sheet on that date was as
follows:
-3- NB/XII/ACC/1
Liabilities ` Assets `
A’s capital 12,000 Goodwill 6,000
B’s capital 16,000 Machinery 35,000
C’s capital 12,000 Furniture 6,000
Contingency Reserve 12,000 Stock 9,000
Creditors 20,000 Debtors 15,000
Employees Provident Fund 2,000 Cash 3,000
74,000 74,000
On A’s death, the assets and liabilities were revalued as follows:

i) Machinery ` 45,000 and furniture ` 7,000.
ii) A provision of 10% was created for doubtful debts.
iii) A provision of ` 15,000 was made for taxation.
iv) The goodwill of the firm was valued at ` 21,000 on A’s death.
v) The amount payable to A was transferred to his executors account.
Prepare
i) Revaluation Account,
ii) Partners Capital Accounts and
iii) Balance Sheet of B and C. (3+4+3=10)
20. Following was the Balance Sheet of D, G and T
Liabilities ` Assets `
Creditors 30,000 Bank 12,000
Bills payable 6,000 Debtors 18,000
G’s loan 4,800 Stock 12,000
R’s loan 7,200 Furniture 9,000
General reserve 12,000 Land and building 1,47,000
D’s capital 60,000 G’s capital 12,000
T’s capital 90,000
2,10,000 2,10,000
The firm was dissolved on the above date on the following terms:
i) Debtors realized ` 16,800; creditors and bills payable were paid at a discount
of 10%.
ii) Stock was taken over by T for ` 9,000 and furniture was sold to W for ` 7,200.
iii) Land and building was sold for ` 1,68,000.
iv) R’s Loan was paid by a cheque for the same amount.
v) The firm had a joint life policy of ` 3,00,000 with a surrender value of ` 60,000.
The policy was surrendered at its surrender value.
Prepare Realisation Account, Bank Account and Capital Accounts of D, G
and T.
-4- NB/XII/ACC/1
21. P Limited issued a prospectus inviting applications for 20,000 shares of ` 10 each at a
premium of ` 2 per share payable as follows:
On application ` 2, on allotment ` 5 (including premium), on first call ` 3 and second &
final call ` 2.
Applications were received for 30,000 shares. Applications for 2000 shares were
accepted in full. Applications for ` 6,000 shares were rejected and prorate allotment
was made to the remaining applicants. It was decided to utilize excess application
money towards the amount due on allotment. All money was duly received except X to
whom 400 shares were allotted and Y the holder of 600 shares failed to pay the two
calls. Pass the necessary journal entries.
22. Z Limited offered 20,000 shares of ` 10, each at a premium of 10% payable as follows:
On application ` 2(1st January), on allotment ` 4(including premium) (1st April), on 1st
call ` 3 (1st June), on 2nd & final call ` 2 (1st August).
Applications were received for 18,000 shares and the directors made allotment.
One share holder to whom 400 shares were allotted paid the entire balance on his share
holdings with allotment money and another share holder did not pay allotment and first
call money on his 600 shares but which he paid with final call.
Calculate the amount of interest received on calls in arrears on 1st August and
also give journal entries to record the above transactions assuming that calls in arrears
is maintained.
23. From the following information, prepare a Cash Flow Statement:

Balance Sheets as at 31.3.2021 & 31.3.2022
31.3.2022 31.3.2021
Particulars ` `
I. Equity & Liabilities
i) Shareholders’ Funds:
- Share Capital 10,00,000 7,00,000
- Reserves & Surplus (Profit & Loss A/C) 2,50,000 1,50,000
ii) Non Current Liabilities _ _
iii)Current Liabilities
Short-term provisions (proposed
dividend) 50,000 40,000
Total 13,00,000 8,90,000

II. Assets
i) Non Current Assets
-Tangible Fixed Assets 8,00,000 5,00,000
ii) Current Assets
- Inventories 1,00,000 75,000
- Cash & Cash Equivalents 4,00,000 3,15,000
Total 13,00,000 8,90,000

-5- NB/XII/ACC/1
Additional information:
During the year, ` 50,000 depreciation has been charged to fixed asset;
a piece of fixed assets costing ` 12,000 (book value ` 5,000) was sold at 60% profit
on book value.
24. From the following information, prepare a Cash Flow Statement.

BALANCE SHEETS
as at 31 March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021
st
31.03.2021 31 .03.2020
Particulars ` `
I. Equity & Liabilities
i) Shareholders’ Funds:
- Share Capital 1,30,000 90,000
- Reserves and Surplus (Profit & Loss A/C) 85,000 50,000
ii) Non-Current Liabilities - -
iii) Current Liabilities
- Trade Payables 22,000 17,400
Total 2,37,000 1,57,400
II. Assets
i) Non Current Assets
-Tangible Fixed Assets 1,66,000 93,400
-Intangible Assets (Goodwill) _ 1,000
ii) Current Assets
- Inventories 21,000 22,000
- Trade Receivables 39,000 36,000
-Cash & Cash Equivalents 6,000 5,000
- Short term loans & advances(advance tax) 5,000 -
Total 2,37,000 1,57,400
Additional information:
During the year, depreciation charged on fixed assets was ` 20,000 and
income tax ` 5,000 was paid in advance.
****************
Total number of printed pages : 5 NB/XII/PHY/1
2023
PHYSICS
answers.
1. Which of the following relation does not hold at resonance in LCR series
circuit? 1
1 1
(a)  (b) 
LC LC
1 1
(c) L  (d) C  .
C L
2. If the refractive index for a medium is 1.5, then velocity of light in this
medium will be (in m/s) 1
(a) 10 × 108 (b) 2 × 108
(c) 3 × 108 (d) 4 × 108.
3. Photons of energy of 6eV are incident on a metal surface whose work

function is 4eV. The minimum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons
will be 1
(a) 0eV (b) 1eV (c) 2eV (d) 10eV.
4. An atom bomb works on the principle of 1

(a) nuclear fusion (b) nuclear fission
(c) α-decay (d) β-decay.
5. When a semiconductor is heated, 1

(a) number of electrons increases while that of holes decreases
(b) number of holes increases while that of electrons decreases
(c) number of electrons and holes remains same
(d) number of electrons and holes increases equally.
6. A wire cuts across a flux of 0.2 × 10−2 weber in 0.12 second. What
is the emf induced in the wire? 1
-2- NB/XII/PHY/1
7. a. Arrange the following radiations in ascending order with respect to

their frequencies:
X-rays, microwaves, UV rays and radiowaves.
Or 1
b. How are electromagnetic waves produced?
8. Define impact parameter. 1
9. Why does PN junction not conduct in reverse bias? 1
10. a. What is the function of a repeater used in communication system?
Or 1
b. How does the effective power radiated from a linear antenna depend
on the wavelength of the signal to be transmitted?
11. a. Two charges 3 × 10−8 C and −2 × 10−8 C are located 15cm apart. At
what point on the line joining the two charges is the electric potential
zero? Take the potential at infinity to be zero.
Or 2
b. Three capacitors of capacitance 2pF, 3pF and 4pF are connected
parallel.
i) What is the total capacitance of the combination?
ii) Determine the charge on each capacitor if the combination is
connected to a 100V supply.
12. a. A current of 5 ampere’s flows steadily through a metal wire of cross-
sectional area 4 × 10−6m2. If the number density of conduction
electrons in the wire be 4.8 × 1028m−3, find
i) current density and
ii) drift speed of electrons.
Or 2
b. A battery of emf 10V and internal resistance 3Ω is connected to a
resistor. If the current in the circuit is 0.5A, what is resistance of the
resistor? What is the terminal voltage of the battery when the circuit
is closed?
13. a. Write the expression for the force on a charge of moving with velocity
 
v in a magnetic field B . Under what circumstances the force shall be
zero?
Or 2
b. What is the nature of magnetic field produced by a current flowing
in a straight conductor? Name the rule to find the direction of
magnetic field.
14. a. Find the magnetic potential energy stored in an inductor carrying

current I.
Or 2
-3- NB/XII/PHY/1
b. Prove mathematically that current in a capacitor leads the voltage by


a phase angle of when an alternating voltage is applied on it.
2
15. a. Show that the speed of propagation of electromagnetic waves in free

1
space is is C  where the symbols have their usual meanings.
00
Or 2
b. Give four properties of electromagnetic waves.
16. a. Calculate the binding energy of an alpha-particle. Given
Mass of proton = 1.0073 amu
Mass of neutron = 1.0087 amu
Mass of α-particle = 4.0015 amu.
Or 2
b. Express 1 joule in eV. Taking 1amu = 931 MeV, calculate the mass
of C-12 atom.
17. a. Find the magnitude of electric field on the equatorial plane of an
electric dipole.
Or 3
b. Establish the relation between electric field and potential. If electric
potential within a certain region is constant, what will be the nature
of electric field inside the region?
18. a. How does the resistivity of a conductor vary with temperature?
Or 3
b. Draw a circuit showing a wheatstone bridge. Using Kirchoff’s rules,
obtain the balanced condition of wheatstone bridge.
19. a. Two long and parallel straight wires A and B carrying currents of
8.0A and 5.0A in the same direction are separated by a distance of
4.0cm. Estimate the force on a 10cm section of wire A.
Or 3
b. A circular coil of 30 turns and radius of 8.0cm carrying a current
of 6.0A is suspended vertically in a uniform horizontal magnetic
of magnitude 1.0T. Find the magnitude of torque:
i) when the coil makes an angle of 30o with the direction of
field.
ii) When the coil is parallel with the field.
Would the torque change if the circular coil is replaced by a planar
coil that encloses the same area?
20. a. Using Biot-Savart’s law, find the magnitude of magnetic field on the
axis of a circular current carrying coil.
Or 3
-4- NB/XII/PHY/1
b. Explain the working principle of moving coil galvanometer with a

labelled diagram.
21. a. Define electromagnetic induction. Discuss two methods for

producing induced emf.
Or 3
b. Obtain the expression of mutual inductance for two long co-axial
solenoid.
22. a. Obtain the relation between RMS value and peak value of an AC.
Or 3
b. Find the average power of AC over one complete cycle in an LCR
series circuit.
23. a. A convex lens of focal length 20cm in air is made of material of

refractive index 1.6. The lens is now immersed in a liquid whose
refractive index is 1.3. Determine the new focal length and nature
of the lens inside the liquid.
Or 3
b. A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal
length 2.0cm and an eyepiece of focal length 6.25cm separated by a
distance of 15cm. How far from the objective should an object be
placed in order to obtain the final image at-
i) the least distance of distinct vision
ii) at infinity.
24. a. What is total internal reflection? Give the relation between

refractive index and critical angle. Write one application of total
internal reflection.
Or 3
b. Using Huygen’s wave theory, prove that for refraction of light,
the ratio of sine of angle of incidence to sine of angle of refraction
is constant.
25. a. What is photoelectric emission? State the laws of photoelectric effect.

Or 3
b. Obtain the de-Broglie relation for material particles. What is the rest
mass of a photon?
26. a. Write the conclusion drawn from alpha particle scattering experiment.
Define distance of closest approach.
Or 3
b. On the basis of Bohr’s theory, explain the energy levels of hydrogen
atom with a diagram.
-5- NB/XII/PHY/1
27. a. Draw the block diagram of a generalized communication system.

Mention two basic modes of communication.
Or 3
b. What is ground wave? Why is short wave communication over long
distances not possible via ground waves?
28. a. State and prove Gauss law. Using this law, obtain the magnitude of
electric field inside and outside of a charged spherical shell.
Or 5
b. Draw a labelled diagram of Van de Graff generator. Explain its
working principle to show how by introducing a small charged
sphere into a larger sphere, a large amount of charge can be
transferred to the outer sphere.
29. a. Prove the relation A+  = i + e for a prism. What does relation

become, when prism is placed in minimum deviation?
Or 5
b. Explain Young’s double slit experiment. What is the effect on the
interference fringe, when monochromatic source is replaced by a
source of white light? Write two conditions to obtain sustained
interference.
30. a. What is a rectifier? Explain with circuit diagram the working of a

full wave rectifier. Also show its input-output wave formation.
Or 5
b. Draw a circuit diagram for n-p-n transistor in common emitter
configuration. Draw the input and output characteristics and
explain them.
**********************
Total number of printed pages : 4 NB/XII/AEN/1
2023
ALTERNATIVE ENGLISH
answers.
iv) Internal & general choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the
top left side.
SECTION -A (Prose)
1. What does Russell mean by ‘a sense of proportion’? 1
2. According to Nehru, which factor has propelled human civilisation forward? 2
3. Why was Franz taken by surprise when he arrived in school that day? 2
4. Explain the line, “With every increase in knowledge, wisdom becomes more
necessary”. 3
5. What qualities does Bacon ask to keep in mind when associating with
followers? 3
6. a. Identify any two main themes discussed by Nehru in the letter.

Or 4
b. “When people are enslaved as long as they hold fast to their language it is
as if they had the key to their prison?” Explain.
7. Answer any one (1) from the following questions:

a. How has Nehru juxtaposed nature with science in his letter? 5
b. What is the essence of wisdom? How can it be acquired? 1+4=5
c. “There is a kind of followers likewise which are dangerous, being

indeed espials; which enquire the secrets of the house, and bear tales
of them to others. Yet such men, many times, are in great favour; for
they are officious, and commonly exchange tales.”
(i) What do espials exchange? 1
(ii) How are they officious? 2
-2- NB/XII/AEN/1
(iii) What is the dangerous thing about espials? 2
SECTION- B (Poetry)
8. What is the significance of the reference to the statue of Neptune by the Duke? 2
9. The poem, ‘All the World’s a Stage’ is critical of all stages of a man’s life, from
the whining baby to the oblivious old man. Do you agree or disagree with this
statement? Elucidate with examples. 4
10. a. Critically analyse the lines given below:

From rest and sleep, which but thy pictures be,
Much pleasure, then from thee, much more must flow,
And soonest our best men with thee do go,
Rest of their bones, and soul’s delivery. 4
Or
b. Weavers, weaving at fall of night,
Why do you weave a garment so bright?...
(i) What time of the day is it? (1)
(ii) Why are the weavers making a bright garment? (2)
(iii) What is the brightness of the garment compared to? (1)
11. Answer any one (1) from the following questions: 1x5=5
a. Do you think John Donne is worried at the thought of his mortality?
Elucidate your answer with lines quoted from the text.
b. Explain the theme of appearance versus reality as expressed in the poem

‘My Last Duchess’.
c. Explain how colours have been used in the poem to describe moods.
SECTION- C (Drama)
12. What changes does the war bring to Philip’s personality? 2
13. “Now, understand once and for all, Philip, while you remain in my house I
expect not only punctuality, but also civility and respect. I will not have
impertinence.”
(i) Who is the speaker in the above lines? 1
(ii) What does Uncle James expect from Philip? 2
14. a. Prepare a character sketch of Philip.

Or 5
b. What is the importance of the dream sequence in the play, ‘The Boy
Comes Home’?
-3- NB/XII/AEN/1
SECTION -D (Fiction)
15. What did the convict order Pip to bring for him in the marshes? 1
16. How did Pip repay his benefactor? 2
17. Why did Orlick decide to take revenge on Pip? 3
18. a. Give a character sketch of Joe Gargery.

Or 4
b. Do you think the novel would change if Pip had refused to help Magwitch
when he was in the marshes? Explain.
19. a. Explain with suitable example on the theme ‘Greed for Money’ in the novel
Great Expectations. 5
Or
b. Describe Miss Havisham and her house. How do you think this would have
determined Estella’s personality? (3+2=5)
SECTION -E (Grammar)
20. Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions: 3x1=3

(a) She did the embroidery _________ hand.
(b) The clerk spoke _______ a polite way.
(c) The cat jumped ______ the table.
21. Insert correct conjunctions: 3x1=3

(a) You must work _________ starve.
(b) ________ that is so, I am content.
(c) God made the country ________ man made the town.
22. Correct the following sentences and rewrite them: 4x1=4

(a) Aspirin is often given to lesson the pain in case of injuries.
(b) I will wait unless the bus arrives.
(c) The baby was weighing three pounds at birth.
(d) My birthday is in 3rd October.
SECTION-F (Reading)
23. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Autosuggestion is the art of turning one’s failure into success by using the
power of one’s imagination. You are what you think you are. You become what
you constantly imagine yourself becoming. By suggesting to yourself, again and
again that you will be successful or strong or beautiful or healthy, you can soon
-4- NB/XII/AEN/1
change your defeats into victories, your weakness into strength, your plainness
into beauty and your illness into health.
Your imagination controls your body and your will power. If you control
your imagination by always holding pictures of success and happiness in your
mind, you can be a master of your body, your will-power and your
circumstances.
Your imagination can help you in achieving self mastery, but your will
power cannot. Have you ever tried walking on a railway line? You are able to
balance your body on a seven centimetre wide iron girder, without any fear of
falling. Now imagine that the railway line runs across a river like a bridge.
Imagine that it is hanging in the air, fastened at both ends to all towers. Can you
now walk across it? No, you cannot, even though you apply your will-power as
forcefully as you wish to. Neither your body nor your will-power can help you
here. Why? It is because your imagination brings to your mind the horrible
scenes of your falling down into the river, your drowning, death and perhaps
even funeral. You dare not step on the line because of fears imagined by your
mind. Your powerful imagination cripples both your body and our will-power.
It is obvious that the fears in your imagination thwart the working of your
will-power. The way to success and happiness, therefore lies in your turning out
fears from your imagination. Banish horrible pictures from your mind, fill your
imagination with images of success and prosperity. In other words, control your
imagination through auto suggestion and you will be able to control your body,
your will-power and your circumstances.
A man who starts off in life with the idea, “I shall succeed”, always does
succeed. He succeeds because he uses the powers of imagination necessary to
bring about success. But if there is a man who always doubts himself or imagines
failing, he will never succeed in anything although he may have good
opportunities all around him.
You must therefore, practice autosuggestion. Pack your imagination with
happy pictures and confident thoughts. Tell yourself at all hours of the day,
“Everyday, in every way I am getting better and better” as soon as you are thus
able to control your imagination through autosuggestion, you will attain self-
mastery and achieve wonderful results in all spheres of life.
a. Answer the following questions:

(i) What is autosuggestion? 1
(ii) Can your will-power help you achieve self-mastery? Why? 1+1=2
(iii) What is the way to success and happiness in life? 2
(iv) How can one practice autosuggestion? 2
b. Find the synonyms from the passage: 3x1=3

(i) Hinder
(ii) Not very beautiful
(iii) Drive out
********************************
Total number of printed pages 4 NB-/XII/HND/1
2023
HINDI
General Instructions:
ii) The question paper consists of 26 questions. All questions are compulsory
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SECTION - A ( अपिठत बोध )

1. िन*निलिखत ग.ांश को पढ़कर पूछ7गए 9:न;क<उ>र िलिखएः
हम माया अिव(ा क*च, म-फ/ सकर वा2तिवकता को भूल जाते ह:। रज और तम म-=वृित दौड़ती ह:,
इस कायDिविध को िनरG तर =ोHसाहन िमलने से वह इतनी =बल हो जाती हJिक आHमा कLपुकार क*2थान पर
मन कLइPछा तृRणा कL=धानता =ाT कर लेती हJ । इस दुR=वृित से छUटकारा पाकर आHमानुगत होने पर ही
आनंद =ाT हो सकता हJ। इस कायDपYित को योग साधना कहते ह:। भारतीय मनोिवZान क*अनुसार वह
योग पYित [े\ हJ , ]य^िक इसम-मनुRय कL_िच और =वृित ऊ/ ची रहती हJ। साaHवकता म-देवHव को
िवकिसत करने का =चुर अवसर िमलता हJ । मन शुY होता हJ । मन कLशांित, ए,ाdता िमलती हJतथा
आeयाaHमक शaf याँ बढ़ती ह:। आज योग िव(ा को सही iaj से अपनाने कLआवkयकता हJ । माlआसन
या =ाणायाम ही योग नही वा2तिवक महHव आmतnरक साधना ही हJ ।
(क) उपयुfD ग(ांश क*िलए एक उिचत शीषD क दीिजए ? 1
(ख) हम वा2तिवकता को ]य^भूल जाते ह:? 1
(ग) िकसम-=वृित दौड़ती हJ? 1
(घ) योग पYित [े\ ]य^ह:? 1
(ङ) साaHवकता म-िकसको िवकिसत करने का =चुर अवसर िमलता ह:? 1
(च) ‘वा2तिवक’ शvद का िवलोम शvद िलिखए ? 1
(छ) ‘इPछा’ शvद का एक पयाD यवाची शvद िलिखए? 1
(ज) आनंद कL=ाaT कw से हो सकती हJ? 1
(झ) िकसको सही iaj से अपनाने कLआवkयकता ह:? 1
(ञ) ‘मनोिवZान’ का समास िवdह कLिजए । 1
SECTION - B (संरचना)
2. िन*निलिखत 9:न;क<उ>र 150-200 शBद;मEिलिखएः-
(क) ‘2वPछ जल - 2व2थ जीवन’ िवषय पर एक व2तुिन\ िनबंध िलिखए।
अथवा 6
(ख) ‘समाचार पl से लाभ’ क*िवषय म-िपता-पुl क*बीच zइ{बातचीत को संवाद क*_प म-िलिखए।
3. िकसी एक 9:न का उ>र िलिखएः-
(क) िदए गए मुि|त =ित का }याकरण एवं संरचना संबंधी lुिटय^को संशोिधत करते zए संपादन कLिजए।
आजकल का ब~ ा हमेशा मोबाइल म-ही लगा रता हJ । इस कारण उनका बाहर िनकलना खेलना -
कदना सभी बंद हो गए हJ। माता - िपता का पास भी इतना समय नही हJिक वे अपने ब~ ा क*साथ बैठ सक* ।
2 NB-/XII/HND/1
अथवा 4
(ख) आप सवदय िव(ालय, कोिहमा क*=धानाचायDह:। आपक*िव(ालय म-15 अ=ैल, 2023 को वािषD
क
समारोह का आयोजन होने वाला हJ। इस अवसर पर छाl-छाlा क*माता-िपता क*िलए एक
िनमंlण - पl तैयार कLिजए।
SECTION - C ( Iयाकरण एवं अनुवाद )

4. िन*निलिखत शBद;क<दो-दो पयाMयवाची शBद िलिखएः
बादल, आँख 2x1=2
5. िन*निलिखत शBद;क<संिध - िवNछ7द कOिजएः
परोपकार, अmवय । 2x1=2
6. िदए गए सामािसक पद;का िवQह कOिजएः
राजमहल, सीताराम 2x1=2
7. िदए गए मुहावर;का अथMवाSय 9योग Tारा UपV कOिजएः
तीर िनशाने पर न लगना, हसला प2त होना । 2x1=2
8. यमक अलंकार िकसे कहते हX? उदाहरण Tारा UपV करY। 2
9. वीर रस का Uथायी भाव Sया हX? 1
10. दोहा छ\
द िकसे कहते हX? 1
11. िन*निलिखत वाSय;का िह]दी मEअनुवाद कOिजएः 3
All the great men have been successful. They are remembered for their great
achievement. But it is certain that success comes to those who are sincere,
hardworking, loyal and committed to their goals. Success has been man's
greatest motivation.
SECTION - D ( सािह^य )
ग. भाग
12. जेmयूए तथा उसक*पुl को िकसने मार डाला था ? 1
13. पूस का महीना आने वाला हJ, यह सोचकर हक]य^िचंितत हJ? 2
14. लेखक क*िमl बाजार ]य^गये थे, वे वािपस िकस हाल म-लौट? 2
15. एकांकL‘बzत बड़ा सवाल’ म-लेखक ने िकसकL=वृित और मनोवृित का िचlण िकया हJ? 3
16. ‘बाजार दशDन’ क*अनुसार संयमी }यaf पैसे का उपयोग िकस =कार करता हJ? 3
17. िनन म-से िकसी एक =kन का उर दीिजएः
9Uतुत कथन िकसने, िकससे तथा Sय;कहा हX?
(क) “ममी तुम भी कमाल करती हो, अपनी िजmदगी को लेकर भी तुम सपने देखो और मेरी िजmदगी क*
सपने भी तुही देख डालो” ।
अथवा 1+1+2=4
3 NB-/XII/HND/1
(ख) ‘मुझे आपि हJ। जब =2ताव िहmदी म-हJतो सं2था का नाम भी िहmदी म-होना चािहए’।
18. नीचे िदए गए 9:न;मEसे िकसी एक 9:न का उ>र दीिजए ?
(क) ग(ांश को पढ़कर पूछगए =kन^क*उर िलिखए-
उन लोग^क*दो नाम थे- इGदर सेना या मेढक-मडली। िबलकल एक दूसरक*िवपरीत । जो लोग उनक*
नन2वप शरीर, उनकLउछलकद, उनक*शोर-शराबे और उनक*कारण गली म-होने वाली कLचड़ काँद^से िचढ़ते
थे, वे उmहकहते थे मेढक-मडली। उनकLअगवानी गािलय^से होती थी। वे होते थे दस-बारह बरस से सोलह -
अठारह बरस क*लड़क*साँवला नंगा बदन िसफएक जाँिघया या कभी-कभी िसफलंगोटी। एक जगह इक होते
थे। पहला जयकारा लगता था, “बोल गंगा मैया कLजय”। जयकारा सुनते ही लोग सावधान हो जाते थे। a2lयाँ
और लड़िकयाँ छ े, बारजे से झाँकने लगती थी और यह िविचl नंग-घड़Gग टोली उछलती-कदती समवेत पुकार
लगाती थी।
(i) गाँव से पानी माँगने वाल^क*नाम ]या थे ? 1
(ii) मेढक-मंडली का दूसरा नाम ]या हJ? 1
(iii) मेढक-मंडली म-कwसे लड़क*होते थे ? 1
(iv) इGदर सेना क*जयकारकL]या =िति,या होती थी ? 1
(v) मेढक - मंडली कLअगवानी िकससे होती थी ? 1
(ख) पित ारा घर से िनकाले जाने पर मागDम-सुरा क*िलए जेmयूए ने ]या-]या तैयाnरयाँ कL? 5
(ग) ‘न जाने िकतनी बाकLहJ, जो िकसी तरह चुकते नहआती’ । इस a2थित का िशकार क* वल हकही
नहथा, बaक उस समय क*भारतीय िकसान थे। इस कथन कLसमीा कLिजए । 5
प. भाग
19. ‘पतंग’ किवता क*अनुसार ब~ ^कLदुिनया िकसक*समान होती हJ? 1
20. किव ने ]या सहषD2वीकारा हJ ? किवता क*आधार पर िलिखए । 2
21. ‘घर कLयाद’ किवता म-िपता क*िकस }यaf Hव कLचचाDकLगइ{हJ? 3
22.(क) “बरषत हरषत, लोग सब, करषत लखै न कोइ0।
तुलसी 4जा सुभाग ते, भूप भानु सो होइ0।”
(i) यह पंaf िकस पाठ से ली गइ{हJ? 1
(ii) इस पाठ क*क*रचनाकार कौन हJ? 1
(iii) इस पंaf का भाव 2पj कLिजए । 2
अथवा
(ख) बहलाती सहलाती आHमीयता बरदाkत नही होती हJ
(i) यह पंaf िकस पाठ से ली गइ{हJ? (1)
(ii) इस पाठ क*रचनाकार कौन हJ? (1)
(iii) इस पंaf का भाव 2पj कLिजए। (2)
4 NB-/XII/HND/1
23. िकसी एक प(ांश कLसंदभDएवं =संग सिहत }याया कLिजएः 1x5=5
(क) जmम से ही वे अपने साथ लाते हJ, कपास
पृवी घूमती zइ{आती हJउनक*बेचैन पैर^क*पास
जब वे दौड़ते ह:बेसुध
छत^को भी नरम बनाते zए
(ख) सरनागत कहजे तजिहG , िनज अनिहत अनुमािन।
ते नर पाँवर पापमय, ितनिह िबलोकत हािन।।
(ग) िकmतु उनसे यह न कहना
उmहदेते धीर रहना
उmहकहना िलख रहा
उmहकहना पढ़ रहा
कथा सािह^य
24. िनमD ला ने अपनी अंितम इPछा _a]मणी को ]या बताइ{? 2
25. मुंशी =ेमचmद जी ने िनमDला उपmयास म-समाज क*िकन-िकन बुराइय^का वणD न िकया ह:? 3
26. (क) उपmयास म-विणD त कथा क*आधार पर मुंशी तोताराम का चnरl - िचlण कLिजए । 5
अथवा
(ख) िजस िदन से तोताराम ने िनमD ला क*बzत िम त समाजत करने पर भी मंसाराम को बोिड ग हाउस म-भेजने
का िन य िकया था, उसी िदन से उसने मंसाराम से पढ़ना छोड़ िदया था । यहाँ तक िक बोलती भी न थी।
उसे 2वामी कLइस अिव¡ ासपूणDतHपरता का कछ-कछ आभास हो गया था। ओ£फोह इतना श]कLिमजाज
इ{
¡ र ही इस घर कLलाज रख- । इनक*मन म-ऐसी-ऐसी दुभाDवनाएँ भरी zइ{हJ । मुझे यह इतनी गइ{-गुजरी
समझते हJ। ये बात-सोच-सोचकर वह कइ{िदन रोती रही। तब उसने सोचना शु िकया, इmह]य^ऐसा संदेह
हो रहा हJमुझम-ऐसी कौन-सी बात हJ , जो इनको आँख^म-खटकती ह:।बzत सोचने पर भी उसे अपने म-कोइ{
ऐसी बात नजर न आइ{ । तो ]या उसका मंसाराम से पढ़ना उससे ह सना-बोलना ही इनक*संदेह का कारण ह:,
तो िफर म¥पढ़ना छोड़ दूंगी, भूलकर भी मंसाराम से न बोलूंगी, उसकLसूरत न देखूँगी।
(i) िकसने मंसाराम को बोिड{ग हाउस भेजने का िन य िकया था ? (1)
(ii) िकसक*िमजाज श]कLथे ? (1)
(iii) िनमDला न-मंसाराम से पढ़ना ]य^छोड़ िदया ? (1)
(iv) िनमD ला ने िकसकLसूरत न देखने का िन य िकया ? (1)
(v) ‘आँख^म-खटकना ’ का ]या अथDहJ? (1)
****************
Total number of printed pages 4 NB-/XII/BNG/1
2023
BENGALI
General Instructions:
ii) The question paper consists of 24 questions. All questions are compulsory
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
িবভাগ - ক (পাঠ)
1. িন*িলিখত অংশটৄকৄ ভােলা কের পেড় 678েলার উ:র িলখঃ-

আধুিনক সভ)তার মারা.ক অবদান কালব)ািধ ‘‘এড6’’ এই ‘‘এড6’’ এর নাম 9নেল িব;বাসী
ভেয় >ক? েপ ওেঠ। আেগ মারণব)ািধ িছল ‘‘ক)ানসার’’।
‘‘এড6’’ >রাগিট হল এক ভয়াবহ ব)ািধ। ইংেরিজেত >লখ হয় AIDS , পুেরা ব)ািধিট হেল
Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome। ‘এড6’ এর উMপিN সO েকPনানা মতবাদ Qচিলত
>শানা যায়। আিUকার িবেশষ এক Qজািত বানেরর রW >থেক এই >রাগ সারা িবে; ছিড়েয় পেড়েছ।
আিUকার এক আিদবাসী িনেZা >গা[ীর ধম\য় উMসেব অসংখ)বানর বধ কের তার রW শরীের >মেখ,
>খেয় >নয়। এই রW শরীেরর মেধ)িবষি] য়া সৃি_ কের এড6 >রাগ সৃি_ কের, সাধারণ ভােব >যটা
জনা যায় তা হল ‘এড6’ >রাগা] া` ব)ািW র রেW র িবষাW aষেণর কেলই এই >রােগর উMপিN।
সারা িবে;র িচিকMসা িবb ানীগণ এড6 িনেয় ব)াপক গেবষণা কেরেছন। তারা জানেত
>পেরেছন ভাইরস এর মাধ)েমই এড6 >রােগর সং] মণ ঘেট। মানুেষর শরীের >য T >কাষ আেছ,
এড6 এর ভাইরাস >সই T >কাষ >ক অিবরত আঘােত িবপয৴` কের >ফেল, >কাষfিল aবgল ও িবষাW
হেয় যায়।
নীেচর 678িলর উ:র 6ায় ‘5’ Aথেক ‘20’ িট শেCর মেধFিলখঃ-
(i) আধুিনক সভ)তার মারা.ক অবদান কী ? 1
(ii) ‘এড6’ এর আেগ মরণ ব)ািধ >কান >রাগ িছল ? 1
(iii) ‘এড6’ >রাগিট আসেল িক ব)ািধ ? 1
(iv) ইংেরিজেত ‘এড6’ এর পেরা নাম কী? 1
(v) ইংেরিজেত সংেh েপ ‘এড6’ >ক কী ভােব >লখা হয়? 1
(vi) িবে;র >কান >দশ >থেক Qথম এই >রােগর উMপিN হয়। 1
(vii) আিUকান >কান আিদবাসীেদর শরীের Qথম এই >রােগর সৃি_ হয়? 1
(viii ) মানুেষর শরীের >য >কাষিট ‘এড6’ এর ভাইরাস আঘাত কের তার নাম কী? 1
(ix) িবপরীত শi িলখা ‘aবgল’ 1
(x) ব)াসবাক)সহ সমােসর নাম িলখ - >রাগা] া` 1
2 NB-/XII/BNG/1
িবভাগ - ‘খ’ ( রচনা ও িনিমHিত)

2. িনjিলিখত Qkfিলর উNর 150 >থেক 200 িট শেiর মেধ)িলখ
(a) রচনা িলখঃ- সমেয়র মূল)(Value of Time)
অথবা 6
(b) িসেনমা >দখার সুফল ও কৄফল সoেp তৄিম ও >তামার মা / বাবার মেধ) একিট আেলাচনা
কেথাপকথেনর মাধ)েম কর।
3. িনjিলিখত Qkfিলর উNর 50’ িট শেiর মেধ)িলখঃ
(a) মেন কর তৄিম জয় / >সামা, >তামার িবদ)ালেয়র রজত জয়`ী ( Silver Jubilee ) উপলেh >তামার
রােজ)র িশh ামqীেক Qধান অিতিথ হবার জন)একিট আমqণ পেrর খসড়া কর।
অথবা 4
(b) অ9িs সংেশাধন বা সO াদনা করঃ-
িবদ)া িবনয় দান কের। Qকॆত িবদ)ালাভ করেল মানুষ মূখgহয়। মানুষ িডZী িদেয় িবদ)ার পিরমান
কের। আঁর ধারণা িডZী থাকেলই >স b ানী, Qk মুখv কের পরীh ায় পাশ করেল যেথ[ b ান হয়।
Qকॆত িবwান িযিন িতিন অধ)য়নেক সাধনার ন)ায় Zহণ কেরন না। চাকৄরীর জন)আমােদর অবশ)ই
িডZী লাভ করেত হেব না, কারণ িবদ)া অমূল)সO দ নয়। b ান অজgেনর সেxঁ িডZী লােভর >কােনা
সO gক আেছ।
িবভাগ - ‘গ’ ( বFাকরণ ও অনুবাদ )
4. সমাস কােক বেল পুেরা ? উদাহরণ দাও। 2
5. ব)াস বাক)সহ-সমােসর নাম িলখ। 3x1=3
(i) >ছেলেমেয়, (ii) নীলশািড়, (iii) দশভৄজা।
6. শiালংকার কােক বেল ? 2
7. উদাহরণ সহ সংb া িলখ । বে] ািW অথবা yভােব)িW 3
8. িনjিলিখত িবিশ_াথgক পদfিলর wারা বাক)রচনা করঃ 2x1=2
(i) ইচ?
েড় পাকা, (ii) ওষুধ করা
9. বাংলায় অনুবাদ করঃ- 3
All the great men have been successful. They are remembered for their great
achievement. But it is certain that success comes to those who are sincere,
hardworking, loyal and committed to their goals. Success has been man's greatest
motivation.
3 NB-/XII/BNG/1
িবভাগ - ‘ঘ’ ( সািহতF)

গদFাংশ
10. িবড়ােলর মেত ধমgকী ? 1
11. fzচরণ >য Zােম বাস করেতন >সই Zামিটর নাম কী ? িতিন কত টাকা >পনসান >পেতন? 1+1=2
12. প{ ৄ >ক ? তার কী >রাগ হেয়িছেলা ? 1+1=2
13. ‘‘েতলা মাথায় >তল >দওয়া মনুষ)জািতর >রাগ’’ - >কান পােঠর অংশ? >লখক >ক ? কার উিW ?
1+1+1=3
14. ইংরািজ ‘Value ’ শেiর অথgকী ? ‘সহানুভॅিত’ >কান মূল)>বােধর আওতায় পেড় ? aিট }নিতক
মূল)েবােধর নাম িলখ ? 1+1+1=3
15. (a) >খমটার নাচ কী ? কারা এই নােচর আেয়াজন কেরিছল ? >সখােন নাচ >দখেত >ক িগেয়িছল ?
>কান পুজােত এই নােচর আেয়াজন করা হেয়িছল ? 1+1+1+1=4
অথবা
(b) ‘‘মxঁল মারেকশ । িতিন z_ হইয়ােছন’’ - কার উিW ? মxঁল >ক ? উিW িট কােক করা হেয়েছ?
(1+2+1=4)
16. িনjিলিখত Qkfিল >থেক >য >কােনা একিট Qেkর উNর িলখঃ-
(a) মূল)েবাধ িশh া আমােদর >কান Qেয়াজন সাধন কের? 5
(b) ‘‘থাম । থাম ! মাজgার পি`ত >তামার কথাfিল ভাির >সািশ মািলি_ক’’ -
(i) >কান পােঠর অংশ ? 1
(ii) কার উিW ? 1
(iii) >লখক >ক ? 1
(iv) ‘মাজgার’ কথার অথgকী ? 1
(v) ‘‘েসািশয়ািলি_ক’’ কথার অথgকী ? 1
(c)‘মানুেষর মন’ গ~িট কার রচনা ? নেরশ ও পেরশ কারা ? পাঠ অনুসাের নেরশ ও পেরেশর চিরrর
বণgনা দাও । 1+1+3=5
পদFাংশ
17. ‘পাই’ কিবতািট কার >লখা ? 1
18. ‘‘বাংলার মুখ আিম >দিখয়ািছ’’ কিবতায় উেিখত aিট পাখীর নাম িলখ ? 1+1=2
19. ‘‘এই রণভॅেম বাঁশীর িকেশার গািহেলন মহাগীতা’’ - >কান কিবতার অংশ ? কিব >ক? ‘বাঁশীর
িকেশার’ কােক বলা হেয়েছয় 1+1+1=3
4 NB-/XII/BNG/1
20. (a) ‘‘জারীর গােন তাহার গলা উেঠ সবার আেগ’’ -

শাল-সু ী-েবত >যন ও সকল কােজ লােগ’’ - জারীর গান কী ? >ক জারীর গান কের ? শাল-সু ী
কী? 1+1+2=4
অথবা
(b) ‘‘শ)ামার নরম গান 9েনিছল একিদন
অমরায় িগেয়-
(i) শ)ামা কী ? (1)
(ii) >ক অমরায় িগেয়িছেলা? (1)
(iii) ‘অমরা’ কী ? (1)
(iv) >কেনা >স অমরায় িগেয়িছেলা ? (1)
21. িনjিলিখত Qkfিল >থেক >য >কােনা একিট Qেkর উNর িলখঃ-
(a) ‘‘মানুেষর নারায়েণ তবুও কর না নমার’’ - >কান কিবতার অংশ ? কিবতািট >ক রচনা কেরেছন?
‘মানুেষর নারায়েণ’ বলেত কিব কী বুিঝেয়েছন? 1+1+3=5
(b) ‘‘যিদও পা’’ নয়েকা পাই
পার >চেয় দামী -
(i) >কান কিবতার অংশ? 1
(ii) কিবতািট >কান কাব)Zের অ`গgত ? 1
(iii) কিবতািট কার রচনা ? 1
(iv) এখােন কার কথা বলা হেয়েছ । 1
(v) পার >চেয় >ক দামী ? 1
(c) ‘‘ক ফৄিসয়াস? চাবgাক >চলা ? বেল যাও, বেলা আেরা’’ - >কান কিবতার অংশ? কিবতািট >ক রচনা
কেরেছন? বাংলা সািহেত)কিবেক কী নােম অিভিহত করা হয়? ক ফৄিসয়ােসের পিরচয় দাও?
1+1+1+2=5
কথাসািহতF
22. টগর >ক ? টগেরর সােথ কাে`র >কাথায় >দখা হেয়িছল? 1+1=2
23. ‘‘ওই >দখুন ভাxাঁ হাঁিড়, ওই >দখুন িবছানাময় তার রস’’ - কার উিW ? কােক করা হেয়েছ? এখােন
িকেসর রেসর কথা বলা হেয়েছ ? 1+1+1=3
24. (a) অভয়ার বাড়ী >কাথায় ? তাঁর সxীিটর নাম কী িছল ? অভয়া >কাথায় যাি েলা? অভয়ার yামী
>কাথায় থাকেতা এবং কী করেতা ? 1+1+1+2=5
অথবা
(b) >কেরিন কী ? যাrীেদর >কেনা >কেরিেন রাখা হয় এবং >সখােন কী করা হয়? (2+1+2=5)
**********************
Total number of printed pages: 5 NB/XII/TNY/1
2023
TENYIDIE
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 20 main questions. All questions are compulsory.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the
top left side.
SECTION – A (Kesi Mhaphrü)
1. Thedze hau phrülie di ketso kebako kelashülie:

Thiedzü u niedimiako u kevi kekra nyi, dietho, shürhei, u
nou cha, mhatho kehoupuorei chüketuo nu pesiepedzü le, huoniehuo khrie, mha
kezha chü nyüsie-i, diemo pu michie mu u Kepenuopfü preisie-i di lhou vor.
Thiedzü rei themia kesuo kro puo tuo zo, derei miakrau vi, süla seyie kevi puo
üdi mia u puya. Seyie kehoupuorei miakrau vi ba ro seyie süu seyie kevi puo üya
mu miakrau suo ro seyie süu üse seyie kesuo ütaya. Thiedzü kelhouko u nuonuo
bu u nhicu nunu kenyü mu menga ikecüko si kemecütou se tuotaya. Kenyü
üyakezhako chü ro terhuomia morei Ukepenuopfü the pesuowate, Ukepenuopfü
u pechü tuo isikecüu, mu menga ikecüu liro themia mhodzü kekrüketa,
kelhouzho-u medzi moketa cau. Dieca hanie se pecükecü la lhou kerieko üse vi
üdi puya, themia kenyü ikecüu mu kemenga si moketamia mhakipuorei themia
kevi chülie kenjü zo. Thiedzü mhasi jü süla thenyie kehoupuo nu rei dieu se di
mha pepi mu pfhetseipfhekho chü vor, mu pepikelieu morei pfhekho dieu
mhakipuorei rükra motaya mo morei meda reitaya mo.
Thiedzü kelhouko kecükekrie nu mu kechükelie nu kemezhie phi di lhou,
derei kelhouzho nu ketheguo phi. Thie kelhoumia kecükekrie nu mu kebakezhü
nu siro kemeduonya doneiüko se di lhou ketheguo phite, derei kelhouzho nu mha
kesuoko keda se di lhou ketseinyü zhüte mo ki shi? Mha kesuoko kedata mo di
thiedzü u krü zho keviko selie mu mhanyamhara keviko mu pfhemenei keviko
selie mu kezevi di lhou ba ro kidepuo ketheguo mu seyie kekrei bu rei u
mehoutie shi.
Ketsokeshü:
(a) Kedipuo la kenyü icüu prei morosuotaya ga? 1
-2- NB/XII/TNY/1
(b) Thiedzü kedipuo pie theshiethenyieko pepiya ga? 1

(c) Thie kelhoumia kimhie di lhou ketheguowalie vi üsi ga? 2
(d) Terhuomia mu Kepenuopfü the pesuo puoca kedipuo ga? 2
(e) Thiedzümia kedipuo la miakrau vi üya ga? 2
(f) Dieca hau puoca thushülie: 1
 Pfhetseipfhekho
(g) Dieca hau kepetsou dieu thushülie: 1
 Kekra
SECTION – B (Thedze kezo)
2. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca 150-200 mese nunu thushülie:

a. ‘Puotei se sikecü’ (Punctuality) icü cayie hau geinu ese thushülie.
Moro 6
b. N zemia mia dia phere n ki nu vor ba, nieko keze midzü (fuel) ma hekeshü
geinu mhanyamhara pete puoma heketa la nieko nounyü di kerüchükeba,
nieko rüchüdieu (dialogue) thushülie.
3. Hanie puo (1) kedapie thushülie:

a. Hau pekhrotsa thupie kebau phrüshü di khune kemhiekecü (copy-editing)
chüshülie:
U tsiepfumia kicükiri perikecü ha se uko mhatho kemeyietho puo
chü vor ü kecü we silie kekreilamonyü ukoe Hedzümia kitsa kelhou teiki rei
kicükiri tese vo thegi lilikecü dze silie. Siro uko hedzümia kitsa nu tuo chinmia
kijü pfüthe ketsur teiki zo rei ukoe uko kicükiriko la va puo chü ta pechie seta
mo di rülili di ta rüyie ketsur dze seiya. Siro ukoe nanyüko nu khunuo se ruo
tho ruorei kechü mu sü rübei zomonyü khunuo zhie se ruosuo kechü rei ngulie.
Therieki ukoe kiri kicüpuopuo se shi rei vor menuo kiri kemeyietho chüketa sü
mithou zo. Kicükirei ha pie kiülie sieso chü di lhou vor zo. Mia puoe puo kiri
phrü di puo kinyi phrü vor. Süla themo ha u kecüca kemeyietho puo. Nacü
nanyü pete nu rei kiri dukhripie theprie chüya.
Moro 4
b. N puo n zuo unie-e kerikelie teicie 25 keta la n kenei nu unie la thehe puo
keseshütuoü ba. Süla hau pemvü di kethezhokecü phreikie puo thupie n
kikruko tsüshü di uko bu vor hie nukecü die dieca 50 mese nunu thushülie.
SECTION – C (Diezho)
4. Hako chatha khakeshü medzi di kelashülie:

(a) Puo tier pie a tsü kenheshü. (Zanyau rhieshülie) 1
(b) Balie bu puo vüwate. (‘puo’dieca hau diezanyie kiu nu ba ga?) 1
(c) A phikou kekra puo ba. (Kevikesuo chiekeshü dietso-u rhieshülie) 1
-3- NB/XII/TNY/1
(d) Dietho zatse kitsuo ba ga? 1

(e) Themia hau uko ki ketho-u pu ba zo. (Zamho-u rhieshülie) 1
(f) Uko kepuko puorei ketho mo. (Kezakeshü zasou rhieshülie) 1
(g) Uko u nuo u tse ba phre. (Kezakeshü dietso-u rhieshülie) 1
(h) Puo seibo geinu tetsu. (Diepeu rhieshülie) 1
(i) Supuo die pu ba ga? (‘Supuo’ hau pie miakra dieza nu thushülie) 1
(j) Ungo pfhephra puo pie diecha chüshülie. 1
(k) Nieko sodu nieko leshüda pfü phre vorlie.(Puotei diabau rhieshülie) 1
(l) ‘Ketsamia’ dieca hau pie thenumia zakie nu thushülie. 1
5. Hakhro kebau Tenyidie nu thuyie chüshülie: 3

All the great men have been successful. They are remembered for their
great achievement. But it is certain that success comes to those who are
sincere, hardworking, loyal and committed to their goals. Success has
been man’s greatest motivation.
SECTION – D (Diemvü)
Thedze
6. Vitsonyü kedipuo khrü se vo puo niapfü tsüshü ga? 1
7. Kedipuo la ngumvükoe Kedisenyü dukhriwa molie kenjüta ga? 2
8. ‘Mechü die’ sü kedipuo ga mu kedipuoe krütamia kekuou ga? 1+1=2
9. Tenyimia nacünanyü chükecü nu mha kemeyietho se pie uko bode

chücüko kiko ga? 3
10. U tsiepfumia kimhie di rüna nasa tshe paya üsi ga? 3
11. a. Virünoumo mu Keviphuü unie huoniehuo gei rünoumothorkecü zasi kicü

kro puo chüpie pekieshü ga?
Moro 4
b. Tenyimia kimhie di vitho pebaya shiü pede di thushülie.
12. Hako donu puo (1) kedapie thushülie:

a. “He-i, a nuo bu rünoumo ketho chü tuote. A nuo nei sü hie rei hie medo
zo mu ru le”…
(i) Diecha hako supuoe pie supuo ki pu ga? 2
(ii) Kedipuo la puo nuo bu rünoumo tuoketa pu ga? 2
(iii) Suomia ngukeshü geinu diecha hako pu par ga? 1
b. Vitso rünapeyu-u Kedisenyü se nhie zhapu kechü cayie pengou thushülie.

-4- NB/XII/TNY/1
c. Dielou ‘krü’ mu ‘ta’ hanie vatshashülie. 2+3=5
Geizo
13. ‘Kenei Kekra Ki Ketho Yopuo Vi’ icü geizo-u nu suomia üse ketho ca yopuo
rei silie reya üdi pu ga? 1
14. ‘Kelhoumhasi’ geizo-u nu ükezo-ue kedipuo pie cabo chü di zoshü ga? 2
15. Geizo diecha hau puoca vatshashülie: 3

Mhale pejü teirüteikhrie prei,
Thaluocü nu khriesa keviko;
Takewhuo se nie siepie zote.
16. a. Kepenuopfü nhamenyiepounuo,

Rütso thuo rei chü kezivishü –
Kezha tuoi themianuo ha bu,
U kepou se zhapu chütuoü
Kepenuopfü nei chülie thienyü.
(i) Supuo geizo hau zoshü ga? 1
(ii) Themianuo kelhou tei kiu se vo nhamenyiepou kepou ze kemejüshü ga? 1
(iii) Ükezopfü suomia bu kimhielie nu puo va melo ba ga? 2
Moro
b. ‘Kelhoumhasi’ geizo-u nu kelhou tha kekreikecü diako thushülie. (4)
17. Hako donu puo (1) kedapie thushülie:

a. ‘Thenupfü Kelhou’ geizo-u nu ükezopfüe thenumia rüli dze kimhiecü kro
puo pushü shiü pede di thushülie. 5
b. Zoshü puo di hie krü hie pfutsa,

Chü kethako kerheiro ha chü,
Pecha zopie rüna rütso chü,
Lashü puocie N medo üro.
(i) Diecha hako geizo kiu nunu se par mu supuoe zoshü ga? 2
(ii) Ükezopfüe Kepenuopfü ki kedipuo cha ba mu kiüdi ga? 3
c. ‘Kenei Kekra Ki Ketho Yopuo Vi’ geizo-u nu u meda kesuomia zhorüli

dze kimhiecü kro puo pushü shiü pede di thushülie. 5
Noudo Dze
18. Neitseizo nuoyo za supuo ga? U nuoyo kedipuo se chüta ga? 1+1=2
-5- NB/XII/TNY/1
19. Neituonyü kilonser chükelie sie mechüu bu puo la kikemhie di kemezhieta ga? 3
20. a. Kepenuopfü khrüprei nu lhouyakezhamia theja pfüya ücü Ruopfükhrielie se

thakie chü di kepushülie. 5
Moro
b. “Vüwalie, vüwalie unie pethaphrüshüyi”, chü pheshieta.
(i) Suomia die hau pu ga? (1)
(ii) ‘Unie’ sü suomia pu ba ga? (1)
(iii) Kedipuo la unie vüwa mu unie vüpie kimhiewata ga? (3)
************************
Total number of printed pages : 5 NB/XII/SMI/1
2023
SÜMI (SÜTSAH)
answers.
left side.
KOKÜPHA – A (Akiphi)
1. Hi aqhou yehpüakeu akivishi phino iniju akeu khochile lo:
Aphuh lakhilo timi asachu aghamino vesümla kemi Tungkupumi thive hauve
aye pa kumo lo aghami ayina, timi lhoxü kumtsü no akumo miyetsü niye ighipu
amulo ghimeshi qah mulo ake lo tumumi kümtsa akivishi aküsau aposhushi xuache
kemi tile ighi aye züle no pai khavi lono thiakeu kumo phivelo ighipu jusütsü ake
lono züle no koi illuqivepu mutazü axah shethuve nani.
Oh! Küxümi qo itsah hi initsü lo ipipu atumuu paxa akughoki lono atsüu no
küpütsake toi pama küpütsa keu hu akithi kumo lo ngo akemi no chilu nani. Ike
kithimi sahu alah lo phe ani ipi ithiveche ke, tishipu akithiu no hilau küxümi ye kiu
shimo aye sake no ghutu puwo nani. Tilehi akichiqhi kepu akeu ye timi khiu no
axashe anikeno pa, li kichi kulo/laimu ithamo nani, tishipu akughoki alou no asütsa
akichi, kulomo no ipeghi nani. Tishi pama küpütsasü kithilau huvepu ashekha loye
atumuu no akithiu vilo “Oh! Niye hinguno hilau ye o sasü humlake tishi ile no wo
lo” ipi kinni vepu atsüveshe ilhe ida ithughive nani.
Ike sahu pheke lo ado kushuwa luveche ipi hilau atsüu mino pa, li no pai ida
ithughimove aye amllo saveche, tipa ghuloki lo atumuu hu athuthu shemove ketoi
inaqhoive nani. Eno amllo likhi no kititi itha anani, tipa ghulokilo kithimi no
aküxümi vilo kiu shimo aye sake no tsütsala pa küxü lono pimlavekeu tsah qo qhoi
kishekulushi pipuwo venani.
Ike tipau kiqi lono küxümi no kiu shimo aye sake no thwokha shikupuvetsü
nani, hiye kithixashe kithikupu kumoke ikemu kithila lo sahu pheu keuke.
-2- NB/XII/SMI/1
(a) Kiu shike lono hitoi keu chineh chini shi che kea? 1
(b) Kiu kishi axashe thuve che kea? 1
(c) Ashekhalo atumuu ye akithiu vilo kishi piche kea? 1
(d) Tumumi ngo kithimi küpütsa kelo akithi kumo lo ngo akemi no kiu ithiveche
kea? 1
(e) Kithimi ye küxümi lau kiu tsah pipuwu che kea? 1
(f) Kithimi sahu phekelo ado khije luche kea? 1
(g) Atumuu no kithimi sahu pheke lo akhichiqhi kepu ye kiu kea? 2
(h) Hipaqo ye kuu kea? 1+1=2
(i) Atumuu (ii) Axashe
KOKÜPHA – B (Akiye)
2. Lakhi likhi yelo atsathi 150-200 dolono. Ghili kiye.
a. Ghili kiye: Lhoxu kipighi mekua
Momu 6
b. Aküküptsa (Dialogue writing): Oküsau noküjo cell phone peitha keu vechewo
lhothemiqo kishi shipusave ani keno küpütsa keu yeh lo.
3. Hikuma dolo lakhi yeh lo:

a. Yehkümzü (Copy editing) Apuh-assü loye khile no atusa zü aghinike no tile
paghi azü khepuchomi kiu ghengu azü kiviye atsesa züke ipi ipi lezole kutomo
lono pheche ghike azü kikhe lo pujosu chemo azu kikhelo basü chemo
tughüthiveke lo ou kümsa no azü shope ye chemo kitiqeve keu shin go apunu
bolo phi-mini ishi hipaqoye azü kikhe lono glumo momi ishimo hani itaghi
timijibuve keu züta angu ye azü kikhe lono sa momu qhuchemo kipitimi
totimi azü kikhe huu no puka salhave aye kitiqeve ipipu azü hau ilove che.
Momu 4
b. Kuküsü: Noye Itsali/Itsato. No phuh lo noye kiphimi küqhakulu lo Akiyetou
(General secretary) tughalo chekemi kümtsü ighino nno kiphimi mpetsü
küpüghü lo ighino süpenike küküsü yeh lo.
KOKÜPHA – C (Tsayeh eno Pekibide)

4. Jeshe achipiu pe atsajoh kümsalo shepichi tsülo:
(a) Khashiye tsütsüghu _______ ighimoe. 1
(b) Tughakhani ye apine dolo atsala ________. 1
(c) Vimokemi _________ ghime kepu. 1
(d) Kiutoi __________ kela! 1
5. Atsajo küqü akeu shikümzü tsülo:

(a) Khashi mpe kithe kukughu lo aje ani. 1
(b) Pükükami akito lo aye ahi aphiko lo aketoi. 1
-3- NB/XII/SMI/1
(c) Angu no angushuu che. 1

(d) Alephemi akukuho lo ighi vea. 1
6. Sülekutho hipaqo kiqi yeh lo:

(a) Akhakhu lekiphe 1
(b) Acheahe 1
(c) Amqha lo küzü wudu 1
(d) Ane no sho 1
7. Sümi tsahlo pebide suvelo: 3

KOKÜPHA – D (Tsaiko Küghakiche)
8. Khuno no phuh lono athu kuchu huthu phe tsü kea? 1
9. Dalini ye khuu kea? Li kithi-a pesü kiu picheni kea? 1+1=2
10. Aghawu litcheh, akha kükha eno ashihah lo alelu kiu toi kije che kea? 2
11. Gen. Kaito Sukhai ye khunno ppu eno paye kughono punu kea? 1+2=3
12. Appu kalalishi nipu je ye khuu kea? Paye ampe khije thikhauno zü ida
ithughi kea? 1+2=3
13. a. Nagami Khristo yelutüghiu je khuu kea? Naga Hills lo American

Missionary mi ighi tüghimiqo je yeh lo. 1+3=4
Momu
b. Lora Raja ghushimi no Joymoti ghimeqhi keu ghili yeh lo. (4)
14. Hipaqo dolo lakhi (1) yeh lo: 1x5=5

a. Gen. Kaito eno Gen. Mow pamu no London lo ngo akelo kümsüma kumlapu
kümlah hami shilu keu ghili yeh lo.
b. Highi ighütsü qah, isukighelah,

Iyeh kighelah, eno ikighithiqah.
(i) Atsah hiye khuu no pi keu kea? (1)
(ii) Khuu no khuu vilo pi ani kea? (1)
(iii) Kiu shiche kelono pi keu tsah kea? (1)
-4- NB/XII/SMI/1
(iv) Khunno kughakiche lono iniju ani kea? (2)
c. Kushiye Hebo ngo chisho pama dolo kimithikile che kea?
Leshe
15. Viyishe Naghutomi nno ppu je khuu kea? 1
16. Tüghünakha kimi je ye khuu kea? Khuno pa yive kea? 1+1=2
17. Anulikishimi leh ye khuuno she kea? Kiu ghenguno lesheu ye anga Yekhuli
külapuwu nike lo pa mulo ime ve kea? 1+2=3
18. a. O yesukha no no ye sapu kixi no

Shimhi shi pokha,
O hoishe ana kimiche punoghi ishehe,
No zuta lekupu hi pesu ayina
Khigha cheila.
Khunno leshe no pi ani eno kiu pi ani keno mütsümishei hepho tsü
lo. 1+3=4
Momu
b. Viyishi Naghutomi ye khuu kea? Pa ye kiu shive kea? Khilau no
aleh hipau shi puwau kea? (1+1+2=4)
19. Hipaqo dolo lakhi (1) yeh lo. Khuno leshe lono piani keno mütsümishei
hepho tsülo. 1x5=5
a. Alukichi paju knheshu chewo,
Tiye nilu kumoye ipuh nono luye,
Punu kishimi no ilu ghüza kivi,
Lukha aye lukupuwo,
Shoinapu tsüna yemoye.
b. Iluh kuccho aye, moh chehu juno,

Ighoh ilou kisheh cheni keno,
Pinaimu Ni ye apuh-aza kishimino,
Kutotsüh ye ni lotsüh no akivi philuni chemo ye.
c. Atsala ghi tixi tsala kishi lono,

Supha no pu akinino xishi,
Aghino who ye akithi no kulu kiphe
Anishi wu ala.
-5- NB/XII/SMI/1
Lotsüh Kiye
20. Lhophekitthekütsüu ye khuu ghili kea? Pa ye kiu shi che kemi kea? 1+1=2
21. Salem lo akükau je ye khuu kea? Appu no kiu phuche ke lono akükau sasü kusholu
kea? Appu no phuche keu thime ye khile ani pi kea? 1+1+1=3
22. a. Appu ye ado khithohi shive kethiuno Africa yeghi qhiveno idechile
wove kea? Apu no alhikishi kilo mula kelo kiu toi mülalu kea?
Amipeu ye alovilu kema? Pa gholo ngo kelo paye kiu kiu nhemgha
qelu kea? 2+2+1=5
Momu
b. Niye itehi ye o lau ame khumoe ikemu nono küsüpüa keu kinni khuki phulu
aye chighi lo saje lakhi ye iw ke.
(i) Atsah hiye khuu no khuu vilo pi ani kea? (2)
(ii) Appu ye kiu ghenguno atsapiu sasü kusholu kea? (2)
(iii) Appu no atsapiu sasü kusho kelo achebo alou kiu jutho aghi kea? (1)
**********************************
Total number of printed pages: 5 NB/XII/A/1
2023
AO
answers.
left side.
SECTION –A (Züngang aser langzüang)
1. Agüja aliba olenji jungjunga züngang aser tasüngdangbatemji langzüang:
Kenü anogo putir ana yimti ka ajanga oyaa liasü. Tena jakdangji tetsür
ka sentsüprang süoshi semer, lenmangji ajangdanga moteti noktaka liasü.
Kechiyong tzünglu aruba ajanga lenmang ajungaji lishi motzü agi sünga liasü.
La lenmang ajangdanga motetba atemaji, lar kilir den osü tamajung agi
sashisashia raraa kangkokangjia ayimayima lai jembibaji tenati angu. Putir
rongnung tambusang jagi tetsürlaji pa terongdong nung süloka punger lishi aser
motzüji ajanga or lenmang külenji yutsü. Tetsür jagi pelar ta ashitsü melena,
putir tambusangji tiluja menütsür parnok pilaa ao.
Tena jajayonga aodang, putir tanubusang mulungjang animesüngzükteti
tawaktsü atuba agi sünga aküm. Mapang talangka jajar külen, pa mulung nung
bilembaji mejembi melitet nung putir tambusang dangji yamai ashi, “anati
ajuruba tetsürla jakla to rarabangsen aser maakmanü agi sünga liaka nai la aria
bilema punger oa yutsü”. Aser nai yamaji yariaka ne dang, ‘kanga pelar’ taa
mashi. Idangji putir tambusangi yamai langzü, nibo la to gondha ishika tejaklen
kü rongdong nungi salazüka yutsür arur sürnung nabo ano tang tashi la punger
jajar na?
Israel nunger otsü ya raraba otsü agi sünga lir. Talisa tejen lai otsüren ya
teimba ka raraba indang lir. Mosai anir rarayonga tenangzükba lima bushi. Aser
iba rara tanü tashi Israel nung manener.
Israel nung mezüngbuba chubaji Saul liasü. Pai anir Israel temeranger
sepaitem Filistia nunger den raratsü tashi kisüng agi dangbo makokla asoajen
kanga tulu sepai walunir ka liasü. Saka tematiba tsüngrem dak amanga Dawidi
Goliat den rara aser alima anokshia alinung Goliat mereptaka laodaktsü aser pa
-2- NB/XII/A/1
kolak tangzük. Naga nunger aikati, “Naga nungerji tekolak bushiba kin mesüra
tekolak atanger kin liasü” ta kanga tiyaksanga jembir, alima nung shinga kinia
meinyakdang ama.
Goliat tepsetba atema, khonang naroküm jenti Dawid nem agütsü.
Dawid asoshibo Goliat tepsetbaji tongpang tatembang kati aru. Saka Saul chuba
asoshibo ibaji tenük meremba tongpang ka tenzüker ka aküm. Saul taküm aliba
tepiyong iba nük merem tongpang jagi neneter, taso mashi lir, maaksü nung laoa
taküm tembang. Kechiyong pai Dawid dak tenük merembaji salazüka
metoktsütet.
Tasüngdangbatem:
(a) Putir ana jagi yimti ajanga aodang kechi tensa ka ajuru? 1
(b) Tetsürji shibai koma yari? 1
(c) Koba olen ajanga putir ka dak taremzük aser tesüngjem makaba
indang sayur? 1
(d) Israel nunger otsü kechi agi sünga lir? 1
(e) Goliat-ji komala walunir ka liasü? 1
(f) Dawidi Goliat den raradang shiba dak amanga liasü? 1
(g) Naga nunger aikati koma tiyaksanga jembir? 1
(h) Saul chubai kechi salazüka metoktsütet? 1
(i) Itemi ojang teratet agüjang: 1+1=2
(i) Tikaysang (ii) Walunir
SECTION –B (Olem)
2. Agüja aliba ana rongnungi ka shimteta ojang 150-200 shi nung
langzüang:
a. ‘Senso tajung ka aser pa teinyaktsü’ onük nung otsünu ka züluang.
Mesüra 6
b. Temesepba chiyungtsü ajanga shisaliok nung timtem adokdaktsüba
tebilemtsü ner medemer nena tsüngda shisa lemsatep ka züluang.
3. Ana rongnung ka shimteta langzüang:

a. Jilushi nükjidong terepramger nüm nükjidong ka yor aji angatetdaktsütsü
atüma lir. Jilushi jagi kechi shinür, iba osangji jilu aedangji metettsü. Jilushi
nong nükjidong ka tang masü saka talea alitsü akok. Nükjidong balala shiaji
kati ka dük sentaktepa yanglutsü.
Mesüra 4
b. Na Tiaba, Ao Senso Telungjem nung tongti zülur. Iba telungjem küm 25
jubilee ajungba sentong nung adentsü jayu ka tesüiba lenir kar dangi
züluang.
-3- NB/XII/A/1
SECTION – C (Orrlem)
4. Itemi langzüang:
(a) Pukhümna teratet shiang. 1
(b) Meyongja nung oren ka yangluang. 1
(c) Oti teratet shiang. 1
(d) Semdang (Rasem, Ralok enokang) 1
(e) Meyanglushira. (Rasem agiteta sayuang) 1
(f) Yanglu. (Timsü nung Rasem aser Ralok enokang) 1
(g) Tanurtemi azü chanu ajongshi/ajungshi. (Ojang shitak shimtetang) 1
(h) Jara, jara. (Ojang sadanga tetezü benteta oren kaka yangluang) 1
(i) Azüji kechiba mechiyunger kiburi meteta mali. (Ibai koba oren) 1
(j) Atentep oren tetezü kechi? 1
(k) Na arudang onoki telok ayongtener alitsü. (Koba Mapanglem nung lir) 1
(l) Taoba mapang kechi dang ajar? 1
5. Agüja aliba olen ya Ao oshi nung meyipang: 3

SECTION – D (Kaketkeno Zülu)

Otsü
6. Mapaji kechi dang ajar? 1
7. Kechiba Naga nungeri süngkhüm yanglur. 2
8. Aori amshia aruba tim kibalenbubaren ya Kong tenzük aser koma tongtibang? 2
9. Koya aser Meimchir tenangzüktepba kechi aser iba otsü nungi kechi
angazüker? 3
10. Tebur O Tetsür na tesentaktep koma alitsüla? 3
11. a. Lalushipongbaji kechi dang ajar? Kechiba tokonglu ayimba ya

rongsen lalushibongba mapa den saku ta züngshir? 1+3=4
Mesüra
b. “Akhidang tsüraburi shikiraki inyak” tanü putu shiri aser kechi inyaker
tatsü agi züluang. (1+3=4)
12. Item rongnungi ka (1) shimteta langzüang:

a. “Tasungji pa malidang ni item file ka koba nung ‘Indoktsü’ ta
-4- NB/XII/A/1
temerem agi züla liasü ibaji lapoka reprangdang.”

(i) Shibai shiba malidang iba fileji lapok? 2
(ii) Iba file nungji kechi liasü tatongji ratetjang? 3
b. Item indang nai kechi metet tatsü agi rasaa shiang: 2½ +2½ =5
(i) Naga Hoho
(ii) Naga People’s Movement for Human Right
c. Mapa inyakdak awashi tamajungtemji kechisa? 5
Sangro
13. Kechi ozüi Par nokinketertem osang aben? 1
14. Soreptangrep tetezü kechi rasaa shiang. 2
15. Kinü tanur dang nung jagi ken mejemer jagi kechisa nükshia aginür? 3
16. a. “Tzümetsüng jagi aben, lenmang nung” shiba dak kechi atalok
rasaa shiang. 4
Mesüra
b. “Ajaklen takok entsüdang
Kolang tokshia jembitep”
(i) Koba sangro nungi agitet? (1)
(ii) Orentemji rajema züluang. (3)
17. Item rongnungi ka (1) shimteta langzüang:

a. “Tsüngden yamoka kitsüngya mesü,
Rongjentsü thatatsü mali.”
(i) Koba sangro aser shibai mejem? 2
(ii) Kechiba rongjentsü thatatsü mali ta sangro nungji ashir
ratetjang. 3
b. “Kinük nung tsüngkotepsü ter kar,

Küttsü sünga sünak sürem,
Shiret, kümbang, ajak peria kar.”
(i) Koba sangro nungi shibai mejem? 1
(ii) Küttsü kechi dang ajar? 1
(iii) Oren nungji shir akaba indang ashir tekongji rasaa züluang. 3
c. “Ena, asüngji tensentsü joko atongteter lia,

Putir jagi ashi;
Pa dakbo sempet balaka lir?”
(i) Koba sangro nungi shibai mejem? 1
-5- NB/XII/A/1
(ii) Olenji kechi densa ka nung putirtemi shiba dang ashi? Otsüji
ratetjang. 4
Yimdangjem
18. “Torotoko, Ningjang chobi ya medem achu ko monger, yarang bana chamiro”
Iba ken tetezü kechi ratetjang. 2
19. Etiben sür külen Jinai kechisa inyak rasaa shiang. 3
20. a. “Kongki amshia Jinai ken tesüngmangtsüka aten”

(i) Kongki tenüngji kechi? 1
(ii) Kongkiji koma tongtibang liasü rasaa züluang. 4
Mesüra
b. Wasangpong koyimer liasü? Pa dang Etibeni komala jakla sa sayu? (1+4=5)
************************************
Total number of printed pages : 5 NB/XII/L/1
2023
LOTHA
answers.
left side.
SECTION – A (Ekhao)
1. Motsü shi khae zesi oküpoe engao jiang janlana:
Nkolo orae evamo tona kyon to npyonta thüng Apvüho ha
mmhorü to oni na zhükhfü pankae wotasi ojen shantacho. Mmhorü ji na, “ojen
shiang kvütolyui hanta la?” to Apvüho engale, Apvüho na ‘ojen ji kokachio
hanle”, to mmhorü ji ezoa hantoksiApvüho jo ojen ji chenchio hansi ombo elaro
zhükhfü ji pankae chiyicho. Osi mmhorü jijo ojen ji lo ojü rheyio ji tsükona
chiyina nchiyiche, chiyina nchiyiche to tssocho. Hoji to mmhorü ji na elümoto
ezüpa ojü ji khyinga vanle, Apvüho na “ana ni khichev kalo”to ezoa ojenji lo
olong penthechi mmhorü ji ojüi na phfüa jeyithokcho. Jisüi jo Apvüho na
jüjowoe jowole mmhorü ji jütsae phfüa jeyia vancho osi ombo na Apvüho ji
hungale “a meyamo ji shi’ to ezoa Apvüho ji rhümata phancho. Hoji tsükona
Apvüho na tsana, tsana oyi orae tssakmhen tssoe elio ji zeta vanle, mmhorü ji na
ombo rümvü tssocho. Tole Apvüho “a motsü, ayio zhürochümpoe na ophyang
shi ochia ti tümphitokle to a ezoa a nhyaktokala” to mmhorü ji ezole, mmhorü ji
na “toka ana tümphi zeta ne?” to Apvüho ji engacho. Jithüng ji Apvüho na
“Amotsü toka ana zhürochümpoe jiang owo engae zesi onte na lüm na rünga
tssona ni tümphitokvü ka a yivon enga vankhe” to ezoa meta thanpoe na oyi
mmhorü ji zechia, “ a motsü, zhürochümpoe na ophyang ji tümle to ni ezoala”,
to mmhorü ji tüngchia tssakmhen tssoe elio ji tümphitoksi otssak jiang khi
tüktsüngi chütokcho.
Engao:
(a) Apvüho tona mmhorü to motsü shijo ntio yuta lo motsü la? 1
(b) Apvüho tona mmhorü to oni na kvülo na ntio elhi tssotacho la? 1
(c) Apvüho na ojen ji kvütolyui hancho la? 1
(d) Mmhorü ji na ojen ji kvütolyui hancho la? 1
(e) Apvüho na ojen ji lo ntio thei mmhorü ji hantokcho la? 1
-2- NB/XII/L/1
(f) Tssakmhen tssak shi jo kvütvü lo tssoa la? 1

(g) Motsü shilo mmhorü ji jo kvütolyui chücho la? 1
(h) Mmhorü ji na kvüto phyoa Apvüho rhümata phencho la? 1
(i) Yitsüng pi elio shiang yichak pia: 1+1=2
(i) Kokachio (ii) Nkolo
SECTION – B (Eramo)
2. Oküpoe eni pi elio shiang lo na ni lümcho motsünga yitsüng 150- 200

harüma na erana:
a. Yiphongran: Naga meta lo tathi ejüili jiang nkümnfü.
Mekana 6
b. Thyutasanta/jantasanta shi erana:
Oshom otsük eni na limhalo jo –tsüktssen alo, püngnoeden alo, rasanden
jiang etho elio sana to thyutasantao ji erana.
3. Oküpoe eni pi elio shiang lona ni lümcho motsünga erana:

a. Yiren pi elio shi khae zesi elanchoe eranchoa (copy-editing):
Enhungara shilo jo yithankako shi jo ntsinran nzua yiphen lankvü opvu
motsunga. Yelhenkako shi yakchia ete na limhatsü yiwon ete liphong
yivon osi ete nkonjan topvü lo ntio tsoa osi yia vancho sana hojiang ete
kipüngi hansi oyi khatala. Hoji tsükona yithen kako shi jo kyon nzontsü
okho jiang ntsiran osi üntsiyan piphan opvü tsotso motsünga.
Mekana 4
b. Choro yithako ji lo ni na zotoro ethan shio ji mvüchoktav tsükona ni shom
ji thüngi etsa kako erana.
SECTION – C (Lothayi Nsanlan)

4. Shiang janlana:
(a) Yiren jo ntio la? Yiren olan kvüta lia? 1+1=2
(b) Owon tongphia:

(i) Evüngki evan jiang ombo na vachicho. 1
(ii) Ocho na sana eranphen shi a picho. 1
(c) Yitsüng esütao tvü erana:

(i) Emhoka 1
(ii) Kherüpa 1
5. Etsyuchi epio ji ephan erana/janlana:

(a) Sükvü ji tssünga ji _______ vai lia. (Mhachungyi na pyingtoka) 1
(b) Onte na etsao ji emathata elonchocho. (Tepfüyi ji lo sekata) 1
-3- NB/XII/L/1
(c) Ana kyon ji mying _______. (Mhechoa) (Yuta etsüngta elamo

khi pyingthoka) 1
(d) Ana phyokhokcho alo? (Ntio eyieton sana pia) 1
(e) Yitsüng ‘pfütsson’ shina tssoyioyi kümtoka. 1
(f) ‘Hayio’ yitsüng shi tsütsata Tüngsachioyi nsüngria. 1
6. Yiren shiang Lothayi na khophia: 3

SECTION – D (Motsüran Ekhao )
7. ‘Siamo Tutti Fratelli’ yiren shi yichak ji erana. 1
8. Ronald Ross na Secunderabad lo rasankho jilo elhi sakalam tsükona yiathüng

khenzhü motsünga erancho lio ji erana. 2
9. Ruth na ocho li mosü yano wocho la? Ompvü na kvüta yanchecho la? 1+1=2
10. Jean Henry Dunant na Sonderegger thüngi ombo chüna kvüto tssoyiv tsükona
ezocho la? 3
11. ‘Longa soko’ shi tsükona tara eroroa erana. 3
12. a. Ni kikhemvü Tssirolo jo tsüngrham ratssen eloe küma ni na tsintsi na

vanala?
(i) Yiren shi jo ocho na phyocho la? 1
(ii) Ocho thüngi ezocho la? 1
(iii) Ntio tsükona yiren shi phyocho la? 2
Mekana
b. Ronald Ross na nzyu tiza tssoa thüng orhongi na England ni yentsa
eyio motsü ji erana. (4)
13. Oküpoe pi elio shianglo na motsünga (1) ethüngi janlana: 1x5=5

a. Khyingroe nchyua ji na oyan thanpoe loroe khi sosi yia na kvütolyui
sosi yitacho sana erana.
b. Orpah na pyonta eyen esüa ono ntsüpa thüng ono na, Ruth thüngi kvüto
ezocho la, osi Ruth na kvüto janlancho la?
-4- NB/XII/L/1
c. “Ata a na ni sükhying ni rephiv meka, ni eramo ka, loroe jo ni na soa

vanden khe, Ayio ni na soa van sanati soa vamvü ka.”
(i) Yiren shi jo ocho na phyocho la? (1)
(ii) Yiren shilo ‘ni’ to ephyo ji jo ocho tsükona phyocho la? (1)
(iii) Ota na ongo ji ntio ntio lona nchocho sana eroroa erana. (3)
Chungiyi
14. “Ori na likoe tanchüchüi eyatokala” yiren shi yichak jo ntio la? 1
15. Chungiyi ‘Janchonzoe’ ji jo ocho na erancho la? Chungiyi ji yizen jijo

kvüto sana erana. 1+1=2
16. Eng kvümyun rakao phonglan ji jo ntio phonglan ji la? Ntio tsso ji
na eng kvümyun rakao phonglan to tsacho la? 1+2=3
17. a. Yiren shiang eroroa: 4

“Ni rünyucho enhungo zothev kila,
Yamo hanpong khfüa to e randania.
Sükhying ratsen mmhayi le to e randania.
Therolani yanthanshanri mmhayi le to e randania.”
Mekana
b. Naga jipo lan shiang tssothimori osi onte na ntio meta fükae khicho
sana erana: (4x1=4)
(i) Tsüngon
(ii) Jungle
(iii) Chüm
(iv) Kyong
18. Oküpoe pi elio shiang lona motsünga (1) ethüngi erana: 1x5=5
a. Chungiyi ‘Loroe Kangtsücho Merangcho’ ji lo loroe ji jo kvülo
evan la? Opvü opoang na jo onte tsolo ji kvüto phyotacho la? Khyingroe
ji na loroe ji kvüto ezoa merangcho sana erana. (1+1+3=5)
b. Yihata etsso ji eman tona yihata ntsso ji epüp to jiang erana.
c. Chungiyi ‘Randan Teriv’ yintssen ji erana.
Nchümntan Motsü
19. Opvü-opo jiang na ntiolyui ngaro ji Zikao to tsacho la osi ombo kvütvü la? 2
20. Zikao nongho eküm ji hungri na erana. 3

-5- NB/XII/L/1
21. a. “Tsütsailan teriv tae mpato tssolia yantso to ephyo jijo tsentsü sayia.”
(i) Yantso jo ntio hungcho la? 1
(ii) Khaphen woathüng yantso ehungo motsü ji eroroa erana. 4
Mekana
b. Zikao opo mona eyio motsü ji erana. (5)
***************************************
Total number of printed pages: 2 NB/XII/SGY/1
2023
SOCIOLOGY
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi. Answers to question carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
viii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 5.
1. is the belief that one’s own religion is true or superior to others. 1

(a) Linguism (b) Fundamentalism (c) Casteism (d) Regionalism
2. Which Article of the Constitution states about freedom of conscience and free profession,
practice and propagation of religion? 1
(a) Article 20 (b) Article 22 (c) Article 25 (d) Article 29
3. What does IADP stand for? 1

(a) Intensive Agricultural District Programme
(b) Integrated Agricultural District Programme
(c) Intensive Asian Development Programme
(d) Integrated Agency Development programme.
4. Which is the oldest existing newspaper in India? 1

(a)The Times Of India (b)Punjab Kasari
(c)Ananda Bazar Patrika (d)Bombay Samachar
5. Who founded the Indian Sociological Society? 1

(a) R.K Mukherjee (b) Yogendra Singh (c) G.S Ghurye (d) Max Muller
6. Name any two Christian majority States in India. 1
7. What is the meaning of ‘Dalit’? 1
8. What is Secularisation? 1
9. What does the abbreviation CBFC stand for? 1
10. What is Yogendra Singh’s approach to the study of Indian Society? 1
11. What were the two linguistic problems of India after independence? 2
-2- NB/XII/SGY/1
12. Mention two serious problems of the minorities in India. 2
13. Give the two reasons for the gradual disuse and disappearance of the Morung. 2
14. Mention the two impacts of westernisation. 2
15. Write down two positive aspects of globalization. 2
16. Mention two negative effects of mass media. 2
17. What is regionalism? How is it a challenge to national integration? (1+3=4)
18. Briefly discuss some of the measures adopted to empower women. 4
19. How does mass media lead to development and change in the society? 4
20. What is social movement? What are the different types of social movement according
to M.S.A Rao? (1+3=4)
Answer any three (3) from Q.21 to Q.26 3x6=18
21. What is fertility? Give reasons for the high birth rate in India in the past. (1+5=6)
22. State the Constitutional Provisions for the Scheduled Caste in India.
23. Discuss about the traditional religion of the Nagas.
24. Explain the social and economic consequences of urbanisation in India. Write
two problems of urbanisation. (4+2=6)
25. What is meant by land reforms? Briefly explain the consequences of land reforms.
(2+4=6)
26. Explain the structural features of Caste given by Ghurye.
Answer any three (3) from Q.27 to Q.32 3x8=24
27. Explain the geographical and political factors of unity in India.
28. Highlight the features of rural community.
29. Write an essay on Muslim marriage.
30. What are structural processes and cultural processes of change? Explain the social and
economic consequences of Industrialisation in India. (4+4=8)
31. List the aims of Panchayati Raj and explain its structure. (2+6=8)
32. Discuss R.K Mukherjee’s view on personality and values.
*********************************
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XII/BS/1
2023
BUSINESS STUDIES
Full marks :80 Time : 3 hours
answers.
1. Write the meaning of legal environment. 1
2. What is meant by work load analysis? 1
3. Write the meaning of induction training. 1
4. Define motivation. 1
5. What is meant by democratic style of leadership? 1
6. Name the first step in controlling process. 1
7. What is meant by ‘Right to be heard’ to a consumer? 1
8. When is Consumer Day celebrated? 1
9. How does planning promote innovative ideas? 2
10. Write any two importance of organising. 2
11. State any four advantages of functional structure. 2
12. Mention any four features of capital structure. 2
13. Mention any four functions of distribution channels. 2
Answer any eight (8) from the following questions: 8x4=32
14. Explain any four features of management.

-2- NB/XII/BS/1
15. Explain any four characteristics of co-ordination.
16. Explain any four characteristics of management as a profession.
17. Distinguish between Principles of Management and Principles of Science.
18. Distinguish between Fayol’s and Taylor’s contributions to the principles

of management on any four basis.
19. Discuss any four significance or need of principles of management.
20. Explain any four characteristics of business environment.
21. Distinguish between authority and responsibility.
22. Explain any four importance of delegation.
23. Explain any four ways of measuring actual performance in the process
of controlling.
24. Discuss any four importance of Consumer Protection from business point
of view.
25. Discuss any four responsibilities of consumers.
Answer any five (5) from the following questions: 5x6=30
26. Explain six limitations of planning.
27. Explain the steps involved in planning process.
28. Distinguish between training and development.
29. Explain any three advantages and disadvantages of internal sources

of recruitment.
30. Distinguish between formal and informal communication.
31. Explain any six ways on how to overcome the barriers to effective
communication.
-3- NB/XII/BS/1
32. Explain six factors affecting the requirements of working capital.
33. Explain any six factors affecting the financing decisions.
34. Distinguish between selling and marketing.
35. Explain any six techniques of sales promotion.
**********************
Total number of printed pages: 2 NB/XII/PSC/1
2023
POLITICAL SCIENCE
answers.
iv) Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v) Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi) Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vii) Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
viii) Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on
the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 – 5 (5x1)
1. A recognised party in the Lok Sabha should have a minimum of
(a) fifty members (b) fifty three members
(c) fifty five members (d) fifty seven members
2. ‘We have done our duty by creating a frame in which you can work with
freedom and impartiality and from now on it is your job to do your best for
your country’. Who said this?
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) B. R. Ambedkar
3. Which year saw Vladimir Putin being duly elected as the President of Russia
for the first time?
(a) 1990 (b) 1992
(c) 1998 (d) 2000
4. European Union’s currency is known as
(a) Dollar (b) Pound
(c) Euro (d) Lira
5. The Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) came into force in
(a) 1972 (b) 1975
(c) 1982 (d) 1985
6. Name any two national parties in India. 1
7. When was the electronic voting machines used throughout India? 1
8. Name the present UN Secretary General. 1
9. Write the full form of IPCC. 1
10. Who coined the word ‘globalisation’? 1
11. Name the original state from which the following states were carved out:1+1=2
i) Chhattisgarh
ii) Manipur
-2- NB/XII/PSC/1
12. How can the opposition party best perform its role? Give two reasons. 2
13. What was the 39th Constitutional Amendment Act? 2
14. Write any two criticisms of pressure groups. 2
15. What is terrorism? Mention one method used by terrorists. 1+1=2
16. What is meant by free flow of capital under a global economy? 2
Answer any four from questions 17 - 22 4x4=16
17. Explain any two problems faced in the process of the partition of India. (4)
18. Explain any two factors responsible for the dominance of the Congress Party
in the first three General Elections in India. (4)
19. State the main objectives of the European Union. (4)
20. Explain any two causes that led to globalization. (4)
21. Write the four main consequences of Indo-Pak War of 1971. (4)
22. Briefly explain any four factors responsible for Pakistan’s failure in building
a stable democracy. (4)
Answer any three from questions 23 - 28 6x3=18
23. Discuss the role and functions of the NITI Aayog. (6)
24. When was the Shimla Agreement signed? Mention five main provisions of
the agreement. (1+5=6)
25. Examine any three factors that led to the disintegration of the Soviet Union. (6)
26. Explain any three consequences and effects of the declaration of Emergency
in India in the year 1975. (6)
27. Mention any six points that should be done to make the United Nations more
effective and more relevant. (6)
28. Discuss any three traditional modes of protection against threat to security. (6)
Answer any three from questions 29 - 34 8x3=24
29. Explain any two factors responsible for the emergence of regional parties and
also two increasing role of the regional parties in the national politics. (4+4=8)
30. Discuss the role of SAARC in bringing about cooperation among the
member nations. (8)
31. What is veto power? Examine the relevance of the United Nations. (1+7=8)
32. Discuss the main features of the party system in India. (8)
33. What is meant by interest or pressure groups? Examine the role of pressure
groups in India. (2+6=8)
34. Discuss China’s new economic policies in the post Mao’s era which has made
China an emerging economic power. (8)
************************
Total number of printed pages : 5 NB/XII/CHE/1
2023
CHEMISTRY
answers.
1. Unit of rate constant for second order reaction is 1

(a) S ̶ 1 (b) L mol ̶ 1S ̶ 1 (c) moll ̶ 1S ̶1
(d) ̶1
L mol S. ̶1
2. The metal carbon bond in metal carbonyls exhibit 1

(a) only σ-character (b) only π-character
(c) both σ and π-character (d) ionic character.
3. Alcohol boils at higher temperature than the corresponding hydrocarbon

due to 1
(a) intermolecular hydrogen bond
(b) intra molecular hydrogen bond
(c) van der waal’s force of attraction
(d) dipole-dipole interaction.
4. In the carbonyl group, the carbon atom undergoes 1

(a) sp hybridization (b) sp2 hybridization
3
(c) sp hybridization (d) sp3d hybridization.
5. Which of the following is a basic amino acid? 1

(a) Alanine (b) Aspartic acid
(c) Glycine (d) Lysine.
6. a. State Dalton’s law of partial pressure.

Or 1
b. What are colligative properties?
7. What is molar conductivity? 1
8. Name the radioactive element in lanthanoids series. 1

-2- NB/XII/CHE/1
9. What are vinylic halides? 1
10. a. Write the IUPAC name of C2H5 –N–CH3

|
CH3
Or 1
b. Draw the structural formula of Butan-2-amine.
11. a. What is a pseudo first order reaction? Give an example.

Or 2
b. Mention two points of differences between order and molecularity
of a reaction.
12. a. Write the IUPAC name of the coordination compounds:

i) Cr ( NH 3 ) 3 ( H 2 O) 3 Cl3
ii) CoCl2 (en) 2 Cl .
Or 2
b. Write two applications of coordination compounds.
13. a. On the basis of valence bond theory, predict the shape and
hybridization of Fe( H 2O) 6  3+.
Or 2
b. Predict the number of unpaired electrons and magnetic behavior in

Ni (CN ) 6 2
14. a. i) Among the following, which has the highest reactivity towards SN2
reaction: CH3
|
CH3CH2 I, CH3–CH–F, CH3–C–Cl
| |
CH3 CH3
ii) Define Swarts reaction.
Or 2
b. Explain the nature of C-X bond of halo alkane.
15. a. Complete the following reaction:

i) C6H5CONH2 LiAlH
 / ether
4
  ?
ii) CH3 NC + 4[H] LiAlH

 /Ni
4
 ?
Or 2
b. What is carbylamine reaction? Write the reaction.
-3- NB/XII/CHE/1
16. a. Write the classification of vitamins.

Or 2
b. What is an amylose and amylopectin?
17. a. Concentrated nitric acid used in laboratory work is 68% nitric acid
by mass in aqueous solution. What should be the molarity of such
a sample of the acid if the density of the solution is 1.504 gML–1.
Or 3
b. A solution of an organic compound is prepared by dissolving 34.2g
in 500g of water. Calculate the molar mass of the compound and
freezing point of the solution. Given that Kb for water = 0.52
K Kg mol–1, boiling point of solution = 100.104̊ C and Kf for water =
1.86K Kg mol–1.
18. a. What is isotonic solution? Why do gases always tend to be less

soluble in liquids as the temperature is raised?
Or 3
b. What is solubility? What are the factors affecting the solubility of
solid in a liquid?
19. a. The electrical resistance of a column of 0.05 mol L-1 NaOH solution
of diameter 1cm and length 50 cm is 5.55x103 ohm. Calculate its
resistivity, conductivity and molar conductivity. 3
Or
b. The molar conductivity of 0.025 molL-1 methanoic acid is 46.1S cm2
mol-1 . Calculate its degree of dissociation and dissociation constant.
Given- λo (H+)=349.6 S cm2 and λo (HCOO-) =54.6S cm2 mol-1.
20. a. The rate of chemical reaction doubles for an increase of 10K in

absolute temperature from 298 K. Calculate Ea.( Log 2=0.3010,
R=8.314KJ mol-1).
Or 3
b. The half life for radioactive decay of 14C is 5730 years. An
archeological artifact containing wood had only 80% of the 14 C
found in living tree. Estimate the age of the sample.
21. a. (i) Give reason why Fe3+ is more stable than Fe2+?
(ii) Why is silver a transition metal but zinc is not?
Or 3
b. What are interstitial compounds? Write four characteristics of
interstitial compound.
-4- NB/XII/CHE/1
22. a. (i) Chlorobenzene is less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution

than chloromethane. Why?
(ii) What happens when bromobenzene is treated with magnesium
in dry ether?
Or 3
b. (i) What are freons?
(ii) How does halo alkanes undergo dehydrohalogenation? Give
example.
23. a. Write the preparation of ether by Williamson’s synthesis. Give the

chemical reactions.
Or 3
b. Explain why cleavage of phenyl alkyl ethers with HBr always
produces phenol and alkyl bromide and not bromobenzene and
alkanols?
24. a. What happens when methanal, ethanal and propanone react with
Grignard reagent?
Or 3
b. (i) Why are alcohols soluble in water?
(ii) Explain why alcohols have higher boiling point than ether?
25. a. Give the conversion of:

(i) Propanone to Propene
(ii) Propanal to Butanone
Or 3
b. Explain the structure of carbonyl group in carbon atoms.
26. a. Give a test to distinguish between primary, secondary and tertiary

amines by Hinsberg’s reagent.
Or 3
b. ( i) Arrange the following sets in order of their basic strength in
aqueous solution: NH3, C6 H5 NH2, CH3 NH2, (CH3)3N,
(CH3)2NH.
(ii) Why tertiary amines do not undergo acylation?
27. a. Explain the structure of proteins on the basis of their molecular shape.
Or 3
b. What are enzymes? Explain the mechanism of enzymes.
-5- NB/XII/CHE/1
28. a. i) What is electrochemical series? Write its application.

ii) The cell in which the following reaction occurs:
2Fe3+ (aq)+2I− (aq) → 2Fe2+ (aq)+ I2 (s) has Eo cell =0.236V at
298K. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy and the equilibrium
constant of the cell reaction. (R=8.314 JK-1mol-1, F=96500C).
Or 5
b. Write the Nernst equation for the cell:
Mg(s)/Mg2+ (0.001M)//Cu2+ (0.0001M) /Cu(s) where
Eo Mg2+/Mg= -2.37V
Eo Cu2+/Cu=0.34V
Write the reaction occurring at each of the electrode and its net cell
reaction, also determine its cell potential.
29. a. (i) Write the reaction of oxidizing action of K2Cr2O7 in acidic

medium with iodide and H2S.
(ii) Compare the chemistry of actinoids with that of the lanthanoids
with special reference to the following:
(a) electronic configuration
(b) oxidation states
(c) chemical reactivity
Or 5
b. (i) Why do transition metal form complex compound?
(ii) What is lanthanoid contraction? Explain its consequences.
30. a. (i) What is formalin?

(ii) Write the mechanism of esterification of carboxylic acid.
(iii) Complete the following reaction:
COOH
 strong / heating
+ NH2 → ?  ?    ?
COOH
Or 5
b. Explain the following reactions:
(i) Cannizaro reaction.
(ii) Rosenmund reduction.
(iii) What happens when acetone is treated with hydroxylamine?
**********************
Total number of printed pages: 5 NB/XII/FBM/1
2023
FUNDAMENTALS OF BUSINESS MATHEMATICS
answers.
1. Define power set. 1
2. Write the definition of inverse of matrix. 1
4 1
3. Write inverse of the matrix  3 1 1
 
4. What is compound partnership? 1
5. Define objective function. 1
Answer any nine (9) from the following questions: 9x4=36
6. Obtain the domain and range of the following relation

 1  
R =  x  1,  : 2  x  4, x  N 
 x  1 
2x  1 22
7. If f ( x)  2
and  ( x )  2 f (2 x ) , then show that  2.5 
2x  1 51
8. Show that using properties of determinant.

x y z zx
yz x x  y  x 3  y 3  z 3  3xyz
z x y yz
-2- NB/XII/FBM/1
a b
9. Prove that the matrix A given by A   
c d 
satisfies the relation A2  A(a  d )  (ad  bc) I  0
where I is a unit matrix of order two.
10. A company is considering which of the three methods of production it should use
in producing three goods A, B and C. The amount of each goods produced by
each method is shown in the matrix.
A B C
Method I 4 8 2
Method II 5 7 1
Method III 5 3 9
The vector (10 4 6) represents the profit per unit for the goods A,B and C in that
order. Using matrix multiplication, find which method maximizes total profit.
11. At what time the amount will be due if the true discount on ` 854 be ` 54 at
4.5% per annum?
12. Find the rate percent per annum at which the true discount (TD) on a bill legally
due in 10 months time will be exactly the same as the banker discount (BD) at
17
11 % per annum.
53
13. Calculate the date on which the total amount of the following bills of exchange
may be paid by single cheque without any loss to any of the parties.
Date of the Bill of Period of the
Amount(`)
Exchange bill
3rd Jan. 1981 200 3 months
th
15 Feb.1981 250 4 months
st
21 March 1981 300 2 months
th
12 April 1981 500 1 month
14th August 1981 400 2 months
14. The average due date of four bills was 10th June. Three of the bills were payable
as follows:
` 418 on 29th April
` 551 on 3rd June
` 1,007 on 8 th July
The 4 th bill was for ` 323. On what date was it due?
-3- NB/XII/FBM/1
15. Y invest equal sums in 5% debenture and 6% preference shares of a company

and obtains equal income. If 5% debentures are issued at a discount of 2 12 % ,
find the issue price of the preference shares. Ignore income tax, stamp charge etc.
16. How much stock are to be sold to realise ` 3,91,600 from 5% stock at 2%
1
discount, brokerage being %?
10
17. A trader mixes two qualities of wheat in the ratio 2:3, the cost price being ` 16
and ` 12 per kg respectively. At what rate should he sell to make a profit of
12%?
18. In what ratio should a trader mix three qualities of tea costing ` 60 per kg, ` 90
per kg and ` 120 per kg so as to enable him to gain 5% by selling it at ` 105 per
kg?
19. An amount of ` 10,000 is put into three investments at the rate of 10, 12 and 15
percent per annum. The combined income is ` 1,310 and the combined income
of the first and the second investment is ` 190 short of the income from the third.
Find the investment in each, using determinant method (Cramer’s Rule)
20. The total sales in thousand of rupees of a firm selling two products x and y is
given by the relationship
S= a + bx + cy
Data for the first three months are given as under:
Months Total Sales(`) x y
1 12 2 3
2 13 6 2
3 15 5 3
Using determinant method, determine the sales in the next month when he sells
4 units of x and 5 units of y.
21. Out of two stocks A and B at 120 and 110, the former paying 4% dividend and
the latter 3 12 % , a person purchases ` 80,000 of the less profitable stock
initially and then sells it to invest the proceeds in the other, paying 18 %
-4- NB/XII/FBM/1
brokerage on the stock sold. What is his gain in the return by the change in
investments?
22. Having a certain sum to invest, a man puts half of it in 5% stock at 105 and the
other half in 4% stock at par, the price in each case being inclusive of
brokerage. If he had invested 2 3 of the first and rest in the second, his annual
income would have been ` 2.50 more. How much did he invest?
23. Two grades A and B of oil are mixed in the proportion 2:5. After 20% of this
has been sold from stock a sufficient quantity of A is mixed with the remainder
to raise the proportion to 4:7. If the stock is now 1100 gallons, what was the
quantity of the original mixture and how much of grade A was added to make
the new mixture?
24. A trader sells three grades of tea A, B and C. Grade A is sold at ` 72 per kg and
earns a profit of 20%, grade B sold at ` 84 per kg earns a profit of 5%, grade C
is sold at ` 108 per kg and suffers a loss of 10%. In what proportion three kinds
of teas must be mixed so that by selling the mixture at ` 99 per kg, he can earn
a profit of 10%?
Answer any four (4) from following questions: 4x6=24
25. In a survey concerning drinking habits of 200 students, it was found that 90
take tea, 85 take milk, 70 take coffee, 50 take tea and milk, 20 take milk and
coffee, 30 take coffee and tea and 15 take all the three. Find the number of
students who
i) do not take any drink
ii) take only tea
iii) take exactly two drinks ( using algebra of sets).
26. In a city, three daily newspapers X, Y and Z are published, 65% of the people
of the city read X, 54% read Y, 45% read Z, 38% read X and Y, 32% read Y
and Z, 28 % read X and Z, 12% do not read any of the newspapers. If
10,00,000 persons live in the city, find the number of persons who read all the
three newspapers.
1 2 2
27. Show that the matrix A   2 1 2  satisfies the equation A2  4 A  5I 3  0
 2 2 1
1
and hence find A
-5- NB/XII/FBM/1
28. A firm produces P1 and P2 passing through two machines M1 and M2 before
completion M1 can produce either 12 units of P1 or 18 units of P2 per hour. M2
can produce 10 units of either product per hour, find daily production of P1 and
P2 if time available is 10 hours of machine M1 and 15 hours of machine M2 per
day using matrix inversion.
29. A and B entered into partnership with ` 60,000 and ` 90,000 respectively. It is
agreed that A will draw a salary of ` 800 per month for supervising the
business and B is to receive a commission of 5 12 % on turnover as sales
manager and the remaining profits will be shared in the ratio of their capitals.
In 2015, the sales amount to ` 2,50,000 and the net profits before charging
salary and commission was ` 50,000. Find the percentages that their aggregate
income bear to their capitals.
30. A, B and C start a business, A putting in ` 2,000 and they agree to share the
profits pro-rata: A withdraws his capital after 3months, B after 5months and C
after 6months. At the end of the year, A got as his share 13 rd of the total profits
and B received 1 4 th and C the remaining balance. Find the contribution of B and
C in the business.
31. A carpenter has 200 and 100 square feets of plywood and sunmica respectively.
He produces products A and B. Product A requires 8 and 1 square feets and
product B requires 1 and 2 square feets of plywood and sunmica respectively. If
the profit on one piece of product A is ` 30 and on one piece of product B is
` 20, how many pieces of product A and B should he make to maximize his
profit?
32. A company produces two types of presentation goods A and B that requires
gold and silver. Each unit of type A requires 3 grams of silver and 1 gram of
gold while that B requires 1 gram of silver and 2 grams of gold. The company
can produce 9 grams of silver and 8 grams of gold. Each unit of type A brings a
profit of ` 40 and that of type B ` 50, determine the number of units of each
type that should be produced to maximize the profit. Indicate the feasible
region on a graph paper. Solve the problem graphically.
*********************
Total number of printed pages: 2 NB/XII/EDU/1
2023
EDUCATION
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
viii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side
Choose the correct answer from the given alternativesin questions 1 to 5.
1. Which of the following is the classification of changes proposed by Mrs. Hurlock? 1

(a) Changes in size (b) Changes in proportion
(c) Only (a) (d) Both a and b
2. The best vision area in the normal eye is: 1

(a) Retina (b) Yellow spot
(c) Choroid (d) Optic Nerve.
3. __________ is the inactive state of learnt activity. 1

(a) Registration (b) Retention
(c) Recall (d) Recognition
4. IQ between the range of 90-109 is : 1

(a) Average (b) Low average
(c) Borderline defective (d) Mentally defective
5. Physically handicapped children are :- 1

(a) The crippled child (b) The blind and near blind
(c) The delicate children (d) All of the above
6. Name the three stages of human development. 1
7. Define Mental health. 1
8. Who discovered classical conditioning theory? 1
9. Mention the 3R’s of habit formation. 1
10. Define Personality. 1
11. What is social Heredity? 2

-2- NB/XII/EDU/1
12. Mention any function of : 2

a) Cerebellum
b) Medulla oblongata
13. Give any two signs of poor mental health. 2
14. What is Law of Rediness? 2
15. How can it be justified that ‘learning involves experience’? 2
16. State any two uses of Intellegence tests. 2
17. State any four general notions of Infancy. 4
18. Write the mechanism of heredity. 4
19. Mention any four educational implications of individual differences 4
20. What is Mean? Calculate Arithmetic Mean from the data showing marks of
students in a class in a psychological test: 40,50,55,58,78. 2+2=4
Answer any three (3) from Q.21 to Q.26. 3x6=18
21. Discuss the relationship between Education and Psychology. 6
22. Differentiate between Growth and Development. 6
23. Discuss the preventive measure for maladjustment. 6
24. What is Operant Conditioning? Discuss its mechanism 2+4=6
25. Explain the nature of habits on the basis of its characteristics. 6
26. Differentiate between Introverts and Extroverts. 6
27. Explain in brief any eight branches of psychology. 8
28. Discuss the various characteristics of adolescence stage. 8
29. Discuss the different types of environments that influences an individual. 8
30. Define Interest. State any seven characteristics of interest. 1+7=8
31. Define Forgetting. What are the different factors influencing forgetting? 2+6=8
32. What are the types of Intelligence classified by Gardner? 8
***************************
Total number of printed pages: 2 NB/XII/PSY/1
2023
PSYCHOLOGY
Full marks: 80 Time : 3 hours
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
viii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
1. What is level I according to Arthur Jesen? 1

2. What are values? 1
3. Who developed the Rorschsch inkblot test? 1
4. What is social identity? 1
5. Give the full form of ODD. 1
6. What are phobias? 1
7. What is occupational therapy? 1
8. What is empathy? 1
9. What is attitude? 1
10. What is impression formation? 1
11. Explain one facet of intelligence in the Indian tradition. 2
12. List any two characteristics of personality. 2
13. Mention the two classifications of psychological disorder. 2
14. Write any two ethical standards of psycho-therapy. 2

15. Briefly explain any one factor that influence attitude formation. 2
16. What are the A-B-C components of attitude? 2
17. Explain one trait approach theory. 4
18. Briefly explain the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS). 4
19. What are the four significant features of attitudes? Explain any one. 2+2=4
-2- NB/XII/PSY/1
20. Explain any two factors facilitating group formation. 2+2=4
21. Explain the theory of Multiple Intelligence. 6
22. Explain any two methods of behavioural analysis. 3+3=6
23. What are the various effects of stress on psychological functioning

and health? 6
24. What are the steps involved in the formulation of a clients problem? 6
25. Explain any three sources of prejudice. 6
26. Elaborate on the stages of group formation. 6

27. What is emotional intelligence? List any four characteristics of emotionally

intelligent person. 4+4=8
28. Explain any two theories of the post- Freudian approach. 4+4=8
29. Explain any four stress-management techniques. 2×4=8
30. Explain neurodevelopmental disorders. 8
31. What is humanistic-existential therapy? Explain any two humanistic-existential

therapies. 2+6=8
32. Describe the influence of group on individual behaviour. 8
*********************************
Total number of printed pages : 3 NB/XII/ECO/1
2023
ECONOMICS
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and
revise the answers.
iv) Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v) Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi) Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 80 words.
vii) Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 120 words.
viii) Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 200 words.
ix) Alternate question for the visually impaired students are provided in question 31.
Only the visually impaired students have to attempt the alternate question.
1. Define macroeconomics. 1
2. Define value of output. 1
3. What is the other name of depreciation? 1
4. Define money. 1
5. What is liquidity trap? 1
6. Give any two examples of direct taxes. 1
7. Name any two goods exported by India. 1
8. What are tariffs? 1
9. What is dependency ratio? 1
10. What is deforestation? 1
11. What are flow variables or stock variables? 2
12. What are the four phases of a business cycle? 2

-2- NB/XII/ECO/1
13. Distinguish between National Income at current prices and National Income
at constant prices. 2
14. What is the full form of NDC? Who is the head of NDC? 1+1=2
15. Differentiate between life expectancy rate and infant mortality rate. 2
Answer any three from questions 16 – 19. 3x4=12
16. Explain any two components of final expenditure on GDP.
17. Explain the assumptions taken for the determination of equilibrium output
in the short run.
18. Explain any two functions of commercial banks.
19. Mention any two merits and two demerits of deficit budget.
Answer any two from questions 20 – 22 2x4=8
20. Explain any two challenges faced by the Indian economy on the eve of
Independence.
21. Explain any two importance of agriculture in the Indian economy.
22. Explain any two objectives of economic planning.
Answer any two from questions 23 – 26. 2x6=12
23. Explain the circular flow of income in a two sector economy.
24. Explain the steps involved in estimating national income by product/ value
added method.
25. Explain the quantitative measures of expansionary monetary policy tools.
26. Explain any three components of capital receipts.
Answer any two from questions 27 – 29. 2x6=12
27. Explain any three merits and three demerits of liberalisation.

-3- NB/XII/ECO/1
28. Explain the reforms introduced in the financial sector in India under the
NEP, 1991.
29. Make a comparative study of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India

and China.
30. Compare Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) between India and China.
31. a. Explain saving function. Show diagrammatically the derivation of

saving curve from consumption curve. 2+6=8
Or
b. Explain how is equilibrium achieved through AD = AS approach
with the help of a diagram. (8)
Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
a. Explain any four precautions required to be taken while measuring national

income through income method.
Or 8
b. Explain any two components of Aggregate Demand.
32. a. Explain any four steps taken by the Government for improvement
in the market system in India.
Or 8
b. Explain any four challenges in the formation of human capital in India.
*************************
Total number of printed pages : 4 NB/XII/BIO/1
2023
BIOLOGY
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii) The question paper consists of two parts – Part A and Part B.
Each part contain 14 questions.
v) Write the answers of Part A and Part B in separate answer books.
Marks shall not be awarded if the answers of both the Parts are written in one
book nor marks awarded if answers of Part A are written in the answer book of
Part B and vice-versa.
PART - A
1. Which of the following is an example of free nuclear endosperm? 1
(a) Coconut water (b) Castor
(c) Sugarcane juice (d) Groundnut
2. The removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces by
using a pair of forceps is called 1
(a) bagging (b) emasculation
(c) hybridisation (d) apomixis
3. The length of DNA in Escherichia coli has 1

(a) 5386 bp (b) 48502 bp
(c) 4.6x106 bp (d) 3.3x109 bp
4. Pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem is 1

(a) upright (b) spindle shaped
(c) inverted (d) none of these
5. What trend is observed in respect of species diversity when we move from the
equator to the pole? 1
(a) Diversity decreases
(b) Diversity increases
(c) Diversity remains the same
(d) Diversity first decreases and then increases
-2- NB/XII/BIO/1
6. a. Differentiate between template strand and coding strand.

Or 2
b. Who gave the experimental proof on ‘Transforming Principle’? Name the
bacteria used in the experiment.
7. a. If the sequence of one strand of DNA is 5′-AGTCGGACTTGA-3′, what will

be the sequence of complementary strand in 3′→5′ direction?
Or 2
b. Differentiate between exons and introns.
8. a. What is downstream processing?

Or 2
b. Mention two methods to introduce alien DNA into host cells.
9. a. Draw a well labelled diagram of a typical anatropous ovule.

Or 3
b. Draw a well labelled diagram of L.S of a flower showing growth of pollen
tube.
10. a. What is triple fusion? Where does it take place? Name the nuclei involved in
triple fusion.
Or 3
b. Write the three characteristic features of wind-pollinated flowers.
11. a. Distinguish between primary and secondary productivity. Give the

expression for productivity.
Or 3
b. Write a brief note on the three categories for conservation of biodiversity.
12. a. Explain the experimental proof of semi-conservative DNA replication given

by Meselson and Stahl.
Or 5
b. Discuss the salient features of double helix structure of DNA.
13. a. Explain in detail the role of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA

technology with diagram.
Or 5
b. What is PCR? Explain the amplification of gene using PCR.
14. a. Give a detailed account of energy flow in an ecosystem.

Or 5
b. Define biodiversity. Explain the causes of loss of biodiversity.
-3- NB/XII/BIO/1
PART - B
1. Leydig cells secretes 1
(a) Estrogens (b) Androgens
(c) Progesterone (d) Corticosterone
2. Down’s syndrome is caused due to 1

(a) XXY (b) XO
(c) Trisomy 21 (d) XXXY
3. Bacillus thuringiensis is used for controlling _____ pest. 1

(a) bacterial (b) nematodes
(c) fungal (d) insect
4. GEAC stands for 1

(a) Gene Engineering Approval Committee
(b) Genetic Engineering Approval Commission
(c) Gene Engineering Assay Committee
(d) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
5. When one organism benefits and the other is harmed, then it is known as 1
(a) Commensalism (b) Parasitism
(c) Competition (d) Mutualism
6. a. Why is colostrum considered to be essential for the newborn infant?

Or 2
b. Differentiate between tubectomy and vasectomy.
7. a. What is pleiotropy? Give one example.

Or 2
b. Write two paleontological evidences that support evolution.
8. a. List any two important characteristics of a population and explain briefly.

Or 2
b. What is the relationship between predator and prey?
9. a. What is Thalassemia? How is Thalassemia different from Sickle-cell

anaemia?
Or 3
b. Give a diagrammatic representation of Miller’s experiment.
10. a. What is a pathogen? Name the parasites that causes

(i) Ascariasis (ii) Elephantiasis
Or 3
b. What is BOD? Explain the biological treatment of sewage.
-4- NB/XII/BIO/1
11. a. State the role of C peptide in human insulin.

Or 3
b. What is biopiracy? How are the industrialized nations exploiting the bio-
resources and traditional knowledge of the developing nations?
12. a. Explain the process of spermatogenesis with a well labelled diagram.

Or 5
b. What is the criteria of an ideal contraceptive? Briefly explain any two
contraceptive methods.
13. a. State Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance and explain it with suitable crosses.
Or 5
b. Write a note on human evolution.
14. a. What causes AIDS? Explain the mode of action of AIDS virus.
Or 5
b. Explain the role of microbes in energy generation.
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XII/CSC/1
2023
COMPUTER SCIENCE
answers.
1. What are identifiers? 1
2. For a string strl, what is strl [3:]? 1
3. What is relative path? 1
4. What is matplotlib? 1
5. What is a data structure? 1
6. Define stack. 1
7. What are the ways IP4V can be expressed? 1
8. What is carrier sensing? 1
9. What are the types of messages in HTTP? 1
10. What is the purpose of SELECT statement in MySQL? 1
11. What is Plagiarism? 1
12. What is cyber stalking? 1
13. What will be the output of the given program? 2

def fun3 (a) :
print ( ‘ In fun’ )
print ( ‘a=’ , a)
a=a+3
print ( ‘a=’ ,a)
a=5
print ( ‘a=’, a)
fun3 (a)
print ( ‘Back’ )
print ( ‘a=’ , a)
-2- NB/XII/CSC/1
14. Give two reasons why file handling is required. 2
15. What is the difference between Iterative and recursive algorithm? 2
16. Differentiate between primary and secondary data structures. Give examples. 2
17. Mention two disadvantages of peer to peer networks. 2
18. Differentiate between Software as a Service (SaaS) and Platform as a Service
(PaaS). 2
19. Explain the use of UPDATE statement in MySQL. Write the syntax of the
UPDATE statement. 2
20. What is Django? How can one find if Django has been installed? 2
21. Write the steps to create a database in Python using the SQL connector. 2
22. What is Intellectual Property? 2
23. Differentiate between E-mail Phishing and Spear Phishing. 2
24. Answer any three from the following questions (a) to (f). 3 × 4 = 12
(a) Mention any four advantages of using a function.
(b) What is recursion? Write a Python program to calculate the factorial of a
number using recursion.
(c) What is linspace function? Explain the parameters used in linspace function.
(d) Explain any four aggregate functions of numpy module.
(e) What are the characteristics of an algorithm?
(f) Define the following terms:

(i) Algorithm (ii) Big O : O() (iii) Omega : Ω() (iv) Theta : Ɵ()
25. a. Write an algorithm to convert an infix expression to postfix.

Or 4
b. Convert a  b * c  d  f to postfix and show each steps of conversion.
26. Answer any two from the following questions (a) to (d). 2×4=8
(a) Describe the different types of cloud computing.
(b) How do one find a class of an address given in the binary

notations?
(c) Define the following:

i) Signal ii) Baseband signal
iii) Carrier signal iv) Modulated signal
-3- NB/XII/CSC/1
(d) Explain the following layers of the OSI protocol suite.

i) Data link layer ii) Network layer
iii) Transport layer iv) Session layer
27. State the syntax of the following terms: 4
i) GROUP BY clause ii) Having clause
iii) min() iv) max()
28. a. Mention some important characteristics of Django.

Or 4
b. Mention some advantages of Django.
29. a. State the cases where in the IT Act is not applicable.

Or 4
b. Mention the scenario that may lead to Plagiarism.
************************
Total number of printed pages : 3 NB/XII/IP/1
2023
INFORMATICS PRACTICES
answers.
iv) Internal and general choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is com plete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 5x1 = 5

(a) A __________ is used to form a star topology.
i) Router ii) Switch/hub
ii) Modem iv) Gateway
(b) Which of the following is not an open source OS?

i) Windows 7 ii) Unbuntu
iii) Linux iv) Open Solaris
(c) Identify the method that can be used to make a Frame visible.
i) show() ii) setEnabled()
iii) setVisible() iv) None of these
(d) Which SQL statement is used to see the structure of a table?

i) EXTRACT ii) JOIN
iii) DESCRIBE iv) SELECT
(e) In RDBMS, the tables related to each other using primary key and
foreign key are called _______ and ________ table respectively.
i) Parent, Child ii) Primary, Secondary
iii) Child, Parent iv) Mother, Child
2. Name the entity who lays down the guidelines and policies for
distributing open source software. 1
3. What is the significance of System.exit(o) method? 1
4. Name the event handler method to handle click event of a push button. 1
5. What is the use of abstract keyword in Java? 1
6. Which keyword is used to call base class constructor in Java? 1

-2- NB/XII/IP/1
7. What happens when Auto commit is set on? 1
8. What kind of integrity is maintained by SET and ENUM operators? 1
9. How are ‘Cartesian product’ and ‘relations’ associated with each other? 1
10. Write one advantage and one disadvantage of using Optical Fibre Cable. 2
11. What controls would one suggest for the following types of input? 2
(i) Multiple choice from a set.
(ii) Typed text which should remain hidden.
12. Compare and contrast XML and HTML. 2
13. What are the different attributes of FORM element? 2
14. What are the various components of database server URL? 2
15. Write a short note on SQL. 2
16. Name a function of MySQL to do the following: 2

(i) used to give the first occurrence of a string2 in string1.
(ii) used to remove trailing and leading spaces from a string.
17. Define referential integrity. 2
18. What is the significance of default constraint? 2
19. Describe fully functional dependency with the help of an example. 2
20. What is transitive dependency? 2
21. Answer any three from the following questions (a) to (f). 3  4 = 12
(a) Discuss any four methods of JFrame class.
(b) What is a control statement? What are the different control statements
in Java?
(c) What is inheritance? What are the different types of inheritances?
Discuss with the help of suitable examples.
(d) What are the various formatting elements of HTML? Explain with
example.
(e) How does Java application connect to a database? Explain the
different connectors available to connect MySQL with different
front-end technologies.
-3- NB/XII/IP/1
(f) Explain the various classes needed for database programming
in Java.
22. Answer any two from the following questions (a) to (d). 24=8
(a) What are the different elements of a table?
(b) Discuss in brief the various products of MySQL.
(c) What is a transaction? What are the different properties of a

transaction? Discuss with the help of examples.
(d) What is meant by functional dependency? Discuss with the help of

examples.
23. a. Compare and contrast between OSI reference model and TCP/IP
reference model.
Or 5
b. What is free software? How do they differ from open source software?
24. a. Define join in MySQL. Explain all the different types of join.
Or 5
b. What is First Normal Form (1NF)? What are the various anomalies
when a table is said to be in 1NF? How can they be overcomed?
25. a. What are the functionalities of Mind Reader Application? What are the
different aspects of Mind Reader Game Application?
Or 5
b. What are the functional and non-functional requirements of Message
Board Application?
*************************
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XII/PHI/1
2023
PHILOSOPHY
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
answers.
Answer to questions carrying1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
N.B: Check that all pages are complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given option in Questions 1-10.
1. The rationalist philosophers are 1

(a) Plato, Berkeley, Descartes (b) Plato, Descartes, Spinoza
(c) Descartes, Spinoza, Leibnitz (d) Locke, Berkeley, Aristotle
2 The theory of innate ideas was refuted by 1

(a) Leibnitz (b) Descartes
(c) John Locke (d) David Hume
3. The second critique of Kant addresses the problem of 1

(a) knowledge (b) moral judgement
(c) aesthetic judgement (d) critical judgement
4. A posteriori knowledge are knowledge 1

(a) independent of experience (b) independent of reason
(c) dependent on reason (d) dependent on experience
5. Solipsism means 1
(a) only me and my ideas are real (b) I think, therefore I exist
(c) to be is to be perceived (d) I exist, therefore I think
6. In which of the following place did Buddha attain enlightenment? 1

(a) Lumbini (b) Bodhgaya
(c) Kapilivastu (d) Khusinagara
-2- NB/XII/PHI/1
7. What is the root cause of suffering according to Buddha? 1

(a) birth (b) thirst for object
(c) ignorance (d) consciousness
8. Prama means 1
(a) valid knowledge (b) immediate knowledge
(c) inference (d) invalid knowledge
9. Thomas Aquinas second way to prove the existence of God is 1

(a) argument from motion (b) argument from degrees
(c) contingent and necessary objects (d) causation of existence
10. The book ‘Evidence’ is written by 1

(a) St. Anselm (b) St Thomas Aquinas
(c) William Paley (d) Plato
11 Define philosophy. 2
12 What is empiricism? 2
13 What is the Categorical Imperative of Kant? 2
14. Define social justice. 2
15. Name the astika schools of Indian philosophy. 2
16. What is Anekantavada? 2
17. What is the origin of philosophy? Name the scope of

philosophy. 1+3=4
18. Distinguish between primary and secondary qualities. 4
19. Name the eight-fold paths of Buddhism. 4
20. What is Naya? Name the seven Nayas. ½+3½=4
Answer any three from questions 21 - 25
21. Explain the nature of social philosophy. 6
22. Explain the concept of social justice as given by John Rawls. 6
23. Describe the main teachings of Bhagavad Gita. 6
24. What are the twelve links of causal wheel of Dependent Origination? 6
-3- NB/XII/PHI/1
25. Name the four Pramanas according to Nyaya. Explain Sabda (testimony)
as a source of knowledge according to Nyaya. 2+4=6
Answer any three from questions 26 - 30
26. Distinguish between (any two) 4x2=8

a. Pro-life and Pro-choice view of abortion.
b. Reproductive and therapeutic cloning.
c. Emile Durkeim’s and Christian view of suicide.
27. Discuss the common features of Indian philosophy. 8
28. What is Padartha? Explain any three Padarthas of the Vaisesika. 2+6=8
29. What is Guna in Samkhya philosophy? Explain the three constituents

of the Gunas. 2+6=8
30. Explain the idea of God in Christianity and Islam. 4+4=8
***********************
Total number of printed pages: 2 NB/XII/FMM/1
2023
FINANCIAL MARKETS MANAGEMENT
Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
answers.
iv) Internal choice and general options has been provided in 6 marks questions.
1. Name the two segments of securities market. 1
2. Who is a sub broker? 1
3. Define turnover ratio. 1
4. Give the full form of IPF. 1
5. What is security sigma? 1
6. What is contingent claim? 1
7. Define unsystematic risk. 1
8. When do arbitrage opportunities arise? 1
9. Write any two benefits of a trading member at NSE. 2
10. State any two special features of outstanding orders. 2
11. Name the two types of settlement. 2
12. State the two types of capital gains. 2
13. Write any two limitations of forward contracts. 2
14. Mention four points a trading member should ensure on a contract note. 4
15. Explain any four features of password. 4

-2- NB/XII/FMM/1
16. Write any four special features of order status. 4
17. Explain four types of order book in the NEAT system. 4
18. Write any four functions of a clearing bank. 4
19. Mention the prohibition of certain dealings in securities. 4
20. Explain the types of derivative contracts. 4
Answer any three from question No. 21 to 26 3 x 6 = 18
21. Explain any six reforms in Indian securities market.
22. Write any six consequences of expulsion of a trading member.
23. Explain the regular lot matching.
24. Discuss any six features of user order value limit.
25. Explain any six salient features of direct payout to investor.
26. Explain the problems pertaining to securities settlement.
27. a. What is forward contract? Explain the salient features of forward

contracts. 1+5=6
Or
b. Explain any six futures terminologies. (6)
*************************
Total number of printed pages : 5 NB/XII/MAT/1
2023
MATHEMATICS
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
answers.
iv) Internal and general choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Use of simple calculators (non-scientific and non-programmable) only is permitted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Section – A
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
(a) Let f : R  R be defined as f  x   3 x , then 1

(i) f is one-one onto (ii) f is many-one onto
(iii) f is one-one but not onto (iv) f is neither one-one nor onto
 1 
(b) The principal value of cot 1   is 1
 3
   2 2
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3 3 3 3
(c) If A, B are symmetric matrices of same order, then AB – BA is a 1

(i) Skew symmetric matrix (ii) Symmetric matrix
(iii) Zero matrix (iv) Identity matrix
(d) Let A be a square matrix of order 3  3. Then kA is equal to 1

(i) k A (ii) k2 A (iii) k3 A (iv) 3k A
dy
(e) If x y  a , then is equal to 1
dx
y x y x
(i)  (ii)  (iii) (iv)
x y x y
-2- NB/XII/MAT/1
(f)  e x sec x1  tan x dx is equal to 1

x x
(i) e cos x  C (ii) e sec x  C
(iii) e x sin x  C (iv) e x tan x  C
4
 ds   d 2s 
(g) The order and degree of the differential equation    3s  2   0 respectively
 dt   dt 
are: 1
(i) 4 and 2 (ii) 2 and 1 (iii) 1 and 4 (iv) 1 and 2
(h) The probability of obtaining an even prime number on each die, when a pair of
dice is rolled is 1
1 1 1 1
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
26 36 46 56
Section – B
 1 1
2. Prove: 3 sin 1 x  sin 1 3x  4 x 3 , x    , . 2
 2 2 
 1 2  3  2
3. Find a matrix X such that 2A + B + X = 0, where A    , B . 2
 3 4 1 5 
4. Find the equation of line joining (1, 2) and (3, 6) using determinants. 2
dy
5. Find , if x  a θ  sin θ , y  a1  cos θ  . 2
dx
6. Find the intervals in which the function f  x   2 x 2  3x is

(i) increasing (ii) decreasing. 2
cos x
7. Evaluate  dx . 2
1  sin x
dy 1  y 2
8. Find the general solution of the differential equation  . 2
dx 1  x 2
1
9. The probability of solving specific problem independently by A and B are and
2
1
respectively. If both try to solve the problem independently, find the
3
probability that the problem is solved. 2
-3- NB/XII/MAT/1
Section – C
10. An organization conducted a bike race under
two different categories- boys and girls. Totally
there were 250 participants, out of which three
from category 1 and two from category 2 were
selected for the final race. John forms two sets
B and G with these participants for his college
project. Let B  b1 , b2 b3  and G   g1 , g 2 
where B and G represents the set of boys and
girls respectively, who were selected for the
final race.
Answer the following using the above information. 4
a). John wishes to form all the relations possible from B to G. How many such
relations are possible?
(i) 2 6 (ii) 2 5
(iii) 0 (iv) 2 3
b). John wants to know among those relations, how many functions can be formed
from B to G?
(i) 2 2 (ii) 2 3
(iii) 212 (iv) 32
c). Let R : B  B be defined by R = {(x, y): x & y are participants of same sex}.
Then R is
(i) Equivalence (ii) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
(iii) Reflexive only (iv) Reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
d). Let R : B  G be defined by R = {(b1, g1), (b2, g2), (b3, g1)}, then R is
(i) one to one (ii) onto
(iii) one to one & onto (iv) neither one to one nor onto
11. Answer any three from the following questions (a) to (e). 3  4 = 12
(a) Differentiate x sin x  sin x  with respect to x.
cos x
cos x
(b) Evaluate  dx .
1  sin x 2  sin x 

4
(c) By using the properties of definite integrals, evaluate  log 1  tan x dx .
0
(d) Solve the differential equation x  y dx  2xydy  0 .

2 2
(e) Find the particular solution of the differential equation

dy 
 2 y tan x  sin x given that y = 0 when x  .
dx 3
-4- NB/XII/MAT/1
12. Answer any two from the following questions (a) to (c). 24=8

(a) Show that the points A, B and C with position vectors, a  3iˆ  4 ˆj  4 kˆ ,
 
b  2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ and c  iˆ  3 ˆj  5kˆ , respectively form the vertices of a right
angled triangle.
(b) Find the area of a triangle having the points A(1, 1, 1), B(1, 2, 3) and
C(2, 3, 1) as its vertices.
(c) Find the equation of the line in vector and cartesian form that passes through
the point with position vector 2iˆ  ˆj  4kˆ and is in the direction iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ .
13. a. Solve graphically: Maximise Z = 3x +2y subject to

x  2 y  10, 3 x  y  15; x, y  0 .
Or 4
b. Solve graphically: Minimise Z = x +2y subject to
2 x  y  3, x  2 y  6; x, y  0 .
14. a. A manufacturer has three machine operators A, B and C. The first operator A
produces 1% defective items, where as the other two operators B and C produce
5% and 7% defective items respectively. A is on the job for 50% of the time, B is
on the job for 30% of the time and C is on the job for 20% of the time. A
defective item is produced, what is the probability that it was produced by A?
Or 4
b. In answering a question on a multiple choice test, a student either knows the

3 1
answer or guesses. Let be the probability that he knows the answer and be
4 4
the probability that he guesses. Assuming that a student guesses at the answer will
1
be correct with probability . What is the probability that the student knows the
4
answer given that he answered it correctly?
Section – D
15. a. Solve the system of linear equations by using matrix method.
2x  3 y  3z  5
x  2 y  z  4
3x  y  2 z  3
Or 6
-5- NB/XII/MAT/1
1 1 1
b. For the matrix A   1 2  3  .
 2  1 3 
Show that A  6A  5 A  11I  0 and hence find A 1 .
3 2
16. a. Show that the right circular cylinder of given surface and maximum volume
is such that its height is equal to the diameter of the base.
Or 6
b. Show that semi-vertical angle of right circular cone of given surface area
1
and maximum volume is sin 1  .
3
x2 y2
17. a. Find the area of the region bounded by the ellipse   1.
4 9
Or 6
b. Find the area enclosed by the circle x 2  y 2  a 2 .
18. a. Find the shortest distance between the lines whose vector equations are

r  1  t iˆ  t  2 ˆj  3  2t kˆ and

r  s  1iˆ  2s  1 ˆj  2s  1kˆ
Or 6
b. Find the shortest distance between the lines whose vector equations are

   
r  iˆ  2 ˆj  3kˆ   iˆ  3 ˆj  2kˆ and

   
r  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ   2iˆ  3 ˆj  kˆ
*************************************
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XII/IT(V)/1
2023
Information Technology ES (Vocational)
General instructions :
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which of the following is the most important skill in communication?
(a) Speaking (b) Writing
(c) Reading (d) Listening
ii. Which of the following can be a barrier in communication?
(a) Being attentive (b) Responding
(c) Noisy environment (d) Maintaining eye contact with speaker
iii. Which of the following is not a component of stress?
(a) Upset (b) Annoyed
(c) Hopeless (d) Happy
iv. Individuals who love interacting with people around and are generally talkative are
called
(a) Extroverts (b) Introverts
(c) Reserved (d) Antisocial
v. What is the short cut key to underline text in a spreadsheet?
(a) Ctrl+b (b) Ctrl+i
(c) Ctrl+i (d) Ctrl+u
vi. Which menu option should be click to insert shapes and images?
(a) Edit (b) Insert
(c) Format (d) Tools
vii. A company that is in its first stage of its operation is called
(a) Start up (b) Capital firm
(c) Manufacturing business (d) Traditional business
viii. The ability to make profitable and quick decisions is called
(a) Efficient (b) Initiative
(c) Perseverance (d) Decisiveness
ix. CNG stands for?
(a) Complex natural gas (b) Compressed natural gas
(c) Complete natural gas (d) Compound natural gas
x. Which of the following is an example of eco-friendly product?
(a) Banana leaf plates (b) Plastic plates
(c) Old mobile phones (d) Plastic items
-2- NB-XII/IT(V)/1
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:

2. Define partnership. 1
3. Write the full form of CRM. 1
4. State one benefit of time management. 1
5. Who is a procurement manager? 1
6. What is a bid? . 1
7. What are customer support services? 1
8. Write the meaning of the word ‘posteori’. 1
9. List any two sources of learning. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Differentiate between Corporation and Limited Liability Company. 2
11. Differentiate between enterprise and enterprising. 2
12. Write the flow chart for framework for planning. 2
13. What is Request for Proposal (RFP) or Request for Interest (RFI)? 2
14. Differentiate between quality and assurance. 2
15. List any two factors responsible for growth of Indian BPO industry. 2
16. Write any two points of learning according to Ambrose et al. 2
17. What is tacit knowledge? Give an example. 1+1=2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. List any four factors affecting ERP in Business Process Reengineering. 4
19. Explain any four ways to improve time management skills. 4
20. What is a payroll? Write any six components of payroll. 1+3=4
21. Write any four criteria’s for Request for Proposal (RFP). . 4
22. List any six characteristics of learning. 4
23. Explain any four factors affecting learning. 4
******************************************
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB/XII/T&H(V)/1
2023
Tourism & Hospitality (Vocational)
answers.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
i. ‘Treat others the way you want to be treated’ is to do with being
(a) timely (b) polite
(c) flexible (d) understanding
ii. A senior citizen is a person who is
(a) 40 years and above (b) 50 to 60 years
(b) 60 years and above (d) 70 to 80 years
iii. It refers to limiting the presence of hazards to prevent infection and contamination
in food production chain.
(a) Food adulteration (b) Food quality evaluation
(c) Food quality control (d) Food safety
iv. It is one of the biggest causes of injuries on the job and it may be ground for
dismissal.
(a) Horseplay (b) Cuts
(c) Burns (d) Strains
v. Always give criticism in
(a) private (b) public
(c) both (a) & (b) (d) good faith
vi. Which of the following is the backbone of travel industry?
(a) Customer feedback (b) Front Office
(c) Customer care (d) Food and beverage
vii. Which of the following is not a stage of active listening?
(a) Receiving (b) Non-responding
(c) Responding (d) Evaluating
viii. What makes a person happier and helps maintain relationships as well as mental and
physical health?
(a) Confidence (b) Motivation
(c) Self-management (d) Positive attitude
ix. It is an arrangement of cells in a horizontal manner.
(a) Column (b) Cell
(c) Row (d) Worksheet
-2- NB/XII/T&H(V)/1
x) The ability to act in a situation before others do is

(a) initiative (b) interpersonal skills
(c) perseverance (d) decisiveness
2. What is meant by gender sensitivity? 1
3. What does FSSAI stand for? 1
4. List any two pillars of success for zero accident vision. 1
5. What are the top two most spoken languages in the world? 1
6. State any two key communication skills. 1
7. What is personality? 1
8. What is spreadsheet? 1
9. Write one characteristic of entrepreneurship. 1
10. Write any two etiquettes and manners to be followed while talking to guest. 2
11. State any two objectives of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and
Senior Citizens Act, 2007. 2
12. What is sexual harassment? Give one example. 1+1=2
13. What is personal hygiene? List any two types of personal hygiene. 1+1=2
14. Write any two actions that should be taken immediately inside the building
when an earthquake strikes. 2
15. Mention any two ways to create a good first impression of business. 2
16. List any two keys to good customer service. 2
17. Write any two benefits of green jobs. 2
18. Briefly explain four principles given by Myrna Hoover which can be
utilised by office employees to show proper etiquette. 4
19. Examine the importance of business telephone etiquette in tourism industry. 4
20. Name any two key regulations of FSSAI and explain them. 1+3=4
21. Explain any four ways to ensure food safety concerns in F & B services. 4
22. Explain any four tips that will help you make best use of the suggestions
you received for improving your work. 4
23. What is customer feedback? List six golden rules of customer feedback.
1+3=4
******************************************
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XII/R(V)/1
2023
Retail (Vocational)
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is
given.
left side.
i. Which one of the following is a service tool to identify customers’ problem?
a) Data collection b) Discussion Forums
c) Information Centers d) Corporate bodies
ii. How do we prepare a customer service plan?
a) By being friendly
b) By knowing the product or service
c) By developing customer service strategy
d) By responding promptly
iii. In understanding customer needs, don’t make assumptions mean, to be
a) clear b) precise
c) understanding d) a good listener
iv. Amazon Go concept stores that do not have associates or check lanes are known as
a) no service b) self service
c) full service d) customer service
v. Which of the following is not a factor in developing a good work habit?
a) cultivate self discipline b) stay balanced
c) develop professionalism d) common goal
vi. Which of the following decodes the message in communication channel?
a) Sender b) Receiver
c) Feedback d) Messenger
vii. It is an electronic document which has rows and columns.
a) Spreadsheet b) Charts
c) Graphs d) Formula
viii. Which menu option is used to insert shapes and images?
a) Format b) Tools
c) Insert d) Edit
ix. Individuals, who focus on developing solutions that benefit the society are called
a) service entrepreneur b) social entrepreneur
c) business entrepreneur d) professional entrepreneur
-2- NB-XII/R(V)/1
x. Reusing scrap material aims to

a) promote development b) control greenhouse gas emissions
c) ensure quality control d) minimize waste and pollution
2. What is customer problem? 1
3. Why is it important to meet customer’s expectations? 1
4. What is customer retention? 1
5. State any two strategies to improve customer service standards. 1
6. What are marketing activities? 1
7. Write any two parts of communication. 1
8. What is meant by decisiveness? 1
9. List any two green jobs in solar and wind energy sector. 1
10. Mention any two benefits of negotiation in retail business. 2
11. Briefly explain any two ways to provide great customer service. 2
12. List four ways to increase trust with the customers. 2
13. What is CRM? Write any two benefits of CRM. 1+1=2
14. Describe any two ways to improve customer service. 2
15. Explain any two major factors that influence consumer behavior. 2
16. State any two responsibilities of employees in a workplace. 2
17. Write any two ways to maintain positive attitude. 2
18. Explain any four steps to solve customer problems. 4
19. Explain any four methods of dealing with customer service problems. 4
20. Explain any four ways to collect customer information. 4
21. Describe four appropriate ways to respond to the customers. 4
22. Explain the four methods to obtain feedback from the customers. 4
23. What is retail career? Explain in brief any three career prospects in retail
organisation. 1+3=4
******************************************
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XII-H(V)/1
2023
Healthcare (Vocational)
answers.
i. The ability to control one’s emotions, thoughts and behaviour is called
(a) Self regulation (b) Self-management
(c) Self-awareness (d) Self-discipline
ii. Sutures are removed after
(a) 3 days (b) 5 days
(c) 7 days (d) 10 days
iii. Sharp wastes are to be disposed off in
(a) White bag (b) Yellow bag
(c) Red bag (d) Blue bag
iv. Pre-disaster measures to prevent disasters are called
(a) Disaster management (b) Risk management
(c) Preparedness (d) Drill
v. The arrangement of cells in a vertical manner is known as
(a) Worksheet (b) Workbook
(c) Row (d) Column
vi. The normal beats per minute for a healthy adult ranges from
(a) 60-70 bpm (b) 60-80 bpm
(c) 60-90 bpm (d) 60-100 bpm
vii. ENT stands for
(a) Eye, Nose and Throat (b) Eye, Neck and Throat
(c) Ear, Nose and Throat (d) Ear, Nose and Tongue
viii. The most common type of extinguisher used for Class C fire is
(a) Halogenated agent (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Wet potassium acetate (d) Powdered graphite
ix. In older people, as the body ages, the bones lose calcium, gets weak, thin and
(a) Brittle (b) Durable
(c) Flexible (d) Strong
x. The process by which a health care provider investigates the body of a patient for
signs of disease is called
(a) Internal examination (b) External examination
(c) Medical examination (d) Physical examination
-2- NB-XII/H(V)/1

2. Define biomedical waste. 1
3. Write the full form of ERT. 1
4. What is the age span of a toddler? 1
5. What is green job? 1
6. Name the two types of smoke detectors. 1
7. What is goal setting? 1
8. What is patient documentation? 1
9. Why is feedback important in communication? 1
10. Name the two methods of documentation. . 2
11. Differentiate between infectious waste and cytotoxic wastes. 2
12. List any two physical changes that occur in the body during old age. 2
13. Write any two functions of Hospital Waste Management Committee. 2
14. List any two common medical equipments used in the operation theatre. 2
15. List any two legal needs of an elderly. 2
16. Mention any two social problems caused due to stress. 2
17. Write any two advantages of presentation softwares. 2
18. Write four characteristics of an entrepreneurship. 4
19. List any four points followed in maintenance of records in hospitals. 4
20. Write any four preparatory steps before sending the patient to the operation
theatre. 4
21. Briefly explain any four types of disposal of biomedical waste. 4
22. List any four examples of a typical adolescent patient. 4
23. Write any four preventive measures of fire. 4
******************************************
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XII/B&W(V)1
2023
Beauty & Wellness (Vocational)

answers.
left side.
i. It is the first area where a client gets the first impression of the salon.
a) Front desk b) Retail area
c) Storage area d) Service area
ii. Which of the following describes the shade of the skin?
a) Colour b) Makeup
c) Glands d) Undertone
iii. The electrical facial treatment is also called as
a) galvanic treatment b) cosmetic electrotherapy
c) facial steaming d) lymphatic drainage
iv. Dry skin is due to lack of
a) heat b) cold
c) lubrication d) wind
v. Which of the following is not a parameter to describe an individual’s personality?
a) Oneness b) Consciousness
c) Neuroticism d) Self confidence
vi. It is an arrangement of cells in a horizontal manner.
a) Column b) Row
c) Worksheet d) Workbook
vii. The ability to continue to do something even when it is difficult is known as
a) decisiveness b) interpersonal skills
c) perseverance d) initiative
viii. Which treatment is used to remove dead skin cells of a thicker skin?
a) Ultrasonic exfoliation b) Facial steaming
c) Galvanic treatment d) Electric brush
ix. It is very important in maintaining a good salon image and also for health and
safety.
a) Clean environment b) Grooming
c) Good housekeeping d) Healthy habits
-2- NB-XII/B&W(V)/1
x. Who provides the details of the salon service at the reception area?
a) Salon Manager b) Receptionist
c) Salon owner d) Beauty Therapist
2. How does electrical current help in skin therapy? 1
3. Write one thing that should be ensured after using the staff room. 1
4. Write any two parts of communication that help us to understand others. 1
5. Name any two types of cosmetic electrotherapy. 1
6. State any two primary colours. 1
7. What are loyalty cards? 1
8. Who is a salon receptionist? 1
9. Name any two common types of blush. 1
10. Write any two benefits of green jobs in protecting the environment. 2
11. Mention two ways to handle contraindication to any treatment. 2
12. State any two recording medium that a salon receptionist should use. 2
13. Define interpersonal skills. 2
14. List four contraindications of ultrasonic exfoliation. 2
15. What is alcoholism? State any one ill effect of alcoholism. 1+1=2
16. Write any two benefits of galvanic electro facial treatment. 2
17. Describe two ways in which you can make positive thinking a habit in life. 2
18. Briefly explain any four types of skin. 4
19. Describe four ways to provide a caring environment to the client. 4
20. Briefly explain how the following reception areas in a salon are to
be maintained: 2+2=4
i) Storage area
ii) Lounge or waiting area
21. Describe the process of lymphatic drainage facial machine treatment. 4
22. What is electric brush used for in beauty therapy? Write three benefits
of using electric brush. 1+3=4
23. Explain any four types of eyeliner. 4
******************************************
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XII/E&H(V)/1
2023
Electronics & Hardware (Vocational)
answers.
i. Which of the following meter is used to measure the amount of energy consumed by
an electrical appliance in a house?
(a) Voltmeter (b) Ammeter
(c) Barometer (d) Energy meter
ii. What is the current carrying capacity of copper bus bar?
(a) 2000 A (b) 3000 A
(c) 4000 A (d) 5000 A
iii. A load centre is also called
(a) Control unit (b) Processing unit
(c) Service unit (d) Control panel
iv. Which of the following is the front part of a panel board?
(a) Access door (b) Enclosures
(c) Dead front (d) Trim
v. Handle extension is used with
(a) Busbar (b) Busway
(c) MCB trip (d) Switchgear
vi. The process of converting AC power into DC power is called
(a) Transformer (b) Variable frequency driver
(c) Voltage (d) Rectification
vii. The slip ring is used in
(a) AC machine (b) DC machine
(c) Transformer (d) Stator
viii. Which of the following is known as the brain of PLC?
(a) Input (b) Output
(c) Processor (d) Memory
ix. Which of the following is not a parameter to describe an individual’s personality?
(a) Self-confidence (b) Openness
(c) Neuroticism (d) Agreeableness
x. Which of the following function is used to perform addition in a spreadsheet?
(a) Format option (b) Charts
(c) Formula (d) Graphs
-2- NB-XII/E&H(V)/1

2. What is the working principle of a fuse? 1
3. What is a brush? 1
4. What is human machine interface (HMI)? 1
5. What is fusible disconnect switch? 1
6. Write two types of testing in a control panel. 1
7. What is silicon control rectifier? 1
8. State any two components of spreadsheet. 1
9. Mention one characteristic of entrepreneurship. 1
10. Differentiate between a feeder busway and a plug in busway. 2
11. Write any two steps to test an energy meter. 2
12. Write any two first aid measures that should be taken in case of an electricity
shock. 2
13. What is a fuse? State any two applications of a fuse. 2
14. What is a load centre? Mention any two components of a load centre. 2
15. What are horizontal and vertical buses used for? 2
16. What is a centre tapped transformer ? 2
17. List any two benefits of green jobs. 2
18. Write any four needs of adjustable speed drives in an electrical system. 4
19. Explain the working principle of centre tapped full wave rectifier. 4
20. Explain the working principle of direct online starter (DOL). 4
21. What is a fire extinguisher? State any three steps on how to operate a fire
extinguisher in case of a fire emergency. 1+3=4
22. Write any four differences between earthing and grounding. 4
23. Explain four stages of active listening. 4
******************************************
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XII/AG(V)/1
2023
Agriculture (Vocational)
answers.
i. Which of the following is not a stage of active listening?
(a) Receiving (b) Understanding
(c) Non-responding (d) Evaluating
ii. Self management is also known as
(a) Self-discipline (b) Self-control
(c) Self-awareness (d) Self-defense
iii. The short cut key for print command in spreadsheet is
(a) Control+P (b) Control+V
(c) Control+Q (d) Control+X
iv. A company that is in its first stage of operation is called
(a) Start up (b) Franchise
(c) Social enterprise (d) Enterprise
v. Organic gardening and farming is a component of
(a) Yellow jobs (b) Blue jobs
(c) Red jobs (d) Green jobs
vi. Which of the following is the main constituent of chlorophyll that maintains a
balance in the process of photosynthesis?
(a) Phosphorous (b) Calcium
(c) Nitrogen (d) Potassium
vii. Which of the following is a common disease symptom of roses?
(a) Black spot (b) Aster yellow
(c) Basal rot (d) Cold injury
viii. Korean velvet grass or carpet grass is also known as
(a) Zoysia matrella (b) Zoysia tenuifolia
(c) Cynodon dactylon (d) Paspilum Vaginatum
ix. A row of trees grown on both sides of the roads is called
(a) Lawn (b) Avenue
(c) Topiary (d) Rockery
x. Common jasmine is used for which purpose?
(a) Foliage (b) Fillers
(c) Cut stems (d) Fragrance
-2- NB-XII/AG(V)/1

2. What are hedge plants? 1
3. Name any two common insect pests of ornamental plants. 1
4. What is topiary? 1
5. What is water garden? 1
6. What are fertilizers? 1
7. Write any two features of the bottle brush tree. 1
8. Mention any two grass varieties in India. 1
9. What is spreadsheet? 1
10. What is communication? Write any two parts of communication. 2
11. State any two ways to manage stress. 2
12. Write any two needs for using biofertilizers. 1+1=2
13. Differentiate between sprinkler and drip irrigation. 2
14. Write any two ways to care and maintain a lawn. 2
15. Write the two major kinds of damage to growing crops by insects. 2
16. Mention any two aims of landscaping. 2
17. Write any two uses of climbers and creepers. 2
18. What is vermicomposting? Write three advantages of vermicomposting.1+3=4
19. Explain briefly any four types of manure application. 4
20. Explain any two common cultural operations from the following.
(i) Harrowing (ii) Mulching (iii) Stalking 2+2=4
21. Explain any four methods of lawn making. 4
22. What is indoor gardening? Write any three advantages of indoor gardening.
1+3=4
23. What is garden edging? Write three advantages of edging. 1+3=4
******************************************
otal number of printed pages: 2 NB-XII/AUTO(V)/1
2023
Automotive (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos. 18 to 23 where general option is
given.
i. The manuals provided by the manufacturers which cover the servicing,
maintenance and repair of their products is called
(a) service manual (b) owner's manual
(c) maintenance manual (d) insurance manual
ii. Push rod are made of
(a) alloy steel (b) carbon manganese steel
(c) carbon steel (d) austenitic steels
iii. Typically clutch overhauls are required every
(a) 80000-90000 kms (b) 75000-80000 kms
(c) 70000-80000 kms (d) 60000-70000 kms
iv. The study of the forces at work on a moving car is called
(a) road isolation (b) road holding
(c) vehicle dynamics (d) aero dynamics
v. Which of the following is not a component of air conditioning system?
(a) Compressors (b) Dryer
(c) Expansion valve (d) Battery
vi. Which of the following is a key communication skill?
(a) Speaking (b) Feedback
(c) Channel (d) Eye contact
vii. According to Helen Keller, optimism is the faith that leads to achievement.
Nothing can be done without hope and
(a) dreams (b) confidence
(c) strengths (d) enjoyment
viii. What is the short cut key to underline text in a spreadsheet?
(b) Ctrl+b (b) Ctrl+i
(d) Ctrl+l (d) Ctrl+u
ix. It provides energy for ignition.
(a) Ballast Resistor (b) Capacitor
(c) Battery (d) Distributor
-2- NB-XII/AUTO(V)/1
x. The Government of India launched the National Action Plan on Climate Change
(NAPCC) on
(a) June 2007 (b) June 2008
(c) June 2009 (d) June 2010
2. Why is regular servicing of automobile necessary? 1
3. Write the full form of MPFI. 1
4. Write one purpose of wheel alignment. 1
5. Write one use of hazard light. 1
6. State any two factors that affect active listening. 1
7. Write two ways to manage stress in our daily life. 1
8. List any two main types of data. 1
9. What is green job? 1
10. Write any two benefits of wearing seat belt. 2
11. Briefly explain any two functions of a piston ring. 2
12. What is engine valve used for? Name any two components of valve train.
1+1=2
13. Draw the universal joint and label any two part of it. 1+1=2
14. What is a steering linkage? What is the purpose of steering linkage? 1+1=2
15. What are the two wear characteristics of tyre due to excessive camber? 2
16. Write any two disadvantages of battery ignition system. 2
17. What is interpersonal skill? State any two characteristics of interpersonal
skill. 1+1=2
18. What is an injector nozzle? Write any three causes of faulty injection
nozzle. 1+3=4
19. What is bearing? Briefly explain any three types of sliding bearings used
in internal combustion engines. 1+3=4
20. Name the different types of automatic power transmission system and
explain any one of it. 2+2=4
21. Explain any two different technologies used for automation of transmission
system. 4
22. Give four reasons to justify why a suspension system is needed in an
automobile. 4
23. Explain any four different components of air condition. 4
*************************************

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Total number of printed pages: 6 NB /XII/ENG/1

1. Answer any five of the following questions: 5x2=10

(a) Jean-Victor developed an admiration for Hardimont. Why?

2. Answer any one of the following questions in about 150 words: 5

I. Let me not to the marriage of true minds

(a) What is meant by the ‘marriage of true minds’? 1

II. I am not yet born; provide me

(a) What does the unborn child want? 1

III. Ah! As the heart grows older

(a) What is the narrator assuring the child? 1

iv. Plunged in the battery- smoke

(a) What does ‘battery- smoke’ refer to here? 1

5. I came to bury Caesar, not to praise him.

(a) Who is the speaker? 1

I. (a) What values do parents and teachers want children to learn? 1

example is a person who plays psychiatrist on the basis of an introductory

12. Rewrite the following as directed: 3x1=3

(a) The boy speaks the truth. (Present Continuous Tense)

(a) In the nick of time

14. Fill in the blanks with correct modals: 4x1=4

(a) One____ keep one’s promise.

2. What is informal sector of services? 1

3. What is free trade? 1

4. How is systematic geography different from regional geography? 2

5. Write any two important aspects of human development. 2

7. What are border roads? Mention its importance. 1+1=2

8. a. Distinguish between push and pull factors of migration with examples.

9. Write any three characteristic features of pastoral nomadism. 3

10. a. Define the following terms: 1+1+1=3

11. a. Write three chief characteristics of air transport.

12. a. Write any five chief characteristic features of plantation agriculture. 5

13. a. Write any five advantages of ocean routes.

For Visually Impaired Students in lieu of Q.no.14

15. What are administrative towns? 1

16. Define water pollution. 1

17. What is meant by population composition? 2

18. What is meant by watershed management? 2

20. Name any two major sea ports of India. 2

23. a. Explain the cropping seasons in India.

25. a. Write five objectives of rainwater harvesting.

26. a. Briefly explain the five categories of roads of India. 5

For Visually Impaired Students in lieu of Q.no.27

1. What is meant by environmental scanning? 1

3. What is meant by excise duty? 1

4. What is meant by product mix? 1

6. Write the abbreviation of EBITDA. 1

7. State any three common idea fields. 3

8. Write any three features of personal selling. 3

9. Discuss any three importance of negotiation. 3

10. Write any three objectives of budgeting. 3

11. Write any three benefits of inventory control. 3

Answer any five (5) from the following questions: 5x5=25

12. Explain the five main sources of emerging ideas.

13. Explain any five macro environmental factors.

14. Write the five sources of collecting information from environment.

16. Write any five legal formalities involved in sole proprietorship.

17. State five basic contents of operational plan.

18. State any five features of franchise.

Answer any three (3) from the following questions: 3x8=24

Tonic chord in _ Perfect cadence in

Tonic chord in _ Perfect cadence in