BYJU'S AILET Practice Mock 02 @clatimpstuff

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Mock Test Solutions in English
Questions
1. Direction: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.
Many people are familiar with what is known as Zoom fatigue, described as the feeling of being drained
and lacking energy following a day of virtual meetings. Now, new research suggests that women and
newer employees may be most susceptible to the phenomenon and that allowing people to turn off their
cameras during meetings could make a big difference.
According to the study, published in the Journal of Applied Psychology in August, the degree of fatigue
isn’t affected by the amount of time spent in virtual meetings or the number of meetings attended.
However, having one’s camera on during meetings all day—versus having it off—does make people feel
tired.
Researchers also found that camera-related fatigue affects employees in terms of voicing their ideas and
being engaged in their work. There is even spill over to the next day, researchers found.
For companies, the results could signal the importance of doing away with blanket camera-on
requirements during virtual meetings, which proliferated during the pandemic and continue to be widely
used by companies today. Having the camera off doesn’t necessarily mean an employee isn’t engaged; he
or she may just need a break from feeling watched to re-energize, says Kristen M. Shockley, associate
professor of psychology at the University of Georgia, and the study’s lead researcher.
“There are a lot of reasons you might not want to be on camera at a given time, even though you’re
actively engaged in the meeting,” she says.
As for the disproportionate effect on women and organization newcomers, researchers offer several
reasons these groups, in particular, could be more likely to feel camera fatigue.
Women, who tend to be judged more harshly both in terms of their behaviour and their appearance than
men, are likely to spend more time thinking about how they look and focusing on whether they appear
attentive enough on screen, Dr. Shockley says. This takes up greater cognitive resources and mental
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energy and ultimately is more tiring, she says. Also, the likelihood of children interrupting is greater for
women than men, which can cause anxiety, she adds.
Office newcomers, meanwhile, don’t have the same built-up rapport with co-workers, so they may be more
worried about how they come across to others, researchers say. As a result, they have to exert extra
energy putting up the appearance of being engaged and attentive in the meeting, which is draining and
culminates in fatigue, Dr. Shockley says. The more focus you have on trying to look like you’re engaged,
the more energy you spend and the more fatigued you’re likely to be, she says.
Which of the following options best describes zoom fatigue?

A. The tiredness one feels after too many meetings B. The ennui of taking virtual meetings instead of
a day offline meetings
C. The feeling of fatigue after a day of virtual D. Feeling drained after taking multiple meetings
meetings with no breaks
2. It can be inferred that women and newcomers are more likely to be susceptible to zoom fatigue because
_________.
A. women have many distractions such as children B. women feel stressed by the blanket camera-on
and housework requirements during virtual meetings
C. both focus more on trying to look engaged and D. both are camera shy and feel anxious about
spend more energy on how they appear on camera facing the camera
3. The simple solution for companies to help employees to overcome zoom fatigue is to ___________.
B. cut down the number of meetings scheduled per
A. cancel zoom meetings and hold offline meetings
day
D. cancel blanket camera-on requirements during
C. cut down the duration of meetings
meetings
4. Which of the following statements is correct according to the passage?
A. Zoom fatigue affects women more than office B. Zoom fatigue affects office newcomers more than
newcomers. women.
C. One expends energy when thinking about how D. Men are not conscious about how they look or
one looks. whether they appear attentive in a meeting.
5. Which of the following options, if true, contradicts the findings of the study cited by the passage?
B. Being on camera and distractions at home add to
A. Camera fatigue affects women more than men.
the anxiety of women.
C. Office newcomers want to appear focussed and D. The amount of time and the number of meetings
attentive in meetings. adds to the fatigue of employees.
6. Direction: In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers
correspond to the question numbers; against each question, five words have been suggested, one of
which fills the blanks appropriately.
As the countdown for elections to the Lok Sabha begins, the world’s largest democracy has a chance to
re-imagine itself. Over the last 20 general elections and numerous elections at lower levels, the
(###Q1###) trust that the founding fathers of the Republic put in the parliamentary democratic system has
been substantially proven wise. India did make some dangerous turns and showed signs of (###Q2###),
especially during the Emergency in the 1970s, but in the long term it expanded the scope of its democracy
through widening representation, (###Q3###) of power and redistribution of resources. This is not to
overlook the various maladies that have afflicted the country’s democracy, such as disinformation
campaigns, corruption, (###Q4###) of the weaker sections of the society, the corroding influence of
money and muscle power in elections, and divisive majoritarian tendencies. While the representative
character of institutions has in general improved, women and religious minorities are alarmingly
underrepresented. The exercise of elections itself is a matter of great pride for all Indians. The Election
Commission of India has over the decades evolved itself into a fine institution and plays a critical role in
the (###Q5###) of democracy. Its efforts to increase voter participation through a series of small steps
over the years, including the use of the Electronic Voting Machines, have been praiseworthy.
Find the appropriate word in each case.

A. Resolute B. Unbreaking
C. Irrespective D. Ultimate
E. Interim
7. Find the appropriate word in each case.
A. Frugality B. Malleability
C. Fragility D. Insanity
E. All of the above
A. Resolution B. Devolution
C. Dissolution D. Evolution
E. Emancipation
A. Unfasten B. Emancipated
C. Hibernation D. Disinvestment
E. Disenfranchisement
A. Sustenance B. Sustainable
C. Surviving D. Serving
E. All of the above
11. In the given question, a statement has been divided into five segments, each of which is denoted
by (a), (b), (C), (d) and (e). Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent statement.
a) video conference
b) the prime minister launched
c) named e-RUPI
d) on Monday via
e) a digital payment solution

A. BECDA B. BACED
C. EDBAC D. ABCDE
E. None of the above
12. a) the teacher tried her best
b) but not before the
c) to stop the fight
d) already punched each other
e) two students had

A. ABCDE B. ACBED
C. BACDE D. CADBE
E. DBACE
13. a) bestow a title and
b) man who
c) land to the
d) saved the princess
e) the king will

A. ECABD B. BCAED
C. BDCAE D. EACBD
14. Directions: Three statements are given below at A, B and C. There may be some errors in the given
statements. Mark the correct statement as the answer. If all the statements are incorrect, mark option E,
i.e., "All are incorrect" as the answer.
A) Some journalists have cast doubt on the authentic of the official version of events.
B) The school has received varied grants from the education department.
C) He was envious of his brother's success.

A. Only A B. Only C
C. Both A and B D. Both B and C
E. All are incorrect
15. Directions: Three statements are given below at A, B and C. There may be some errors in the given
statements. Mark the correct statement as the answer. If all the statements are incorrect, mark option E,
i.e., "All are incorrect" as the answer. A) The two statesmen are known to have a cordial dislike for each
other.
B) The two towns are very much alike in size and population.
C) The slack, six-speed gearbox allows maximum use of the engine's output.
A. Both A and C B. Only B
C. Both B and C D. Both A and B
E. All are incorrect

16. Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence, alternatives
to the emboldened part are given as (A), (B), (C) and (D), which may help improve the sentence. Choose
the correct alternative out of the given five options. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer will
be option (E), i.e., "No correction required".
The negotiation was a long and exhausted process, but the board finally accepted the proposition.
A. Longing and exhausted process B. Long and exhausted processing
C. Long and exhaust process D. Long and exhausting process
E. No correction required
17. The chief minister was accuse of conspiring against the king, and tried for treason.
A. chief ministerial was accuse B. chief minister was accusing
C. chief minister was accused D. chief minister is accusation
18. The hostess had arranged for an elaborate meal for the gala and was praised for her exquisite taste.
A. had arranged for an elaboration meal B. had arranging for an elaborate meal
C. had arranged to an elaborate meal D. have arranging for an elaborate meal
19. Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence, alternatives
to the emboldened part are given as (A), (B), (C) and (D), which may help improve the sentence. Choose
the correct alternative out of the given five options. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer will
be option (E), i.e., "No correction required".
Stammering is a habit linked to lack of self-confidence.

A. linked with B. linked at
C. linked on D. linked upon
20. Direction: A sentence with one blank is given, indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the
word that best fits in the blank making the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.
The frontier community was _____________ close-knit.

A. Incredible B. Credible
C. Credibility D. Incredibly
E. Crescendo
21. The sudden change in pace after having shifted from a rural to an ________ area took some getting used
to.
A. Urban B. Arrear
C. Urgent D. Recent
E. Original
22. It hardly took her a week to get _________ to her new friends at the new school.
A. Attack B. Attach
C. Attached D. Attaching
E. Attacking
23. Despite numerous warnings, she ventured to __________ a night alone at the haunted house.
A. Spend B. Spent
C. Expenditure D. Expendable
E. Expend
24. The school was unprepared for the sudden ___________.
A. Insertion B. Inspection
C. Insurgence D. Insulation
E. Invasion
25. Direction: In the following question, a word is given that is followed by three statements. All these three
statements carry the given word. Identify the sentence(s) in which the word fit (s) to make the sentence (s)
grammatically correct and meaningful.
Guilt
I. The guilt held its annual meeting every November to elect its board members.
II. The king’s heart was filled with guilt at having shouted at the minister.
III. The guilt of the sword we found was plated with silver.
A. Only I B. Only II
C. Both I and II D. Both II and III
E. All I, II, and III
26. Grant
I. He was granted three wishes by the fairy queen.
II. The pigs were granting with satisfaction while eating.
III. She had to struggle for three years before convincing the University to give her the grant.
A. Only I B. Both I and II
C. Both I and III D. Both II and III
E. All I, II, and III
27. Direction: In the following question, a word is given, which has been used in the three statements given
below it. Identify the statement(s) in which the word fits contextually to convey a logical meaning.
Consider
I. She said she did not consider a degree of any real value, but thought it was much more desirable to do
something original.
II. To understand the existing Indian prison system, it is necessary to consider its gradual growth and the
steps taken to establish it.
III. I hated to be so discourteous but the only solution was to consider them.
A. Only 1 B. Only 3
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Both 2 and 3
E. All 1, 2 and 3
28. Direction: In the following question, a word is given, which has been used in the three statements given
below it. Identify the statement(s) in which the word fits contextually to convey a logical meaning.
Excavate
I. It is the first site to be excavated in this area.
II. The excess dirt from the vase was carefully excavated.
III. She was weak and the pain was excavating , but she was determined to go home.
C. Only III D. Both I and II

E. None of the above.
29. Tire
I. You must always have a tire repair kit in your trunk.
II. He found the floods fascinating yet tire.
III. Siri informed her that it would not be wise to tire him down.
A. Both I and III B. Only II
C. Both II and III D. Only III
E. None of the above.
30. Direction: Below is given a single word with options to its meaning in different contexts. You have to
select all those options which are synonyms of the word when the context is changed. Select the correct
alternative from (A), (B), (C), and (D) which represents all those synonyms.
Alien
a) Foreign
b) Extra-terrestrial
c) Familiar
d) Local
A. A and D B. B and C
C. A and B D. A, B and D
E. All A, B, C and D
31. Hurt
a) Heal
b) Impair
c) Offend
d) Distress
A. A and B B. B, C and D
C. A and D D. C and D
E. All A, B, C and D
32. Direction: In the given question, an idiom/phrase has been printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the
alternative that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Though they work as a team, they often don't see eye to eye on most issues.
A. To be angry with somebody about something B. To express their thoughts
C. To be agreeing with someone on an issue D. To get caught while stealing
E. To make a comment about something
33. That player puts on a good performance only once in a blue moon.
A. To become rich all of a sudden B. To do something rarely
C. To make a huge profit D. To make a promise to someone
E. To appreciate someone else’s hard work
34. To regard with disgust and hatred is called:
A. Tease B. Abhor
C. Ridicule D. Sneer
35. Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
The tendency to recur at intervals

A. rotation B. wheel
C. sequence D. periodicity
36. Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain word (s) are
printed in bold or italics to help you locate them while answering some of these.
The glass ceiling in the corporate world is not broken, but it is starting to crack. Women are
_____(A)________ corporate boards at greater speed, and in greater numbers.
Research by a popular professional networking site, shows that across five countries (America, Germany,
India, Italy and Norway) women it lists as directors reached the position faster than their male counterparts
did. In America, for example, women got there 9.8 years after leaving university and men after 10.9 years.
This suggests that younger women are making good progress in the boardroom. Overall, however,
females are still lagging behind the males. The proportion of people in leadership roles (director-level and
above) that is female in the five countries varies from 17% in India to 35% in America.
Britain has seen a clear advance; a campaign there called the 30% club has managed to increase the
share of female directors of FTSE 100 companies from 12.5% in 2010 to 30 .6%. But as the world marks
International Women’s Day on March 8th, it is clear that the glass ceiling has not shattered.
Some firms may be paying only lip service to the idea of female leadership. A paper in a journal
highlights the phenomenon of “twokenism”, a statistical bunching of American companies with exactly two
female directors. The authors suggest this is directly related to the average number of female directors on
S&P 1500 boards in the period studied (2004-13), which was 1.92. By opting for two women, businesses
could claim they had “above average” female representation.
In any case, a rise in the number of female directors is a narrow measure of female economic success.
Having women at the top of organisations may inspire others to emulate them, and board members may
be able push through more female-friendly policies lower down in their organisations. But the vast majority
of women would never expect to become directors. What they value is an opportunity to get a well-paid
job and to be free from discrimination while doing it.
In this respect the news is less encouraging. Across the OECD the gender pay gap of full-time employees
averages 13.5% and varies widely, from 3.4% in Luxembourg to 36 .7% in South Korea. It can be hard to
adjust for all the many factors, such as skill levels, that might explain this gap. Nevertheless, the OECD
found last year that full-time employed women with a college degree earned, on average, 26% less than
their male equivalents.
So there is certainly cause to celebrate women making small steps forward in the boardroom. But bigger
leaps are still needed elsewhere.
Which of the following words/phrases can replace the highlighted phrase in the passage?
Emulate
A. Initiate B. Imitate
C. Interrogate D. Interest
E. Insinuate
37. Which of the following phrases can fill the blank (A) in the passage?
Women are _____(A)________ corporate boards at greater speed, and in greater numbers.
A. Getting on to B. Move on to
C. Hopping into D. Realize on
E. Surprise to
38. Which of the following words is SIMILAR to the word highlighted in the passage?
Lip service
A. Support B. Disdain
C. Hypocrisy D. Affirmation
E. Summary
39. What do you mean by twokenism?
A. Companies hiring two female directors to claim B. The process of hiring directors in American
they have above average female representation. companies.
C. The influence of American companies on a D. The success of women as directors of American
woman’s daily life. companies.
40. Which of the following statement/s is TRUE as per the passage?
I. The females are not lagging behind the males when it comes to boardroom participation.
II. Britain has witnessed an increase in the share of female directors.
III. 83 percent of leadership roles (director-level and above) in India are given to males.
A. Both I and II B. Only I
C. Only II D. Both II and III
E. Only III
41. Which of the following statement/s is FALSE as per the passage?
I. The gender pay gap is a myth and there is no pay discrimination.
II. Women with a college degree and full-time employment earned, on average, 26% more than their male
equivalents.
III. Majority of women across workplaces never expect to become directors.

C. Both I and II D. Both II and III
E. All I, II and III
42. Direction: Read the given passage carefully. Choose the most appropriate option from the given
alternatives which expresses the summary of the passage.
Combining the roles of a courthouse, prison, lordly home and stronghold, castles epitomised a relationship
between those within and those without that was hierarchical at best and despotic at worst. Far from being
a welcome or comforting sight, they were often the source of considerable misery, whether, for those held
against their will within them, the soldiers who attacked or defended them, or the local population kept in
line by them.
A. Built as tangible symbols of repression and
B. When castles lost their military function, the
control, by the 18th-century castles were more likely
crowds arrived, looking for history that was not there.
to be invaded by tourists than soldiers.
C. Castles changed from being feared social, D. While castles played significant roles and served
political and martial institutions into spectacles to be many functions, they were tangible symbols of
adored and admired. misery.
E. Castles were always in some ways symbolic, but
with their functional capacity nullified, their
symbolism became the dominant value that guided
their preservation and development.
alternatives which expresses the summary of the passage. Despite the liberal component of the word
neoliberal, few would recognize much of it that is associated conventionally with liberalism, such that the
economist Oliver Hartwich recently designated neoliberalism a “political swearword.” Today, neoliberal is
used to refer to someone who bills themselves as a liberal but promotes ideas that actually inhibit
individuals’ well-being. In the 1930s, the neo- in neoliberal meant “new.”
B. The specific reconception of neo- is hardly
A. With this new meaning, the neo- prefix takes on a
universal; the prefix can still mean, indeed, just
more specific connotation: “fake.”
novel.
C. The new sense of neoliberal as a stain has D. The word, neo-liberal, was originally an insult,
settled in for good. used by some liberals to refer to peers of theirs who
had defected to the right.

E. The spectators are left to simply marvel at the
awesomely protean quality of human language,
which will always include terms like neoliberal whose
definition will change so much over time that it will
be difficult to pinpoint what single concept they refer
to at all.
alternatives which expresses the summary of the passage. Mass shootings leave limps, aches, sleepless
nights; they inflict post-traumatic stress disorder; they are the cause of too many funerals. They fling some
people across political divides and further entrench others in positions they held before. Many survivors
and relatives of victims become advocates for gun-control measures, others for open-carry laws; some
work to eradicate firearms from their communities, while others buy more to feel safe at home.
A. Whenever a mass shooting shocks a country, B. No law can eliminate the risk of mass shootings,
people ask if tighter gun-control measures could which are unpredictable and represent a small
have prevented the slaughter. minority of gun homicides overall.
D. Those whose families are splintered by mass
C. Mass shootings are deep in the country’s shootings sometimes weave new connections with
connective tissue. their peers—a substitute family of sorts, built from
steadily compounding national tragedies.
E. Talking to survivors will help to understand how
trauma changes the direction of a life, and how they
view the apparent shift in the national conversation
around gun violence.
45. Direction: A sentence with one blank is given, indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the
word that best fits in the blank making the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.
Subhash ___________ faced the wildfire and made it to safety.

A. Fear B. Fearful
C. Fearless D. Fearlessly
E. Ferocious
46. The commander noted the __________ his new cadre displayed during the morning drill.
A. Ingenious B. Engineer
C. Ingenuity D. Enthusiastic
E. Eager
47. The plot of the story _____________ especially after the second chapter.
A. Thin B. Thick
C. Thickened D. Thinness
E. Throw
48. Direction: In the given question, a statement has been divided into five segments, each of which is
denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent statement. A) with
the amount of homework
B) midway through a semester,
C) students are likely to feel overwhelmed
D) they have to finish
E) each day
A. CEABD B. ABCED
C. DCEAB D. BCADE
E. EBDAC
49. A) of the Government of India and
B) but also growth that is sustainable and inclusive
C) for achieving faster growth
D) is considered critical not only
E) skill development constitutes one of the national priorities

A. CEABD B. ABCED
C. EADCB D. BCADE
E. EBDAC
50. A) opera refers to a dramatic art form,
B) is conveyed to the audience
C) originating in Europe,
D) in which the emotional content
E) through music
A. CEABD B. ACDBE
C. EADCB D. BCADE
E. EBDAC
51. Which country has launched an online dashboard - the 'Climate Equity Monitor' to assess equity in climate
action, inequalities in emissions besides energy and resource consumption across the world?
A. France B. UK
C. India D. Japan
E. USA
52. Which country has inaugurated World’s Largest Hydrogen Fuel Cell Power Plant?
A. China B. Japan
C. US D. United Kingdom
E. South Korea
53. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Member of Parliament Local Area
Development Scheme (MPLADS)?
i. The Union Cabinet has recently approved the restoration and continuation of MPLADS during the
remaining part of Financial Year 2021-22 and up to Financial Year 2025-26.
ii. The Ministry will release MPLADS fund at the rate of Rs. 2 crore per Member of Parliament for the
remaining period of FY 2021-22 in one instalment.
iii. It is a Central Sector Scheme fully funded by the Government of India.

A. ii only B. ii and iii only
C. i and iii only D. i, ii and iii
54. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the World Bank’s Remittance Prices Worldwide
Database Report 2021?
i. India has become the world’s largest recipient of remittances.
ii. China was the biggest source of remittances in India.
iii. The report was published by the World Bank.

A. ii only B. i and iii only
C. i and ii only D. i, ii and iii
55. Consider the facts Given below :
1). Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India.
2). Rama Devi was the first woman Chief Election Commissioner of India.
Choose the correct answer from codes given below.
Codes :
A. Only 1 is correct B. Only 2 is correct
C. Both 1 and 2 are correct D. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
56. Which of the following word has been selected as the Oxford English Dictionary’s 2021 Word of the Year?
A. Climate Change B. Vape
C. Youthquake D. Vax
E. Jab
57. Which country has launched Earth science satellite named as ‘Guangmu’ into space?
A. South Korea B. Japan
C. China D. Taiwan
E. North Korea
58. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Pochampally village?
i. The Pochampally village has been selected as one of the best Tourism Villages by the United Nations
World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO).
ii. It is often referred to as the Silk City of India.
iii. Pochampally Ikat has received a Geographical Indicator (GI Status).

A. i only B. ii and iii only
C. i and ii only D. i, ii and iii

59. When was the SARFAESI Act passed?
A. 1999 B. 2002
C. 2005 D. 2003
60. Which of the following countries is known as the land of “Thunder Dragon” ?
A. Japan B. Bhutan
C. Nepal D. Srilanka
61. “Zolfaghar-1400” is an annual military exercise of which country that was conducted in Gulf of Oman
recently?
A. Pakistan B. Afghanistan
C. Iran D. Oman
E. UAE
62. Consider the following statements with reference to a quorum in the Lok Sabha:
(1) It is one-tenth of the total members of the House.
(2) The Speaker usually counts the heads at the beginning of every day’s first session to ensure a
quorum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
63. Which state topped in the third LEADS (Logistics Ease Across Different States) 2021 report?
A. Haryana B. Punjab
C. Tamil Nadu D. Gujarat
E. Maharashtra
64. Which defence manufacturing facility has delivered the fourth Scorpene Submarine of Project P-71 to the
Indian Navy which will be commissioned as ‘INS Vela’?
A. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. B. Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers
C. Cochin Shipyard Limited D. Goa Shipyard
E. Defence Research and Development
Organisation
65. Consider the following statements with reference to the Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
(1) The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the Second Amendment Act, 1952
(2) All laws under the Ninth Schedule are beyond the purview of judicial review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
66. Which becomes the 101st member country to join the International Solar Alliance (ISA)?
A. USA B. Canada
C. Mexico D. Argentina
E. Brazil
67. The United Nations declared 2021 as the year of ______.
A. International Year of Fruits and Vegetables B. International Year of Organic Farming
C. International Year of Water Cooperation D. International Year of Oil Seeds
68. Consider the following statements regarding the UNESCO Creative Cities Network:
i. UNESCO designated Srinagar as a part of UNESCO Creative Cities Network.
ii. Srinagar is the third Indian city designated as a part of UNESCO Creative Cities Network.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. i only B. ii only
C. Both i and ii D. Neither i nor ii
69. Which are countries share their border with Aral sea?
A. Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan B. Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan
C. Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan D. Azerbaijan and Kazakhstan
70. Which of the following gland is both endocrine and exocrine gland?
A. Pineal B. Adrenal
C. Thyroid D. Pancreas
71. Which state has approved “Kaiser-i-Hind” as state butterfly?
A. Himachal Pradesh B. Uttarakhand

C. Arunachal Pradesh D. Kerala
E. Sikkim
72. Which of the following cities has been named as the cleanest city of India by Swachh Survekshan 2021?
A. Chandigarh B. Kohima
C. Surat D. Indore
E. Kozhikode
73. Which city plans to build the world's first "Bitcoin City", funded initially by bitcoin-backed bonds?
A. El Salvador B. Belmopan
C. San Jose D. Tegucigalpa
E. San Marino city
74. Hindenburg Line is a boundary between -
A. France and Germany B. Spain and Germany
C. Poland and Germany D. Brazil and Argentina
75. What is the full form of IRGD?
A. Interest Rate on Growing Debt B. Interest Rate Growth Differential
C. Interest Rate on Growth Debenture D. None of the above
76. The Nobel in Economics for 2021 has been awarded for research in which field?
A. Nudge Theory B. Labour Market
C. Poverty Estimates D. Capital Markets
77. According to the 2021 Global Nutrition Report (GNR, 2021) released by the World Health Organization
how much percentage of women in the age group, 15-49 years are anaemic?
A. 45 percent B. 47 percent
C. 49 percent D. 51 percent
E. 53 percent
78. Which is the state partner of the 40th edition of the India International Trade Fair (IITF) 2021?
A. Jharkhand B. Assam
C. Uttar Pradesh D. Bihar
E. Odisha
79. Which country hosted Summit for Democracy virtually to renew democracy at home and confront
autocracies abroad?
A. United States of America B. United Kingdom

C. India D. France
E. Indonesia
80. The highest peak of Andes mountain is
A. Mount Aconcagua B. Mount Kilimanjaro
C. Mount Everest D. Mount Elbert
81. Principle: Whoever takes or entices any minor or any person of unsound mind, out of the keeping of the
lawful guardian of such minor or person of unsound mind, without the consent of such guardian, is said to
kidnap such minor or person from lawful Guardianship.
Facts: Sameer (an adult) asked Sneha (a minor) for a dinner date without the consent of her parents, but
on the consent of Sneha. They were together for that night, meanwhile the parents of Sneha filed a
missing complaint of their daughter. What offence if any has been committed by Sameer?
A. No offence B. Kidnapping
C. Abduction D. Both b and c
82. Principle: Whoever takes or entices any minor under sixteen years of age if a male, or under eighteen
years of age if a female, or any person of unsound mind, out of the keeping of the lawful guardian of such
minor or person of unsound mind, without the consent of such guardian, is said to kidnap such minor or
person from lawful Guardianship.
Facts: Rohan kidnaps Sanchi (of 15 years) and was carrying her away in a bus. Bus took a halt at Jaipur
where Rohan got down for using washroom. When he came back, he noticed that Sanchi was not in the
bus. Sanchi was taken away by Siddharth for unlawful purpose. What offence if any has been committed
by Siddharth?
A. No offence, as Rohan was not a lawful guardian B. No offence, as Siddharth was saving Sanchi from
of Sanchi Rohan.
C. Kidnapping D. None of the above
83. Principle 1: Any man who follows a woman and contacts, or attempts to contact such woman to foster
personal interaction repeatedly despite a clear indication of disinterest by such woman commits the
offence of stalking.
Facts: Rohit regularly checks the images of Deepika Padukone, a famous actress, follows her on
instagram and comments on her posts. What offence, if any, has been committed by Rohit?
A. Stalking B. No offence
C. Violating right to privacy D. Both a and c
84. Principle: Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender is deprived of the power of self-control by grave
and sudden provocation, causes the death of the person who gave the provocation or causes the death of
any other person by mistake or accident.
Facts: Ramesh hit Karan with a stick. Karan was provoked by this act, tried to beat Ramesh with a lathi
knowing that it may hit the baby in hands of Ramesh and the stick eventually hit the head of baby who
died on the spot. What is the liability of Karan?
A. Karan is not liable as Ramesh is one to be B. Karan is liable for murder as he knew that it may
blamed to start the fight. hit the baby.
D. Karan is liable for both murder and culpable
C. Karan is liable for culpable homicide.
homicide.
85. Principle 1: Permanent disfiguration of the head or face amounts to grievous hurt
Principle 2: Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth amounts to grievous hurt.
Facts: Raman with intent to disfigure Rajesh face, gave him two fatal blows on his face. The face of
Rajesh was not though disfigured, one of his tooth was knocked down which was duly treated and fixed by
a dentist. Discuss the liability of Raman.
A. Raman is not liable as he never intended to knock
B. Raman is liable for simple hurt.
Rajesh’s tooth.
C. Raman is liable for grievous hurt. D. Both B and C are correct.
86. Principle: A contract is not voidable because it was caused by a mistake as to any law in force in India but
a mistake as to a law not in force in India has the same effect as a mistake of fact.
Facts: Rohan and Sohan entered into a contract believing that a particular contract is not barred by the
Indian Law of Limitation. Discuss the validity of such contract.
A. The contract is valid. B. The contract is invalid.
C. The contract is voidable by either party. D. The contract is void.
87. Principle: Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to
the agreement, the agreement is void.
Facts: Sumit entered into a contract with Sanjeev to sell goods which were perished when the contract
was entered into by the parties. Discuss the validity of the contract.
A. The contract is void as the goods were destroyed
B. The contract is voidable.
at the time of bargain.
C. The contract is both void and voidable. D. The contract is neither void nor voidable.
88. Principle 1: Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to
the agreement, the agreement is void.
Principle 2 : An erroneous opinion as to value of the thing which forms subject matter of the agreement, is
not mistake as to matter of fact.
Facts: Sanjay and Pinku entered into a contract for sale of a painting for Rs.1000. It was later realised by
both the parties that the painting is original painting of a famous painter and amounted to Rs.1,00,000.
Discuss the validity of the contract.
B. The contract is void for mistake as to matter of
A. The contract is valid.
fact.
C. The contract is invalid as the mistake is essential
D. The contract is voidable at the option of seller.
to the contract.
89. Principle 1: When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation, the
agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused.
Principle2: If the consent was caused by misrepresentation or by silence, the contract, nevertheless, is not
voidable, if the party whose consent was so caused had the means of discovering the truth with ordinary
diligence.
Facts: Sushma, by a misrepresentation, leads Deepika to believe that certain land belongs to Sushma.
Deepika did not examine the registered documents with the registrar which discloses that the land belongs
to Rajat. Later, on purchasing the land, she learns that the land belongs to Rajat. She now, sues Sushma
for fraud and declaring the contract void. Can Deepika repudiate the contract?
A. Yes, the contract is voidable at the option of B. Yes, Deepika was defrauded at the behest of
Deepika. Sushma.
C. No, the contract is completely valid. D. Both a and b.
90. Principle: The consideration or object of an agreement is lawful, unless the Court regards it as immoral, or
opposed to public policy.
Facts: Chetan promises Ishan to let her daughter for concubinage. Decide the validity of contract.
A. The contract is voidable at the option of Chetan. B. The contract is voidable at the option of Ishan.
C. The contract is valid. D. The contract is void.
91. Principle: No child below the age of 14 years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or any
industry engaged in hazardous work.
Facts: Shivani has employed Shivam, who is 13 years old in a dhaba to clean tables. Has she acted in
violation of the Constitution of India?
B. No, as Shivam is not engaged in any hazardous
A. Yes, as Shivam is below 14 years
work.
C. Yes, as Shivam has fundamental right to
D. None of the above
education and not to work.
92. Principle 1:The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste,
sex, place of birth or any of them.
Principle 2: Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and
children.
Facts: In PCS exam 10% seats are reserved for women candidates. A male candidate challenged the
notification as discriminatory and against equality. Is his argument tenable?
A. Yes, reservation of seats is violation of right to
B. Yes, the provision is discriminatory.
equality.
C. No, the classification is reasonable, so as to
D. Both a and b
increase women participation.
93. Principle 1: All citizens shall have the right to freedom of speech and expression.
Principle 2: The state can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right conferred above in
the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or the security of the State, friendly relations with
Foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of Court, defamation or
incitement to an offence.
Facts: A book was published which talked about the previous immoral acts of the saint and his infamous
biography. The saint sued the book publisher on the ground of defamation. Discuss the liability of the
publisher.
A. The publisher is not liable as the book is in public B. The publisher is liable for defamation.
interest and in good faith.
C. The publisher is liable as has disturbed the public
D. Both b and c
order.
94. Principle 1: The provisions contained in directive principles of state policy shall not be enforceable by any
Court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country
and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Principle 2: It is one of the Directive principles that the State shall endeavour to secure for its citizens a
uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
Facts: A Muslim woman sued the state for not implementing maintenance of Muslim divorced wives after
iddat period which is recognised under Hindu marriage act as well as Code of Civil Procedure, and thus,
not able to achieve uniform civil code. Discuss the liability of state.
B. The state is compulsorily liable to implement
A. The state is not liable.
uniform civil code.
C. It is the duty of state to ensure maintenance of a
D. None of the above
divorced wife of whatever religion.
95. Principle: Fundamental rights cannot be suspended except in accordance with law.
Facts: A police officer without any search warrant entered the house of Rohan thinking him to be Sohan,
who has committed the offence of sedition. Rohan filed a petition against the police officer for violating his
right to privacy. Has the police officer violated any right of Rohan?
B. No, the police officer has acted well within his
A. No, the police officer was justified by law.
authority.
C. Yes, the police officer acted without good faith
D. Both a and b
and authority.
96. Principle:Whoever by words either spoken or intended to be read, or by signs or by visible
representations, makes or publishes any imputation concerning any person intending to harm, or knowing
or having reason to believe that such imputation will harm, the reputation of such person, is said to
defame that person.
Facts: Reema does not like Rekha. She daily writes her personal diary in which she has also mentioned
about Rekha and that Rekha habitually steals the articles of other, which is also true. One day, Rekha got
the diary of Reema and read the same. She sued Reema for defamation. Is Reema liable?
B. No, Reema is not liable for defamation as the
A. Yes, Reema is liable for defamation.
diary states the truth in good faith.
C. No, Reema is not liable for defamation as writing
D. Both b and c
in diary does not amount to publication.
97. Principle: A careless person is liable for his negligence when he owes a duty of care towards others.
Facts: A truck driver is driving a truck in his lane, he saw a cyclist coming from opposite direction and
changed his lane. Eventually, the cyclist realised that he was pedalling across the wrong lane and
suddenly moved to his lane, resulting in his accident. He sued the truck driver, discuss the liability of the
truck driver.
B. The truck driver must not change his lane, in any
A. The truck driver is liable for negligence.
case, therefore, he is liable for negligence.
C. The truck driver is not liable for negligence. D. None of the above
98. Principle: A master is liable for the acts committed by his servant in the course of employment.
Facts: Tej was employed by Ram for some work. While working, Tej engaged in fight with Tanuj, a
bystander. During the fight, Tanuj was seriously injured.. Tanuj sued Ram for damages. Is Ram liable for
the act of Tej?
B. Yes, as the act was done in course of
A. Yes, as he is the master of Tej.
employment.
C. No, as the act was not done in course of
D. Both a and b
employment.
99. Principle: Damage to a person without legal injury to that person is not actionable in the court of law.
Facts: Rahul is running a barber shop. Om started a barber shop adjacent to the school of Rahul. Many
customers started using the services of Om rather than that of Rahul. Rahul sued Om for damages.
Discuss the liability of Om.
B. Om is liable for damages as he caused loss of
A. Om is not liable for damages to Rahul.
revenue to Rahul
C. Damage without legal injury is not actionable. D. Both a and c
100. Principle: Legal injury without damage is actionable in court of law.
Facts: Salil went to cast his vote in a college election but was stopped by Rajan, member of opposite party
to vote. Later on, the party in whose favour Salil wanted cast vote won the college elections but Salil sued
the Rajan for damages to violate his right to vote. Is Rajan liable to pay damages?
A. Yes, as legal right of Salil is being violated. B. No, as no right of Salil is being violated.
C. No, as the party for which Salil wanted to vote D. No, as it is just a matter of college election and
has already won. Salil has no right to vote.
101. Principle: Making allegations against a person without any element of truth also constitutes defamation
where the person's reputation in the society suffers; especially in the eyes of reasonable and prudent
people.
Facts: Robin, a Major General in the Indian Army, is prosecuted for the crime of conspiring against the
state. But the prosecution is unable to prove the charge beyond reasonable doubt and he is acquitted
consequently. Robert, his neighbour, is not happy with the state of affairs and when Robin returns to his
hometown on leave, Robert starts abusing him in front of many people of the society as a traitor. Robin
wants to prosecute Robert for defaming him. Will Robin succeed ?
B. No, Robin will not succeed as he was prosecuted
A. Yes, Robin will succeed as this is a hurtful
for the same offence and it was reasonable for
statement.
Robert to believe it.
D. Yes, Robin will succeed as the statement is not
C. No, Robin will not succeed as it was a true
true and he has been completely acquitted by the
statement.
court of law.
102. Principle: The right of self-defence in no case extends to inflicting more harm than it is necessary to inflict
for the purpose of defence.
Facts: There was a small quarrel between two groups (X and Y) of a village, which eventually turned into
a fight between the groups. Tyagi fired a shot, killing one of the assailants on the spot. Tyagi himself was
found with twelve injuries on his body and the diagnosis revealed that he could not have survived if was
injured anymore. Tyagi was arrested by the police and convicted for murder. Tyagi claimed the right of
self-defence. Decide the consequences accordingly.
A. Tyagi is liable for intentionally killing one of the
B. Tyagi is not liable for killing.
assailants.
D. Tyagi cannot claim self-defence as he extended
C. Tyagi can exercise self-defence.
more harm than necessary.
103. Principle: A wrongdoer has no remedy in law unless the other party has also done a wrong.
Facts: X, a factory owner suffers theft of goods stocked in the factory's warehouse every night. On the
advice of Y, an expert, a very high compound wall, 15 feet high, is constructed around the warehouse of
the factory, with 5 feet of wire over the wall on iron hinges. A strong electric current is passed through the
wire every night after 11 p.m. One day Rajoo, a thief, who tries to enter into the compound is electrocuted
by the current and falls dead on the roadside. Is X liable ?
A. X is not liable for the death of Rajoo. B. X is liable for the death of Rajoo.
C. X has exercised the right to self-defence and
D. X is liable for committing public nuisance.
cannot be held liable.
104. Principle: A minor who fraudulently presents that he is a major, is not stopped from taking the defence of
minority to avoid the contract.
Facts: X is a minor who succeeds in deceiving some money lenders by telling them a lie about his age
and receives a loan of Rs. 10,000. In the present case :
B. The minor cannot take the defence of a minority
A. X can validly plead that he is a minor and he can
because he obtained the loan from the moneylender
avoid the payment.
on the representation that he is an adult.
C. X is a minor and not liable to pay because the
D. None of the above.
agreement was void.
105. Principle: Where the relation between the parties are such that one of the parties is in a position to
dominate the will of the other party and thereby obtain an unfair advantage by using such influence, then
such a contract is voidable.
Facts: Baba Sudhakar, a spiritual guru, induced a devotee, Mukul to give his entire property to the trust so
that he could secure salvation. Which of the following is the correct legal consequence in this case ?
A. The devotee gifted the property under the
B. The devotee gifted the property out of his own
influence of the spiritual Guru, hence the contract is
will, so the contract is valid.
voidable.
C. The devotee has given a valid consent, he cannot D. The contract is voidable at the option of spiritual
avoid the contract. Guru.
106. Principle: Subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of Part
III of the Indian Constitution, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely
to profess, practice and propagate religion.
Facts: In ABC school, four students while respectfully standing during the recitation of the National
Anthem, "Jana Gana Mana", refused to sing it on the grounds that it is against the belief of their religious
faith which has been established in various countries. On the instruction of the Principal of School, these
students were expelled from the school. Now they have filed a petition before the Supreme Court of India.
Decide accordingly.
A. The action of the school authorities is violative of B. The action taken by the school authorities was
their right to speech which includes the right to valid because they have shown disrespect to the
silence as well. National Anthem.
C. Freedom of religion is not an absolute right so
restriction can be imposed and hence action of the D. None of the above.
authorities is valid.
107. Principle: An assault is an attempt to do a corporeal hurt to another, coupled with an
apparent present ability and intention to do that act. A battery is the intentional and direct
application of any physical force to the person of another.
Facts: Amar was sitting on a chair reading a book. His friend, Biku, decided to play a practical joke on
him. Accordingly, he pulled the chair from under him, as a result of which, Aman landed on the floor.
Decide accordingly.
A. Biku's act amounts to a battery. B. Biku's act amounts to an assault.
C. Biku's act amounts to an assault till the time D. Biku's act amounts to neither because there was
Aman lands on the floor. no intention.
108. Principle: A libel is a publication of a false and defamatory statement tending to injure
the reputation of another person without lawful justification or excuse. A slander is a false and defamatory
statement by spoken words or gestures tending to injure the of another.
Facts: X wrote a letter to Y calling him a cheater. X's clerk Z opened the letter, as he normally does (a fact
which was known to X and placed it on Y's table). Y alleges that X has committed libel. Decide
accordingly.
A. Y will succeed since X has published a B. Y will not succeed because it was not written in a
defamatory statement against Y. newspaper and it was not published either.
C. Y will not succeed because everyone knew that X D. Y will not succeed since X did not follow up the
was a cheater. letter with a speech.
109. Facts: A master is liable for the acts of his servant as long as he can control the working of his servant.
Facts: X owned a taxi agency. X had hired Y to drive one of his cars. On March 1, 2000, Z called up X's
taxi agency and asked for a car to drop him from his house to the airport. On the way, because of the
driver's negligence, the car hit a road divider and Z was injured. He sued X for damages. Decide
accordingly.
A. X is not liable because X was not driving the car. B. X is not liable because X was not in the car.
C. X is liable because Y was employed by X and D. X is not liable because Y was driving as per Z's
was in X's control. instructions.
110. Principle: When a criminal act is done by one person in furtherance of the common intention of himself
and some other persons, each of such persons is liable for the act in the same manner as if it were done
by each one of them.
Facts: P, Q and R decided to commit burglary. They broke into a locked building. However, before they
had finished their work, a domestic servant appeared from the out-house and started shouting. P, Q and R
left the house and started running away. They were pursued by a small
crowd. P, on being caught by Tom, one of the persons pursuing them, stabbed him and ran away. By the
time Q and R had disappeared. Tom died on account of the stab wounds. Later, the police arrested all the
three. They were charged for attempted burglary and murder of Tom. Decide the legality of this case.
B. Along with P, Q and R are also guilty of murder
A. Along with P, the person who stabbed Tom, Q and
because P, at the time of stabbing Tom, was acting
R are also guilty of murder because P stabbed Tom
on behalf of Q and R and he wanted to save not only
in furtherance of common intention.
himself but Q and R as well.
C. P alone is guilty of murder because though there
was common intention to commit the offence of
burglary, there was no common intention to commit
the offence of murder.
111. Principle: A person is liable for any damage which is the direct consequence of his/her unlawful act, as
long as the consequence could have been foreseen by a reasonable person.
Facts: During a scuffle, X knocked Y unconscious and then placed Y at the foot of a hill at night,
when the temperature was around one degree centigrade. Consequently, Y suffered from hypothermia
and had to be hospitalised for a week. Y sued X. Decide accordingly.
A. X will be liable for the act, since the consequence
B. X will not be liable because he had no intention of
was a direct and foreseeable consequence of his
causing hypothermia.
act.
C. X will not be liable because he did not know that
D. X will be liable since Y was hospitalized.
Y would suffer from hypothermia.
112. Principle: The owner of a land is entitled to the column of air space above the surface ad infinitum. But,
the right is restricted to such height as is necessary for the ordinary use and employment of his land, and
the structure on it.
Facts: X had constructed a single-storeyed house on a corner site. He had no intention of building an
additional floor. Y his neighbour, who ran an internet café got a hoarding made, which protruded over the
X's house at a height of around 5 feet above the terrace. X sues Y for trespass. Decide on consequences
accordingly.
B. X will not succeed since he was anyway not
A. X will succeed since Y's act amounts to trespass.
planning to build an additional storey.
C. X will not succeed since the hoarding is not D. X will not succeed since Y has a right to erect a
obstructing him. hoarding.
113. Principle: Trespass to land is the wrongful and unwarranted entry upon the land of another.
Facts: Sushant purchased a ticket to watch a 3-D movie in a theatre. After the show got over, Sushant
refused to leave the theatre. The owner of the theatre sues Sushant for trespass. Decide accordingly.
B. The owner of the theatre will not succeed since
A. The owner of the theatre will not succeed since
Sushant has a right to remain wherever he wants to
Sushant had purchased a ticket.
after the show gets over.
C. The owner of the theatre will succeed since
D. The owner of the theatre will not succeed since
Sushant's authorization to remain in the theatre ends
Sushant did not have the intention to trespass.
with the show.
114. Principle 1: Negligence is the breach of a duty caused by an omission to do something which a
reasonable person would do or an act which a prudent and reasonable person would not do.
Principle 2: An action for negligence proceeds upon the principle that the person has an obligation or
duty on the part of the defendant, which he/she breaches, leading to damage.
Facts: Dr. Gulati, a surgeon, operated on Mohit. Subsequent to the operation, Mohit complained of some
minor discomfort. On examination, it was discovered that Dr. Gulati had left a surgical swab in Mohit's
stomach while operating. Decide the legality of this case.
A. Dr. Gulati will be liable for negligence, since there B. Dr. Gulati will not be liable for negligence since it
is a breach of the duty of care. was an accident.
C. Dr. Gulati will not be liable for negligence since no D. Dr. Gulati will not be liable for negligence since it
real damage was done. is not a reasonable act.
115. Principle 1: An agreement becomes a contract when it is entered into between two or more people with
each other's free consent. Two or more people are said to consent when they agree to the same thing in
the same sense.
Principle 2: Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud,
misrepresentation or mistake.
Facts: Rajat went to a doctor to get himself treated. The doctor asked him to sign a "consent form" and
said that unless he signs it, he will not examine him. Rajat signed the form waiving his rights to sue the
doctor. Decide accordingly.
A. This is a valid contract since Rajat understood B. This is not a valid contract since Rajat had no
and consented to the terms. other option, but to sign.
C. This is a valid contract since it is a doctor-patient
relationship.
116. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to
the first word.
Anemometer : Wind :: Sphygmomanometer : ?

A. Pressure B. Strains
C. Blood pressure D. Humidity
117. Raman faces towards north. Turning to his right, he walks 15 metres. He then turns to his left and walks
36 metres. Next he moves 15 metres to his right. He then turns to his right again and walks 50 metres.
Finally, he turns to the right and moves 40 metres. In which direction is he how from his starting point?
A. South West B. South
C. North D. South East
118. Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
77, 76, 80, 71, 87, ?, 98

A. 95 B. 62
C. 83 D. 50
119. In a code language, if TARGET is written as 17 and SILK is written as 15, then how will FROST be written
in the same language?
A. 111 B. 77
C. 55 D. 87
120. Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first
term.
Clock : Time :: Thermometer : ?

A. Fever B. Weather
C. Temperature D. Illness
121. An accurate clock shows 5 p.m. Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock
shows 8 p.m.?
A. 900 B. 800
C. 750 D. 600
122. If Aniket is the brother of the son of Priyanka's son, then how is Aniket related to Priyanka?
A. Grandson B. Son
C. Cousin D. Brother
123. In a code language, FLOWERS is written as OLFSREW. How will INCLUDE be written in that language?
A. CNIFDLD B. CINEDUL
C. CNHDEUL D. CNIEDUL
124. In a code language, INDICATOR is written as JOEJBCVQT. How will EMOTIONAL be written in that
language?
A. GNPUHTRCM B. FNAUJQPCN
C. FNPUHQPCN D. FNPDKQPCN
125. Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is
different. Select the letter-cluster that is different.
A. PTZW B. TXDB
C. FJPM D. MQWT
126. Amar is the brother of Babul; Babul is the sister of Krishan; and Krishan is father of Durga who is the only
daughter of Krishan. How is Durga related to Amar?
A. Sister B. Niece
C. Mother D. Wife
127. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to
the first word.
Entomology : Insects :: Palaeontology : ?

A. Earthquakes B. Automobile
C. Minerals D. Fossils
128. If 30th January 2003 is Saturday, then what day of the week was on 26th January 2003 be?
A. Friday B. Tuesday
C. Thursday D. Saturday
129. Four numbers have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select
the number that is different.
A. 7415 B. 3437
C. 5453 D. 7437
130. Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
181, 174, 186, 178, 191, 182, ?, ?

A. 185, 185 B. 190, 183
C. 200, 190 D. 196, 186
131. How many times are the hands of a clocks coincide in 11 days?
A. 224 B. 242
C. 259 D. 250
132. Direction: In the following questions assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the
conclusion(s) among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements:
Z < A, A > B = G, H > G = U, H > V > U
Conclusions:
I. Z < G
II. G < V
A. Only II follows B. Either I or II follows
C. Neither I nor II follows D. Both I and II follow
E. Only I follows
133. Direction: A statement is followed by 2 conclusions. You are supposed to read the statement and find out
whether the conclusions follow the statements on not.
1) Statement:
It is widely believed that the new Omicron Varient of the COVID-19 pandemic will not be as deadly as the
Delta Varient.
Conclusion:
I. The government need not worry about the 3rd variant.
II. The world can relax a bit, but still be wary of the threat posed by the pandemic.
A. Only I follows B. Only II follows
C. Both follows D. None follows
134. Statement: The government has decided to keep the economy open despite the anticipated threat of the
COVID-19 pandemic.
Conclusions:
I. The government’s decision can have grave repercussions over the state of the healthcare sector of the
country.
II. The government believes that the while healthcare is still top priority, it is equally important to keep the
economy running.

135. Statement:
The school administration has strictly decided not to give admissions in 11th standard to those who have
scored less than 80% marks in their 10th standard.
Conclusion:
I. The school administration is pretty adamant about the decisions that it takes for the welfare of the
school.
II. The decision is unfair to those who, even though are bright, yet could not perform at the expected level
due to performance pressure.
136. Statement:
There has been a huge concern regarding the air quality index in the National Capital Region. So, the
government has decied to curb private modes of transport as much as possible by incentivizing public
transpot.
Conclusion:
I. The air quality index will surely improve.
II. The air quality index has nothing to do with people’s mode of transportation.
137. Direction: A statement is followed by 2 inference. You are supposed to read the statement and find out
whether the inferences follow the statements on not.
Statement:
The company XYZ is looking for a candidate who would be able to work across multiple verticals
simultaneously.
Inference:
I. Mr. A, who is known for handling various other verticals in the past, should be a perfect fit.
II. Mr. A won’t be a perfect fit because he has not worked in a similar company before.
138. Statement:
Delhi Government’s decision to manage the traffic using the odd even rule in the wake of pollution crisis
has left many befuddled about what the government is trying to achieve.
Inference:
I. This is so because many have found the rule to be tedious.
II. Many people have found it difficult to understand how the government is going to implement the
scheme.
139. Statement:
The government has decided to put restrictions on the opening of shopping malls and movie theatres to
curb mass gathering and promote social distancing.
Inference:
I. The decision has come in the light of the recent spike in the COVID-19 cases.
II. The decision can be preventive measure to curb the spread of the virus.
140. Statement:
The doctoral candidates for this year are assigned the task of defending their thesis at the university and
engage in inter-university question answer affairs.
Inference:
I. The decision has been taken to check whether the candidates are worthy of their doctoral degrees or
not.
II. The university has been known to throw huge surprises such as these.
141. Direction: In each of the Following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is
reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given
below
Assertion:
It is believed that it will take at least a few more years to truly get over the COVID-19 pandemic.
Reason:
Pandemics of yesteryears have also taken at least this much of time to subside.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A). explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false. D. (A) Is false but (R) is true.
142. Assertion:
If you do not study, you are likely to fail, even in an aptitude based exam.
Reason:
Studying prepares you for the exam in a thorough manner.

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A). explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false. D. (A) Is false but (R) is true.
143. Direction: The question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and
II. You have to decide which of the arguments is/are ‘strong’ arguments and which is/are ‘weak’ arguments
and accordingly choose your answer from the alternatives given below each question. Statement:
The Kempegowda International Airport (KIA) is in talks with various domestic airlines as it puts in place a
facial recognition system that will replace boarding passes of passengers. The project, titled ‘Digi Yatra’, is
to be implemented in a phased manner.
“We are currently finalizing the integration with various airlines’ departure control systems (DCSs) to
manage the check-in process using biometric ID. The first phase will be rolled out during Q3 (third quarter)
of 2019,” a BIAL spokesperson told ET. The project, officials said, will enable registration at the airport
using the ‘Digi yatra’ kiosk at the kerbside, terminal entry using e-gates, pre-embarkation security check
(PESC) using e-gates, and also boarding through e-gates.
Which of the following arguments support(s) the above statement in the best possible manner?
I. Several airports in India are also expected to roll out a similar facility, conceptualized by the ministry of
civil aviation. The project facilitates paperless travel and avoids identity checks at multiple points.
II. At the KIA, the first phase will only cover domestic passengers. Once the domestic passenger roll-out is
stabilized, international passengers are also expected to be included subject to appropriate government
and regulatory approvals.
A. None is strong B. Either I or II is strong
C. Only I is strong D. Only II is strong
E. All are strong
144. Direction: In the questions below, a statement is given followed by two arguments. Choose the most
appropriate option depending on which argument strengthens the given statement. Why did the Prime
Minister resign?
Arguments:
l. He was not willing to continue.
II. Circumstances forced him to resign
A. if only argument l is strong. B. if only argument ll is strong
C. if either I or ll is strong D. if neither l nor ll is strong
E. if both I and II are strong.
145. Direction: The question given below consists of a statement, followed by three arguments numbered I, II
and III. You have to decide which of the arguments is/are ‘strong’ arguments and which is/are ‘weak’
arguments and accordingly choose your answer from the alternatives given below each question.
Statement:
SPA chief, who the Supreme Court has said should reimburse to the public exchequer the money spent on
putting up statues of himself, his mentor and of Deer - the party symbol - in Lucknow and Noida, holds
properties in Lutyens's Delhi worth several crores of rupees. He also has an official residence-cum-office
in the national capital.
Which of the following argument supports the above statement in the best possible manner?
Arguments:
I. Much of his wealth is in real estate and he has residential buildings in posh areas of Delhi and Lucknow.
According to the declaration made by him at the time of filing his nomination papers for the 2012 Rajya
Sabha elections, his immovable properties, both residential and commercial in Lucknow and Delhi, cash in
banks and jewellery, stood at over Rs 111 crore. He resigned from the Rajya Sabha in 2017.
II. The Supreme Court on February 8 observed that the SPA Chief should reimburse the public exchequer
the money spent on putting up deer statues in Lucknow and Noida.
III. The SPA Chief, who rose from the grassroots to national prominence and is counted among the richest
politicians in the country, is a four-term Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh.
A. Only III is strong B. All except III and II are strong
C. None is strong D. Only II is strong
E. All are strong
146. Direction: In the questions below, a statement is given followed by two arguments. Choose the most
appropriate option depending on which argument strengthens the given statement. Statement:
In every residential university mess should be student run.
Arguments:
I. Yes, ultimately student have to eat so they have right to decide.
II. Yes, students have every right to inspect the food quality.
A. If only argument I is strong B. If only argument II is strong
C. If either I or II is strong D. If neither I nor II is strong
E. If both I and II Argument is strong.
147. Direction: In the question, a statement is given followed by two arguments. Choose the most appropriate
option depending on which argument strengthens the given statement.
Statement:The government has rejected the proposal to implement complete convertibility" as this has
resulted in recession of many economies.
Arguments:
I. The government was sure that "Complete Convertibility", if implemented, would cause recession in the
country's economy too.
II. The government was not convinced that "complete convertibility" would help the economy.
C. Either I or II follows D. Both I and II follow
E. None follows
148. Most parents unanimously agree that children should not be allowed to play video games at all. They give
instances of how violent video games have been found to have influenced school shootings, increases in
bullying, and violence towards women. Critics argue that these games desensitize players to violence,
reward players for simulating violence, and teach children that violence is an acceptable way to resolve
conflicts.
Which of the following statements, if true, strengthens the given argument?

A. Nearly all young men play video games, so the
B. Studies have shown that violent video games can
fact that some people who commit violent acts also
have a positive effect on kindness, civic
played games should not be surprising, nor does it
engagement, and "prosocial” behaviors.
imply a causal relationship.
C. By age seven, children can distinguish fantasy D. Violent video games allow players to release their
from reality, and can tell the difference between stress and anger in the game, leading to less real
video game violence and real-world violence. world aggression.
E. Statistics prove that 60% of middle school boys
and 40% of middle school girls who played at least
one Mature-rated (violent-category) game hit or beat
up someone, compared with 39% of boys and 14%
of girls who did not play M-rated games.
149. European Union began after World War Two to foster economic co-operation, with the idea that countries
which trade together are more likely to avoid going to war with each other. While there are currently 28
European countries in the EU, the United Kingdom is all set to leave the EU after a referendum was held
in the country to decide whether the UK should leave or remain in the European Union.
Which of the following is the most suitable conclusion that can be drawn from the above paragraph?
I. EU is responsible for putting a curb on wars between different nations of Europe

II. The majority of Britishers voted for “leave” in the referendum held in the UK regarding whether the UK
should leave or remain in the EU.
III. Countries that are part of the EU cannot go to war with each other.
IV. The majority of the British population has shown resentment about the UK leaving the EU.
C. Only III D. Only IV
150. The Human resource development ministry of Sri Lanka conducted a survey among the workers in the
country. It was found that the number of unemployed skilled workers was equal to that of unemployed
unskilled workers. It’s also been found that the ratio of number of unemployed skilled workers to total
number of skilled workers and ratio of number of unemployed unskilled workers to total number of
unskilled workers is the same i.e. 2:5.
Which of the following conclusion can be drawn from the passage?

B. The relative figures of unemployed skilled and
A. There are more jobs that require unskilled labour
unskilled workers are same in other developing
than skilled labour
nations like India, Brazil etc.
C. The country suffers from very high rate of D. In Sri Lanka, being skilled does not enhance the
unemployment and the GDP is going down. probability of securing employment.
E. The survey was biased as the number of skilled
labour surveyed had not reached employable age.
Solutions
1. C
Sol. Passage summary:
The passage starts with a definition of zoom fatigue—the feeling of tiredness after a day of
virtual meetings. Women and newer employees are more affected. Having one’s camera on
during meetings all day—versus having it off—makes people feel tired. Women are affected
more because they tend to be judged more harshly both in terms of their behaviour and their
appearance than men; they are likely to spend more time thinking about how they look. Office
newcomers may be more worried about how they come across to others. The more focus you
have on trying to look like you’re engaged, the more energy you spend and the more fatigued
you’re likely to be.
Genre: Management
Number of words: 431
Type of question: Direct/Fact-based question
Explanation:
The key is the tiredness one feels after taking virtual meetings. Only option C mentions this
point. Other options mention the number of meetings or lack of breaks which is not the main
point.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
2. C
Genre: Management
Type of question: Indirect/Inferential question
Explanation:
The last two paragraphs of the passage explain the reasons for camera fatigue among women
and office newcomers. Refer to the following lines: ‘Women, who tend to be judged more
harshly both in terms of their behaviour and their appearance than men, are likely to spend
more time thinking about how they look and focus on whether they appear attentive enough on
screen.’
This takes up energy and they feel drained.
In the concluding paragraph, the author mentions ‘Office newcomers, meanwhile, don’t have
the same built-up rapport with co-workers, so they may be more worried about how they come
across to others, researchers say. As a result, they have to exert extra energy putting up the
appearance of being engaged and attentive in the meeting, which is draining and culminates
in fatigue.’
This is expressed concisely in option C.
3. D
Genre: Management
Explanation:
The author mentions in the passage that zoom fatigue is a result of camera fatigue. In the first
paragraph, he mentions ‘allowing people to turn off their cameras during meetings could make
a big difference’.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
4. C
Genre: Management
Refer to the lines in the two concluding paragraphs where the author states why camera
fatigue affects women and office newcomers more. This is summed up in the following lines of
Dr. Shockley—‘The more focus you have on trying to look like you’re engaged, the more
energy you spend and the more fatigued you’re likely to be.’
Option D is incorrect. The passage says women tend to be judged on how they appear and
therefore are under more stress when the camera is on. This does not mean that men are not
conscious of how they look.
5. D
Genre: Management
Type of question: Critical reasoning-based question
Explanation:
The author mentions in the 2nd paragraph that the degree of fatigue isn’t affected by the
amount of time spent in virtual meetings or the number of meetings attended.
Refer to the following lines: ‘According to the study published in the Journal of Applied
Psychology in August, the degree of fatigue isn’t affected by the amount of time spent in virtual
meetings or the number of meetings attended.
Option D contradicts these findings.
6. A
Sol. Resolute- determined, decided
Interim- the intervening time
The concerned sentence talks about the kind of trust that the founding fathers of the Republic put in the
parliamentary democratic system. So, we require an appropriate adjective here. Among the given options,
"resolute" fits in the blank most appropriately. Thus, option A is the correct answer.
7. C
Sol. The word “fragility” stands for the quality of being delicate or vulnerable. Since the tone in the context of
the given sentence is negative stating that India did show some signs of weakness and made some
dangerous turns, the word “fragility” is the most suitable filler for the blank. Other words are not
contextually fit.
Frugality: the quality of being economical with money or food; thriftiness

Insanity: the state of being seriously mentally ill; madness
Malleability: quality of something that can be shaped into something else without breaking
8. B
Sol. The context of the sentence in which the given blank is contained states how India made up (in the long
run) for the mistakes done in the short run by expanding the scope of democracy and by decentralizing
the power as well. Thus, “devolution” is the most suitable filler as it means ‘the transfer or delegation of
power to a lower level, especially by a central government to local or regional administration’. Other words
carry different meanings than required for the context and can be eliminated. Thus, option B is the correct
response.
Resolution: a firm decision to do or not to do something

Dissolution: the action of formally ending or dismissing an assembly, partnership, or official body.
Evolution: the process by which different kinds of living organism are believed to have developed from
earlier forms during the history of the earth.
Emancipation: the fact or process of being set free from legal, social, or political restrictions; liberation.
9. D
Sol. The word “disenfranchisement” means ‘the state of being deprived of a right or privilege, especially the
right to vote’. Although the act of filling the gaps by India in the long term has been done efficiently, it
should not be ignored that there are various problems that have affected the country’s democracy. These
problems have been stated in the passage as disinformation campaigns, corruption, disenfranchisement
of the weaker sections of the society etc.
Hence, option E is the correct response.
Note the meanings of the other alternatives too:

Emancipated - free from legal, social, or political restrictions; liberated.
Hibernation - the condition or period of an animal or plant spending the winter in a dormant state.
Disinvestment- the withdrawal or reduction of an investment.
10. A
Sol. Here, the context of the sentence talks about the critical role played by the Election Commission of India in
the democracy of India. Thus, it has been said that the body has played a crucial role in the survival/
sustenance of democracy in the country. Hence, option A is the most suitable filler. Other options are
grammatically unfit.
11. A
Sol. Answer: The correct answer is option A.
Reason: The subject of the sentence is the Prime Minister. Thus, the sentence begins with part A. The
PM launches an object. Thus contextually, part E follows part B. The digital solution has a name. Thus,
part C follows part E. Only option A offers the combination BEC. Thus, option A is the correct choice.
Sentence after rearranging:
The prime minister launched a digital payment solution named e-RUPI on Monday via video conference.
12. B
Sol. The correct answer is option B.
None of the segments except A can start the sentence. This eliminates options C, D, and E as probable
answer.
Of the two remaining options, B cannot follow A since it begins with the conjunction ‘but’ indicating that
something has come before (which is not mentioned in segment A).
Thus, it will ideally be followed by segment C, which will finish the transference of the verb ‘to stop’ from
the subject, the teacher, to the object, the fight.
Now, C can be followed by B, since in this context, ‘but’ will link to two events occurring before (the fight
and the punching) and after (the stopping of the fight) the teacher’s intervention. Segment E will follow B
since it ends in ‘had’, and thus, cannot come at the end of the sentence.
Segment D comes last, since it provides the verb ‘punched’ to complement the ‘had’ from segment E and
concludes the sentence.
Sentence after rearrangement: "The teacher tried her best to stop the fight, but not before the two
students had already punched each other."
13. D
Sol. The correct order is EACBD, which is option D.
None of the segments except E can start the sentence as it mentions the subject – ‘The King’. Fragment A
follows E as E ends with the future tense auxiliary verb ‘will’ requiring an action/main verb in the base
form, that stands sufficed by A – ‘bestow’. Now as the context mentions that the King has a plan to bestow
‘a title’, the use of conjunction ‘and’ indicates that there is an addition to it that has to be a noun. Evidently
fragment C contains the noun ‘land’ which can be bestowed. Now as C contains the preposition ‘to’ to
indicate the object of the sentence which is mentioned in fragment B, so C and B form a mandatory pair.
Last in the sequence would be D as B ends in the pronoun ‘who’ to indicate the person who is entitled to
receive the ‘title and land’. So, the correct answer is option D.
Correct sentence after rearrangement would be :
“The king will bestow a title and land to the man who saved the princess.”
14. B
Sol. Out of the given statements, only sentence C is correct.
In sentence A, an adjective (authentic) is used while a noun is required. An adjective is used
to modify a noun. Hence, 'authentic' should be replaced with 'authenticity' to make it
grammatically correct.
Sentence B implies that the school has received many grants from the education department.
'Varied' means 'incorporating a number of different types or elements; showing variation or
variety'. It does not convey the intended meaning. It should be replaced with 'various'
meaning 'more than one; several' to make the sentence contextually correct.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
15. D
Sol. Out of the given sentences, both A and B are correct.
'Slack' means 'not taut or held tightly in position; loose'. For example, the string around the parcel was
slack.
However, an adjective that means 'efficient' should be used to modify the noun 'gearbox'. Therefore, 'slack'
should be replaced with 'slick' meaning 'done or operating in an impressively smooth and efficient way' to
make the sentence contextually correct.

16. D
Sol. The correct answer is option D.
The emboldened part needs to comprise of adjectives that can aptly qualify ‘process’. As such,
‘exhausted’, being a verb, is contextually incorrect, and should be changed to the participle ‘exhausting’,
which will act as an adjective.
17. C
Sol. The correct answer is option C.

The mistake in the emboldened part lies in the use of the base form of the verb with the auxiliary ‘was’ to
form the simple past tense. ‘Accuse’ needs to be replaced with the past form ‘accused’ to be
grammatically correct. Thus, option C is the best replacement for the emboldened part.
18. D
Sol. The correct answer is option E.
The emboldened phrase has been used correctly in the sentence, which is in past perfect tense.
19. A
Sol.
Note that, if something causes the other then we use “linked to”. But in above sentence we can clearly
conclude that stammering cannot be caused by low self-confidence. Hence, option A is the correct
answer.
20. D
Sol. The blank needs to be filled with an adverb to qualify the following adjective ‘close-knit’,
meaning tightly united. This leaves option D as the only apt choice for the blank.
Crescendo: a gradual, steady increase in loudness or force.
Credibility: trustworthiness.
21. A
Sol. The word needs to be filled with a adjective that will maintain parallelism with the preceding
adjective ‘rural’, meaning rustic. The only word that meets the criteria is ‘urban’, which,
besides being an adjective, also helps to draw a contrast with ‘rural’ to denote the ‘change in
pace’ being discussed in the sentence. Thus, option A is the correct answer.
Arrear: something overdue in payment; a debt that remains unpaid.
22. C
Sol. The blank needs to be filled by an adjective to relate the subject (her) to the object (new
friends). As such, ‘attached’, meaning to like someone or something very much, in this case,
the new friends at the new school, fits the blank perfectly. Thus, option C is the correct answer.
23. A
Sol. The blank needs to be filled by a verb to denote the course of action taken by the subject. This
makes options A, B, and E valid for the blank. However, since the blank is preceded by ‘to’, it
needs to be filled by a verb in the base form to form an infinitive, thereby eliminating ‘spent’.
And ‘expend’, meaning to pay out or disburse, is contextually incorrect. Thus, option A,
‘spend’, in the correct answer.
24. B
Sol. In the context of the sentence, ‘inspection’, meaning evaluation, is the most appropriate word
for the blank. Thus, option B is the correct answer.
Insertion: to put something inside something else.
Insurgence: an act of rebellion; insurrection; revolt.
Insulation: segregation
Invasion: entering forcefully as an enemy.
25. B
Sol. Guilt: noun
1. the fact or state of having committed an offense, crime, violation, or wrong, especially against moral or
penal law; culpability.
2. a feeling of responsibility or remorse for some offense, crime, wrong, etc., whether real or imagined. (as
used in statement II)
The tone of statement I indicates the correct word to be used in the context of the statement is ‘guild’: an
organization of persons with related interests, goals, etc., especially one formed for mutual aid or
protection. (as in a guild of businessmen)
The tone of statement III indicates that the correct word to be used in the context of the statement is ‘hilt’:
(n.) the handle of a sword or dagger.
Thus, option B is the correct answer.

26. C
Sol. Grant:
1. verb (used with object): to bestow or confer, especially by a formal act: (as used in sentence I)
2. Noun: something granted, as a privilege or right, a sum of money, or a tract of land. (as used in
sentence III)
The tone of sentence II indicates that ‘grant’ needs to be replaced by ‘grunt’: verb (used without object): to
utter the deep, guttural sound characteristic of a pig.
Thus, the word ‘grant’ has been used correctly in both I and III, making option C the correct answer.
27. C
Sol. The correct answer: Option C.
Reason: ‘Consider’ is a verb which means to think carefully about (something), typically
before making a decision.
In sentence 1, it has been correctly used to portray how the subject (she) thought about a
degree.
In sentence 2, it has been correctly used to point out the action needed to understand the
current scenario in a prison system.
This makes option C the correct answer.
Why other options are not the correct answer:
Sentence 3 talks about how the subject (I) did not want to be discourteous (impolite) and so
the solution was to ‘consider’ the object (them). By using ‘but’ the sentence establishes that
the two clauses ( I ... discourteous / the only ... them) are opposite. ‘Consider’ can also mean
to look attentively at. If someone is being impolite, then they will not be looking at others
attentively. Thus, ‘consider’ cannot be used in sentence 3.
28. D
Sol. The term excavate means make (a hole or channel) by digging. It also means remove earth carefully from
(an area) in order to find buried remains. This makes it perfect in sentence I and II. In the third sentence,
the word should be excruciating to make the sentence correct. Thus, option D is the correct answer.
29. D
Sol. Tire (noun) means a rubber covering, typically inflated or surrounding an inflated inner tube, placed round
a wheel to form a soft contact with the road. [But because the spelling holds good only in American
English and the banking exams prefer British English, we cannot consider this option in the correct
answer].
Tire (Verb) means feel or cause to feel in need of rest or sleep. The word ‘tire’ fits perfectly in statement I
and III. However, it does not make any sense in sentence II. Thus, option D is the correct answer.
30. C
Sol. The term Alien means:
(a) belonging to a foreign country.
(b) a foreigner, especially one who is not a naturalized citizen of the country where he or she is living.
(c) a hypothetical or fictional being from another world.
Given the meaning, alternative A and B is synonymous while alternative C and D are not. Thus, option C
is the correct answer.
31. B
Sol. The word Hurt means:
a. cause pain or injury to weaken or damage.
b. cause distress.
c. physical pain or distress.
The following term means:
Impair: weaken or damage (something, especially a faculty or function)
Offend: cause to feel upset, annoyed, or resentful.
Thus, alternatives B, C and D are synonymous to hurt. Thus, option B is the correct answer.
32. C
Sol. The phrase “eye to eye” means agreeing with someone. For example: “They finally saw eye to eye on the
business deal.”
Thus, option C is the correct answer.
33. B
Sol. To do something “once in a blue moon” means to do it very rarely. Thus, option B is the correct answer.
34. B
Sol. Abhor = to regard with disgust and hatred.
Sneer = to show that you have no respect for somebody/something by the expression on your face or the
way that you speak
Ridicule = unkind words or actions that make someone or something look stupid
Tease = to laugh at someone or say unkind things about them, either because you are joking or because
you want to upset that person
Hence, option B is the correct option.

35. D
Sol. Let's understand the meaning of the given words:
Rotation = movement in a circle around a fixed point
Wheel = a circular object used for making vehicles or parts of machines move
Sequence = a series of related things or events, or the order in which they follow each other
Periodicity = the quality or character of being periodic; the tendency to recur at intervals.
Hence, option D is the correct option.

36. B
Sol. The term Emulate means “to copy something achieved by someone else and try to do it as well as they
have”.
The meaning of the following words:
Initiate: to cause something to begin
Imitate: to behave in a similar way to someone or something else, or to copy the speech or behaviour, etc.
of someone or something
Interrogate: to ask someone a lot of questions for a long time in order to get information, sometimes using
threats or violence
Interest: the feeling of wanting to give your attention to something or of wanting to be involved with and to
discover more about something
Insinuate: to suggest, without being direct, that something unpleasant is true
Thus, option B is the most appropriate choice.

37. A
Sol. The phrase ‘get on’ means to perform or make progress in a specified way. As per the context of the
passage, Women are making progress by being a part of the corporate boards. Thus, out of all the
options, option A is the correct choice.
38. C
Sol. The term ‘lip service’ means ‘to say that you agree with something but do nothing to support it’
The meaning of the following words are:
Disdain: the feeling of not liking someone or something and thinking that they do not deserve your interest
or respect
Hypocrisy: a situation in which someone pretends to believe something that they do not really believe, or
that is the opposite of what they do or say at another time
Affirmation: to state something as true
Thus, option C is the most suitable alternative to ‘lip service’.

39. A
Sol. The passage states that “Some firms may be paying only lip service to the idea of female leadership. A
paper in a journal highlights the phenomenon of “twokenism”, a statistical bunching of American
companies with exactly two female directors. The authors suggest this is directly related to the average
number of female directors on S&P 1500 boards in the period studied (2004-13), which was 1.92. By
opting for two women, businesses could claim they had “above average” female representation.” Thus,
option A is the correct answer.
40. D
Sol. The passage states that “This suggests that younger women are making good progress in the boardroom.
Overall, however, females are still lagging behind the males. The proportion of people in leadership roles
(director-level and above) that is female in the five countries varies from 17% in India to 35% in America.
Britain has seen a clear advance; a campaign there called the 30% club has managed to increase the
share of female directors of FTSE 100 companies from 12.5% in 2010 to 30.6%.”
This makes statement I false and statements II and III true. Thus, option D is the correct answer.
41. C
Sol. The first statement contradicts the arguments made in the passage and gender pay gap is a reality. That
makes the first statement false.
Similarly, the passage states “Nevertheless, the OECD found last year that full-time employed women with
a college degree earned, on average, 26% less than their male equivalents.” This makes statement II
false.
The third statement is true because the passage states “board members may be able push through more
female-friendly policies lower down in their organisations. But the vast majority of women would never
expect to become directors.” Thus, option C is the correct choice.
42. D
Sol. From the paragraph, two things must be included in the summary, i.e., ‘combining the roles of a
courthouse, prison, lordly home and stronghold’ and ‘far from being a welcome or comforting sight, they
were often the source of considerable misery.’ It can be observed in option D.
Option A: ‘By the 18th-century castles were more likely to be invaded by tourists than soldiers’, can’t be
deciphered from the paragraph.
Option B: That 'castles lost their military function’, can’t be deciphered from the paragraph.
Option C: It can be said that this option is opposite of what has been mentioned in the paragraph.
Option E: That their functional capacity was 'nullified’ can’t be deciphered from the paragraph.
Therefore, option D is the apt answer.
43. A
Sol. The paragraph is about the word ‘neoliberal’ and how its meaning has changed over time. Earlier it was
used in a positive sense. Despite the liberal component of the word neoliberal, the prefix ‘neo’ has
undergone the change from ‘new’ to ‘fake.’ Why fake? Because the paragraph says ‘neoliberal is used to
refer to someone who bills themselves as a liberal but promotes ideas that actually inhibit individuals’ well-
being.’ Thereby option A becomes the apt answer.

Option B: It is hard to decipher from the paragraph.
Option C: ‘Has settled in for good’ can’t be said from the paragraph.
Option D: It does not fit in the context of the paragraph.
Option E: It is more general and has a universal appeal to it which can’t be deciphered from the
paragraph.
Therefore, option A is the apt answer.
44. C
Sol. The paragraph is about mass shooting and its aftermath.
Option A: It is one aspect of the paragraph and can’t be considered as the summary of the paragraph.
Option B: ‘No law can eliminate the risk of mass shootings’ can’t be deciphered from the paragraph.
Option D: It is an aftermath of mass shooting but not mentioned in the paragraph.
Option E: ‘How they view the apparent shift in the national conversation around gun violence’ can’t be
deciphered from the paragraph.
Option C: Connective tissue is the tissue that connects, supports, binds, or separates other tissues or
organs. Here, in the given option, connective tissue is used as a metaphor. As we know, mass shooting is
a social evil that needs to be eradicated. From the paragraph, we can decipher how mass shooting is
deep-rooted in our society which is made up of connective tissues.
Therefore, option C is the apt answer.
45. D
Sol. The blank requires an adverb to modify the following verb ‘faced’. In this context, ‘fearlessly’ is the best fit
since it maintains the tone of the sentence, while making it grammatically accurate.
46. C
Sol. The blank needs to be filled by a noun to denote a quality displayed by the student. Of the given options
only 'engineer' and 'Ingenuity' are nouns.
Thus, ‘ingenuity’ fits the context of the sentence, making option C the correct answer.
Ingenuity (Noun): the quality of being cleverly inventive or resourceful; inventiveness.
Enthusiastic: Greatly interested (Adjective)

Eager ( Adjective): very excited and interested
47. C
Sol. The blank needs to be filled by an adjective. In the context of the sentence, ‘thickened’, meaning made or
grew more intense, profound, intricate, or complex, fits the blank perfectly to qualify the features of the
play.
Thus, option C is the correct answer.

48. D
Sol. From the given segments it is clear that the sentence talks about how students would feel at a certain
time.
It should start with segment B which points out certain time period. It should be followed by part C which
mentions how students feel during this time. In third position segment A comes as it points out the reason
why students feel overwhelmed. Parts D and E comes in the fourth and fifth position respectfully to round
up the sentence. The logical sequence that we get is BCADE.
This sequence is listed under option D, making it the correct answer.
Correct Sentence – Midway through a semester, students are likely to feel overwhelmed with the amount
of homework they have to finish each day.
49. C
Sol. From the given segments it is clear that the sentence talks about ‘skill development’ and why it is a priority
for the Indian Government.
It should start with segment E which introduces the topic. It should be followed by part A which mentions
whose priority it is viz., the Government of India. In third position segment D comes as it points out how it
is considered critical. Parts C and B comes in the fourth and fifth position respectfully to round up the
sentence as they mention the reason behind it being critical. The logical sequence that we get is EADCB.
This sequence is listed under option C, making it the correct answer.
Correct Sentence – Skill development constitutes one of the national priorities of the Government of India
and is considered critical not only for achieving faster growth but also growth that is sustainable and
inclusive.
50. B
Sol. From the given segments it is clear that the sentence talks about opera.
It should start with segment A which introduces the topic and what opera refers to. Part C should take the
second position as it mentions where opera originated. The logical sequence that we get is AC.
This sequence is listed only under option B followed by DBE , making it the correct answer.
Correct Sentence – Opera refers to a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional
content is conveyed to the audience as much through music.
51. C
Sol. * India launched an online dashboard - the 'Climate Equity Monitor' to assess equity in climate
action, inequalities in emissions besides energy and resource consumption across the world.
* The “Climate Equity Monitor" also tracks the climate policies of several countries from the
perspective of developing countries.
* The website has been conceptualized and developed by independent researchers from India
-- the Climate Change Group at the M.S Swaminathan Research Foundation (MSSRF),
Chennai.
* The Climate Equity Monitor is aimed at monitoring the performance of Annex-I Parties under
the UNFCCC (developed countries) based on the foundational principles of the Climate
Convention, namely equity and the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities and
respective capabilities (CBDR-RC).
* The performance and policies of the Non Annex-I Parties (developing countries) will be also
provided for comparison.
52. D
Sol. * Largest hydrogen fuel cell power plant of the world named as ‘Shinincheon Bitdream Fuel
Cell Power Plant’ has been inaugurated at Seo-gu, Incheo in South Korea.
* It has a total capacity of 78.96 kWh and can provide electricity to nearly 250,000 households
per year.
53. D
Sol.
The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved the
restoration and continuation of Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme
(MPLADS) during the remaining part of Financial Year 2021-22 and up to Financial Year 2025-
26 co-terminus with the period of 15th Finance Commission.
The Ministry will release MPLADS fund at the rate of Rs. 2 crore per Member of Parliament for
the remaining period of FY 2021-22 in one instalment and at the rate of Rs. 5.00 crore per
annum per Member of Parliament during FY 2022-23 to FY 2025-26 in two instalments of
Rs.2.5 crore each.
About Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS):
The MPLADS is a Central Sector Scheme fully funded by the Government of India.
It was announced on 23 December 1993.
The objective of the scheme is to enable MPs to recommend works of developmental nature
with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets in the areas of drinking water,
primary education, public health, sanitation and roads, etc. primarily in their Constituencies.
54. B
Sol. According to the World Bank’s Remittance Prices Worldwide Database Report 2021, India has
become the world’s largest recipient of remittances, receiving USD 87 billion (a gain of 4.6 %
from previous year) in 2021.
India had received over USD 83 billion in remittances in 2020.
The United States was the biggest source of remittances in India, accounting for over 20
percent of these funds.
India is followed by China, Mexico, the Philippines and Egypt.
In India, remittances are projected to grow three percent in 2022 to $ 89.6 billion.
Remittances to low- and middle-income countries are projected to have grown a strong 7.3
percent to reach $589 billion in 2021.
Remittances are usually understood as financial or in-kind transfers made by migrants to
friends and relatives back in communities of origin.
55. C
Sol. Sukumar Sen (2 January 1898 – 13 May 1963) was an Indian civil servant who was the first
Chief Election Commissioner of India, serving from 21 March 1950 to 19 December 1958. V.
S. Ramadevi (15 January 1934 – 17 April 2013) was 9th Chief Election Commissioner of India
from 26 November 1990 to 11 December 1990. She was the first woman to become Chief
Election Commissioner of India. Hence option C is correct.
56. D
Sol. * ‘Vax’ has been selected as the word of the year by Oxford English Dictionary (OED) in 2021.
* It is used as a short form for vaccine and means a substance put into a person’s body to
prevent them from getting a disease.
* It was used 72 times as much as it was in 2020
57. C
Sol. * China has launched Earth science satellite named as ‘Guangmu’ into space from Taiyuan
Satellite Launch Center in the northern Shanxi Province.
* It was launched via Long March-6 carrier rocket.
* Guangmu: World’s first Earth-science satellite dedicated to serving the United Nations 2030
Sustainable Development Agenda.
* This was 395th flight mission of Long March rocket series
* It was developed by Chinese Academy of Sciences.
58. D
Sol. The Pochampally village in Telangana State has been selected as one of the best Tourism
Villages by the United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO).
The prestigious award will be given on the occasion of the 24th session of the UNWTO
General Assembly on 2nd December 2021 in Madrid, Spain.
About Pochampally Village:
Pochampally, 50 Kms from Hyderabad, is a town in Nalgonda district of Telangana and is often
referred to as the Silk City of India for the exquisite sarees that are woven through a unique
style called Ikat.
This style, Pochampally Ikat, received a Geographical Indicator (GI Status) in 2004.
In 2015, to recognise the diversity of weaving techniques and rich handloom tradition, Prime
Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the first National Handloom Day on August 7 as a tribute
to the formal proclamation of the Swadeshi Movement that was made in a meeting at the
Calcutta Town hall on the same day in 1905.
Pochampally is also known as Bhoodan Pochampally to commemorate the Bhoodan
Movement that was launched by Acharya Vinobha Bhave from this village on April 18th, 1951.
Note:
The Ministry of Tourism recommended three villages for the UNWTO Best Tourism Village
entry from India.
These were Kongthong in Meghalaya, Ladhpura Khas, Madhya Pradesh and Pochampally in
Telangana. Pochampally, was awarded by UNWTO.
About Best Tourism Villages Initiative:
The Best Tourism Villages by UNWTO Pilot initiative aims to award those villages which are
outstanding examples of rural destinations and showcase good practices in line with its
specified nine evaluation areas.
It also aims to support villages to enhance their rural tourism potential through training and
access to opportunities for improvement.
About United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO):
The World Tourism Organization is the United Nations specialized agency entrusted with the
promotion of responsible, sustainable and universally accessible tourism.
Headquarters: Madrid, Spain
Founded: 1 November 1975
59. B
Sol. The SARFAESI Act was passed on December 17, 2002, to lay down processes to help Indian
lenders quickly recover their dues. The SARFAESI Act essentially empowers banks and other
financial institutions to directly auction residential or commercial properties that have been
pledged with them to recover loans from borrowers. Before this Act took effect, financial
institutions had to take recourse to civil suits in the courts to recover their dues, which is a
lengthy and time-consuming process.
Hence, option B is correct.

60. B
Sol. Bhutanese call their home “Druk Yul” or “Land of the Thunder Dragon” in their native tongue.
Druk is the “Thunder Dragon” in Bhutanese and Tibetan mythology. It is also the Bhutanese
national symbol.
61. C
Sol. * Iran’s military began its annual war games “Zolfaghar-1400” in a coastal area of the Gulf of
Oman.
* Navy and air force units as well as ground forces were participating in a more than 1 million
square-kilometer (386,100 square-mile) area east of the strategic Strait of Hormuz.
* The war games are aimed at “improving readiness in confronting foreign threats and any
possible invasion.
* Nearly 20% of all oil shipping passes through the strait to the Gulf of Oman and Indian
Ocean.
62. A
Sol. Statement (1) is correct:
Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can
transact any business. It is one-tenth of the total number of members in each House including
the presiding officer.
Statement (2) is incorrect:
The Parliamentary Secretariat keeps a watch on the attendance in the House and informs the
Speaker.
63. D
Sol. • Gujarat has topped the logistics index chart for the third time in a row in the third LEADS
(Logistics Ease Across Different States) 2021 report unveiled by Commerce and Industry
Minister Piyush Goyal.
• Gujarat occupied the first spot among 21 states, followed by Haryana, Punjab, Tamil Nadu,
and Maharashtra in that order.
• The report ranks the states on the basis of their logistics ecosystem, highlights the key
logistics-related challenges faced by the stakeholders and includes suggestive
recommendations.
• The index aims at enhancing the focus on improving logistics performance across states
which is essential for improving the country’s trade and reducing transaction cost.
• The first logistics report was released in 2018.
64. A
Sol. * The Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. (MDL) delivered the fourth Scorpene Submarine of
Project P-71 to the Indian Navy which will be commissioned as ‘INS Vela’.
* The MDL has earlier delivered submarines Kalvari, Khanderi, and Karanja to the Navy.
* The fifth submarine in the series, Vagir, was launched on November 12, 2020 and has
commenced her harbour trials and is likely to go for her maiden surface sortie on December
21, while the sixth one is in an advanced stage of outfitting.
* Two SSK submarines built by MDL in 1992 and 1994 are still in service today.
65. D
Sol. Statement (1) is incorrect:
It was the First Amendment in 1951 along with Article 31-B that marked the addition of the
Ninth Schedule to the Constitution. This was intended to protect land reform laws from being
challenged in courts on the grounds of violation of fundamental rights.
Statement (2) is incorrect:
Article 31-B gives validation to laws enacted under it and placed in the Ninth Schedule. Article
31-B makes such laws immune to challenge in a court of law even if such a law violates
fundamental rights. In 2007, IR Coelho versus State of Tamil Nadu case, the Supreme Court
upheld the authority of the Judiciary to review any law put in the 9th Schedule. It upheld the
'Basic Structure Doctrine', and the authority of the Judiciary to review any such laws, which
destroy or damage the basic structure. This case is popularly known as The Ninth Schedule
Case. Any law placed under Ninth Schedule after April 23, 1973, is subject to scrutiny of
Court's if they violate fundamental rights and thus put a check on the misuse of the provision
of the Ninth Schedule by the Legislature.
66. A
Sol. * The United States of America has become the 101st member country to join the International
Solar Alliance (ISA).
* The framework was first circulated for the support of countries in 2016. It emphasises
delivering global relevance and local benefit to all countries through collaborations, with the
ISA’s key interventions focusing on readiness and enabling activities, risk mitigation and
innovative financing instruments to facilitate the promotion and deployment of solar
technologies in target markets.
* ISA is an alliance of 124 countries. It was initiated by India. Most of the member countries
are sunshine countries, lying either partly or completely between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic
of Capricorn. This alliance was launched with the objective of working for efficient
consumption of solar energy and reduce dependence on fossil fuels. It was first proposed by
Prime Minister Narendra Modi in November 2015. It is a treaty-based inter-governmental
organization. It is the largest grouping of states across the world.
* ISA is headquartered in Gurugram, India. Its foundation stone was laid by Narendra Modi,
and French President Francois Hollande in 2016.
67. A
Sol. * Union Minister for Agriculture & Farmers Welfare Shri Narendra Singh Tomar addressed a
National Conference on “International Year of Fruits and Vegetables” organized by the Ministry
of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare in collaboration with the Food and Agriculture
Organization of the United Nations.
* The Minister also released operational guidelines for the Horticulture Cluster Development
Programme and QR code of the guidelines.
* The conference was organized as part of the celebration of the “International Year of Fruits
and Vegetables, 2021” declared by United Nations Organization.
* The theme for this year is “Awareness about the nutritional benefits of fruits and vegetables
for balanced and healthy diet and life style.”
68. A
Sol.
The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) designated
Srinagar as a part of UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) 2021.
Srinagar has been designated the creative city in the field of Crafts and Folk Arts.
UNESCO designated 49 cities as part of the creative cities network. With this, the total number
of creative cities in the world has reached 295 across 90 countries.
After Hyderabad, Varanasi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Jaipur, Srinagar is the 6th Indian city to
achieve this distinction.
Indian Cities on UCCN:
Srinagar - Crafts and Folk Arts (2021)
Hyderabad – Gastronomy (2019)
Mumbai – Film (2019)
Chennai- Music (2017)
Varanasi- Music (2015)
Jaipur- Crafts and Folk Arts (2015)
About UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN):
It is a project of UNESCO launched in 2004 to promote cooperation among cities which
recognized creativity as a major factor in their urban development.
UNESCO designates the creative cities in seven fields — Craft, Folk Art, Media Arts,
Gastronomy, Film Design, Literature and Music.
69. A
Sol. * Aral Sea, Kazakh Aral Tengizi, Uzbek Orol Dengizi, a once-large saltwater lake of Central
Asia. It straddles the boundary between Kazakhstan to the north and Uzbekistan to the south.
70. D
Sol. Pancreas is both endocrine and exocrine gland. The pancreas is unique in that it’s both an endocrine and
exocrine gland. In other words, the pancreas has the dual function of secreting hormones into blood
(endocrine) and secreting enzymes through ducts (exocrine). organs release their products (usually
hormones) directly into the blood.
The pancreas contains islets of Langerhans which are made up of alpha and beta cells. Beta
cells secrete insulin and alpha cells secrete glucagon. The islets of Langerhans monitor blood
glucose concentration. Insulin and glucagon are hormones that help maintain a healthy blood
glucose concentration.
Exocrine organs release secretions through a duct. The pancreas is an exocrine gland
because nervous or hormonal stimulation causes pancreatic secretions to be released into the
duodenum through a duct.
71. C
Sol. * Arunachal Pradesh state government has approved “Kaiser-i-Hind” as state butterfly.
* Kaiser-i-Hind’ is a large and brightly coloured butterfly.
* It is an elusive swallowtail butterfly, which carries ‘India’ in its name.
* It is found in China and now it has been approved as the State butterfly of Arunachal
Pradesh.
* Kaiser-i-Hind is scientifically known as Teinopalpus imperialis. In literal terms, it means
Emperor of India. The butterfly is having a wingspan of 90-120 mm.
72. D
Sol. * Indore has been ranked as the cleanest city of India for the fifth year in a row by Swachh
Survekshan 2021. Indore was followed by Surat and Vijayawada with over 10 lakh population.
* Swachh Survekshan: It is an annual survey of cleanliness, hygiene and sanitation in cities
and towns across India.
73. A
Sol. • El Salvador President Nayib Bukele has announced to build the world’s first Bitcoin City in
the country
• This new city is planned to be developed in the eastern region of La Union and will be initially
funded by bitcoin-backed bonds.
• It would get geothermal power from a volcano.
• Bitcoin City will not levy any taxes except for value added tax (VAT).
• One half of this VAT levied will be used to fund the bonds issued to build the city and the next
half would be used to pay for services such as garbage collection.
74. C
Sol. Hindenburg Line is a boundary between Poland and Germany . It was a German Defensive
line in French territory during World War I.
75. B
Sol. The difference between the average interest rate that governments pay on their debt and the
nominal growth rate of the economy is known as IRGD (Interest Rate Growth Differential). It is
a key variable for debt dynamics and sovereign sustainability analysis. Hence, option B is
correct.
76. B
Sol. This year’s Nobel laureates in Economics – David Card, Joshua Angrist and Guido Imbens –
have provided us with new insights about the labour market and shown what conclusions
about cause and effect can be drawn from natural experiments. Their approach has spread to
other fields and revolutionised empirical research. Hence, option B is correct.
77. D
Sol. * India has made no progress on anaemia and childhood wasting according to the 2021 Global Nutrition
Report (GNR, 2021) released by WHO.
* The country featured among the 161 countries documented in the report as having made no progress or
said to be worsening with regards to reducing anaemia.
* Over half of Indian women in the age group 15-49 years are anaemic, according to the report.
* There has been a rise in anaemic Indian women since 2016. In 2016, 52.6 per cent of Indian women
were anaemic. But in 2020, 53 per cent were found to be anaemic.
78. D
Sol. • Union Commerce and Industry Minister, Piyush Goyal inaugurated the 40th edition of the
India International Trade Fair (IITF) 2021 at Pragati Maidan in Delhi.
• It was organised by the India Trade Promotion Organisation with ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ as
the theme and to further promote the idea of ‘Vocal for Local’.
• An estimated 3,000 exhibitors from India and abroad have participated in the fair. The fair
was not held in 2020 due to the COVID-19.
• Piyush Goyal listed five pillars of India as Economy, Exports, Infrastructure, Demand, and
Diversity.
• Partner state: Bihar is the partner state for the 40th IITF and the focus states are Uttar
Pradesh and Jharkhand.
79. A
Sol. * Summit for Democracy is being hosted by United States virtually to renew democracy at
home and confront autocracies abroad.
* Three themes: defending against authoritarianism; addressing and fighting corruption; and
advancing respect for human rights.
80. A
Sol. The Andes contain the highest peaks in the Western Hemisphere along with several
volcanoes that make up the eastern margin of the Pacific “Ring of Fire.” The highest peak is
Mount Aconcagua (22,831 feet [6,959 meters]) on the border of Argentina and Chile.
81. B
Sol. The principle clearly states that whoever takes or entices any minor or any person of unsound mind, out of
the keeping of the lawful guardian of such minor or person of unsound mind, without the consent of such
guardian, is said to kidnap such minor or person from lawful Guardianship. In the above case, Sameer
asked Sneha, irrespective of her consent, Sneha being a minor, Sameer has committed an offence of
kidnapping.
82. D
Sol. The principle states that whoever takes or entices any minor under sixteen years of age if a male, or under
eighteen years of age if a female, or any person of unsound mind, out of the keeping of the lawful
guardian of such minor or person of unsound mind, without the consent of such guardian, is said to kidnap
such minor or person from lawful Guardianship. In the above case, Siddharth took Sanchi from Rohan
who is not a lawful guardian of Sanchi. Thus, Siddharth cannot be said to have committed kidnapping,
though he may be liable for abduction. Thus, correct option will be none of the above.
83. B
Sol. Principle 1 that any man who follows a woman and contacts, or attempts to contact such woman to foster
personal interaction repeatedly despite a clear indication of disinterest by such woman commits the
offence of stalking. But, here Rohit, does not attempt to contact the famous actress nor there is any action
of disinterest by the actress. Further, the instagram profile is open to public judgment and opinion, thus,
Rohit has not committed any offence.
84. C
Sol. The principle states culpable homicide is not murder if the offender is deprived of the power of self-control
by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of the person who gave the provocation or causes the
death of any other person by mistake or accident. Thus, Karan on provocation by Ramesh killed the baby
(who did not give the provocation) involuntarily and accidently, therefore, he is not liable for murder and
punishable for the offence of culpable homicide only.
85. C
Sol. Second principle states that fracture or dislocation of tooth amounts to grievous hurt. Thus, though Raman
was not able to disfigure Rajesh’s face, he knocked down a tooth of Rajesh, and thus, within the provision
of grievous hurt and therefore, liable.
86. A
Sol. The principle states that a contract is not voidable because it was caused by a mistake as to any law in
force in India but a mistake as to a law not in force in India has the same effect as a mistake of fact. Thus,
where Rohan and Sohan were under a mistake as to a particular law in force in India, the contract is valid.
87. A
Sol. the principle clearly states that where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter
of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void. Thus, in the present case both of the parties
were under mistake of fact, therefore, contract is void.
88. A
Sol. Principle 2 clearly states that an erroneous opinion as to value of the thing which forms subject matter of
the agreement, is not mistake as to matter of fact. Thus, the contract is valid.
89. C
Sol. Principle 2 clearly states that if the consent was caused by misrepresentation or by silence, the contract,
nevertheless, is not voidable, if the party whose consent was so caused had the means of discovering the
truth with ordinary diligence. Thus, Deepika failed to check the title deeds and registration of the land,
thus, wilfully and negligently avoided to discover the truth. Hence. The contract is not voidable.
90. D
Sol. The principle clearly states that the consideration or object of an agreement is lawful, unless the Court
regards it as immoral, or opposed to public policy. Thus, the above case the agreement is with to letting a
woman for concubinage is void as the object of contract is immoral.
91. B
Sol. The principle clearly states that no child below the age of 14 years shall be employed to work in any
factory or mine or any industry engaged in hazardous work. In the above case, it cannot be said that
cleaning of tables is associated with working in a factory or mine of any hazardous work.
92. C
Sol. Principle 2 clearly states that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special
provision for women and children. Thus, the state to improve women participation in government sector
can make such reservation in exams.
93. A
Sol. Principle 1 states that all citizens shall have the right to freedom of speech and expression. Principle 2
states that in exercising right to speech reasonable restrictions can be imposed, in the interests of the
sovereignty and integrity of India or the security of the State, friendly relations with Foreign States, public
order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of Court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
Reading the two in consonance the publisher has in no case defamed the saint as the same was
published in good faith and in interest of public. Also, the published book only states the true events of the
life of the saint.
94. A
Sol. Principle 1 states that the provisions contained in directive principles of state policy shall not be
enforceable by any Court, but the principles therein laid down are only fundamental in the governance of
the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. Thus, it is only a
duty of state to ensure uniform civil code but, the same is not enforceable in court of law.
95. C
Sol. The principle clearly states that fundamental rights cannot be suspended except in accordance with law. In
the given question the police officer who entered the house of Rohan without due inquiry and search
warrant cannot be said to have acted in accordance with law and has thus, violated the fundamental right
to privacy of Rohan.
96. D
Sol. The principle states that whoever by words either spoken or intended to be read, or by signs or by visible
representations, makes or publishes any imputation concerning any person intending to harm, or knowing
or having reason to believe that such imputation will harm, the reputation of such person, is said to
defame that person. Thus, Reema did not publish the information in any case and not liable for
defamation.
97. C
Sol. The principle clearly states that a careless person is liable for his negligence when he owes a duty of care
towards others. Thus, the truck driver was duly driving in his lane. He only acted in a manner to avoid the
accident and cannot be said to have acted in a negligent manner. Thus, he is not liable.
98. C
Sol. The principle clearly states that a master is liable for the acts committed by his servant in the course of
employment. Fighting during employment, cannot be said to be an act associated in course of
employment. Therefore, Ram is not liable.
99. D
Sol. The principle states that damage to a person without legal injury to that person is not actionable in the
court of law. Thus, though damage is caused to Rahul, no legal injury is caused and hence, no
compensation or damages can be claimed by Rahul.
100. A
Sol. The principle states that injury without damage is actionable. Thus, a legal right to vote has been violated
by Rajan, though no damage has been caused to Salil. Notwithstanding, Rajan is liable.
101. D
Sol. The principle provides that making allegations against a person without any element of truth
also constitutes defamation where the person's reputation in the society suffers; especially in
the eyes of reasonable and prudent people. In the present case, Robin was acquitted by the
court of law since the prosecution was unable to prove the charge against him. Moreover,
Robert's act of abusing Robin in front of the people of the society and calling him a traitor has
no element of truth in it. And hence, Robin will succeed in his suit as the statement made by
Robert was defamatory in nature. Therefore, option D provides the most appropriate rationale
for this reasoning.
102. C
Sol. It is given in the principle that the right of self-defence in no case extends to inflicting more
harm than it is necessary to inflict for the purpose of defence. The present scenario is a valid
case of exercising the right of self-defence. Here in this case, Tyagi had received twelve
injuries on his body and he would not have survived if he had received any more bullet injuries
as revealed by the diagnosis. Hence, Tyagi can exercise self-defence in this case. Therefore,
option C deducing the most appropriate rationale for this reasoning.
103. B
Sol. The principle provides that a wrongdoer has no remedy in law unless the other party has also
done wrong. Here in this case, X is responsible for the death of Rajoo because what he did
was in excess of what he was required to do to protect his property. Electrification of the
boundary wall is such a dangerous act in itself that it may cause more harm than required in
order to protect one's property. Therefore, option B provides the most appropriate rationale for
this reasoning.
104. A
Sol. The principle provides that a minor who fraudulently presents that he is a major, is not stopped
from taking the defence of a minority to avoid the contract. Hence, it is quite clear from the
principle that X can validly plead that he is a minor and he can avoid the payment. Therefore,
option A provides the most appropriate rationale for this reasoning.
105. A
Sol. It is given in the principle that where the relation between the parties are such that one of the
parties is in a position to dominate the will of the other party and thereby obtain an unfair
advantage by using such influence, then such a contract is voidable. In the present case, The
devotee gifted the property under the influence of the spiritual Guru, hence the contract is
voidable. Therefore, option A provides the most appropriate rationale for this reasoning.
106. A
Sol. Part III of the Indian Constitution provides that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of
conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion which is subject to
public order, morality and health. In the present case, The action of the school authorities is
violative of their right to speech which includes the right to silence as well. Their refusal, while
so standing, to join in the singing of the National Anthem was neither disrespectful of it nor
inconsistent with the fundamental duties. Therefore, option A provides the most appropriate
rationale for this reasoning.
107. D
Sol. An assault is an attempt to do a corporeal hurt to another, coupled with an apparent present
ability and intention to do that act. A battery is the intentional and direct application of any
physical force to the person of another. Here in this case, Biku decided to play a practical joke
on Aman. Hence, Biku's act amounts to neither because there was no intention. Therefore,
option D provides the most appropriate rationale for this reasoning.
108. B
Sol. A libel is a publication of a false and defamatory statement tending to injure the reputation of
another person without lawful justification or excuse. Here in this case, Y will not succeed
because it was not written in a newspaper and it was not published either. Therefore, option B
supports the rationale of this reasoning.
109. A
Sol. The principle clearly mentioned that a master is liable for the acts of his servant as long as he
can control the working of his servant. Here in this case, the driver can be treated like an
Independent contractor and for the wrong committed by him during the course of employment,
his master i.e. X can't be held liable anyway. Hence, X is not liable because X was not driving
the car. Therefore, option A provides the most appropriate rationale for this reasoning.
110. B
Sol. It is mentioned in the principle that when a criminal act is done by one person in
furtherance of the common intention of himself and some other persons, each of such
persons is liable for the act in the same manner as if it were done by each one of them. Here
in this case, stabbing Tom by P is a Criminal act in itself. But, along with P, Q and R are also
guilty of murder because P, at the time of stabbing Tom, was acting on behalf of Q and R and
he wanted to save not only himself but Q and R as well. Therefore, option B provides the most
appropriate rationale for this reasoning.
111. C
Sol. A person is liable for any damage which is the direct consequence of his/her unlawful act, as
long as the consequence could have been foreseen by a reasonable person. Here in this
case, Y suffered from hypothermia and had to be hospitalised for a week and it was not the
direct consequence of X's act. Hence, X will not be liable because he did not know that Y
would suffer from hypothermia. Therefore, option C deducing the most appropriate rationale
for this reasoning.
112. A
Sol. The principle provides that the owner of a land is entitled to the column of air space above the
surface ad infinitum. But, the right is restricted to such height as is necessary for the ordinary
use and employment of his land, and the structure on it. Here in this case, X will succeed
since Y's act amounts to trespass because the hoarding was protruded over X's house.
Therefore, option A is the correct rationale for this reasoning.
113. C
Sol. It is given in the principle that trespass to land is the wrongful and unwarranted entry upon the
land of another. Here in this case, Sushant purchased a ticket to watch a 3-D movie in a
theatre. It means he has the authority to remain inside the theatre till the show ends, but he
refused to leave even after the show. Hence, the owner of the theatre will succeed since
Sushant's authorization to remain in the theatre ends with the show. Therefore, option C
deducing the most appropriate rationale for this reasoning.
114. C
Sol. Under the Criminal Justice system, a breach of a duty caused by an omission to do something
which a reasonable person would do or an act which a prudent and reasonable person would
not do, is called negligence. The principle provides that an action for negligence proceeds
upon the principle that the person has an obligation or duty on the part of the defendant, which
he/she breaches, leading to damage. Here in this case, we have to note that there is no
real damage caused, which is required for an action against negligence. Hence, Dr.
Gulati will not be liable for negligence since no real damage was done. Therefore, option C
deducing the most appropriate rationale for this reasoning.
115. B
Sol. An agreement becomes a contract when it is entered into between two or more people with
each other's free consent. Two or more people are said to consent when they agree to the
same thing in the same sense. Hence, there is a contract between Rajat and the Doctor in
this case. But, this is not a valid contract since Rajat had no other option, but to sign;
which amounts to undue influence. The principle clearly stated that Consent is said to be
free when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake.
Therefore, option B provides the most appropriate rationale for this reasoning.
116. C
Sol. Anemometer is a device which is used to measure wind speed and direction. Likewise, a
Sphygmomanometer is an instrument which is used to measure blood pressure.

117. A
Sol.
F is to the South-west of A. So, he is to the south-west from his starting point.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.

118. B
Sol. Pattern is:
77-12=77-1=76
76+22=76+4=80
80-32=80-9=71
71+42=71+16=87
87-52=87-25=62
62+62=62+36=98

119. D
Sol. Let A=1, B=2, C=3,………….Z=26
as,
TARGET =20+1+18+7+5+20= 71=17
and
SILK =19+9+12+11=51= 15
Therefore, FROST=6+18+15+19+20=78 = 87
120. C
Sol. A clock tells us the time likewise a thermometer is used to measure the temperature.

121. A
Sol. Apply Formula,
We know that angle traced by hour hand in 12 hrs. = 360°
From 5 to 8, there are 3 hours.
Angle traced by the hour hand in 3 hours =3*(360/12)=90°
Hence, the option A is the correct answer.
122. A
Sol.
As per the given information;
Clearly, Aniket is the Grandson of Priyanka.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.
123. D
Sol. The pattern is as follows:
Similarly,
124. C
Sol. The pattern is as follows:
Similarly,

125. B
Sol.
But,

126. B
Sol. As per the given information;
Clearly, Durga is the niece of Amar.

127. D
Sol. As Entomology is the scientific study of insects likewise, Palaeontology is the scientific study of life
basically it focuses on fossil data.

128. B
Sol.

129. D
Sol. 7+4+1+5=17
3+4+3+7=17
5+4+5+3=17
7+4+3+7=21

130. D
Sol. The given series is a combination of two arithmetic progressions with common differences as +5 and +4
respectively.
181 + 5 = 186
186 + 5 = 191
191 + 5 = 196
174 + 4 = 178
178 + 4 = 182
182 + 4 = 186
Hence, option D is the correct answer

131. B
Sol. The hands of the clock makes zero degrees with each other 11 times in 12 hours.
Therefore, in 11 days i.e. 11*24 hours it would coincide 242 times.
Hence, the option B is the correct answer.

132. A
Sol. Given
Z < A, A > B = G, H > G = U, H > V > U
Combining the statements, we have
H>V>U=G=B<A<Z
Now,
Z < G ……….. false as (G = B < A < Z)
G < V ……… True as (V > U = G)
Therefore, II follows.
133. B
Sol. Let’s look at this thing objectively:
Conclusion I can’t be followed because it is just plain wrong. Even though the 3rd wave does
not seem to be as deadly as the 2nd one, it does not mean there is no threat to lives at all. It’s
just that the situation will not be as bad as it was the last time. However, one, especially the
government, need not remain casual about the situation.
On the other hand, conclusion II can be easily followed because it encompasses all the
aspects of the situation perfectly. The world can relax a bit due to the less severe nature of the
pandemic. Yet, the world needs to be wary of the threat. Hence, option B is the right answer.
134. C
Sol. Here, both the conclusions follow. While the government’s decision to keep the economy open
can have grave consequences, given last wave’s experiences, it also needs to be kept in mind
that we can’t just ignore economy. The lockdowns resulted in the loss of livelihood for a big
chunk of people and for that, the economic activities need to continue. Hence, option C is the
right answer.
135. A
Sol. Here, conclusion I follows because it is pretty clear that since the school administration is hell
bent on not giving admission to those who do not fall under the criteria, the school
administration must be pretty strict regarding its policies.
On the other hand, conclusion II sounds more like an opinion than a conclusion. Conclusion II
is voucihing for those people who are unable to get an admission due to such measures.
Hence, it can’t be termed as a conclusion. Hence, option A is the right answer.
136. D
Sol. Here, both the conclusions can be negated simply because of the fact that they sound more
like hardlined opinions than conclusions.
If we state that the given decision will surely improve the air quality index, we are simply
ignoring the impact other factors can have on the decision. Maybe people won’t resort to
public modes of transportation and in that case, the given conclusion will simply fail. Hence,
conclusion I is rejected.
Similarly, we can’t just reject the idea that the air quality index has nothing to do with people’s
mode of transportation. It’s a known fact that the the more people use private modes of
transportation, the more difficult it gets for the government to limit pollution. Hence, conclusion
II is also rejected and hence, option D is the right answer.
137. A
Sol. Here, only Inference I follows.
Inference II can be rejected because we can’t just downplay someone else’s accomplishments
just because he has worked in a different environment. Experience is what matters and hence,
inference II is rejected.
On the other hand, Inference I ideally follows because it factors in the possibility that Mr. A
would gel in the company well, given his experience. Hence, option A is the right answer.
138. B
Sol. Inference I can’t be followed because from the context, we can’t explicitly infer that the many
people have found the scheme to be boring. Besides, people finding the scheme to be boring
does not make any sense in the given context. Hence, I can’t be followed.
On the other hand, it is a valid point that the government’s way of implementing the scheme is
going to be puzzling, given the sheer scale of the job and the challenges that usually goes with
implementing any such innovative schemes . Hence, option B is the right answer.
139. C
Sol. Here, both the inferences follow.
Since the government has put restrictions of movie theatres and malls, it must have been
taken to ensure public health remains in good shape. And this must have been taken in the
light of COVID-19 threatening out lives once again because if there is not threat to public
health, then the government would not have taken such measures that curb economic activity.
Hence, both inferences follow.
140. A
Sol. Here, II does not follow because it gets way out of the context. And even if we consider it be a
surprise from the university, that does not mean it will be a surprise for everyone because the
candidates consider to be yet another challenge to their doctoral degrees. Besides, it just
doesn’t feel apt under the given circumstances and hence, it is rejected.
I can be a valid inference because the university can do all this exercise to make sure the
doctoral candidates are thoroughly tested and only the best prevail. And this will result in
building the profile of the university. Hence, option A is the right answer.
141. B
Sol. Here, the answer must be option A. Since we are witnessing the COVID-19 pandemic hands
on, we can make a rough estimate about the number the years the pandemic is going to be a
part of our lives. Hence, we can definitely say that the assertion is true.
On the other hand, it has been a known fact the pamdemics of the past had also taken so
many years to finally subside. Hence, the reason is also true. But it can’t be the correct
explanation for the assertion because it is not a logical explanation.
Pandemic of yesteryears took this much amount of time because of less technological
advancements, poor health standards and many more such factors. Since then, mankind have
evolved leaps and bounds and those factors that are relevant back then might not be relevant
now. Hence, option B is the right answer.
142. A
Sol.
Aptitude is basically an inborn ability to do something, which does not require a certain skillset.
So, a case can be made against the fact that one can pass aptitude based exams. However,
the assertion talks about the likelihood of one failing the exam if they don’t study and hence,
we can definitely say that there is a chance a person might fail due to lack of preparation.
Hence, assertion is true.
Now, it is obvious that studying prepares you for the worst case scenario of the exam and
hence, if you study, there are chances you might succeed in clearing the exam. Hence, the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion and hence, option A is the right answer.
143. D
Sol. The correct answer is option E, i.e. All are strong.
The first step to approach this question is to read the statement carefully and then look upon the
immediate inferences that can be drawn on the basis of our first reading. The next step is to look at the
arguments given in the options, analyze them carefully and see if they seem relevant with respect to the
information/data provided to us. Finally, it is very important to study the question closely.
In the question it is written that which of the following ‘support(s)’ the given statement thus, we must look
for an option choice which supports the idea of the statement.
Following the aforementioned steps we must analyze the given statement and the corresponding question
closely.
From the statement, it is evident that we must look for the assumption which supports this fact of
integration of technology in the boarding process in order to improve the efficiency of the process.
Argument (I) is apt as it talks about a possibility of other airports also trying to adopt a similar facility in
order to facilitate paperless travel and avoids identity check at multiple points. It is in the same direction as
the given statement and supports the ideas stated.
Argument (II) also supports the information stated in the given statement regarding the process being
rolling out to domestic passengers and soon will be rolled out to the international passengers also
subjected to appropriate government and regulatory approvals. It is also in the same direction as the given
context and is a suitable answer choice.
Thus, the correct answer is option E.

144. C
Sol. If Prime Minister was willing to continue then he was forced to resign. If he was not forced, then he had
resigned willingly. Hence, either I or ll is strong
145. D
Sol. The correct answer is option D, i.e. Only II is strong.
We first make sure to read the statement carefully and then see what immediate inferences can be drawn
based on our first reading. The next step is to look at the arguments given in the options, analyze them
and see if they seem relevant with respect to the information/data provided to us. Finally, it is very
important to study the question closely.
In the question it is written that which of the following ‘supports’ the given statement thus, we must look
for an option choice which supports the idea of the statement. Moreover, the question is in a very generic
tone regarding which of the following supports the given argument, it does not specifically mention a
particular idea thus, we will pick the central idea stated regarding Supreme Court’s decision to ask the
SPA Chief to reimburse the money spent.
Following the aforementioned steps, we must analyze the given statement and the corresponding
question closely.
Argument (I) can be rejected as it does not support the central idea rather, is a general statement about
SPA Chief.
Argument (III) is irrelevant and can be rejected. Though, from the information provided supports the fact
that SPA Chief is rich, but it does not support the central idea regarding the decision of Supreme Court.
Argument (II) supports the central idea stated in an appropriate manner. Hence, only II follows.
Thus, the correct answer is option D.

146. D
Sol. Both arguments are correct. Student have to eat so they must have right to decide menu and quality of
food.
147. D
Sol. The concept of "Complete Convertibility" seems to be a tried method, as it has resulted in recession of
many economies. The government would accept a proposal when they are sure that it will result in a
positive outcome. Whereas a proposal can be rejected when the governing body is "unsure" of its
outcome. Hence, both the statements follow.
148. D
Sol. The given argument states that children should not be allowed to play video games because there are
proofs as to how playing such violent games have led children to commit mass shootings and other acts of
bullying and violence. Option E supports this same point of view by pointing out statistics according to
which a much higher percentage of children who played violent video games ended up hitting or beating
up someone in comparison to those who did not play such games.
All the other options weaken the argument by pointing out reasons as to why it is acceptable for children
to such video games.
149. B
Sol. EU was established with the idea that countries that trade are less likely to go on war with each-other, but
it has nowhere been mentioned that it is responsible for putting a curb on wars. Thus (A) cannot be
concluded.
The result of the referendum held was “Leave”. Hence, we can conclude that majority of Britishers voted
for “leave”. Thus (B) is the correct answer.
(C) and (D) cannot be concluded on the basis of the paragraph since it does not mention anything about
these statements.
150. D
Sol. Option (a) and (c) are indirect assumptions that can be drawn and cannot be concluded for sure from the
passage. Option (b) and (e) cannot be inferred as there is no information regarding these statements in
the passage. The passage shows that whether skilled or unskilled the rate of unemployment is the same.
Also the proportion of both skilled and unskilled are same. So they can be logically compared and we can
say that being skilled cannot guarantee a job in the country as the level of unemployment is the same.
Hence, option (d)

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Mock Test Solutions in English

Which of the following options best describes zoom fatigue?

Find the appropriate word in each case.

b) the prime minister launched

e) a digital payment solution

b) but not before the

c) to stop the fight

d) already punched each other

e) two students had

d) saved the princess

e) the king will

C) He was envious of his brother's success.

E. All are incorrect

Stammering is a habit linked to lack of self-confidence.

The frontier community was _____________ close-knit.

I. He was granted three wishes by the fairy queen.

II. The pigs were granting with satisfaction while eating.

I. It is the first site to be excavated in this area.

C. Only III D. Both I and II

I. You must always have a tire repair kit in your trunk.

II. He found the floods fascinating yet tire.

The tendency to recur at intervals

II. Britain has witnessed an increase in the share of female directors.

I. The gender pay gap is a myth and there is no pay discrimination.

III. Majority of women across workplaces never expect to become directors.

had defected to the right.

Subhash ___________ faced the wildfire and made it to safety.

B) midway through a semester,

C) students are likely to feel overwhelmed

D) they have to finish

B) but also growth that is sustainable and inclusive

C) for achieving faster growth

D) is considered critical not only

E) skill development constitutes one of the national priorities

B) is conveyed to the audience

D) in which the emotional content

iii. It is a Central Sector Scheme fully funded by the Government of India.

i. India has become the world’s largest recipient of remittances.

ii. China was the biggest source of remittances in India.

iii. The report was published by the World Bank.

Choose the correct answer from codes given below.

ii. It is often referred to as the Silk City of India.

iii. Pochampally Ikat has received a Geographical Indicator (GI Status).

C. i and ii only D. i, ii and iii

(1) It is one-tenth of the total members of the House.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

i. UNESCO designated Srinagar as a part of UNESCO Creative Cities Network.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Himachal Pradesh B. Uttarakhand

A. United States of America B. United Kingdom

Principle 2: Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth amounts to grievous hurt.

application of any physical force to the person of another.

long as the consequence could have been foreseen by a reasonable person.

Anemometer : Wind :: Sphygmomanometer : ?

77, 76, 80, 71, 87, ?, 98

Clock : Time :: Thermometer : ?

Entomology : Insects :: Palaeontology : ?

181, 174, 186, 178, 191, 182, ?, ?