a.

Is a branch of the celiac artery

1. On examination physician notices that in a 30 year old woman, b. Continues as the superior rectal artery
abdominal infection has spread retroperitoneally which of following c. Supplies the stomach and the duodenum
structure is causing this infection: d. Passes in the root of the mesentery
a. Stomach e. Its largest branch is the splenic artery
b. Transverse colon 11. You were asked to assist in a surgical operation on a young patient
c. Jejunum to treat an ulcer in the first part of the duodenum. You would expect
d. Ascending colon that the surgeon will approach the ulcer by doing an anterior
e. Spleen abdominal wall incision in the following region:
2. A patient has aneurysm of abdominal aorta at aortic hiatus of a. Epigastric
diaphragm. Which of the following pairs of structures would most likely b. Left inguinal
be compressed as they also pass through aortic opening of c. Left lumbar
diaphragm? d. Right hypochondrial
a. Vagus&azgous vein e. Hypogastric
b. Esophagus &azygous vein 12. A surgeon performing splenectomy& have to save tail of
c. Azygous vein & thoracic duct pancrease so he should take care of:
d. Thoracic duct &vagus nerve a. Splenicorenal ligament
e. Inferior vena cava & phrenic nerve b. Phrenicocolic
3. A patient with cirrhosis of liver presents with esophageal varices. c. Gastrosplenic
Increased retrograde pressure in which veins caused the varices? d. Ligament of treitz
a. Para umbilical e. Ligamentumteres
b. Splenic 13. A patient with cirrhosis of liver presents with esophageal varices.
c. Azygous Increased retrograde pressure in which veins caused the varices?
d. Gastric a. Para umbilical
e. Superior mesenteric b. Splenic
c. Azygous
4. A CT reveals carcinoma in the body of pancreas. Which blood d. Gastric
vessels that courses immediately posterior to the body of the e. Superior mesenteric
pancreas is the most likely to be compressed? 14. A 23 years old female in good health suddenly feels pain in the
a. Splenic artery area of the umbilicus. She feels warm and uneasy and has no appetite.
b. Abdominal aorta The pain seems to have moved to the lower right abdominal region,
c. Portal Vein which nerves in the area of the umbilicus, carried this painful sensation
d. Splenic vein into the CNS?
e. Renal vein a. Vagus nerves
5. After cholecystectomy patient had internal hemorrhage and he b. Lesser splanchnic nerves
was shifted to emergency operation theatre in supine c. Iliohypogastric nerves
position,abdomen was reopened and surgeon found collected blood d. Pudendal nerves
in: e. Greater splanchnic nerves
a. Right anterior subphrenic space 15. A 38-year-old banker with a history of heart burn suddenly
b. Right posterior subphrenic space experiences excruciating pain in the epigastric region of the abdomen.
c. Left anterior subphrenic space Surgery is performed immediately upon admission to the emergency
d. Left posterior subphrenic space room. This is evidence of a ruptured ulcer in the posterior wall of the
e. Lesser sac. stomach. Where will a surgeon first find the stomach contents?
6. A 56 years’ male presented with a swelling in groin. On examination a. Greater peritoneal sac
there is a swelling superomedial to pubic tubercle and expansile b. Sac of Douglas
(increasing in size) on cough. Per operation findings show swelling c. Omental bursa
being lateral to inferior epigastric vessels. The swelling can be: d. Paracolic gutter
a. Medial direct inguinal hernia e. Between the parietal peritoneum and the posterior body wall
b. Femoral hernia 16. In case of intrahepatic obstruction of portal circulation as in liver
c. Lateral direct inguinal hernia cirrhosis, portal blood can still be conveyed to the caval system via:
d. Indirect inguinal hernia a. Azygous and hemizygous veins.
e. Saphenavarix b. Splenic vein.
7. Muscles forming posterior layer of rectus sheath are:- c. Internal iliac veins.
a. External oblique + Transerversus Abdominus d. Gonadal veins.
b. External oblique + Internal oblique. e. Vesical venous plexus
c. Internal oblique + Transverses Abdominus. 17. Psoas sheath is thickened superiorly to form:
d. Internal oblique only. a. Renal fascia.
e. Transversus abdominas and pectoral major. b. Medial arcuate ligament.
8. The normal pattern of venous and lymphatic drainage of the c. Median arcuate ligament.
superficial tissues of the anterior abdominal wall is arranged around a d. Lateral arcuate ligament.
horizontal plane. Above that plane, drainage is in a cranial direction; e. Median umblical ligament.
below the plane drainage is in a caudal direction. This reference plane 18. Structures derived from cloacal membrane are:
corresponds to: a. Urorectal septum
a. Transpyloric plane b. Anal membrane
b. Level of anterior superior iliac spines c. Urethral ectodermal plate
c. Transtubercular line d. Hymen
d. Level of arcuate line e. Central fibrous trigone
e. Level of umbilicus 19. Meckel’s diverticulum:
9. A 23 years old male has to undergo splenectomy due to splenic a. Joins the umbilicus to the ileum
rupture after an accident. The part of pancreas that can be injured b. Results in a congenital umbilical hernia
during splenectomy is: c. May cause abnormal rotation of primitive intestinal loop
a. Head of pancreas. d. Is a remnant of yolk sac
b. Neck of pancreas. e. Forms the median umbilical ligament
c. Tail of pancreas. 20. Derivative of hindgut is
d. Body of pancreas. a. Liver
e. Uncinate process of pancreas. b. Appendix
10. The superior mesenteric artery: c. Proximal two third of transverse colon
d. Descending colon a. Obstruction of right renal vein
e. Prostate b. obstruction of IVC
21. During the intrauterine development, the physiologically herniated c. Obstruction of SVC
gut loops are returned back to the abdominal cavity due to: d. Compression of left renal vein
a. Reduced growth of liver e. Compression of portal vein
b. Increase in the size of embryo 33. A patient was brought to the hospital after a roadside accident and
c. Shortening of ventral mesentery the surgeon diagnosed the case as traumatic rupture of the penile
d. Reduced growth of large intestine urethra just distal to the perineal membrane. The urine in this case will
e. Pull by the dorsal mesentery not extravasate into the:
22. Which of the following cell types is present in gastric glands of a. Superficial perineal pouch.
pyloric stomach? b. Deep perineal pouch.
a. Goblet cells c. Scrotum.
b. Mucous neck cells d. Anterior abdominal wall.
c. Paneth cells e. Upper part of front of the thigh.
d. Chief cells 34. Which lobe of the prostate gland is commonly involved in benign
e. Microfoldcells hypertrophy that obstructs the prostatic urethra?
23. Gastric tumors are known as: a. Anterior lobe.
a. Adenoids b. Median lobe.
b. Fibroids c. Right lateral lobe.
c. Carcinoids d. Posterior lobe.
d. Myomas e. Left lateral lobe.
e. Hemongiomas 35. Perinephric fat:
24. Which region are goblet cells most numerous? a. Surrounds kidneys but not vessels
a. Esophagus b. Is external to renal fascia
b. Stomach c. Blends with extra peritoneal fat
c. Small intestine d. Extends into renal sinuses
d. Large intestine e. Does not hold the kidney
e. Anus 36. Each renal artery divides close to the hilum into:
25. What are the modifications of the muscularis externa that is seen a. Segmental arteries
on the large intestine? b. Interlobar arteries
a. Teniae coli c. Lobar arteries
b. Crypts of Lieberkuhn d. Superior vesical arteries
c. Plicaecirculares e. Inferior vesical arteries
d. Striated border 37. . Regarding the left renal vein:
e. Payers patches a. It lies behind the left renal artery.
26. Which layer of the gastrointestinal tract contains the gut associated b. It receives the inferior mesenteric vein.
lymphatic c. It is crossed anteriorly by the superior mesenteric artery.
tissue? d. It is shorter than the right renal vein.
a. Mucosa e. It lies above the level of the splenic vein
b. Submucosa 38. The lining epithelium of thin segment of loop of Henle consists of:
c. Muscularisexterna a. Cuboidal cells
d. Muscularis mucosae b. Squamous cells
e. Serosa c. Columnar cells
d. Principal cells
27. What are the folds of the stomach called? e. Intercalated cells.
a. Ruffled border 39. Macula densa cells of juxtaglomerular apparatus belongs to:
b. Taeniae coli a. Proximal convoluted tubule
c. Gastric glands b. Distal convoluted tubule
d. Rugae c. Loop of Henle
e. Gastric pits d. Collecting tubule
28. Which organ has a mucosa lined by nonkeratinized stratified e. Collecting duct
squamous epithelium? 40. Visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule is composed of which type of
a. Esophagus cells:
b. Stomach a. Mesangial cells
c. Small intestine b. Pedicles
d. Large intestine c. Podocytes
e. Rectum d. Macula densa cell
29. Intestinal glands are also known as: e. Juxtaglomerular cells
a. Lacteal
b. Crypts of Lieberkuhn 41. Filtration barrier in nephron is constituted by one of the following
c. Plicaecirculares structure:
d. Striated border a. Fenestrated capillary endothelium
e. Villi b. Sinusoidal capillary endothelium
30. Auerbach's plexus is located in which layer? c. Continuous capillary endothelium
a. Mucosa d. Glomerular endothelium
b. Sub mucosa e. Simple capillary endothelium
c. Muscularis externa 42. Which structure is not derived from ureteric bud in both the sexes?
d. Serosa a. Ureter
e. Adventitia b. Major calyces
31. The vessel arching at the base of renal pyramids can be: c. Minor calyces
a. Segmental artery d. Collecting tubules of kidney
b. Inter lobar artery e. Nephrons
c. Interlobular artery 43. Kidney develops from the following germ layer
d. Arcuate artery a. endoderm
e. Afferent arteriole b. Ectoderm
32. A 40 year old male presented in outdoor with H/O hematuria and c. Paraxial mesoderm
proteinuria, left flank pain, left testicular pain. A diagnosis of nutcracker d. Intermediate mesoderm
syndrome is made. The etiology of nutcracker syndrome is: e. Lateral plate mesoderm
44. Regarding saliva, which of the following statement is false? d. Is formed by a thickening of the circular layer of the smooth
a. Has an antiseptic action muscle
b. Contains an enzyme that is essential for the complete e. Is surrounded by the skeletal muscle of the external anal
digestion of the starch sphincter
c. Has important lubricating action 55. Which of the following brush border enzymes play a role in
d. Helps in speech the digestion of proteins?
e. Maintains the pH of the mouth at around 7 a. Alpha-dextrinase
45. Carbohydrates in the small intestine are hydrolyzed by the b. Carboxypeptidase A
following, except c. Lactose
a. Lactase d. Peptidases
b. Maltase e. Trehalase
c. Sucrase 56. Cephalic phase of gastric secretion is primarily under
d. Ptyalin control of
e. Alpha-dextrinase a. Gastrin
46. All of the following are the major processes of GIT, except b. Histamine
a. Motility c. Renin
b. Immobility d. Secretin
c. Secretion e. Vagal stimulation
d. Regulation 57. Besides Hcl, parietal cells also secrete:
e. Digestion a. Gastrin
47. The resting membrane potential of smooth muscle cells is b. Histamine
between c. Intrinsic factor
a. -30 to -40 d. Renin
b. -40 to -50 e. Secretin
c. -50 to -60 58. Antral gastrin release is increased by
d. -60 to -70 a. Elevating antral pH from 2 to 5.6
e. -70 to -80 b. Fat in the antrum of the stomach
48. Which of the following is not amongst the factors that c. Protein digestion products in antrum
depolarize the membrane? d. Secretin infusion
a. Stretching of the muscle e. Somatostatin
b. Stimulation by acetylcholine released from the endings of 59. The main functions of kidneys are:
the parasympathetic nerves a. Excretion of wastes
c. Stimulation by acetylcholine released from the endings of b. Reabsorption of vital nutrients
the sympathetic nerves c. Acid-Base homeostasis (PH)
d. Stimulation by several specific gastric hormones d. Secretion of antibiotics
e. Rushing of the positively charged sodium ions into a neuron e. Hormone secretion (Erythropoietin, Renin, Calcitriol)
with the opening of the voltage-gated sodium channels 60. The main components of the kidney (renal) are:
49. Hunger pangs are specified by all of the following, except a. Artery
a. Abdominal pain b. Capsule
b. Back pain c. Cortex
c. Rumbling sensations in the stomach d. Medulla
d. Painful contractions in the stomach area e. Malphighian tubule
e. A feeling of emptiness in the stomach 61. Most of the reabsorbed water in the kidney is reabsorbed
across the walls of the:
50. Which of the following factors does not influence the rate of a. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
gastric emptying? b. Collecting ducts
a. Carbohydrate concentration c. Descending limb of the loop of Henle
b. The intensity of exercise d. Distal tubules
c. Meal volume e. Proximal tubules
d. osmolarity 62. When substances move from the tubule into the
e. Fat and protein in the diet surrounding afferent arteriole, this is known as
51. All of the following are the factors that initiate enterogastric a. Ejection
inhibitory reflexes, except b. Excretion
a. The degree of distention of the duodenum c. Filtration
b. The presence of any degree of irritation of the duodenal d. Re-absorption
mucosa e. Tubular secretion
c. The degree of acidity of the duodenal chyme
d. The absence of certain breakdown products in the chyme
e. The degree of osmolality of the chyme
52. Haustral contractions are 63. Which of the following structures facilitates easy passage of
a. Slow segmenting movements small molecules from the blood to the glomerular capsule?
b. They occur about every 30 minutes a. Distal tubule
c. They occur primarily in the descending colon b. Glomerulus
d. They are produced by contractions of the smooth muscle c. Loop of Henle
layer d. Peritubular capillaries
e. Contraction moves the chyme into the next haustrum f. Proximal tubule
53. Steps of the mass movements are 64. In a healthy individual the GFR is usually
a. Undigested waste in the transverse colon a. 5% of the effective renal blood flow
b. Gastrocolic reflex is initiated by the ingestion of a meal b. Between 15 and 20% of the effective blood flow
c. This reflex triggers the waste c. Between 30 and 40% of the effective blood flow
d. Contractions move the fecal waste toward the ascending d. Between 40 and 50% of the effective blood flow
colon e. Between 50 and 60% of the effective blood flow
e. Contraction of the circular layer of the smooth muscle 65. Potassium
occurs in the transverse colon a. Ions are reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubules
54. The internal anal sphincter b. Reabsorption in tubules is insulin dependent
a. Is a voluntary smooth muscle sphincter c. Transport is primarily by active secretion into the tubular
b. Is an involuntary smooth muscle sphincter fluid
c. Is located at the distal extremity of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract d. Transport is blocked by aldosterone
e. Transport from the lumen of the nephron depends on 78. Where are ketone bodies synthesized?
sodium transport a. Brain
66. Part of the nephron impermeable to salt is b. Muscles
a. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle c. Liver
b. Collecting ducts d. Adipose tissues
c. Distal convoluted tubule e. None of the above
d. Proximal convoluted tubule 79. In what compartment does the de novo fatty acid synthesis occur?
e. Descending limb of the loop of Henle a. Mitochondria
67. Duct of Bellini is found in b. Peroxisome
a. Distal convoluted tubule c. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Loop of Henle d. Cytosol
c. Medulla e. Nowhere
d. Proximal convoluted tubule 80. What is the precursor for fatty acid synthesis?
e. Ureter a. Acetyl CoA
68. The basic structure of a nephron within a kidney consists of: b. Propionyl CoA
a. Glomerulus, and JGA c. Succinyl CoA
b. Bowman’s capsule d. Acetoacetyl CoA
c. Proximal convoluted tubule e. Acetone
d. Loop of Antenna 81. The conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA is the rate-limiting
e. Distal Convoluted tubule, and collecting ducts step in fatty acid synthesis. Which of the following enzyme catalyses
69. The apex of the renal pyramid is called the: the above-mentioned reaction?
a. Minor calyx a. Acetyl CoA carboxylase
b. Major calyx b. Malonyl CoA synthetase
c. Renal papilla c. Acetyl CoA decarboxylase
d. Renal pelvis d. Malonyl CoA synthase
e. Ureter e. Phosphatase
70. In a patient of diabetes insipidus the urine formed is 82. The acetyl CoA is produced in the mitochondria and must be
a. Plenty with zero osmolality transported into the cytosol for the synthesis of fatty acids. Which of
b. Hypotonic to plasma the following is true regarding the transport of Acetyl CoA?
c. Hypertonic to plasma a. Acetyl CoA is diffused from the mitochondrial membrane
d. Isotonic to plasma b. Acetyl CoA is transported by its specific transporter protein
e. Variable but equal to that of plasma c. Acetyl CoA is converted into pyruvate, enters into the cytosol and
71. Which of the following substances is not reabsorbed by a acetyl CoA is regenerated
Tm-limited mechanism? d. Acetyl CoA is converted into citrate, enters into the cytosol and
a. Amino acids acetyl CoA is regenerated.
b. Glucose e. None of the above
c. Lactose 83. What is the allosteric regulator of acetyl CoA carboxylase?
d. Phosphate a. Fatty acid
e. Urea b. ATP
72. Proximal convoluted tubules are lined by: c. Citrate
a. Cuboidal cells with brush borders d. Acetyl CoA
b. Columnar cells e. All of the above
c. Pseudostratified squamous cells
d. Squamous epithelium 84. Which of the following event inactivates acetyl CoA carboxylase?
e. Stratified squamous cells a. ADP-Ribosylation
b. Glycosylation
73. Which of the following metabolites negatively regulates pyruvate c. Phosphorylation
kinase? d. Formylation
a. Citrate e. TCA
b. Alanine 85. Which of the following is not a positive regulator of acetyl CoA
c. Acetyl CoA carboxylase?
d. Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphate a. Excess calories
e. Glutamate b. Insulin
74. The glycerol phosphate shuttle functions in: c. Citrate
a. Lipid catabolism d. Long-chain fatty acid
b. Triglyceride synthesis e. Tyrosine
c. Anaerobic glycolysis for the regeneration of NAD
d. Aerobic glycolysis to transport NADH equivalents resulting from
glycolysis into mitochondria. 86. Which of the following enzyme statement is not true regarding fatty
e. Ketosis acid synthase?
75. Where are the enzymes for β-oxidation present? a. Fatty acid synthase is a multifunctional enzyme
a. Nucleus b. Fatty acid synthase is active as a dimer
b. Cytosol c. Fatty acid synthase is activated by high-calorie food
c. Mitochondria d. Fatty acid synthase complex is inhibited by its phosphorylation
d. Golgi apparatus e. b & c
e. ER 87.What form of energy is required for fatty acid biosynthesis?
76. Fats after absorption, present in the circulation as a. ATP
a. VLDL b. NADH
b. HDL c. NADPH
c. LDL d. FADH2
d. Chylomicron e. c & d
e. Cholesterol 88. What is the source of NADPH required for fatty acid synthesis?
77. Which of the following undergoes β-oxidation? a. Pentose phosphate pathway
a. Polyunsaturated fatty acids b. Malic enzyme
b. Saturated fatty acids c. Both a & b
c. Monounsaturated fatty acids d. None of the above
d. b and c e. All of the above
e. All of the above 89.What is the fate of fatty acid entering the cells?
a. Fatty acid diffuses into mitochondria for beta-oxidation e. A & C only
b. Fatty acid is converted into fatty acyl CoA (activated form) 99. The pH of the body fluids is stabilized by buffer systems. Which of
c. Fatty acid is bound to albumin in the cytosol the following compounds is the most effective buffer system at
d. None of the above physiological pH?
e. All of the above a. Bicarbonate buffer
90. What is the role of L-carnitine in fatty acid metabolism? b. Phosphate buffer
a. Facilitate the transport of fatty acid from the cytosol to c. Protein buffer
mitochondria d. All of the above
b. Serve as a cofactor for enzyme fatty acid synthase e. None of the above
c. Activator of acetyl CoA carboxylase 100. All are true for renal handling of acids in metabolic acidosis
d. None of the above except
e. A of the above a. Hydrogen ion secretion is increased
91. Identify the correct sequential enzymatic step for fatty acid b. Bicarbonate reabsorption is decreased
synthesis: c. Urinary acidity is increased
a. Delta-2-enoyl CoA Dehydrate, Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase, d. Urinary ammonia is increased.
Hydroxy acyl dehydrogenase, Thiolase e. Both B & C
b. Hydroxy acyl dehydrogenase, Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase, Delta- 101. Which of the following is most appropriate for a female suffering
2-enoyl CoA Dehydrate, Thiolase from Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus with a pH of 7.2, HCO3-=17
c. Thiolase, Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase, Delta-2-enoyl CoA mmol/L and pCO2-=20 mm HG
Dehydrate, Hydroxy acyl dehydrogenase a. Metabolic Acidosis
d. Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase, delta-2-enoyl CoA Dehydrate, b. Metabolic Alkalosis
Hydroxy acyl dehydrogenase, Thiolase c. Respiratory Acidosis
e. None of the above d. Respiratory Alkalosis
92. The complete beta-oxidation of palmitoyl CoA yield e. Compensated alkalosis
a. 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA and 16 NADH 102. In metabolic alkalosis, the blood pH level:
b. 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA and 16 FADH2 a. Increases
c. 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA, 8 NADH, and 8 FADH b. Decreases
d. 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA and 16 NADPH c. Stay the same
e. 180 ATPs d. May increase or decrease
93. High rate of beta-oxidation in the liver leads to ketogenesis (ketone e. No effect at all
body synthesis). 103. The following are the primary system that regulates acid-base
Which of the following condition may result in ketogenesis? homeostasis. Which of the following is the first acting regulatory
a. Uncontrolled Type I diabetes mechanism?
b. Pregnancy a. Chemical buffer system
c. Starvation b. Protein buffer system
d. All of the above c. Respiratory mechanism
e. None of the above d. Renal mechanism
94. Which of the following step is unique to the formation of ketone e. C only
bodies? 104. The following are the primary system that regulates acid-base
a. Formation of Acetoacetyl CoA catalyzed by thiolase homeostasis. Which of the following is the most powerful regulatory
b. Formation of HMG CoA catalyzed by HMG CoA synthase mechanism?
c. Splitting of HMG CoA to acetyl CoA and acetoacetate catalyzed a. Chemical buffer system
by HMG CoA lyase b. Protein buffer system
d. Reduction of acetoacetate to 3-hydroxybutyrate catalyzed by 3- c. Respiratory mechanism
hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase d. Renal mechanism
e. Keto acidosis e. All of the above

105. A known diabetic is presented at emergency with

95. The renal system does not play a direct role in regulating which of unconscious state. On lab investigation his blood glucose was found
the following? 400mg/dl & ketone level 3mg/dl. Soon ABG of patient done which
a. Blood solute concentrations shows following results pH= 7.25, HCO3= 10 mEq/L & pCO2= 35mm
b. Blood temperature of Hg. The patient is suffering from:
c. Blood pressure a. Diabetic Ketoacidosis
d. Blood pH b. Hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma
e. Blood Potassium level c. Metabolic Alkalosis
96. A person was admitted in coma. Analysis of the arterial blood gave d. Respiratory Acidosis
the following values: PCO2 =16 mm Hg, HCO3-= 5 mmol/l and pH= e. Respiratory Alkalosis
7.1. What is the underlying acid-base disorder? 106. A-50 years old COPD patient has following results of his
a. Metabolic Acidosis ABG. Comment on the compensation type found based on his report.
b. Metabolic Alkalosis pH= 7.20, HCO3= 30 mEq/L & pCO2= 55mm of Hg.
c. Respiratory Acidosis a. Acute uncompensated Respiratory Acidosis
d. Respiratory Alkalosis b. Fully compensated Metabolic Acidosis
e. None of the above c. Fully compensated Respiratory Acidosis
97. In a man undergoing surgery, it was necessary to aspirate the d. Partial compensated Metabolic Acidosis
contents of the upper gastrointestinal tract. After surgery, the following e. Partial compensated Respiratory Acidosis
values were obtained from an arterial blood sample: pH= 7.55, PCO2= 107. The primary defect in metabolic acidosis is:
52 mm Hg and HCO3- =40 mmol/l. Which option is correct? a. Low bicarb (HCO3) level
a. Metabolic Acidosis b. High bicarb (HCO3) level
b. Metabolic Alkalosis c. Low CO2 (pCO2) level
c. Respiratory Acidosis d. High CO2 (pCO2) level
d. Respiratory Alkalosis e. Hyperventilation
e. All of the above 108. Which one of the following is NOT a function of calcium in
98. A student is nervous for an exam and is breathing rapidly, what human body?
do you expect out of the followings: a. Blood coagulation.
a. Metabolic Acidosis b. Bone demineralization
b. Metabolic Alkalosis c. Muscle contraction.
c. Respiratory Acidosis d. Neuromuscular transmission
d. Respiratory Alkalosis e. Skeletal growth
109. Which one of the following factors inhibits/decrease calcium
absorption from GIT?
a. Alkalosis
b. High protein diet
c. Parathyroid hormone
d. Vitamin D
e. Young age & healthy state
110. Which of the following drugs may inhibit the hepatic
microsomal P450 enzyme responsible for warfarin metabolism?
a. Cimetidine
b. Ethanol
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Phenytoin
e. Rifampicin

SEQ
Q1. What are the functions of the large intestine?
Q2. What is the difference between acidemia and alkalemia?
Enumerate their types.
Q3. Describe the blood supply of stomach