1. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE) is a potential sequela of which virus? A. Measles B. Mumps C. Respiratory syncytial virus D. Rabies E.

EEE 2. Which virus is enveloped? A. A virus that that is the #1 worldwide cause of diarhhea in children B. A DNA virus used as a therapeutic vector to cure SCID C. Hepatitis A D. Hepatitis B 3. Which step of virus infection does neutralizing antibody block most effectively? A. Encounter B. Attachment C. Penetration D. Uncoating E. Release 4. Which type of virus is not normally transmitted by the bite of an arthropod vector (mosquito)? A. Yellow Fever B. Dengue C. West Nile D. EEE E. Rabies 5. Which of the following viruses is not commonly transmitted by shared IV drug use? A. HSV B. HBV E. HDV 6. Immunity: Which of the following defenses are least important against viruses? A. Antibody B. Natural Killer Cells C. Neutrophils D. Cytokines E. Complement 7. What is not true about Protein Kinase R (PKR)? A. PKR is a potent anti-viral protein B. Active PKR upregulates transcription of proteolytic enzymes which can lyse viral particles C. PKR phosphorylates a protein to unsequester NFB and allow NFB to travel to nucleus D. High levels of PKR are induced by IFN E. PKR requires dsRNA and ATP for activation 8. Viruses employ many strategies to avoid host cell defences. Which is not a strategy viruses are known to use? A. production of decoy IFN receptors B. inhibition of IFN signal transduction C. inhibition of PKR D. production of 2-5 A polymerase E. production of proteins that block TLR F. inhibition of ADCC via decoy FcR G. interference in MHC I machinery H. production of immunosuppressive cytokine

9. Which of the following is NOT a direct or indirect effect of interferons? A. viral translation B. activate NK cells and Macrophages C. hematopoiesis, particularly effecting neutrophils, resulting in leukocytosis D. MHC expression E. neuronal excitability F. TNF production G. synthesis of IL-15, which is a growth factor for NK cells and memory CD8+ T Cells 10. A pathologist is looking at a slide of infected tissue at an autopsy. She is trying to determine if the patient had a viral infection. What observation is not a known viral pathologic change? A. The presence of inclusion bodies B. Cellular hypertrophy C. The presence of multinucleated giant cells D. The presence of granulomas E. Evidence of transformation (dysplasia, etc) 11. What type of virus has a +RNA nonsegmented genome, is nonenveloped, and has a capsomere consisting of four proteins? A. adeno B. influenza C. picorna D. rubella E. rota 12. What is not true about picornaviruses? A. Picornaviruses initiate host cell lysis by inhibiting host RNA snthesis B. Rhinovirus is a picornavirus genus C. Hepatitis A is a picornavirus genus D. Hepatitis B is a picornavirus genus E. Picornaviruses can spread via aerosols or oral-fecal, depending on the genus 13. What is not true about rhinovirus? A. Rhinoviruses grow best at 37 degrees C B. Rhinoviruses spread through aerosols or contaminated surfaces C. Rhinovirus infections are limited to the upper respiratory tract D. The clinical symptoms of a Rhinovirus infection are primarily due to the destruction of cells of the upper respiratory tract E. Rhinoviruses are acid sensitive Mix and Match: Vaccines A. Inactivated B. Live attenuated C. No Vaccine 14. Hepatitis A 15. Polio (Sabin) 16. Polio (Salk) 17. Coxsackie B 18. Influenza (injection) 19. Influenza (Flumist) 20. EEE 21. Yellow Fever 22. RSV

23. Influenza: Which envelope protein is incorrectly paired with its characteristic? A. HA (hemagglutinin) binds to host cell glycoproteins containing sialic acid B. HA (hemagglutinin) target of neutralizing Ab C. NA (neuramindase) plays no direct role in initiation of infection D. NA (neuramindase) not a target of antiviral drugs E. M1 required for stability of shell structure F. M2 target of antiviral drugs G. M2 hydrogen ion pump H. M2 important in penetration 24. Influenza: What not true about the HA protein? A. Cleavage of HA required for virus to become infectious B. Lack of a furin site on common infectious influenza (H1, H2, H3) restricts viral tropism to the respiratory tract where the correct host protease exisits C. The high virility of the H5N1 influenze is partly due to the existence of a furin site which can allow the virus to spread systemically D. Membrane fusion initiated by HA in the presence of a basic environment E. HA spike composed of three copies of the HA protein 25. What is correct about Zanamivir (relenza)? A. Has the same mechanism as Rimantidine B. Inhibits HA C. Inhibits NA D. Inhibits M1 E. Inhibits M2 26. Which element of the rhinovirus capsomere is the viral attachment protein (VAP)? A. VP1 B. VP2 C. VP3 D. VP4 E. VP1 through VP4 combine to create the VAP 27. What is correct about Amantidine? A. Has the same mechanism as Oseltamivir (tamiflu) B. Inhibits HA C. Inhibits NA D. Inhibits M1 E. Inhibits M2 28. What is true about antigenic shift and drift? A. Minor changes in HA causes antigenic shift B. Minor changes in NA causes antigenic shift C. Major changes in HA causes antigenic shift D. Major changes in NA causes antigenic shift E. Antigenic drifts are responsible for the pandemics of influenza A F. Antigenic shifts are responsible for the moderately reduced effectivity of influenza vaccine 29. Which DNA virus does not replicate in the nucleus? A. Hepadna B. Herpes C. Adeno D. Pox E. Parvo F. Papova

30. Which DNA viruses are enveloped? A. Hepadna, Pox, Herpes B. Pox, Herpes, Adeno C. Herpes, Adeno, Papova D. Adeno, Papova, Parvo E. Papova, Parvo, Pox 31. What is incorrect about Togaviruses? A. EEE, WEE, and VEE are all togaviruses B. Togaviruses have RNA C. Togaviruses are nonsegmented D. Togaviruses are enveloped E. Togaviruses can be carried by mosquito vectors F. Togaviruses can cause encephalitis 32. What is incorrect about Flaviviruses? A. West Nile is a Flavivirus B. Yelow Fever is a Flavivirus C. Dengue is a Flavivirus D. Hepatitis C is a Flavivirus E. Ebola is a Flavivirus F. + RNA G. nonsegmented H. enveloped 33. What is incorrect about Reoviruses? A. Cause hemorrhagic fever B. dsDNA C. segmented D. non-enveloped E. carried by tick vector 34. Do you like multiple choice tests? A. yes B. yes C. yes D. yes E. yes 35. Arboviruses are ARthropod BOrn viruses. Which is not true? A. Virus reservoir is in arthropods and small animals B. Human to human transmission is a common feature C. The virus first replicates at site of insect bite before infecting local lymph nodes D. Many infections can be subclinical

Monster Mix and Match: Virus Family (may be used more than once/not at all) A. Picornavirus B. Calcivirus C. Reovirus D. Flavivirus E. Togavirus F. Retrovirus G. Orthomyxovirus H. Paramyxovirus I. Rhabdovirus J. Filovirus K. Coronavirus L. Arenavirus M. Bunyavirus N. Deltavirus O. Hepadnavirus P. Herpesvirus Q. Adenovirus R. Parvovirus S. Papovavirus T. Poxvirus

36. slapped cheeks rash (erythema infectiosum) = fifth disease 37. vaccinia 38. Hepatitis A 39. Hepatitis B 40. Hepatitis C 41. Norwalk Virus 42. Rhinovirus 43. Measles 44. Poliovirus 45. Coxsackie Virus 46. HTLV 47. Mumps 48. West Nile 49. Yellow Fever 50. EEE 51. Rubella 52. Dengue 53. Ebola 54. Hantavirus 55. HPV 56. EBV 57. CMV 58. Travels up CNS by migrating in retrograde fashion up nerve axons 59. Parainfluenza 60. Colorado tick fever 61. Most common cause of severe diarrhea in children

62. Which virus is spread by rodent vectors? A. Hantavirus B. Togavirus C. Flavivirus D. Reovirus E. Bunyavirus F. Bornavirus 63. A 10 year old boy presents to the clinic with a rash, conjunctivitis, and coughing. Upon physical exam, you notice red blotches with white centers on his inner cheek. The next step to definitively diagnose his illness is: A. An antibody screen to check for the presense of anti-HA measles antibody B. A PPD test to check for TB C. You dont need to anything else because you should already know he has measles D. A chest X Ray E. A hemagglutination assay

Mix and Match: Hepatitis A. HAV B. HBV C. HCV D. HDV E. HEV 64. Dane particles 65. Delta antigen 66. In the same viral family as Yellow Fever 67. oral-fecal transmission, no vaccine 68. chronic infection characteristic, vaccine exists 69. most common Hepatitis in US 70. You just got back the lab results of a patient you suspect may have Hepatitis B. The results are: HBsAg: negative anti-HBc: negative anti-HBs: positive What is the HBV status of the patient? A. acutely infected with HBV B. chronically infected with HBV C. immune due to natural infection D. immune due to HBV vaccination 71. Transformed cells have many different properties compared to normal cells. Which of the following is not a typical feature of transformed cells? A. Potential for unlimited life B. Decreased contact inhibition C. Cytoskeletal changes associated with increased actin cables D. May undergo apoptosis when starved instead of entering G0 E. May have chromosomal alterations 72. How does HPV cause cancer? A. E6 blocks p53 and E7 blocks Rb B. E7 blocks p53 and E6 blocks Rb C. E6 blocks BAX and E7 blocks BAK D. E7 blocks BAX and E6 blocks BAK E. The HPV antigen (L1) triggers a protooncogene growth factor receptor 73. What has nothing to do with apoptosis? A. Fas/FasL B. Caspases C. BCL-2 D. BAX E. BCL-2 F. SRC 74. Which group of HPVs are most high risk? I. 6 II. 7 III. 11 IV. 16 V. 18 VI. 31 VII. 45 A. II & IV B. IV, V, VI, VII C. I, II, IV, V D. II, IV, V E. all are high risk

75. HPV: What is false? A. Different HPV types are associated with different kinds of warts and cancer potential B. HPV is necessary and sufficient to cause cervical carcinoma C. Over 99% of cervical carcinomas have HPV sequences D. HPV is among the most common sexually transmitted infections E. If there is a wart, there must be a papillomavirus infection 76. Which protein is not formed by cleavage of the retroviral gag, pro, or pol proteins? A. A protein found directly underneath the envelope B. A protein that forms the capsid C. A protein that covers the virion RNA D. A protein with a transmembrane domain through the envelope E. Reverse transcriptase 77. A pig is genetically engineered to remove a glycosyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of Gal alpha(1,3)Gal to cells. What is true about a kidney transplant from this pig to a human? A. Donor anti-Gal alpha(1,3)Gal will cause a hyperacute rejection of the xenogeneic kidney. B. Pig endogenous retroviruses will not be able to infect the kidney during pig development, and thus the kidney will probably be free of disease. C. The recipient will be at an increased risk of being infected with a pig endogenous retrovirus. D. Donor anti-Gal alpha(1,3)Gal will likely lyse any existing pig endogenous retrovirus. 78. Which mechanism of transformation is used by the rous sarcoma virus? A. Insertion: an viral-encoded oncogene is inserted into the host genome B. Enhancer insertion: nearby gene in the vicinity of an integrated provirus are activated C. Post-transcriptional activation: mRNA stability is increased D. Gene inactivation: insertion of provirus may inactivate host gene E. Promoter insertion: deregulation of host gene Mix and match: HIV gene functions A. activates mRNA translation B. activates reverse transcriptase C. reduces mRNA splicing D. regulations degradation of APOBEC 3G E. increases mRNA synthesis from proviral LTR F. increases mRNA splicing G. important for viral nuclear trafficking H. downregulates CD4 79.What is the function of the rev gene? 80. What is the function of tat gene? 81. What is the function of vif gene? 82. What is aother function of the gene that increases the release of budding virions? 83. What is the function of the vpr gene? 84. What type of HIV-1 is most infective? A. CCR5-expressing HIV-1 (R5) B. CXCR4-expressing HIV-1 (X4) C. CCR5 and CXCR4-expressing HIV-1 (R5X4)

Answers 1. A 2. D 3. B 4. E 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. D 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. C 26. A 27. E 28. C 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. E 33. B 34. C 35. B 36. R 37. T 38. A 39. O 40. D 41. B 42. A

43. H 44. A 45. A 46. F 47. H 48. D 49. D 50. E 51. E 52. D 53. J 54. M 55. S 56. P 57. P 58. I 59. H 60. C 61. C 62. A 63. C 64. B 65. D 66. C 67. E 68. B 69. A 70. D 71. C 72. A 73. F 74. B 75. B 76. D 77. C 78. A 79. C 80. E 81. D 82. H 83. G 84. A