Directions: Choose the letter of the correct answer. Write your answers on a separate sheet of paper.

1. In what process do animals take in food that provides energy and nutrients?
A. assimilation B. digestion C. excretion D. ingestion
2. The process in which digested foods are distributed into different parts of the body cells are _______.
A. assimilation B. digestion C. excretion D. ingestion
3. What is the process of turning food into smaller molecules with the aid of enzymes?
A. churning B. mastication C. chemical digestion D. mechanical digestion
4. Where does the final stage in digestion of food happen?
A. liver B. mouth C. small intestine D. large intestine
5. What type of enzyme present in saliva helps break down starch?
A. amylase B. lactase C. lipase D. maltase
6. Which of the following breaks down food into tinier pieces to begin mechanical digestion?
A. esophagus B. stomach C. teeth D. tongue
7. What organ system is responsible for breaking down of large molecules into smaller molecules and absorption of
organic compounds needed by the body?
A. circulatory system B. digestive system C. Nervous system D. respiratory system
8. What is the main function of the large intestine?
A. It breaks down hemoglobin. B. It secretes digestive enzymes.
C. It regulates the release of bile. D. It reabsorbs water from chyme.
9. What do you call the wavelike contraction of the smooth muscles of digestive tract pushes food in small sections
through the gastro-intestinal tube?
A. mixing movement B. parietal movement
C. contractile movement D. peristaltic movement
10. If the liver is severely damaged, metabolism of which nutrients would be
most affected?
A. carbohydrates B. lipids C. proteins D. All of the above
11. Which statement about mitosis is INCORRECT?
A. The first phase is prophase. B. It forms four daughter cells.
C. It makes diploid or haploid nuclei. D. Separation of sister chromatids occurs.
12. What is the form of reproduction whose benefit is variability of the offspring?
A. asexual B. binary fission C. mitosis D. sexual
13. The diploid (2N) chromosome number in an organism is 42. What is the
normal chromosome number of its sex cells?
A. 21 B. 42 C. 63 D. 84
14. These activities of the cell occur in both mitosis and meiosis EXCEPT:
A. cytokinesis B. DNA replication C. karyokinesis D. synapsis
15. Which factor controls hereditary traits?
A. cells B. genes C. chromosomes D. parents
16. Which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
A. G1 phase B. S phase C. G2 phase D. M phase
17. Which stage in the life of a cell is spent most?
A. cytokinesis phase B. mitotic phase C. interphase D. synthesis phase
18. Which statement describes what happens during karyokinesis?
A. DNA replication C. doubling of cell size
B. division of nucleus D. synthesizing enzymes for mitosis
19. Humans have diploid chromosome number (2N) which is equal to 46 chromosomes. What is the chromosome
number of each daughter cell produced
during meiosis?
A. 1 B. 46 C. 23 D. 92
20. Which stage of mitosis where the chromatids of chromosomes separate and begin to move away from each
other?
A. anaphase C. prophase B. metaphase D. telophase
21. There are 64 chromosomes of a fern plant. After mitosis, each daughter cell formed will have how many
chromosomes?
A. 2 B. 32 C. 4 D. 64
22. Gametogenesis is the formation of ________.
A. body cells B. gonads C. sex cells D. somatic cells
23. Which statement describes gametogenesis?
A. It produces haploid cells.
B. It takes place in plants alone.
C. It does not occur in mammals.
D. It always starts with haploid cells.
24. Which is true about spermatogenesis? Each primary spermatocyte produces ___________________.
A. four diploid spermatids
B. four haploid spermatids
C. one diploid spermatid; four polar bodies
D. one haploid spermatid; four polar bodies
25. After a complicated process of differentiation or transformation, the spermatids become __________________.
A. primary spermatocytes B. secondary spermatocytes C. spermatogonia D. sperms
26. Which part of the sperms has the genetic information?
A. acrosome B. head C. middle piece D. tail
27. Which are produced during meiosis in the testes?
A. 4 diploid sperms B. 4 haploid sperms C. 23 diploid sperms D. 23 haploid sperms
28. Which of the following is produced during meiosis in the ovary?
A. 1 diploid ovum B. 1 haploid ovum C. 4 haploid ova D. 23 diploid ova
29. In oogenesis, which one produces the first polar body?
A. oogonia B. primary oocyte C. secondary oocyte D. primordial germ cell
30. Which statement is FALSE about oogenesis?
A. Production of haploid ovum. B. Degeneration of polar bodies.
C. Production of haploid primary oocyte. D. Production of haploid secondary oocyte.
31. What processes are involved in gametogenesis?
A. meiosis I and II B. mitosis and meiosis
C. mitosis and meiosis I D. mitosis and meiosis II
32. Which causes Down syndrome?
A. viral infection B. bacterial infection
C. chromosomal abnormality D. lack of oxygen supply to the brain at birth
33. The following are the characteristics of a person with Patau syndrome EXCEPT:
A. cleft lip B. extra fingers C. Simian crease D. small stature
34. A child with Klinefelter syndrome has how many chromosomes?
A. 44 B. 45 C. 46 D. 47
35. The other name for Cri-du-Chat syndrome is _______.
A. Trisomy 13 B. Trisomy 21 C. 47, XXY syndrome D. “Cat cry” syndrome
36. Which is the main role of meiosis in gametogenesis?
A. for growth of body cells B. for asexual reproduction
C. for cell repair and replacement D. for reduction of chromosome number of gametes
37. Which does not describe Gregor Mendel?
A. An Austrian monk C. Father of Genetics
B. Author of Punnet Square D. Proponent of Law of Dominance
38. Which pair of letters represents a pure line dominant trait?
A. CC B. Gg C. Ee D. tt
39. Which pair of alleles represents a recessive trait?
A. BB B. hH C. Dd D. ss
40. Which is true about homozygous organism?
A. has different alleles C. has three identical alleles
B. has only one of the alleles D. has two similar alleles