Real Test Series 01 - Test Papers (English)
Real Test Series 01 - Test Papers (English)
Real Test Series 01 - Test Papers (English)
Topics Covered
Physics: Electric Charges and Fields, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Chemistry: Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics
Mathematics: Determinants, Matrices, Relations and Functions
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 30 questions in each section in which first 20 questions are
compulsory and are of Objective Type and last 10 questions are integer type with answers ranging from ‘0’ to ‘999’
where answer needs to be rounded off to the nearest integer. Only 5 questions have to be attempted out of the last
10 questions of each section.
5. There is only one correct response among 4 alternate choices provided for each objective type question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area
may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
[1]
IMPORTANT CONSTANTS
IMPORTANT VALUES
2 = 1.414 ln 10 = 2.303
3 = 1.732 log102 = 0.3010
5 = 2.236 log103= 0.4770
= 3.142 log107 = 0.845
e (Euler’s constant) = 2.718
[2]
SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions
1. A capacitor C is fully charged with voltage V0. 2R
After disconnecting the voltage source, it is
connected in parallel with another uncharged
capacitor of capacitance 2C. The energy loss in
the process after the charge is distributed between R
the two capacitors is: 3m R 2 2
m2 R 2
(1) (2)
1 1 2e 2e
(1) CV02 (2) CV02
4 6 m2 R 2 2m2 R 2
(3) (4)
1 1 3e e
(3) CV02 (4) CV02
2 3
6. Infinite positive line charge of charge/length
2. Two identical metal plates each carrying positive 5nC/m lies along line x = y in the xy plane. Find
charges Q1 and Q2 (Q1 > Q2) respectively, are the electric field at (0, 0, 4) m :
V 22.5 ˆ ˆ V
brought close to each other parallelly to form a (1) 22.5kˆ (2) ( +i − j )
capacitor of capacitance C. The potential m 2 m
difference between them is V 22.5 ˆ ˆ V
(3) −22.5kˆ (4) (−i + j )
Q1 + Q2 Q1 − Q2 m 2 m
(1) (2)
2C C
Q1 − Q2 Q1 + Q2 7. An annular disc of inner radius R and outer radius
(3) (4)
2C C 2R has uniformly distributed charge Q. Electric
field strength at point P is
3. Charges Q, 2Q and –Q are given to three
concentric conducting spherical shells A, B and C
respectively, as shown in the figure. The ratio of
charges on the inner and the outer surfaces of the
shell C will be (+ve value indicates same nature
of charges) Q
(1)
30 R 2
Q
(2) ( 2 − 1)
20 R 2
Q 1 1
(3) 2
−
60 R 2 5
3 3
(4)
Q
60 R 2
(
5− 2 )
(1) + (2) −
4 4
5 3 8. Two short electric dipoles having dipole moment
(3) (4) −
2 2 p are kept on two corners of a rectangle as shown
in figure. The direction of electric field at the
4. The self energy of a conducting shell of radius R centre C of rectangle, is
& charge Q is:
kQ 2 kQ 2
(1) (2)
R 2R
2kQ 2 3kQ 2
(3) (4)
R 5R
( 0, )
3a . If in its subsequent motion, the
28. A point charge Q is placed inside an uncharged
maximum velocity attained by this particle is conducting spherical shell of inner radius 2R and
1/2 outer radius 3R at a distance of R from the centre
1 Q2
, then N is of the shell. The electric potential at the centre of
N 0 am
1 pQ
the shell will be , where p and q are
40 qR
25. A short dipole of dipole moment piˆ is placed in co-prime numbers. Find the value of (p + q)
electric field E = E0 xiˆ where x is in meter. Net
force acting on the dipole (in N), is (E0 = 10 N/C, 29. The electric field in a region is radially outward
p = 8 Cm) with magnitude E = Ar. The charge enclosed in a
sphere of radius a centred at origin is mπAε0an.
26. Shown in figure are two uniformly charged thin The value of mn is (r is the radial distance and A
shells of radius R and 3R with centre C1 and C 2 is a positive constant)
respectively. Total electric potential energy of the
NQ 2 1 30. Heat generated in the circuit after when switch is
system will be . Find the value of .
40 R N shifted from 1 to 2 is (in μJ)
–Q
+Q
C1 C2
R
3R
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
36. Consider the following electrochemical data. 41. Molar conductivity of 0.1 M CH3COOH at
E 2+ = −2 V E 2+ = −1 V, E +2 = −0.5 V certain temperature is 256.62 S cm2 mol−1. What
A |A B |B C |C
is its pH?
Select the correct statement.
(1) B can reduce A2+ = 349.6 Scm2 mol−1 , = 78.1 S cm 2 mol−1
(2) A can reduce B2+ H+ CH3COO
(3) k b N 2 H 2 O
2
k b N 2 H 2 O
2
(4)
H2 (1) Eb > Ea > Ed > Ec
(2) Ec > Ea > Ed > Eb
(3) Ea > Ec > Ed > Eb
38. Two open beakers, one containing a solvent and
the other containing a mixture of that solvent (4) Eb > Ed > Ec > Ea
with a non volatile solute are together sealed in a
container. Over the time 43. The rate of a certain biochemical reaction at
(1) The volume of the solution and the solvent physiological temperature (T) occurs 106 times
does not change faster with enzyme than reaction without
(2) The volume of the solution increases and the enzyme. The change in the activation energy
volume of the solvent decreases upon adding enzyme is
(3) The volume of the solution does not change (1) −6RT (2) +6RT
but the volume of the solvent decreases (3) +6(2.303) RT (4) −6(2.303) RT
(4) The volume of the solution decreases and
the volume of the solvent increases. 44. The following data is given at 27°C for the
reaction xA + yB → product.
39. Given that the standard potentials (E°) of Cu2+/ Trial [A] [B] Rate
Cu and Cu+/ Cu are 0.34 V and 0.522 V mol/L mol/L ml−1
respectively, the E° of Cu2+/Cu+ is: 1 0.01 0.01 10−6
(1) + 0.158 V (2) − 0.158 V 2 0.01 0.02 2 × 10−6
(3) −0.182 V (4) 0.182 V 3 0.04 0.02 32 × 10−6
If reaction is elementary, then select the correct
40. At 35°C, the vapour pressure of CS2 is 512 mm relation.
Hg and that of acetone is 344 mm Hg. A solution (1) x = y + 2
of CS2 in acetone has a total vapour pressure of (2) y = x + 2
600 mm Hg. The false statement amongst the (3) y = x
following is (4) x = y + 1
(1) Raoult’s law is not obeyed by this system
[7]
54. An acidic solution of dichromate is electrolyzed 58. For the disproportionation reaction 2Cu+(aq)
for 8 minutes using 2 A current, as per the
Cu(s) + Cu2+(aq) at 298 K, the value of lnK
following equation
(where K is the equilibrium constant) is y. The
Cr2 O72− + 14H + + 6e – → 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2 O value of 10y is
The amount of Cr3+ obtained was 0.104 g. The Given:
efficiency of the process (in %) is____. (Nearest (E Cu 2 + /Cu +
= 0.16 V
integer)
E = 0.52 V
(Take: F = 96500 C, atomic mass of chromium = Cu + /Cu
52). RT
= 0.025
F
55. Calculate the number of faraday used to convert
246 g of nitrobenzene to aniline, if current 59. At 300 K, the vapour pressure of a solution
efficiency is 50%. containing 1 mole of n-hexane and 3 moles of n-
heptane is 550 mm of Hg. At the same
56. 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 90 temperature, if one more mole of n-heptane is
minutes, then 60% of the same reaction would be added to this solution, the vapour pressure of the
completed in approximately (in minutes) solution increases by 10 mm of Hg. If the vapour
_______. (Take: log 2 = 0.30; log 2.5 = 0.40) pressure of n-heptane (in mm Hg) is x, then the
x
value of is _____.
57. An oxidation-reduction reaction in which 3 10
electrons are transferred (in the cell reaction) has
a G° of 17.37 kJ mol–1 at 25°C. The value of 60. A radioactive sample has an activity of 80 Ci. If
it reduces to 10 Ci in 30 min, then the time taken
E ocell is _____ × 10–2V
for activity of 160 Ci of the same element to
(1 F = 96,500 C mol–1) reduce to 40 Ci is (in min)_____.
SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions (3) R is symmetric and transitive but
61. The domain of the function nonreflexive
1 (4) R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive
f ( x) = + ln( x − 2{x}) is
{x}
3
(where {.} denotes the fractional part function) 64. The graph of the function f ( x) = x − does
(1) [1, ) (2) (1, ) | x|
(3) [1, ) – I +
(4) (0, ) not lie in
(1) I Quadrant (2) II Quadrant
62. A function f : R → R defined as (3) III Quadrant (4) IV Quadrant
f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + 3sin x + 4cos x, is one-one
65. For non-singular square matrices A, B, C and D
onto, then (where a, b R)
( AB )
−1 −1
(1) a2 > 3b (2) a2 < 3b – 15 of same order, CD must be equal to
(3) a2 > 3b + 15 (4) a2 > b
(1) D −1 A−1 BC −1 (2) D −1C −1 B −1 A−1
(3) DCB −1 A−1 (4) D −1C −1 BA−1
a c
63. The relation R = , ; where a, b, c and d
b d
r r − 1
are integers such that b, d ≠ 0 and ad = bc}. 66. Matrix M r is defined as M r = ,
Then r − 1 r
(1) R is reflexive and symmetric but r N value of det(M1) + det (M2) + det(M3) +…
nontransitive + det(M2007) is
(2) R is reflexive and transitive but (1) 2007 (2) 2008
nonsymmetric (3) 20082 (4) 20072
[9]
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