Cellular lesions.

Amyloidosis
1. Hydropic degeneration results from:
a. membrane rupture
b. ATP accumulation
c. oncogene activation
d. Na/K pump dysfunction
e. cytoplasm lysis
2. Coagulative necrosis:
a. resemble crumbly cheese
b. may develop as a result of ischemia
c. it is reversible
d. can maintain tissue functionality for 5-7 days
e. affects only extremities
3. Apoptosis is the result of the following processes:
a. cellular atrophy
b. cellular death
c. cellular proliferation
d. cellular mutation
e. cellular dysplasia
4. Identify the morphological variant of necrosis that occurs as a result of cerebral
ischemia:
a. coagulative
b. caseous
c. liquefactive
d. fat
e. post-atherosclerotic
5. Which of the following cellular responses is indicative of injury due to faulty
metabolism:
a. hydropic swelling
b. lactate production
c. metaplasia
d. intracellularaccumulations
e. hypertrophy
6. A high serum lactate level (lactic acidosis) usually indicates the presence of:
a. liver failure
b. hypoglycemia
c. immunologic injury
d. cellular hypoxia
e. hypocalcemia
7. Ischemia of tissue in parenchymatous organs usually produces:
a. coagulative necrosis
b. liquefactive necrosis
c. caseous necrosis
d. fat necrosis
e. proteic necrosis
8. Which of the following are potentially reversible cellular responses:
a. necrosis
b. metaplasia
c. atrophy
d. hyperplasia
e. apoptosis
9. Which of the following are NOT evidence of irreversible cell injury:
a. cell swelling (cellular edema)
b. calcification of mitochondria
c. nuclear pyknosis
d. rupture of the lysosomes
e. lipidic degeneration
10. Ions of which chemical element is involved in"reperfusion injury":
a. calcium
b. magnesium
c. phosphate
d. potassium
e. sodium
11. Caseous necrosis is characteristic for:
a. peripancreatic calcinosis
b. gangrenous diabetic foot
c. myocardial infarction
d. abscess
e. pulmonary tuberculosis
12. Which of the following are NOT characteristic of reversible cell injury:
a. reduced oxidative phosphorylation
b. ATP depletion
c. cellular shrinking
d. changes in ion concentrations
e. karyolysis
13. Which of the following describes hyperplasia:
a. increase in the number of cells (mitosis) in an organ or tissue
b. decrease in the number of cells (mitosis) in an organ or tissue
c. increase in individual cell size in an organ or tissue
d. decrease in individual cell size in an organ or tissue
e. reversible change in which one adult cell is replaced by another adult cell type
14. Most forms of pathologic hyperplasia are caused by excessive hormonal
stimulationor growth factors acting on target cells. What is the most likely consequence
of endometrial hyperplasia:
a. increased risk of miscarriage
b. decreased risk of miscarriage
c. increased risk of endometrial cancer
d. decreased risk of endometrial cancer
e. increased risk of neurologic disease
15.Which of the following infectious agents is associated with hyperplasia:
a. papillomavirus
b. enterobacteria
c. staphylococci
d. streptococci
e. parasites
16. Which of the following describes hypertrophy:
a. increase in the number of cells (mitosis) in an organ or tissue
b. decrease in the number of cells (mitosis) in an organ or tissue
c. increase in individual cell size in an organ or tissue
d. decrease in individual cell size in an organ or tissue
e. reversible change in which one adult cell is replaced by another adult cell type
17. Which of the following types of atrophy is involved in ischemia:
a. decreased workload
b. loss of innervation
c. diminished blood supply
d. inadequate nutrition (protein-calorie)
e. loss of endocrine stimulation
18. Which of the following is associated with cachexia in patients with chronic
inflammatory diseases and cancer:
a. decreased workload
b. loss of innervation
c. diminished blood supply
d. inadequate nutrition (protein-calorie)
e. loss of endocrine stimulation
19. Atrophy may be accompanied by residual bodies, such as lipofuscin granules, which
can give to tissues the color of:
a. yellow
b. blue
c. brown
d. white
e. red
20. Which of the following describes metaplasia:
a. increase in the number of cells (mitosis) in an organ or tissue
b. decrease in the number of cells (mitosis) in an organ or tissue
c. increase in individual cell size in an organ or tissue
d. decrease in individual cell size in an organ or tissue
e. reversible change in which one adult cell is replaced by another adult cell type
21. Which of the following cell transformation is involved in respiratory tract cancer:
a. squamous to columnar
b. squamous to cuboidal
c. columnar to squamous
d. columnar to cuboidal
e. cuboidal to squamous
22. In Barrett esophagus, metaplasia occurs as a result of refluxed gastric juice. Which
of the following epithelial transformation occurs:
a. squamous to columnar
b. squamous to cuboidal
c. columnar to squamous
d. columnar to cuboidal
e. cuboidal to squamous
23. Which of the following is associated with cell death and NOT specifically with
reversible cell injury:
a. membrane blebs
b. nucleus shrinking
c. swelling of endoplasmic reticulum
d. swelling of mitochondria
e. myelin figures
24. Which of the following is NOT associated with cell death:
a. nuclear condensation (pyknosis)
b. nuclear fragmentation (karyorrhexis)
c. dissolution of the nucleus (karyolysis)
d. decrease in intracellular Ca
e. amorphous mitochondrial densities
25. Which of the following would NOT cause mitochondrial damage:
a. increase in cytosolic Ca
b. oxidative stress
c. retention of cytochrome C
d. breakdown of phospholipids through the phospholipase A2 and sphingomyelin
pathways
e. lipid breakdown products (e.g.free fatty acids and ceramide)
26. Which of the following would NOT be an ultrastructural change seen in a
reversibly injured cell:
a. apoptosis
b. microvilli distortion
c. myelin figures
d. amorphous densities
e. nucleus shrinking
27. Which of the following has a cheesy, yellow-white appearance at the area of
necrosis and is encountered most often in foci of tuberculous infection:
a. coagulative necrosis
b. liquefactive necrosis
c. caseous necrosis
d. fat necrosis
e. gangrenous necrosis
28. Chemically induced cell injury from carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) and
acetaminophen (Tylenol) affect which organ:
a. brain
b. kidneys
c. pancreas
d. spleen
e. liver
29. Which of the following diseases would most likely show glycogen abnormalities,
if the PAS reaction is positive in the descending loop of Henle:
a. hypertension
b. congestive heart failure
c. abdominal aortic aneurysm
d. rheumatoid arthritis
e. diabetes mellitus
30. Hemosiderin is a hemoglobin-derived, golden yellow-to-brown, granular or
crystalline pigment that indicate a local excess of which of the following:
a. oxygen
b. CO2
c. iron
d. macrophages
e. Ca
31. Bilirubin is hemoglobin-derived and the normal major pigment found in bile. If
found in excess, what color does it change the skin:
a. black
b. white
c. red
d. yellow
e. blue
32. Which of the following would NOT be associated with metastatic calcification:
a. increased secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH)
b. atherocalcinosis
c. gallbladder lithiasis
d. renal failure
e. decreased secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH)
33. Reperfusion cellular injury is caused by:
a. high intracellular concentrations of Calcium
b. high intracellular concentrations of Potasssium
c. free radical release
d. vitamin E
e. nitric oxide
34. Apoptosis:
a. occurs following acute deprivation of blood
b. occurs during embryogenesis
c. leads to damage to neighboring cells
d. follows activation of caspase 3
e. is triggered when there is irreversible damage to cellular DNA
35. Langhans giant cells:
a. are the antigen presenting cells in the skin
b. have a peripheral ring of nuclei with central clearing
c. are characteristically seen in tuberculosis
d. have nuclei scattered randomly through the cytoplasm
e. are derived from macrophage
36. A 48-year-old male with a history of chronic alcoholism will most often have which
of the following findings in liver:
a. cholestasis
b. fatty change
c. hemochromatosis
d. hypertrophy of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
e. coagulative necrosis
37. A 53-year-old male who is developing an acute myocardial infarction from coronary
occlusion has an irreversible injury to the myocardium when:
a. glycogen is depleted
b. cytoplasmic sodium increases
c. nuclei undergo karyorrhexis
d. intracellular pH diminishes
e. blebs form on cell membranes
38. After years of dirty city air inhalation, lungs have accumulated:
a. anthracotic pigment
b. lipofuscin
c. melanin
d. hemosiderin
e. biliverdin
39. The presence of squamous epithelium in the lower trachea of a 42-year-old female
with a history of smoking is called:
a. dysplasia
b. aplasia
c. anaplasia
d. hyperplasia
e. metaplasia
40. A 59-year-old female had a cerebral infarction. Months later, a computed
tomographic (CT) scan shows a cystic area in her cerebral cortex. The CT finding is a
lesion that is the consequence from:
a. liquefactive necrosis
b. atrophy
c. coagulative necrosis
d. caseous necrosis
e. apoptosis
41. The light brown perinuclear pigment seen on H&E staining of the cardiac muscle
fibers in the heart of an 80 year old male is:
a. hemosiderin
b. lipofuscin
c. glycogen
d. cholesterol
e. calcium
42. Karyorrhexis refers to:
a. disintegration of the cell cytoplasm
b. cell membrane lysis
c. fragmentation of the cell nucleus
d. mitochondrial swelling and lysis
e. oxygen toxicity
43. The spleen at autopsy on sectioning shows a tan to white, conical -shaped lesion with
base on the capsule. This most likely represents the result of:
a. coagulative necrosis
b. abscess formation
c. metaplasia
d. caseous necrosis
e. liquefactive necrosis
44. A 3500 gm liver from a 35-year-old female has a yellow, greasy cut surface. This
appearance most likely resulted from:
a. galactosemia
b. iron accumulation
c. tuberculous infection
d. alcoholism
e. hypoxia
45. The marked enlargement of the uterus that occurs in pregnancy is accompanied by:
a. increased myometrial cell numbers
b. nuclear anaplasia
c. increased cellular DNA content
d. increased myometrial cell size
e. calcification of myometrium myocyte
46. A 73-year-old male suffers a "stroke" with loss of blood supply to cerebral cortex in
the distribution of the middle cerebral artery. The most likely consequence of this is:
a. infarction with liquefactive necrosis
b. pale infarction with coagulative necrosis
c. predominant loss of glial cells
d. recovery of damaged neurons if the vascular supply is reestablished
e. wet gangrene with secondary bacterial infection
47. Physical examination of a 42 year old female reveals scleral icterus. Which of the
following underlying conditions is most likely to contribute to this finding:
a. hypercholesterolemia
b. thrombocytopenia
c. metastatic carcinoma
d. hepatitis
e. diabetes mellitus
48. In which of the following cases is fat necrosis most often seen:
a. a 31 year old male has an acute abdomen with marked abdominal pain and an elevated
serum amylase
b. a 66 year old female with chronic alcoholism has an elevated serum AST
c. a 23year old female with a decreased total serum complement has a history of
systemic lupus erythematosus
d. a 70 year old female with adenocarcinoma of the colon and metastases to liver has an
elevated LDH
e. a 49 year old male with sudden onset of chest pain has an elevated serum creatine
kinase
49. Melting of dead tissue is observed in:
a. myomalacia
b. encephalomalacia
c. mummification
d. coagulation
e. ossification
50. Which of the following can bemyocardial infarction causes:
a. ossification
b. angiospasm(its written as vasospasm!!!!)
c. petrification
d. thrombosis
e. embolism
51. Which of the following are morphological necrosis types:
a. paranecrosis
b. fat necrosis
c. protein necrosis
d. coagulative necrosis
e. caseous necrosis
52. Which of the following processes are characteristic of cellular necrosis:
a.hemochromatosis
b. karyopyknosis
c. hyalinosis
d. cytolysis
e. plasmolysis
53. Which of the following are etiologic types of necrosis:
a. lipidic type
b. vascular type
c. focaltype
d. toxictype
e. infectioustype
54. Dry gangrene is characterized by:
a. mummification
b. proliferation
c. hydration
d. encephalomalacia
e. myomalacia
55. Which of the following are microscopic characteristics of necrosis:
a. meiosis
b. mitosis
c. plasmorexis
d. plasmochinesis
e. plasmolysis
56. Necrosis unfavorable outcomeis:
a. organization
b. petrification
c. purulent lysis
d. encapsulation
e. sepsis
the marked answers are all outcomes of necrosis. But it isn’t given specifically which is
unfavourable. Acc to previously marked they are C and E. see question 61 also.
57. Identify changes of cell cytoplasm in necrosis:
a. karyolysis
b. protein denaturation
c. protein coagulation
d. plasmorexis
e. nucleic acids polymerization
58. Etiologic types of necrosis are:
a. parenchymatoustype
b. traumatictype
c. allergictype
d. caseoustype
e. infectious type
59. Which of the following are the gangrene types:
a. wet
b. dry
c. aerobic
d. anabolic
e. caseous
60. Which ofthe following are necrosis microscopic features:
a. karyokinesis
b. karyorexis
c. karyolysis
d. karyomitosis
e. karyopyknosis
61. Relatively favorable necrosis outcomes include:
a. organization
b. petrification
c. malignization
d. purulent lysis
e. encapsulation
apart from option c everything is a consequence. But these are marked in previous marked
pdfs. Refer question 56.
62. Which of the following are nuclear changes characteristic of necrosis:
a. chromatin condensation
b. nucleic acids depolymerization(not sure)
c. glycogen synthesis
d. karyokinesis
e. karyopyknosis
63. In tuberculosis caseous necrosis is:
a. coagulative
b. direct
c. indirect
d. wet
e. fibrinoid
64. Which microscopic changes are characteristic of myocardial infarction:
a. plasmorexis
b. plasmorrhagia
c. karyokinesis
d. karyolysis
e. cytolysis
65. In myocardial infarction an important role is assigned to the following factors:
a. arterial thrombosis
b. hypofunction of the organ
c. allergy
d. functional overload
e. insufficient collateral circulation
66. Varieties of cell lesion are:
a. metaplasia
b. degeneration
c. apoptosis
d. necrosis
e. sclerosis
67. Degeneration causes are:
a.necrosis
b. dysfunction of transport systems
c. endocrine dysfunction
d. autoregulatory system of cell disturbances
e. apoptosis
68. The types of degeneration according on their locations are:
a.parenchymatoustype
b. mesenchymaltype
c. mixedtype
d. proteictype
e. lipidic type
69. The types of degeneration according on metabolic disturbances are:
a. carbohydrate degeneration
b. protein degeneration
c. fat degeneration
d. parenchymatous degeneration
e. mesenchymaldegeneration
70. Fatty liver is characterized by:
a. decreased liver size
b. dense consistency
c. rough surface
d. lipids in hepatocytes
e. absence of nuclei
71. Which of the following are fatty liver causes:
a. increased blood flow
b. rheumatic fever
c. hypoxia
d. hypertension
e. decreased blood flow
72. Myocardial fatty degeneration can be detected by the following stain:
a. hematoxylin-eosin
b. picrofuchsin
c. sudan-3
d. toluidine blue
e. congo-red
73. Clinical evidence of parenchymal lipidic degeneration of myocardium is:
a. increased contractility
b. hypertention
c. decreased contractility
d. rupture of heart
e. hyperemia
74. Liver steatosis is caused by:
a. alcoholism
b. viral hepatitis B
c. hypertention
d. viral hepatitis A
e. intoxications(hepatotoxins are given in text. So if its only multiple choice go for this
option also).
75. Parenchymal myocardial degeneration develops in the following case:
a. hypertension
b. avitaminosis
c. diphtheria
d. diabetes mellitus
e. protein starvation
76.Liver steatosis is usually followed by:
a. restoration of affected hepatocytes
b. massive necrosis
c. transformation in protein degeneration
d. transformation into liver cirrhosis
e. false lobules appearance
77. Accumulation of lipids in the wall of the large arteries is typical of:
a. inflammation
b. cachexia
c. aneurysm
d. obesity
e. atherosclerosis
78. Which of the following processes is reversible:
a. apoptosis
b. mucoid intumescence
c. hyalinosis
d. amyloidosis
e. fibrinoid intumescence
79. In which of the following renal structures amyloid is predominantly deposited:
a. vascular wall
b. Capillary loops and mesangium of glomeruli
c. Cytoplasm of nephrocytes
d. vascular lumen
e. basement membrane of the renal tubules(said like begin close to the tubular epithelial
membrane).
80. Heart valves hyalinosis is typical of:
a. congenital heart diseases
b. rheumatic fever
c. alcoholism
d. hypertensive disease
e. cardiomyopathies
81. Systemic arteriolar hyalinosis is typical of:
a. atherosclerosis
b. tuberculosis
c. alcoholism
d. syphilis
e. hypertensive disease
82. Which of the following structure is subject to hyaline changes:
a. renal stones
b. bone tissue
c. amyloid
d. cartilaginous tissue
e. fibrous tissue
83. Amyloid is a protein that deposits in:
a. cells
b. foci of necrosis
c. nuclei of cells
d. foci of calcification
e. interstitial tissue
84. Which of the following statements about lipomatosis of the heart are true:
a. lipids are deposited under the endocardium
b. lipids are deposited under the epicardium
c. lipids are deposited in myocardial stroma
d. lipids are deposited in the cell cytoplasm
e. can lead to heart rupture
85. Which of the following is amyloid specific stain:
a. hematoxylin-eosin
b. picrofuchsin
c. congo-red
d. toluidine
e. sudan-3
86. Amyloidosis is a complication of:
pneumonia
a. hypertensive disease
b. dysentery
c. atherosclerosis
d. bronchiectasis
87. Which of the following is referred to the macroscopic diagnosis of amyloidosis:
a. 10% sulfuric acid
b. lugolsolution
c. 10% hydrochloric acid
d. 10% osmic acid
e. toluidine blue
88. The followings is referred to proteinmesenchymal degenerations:
a. mucoid intumescence
b. plasmatic impregnation
c. fibrinoid intumescence
d. amyloidosis
e. hemosiderosis
89. Small arteries hyalinosis is typical for:
a. essential hypertension
b. secondary hypertension
c. diabetic microangiopathy
d. diabetic macroangiopathy
e. atherosclerosis
90. Amyloidosis can be a complication of:
a. tuberculosis
b. atherosclerosis
c. diabetes mellitus
d. hepatitis
e. hypertension
91. Which of the followings are etiologic types of amyloidosis:
a. localized type
b. generalized type
c. primary type
d. secondary type
e. hereditarytype !!!! it is marked in previous pdfs.. but not in textbooks
92. Generalized obesity contributes to:
a. brown atrophy of the heart
b. acute pancreatitis
c. myocarditis
d. goiter
e. ischemic heart disease
93. Cardiomegaly in amyloidosis is characterized by deposition of amyloid:
a. under the endocardium
b. in the cardiomyocytes cytoplasm
c. into stroma
d. in the nerves
e. along vessels
94. Connective tissue hyalinosis is characterized by:
a. flaccid consistency
b. dense consistency
c. white – gray color
d. black color
e. semitransparent appearance
option c is not sure. Because it is about a whitish mass but not bout white-gray. And in some
pdf option c is marked.
95. Hemoglobinogenic pigments are:
a. ferritin
b. hemosiderin
c. bilirubin
d. lipofuscin
e. melanin
96. Mechanical jaundice is typical for:
a. acute hepatitis
b. cholelithiasis
c. biliary atresia
d. hypoplasia of the bile ducts
e. hemolytic disease
97. Brown induration of lungs is characterized by accumulation of:
a. hydrochloric hematin
b. lipofuscin
c. bilirubin
d. coal dust
e. hemosiderin
98. Metastatic calcification affects the following organs:
a. lungs
b. pancreas
c. stomach
d. veins
e. heart
In text it is said arterial walls and in Harsh Mohan it is said as internal elastic lamina in blood
vessels.
99. Which pigment appears in the area of hemorrhages:
a. adrenochrom
b. hemosiderin
c. melanin
d. lipofuscin
e. lipochrome
100. Which of the followingstatements regarding dystrophic calcification aretrue:
a. it is predominantly local process
b. it is predominantly generalized process
c. it forms petrifications
d. calcium salts accumulates due to hypercalcemia
e.is a substrate for the formation of gouty tophi
101. The followings are the causes of parenchymal jaundice:
a. acute inflammation of the common bile duct
b. hepatocytes injury
c. hemolysis of erythrocytes
d. acute hepatitis
e. liver cirrhosis
102. According to the mechanism of development jaundice is classified into:
a. hemolyticjaundice
b. hypostatic jaundice
c. mechanicaljaundice
d. parenchymaljaundice
e. biliary jaundice
103. Metastatic calcification occurs in:
a. destruction of bones by tumors
b. parathormone excess
c. calcitonin excess
d. hypocalcemia
e. parathormone insufficiency
104. Dystrophic calcification is referred to:
a. accumulation of calcium salts into unmodified gastric mucosa
b. calcareous metastases in the kidneys
c. calcification of necrosis foci
d. accumulation of calcium salts into unmodified lungs
e. accumulation of calcium salts into myocardium in condition of hypercalcemia
105. Prehepatic jaundice causes are:
a. acute hepatitis
b. hemolytic poisons
c. isoimmune and autoimmune conflicts
d. tumors of duodenal papilla
e. liver cirrhosis
106. Necrosis is caused by:
a. biologic factors
b. blood flow disturbances
c. allergic factors
d. pigments
e. smoking
107. Which of the following are the causes of infarction:
a. calcification
b. angiospasm
c. thrombosis
d. embolism
e. necrosis
108. Humid gangrene is characteristic for:
a. intestine
b. brain
c. kidney
d. myocardium
e. liver
109. Which of the following disorders is manifested by wet necrosis:
a. tuberculosis of lung
b. rheumatic pericarditis
c. myocardial infarction
d. spleen infarction
e. ischemic infarction of brain
110. Which of the following disorders is manifested by caseous necrosis:
a. milliary tuberculosis of lung
b. myocardial infarction
c. dysentery
d. typhoid fever
e. gangrene
111. Identifylocalization of gangrene:
a. kidney
b. myocardium
c. soft tissues of the lower extremities
d. brain
e. intestine
Adaptation and compensation processes
1. Metaplasia is:
a. the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another
b. malignant transformation of the cells
c. an irreversible cellular adaptation
d. benign transformation of the cells
e. degenerative cell derangements
2. Which of the following tissues is NOT capable of regeneration:
a. epithelial
b. cardiac
c. skin
d. liver
e. kidney
3. Characteristic of wound healing by first intention:
a. is observed in the wounds with lesion not only of the skin but also of the underlying
tissue
b. is the simplest healing
c. is encountered in extensive traumatic lesions
d. the epidermis is restored under the crust
e. new capillaries is formed in 3-7 days
4. Characteristic of wound healing by second intention:
a. is observed in the wounds with lesion not only of the skin but also of the underlying
tissue
b. is the simplest healing
c. is encountered in extensive traumatic lesions
d. the epidermis is restored under the crust
e. new capillaries is formed in 3-7 days
5. Physiological hypertrophy of the myocardium is caused by:
a. heart defects
b. cardiosclerosis
c. high physical activity
d. hypertension
e. toxic myocarditis
6. Which of the following are types of local atrophy:
a. dysfunctional atrophy
b. ischemic atrophy
c. reparative atrophy
d. compensatory atrophy
e. cachexia
7. Regenerative hypertrophy due cell hyperplasia is characteristic of the:
a. liver
b. myocardium
c. kidney
d. brain
e. pancreas
8. Identify types of pathological regeneration:
a. hyperregeneration
b. hyporegeneration
c. metaplastic regeneration
d. dysplastic regeneration
e. complete regeneration
9. In decompensated heart develops:
a. eccentric hypertrophy
b. concentric hypertrophy
c. adaptive hypertrophy
d. vicarious hypertrophy
e. neurohormonal hypertrophy
10. Neurohormonal hypertrophy develops in the following organs:
a. heart: in hypertensive disease
b. mammary glands: in pregnancy
c. urinary bladder: in prostatic hypertrophy
d. kidneys: in hydronephrosis
e. wall of the stomach: in pyloric stenosis
11. The reduction in size of cells, with decrease of their functional activity is called:
a. hypertrophy
b. hypoplasia
c. hyperplasia
d. dysplasia
e. atrophy
12. Organization process includes:
a. wound healing
b. metaplasia
c. substitution of necrosis area with connective tissue
d. histological accommodation
e. encapsulation
13. Cause of generalized atrophy is:
a. alimentary
b. dysfunctional
c. neurotic
d. ischemic
e. compressional
14. Atrophy due to compression develops in the following case:
a. bone marrow irradiation
b. muscle atrophy due to fracture
c. kidney atrophy due to stones
d. myocardium atrophy due to atherosclerosis
e. brain atrophy due to ischemia
15. Adaptation processes are:
a. wound healing
b. atrophy
c. regeneration
d. restructuration of tissues
e. metaplasia
16. Which of the following are examples of pathological regeneration:
a. obliteration of umbilical vessels
b. keloid scar formation
c. obliteration of arterial duct
d. excessive bone formation
e. metaplasia
17. Choose the example of vascular atrophy:
a. focal atrophy of the myocardium due to coronary artery atherosclerosis
b. atrophy of the adrenal cortex due to corticosteroids administration
c. skeletal muscle atrophy due to fracture
d. atrophy of the optic nerve due to eye ablation
e. brain atrophy in hydrocephalus
18. Transformation of one differentiated tissue type to another is called:
a. dysplasia
b. metaplasia
c. anaplasia
d. malignancy
e. hyperplasia
19. Which of the followings may develop on the background of bronchial epithelium
metaplasia:
a. dystrophy
b. malignant neoplasm
c. atrophy
d. inflammation
e. necrosis
20. Disturbance of cell proliferation and differentiation with the development of
cellular atypia in some cells is called:
a. hyperplasia
b. dysplasia
c. metaplasia
d. organization
e. anaplasia
21. Which of the following is the type wound healing:
a. organization
b. primary intention
c. encapsulation
d. metaplasia
e. dysplasia
22. Recovering of structural elements instead of those destroyed is called:
a. organization
b. dysplasia
c. regeneration
d. anaplasia
e. metaplasia
23. What does granulation tissue mean:
a. fibrous connective tissue
b. young connective tissue
c. mature connective tissue
d. ewly formned blood vessels
e. young muscular tissue
24. Pathologic regeneration is manifested by:
a. restitution
b. hyporegeneration
c. hyperregeneration
d. substitution
e. tissue accommodation
25. Myocardial infarction is followedby:
a. restitution
b. substitution
c. cardiomyocytes hyperplasia
d. cardiomyocytes hypertrophy
e. necrosis
26. Vicarious hypertrophy may develop in the following organs:
a. heart
b. lungs
c. kidneys
d. liver
e. urinary bladder
27. Which of the following are generalized pathological atrophytypes:
a. senile atrophy
b. cancerous cachexia
c. cerebral cachexia
d. dysfunctional atrophy
e. compression atrophy
28. Label cells are characteristic of thefollowing tissues:
a. endocrine organs
b. hematopoietic system
c. smooth muscles
d. serous membranes
e. vegetative nervous system
29. The following regeneration types can bedistinguished:
a. cellular regeneration
b. tissue regeneration
c. physiologic regeneration
d. pathologic regeneration
e. organic regeneration
30. Which of the following are the pathological regenerationcauses:
a. acute inflammation
b. chronic inflammation
c. disturbed innervations
d. excessive intake of protein
e. insufficient intake of protein
31. Regenerative hypertrophy due to only cell hypertrophy is characteristic of the
following organs:
a. liver
b. myocardium
c. kidneys
d. brain
e. pancreas
32. The following regeneration types can bedistinguished:
a. neurohormonal regeneration
b. compensatory regeneration
c. physiological regeneration
d. reparative regeneration
e. pathological regeneration
33. Which of the following are the examples of histological accommodation:
a. transformation of stratified squamous epithelium into cylindrical one
b. transformation of gastric glandular epithelium into stratified squamous one
c. transformation of the alveolar flattened epithelium into cubical one
d. transformation of the flattened glomerular nephrotelium into cubical one
e. transformation of connective tissue into cartilaginous one
34. Atrophy due to compression may develop in:
a. ichthyosis
b. hydronephrosis
c. cachexia
d. hydrocephaly
e. cirrhosis
35. Adaptation processes are manifested in:
a. degeneration
b. atrophy
c. regeneration
d. tissue reorganization
e. metaplasia
36. Which of the following are the causes of pathological atrophy:
a. obesity
b. malnutrition
c. dysfunction of the exocrine glands
d. circulatory disorders
e. innervation disorders
37. Morphogenesis of regenerative process consists of the following phases:
a. alteration
b. exudation
c. proliferation
d. emigration
e. differentiation
38. Which pigment accumulates in cachexia:
a. hemomelanin
b. melanin
c. lipofuscin
d. lipochrome
e. adrenochrome
39. Which of the following are myocardial hypertrophy changes:
a. increased sarcoplasmic volume
b. cardiomyocytes dystrophy
c. cardiomyocytes necrosis
d. increased number of myofilaments
e. increased nuclear dimension
40. Liver regeneration is realized through the following mechanisms:
a. cellular regeneration
b. intracellular regeneration
c. histological accommodation
d. atrophy
e. dysplasia
41. Which of the following are the causes of localized atrophy:
a. Simmonds disease
b. ischemia
c. dysfunctional atrophy
d. neurotic atrophy
e. cerebral cachexia
42. The examples of tissue restructuration are:
a. collateral circulation
b. atrophy
c. dystrophy
d. necrosis
e. histological accommodation
43. Vicarious hypertrophy is characteristic of the following organs:
a. spleen
b. brain
c. kidneys
d. adrenals
e. liver
Hemodynamic disorders
1. A blood clot recently formed in a varicose vein and is still stationary is known as:
a. embolus
b. thrombus
c. thromboembolus
d. infarction
e. plaque
2. What is the term for extravasation of water into the interstitial space:
a. hyperemia
b. hemorrhage
c. edema
d. embolism
e. infarction
3. Which of the following types of edema is more commonly known as ascites:
a. hydrothorax
b. hydrocephalus
c. hydrosalpinx
d. hydropericardium
e. hydroperitoneum
4. In congestive heart failure (CHF) of the left ventricle, edema develops in the ____
circulation. In CHF of the right ventricle, edema develops in the ____ circulation:
a. systemic; pulmonary
b. pulmonary; systemic
c. systemic; hepatic
d. hepatic; systemic
e. systemic; cerebral
5. Which of the following are NOT parts of the Virchow thrombosis triad:
a. abnormal blood flow
b. hypercoagulability
c. reduction of clotting factors
d. endothelial injury
e. hypocoagulability
6. Which of the following is commonly associated with arterial thrombosis and not with
venous thrombosis:
a. inactivity
b. atherosclerosis
c. cardiac failure stasis
d. genetic mutations
e. hypercoagulation disorders
7. Which of the following is the most likely to cause a fat embolism:
a. reposition of shoulder luxation
b. healing of a chemical burn
c. healing of a heat burn
d. a broken femur
e. congestive heart failure
8. What is the most common site of origin of pulmonary thromboemboli:
a. cavity of the left ventricle
b. deep veins of lower extremities
c. cavity of the right ventricle
d. mesenteric veins
e. superficial veins of lower extremities
9. “Nutmeg Liver “occurs in:
a. liver cirrhosis
b. liver necrosis
c. chronic passive congestion
d. thrombosis of the portal vein
e. hepatitis
10. Lines of Zahn are seen in:
a. venous thrombi
b. pulmonary congestion
c. postmortem clot
d. arterial thrombi
e. amniotic fluid embolism
11. Mural thrombi is the term used to define thrombi of:
a. thrombi of the heart valve.
b. venous thrombi of the legs.
c. thrombi of atherosclerotic coronary arteries.
d. thrombi of the ovarian venous plexus.
e. thrombi occurring in the heart chambers.
12. Hyperemia is characterized by the following:
a. increased blood flow
b. impaired blood flow
c. develops during exercises
d. it is a passive process
e. it is an active process
13. Congestion is characterized by the following:
a. characterizes inflammation
b. develops due to impaired blood outflow
c. it is a passive process
d. it is an active process
e. develops during exercises
14. Coughing with blood is named:
a. hematochezia
b. melena
c. hematuria
d. hemoptysis
e. hematemesis
15. Thrombus is characterized by the following:
a. it is attached to the vascular wall
b. it is friable
c. it is formed during life
d. it is elastic
e. it is made after death
16. Cloth is characterized by the following:
a. It is not attached to the vascular wall
b. it is friable
c. it is formed during life
d. it is elastic
e. it is made after death
17. Consequences of thrombosis are:
a. resorption
b. organization
c. congestion
d. thromboembolism
e. cyanosis
18. Ischemia may lead to:
a. myocardial infarction
b. liver congestion
c. gangrene of lower extremities
d. stroke
e. acrocyanosis
19. Tick the ischemia causes:
a. arterial thrombosis
b. venous thrombosis
c. embolism
d. stroke
e. infarction
20. Systemic venous congestion is consequence of:
a. left heart failure
b. right heart failure
c. pulmonary congestion
d. atherosclerosis
e. arteriolosclerosis
21. A thrombus is composed of:
a. fibrin
b. platelets
c. red blood cells
d. leukocytes
e. Willebrand factor
22. Which of the following is chronic congestion of spleen:
a. brown induration
b. cyanotic induration
c. nutmeg spleen
d. fatty spleen
e. sago spleen
23. Which of the following are the microscopic changes of nutmeg liver:
a. selective congestion in the periphery of lobule
b. selective centrilobular congestion
c. centrilobular hemorrhage
d. centrilobular necrosis of hepatocytes
e. centrilobular hypertrophy of hepatocytes
24. Which of the following refers to internal hemorrhage:
a. melena
b. hemothorax
c. hemopericardium
d. hematuria
e. hemoperitoneum
25. Blood in stool is called:
a. epistaxis
b. hematemesis
c. hemoptysis
d. metrorrhagia
e. melena
26. Tick the main causes of hemorrhages:
a. exicosis
b. vascular wall erosion
c. vascular wall rupture
d. blood stasis in the vessels
e. thrombosis
27. Identify types of generalized edema:
a. cardiac
b. cerebral
c. renal
d. hepatic
e. pulmonary
28. Chronic lymphatic stasis is followed by:
a. elephantiasis
b. tissue hypoxia
c. hemomelanosis
d. sclerosis
e. amyloidosis
29. Identify morphological variants of interstitial hemorrhages:
a. hematoma
b. hemorrhagic infiltration
c. ecchymosis
d. apoplexy
e. petechia
30. Which of the following are the changes of brown pulmonary congestion:
a. hemomelanosis
b. hemosiderosis
c. sclerosis
d. amyloidosis
e. petechia
31. Consequences of hemorrhages are:
a. suppuration
b. encapsulation
c. chylothorax
d. cysts formation
e. melena
32. Hepatic vein obstruction leads to:
a. hyperemia
b. liver congestion
c. nutmeg liver
d. hemochromatosis
e. amyloidosis
33. The types of external hemorrhage are:
a. hemoptysis
b. petechia
c. hemoperitoneum
d. melena
e. hemothorax
34. Femoral artery obstructive thrombosis leads to:
a. ischemia
b. congestion
c. anemia
d. gangrene
e. lymphorrhea
35. Interstitial accumulation of edematous liquid is called:
a. ascites
b. anasarca
c. hydrocele
d. hydropericardium
e. hydrocephalus
36. Air embolism develops in the following cases:
a. carotid artery injury
b. neck vein injury
c. pneumothorax
d. jugular vein injury
e. carotid artery atherosclerosis
37. The favorable consequences of thrombosis include:
a. aseptic autolysis
b. septic autolysis
c. thromboembolism
d. thrombo-bacterial embolism
e. organization
38. Colliquative necrosis is found in the following organs:
a. myocardium
b. brain
c. spleen
d. kidneys
e. spinal cord
39.Thrombus can be:
a. paradoxical
b. parietal
c. occlusive
d. lipidic
e. tissular
40. Paradoxical embolism may develop in the following cases:
a. atrial septal defect
b. ventricular septal defect
c. arteriovenous shunts
d. well-developed collateral circulation
e. aortic wall defect
41. As regards the localization of myocardial infarction in ventricular wall is classified
into:
a. subendocardial
b. chordal
c. intramural
d. transmural
e. atrial
42. Lower extremity veins thrombus usually is delivered to:
a. vena cava inferior
b. jugular vein
c. portal vein
d. right atrium
e. pulmonary artery
43. A thrombus can be:
a. white with red rim
b. white
c. mixed
d. postmortem
e. red
44. Conical shaped infarcts are usually formed in the:
a. brain
b. intestine
c. kidneys
d. lungs
e. spleen
45. The favorable outcomes of thrombosis include:
a. septic autolysis
b. thromboembolism
c. recanalization
d. vascularization
e. organization
46. Most common location of hematogenous metastasis of intestinal carcinoma is into
the:
a. lungs
b. heart
c. liver
d. spleen
e. kidneys
47. Which of the following are thromboembolism sources of the systemic circulation:
a. left ventricle parietal thrombi
b. right ventricle parietal thrombi
c. auricular thrombi of left atrium
d. auricular thrombi of right atrium
e. aortic thrombi
48. Which of the following are bacterial embolism sources:
a. purulent thrombophlebitis
b. phlebothrombosis
c. septic endocarditis
d. septic autolysis of thrombus
e. aseptic autolysis of thrombus
49. Fatty lung embolism develops in the following cases:
a. fatty liver degeneration
b. fracture of the tubular bone
c. subcutaneous tissue crash
d. atherosclerotic plaque ulceration
e. alimentary obesity
50. Which of the following diseases are leading in myocardial infarction development:
a. rheumatic fever
b. atherosclerosis
c. syphilis
d. hypertension
e. liver cirrhosis
51. Thrombobacterial embolus is also called:
a. organized
b. white
c. mixed
d. septic
e. aseptic
52. Gas embolism develops in:
a. vein injury
b. ammoniac intoxication
c. rapid decompression
d. carbon monoxide poisoning
e. pneumothorax
53. Acute congestion of the pulmonary circulation develops in:
a. decompensated myocardial hypertrophy
b. cardiac defects
c. cardiosclerosis
d. myocardial infarction
e. atherosclerosis
54. Arterial obscuration by thrombus may lead to:
a. atherosclerosis
b. collateral hyperemia
c. congestion
d. anemia
e. ischemia
55. Thrombosis is caused by the followings:
a. vascular wall injury
b. increased blood viscosity
c. slowing of blood flow
d. slowing of lymphatic flow
e. accelerating arterial flow
56. What is the cause of oncotic edema:
a. congestive heart failure
b.acute inflammation.
c. neurohumoral dysregulation
d. malnutrition
e. renal hypoperfusion
57. What is the cause of hydrostatic edema:
a. congestive heart failure
b.acute inflammation.
c. neurohumoral dysregulation
d. malnutrition
e. renal hypoperfusion
58. Which kind of cells are "heart failure cells":
a. macrophages
b.lymphocytes
c. leukocytes
d. cardiomyocytes
e. histiocytes
59. Which sign is characteristic for the left cardiac insufficiency:
a. hepatomegaly
b. splenomegaly
c. ascites
d. inferior limbs edema
e. dyspnea
60. All the listed clinical signs are characteristic for the right cardiac insufficiency,
EXCEPT for:
a. pulmonary edema
b. ascites
c. nutmeg liver
d. chronic venous stasis of the spleen
e.chronic venous stasis of kidneys
61. Which of the pathological processes listed below usually associate with mitral
insufficiency:
a. thrombosis of pulmonary veins
b. thromboembolism of pulmonary artery
c. pulmonary edema
d. fibrinous pleuritis
e. cardiac tamponade
62. Which of the listed signs is characteristic for the infarction caused by venous
occlusion:
a. it can be white or red
b. it occurs only in the lungs
c. it is always red (hemorrhagic)
d. it is always white (ischemic)
e. it is white with hemorrhagic border
63. As a rule, the pulmonary infarction is:
a. white
b. liquefied
c. bilateral
d. septic
e. hemorrhagic
63. What pathological process may develop in the liver during the progress of cardiac
insufficiency:
a. complete recovery
b. subtotal necrosis
c. stasis cirrhosis
d. chronic hepatitis
e. biliary stasis
Acute and chronic inflammation
1. Opportunistic infections occur when:
a. pathogen do not infect the host
b. bacteria cause infectious disease in immunocompromised persons
c. bacteria are spread by poor hand hygiene
d. bacteria spread among hospitalized patients
e. bacteria affect persons in condition of low temperature
2. An epithelialized track connecting the midportion of the jejunum and a point on the
skin three cm left of the umbilicus is an example of a(n):
a. autolysis
b. choristoma
c. cyst
d. fistula
e. abscess
3. The "acute phase reaction" in acute inflammation is a group of biochemical changes
mediated by:
a. dilatation of small blood vessels
b. factors released from macrophages
c. histamine and complement components
d. neutrophil injury to tissue
e. the increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
4. What's the characteristic cell in inflammation caused by worms:
a. eosinophil
b. lymphocyte
c. macrophage
d. neutrophil
e. plasma cell
5.Which of the following is associated with acute inflammation:
a. neutrophils
b. macrophages
c. lymphocytes
d. tissue fibrosis
e. tissue sclerosis
6. Acute inflammation may be triggered by infections, trauma, physical or chemical
agents, tissue necrosis, foreign bodies, and immune reactions. Which of the following is
NOT seen in acute inflammation:
a. modification in vascular caliber
b. decreased blood flow
c. structural changes in the microvasculature (edema)
d. plasma proteins and leukocytes leaving the circulation
e. leukocytic infiltrate to eliminate the offending agent
7. Vascular changes associated with acute inflammation include ____ and ____
vascular permeability.
a. vasoconstriction; decreased
b. vasoconstriction; increased
c. vasodilatation; decreased
d. vasodilatation; increased
e. vasodilatation; normal
8. Which of the following is NOT a general principle of the chemical mediators of
inflammation:
a. mediators originate either from plasma or from cells
b. the production of active mediators is triggered by microbial products or by host
proteins
c. one mediator can stimulate the release of other mediators by target cells themselves
d. mediators can act on one or few target cell types
e. once activated and released from the cell, most of these mediators last a long time
(long-lived)
9.Which of the following is NOT true regarding contribution to inflammation:
a. lysosomal constituents increase vascular permeability and tissue damage
b. oxygen free radicals amplify the cascade that elicits the inflammatory response
c. neuropeptides help initiate and propagate the inflammatory response
d. the response to hypoxia decreases vascular permeability
e. the response to necrotic cells is pro-inflammatory
10. One possible outcome of acute inflammation is resolution, with the other outcomes
being chronic inflammation and fibrosis (loss of function). Which of the following is
NOT associated with resolution:
a. agenesis
b. clearance of mediators and acute inflammatory cells
c. replacement of injured cells
d. normal function
e. angiogenesis
11. Which of the following develops, histologically, as an eosinophilic meshwork of
threads or sometimes as an amorphous coagulum:
a. serous inflammation
b. fibrinous inflammation
c. suppurative inflammation
d. ulcers
e. gangrenous inflammation
12. Which of the following is characterized by the production of large amounts of pus
consisting of neutrophils, necrotic cells, and edema fluid:
a. serous inflammation
b. fibrinous inflammation
c. suppurative inflammation
d. ulcers
e. gangrenous inflammation
13. Which of the following is marked by the outpouring of a thin fluid that, depending
on the size of injury, is derived from either the plasma or the secretions of mesothelial
cells lining the peritoneal, pleural, and pericardial cavities:
a. serous inflammation
b. fibrinous inflammation
c. suppurative inflammation
d. ulcers
e. gangrenous inflammation
14. Granuloma is a focus of chronic inflammation consisting of a microscopic
aggregation of macrophages. Which of the following are cause of an infectious
granulomas and NOT a foreign body granulomas:
a. talc
b. sutures
c. microbes
d. sodium urate
e. viruses
15. Which of the following is NOT a systemic effect of inflammation:
a. fever
b. increased acute-phase proteins
c. leukocytosis
d. decreased pulse and blood pressure
e. cytokine release (IL-1 and TNF)
16. On autopsy, the central focal area of coagulative necrosis of the myocardium
surrounded by proliferating fibroblasts and angioblasts indicates that the infarction
occurred:
a. 1 to 2 hours before death
b. 7 to 24 hours before death
c. 7 to 14 days before death
d. 25 to 48 hours before death
e. more than 5 months before death
17. The pain associated with an inflammatory reaction can best be explained by:
a. damage to nerve endings in direct contact with the inflammatory agent
b. combined effect of increased tissue pressure and certain chemical mediators (e.g.
bradykinin)
c. release of serotonin from mast cell
d. direct action of lysosomal enzymes
e. direct action of histamine and fragments of complement
18. Which of the following is not considered to be a cardinal sign of inflammation:
a. pain
b. heat
c. cold
d. redness
e. swelling
19. The cardinal signs of inflammation are most likely associated with:
a. acute inflammatory reactions
b. chronic inflammatory reactions
c. granulomatous inflammatory reactions
d. wounds healing
e. subacute inflammatory reactions
20. The cell type that occurs with the least degree of frequency in a chronic
inflammatory reaction are:
a. fibroblasts
b. angioblasts
c. macrophages
d. lymphocytes
e. neutrophils
21. The characteristic cell found in granulomatous inflammation is:
a. myofibroblast
b. epithelioid cell
c. plasma cell
d. giant cell
e. activated mast cell
22. Epithelioid cells are derived from:
a. microglial cells
b. blood monocytes
c. T-lymphocytes
d. activated basophiles
e. giant cells
23. The inflammatory cell type considered to be the "hallmark" of acute inflammation
is:
a. epithelioid cell
b. myofibroblasts
c. neutrophils
d. B-lymphocytes
e. Eosinophils
24. Which of the following cells have the capacity to reproduce at the site of injury:
a. neutrophiles and macrophages
b. lymphocytes and eosinophils
c. basophiles and neutrophils
d. macrophages and lymphocytes
e. plasma cells and macrophages
25. The characteristic feature of early hemodynamic changes in acute inflammation is:
a. decreased flow of blood to the affected tissue
b. increased permeability of capillaries and venules
c. release of histamine into the affected tissue
d. exudation of neutrophils
e. increased blood flow to the affected tissue
26. At the early stages of acute inflammation, histamineis responsible for increased
permeabilityin:
a. veins and capillaries
b. venules and capillaries
c. large arteries and arterioles
d. arterioles and venules
e. veins and large arteries
27. Which of the following cell types is not an active component of inflammatory
process:
a. neutrophils
b. basophiles
c. erythrocytes
d. monocytes
e. eosinophils
28. The process by which mobile leukocytes escape from the blood vessel lumen into
perivascular tissue is appropriately referred to as:
a. endocytosis
b. migration
c. margination
d. phagocytosis
e. chemotaxis
29. The engulfment of foreign particulate matter by inflammatory cells is appropriately
referred to as:
a. migration
b. phagocytosis
c. chemotaxis
d. leukocytosis
e. anaplasia
30. Each of the following is true for fibrinous exudate, except:
a. fibrin is the major constituent of fibrinous exudate
b. fibrinous exudate is associated with inflammatory reactions
c. fibrinous exudate is a major constituent of a phlegmon
d. fibrinous exudate occurs primarily on mucous and serous membranes
e. fibrinous exudate serves as a framework for repair processes
31. Each of the following is a feature of suppurative exudation except:
a. presence of neutrophiles
b. presence of pyogenic bacteria
c. death of cells
d. liquefaction
e. diphtheric membranes
32. An exudate characterized by excessive production of mucin isappropriatelyreferred
to as:
a. catarrhal exudate
b. serous exudate
c. non-inflammatory exudate
d. hemorrhagic exudate
e. purulent exudate
33. Which of the following has the greatest capacity to regenerate:
a. renal glomeruli
b. cardiomyocytes
c. skeletal muscle cells
d. neurons of the central nervous system
e. hepatocytes
34. Which of following are the types of exudative inflammation:
a. fibrinous inflammation
b. gangrenous inflammation
c. interstitial inflammation
d. granulomatous inflammation
e. purulent inflammation
35. Which of following are etiological factors of fibrinous inflammation:
a. diphtheria bacillus
b. streptococcus
c. anthrax bacillus
d. endointoxication
e. staphylococcus
36. Which of following exudates is characteristic for diphtheritic inflammation:
a. purulent exudate
b. serous exudate
c. fibrinous exudate
d. hemorrhagic exudate
e. catarrhal exudate
37. Inflammationis classified in the following types depending on the nature of exudate:
a. specific inflammation
b. nonspecific inflammation
c. acute inflammation
d. chronic inflammation
e. invasive inflammation
38. Which of the following are acute inflammation types:
a. catarrhalinflammation
b. interstitial inflammation
c. hemorrhagic inflammation
d. fibrinous inflammation
e. granulomatous inflammation
39. Phlegmon is characterized by:
a. catarrhal inflammation
b. fibrinous inflammation
c. fibrous-connective delimitation
d. pyogenic membrane presence
e. presence of diffuse purulent inflammation
40. Which of the following is the initial inflammatory stage:
a. exudation
b. proliferation
c. alteration
d. phagocytosis
e. pinocytosis
41. Specify the morphological forms of inflammation:
a. proliferative inflammation
b. mesenchymal inflammation
c. mixed inflammation
d. exudative inflammation
e. post-necrotic inflammation
42.Phlegmon commonly occurs in:
a. subcutaneous adipose tissue
b. lax fibrous-connective tissue
c. brain tissue
d. liver
e. myocardium
43. Identify the etiology of hemorrhagic inflammation
a. anthrax
b. peptic ulcer
c. flu
d. thyrotoxicosis
e. pest
44. Specify the types and varieties of purulent inflammation:
a. abscess
b. soft phlegmon
c. hard phlegmon
d. crupous inflammation
e. diphteric inflammation
45. The successive phases of inflammation include:
a. petrification
b. induration
c. agglutination
d. exudation
e. proliferation
46. In purulent exudate, unlike the serous one prevail:
a. exfoliated cells of the surface epithelium
b. exfoliated cells of the mesothelium
c. neutrophils
d. mucus
e. bacteria
47. At the microcirculation level the following changes may occur as a result of
increased vascular permeability:
a. exudation of plasma
b. exicosis
c. emigration of intravascular cells
d. exudate and cellular infiltrate formation
e. cadaveric hypostasis
48. Which of the following are acute inflammation types:
a. putrid inflammation
b. crupous inflammation
c. diphtheric inflammation
d. proliferative inflammation
e. productive inflammation
49. Specify exudative inflammation type that is typical for upper respiratory tract in
diphtheria:
a. purulent
b. catarrhal
c. crupous
d. diphtheric
e. putrid
50. Abscess is characterized by:
a. focal character of purulent inflammation
b. diffuse character of purulent inflammation
c. presence of necrotic tissue in the focus of inflammation
d. availability pf pyogenic membrane
e. absence of pyogenic membrane
51. Which of the following are the types of phagocytosis:
a. complete phagocytosis
b. incomplete phagocytosis
c. direct phagocytosis
d. indirect phagocytosis
e. endocytosis
52. Identify etiology of fibrinous inflammation:
a. uremia
b. diphtheria
c. dysentery
d. anemia
e. erythremia
53. Which of the following bacteria may cause nonspecific inflammation:
a. streptococci
b. mycobacteria tuberculosis
c. meningococci
d. treponema pallidum
e. staphylococci
54. Crupous inflammation is usually localized at the level of:
a. oral cavity
b. tonsils
c. pharynx
d. trachea
e. bronchi
55. Which inflammation types are characterized by cell multiplication:
a. alterative inflammation
b. exudative inflammation
c. proliferative inflammation
d. parenchymatous inflammation
e. productive inflammation
56. Acute purulent inflammation is characterized by the following:
a. fistulas
b. thrombophlebitis
c. cellulitis
d. ichthyosis
e. amyloidosis
57. Which processes reflect the migration of blood cells during inflammation:
a. pinocytosis
b. phagocytosis
c. leukocytes diapedesis
d. endocytosis
e. erythrocytes diapedesis
58. Identify types of acute inflammation:
a. crupous inflammation
b. putrid inflammation
c. granulomatous inflammation
d. abscess
e. purulent cellulitis
59. Depending on evolution, the inflammation is classified into:
a. acute inflammation
b. fibrinous inflammation
c. chronic inflammation
d. specific inflammation
e. nonspecific inflammation
60. Identify etiology of serous inflammation:
a. thyrotoxicosis
b. amyloidosis
c. sclerosis
d. uremia
e. tuberculosis
61. Which of the following are examples of exudative inflammation:
a. parenchymatous inflammation
b. purulent inflammation
c. catarrhal inflammation
d. interstitial inflammation
e. granulomatous inflammation
62. Dyphtheric inflammation is typically localized in:
a. pharynx
b. tonsils
c. esophagus
d. stomach
e. intestine
63. Successive steps of the inflammatory process are:
a. coagulation
b. alteration
c. exudation
d. infiltration
e. proliferation
64. Granulomatous inflammation is a type of:
a. productive inflammation
b. exudative inflammation
c. interstitial inflammation
d. proliferative inflammation
e. alterative inflammation
65. Which of the following cells are identified in tuberculous granuloma:
a. neutrophils
b. lymphocytes
c. epithelioid cells
d. eosinophils
e. mast cells
66. In which pathological processes develops specific inflammation:
a. rheumatic fever
b. syphilis
c. tuberculosis
d. typhoid fever
e. dysentery
67. Which of the following are comprised in tuberculous granuloma:
a. Virchow cells
b. Langhan’s cells
c. amyloid
d. caseous necrosis
e. fibrinous necrosis
68. Echinococcosis primarily affects the:
a. lungs
b. kidneys
c. liver
d. stomach
e. eyes
69. Which type of inflammation usually occurs in tissue which surrounding parasites:
a. alterative inflammation
b. exudative inflammation
c. productive inflammation
d. specific inflammation
e. nonspecific inflammation
70. Heart „in cuirass” is characterized by:
a. fibrinous inflammation
b. organization and calcification of exudate
c. suppuration
d. adherence formation
e. serous inflammation
71. The most frequent cause of purulent inflammation are:
a. viruses
b. toxins
c. protozoa
d. chemicals
e. staphylococci
72. Microscopically purulent exudate is represented by a large number of:
a. monocytes
b. lymphocytes
c. neutrophils
d. erythrocytes
e. thrombocytes
73. Causes of purulent inflammation are the followingpathogens, EXCEPT:
a. staphylococci
b. viruses
c. Escherichia coli
d. streptococci
e. klebsiella
74. Phlegmonous cellulitis is referred to the following type of inflammation:
a. catarrhal
b. purulent
c. crupous
d. gangrenous
e. diphtheric
75. Which of the following are examples of exudative inflammation:
a. fibrinous inflammation
b. purulent inflammation
c. gangrenous inflammation
d. interstitial inflammation
e. granulomatous inflammation
76. Exudate containing a large amount of neutrophilic leukocytes is called:
a. serous
b. hemorrhagic
c. purulent
d. fibrinous
e. gangrenous
Immunopathological processes. Autoimmune diseases.
1. Which immune reaction is morphologically manifested by the widening of the
germinal centers and increased number of plasmoblasts and plasmocites:
a. immune reaction of celluar type
b. mixed immune reaction
c. autoimmune reaction
d. immunodeficiency reaction
e. humoral immune reaction
2. All of the listed signs characterize immediate type allergic reactions, EXCEPT:
a. develops in a few minutes
b. predominance of lymphocytes and macrophages
c. sero-hemorrhagic inflammation
d. fibrinoid necrosis of the vascular walls
e. vessels thrombosis
3. All of the listed signs characterize delayed allergic reactions, EXCEPT:
a. develops in 24-72 hours
b. predominance of lymphocytes and macrophages
c. predominance of neutrophilic leukocytes
d. granulomatosis
e. interstitial infiltration
4. Which blood cells do not refer to the immune system:
a. T lymphocytes
b. B lymphocytes
c. monocytes
d. erythrocytes
e. plasmocytes
5. The most severe complication of Quincke's edema is:
a. spastic abdominal pain
b. pneumothorax
c. laryngeal edema
d. mucus hypersecretion
e. heart failure
6. Which hypersensitivity reaction occurs in urticaria:
a. type I hypersensitivity reaction
b. type II hypersensitivity reaction
c. type III hypersensitivity reaction
d. type IV hypersensitivity reaction
e. posttransfusion reaction
7. Which hypersensitivity reaction develops after intradermal tuberculin injection
(Mantoux test):
a. Arthus reaction
b. serum sickness
c. type III hypersensitivity reaction
d. type IV hypersensitivity reaction
e. anaphylactic shock
8. In which of the listed conditions immediate hypersensitivity reaction occurs:
a. atopic bronchial asthma
b. anaphylactic shock
c. tuberculinic type reaction
d. contact dermatitis
e. newborn hemolytic disease
9. Which of the listed signs characterizes humoral immune deficiency syndrome:
a. thymus hypoplasia
b. absence of immunoglobulins in blood
c. absence of germinal centers in lymph nodes
d. number of plasma is normal
e. high frequency of severe infections and sepsis
10. Which of the listed malignant tumors occur more common in AIDS:
a. skin cancer
b. Kaposi sarcoma
c. nephroblastoma
d. non-Hodgkin's lymphomas
e. multiple myeloma
11. Which of the listed signs characterizes humoral immune reactions:
a. antigen is destroyed by the immune cytolysis mechanism
b. participation of B lymphocytes
c. participation of T lymphocytes
d. antigen is destroyed by the phagocytic immune mechanism
e. effector cell is plasmocyte
12. Which of the listed signs characterizes cellular immune reactions:
a. the antigen is destroyed by the immune cytolysis mechanism
b. participation of B lymphocytes
c. antigen is destroyed by the immune phagocytosis mechanism
d. effector cell is plasmocyte
e. effector cells are T-killer lymphocytes and macrophage
13. Which of the listed diseases are part of organospecific autoimmune diseases:
a. systemic lupus erythematosus
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
d. autoimmune orchitis
e. scleroderma
14. Which of the listed autoimmune diseases are systemic:
a. polymyositis
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
d. autoimmune gastritis
e. scleroderma
15. For which listed autoimmune diseases are characteristic anti-nuclear
autoantibodies:
a. polymyositis
b. scleroderma
c. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
d. systemic lupus erythematosus
e. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
16. For which of the listed pathological conditions are characteristic autoantibodies to
IgG:
a. bronchopneumonia
b. autoimmune sialoadenitis
c. systemic sclerosis
d. rheumatoid arthritis
e. autoimmune thyroiditis
17. What changes are seen in the third stage of rheumatoid arthritis:
a. arthrosis
b. calcinosis
c. granulation tissue proliferation
d. fibro-osseous ankylosis
e. fibrinoid intumescence of synovial villi
18. Frequent complication of rheumatoid arthritis is:
a. endomyocarditis
b. amyloidosis
c. cardiac valvulopathy
d. mucoid intumescence
e. cerebral abscess
19. What are skin lesions in systemic lupus erythematosus:
a. allergic dermatitis
b. nodal erythema
c. butterfly erythema
d. hyperkeratosis
e. atrophy of sweat and sebaceous glands
20. The characteristic lesion of the spleen in systemic lupus erythematosus is:
a. hyalinosis of the central arteries of the follicles
b.perivascular "onion-skin" sclerosis
c. "fatty" spleen
d. "sago" spleen
e. "lardaceous" spleen
21. The characteristic lesions in polyarteritis nodosa are:
a. arteriosclerosis
b. atherosclerosis
c. fibrinoid necrosis
d. proliferative vasculitis
e. amyloidosis
22. The consequence of polyarteritis nodosa is:
a. mucoid intumescence
b. lipoidosis
c. arterial sclerosis
d. atherosclerosis
e. atheromatosis
23. Skin lesions in systemic scleroderma are:
a. sclerosis and hyalinosis
b. calcinosis
c. dermatitis
d. purulent inflammation
e. lipoidosis
24. The characteristic change of the heart in systemic scleroderma is:
a. verrucous endocarditis
b. macrofocal cardiosclerosis
c. mucoid tumefaction
d. serous myocarditis
e. purulent myocarditis
25. What etiological factors can cause systemic lupus erythematosus:
a. viral infection
b. smoking
c. exposure to ultraviolet light
d. drug intolerance
e. hereditary predisposition
26. The characteristic sign of lupus nephritis is:
a. hyalinosis of stroma
b. glomerular amyloidosis
c. fibrinoid necrosis of glomerular capillaries
d. acute tubular necrosis
e. glomerular anemia
27. Complications of rheumatoid arthritis are:
a. subluxations and luxations of small joints
b. subluxations and luxations of large joints
c. fibrous osteodysplasia
d. fibrous and osseous ankylosis
e. renal amyloidosis
28. In systemic lupus erythematosus all listed signs are seen, EXCEPT:
a. glomerulonephritis
b. arthralgia (pain in joints)
c. skin lesion
d. valvular endocarditis
e. viral hepatitis B antigen (HBs-Ag)
29. Which variant of valvular endocarditis is observed in systemic lupus
erythematosus:
a. acute verrucous
b. diffuse
c. chronic verrucous
d. nonbacterial verrucous
e. ulcerative polypous
30. Characteristic signs of systemic scleroderma are:
a. nodular erythema
b. drawn mask face
c. hemorrhagic rash on the skin
d. low mobility of the skin
e. increased skin density
31. The consequences of lesions of the ligamentous apparatus of the spinal column and
of the intervertebral discs in rheumatoid arthritis are:
a. mucoid intumescence
b. ulcers
c. granulomatosis
d. calcinosis, ossification
e. granulation tissue proliferation
32. Which characteristic elements can be found in synovial fluid in the first stage of
rheumatoid arthritis:
a. catarrhal exudate
b. rice bodies
c. Babes-Negri corpuscles
d. ragocytes
e. hemorrhagic fluid
33. Visceral lesions in systemic scleroderma are:
a. retinal sclerosis
b. cortical necrosis of the kidneys
c. perivascular "onion-skin" sclerosis of the spleen
d. basal pneumofibrosis
e. macrofocal cardiosclerosis
34. In which condition is observed "wire loop" phenomenon:
a. atherosclerosis
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. rheumatic fever
d. systemic lupus erythematosus
e. scleroderma
35. The possible causes of death in systemic lupus erythematosus are:
a. lung infarction
b. purulent meningitis
c. arthrosis
d. sepsis
e. uremia
36. In which of the listed pathological conditions AA amyloidosis can develops:
a. acute appendicitis
b. chronic abscesses
c. tonsillitis
d. bronchiectasis
e. chronic cholecystitis
37. What macroscopic changes of organs are observed in amyloidosis:
a. diminished dimensions
b. increase dimensions
c. dense consistency
d. soft consistency
e. waxy appearance
38. Which of the listed signs are characteristic of AA amyloidosis:
a. absence of a previous pathological condition
b. lesions of generalized character
c. predominant injury to the brain, pancreas, arteries, heart
d. the presence of a previous pathological condition
e. predominant injury to the spleen, kidneys, liver, adrenal glands, intestine
39. In which of the listed pathological conditions can AL amyloidosis develops:
a. syphilis
b. plasma cell dyscrasia
c. hypertension
d. ischemic heart disease
e. multiple myeloma
40. In which of the listed pathological conditions amyloidosis AA can develops:
a. tuberculosis
b. plasma cell dyscrasia
c. labar pneumonia
d. multiple myeloma
e. chronic osteomyelitis
41. Which organs are most commonly affected in secondary (reactive) amyloidosis:
a. spleen, liver, kidneys
b. the brain
c. adrenal glands, thymus
d. heart, lungs
e. pancreas, prostate, pituitary gland
42. The most common cause of death in secondary (reactive) amyloidosis is:
a. cerebral infarction
b. anemia
c. uremia
d. suppurative appendicitis
e. myocardial infarction
43. The characteristic changes of the "sago" spleen in amyloidosis are:
a. spleen is enlarged in dimensions
b. amyloid is deposited in the white pulp
c. amyloid is deposited in the red pulp
d. amyloid is deposited in the spleen capsule
e. spleen has a variegated appearance on cross section
44. In which of the following renal structures amyloid is predominantly deposited:
a.vascular wall
b. capillary loops and mesangium of glomeruli
c. cytoplasm of nephrocytes
d. vascular lumen
e. basement membrane of the renal tubules.
45. Amyloid is a protein that deposits in:
a. cells
b. foci of necrosis
c. nuclei of cells
d. foci of calcification
e. interstitial tissue
46. Amyloidosis is a complication of:
a.pneumonia
b. hypertensive disease
c. dysentery
d. atherosclerosis
e. bronchiectasis
47. Which of the following is amyloid specific stain:
a. hematoxylin-eosin
b. picrofuchsin
c. kongo-red
d. toluidine
e. sudan - 3
48. Which of the following is referred to the macroscopic diagnosis of amyloidosis:
a. 10% sulfuric acid
b. lugol solution
c. 10% hydrochloric acid
d. 10% osmic acid
e. toluidine blue
49. Amyloidosis can be a complication of:
a. tuberculosis
b. atherosclerosis
c. diabetes mellitus
d. hepatitis
e. hypertension
50. Which of the followings are etiologic types of amyloidosis:
a. localized
b. generalized
c. primary
d. secondary
e. hereditary
51. Cardiomegaly in amyloidosis is characterized by deposition of amyloid:
a. under the endocardium
b. in the cardiomyocytes cytoplasm
c. into stroma
d. in the nerves
e. along vessels
Pathology of tumors.
1. Which of the following cellular changes is considered to be pre-cancerous:
a. apoptosis
b. dysplasia
c. metaplasia
d. hyperplasia
e. hypertrophy
2. Which of the following diseases is characterized by proteinuria:
a. multiple myeloma
b. liver cirrhosis
c. urinary bladder stone
d. glioblastoma
e. melanoma
3. Which of the following statements is true about endometrial hyperplasia:
a. it is the most common in females using contraceptive pills
b. the type known as cystic hyperplasia is strongly precancerous
c. the condition predisposes to endometriosis
d. the condition predisposes to endometritis
e. can be caused by ovarian tumors
4. Which of the following viruses is related to carcinoma of cervix:
a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. cytomegalovirus
c. human papilloma virus
d. herpes virus
e. all of the listed
5. Choose the types of tumor growth with respect to the lumen:
a. expansive growth
b. exophytic growth
c. endophytic growth
d. unicentrical growth
e. multicentric growth
6. Which of the following neoplasms are undifferentiated:
a. glandular neoplasm
b. mucinous neoplasm
c. medular neoplasm
d. renal cell neoplasm
e. colloidal neoplasm
7. Which of the following are NOT malignant tumor features:
a. invasive growth
b. cellular atypia
c. no metastasis
d. slow growth
e. recurrence
8. Which of the following are the malignant tumor features:
a. invasive growth
b. cellular atypia
c. no metastasis
d. slow growth
e. recurrence
9. Which of the following are the types of adenomas:
a. cystadenoma
b. glandular adenoma
c. acinar adenoma
d. non keratinized adenoma
e. tubular adenoma
10. Tick the features of solid carcinoma:
a. late metastasis
b. expansive grow
c. it is undifferentiated neoplasm
d. tissue atypia
e. cellular atypia
11. The following changes are often identified due to the general influence of malignant
tumor on the body:
a. change in blood enzyme activity
b. reduced red blood cells sedimentation
c. anemia
d. hyperproteinemia
e. hypolipidemia
12. Which of the following are the ways of malignant tumors metastasis:
a. relapsing way
b. hematogenous way
c. localized and way
d. lymphogenous way
e. generalized way
13. Which of the following tumors are differentiated:
a. large cell carcinoma
b. adenocarcinoma
c. squamous cell carcinoma
d. colloid carcinoma
e. microcellular carcinoma
14. Which of the following are colloid cancer features:
a. develops from epithelial tissue
b. it is undifferentiated tumor
c. keratin pearls are characteristic of colloid cancer
d. it metastases
e. exophytic growth
15. Where is adenoma usually localized:
a. urinary bladder mucosa
b. esophageal mucosa
c. lymph nodes
d. mammary gland
e. adrenal glands
16. Tick the types of atypia, which are usually distinguished in tumor cells:
a. antigenic atypia
b. physical atypia
c. morphological atypia
d. clinical atypia
e. dystrophic atypia
17. Choose the microscopic types of carcinoma:
a. glandular
b. fibrous
c. fibrinous
d. nodular
e. squamous
18. Which of the following is the feature papilloma:
a. tissue atypia
b. cellular atypia
c. metastasis
d. invasive grow
e. keratin pearls
19. Which of the following are malignant tumor secondary changes:
a. calcification
b. malignization
c. mucilaginization
d. necrosis
e. pinocytosis
20. Which of the following are malignant tumor features:
a. exophytic growth
b. tissue atypia only
c. metastasis
d. rapid growth
e. recurrence
21. Which of the following are the types of adenoma:
a. alveolar adenoma
b. squamous adenoma
c. tubular adenoma
d. papillary adenoma
e. medullary adenoma
22. Which are the features of squamous cell carcinoma:
a. expansive growth
b. predominance of stroma over parenchyma
c. predominance of parenchyma over stroma
d. keratin pearls can occur
e. it is differentiated cancer
23. Which of the following are adenoma types:
a. adenomatous polyp
b. teratoma
c. fibroadenoma
d. papillary
e. adenocarcinoma
24. Papilloma can be complicated by:
a. hemorrhage
b. inflammation
c. resorption
d. malignancy with the development of squamous cell carcinoma
e. malignancy with the development of adenocarcinoma
25. Which types of tumor growth are distinguished in relation to the lumen of the
hollow organ:
a. expansive growth
b. exophytic growth
c. endophytic growth
d. diffuse growth
e. appositional growth
26. Which of the following are microscopic types of carcinoma:
a. mesenchymal
b. fibrinous
c. squamous
d. glandular
e. medullar
27. Choose the characteristics of adenoma:
a. tissue atypia
b. cellular atypia
c. ultrastructural atypia
d. exophytic growth
e. infiltrative growth
28. Which organs and tissues may develop carcinoma:
a. lymph nodes
b. stomach
c. pancreas
d. spleen
e. bones
29. Tick the variety of histological atypia of tumor:
a. cellular atypia
b. tissular atypia
c. organ atypia
d. biochemical atypia
e. mixed atypia
30. Choose microscopic forms of carcinoma:
a. mucinous
b. colloidal
c. fibrous
d. desmoid
e. lymphocytic
31. Which of the following organs may develop adenoma:
a. thyroid gland
b. hypophysis
c. white matter of the brain
d. spleen
e. bones
32. Which of the following tumors originate in the glandular epithelium:
a. papilloma
b. adenomatous polyp
c. mucinous carcinoma
d. medullary carcinoma
e. squamous carcinoma
33. Choose the features of mucinous carcinoma:
a. it originates in glandular epithelium
b. it is a differentiated carcinoma
c. invasive growth
d. stroma prevails over parenchyma
e. cellular atypia
34. Choose the differentiated forms of carcinoma:
a. adenocarcinoma
b. leukemia
c. squamous cell carcinoma
d. mucinous carcinoma
e. lymphoma
35. Which of the following tumors are benign:
a. adenoma
b. papilloma
c. fibroadenoma
d. lymphoma
e. melanoma
36. Carcinoma “in situ” is characterized by:
a. invasive growth
b. exophytic growth
c. cellular atypia
d. infiltrative growth
e. it usually affects bones
37. Malignant organo-specific tumors are characterized by:
a. expansive growth
b. slow growth
c. invasive growth
d. cellular atypia
e. they affect any type of epithelium
38. Which of the following are malignant organo-specific tumors:
a. nephrocarcinoma
b. seminoma
c. fibroadenoma
d. chorioepithelioma
e. adenocarcinoma
39. Choose organo-specific malignant tumors:
a. lymphoma
b. polyp
c. thecoma
d. dysgerminoma
e. seminoma
40. Organo-specific benign tumors are characterized by:
a. expansive growth
b. rapid growth
c. destructive growth
d. cellular atypia
e. tissular atypia
41. Which of the following are metastases routes of malignant neoplasms:
a. invasive route
b. implantation route
c. lymphogenous route
d. morphologic route
e. expansive route
42. Which of the following tumor are benign:
a. fibroadenoma
b. papilloma
c. lymphoma
d. dysgerminoma
e. seminoma
43. Tick cutaneous epithelium tumors:
a. lymphoma
b. mucinous carcinoma
c. basal cell carcinoma
d. papilloma
e. hydatidiform mole
44. The term cancer means:
a. cell division
b. cell multiplication
c. out of control (autonomy)
d. crab
e. lobster
45. A malignant epithelial cell neoplasm derived from any of the three germ layers is
referred to as:
a. sarcoma
b. carcinoma
c. teratoma
d. mixed cell tumor
e. adenoma
46. The study of neoplastic growths is referred to as:
a. tetralogy
b. anaplasia
c. oncology
d. neoplasia
e. dysplasia
47. A benign epithelial cell neoplasm derived from non-glandular surfaces is referred to
as:
a. papilloma
b. sarcoma
c. adenoma
d. hamartoma
e. squamous cell carcinoma
48. Identify premalignant mandatory lesions:
a. xeroderma pigmentosum
b. familial adenomatous polyposis
c. hyperplasia
d. dysplasia
e. metaplasia
49. All of the following are anaplastic changes EXCEPT:
a. pleomorphism and hyperchromatism
b. increased mitosis and abnormal mitotic figures
c. nuclei that vary in shape and size
d. presence of undifferentiated cells
e. presence of abundant chromatin in cytoplasmic organelles
50. Identify liver tumors:
a. hepatoma
b. hepatocellular carcinoma
c. benign sarcomas
d. nodular hyperplasia
e. bile duct anaplasia
51. Which of the following is least likely to be used as a means of distinguishing a
benign neoplasm from a malignant one:
a. degree of cellular differentiation
b. rate of growth
c. type and amount of necrosis
d. evidence of metastasis
e. mode of spread
52. Which one of the following neoplasms is highly invasive but is seldom spread by
metastasis:
a. papilloma of the skin
b. squamous cell carcinomas of the skin
c. adenocarcinomas of the lungs
d. basal cell carcinomas of the skin
e. osteogenic sarcomas of the limbs
53. Which of the following features is more characteristic of a benign neoplasm:
a. it grows by expansion and implantation occurs frequently
b. it metastasizes if the brain is the site of origin
c. it usually non-encapsulated and necrosis seldom occurs
d. it tend to recurs after surgical removal
e. it usually occurs singly and does not recur after surgical removal
54. Which of the following is considered to be the hallmark of malignancy:
a. anaplasia and the rate of growth of neoplastic mass
b. metastasis and the degree of encapsulation of neoplastic mass
c. formation of giant cells and cellular anaplasia within and around the neoplastic mass
d. presence of undifferentiated cells and evidence of metastasis
e. cellular anaplasia and growth by expansion of neoplastic mass
55. The process of neoplastic cells moving through the circulatory system and
obstruction of vessel is referred to as:
a. anaplasia
b. neoplasia
c. thrombosis
d. transplantation
e. embolism
56. The process by which glandular epithelium of the prostate is transformed into
squamous epithelium under the influence of estrogens is known as:
a. neoplasia
b. dysplasia
c. hyperplasia
d. metaplasia
e. anaplasia
57. A neoplasm characterized by the presence of "cancer pearls" and intercellular
bridges is most likely:
a. basal cell epithelioma
b. pheochromocytoma
c. squamous cell carcinoma
d. histocytoma
e. adenoma
58. What does pleomorphism mean:
a. uncontrolled mitosis
b. multiple nuclei
c. variability in shape and size
d. the presence of cells of other tissues in the affected tissue
e. all of the listed
59. The process when cells move from one site to another is called:
a. transportation
b. biotransformation
c. metastasis
d. stasis
e. flagellation
60. Metastatic adenocarcinoma of the stomach that specifically goes to the ovary is
called:
a. metastatic adenocarcinoma
b. melanoma
c. Krukenberg's tumor
d. Wilson's tumor
e. Richtsler's tumor
61. If a tumor is benign and of squamous origin, it is called:
a. malignant tumor
b. Krukenburg tumor
c. adenoma
d. papilloma
e. carcinoma
62. If a tumor is benign and glandular in origin, it is called:
a. malignant tumor
b. Krukenburg tumor
c. adenoma
d. carcinoma
e. papilloma
63. Movement to the cell periphery of the nucleus as a result of the cytoplasmic mucin
abundance, means:
a. hypertrophy
b. benign tumor
c. Krukenburgs sign
d. signet-ring cell
e. Wilson rings
64. What does TNM stand for:
a. tumor size, metastases in the lymph nodes, malignancy
b. tumor size, tumor nodule, malignancy
c. tumor shape, metastases in the lymph nodes, distant metastasis
d. tumor size, metastases in the lymph nodes, distant metastasis
e. this is not a medical grading system
65. Which of the following tumors may contain a cartilaginous component:
a. nephroblastoma
b. hepatoblastoma
c. osteosarcoma
d. teratoma
e. adenocarcinoma
66. The features of fibrous tissue neoplasm:
a. expansive growth manly
b. has only tissue atypia
c. earlymetastasizes
d. it is undifferentiated cancer
e. it develops from connective tissue
67. Fibroma is characterized by:
a. invasive growth
b. expansive growth
c. cellular atypia
d. tissueatypia
e. cellular and tissue atypia
68. Which of the following are malignant muscular tumors:
a. fibrosarcoma
b. rabdomyoma
c. leiomyosarcoma
d. rhabdomyosarcoma
e. myxoma
69. The cytoplasm of melanoblasts can accumulate the following pigments:
a. hemoglobinogenic pigments
b. proteinogenic pigments
c. lipopigments
d. melanin
e. pseudomelanin
70. Lipomaischaracterizedby:
a. hematogenous metastasis
b. lymphogenous metastasis
c. cellular atypia
d. tissue atypia
e. slow growth
71. Which of the following are benign fibrous tissue neoplasms:
a. fibroma
b. adenoma
c. lipoma
d. desmoid
e. fibrosarcoma
72. Tick three most common localization of fibromas:
a. skin
b. lungs
c. uterus
d. liver
e. mammary gland
73. Which of the following tumors metastasize:
a. fibroma
b. osteosarcoma
c. chondroma
d. angiosarcoma
e. melanoma
74.Serous membranes can be a source of development of:
a. basal cell carcinoma
b. mesothelioma
c. meningioma
d. osteosarcoma
e. synovioma
75. Choose malignat tumor of mesenchymal origin:
a. fibroma
b. sarcoma
c. lipoma
d. leiomyoma
e. carcinoma
76. Distinctive features of sarcoma are:
a. prevalence of lymphogenous metastasis
b. prevalence of hematogenous metastasis
c. recurrence
d. epithelial origin
e. mesenchymal origin
77. Benign tumor of cartilage is called:
a. osteoma
b. chondroma
c. leiomyoma
d. lipoma
e. melanoma
78. Benign tumor in smooth muscle is called:
a. osteoma
b. leiomyoma
c. lipoma
d. chondroma
e. rhabdomyoma
Pathology of the hematopoietic system.
1. A patient with a decreased number of red blood cells would be most likely to have
disorders with which of the following:
a. antibody production
b. oxygen delivery to tissues
c. clot formation
d. bacterial infections
e. arterial tension
2. Select the statements about red blood cells that are incorrect:
a. mature red blood cells lack nuclei
b. red blood cells contain hemoglobin
c. deoxyhemoglobin carries oxygen
d. red blood cells lack mitochondria
e. red blood cells have Golgi system
3. The precursor of all lines of blood cells is the:
a. myeloblast
b. hemocytoblast
c. proerythroblast
d. progranulocyte
e. lymphoblast
4. When red blood cells are worn out, part of their components are recycled while
others are disposed. Select the INCORRECT statement about destruction of red blood
cells.
a. the greenish pigment, biliverdin, is recycled to the bone marrow.
b. iron is carried to the bone marrow by a protein called transferrin.
c. biliverdin and bilirubin impart color to bile.
d. macrophages in the liver and spleen destroy worn out red blood cells.
e. red cells are destroyed by intact heart valves
5. Which dietary component(s) is/are needed for DNA synthesis, and thus greatly
influence the production of red blood cells:
a. calcium
b. iron
c. vitamin B12 and folic acid
d. protein
e. lipids
6. Which type of anemia is the most common:
a. aplastic anemia
b. pernicious anemia
c. hemolytic anemia
d. iron deficiency anemia
e. posthemorrhagic
7. The type of white blood cell that often arrives at the site of infection first, and
contains granules that stain light purple is a:
a. basophil
b. eosinophil
c. neutrophil
d. monocyte
e. histiocyte
8. The largest cells in the blood that leave the bloodstream to become macrophages are
the:
a. eosinophils
b. monocytes
c. basophils
d. neutrophils
e. epitheliocyte
9. A person with eosinophilia is most likely suffering from:
a. allergies
b. anemia
c. intestinal parasites
d. diabetes
e. syphilis
10. Which blood cell can be described as being a biconcave disc:
a. platelet
b. neutrophil
c. eosinophil
d. erythrocyte
e. macrophage
11. What is the term for erythrocytes of various sizes:
a. anisocytosis
b. poikilocytosis
c. anemias
d. polycythemias
e. thalassemia
12. Name macrocytic normochromic anemias:
a. pernicious anemia
b. sideroblastic anemia
c. folate deficiency anemia
d. iron deficiency anemia
e. sickle cell anemia
13. Large erythrocytes with normal hemoglobin concentrations are characteristic for:
a. normocytic-normochromic anemia
b. microcytic-hypochromic anemia:
c. macrocytic normochromic anemia
d. macrocytic hypochromic anemia
e. microcytic hyperchromic anemia
14. Deficiency of vitamin B-12 and folate acid cause anemia, bacause:
a. stem cells are unable to differentiate into erythrocytes
b. erythrocytes have malformed hemoglobin molecules
c. erythrocytes have a shorter life span and die prematurely
d. erythrocytes have decreased O2 carrying capacity
e. erythrocytes have increased O2 carrying capacity
15. Which of the following diseases may be associated with anemia:
a. chronic renal failure
b. hepatic failure
c. gastric cancer
d. chronic leukemia
e. all of the listed
16. Identify histological subtypes of Hodgkin's disease:
a. immunoblastic
b. nodular sclerosis
c. mixed cellularity
d. eosinophilic
e. lymphoblastic predominance
17. Which type of leukemia is characterized by diffuse leukemic infiltration in the liver
along sinusoids:
a. chronic lymphocytic leukemia
b. acute erithromieloblastic leukemia
c. acute lymphoblastic leukemia
d. chronic myeloid leukemia
e. chronic erythroleukemia
18. Highlight neoplastic diseases of the hematopoietic tissues with systemic
manifestations:
a. Hodgkin's disease with nodular sclerosis
b. Hodgkin's disease with lymphocyte depletion
c. leukemias
d. leukoderma
e. Hodgkin's disease with mixed cellularity
19. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia:
a. disease of children
b. disease of adults
c. is associated with generalized lymphadenopathy
d. prognosis depends on phenotype and karyotype
e. treatment depends on phenotype and karyotype
20. The following forms of chronic leukemia can be distinguished:
a. myelocytic leukemia
b. undifferentiated leukemia
c. lymphocytic leukemia
d. lymphoblastic leukemia
e. monocytic leukemia
21. Depending on the degree of blood cell maturity leukemias is classified in:
a. leukopenic
b. acute
c. aleukemic
d. chronic
e. leukemic
22. Acute myeloid leukemia:
a. has divers origin
b. disease of children
c. disease of adults
d. relapse is rare
e. relapse is frequent
23. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia:
a. usually occurs in children
b. usually occurs in middle-aged and elderly
c. develop of the T-lymphopoiesis system
d. develop of the B-lymphopoiesis system
e. has relatively long benign course
24. Characteristic signs of acute lymphoblastic leucosis:
a. affects children and adolescents
b. is resistant to chemotherapy
c. atrophy of the spleen
d. leukemic infiltrates in thymus and anterior mediastinum
e. tumor cells belong to T-system of lymphopoiesis
25. Histological diagnosis criteria for Hodgkin's lymphoma:
a. mixed cellularity
b. Reed-Sternberg cells
c. diffuse fibrosis
d. lymphocytes proliferation
e. histocytes proliferation
26. Which of the following statements regarding multiple myeloma are correct:
a. flat bones are mostly affected
b. tumor cells secrete pathological immunoglobulins
c. tumor cells are T-cell derived;
d. AL- amyloidosis is the most common complication
e. is epidemic process
27. Which of the listed criteria are associated to multiple myeloma:
a. renal failure
b. hypercalcemia
c. T-cell proliferation
d. tumor cells secrete paraproteins
e. myocardial infarction.
28. Which of the following listed statements regarding Hodgkin disease are correct:
a. massive hepatomegaly;
b. mixed cellularity
c. lymphocytes depletion
d. nodular sclerosis
e. diffuse sclerosis.
29. Leukemia are characterized by:
a. generalized lymphadenopathy
b. cerebral abscess
c. leukemic infiltration of parenchymal organs
d. splenomegaly
e. myocardial infarction.
30. Hemolytic anemia due to extravascular hemolysis is characterized by:
a. hepatomegaly
b. erythremia
c. splenomegaly
d. hyperemia
e. jaundice
31. Iron deficient anemia can be caused by:
a. insufficient absorption of iron
b. increased iron resorption
c. as a result of gastric or duodenal resection
d. as a result of appendectomy
e. hemorrhages
32. Which of the following are etiologic types of hemolytic anemia:
a. pernicious anemia
b. toxic anemia
c. infectious anemia
d. post transfusion anemia
e. B-12 deficiency anemia
33. Anemia can be caused by:
a. hemorrhage
b. erythremia
c. insufficient erythropoiesis of the bone marrow
d. physiologic hemolysis of erythrocytes
e. pathological hemolysis of erythrocytes
34. Hereditary deficiency of fundic gastric glands can lead to:
a. post-hemorrhagic anemia
b. pernicious anemia
c. Biermer's disease
d. hemolytic anemia
e. dishormonal anemia
35. By evolution posthemorrhagic anemia can be:
a. intravascular anemia
b. acute anemia
c. extravascular anemia
d. chronic anemia
f. vitamin B-12 deficiency anemia
36. Intravascular hemolytic anemia is caused by:
a. toxins
b. poisons
c. extensive burns
d. blood transfusion
e. insufficiency of somatotropin
37. Morphological characteristics of aplastic anemia:
a. hypocellular bone marrow
b. hypercellular bone marrow
c. increased amount of adipose tissue
d. increased number of megaloblasts
e. decreased amount of adipose tissue
38. After a hearty but not fatal hemorrhage the following changes occur:
a. bone marrow become yellow
b. bone marrow become red
c. megaloblastic hematopoiesis
d. extramedullary hematopoiesis
e. reticulocytosis
39. B-12 deficiency anemia is:
a. posthemorrhagic
b. megaloblastic
c. leukoanemic
d. hyperchromic
e. hypochromic
40. Deficient anemia may develop due to insufficiency of:
a. iron
b. vitamin B-12
c. vitamin C
d. vitamina K
e. folic acid
41. Iron deficiency anemia develops in the following condition:
a. teeth extraction
b. gastric resection
c. mastectomy
d. intestinal resection
e. nephrectomy
42. All of the following statements are true regarding lymphomas, EXCEPT:
a. Hodgkin's lymphoma arises in the bone marrow
b. the malignant cell of Hodgkin's lymphoma is the Reed-Sternberg cell
c. the most common form of Hodgkin's lymphoma – nodular sclerosis
d. follicular lymphoma is B-cell lymphoma
e. the malignant cell of Hodgkin's lymphoma is the Langhans cell
1. The following are tuberculosis complications, EXCEPT:
a. pulmonary hemorrhage
b. hematogenous spread
c. amyloidosis
d. fibrous obliterate pleuritis
e. purulent pleuritis with empyema
2. All features listed below are typical for primary tuberculosis, EXCEPT:
a. lymphogenous spread
b. hematogenous spread
c. may develop more than once in profoundly immunosuppressed patients
d. it develops regional caseous lymphadenitis
e. it is mostly localized, in lung apexes
3. Secondary tuberculosis is mostly localized in:
a. brain
b. lungs
c. kidneys
d. bones
e. digestive system
4. What Mycobacterium Koch type most frequently occurs:
a. bovis
b. hominis
c. avium
d. poikiloterm
e. scrofulaceum
5. Name the healed focus of primary tuberculous:
a. Redeker
b. Assmann
c. Ranke
d. Pott
e. Osler
6. Which of the following features manifest exacerbation of tuberculous process:
a. dehydration of necrotic focus
b. petrification of necrotic focus
c. the total necrosis of granuloma
d. encapsulation of necrotic focus
e. perifocal exudation
7. Which of the listed below features describe the healing of primary tuberculous
process:
a. dehydration of necrotic focus
b. petrification of necrotic focus
c. the total necrosis of granuloma
d. encapsulation of necrotic focus
e. perifocal exudation
8.Which of the following are morphological features of tuberculous granuloma:
a. predominance of epithelioid cells
b. absence of vessels in centre of granuloma
c. presence of inflamed vessels in centre of granuloma (endovasculitis)
d. presence of neutrophils
e. central caseous necrosis
9. Which is the most frequent location of extrapulmonary tuberculosis:
a. amygdales
b. lymphatic nodes
c. skin
d. spleen
e. appendices
10. Which of the following are primary tuberculosis features:
a. it heals by Ranke focus formation
b. may spread hematogenous
c. it is located exclusively in the lung
d. may lead to cancer development
e. purulent leptomeningitis is the most dangerous complication
11. Which are the contamination routes in tuberculosis:
a. air
b. by contact
c. parenteral
d. by insects bites
e. alimentary
12. Which are the tuberculosis types:
a. endogenous
b. primary
c. recurrent
d. polyetiological
e. secondary
13. Where the primary tuberculous complex locations are:
a. liver
b. lungs
c. brain
d. intestine
e. spinal cord
14. The primary tubercular complex components are:
a. primary affect
b. thrombophlebitis
c. lymphadenitis
d. cavities
e. lymphangitis
15. The following are the primary tuberculosis consequences:
a. fibrosis of the Gohn complex
b. calcification of the Gohn complex
c. amyloidosis
d. progression and generalization of process
e. lung cancer
16. The following are the secondary tuberculosis causes of depth:
a. lung hemorrhage
b. cardio-respiratory failure
c. amyloidosis
d. purulent peritonitis
e. liver cirrhosis
17. On histological examination of the lymph node a massive area of caseous necrosis
surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and a small number of polynuclear giant
cells has been discovered. Which of the following statements are acceptable:
a. syphilitic granuloma
b. Aschoff granuloma
c. tuberculous lymphadenitis
d. Ziehl-Neelsen staining is necessary to identify pathogenic agent
e. cervical lymph nodes are mostly affected
18. The patient, who suffered of chronic cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis, died of
cachexia. Which macro- and microscopic morphological changes can be detected at
autopsy:
a. brown induration of lung
b. brown atrophy of liver
c. massive deposits of fat under epicardium
d. brown atrophy of myocardium
e.intracellular accumulation of lipofuscin
19. The following morphological changes occur in cured primary complex:
a. autolysis of necrotic debris
b. progressive fibrosis
c. exudative inflammation
d. calcification
e. lymphatic spread
20. Which are the routes of Primary TB progression:
a. bronhogenous
b. lymphatic
c. primary affect extension
d. perineural
e. hematogenous
21. Which of the following is the most severe complication of primary tuberculosis:
a. Ranke complex formation
b. progression
c. extension of primary affect
d. sero-fibrinous pleurisies
e. regional lymphadenopathy
22. Which of the following is the primary tuberculosis mechanism of development:
a. first contact with mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. repeated contact with mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. constant contact with mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. reactivation of dormant primary lesions
e. revaccination
23. Which is the dissemination way in systemic miliary tuberculosis:
a. through air
b. lymphatic
c. by contact
d. perineural
e. arterial
24. Which is the dissemination way in pulmonary miliary tuberculosis:
a. through air
b. lymphatic
c. by contact
d. perineural
e. arterial
25. Patient has suffered over 10 years of secondary pulmonary tuberculosis; the cause
of death was renal failure. At autopsy the kidneys were increased in size, the cut section
yellow, and positive Virchow reaction. What is the correct diagnosis:
a. pyelonephritis
b. steatosis
c. amyloidosis
d. paraproteinemic nephrosis
e. necrotic nephrosis
26. What are the primary tuberculosis morphological manifestations:
a. lobar caseous pneumonia
b. primary tubercular complex
c. primary affect
d. milliary tuberculosis
e. tubercular lymphadenitis
27. Choose the primary tuberculosis structure:
a. focus of serofibrinous broncho-pneumonia
b. focus of hemorrhagic pneumonia
c. focus of caseous pneumonia, lymphangitis and regional lymphadenitis
d. purulent phlebitis
e. thrombarteriitis
28. Which are the pleural lesion at the primary affect level:
a. sero-fibrinous pleuritis
b. catharal pleuritis
c. dystrophic change
d. purulent pleuritis
e. calcification
29. Choose the macroscopic picture of pulmonary primary tuberculous focus:
a. purulent lymphangitis
b. hemorrhagic pneumonia
c. purulent lymphadenitis
d. micro-abscess
e. caseous pneumonia focus
30. All of the listed criteria are characteristic for primary tuberculosis, EXCEPT:
a. subpleural location in the upper zones of lower lobe of the lung
b. regional caseous lymphadenitis
c. may progress by extension of the primary complex
d. lymphatic generalization
e.intracanalicular dissemination by sputum
31. What of the following organs are commonly affected in systemic tuberculosis:
a. skin
b. liver
c. heart
d. adrenals
e. uterine tubes and epididymis
32. Which cell type is considered characteristic for tuberculous granuloma:
a. plasmacyte
b. epithelial cell
c. Langherhans cellhy
d. koilocyte
e. epithelioid cell
33. Which of the following is the most common cavitary tuberculosis cause of death:
a. cardiogenic shock
b. sepsis
c. pulmonary hemorrhage
d. liver insufficiency
e. purulent peritonitis
34. Which of the following is the most common secondary tuberculosis cause of death:
a. sepsis
b. cardio-respiratory failure
c. cerebral edema
d. thromboembolism of pulmonary artery
e. ventricular fibrillation
35. Which of the following is the most common secondary tuberculosis cause of death:
a. purulent osteomyelitis
b. purulent leptomeningitis
c. cerebral edema
d. parenchymal organs amyloidosis
e. thromboembolism of pulmonary artery
36. Which of the factors listed below favoring the secondary tuberculosis development:
a. malnutrition
b. AIDS
c. old age
d. chronic cholecystitis
e. rheumatic fever
37. Centre of tuberculous granuloma is represented by a focus of:
a. fibrinoid necrosis
b. Zencker necrosis
c. steatonecrosis
d. caseous necrosis
e. calcification
Prenatal period pathology. Postnatal period pathology.
1. The definition of malformation is:
a. stopping development of the organ or body portion previously developed normally
b. primary error of morphogenesis, usually polyetiological
c. extrinsic developmental disturbances caused by biomechanical factors
d. a complex of development abnormalities
e. a sequence of abnormalities initiated by a single causal factor, followed by secondary
defects in other organs
2.Which of the following is an example of deformation:
a. congenital heart defects
b. amniotic bands
c. uterine constraint
d. Turner syndrome
e. Potter sequence (oligohydramnios)
3.Which of the following are variants of organ anomalies:
a. atresia
b. dysplasia
c. apoptosis
d. agenesia
e. necrosis
4.Which are the causes of congenital malformations:
a. genetic
b. combined
c. environmental
d. unknown
e. all statements are correct
5.What are the mechanisms of initiation of teratogenic genetic defects:
a. cell migration
b. apoptosis
c. necrosis
d. cell proliferation
e. cellular interaction
6. All of the following are non-cyanotic cardiac defects, EXCEPT:
a. atrial septal defect
b. ventricular septal defect
c. persistent arterial duct
d.tetralogy Fallot
e. obstruction of bloodstream
7. Which of the following are cyanotic heart defects:
a.tetralogy Fallot
b. atresia of tricuspid valve
c. persistent arterial duct
d. pulmonary atresia
e. transposition of great vessels
8. What includes Fallot tetralogy:
a. pulmonary artery stenosis
b. interventricular communication
c. deviation of the origin of the aorta to the right
d. interatrial communication
e. right ventricular hypertrophy
9. Identify congenital kidney malformations:
a. agenesia
b. atresia
c. hypoplasia
d.ectopia
e. horseshoe kidney
10. What is porencephaly:
a. agenesia of brain, in which its anterior, middle and posterior compartments are missing
b.excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in cerebral ventricles or subarachnoid spaces
c. appearance in the brain of cysts of varying size which communicate with the lateral brain
ventricles, covered with ependyma
d. prominence of the cerebral and medullary substances through the defects of the skull
bones, its sutures and the vertebral canal
e. a rare defect characterized by the presence of one or two eyeballs located in orbit
11. What are the manifestations of heart defects with cyanosis :
a. reduced bloodstream in small circulation
b.hypoxia
c. orientation of blood flow from left to right
d. orientation of blood flow from right to left
e. lack of hypoxia
12. Which congenital combined malformations includes Lutembacher's disease:
a. interventricular septal defect and dextroposition of aorta
b. interventricular septal defect with stenosis of left atrioventricular orifice
c. ramification of the left coronary artery from the pulmonary trunk
d. primary pulmonary hypertension
e. deplasation of aortic orifice to the right
13. What are the variants of atresia and stenosis of the rectum and anal orifice:
a. atresia only at the level of anal orifice
b. atresia only at the level of rectum
c. atresia with fistulas
d. atresia of the rectum and anal orifice
e. all statements are correct
14. Identify the etiology of Hirschprung disease:
a. lack of neurons of the submucosal plexus (Meissner)
b. lack of neurons of the myenteric plexus (Auerbach)
c. congenital hypertrophy of the colon wall muscles
d. lack of neurons of the myenteric plexus (Meissner)
e. lack of neurons of the submucosal plexus (Auerbach)
15.Congenital malformations of the liver and bile ducts are:
a. liver polycystosis
b. atresia and stenosis of extrahepatic bile ducts
c. Hirschprung disease
d. agenesis and hypoplasia of intrahepatic bile ducts
e. congenital hyperplasia of intrahepatic bile ducts
16. Adult type polycystic kidney is characteristic for:
a. hypoplastic kidneys
b. dysplastic kidneys
c. macrocystic kidneys
d. concrescent kidneys
e. agenetic kidneys
17.What are the manifestations of congenital emphysema:
a. causes the movement of the mediastinal organs to the opposite side
b. does not cause movement of the mediastinal organs to the opposite side
c. it is established only in the postnatal period
d. it is established only in the prenatal period
e. promotes the development of congenital bronchiectasis
18.Identify systemic osteoarticular malformations:
a. chondrodysplasia
b. acondroplasia
c. polydactyly
d. imperfect osteogenesis
e. phocomelia
19.Identify isolated osteoarticular malformations:
a. phocomelia
b. polydactyly
c. congenital amputation and extremities aplasia
d. imperfect osteogenesis
e. acondroplasia
20.Identify congenital malformations of the face:
a.cheiloschisis
b. micrognatia
c. phocomelia
d. hypertelorism
e. palatoschisis
21.What are the manifestations of fetal alcohol syndrome:
a. prenatal growth retardation
b. postnatal growth retardation
c. facial anomalies
d. psychomotor disorders
e. cardiac anomalies
22.The manifestations of diabetic embryopathy are:
a. fetal macrosomia
b. facial anomalies
c. cardiac anomalies
d. neural tube defect
e. prenatal growth retardation
23.What is the causal factor of the infant sudden death syndrome
a. alcohol
b. smoking
c. viruses
d. thalidomide
e. all statements are false
24. Identify the genetic causes of human congenital malformations:
a. chromosomal aberrations
b. phenylketonuria
c. mendelian transmission
d. endocrinopathies
e. syphilis
25.Retinoic acid embryopathy includes:
a. malformations of the central nervous system
b. cardiac malformations
c. cheiloschisis
d. palatoschisis
e. fetal macrosomia
26.The pathology and mortality of the perinatal period is divided into:
a. antenatal
b. intranatal
c. postnatal
d. paranatal
e. neonatal
27.The risk factors of prematurity are:
a. early rupture of fetal membranes
b. intrauterine infections
c. anomalies of uterus, cervix and placenta
d. mother's age
e. multiple pregnancy
28.What complications occur in premature newborns:
a. apnea
b. sepsis
c. polycythemia
d. persistent arterial duct
e. hypoglycemia
29.What complications occur in overgrown newborns:
a. sepsis
b. retinopathy
c. trauma at birth
d. hyperbilirubinaemia
e. hypoglycemia
30. Cephalohematoma is characterized by:
a. blood suffusion under pericranium
b. volume 5-150 ml of blood
c. the borders exceed the limits of the involved bones
d. teguments at the level of edema are changed
e. the borders do not exceed the limits of the involved bones
31.Risk factors for asphyxia are:
a. prematureness
b. adequate ventilation
c. increase heart rate
d. cardiac arrest
e. complicated birth
32.The risk factors for respiratory distress syndrom are:
a. prematureness
b. cardiac arrest
c. diabetes in pregnancy
d. cesarean intervention
e. structural anomalies of the lungs
33.The macroscopic manifestations of respiratory distress syndrome are:
a. non-aerated solid lung
b. resembles liver tissue
c. immersed in liquid
d. resembles renal tissue
e. flaccid lung
34.The microscopic manifestations of respiratory distress syndrome are:
a. atelectasis and dilation of the alveoli
b. hyaline membranes composed of fibrin and cellular debris
c. sclerosing of the alveoli
d. minimal inflammation
e. leukocyte infiltration at the periphery
35.Neonatal infections include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. syphilis
b. toxoplasmosis
c. rubella
d. varicella-zoster
e. viral hepatitis B
36.What are the transmission ways of fetus and newborn infection
a. transcervical
b. placental
c. cervical
d. transplacental
e. descending
37.Which hormones play a role in regulating surfactant synthesis:
a. estrogens
b. corticosteroids
c. androgens
d. catecholamines
e. mineralocorticoids
38.Identify the microscopic manifestations of necrotic enterocolitis:
a. coagulative necrosis of the mucosa
b. ulcerations
c. bacterial colonization
d. inflammation
e. granulomatosis
39.Identify clinical manifestations of necrotic enterocolitis:
a. bloody stools
b. abdominal distension
c. absence of stools
d. arterial hypertension
e. circulatory shock
40.The proposed model of triple risk for the infant sudden death syndrome includes:
a. vulnerable child
b. endogenous factors
c. infections
d. critical period of development of homeostatic control
e. exogenous stress factors
41.The characteristic macroscopic sign of lungs in the infant sudden death syndrome is:
a. congested lungs
b. non-aerated lungs
c. flaccid lungs
d. lungs diminished in size
e. all statements are false
42.Identify the causes of fetal hydrops:
a. non-immune
b. bacterias
c. immune
d. viruses
e. environmental factors
43.For which tumor are characteristic spindle cells that are compactly arranged with
spaces containing blood:
a. lymphangioma
b. hemangioma
c. sacro-coccigian teratoma
d. adenoma
e. rhabdomyoma
44.What are the main differences between malignant tumors in infants and children
from those in adults:
a. close relationship between abnormal development and tumor induction
b. prevalence of constitutional genetic anomalies which predispose to cancer
c. the more unfavorable survival or healing rate in many tumors of the children
d. tendency of fetal and neonatal malignant tumors to regress spontaneously
e. the more favorable survival or healing rate in many tumors of the children
45.Histological features of classic neuroblastoma are:
a. large cells
b. small cells
c. hyperchromatic nuclei
d. reduced cytoplasm
e. hyporchromatic nuclei
46.For which tumor are characteristic perivascular pseudorosettes:
a. neuroblastoma
b. ependymoma
c. lymphangioma
d. retinoblastoma
e. rhabdomyoma
47.What are the clinical manifestations of retinoblastoma:
a. visual disturbances
b. strabismus
c. whitish nuance of pupil
d. lack of pain
e. ocular sensitivity
48. Identify the macroscopic manifestations of the Wilms tumor:
a. flaccid
b. dense
c. foci of hemorrhages
d. brown-gray color
e. foci of necrosis
49.Identify clinical manifestations of the Wilms tumor:
a. fever
b. proteinuria
c. intestinal obstruction
d. abdominal pain
e. hematuria
50.Which of the following syndromes increases the risk of Wilms tumor development:
a. Denys-Drash syndrome
b. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
c. Turner syndrome
d. Down syndrome
e. WAGR syndrome
51.The microscopic pattern of brain tissue in toxoplasmosis includes:
a.cysts in brain tissue
b.edema of adjacent cerebral tissue
c. fibrosis of cerebral tissue
d. inflammatory exudate
e. proteic degeneration of the epithelium
52.Identify complications of toxoplasmosis:
a. cachexia
b. bleeding
c. paralysis
d. blindness
e. insufficient intellectual development
53. Identify the more frequent localization of cytomegalovirus:
a. salivary glands
b. lungs
c. brain
d. intestine
e. liver
54.The microscopic pattern of convolute renal tube metamorphosis in cytomegaloviral
infection includes:
a. cytomegaloviral transformation of kidney tubule epithelium
b. fibrin deposits in glomeruli
c. proteic degeneration of the tubule epithelium
d. lymphohistiocytic infiltration
e. sclerosis of glomeruli
55. Newborn pneumopathies include:
a atelectasia
b. edematous hemorrhagic syndrome
c. lung emphysema
d. hyaline membranes of the lungs
e. pulmonary edema
56.The microscopic pattern of the hyaline membranes in the lungs includes:
a. densified proteic masses in shape of rings that adhere to the walls of the alveoli
b. large air cavities
c. dilated hyperemic vessels
d. squamous metaplasia of the bronchial epithelium
e. inflammatory exudate in the lumen alveoli and interalveolar septa
57. The microscopic pattern of the pancreas in cystic fibrosis includes:
a. cystically dilated ducts
b. eosinophilic condensed content in the lumen of the ducts
c. foci of hemorrhages
d. diffuse fibrosis and lymphohistiocytic infiltration of the stroma
e. necrosis of the glandular tissue
58.Identify complications of cystic fibrosis:
a. chronic pneumonia
b. meconial peritonitis
c. heart failure
d. liver cirrhosis
e. cachexia