VPRP MEGA TEST (2024-25)

TEST - 06 (Dropper)

DURATION
DURATION:: 200
90 Minutes
Minutes DATE: 06/10/2024 M. MARKS: 720

Topics Covered
Physics: Kinetic Theory and Thermodynamics
Chemistry: Equilibrium (Lecture 9 to 10), Electrochemistry and Chemical Kinetics (Lecture 1 to 2)
Botany: Biological Classification (Lecture 4 to 8) and Microbes in Human Welfare
Zoology: Neural Control and Coordination (Except Eye and Ear), Chemical Coordination and Integration

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (four options with a single
correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two
sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185).
All Questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200).
In section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the question paper. In the
event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks are 720.
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc.
inside the examination room/hall.
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candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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 [VPRP Mega Test-6 | ROI | Dropper-NEET | 6-Oct-2024 | Ph-1]
Kinetic Theory and Thermodynamics

(PHYSICS)

SECTION-A 6. The relation between the ideal gas pressure P and

average kinetic energy per unit volume E is;
1. Which of the following equations can represent 1
(1) P = E (2) P = E
the first law of thermodynamics? (Where symbols 2
have their usual meaning) 3 2
(1) dQ = dU + PdV (3) P = E (4) P = E
2 3
(2) dQ = dU  PdV
(3) dQ = (dU + dV ) P 7. Starting the same initial conditions, an ideal gas
(4) dQ = PdU + dV expands from volume V1 to V2 in three different
ways. The work done by the gas is W1 if the
2. At a given temperature, the pressure of an ideal process is purely isothermal, W2 if purely isobaric
gas of density  is proportional to: and W3 if purely adiabatic. Then:
(1) W2 > W1 > W3
1 1
(1) (2) (2) W2 > W3 > W1
 2 
(3) W1 > W2 > W3
(3) 2 (4)  (4) W1 > W3 > W2

3. Match List-I with List-II. 8. Gas at a pressure P0 is contained in a vessel. If

List-I List-II the masses of all the molecules are halved and
A. First law of I. Entropy change their speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure P
thermodynamics will be equal to;
B. Isothermal process II. Conservation of (1) 4P0 (2) 2P0
energy P0
C. Second law of III. Constant (3) P0 (4)
2
thermodynamics Temperature
D Adiabatic process IV. No heat 9. The pressure is exerted by an ideal gas on the
exchange walls of the container because:
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) Potential energy of ideal gas increases on
below; collision.
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) Molecules of gases stick to the walls.
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (3) On collision with the walls there is a change
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II in momentum of the gas molecules.
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (4) Molecules of gases are accelerated towards
the walls.
4. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends upon:
(1) Specific volume 10. The net amount of the work done in the following
(2) Pressure
indicator diagram if both circles have same area
(3) Temperature
is:
(4) Density

5. Two samples A and B of a gas are initially at same

temperature and pressure, are compressed to half
their initial volume, A isothermally and B
adiabatically. The final pressure in:
(1) A and B will be same (1) zero
(2) A will be more than in B (2) positive
(3) A will be less than in B (3) negative
(4) data insufficient (4) infinite
11. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 17. The temperature of a gas at pressure P and
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: volume V is 27°C. Keeping its volume constant if
Assertion (A): Most probable velocity is the its temperature is raised to 927°C, then its
velocity possessed by maximum fraction of pressure will be;
molecules at the same temperature. (1) 2 P
Reason (R): On collision, more and more (2) 3 P
molecules acquire higher speed at the same (3) 4 P
temperature. (4) 6 P
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: 18. Every gas (real gas) behaves as an ideal gas
(1) A is true but R is false. (1) At high temperature and low pressure
(2) A is false but R is true. (2) At low temperature and high pressure
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (3) At normal temperature and pressure
explanation of A. (4) At all temperature and pressure
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A. 19. Boyle's law holds for an ideal gas during:
(1) Isobaric changes
12. A gas of specific heat ratio () expands under (2) Isothermal changes
constant pressure P from volume V1 to V2 . The (3) Isochoric changes
work done by the gas is; (4) Isotonic changes
(1) P(V2 − V1 ) (2) P(V1 − V2 )
V1V2 20. S.I. unit of universal gas constant is;
(3) P(V1 − V2 ) (4) P (1) cal/°C (2) J/mol
V2 − V1
(3) J mol-1 K-1 (4) J/kg
13. 4 moles of an ideal gas is at 0°C. At constant
pressure it is heated to double its volume, then its 21. In changing the state of thermodynamics from
final temperature will be; state A to state B, the heat required is Q and the
(1) 0°C (2) 273°C work done by the system is W. The change in its
(3) 546°C (4) 136.5°C internal energy is;
(1) Q + W
14. When heat is given to an ideal gas in an isobaric (2) Q – W
process, then; (3) Q
(1) The work is done by the gas Q −W
(4)
(2) Internal energy of the gas increases 2
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Neither (1) nor (2) 22. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
15. In adiabatic expansion change in internal energy (U): Assertion (A): In an adiabatic process, magnitude
(1) U = 0 of change in internal energy of a gas is equal to
(2) U = negative work done on or by the gas in the process.
(3) U = positive Reason (R): Temperature of gas remains constant
in a adiabatic process.
(4) U  0
In the light of the above statements, choose the
16. The work done in an adiabatic process in an ideal correct answer from the options given below:
gas does not depend on: (1) A is true but R is false.
(1) Number of moles of the gas. (2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) Specific heat ratio ().
explanation of A.
(3) Change in temperature
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(4) Path of the process.
correct explanation of A.
23. Heat given to a system is 35 J and work done by 29. A monoatomic gas molecule has:
the system is 15 J. The change in the internal (1) Three degrees of freedom
energy of the system will be; (2) Four degrees of freedom
(1) – 50 J (3) Five degrees of freedom
(2) 20 J (4) Six degrees of freedom
(3) 30 J
(4) 50 J 30. If the degree of freedom of a gas are f, then the
ratio of two specific heats CP / CV is given by;

At a pressure of 24×105 dyne / cm2 , the volume 2

24. (1) +1
f
of O2 is 10 litre and mass is 20 gm. The r.m.s.
2
velocity will be; (2) 1 −
f
(1) 800 m/sec
1
(2) 400 m/sec (3) 1 +
f
(3) 600 m/sec
1
(4) 360 m/sec (4) 1 −
f

25. For an ideal gas in an isothermal process, which

of the following is true? 31. A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio 3 : 1
(1) Heat content remains constant by mass. The temperature of the mixture is 300 K. If
(2) Heat content and temperature remain atomic mass of argon = 39.9 u, and molecular mass
constant of chlorine = 70.9 u, then then the ratio of average
(3) Temperature remains constant kinetic energy per molecule of argon to chlorine gas
is:
(4) Pressure remains constant
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
26. Can two different isothermal curves cut each other
(3) 1 : 3
on a thermodynamic diagram?
(4) 39.9 : 70.9
(1) No, they cannot intersect.
(2) Yes, they can intersect at any condition.
32. The temperature of an ideal gas is kept constant as
(3) Yes, they can intersect at high pressures.
it expands. The gas does external work. During
(4) Yes, they can intersect only at absolute zero.
this process, the internal energy of the gas.
(1) Decreases
27. In an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas;
(2) Increases
(1) Internal energy of the gas increases.
(3) Remains constant
(2) Internal energy of the gas decreases.
(4) Increases or decreases
(3) Internal energy remains unchanged.
(4) Average kinetic energy of gas molecule 33. Two non-reactive monoatomic ideal gases have
decreases. their atomic masses in the ratio 2 : 3. The ratio of
their partial pressures, when enclosed in a vessel
28. If a cylinder containing a gas at high pressure kept at a constant temperature, is 4 : 3. The ratio
explodes, the gas undergoes of their densities is:
(1) Reversible adiabatic change and fall of (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
temperature (3) 6 : 9 (4) 8 : 9
(2) Reversible adiabatic change and rise of
temperature 34. Molecules of an ideal gas are assumed to be:
(3) Irreversible adiabatic change and fall of (1) Inelastic rigid sphere
temperature (2) Perfectly elastic non-rigid sphere
(4) Irreversible adiabatic change and rise of (3) Perfectly elastic rigid sphere
temperature (4) Inelastic non-rigid sphere
35. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 39. One mole of an ideal gas at 273 K is filled in a
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: cylinder fitted with a piston has a pressure P,
Assertion (A): We cannot change the temperature volume V. If the temperature is increased by 1 K
of a body without giving (or taking) heat to (or keeping pressure constant, the increase in volume
from) it. is;
Reason (R): According to principle of 2V
conservation of energy, total energy of an isolated (1)
273
system should remain conserved.
V
In the light of the above statements, choose the (2)
274
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is true but R is false. V
(3)
(2) A is false but R is true. 273
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) V
explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the 40. A gas at NTP is suddenly compressed to one-
correct explanation of A. 3
fourth of its original volume. If  = , then the
2
SECTION-B final pressure is;
(1) 4 atmosphere
36. In an isothermal reversible expansion, if the 3
volume of 96 gm of oxygen at 27°C is increased (2) atmosphere
2
from 70 litres to 140 litres, then the work done by (3) 8 atmosphere
the gas (in J) will be;
1
(1) 300Rlog10 2 (4) atmosphere
4
(2) 81Rloge 2
(3) 900Rlog10 2
(4) 900Rloge 2 41. In a cyclic process, the internal energy of the gas;
(1) Increases
37. A vessel containing 5 litres of an ideal gas at a (2) Decreases
pressure of 0.8 m of Hg is connected to an (3) Remains constant
evacuated vessel of volume 3 litres. The resultant (4) Becomes zero
pressure inside whole system will be; (assuming
whole system to be isolated) 42. A gas is compressed at a constant pressure of 50 N/m2
4 from a volume of 10 m3 to a volume of 4m3. Energy of
(1) m of Hg
3 100 J is added to the gas by heating. Its internal energy
(2) 0.5 m of Hg is;
(3) 2.0 m of Hg (1) Increased by 400 J
3 (2) Increased by 200 J
(4) m of Hg
4 (3) Decreased by 100 J
(4) Decreased by 200 J
38. The pressure in the tyre of a car is four times the
atmospheric pressure at 300 K. If this tyre 43. What is the significance of the parameters a and b
suddenly bursts, its new temperature will be of
in the Van der Waals equation?
gas; ( of gas is 1.4)
(1) Both a and b show volume corrections.
(1) 300(4)1.4 (2) Both a and b indicate cohesive forces
1
0.4 between the molecules.
(2) 300   (3) a denotes cohesive forces between the
4
molecules, while b shows volume correction.
(3) 300(2)−0.4/1.4
(4) a shows volume correction, while b signifies
(4) 300(4)−0.4/1.4 cohesive forces between the molecules.
44. For two gases with molecular weights M1 and M2, 46. Find work done by the gas in the process shown in
what is the ratio of their root mean square figure:
velocities v1 (for M1) and v2 (for M2) at the same
temperature?
M1
(1)
M2

M2
(2)
M1

M1 + M 2
(3)
M1 − M 2 (1)
5
 atm L (2)
5
atm L
2 2
M1 − M 2 3 5
(4) (3) −  atm L (4) −  atm L
M1 + M 2 2 4

47. In the indicator diagram shown, the work done

45. A fixed mass of ideal gas undergoes changes of
along path AB is:
pressure and volume starting at L, as shown in
Figure.

(1) zero (2) 20 joule

Which of the following is correct:
(3) –20 joule (4) 60 joule

48. A cylinder of capacity 20 litres is filled with H2

(1) gas. The total average kinetic energy of
translatory motion of its molecules is 1.5 105 J.
The pressure of hydrogen in the cylinder is;
(1) 2×106 N / m2
(2) 3×106 N / m2
(2)
(3) 4×106 N / m2
(4) 5×106 N / m2

49. For free expansion of a gas in an adiabatic

container which of the following is true?
(3) (1) Q = W = 0 and U = 0
(2) Q = 0, W > 0 and U = Q
(3) W = 0, Q > 0 and U = Q
(4) W = 0, Q < 0 and U = 0

50. A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure P

(4) and volume V are related as VPn = constant. The
bulk modulus of the gas in the process is:
(1) nP (2) P1/n
(3) P/n (4) Pn
 [VPRP Mega Test-6 | ROI | Dropper-NEET | 6-Oct-2024 | Ph-1]
Equilibrium (Lecture 9 to 10), Electrochemistry and Chemical Kinetics (Lecture 1 to 2)

(CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 57. The specific conductance of a 0.1 N KCl solution at
51. Which of the following salts undergoes anionic 23°C is 0.012 ohm–1 cm–1. The resistance of cell
hydrolysis? containing the solution at the same temperature was
(1) CuSO4 found to be 5 ohm. The cell constant will be;
(2) NH4Cl (1) 0.04 cm–1
(3) AlCl3 (2) 0.06 cm–1
(4) CH3COONa (3) 0.01 cm–1
(4) 1.12 cm–1
d  NH 3 
52. For the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, if
dt 58. The best indicator for the detection of end point in
−d  H 2  titration of a weak acid and a strong base is;
= 2 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1, the value of would (1) Methyl orange (3 to 4)
dt
be; (2) Methyl red (5 to 6)
(1) 1 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1 (3) Bromothymol blue (6 to 7.5)
(2) 3 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1 (4) Phenolphthalein (8 to 9.6)
(3) 4 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 6 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1 59. Match List I with List II
List I List II
53. Calculate the cell potential (in V) if G = –96.5 (Property) (S.I unit)
kJ/mol and n = 1; A. Conductance I. S m–1
(1) 0.1 V B. Conductivity II. ohm metre
(2) 1 V C. Molar conductivity III. S m2 mol–1
(3) 10 V D. Resistivity IV. S
(4) 100 V Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
54. The dissociation constant of acetic acid is 1.8 × 10–5. (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
The hydrolysis constant for 0.1M sodium acetate is; (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(1) 1.8 × 10–19 (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) 5.56 × 10–10 (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) 1.8 × 10–5
(4) 1.8 × 109 60. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
55. A solution of sodium sulphate in water is (R)
electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products Assertion (A): Conductivity always decreases with
obtained at the cathode and anode are respectively; decrease in concentration for both weak and strong
(1) H2, O2 (2) O2, H2 electrolytes.
(3) O2, Na (4) O2, SO2 Reason (R): The number of ions per unit volume
that carry the current in a solution decreases on
56. Which one of the following statements for the order
dilution.
of a reaction is incorrect?
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Order can be determined only experimentally
correct answer from the options given below:
(2) Order is not influenced by stoichiometric
(1) A is false but R is true.
coefficient terms of reactants to express the
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
rate of reaction
explanation of A.
(3) Order of a reaction is the sum of power to the
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
concentration terms of reactants in the rate law
explanation of A.
expression
(4) A is true but R is false.
(4) Order of reaction is always whole number
61. For the reaction 2A → 3C, the reaction rate ‘r’ in 67. Given below are two statements:
terms of the rate of change of the concentration is Statement I: Molar conductivity of 0.1 M NH4OH
given by; solution is less than that of 0.001 M NH4OH
d A solution.
(1) r = −
dt Statement II: Molar conductivity increases with
1 d A decrease in concentration.
(2) r = − In the light of the above statements, choose the
2 dt
1 d A
correct answer from the options given below:
(3) r = + (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2 dt
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
d A
(4) r = + incorrect.
dt
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
62. The Ksp of Ag2CrO4 is 1.1 × 10–12 at 298 K. The
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
solubility (in mol/L) of Ag2CrO4 in a 0.1 M AgNO3
correct.
solution is;
(1) 1.1 × 10–11
68. For a galvanic cell, correct statement is;
(2) 1.1 × 10–10
(1) Current flows from anode to cathode.
(3) 1.1 × 10–12
(2) Anode is a positive electrode.
(4) 1.1 × 10–9
(3) If Ecell < 0, it is a spontaneous reaction.
(4) Cathode is a positive electrode.
63. The correct statement regarding H2–O2 fuel cell is;
(1) Convert the energy of combustion of fuels
directly into electrical energy. 69. Electrode potential for the following half-cell
(2) H2O(l) is formed at cathode. reactions are:
(3) O2(g) is formed at anode. Zn → Zn2+ + 2e–; Eº = + 0.76 V
(4) H2(g) is formed at anode. Fe → Fe2+ + 2e–; Eº = + 0.44 V
The emf for the given cell reaction is;
64. E° for the reaction, Fe2+ + Zn → Zn2+ + Fe
Fe + Zn2+ → Zn + Fe2+ is – 0.35 V. (1) –0.32 V
The given cell reaction is; (2) + 1.20 V
(1) spontaneous (3) –1.20 V
(2) non-spontaneous (4) +0.32 V
(3) in equilibrium
(4) Spontaneity cannot be predicted 70. For a reaction, A → B, it has been found that the
overall order of the reaction is zero. Which of the
65. For a reaction, A + B → products, the rate of following expressions correctly describes the
reaction was doubled when concentration of A was reaction?
doubled. When concentration of A and B both was
(1) k =
2.303 A 
log 0
doubled, the rate was again doubled. Order of the t  A
reaction with respect to A and B are respectively;
(1) 1, 1 (2) [A]0 – [A] = kt
(2) 2, 0 (3) [A]0 + [A] = kt
2.303
(3) 1, 0 (4) k =
(4) 0, 1 t

66. Which one of the following salts gives an acidic 71. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following
solution in water? compounds increases in the order:
(1) CH3COONa (1) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl
(2) NH4Cl (2) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN
(3) NaCl (3) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl
(4) Na2CO3 (4) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl
72. What will be the emf of the given cell? 76. For cell reaction,
Pt | H2(P1) | H+ (1M) | H2(P2) | Pt Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s), correct cell
representation is;
RT P1
(1) ln (1) Zn(s) | Zn 2+ (aq) || Cu 2+ (aq) | Cu(s)
F P2
RT P1 (2) Zn 2+ (aq) | Zn(s) || Cu(s) | Cu 2+ (aq)
(2) ln
2F P2 (3) Cu(s) | Cu 2+ (aq) || Zn 2+ (aq) | Zn(s)

(3)
RT P2
ln (4) Cu 2+ (aq) | Cu(s) || Zn(s) | Zn 2+ (aq)
F P1
RT P2 77. The reaction, 2A→B + C, would be a zero order
(4) ln
2F P1 reaction when;
(1) The rate of reaction is proportional to square
of concentration of A
73. The standard reduction potential values of three
(2) The rate of reaction remains same at any
metals X, Y, Z are 0.22 V, –2.32 V and –1.09 V
concentration of A
respectively at 298 K. The order of reducing power (3) The rate of reaction remains unchanged at any
of the corresponding metals is; concentration of B and C
(1) Y > Z > X (4) The rate of reaction doubles if concentration of
(2) X > Y > Z B is doubled.
(3) Z > Y > X
(4) Z > X > Y 78. The solubility of silver sulphate is 1.5 × 10–2 mol L–1.
The solubility product of the salt will be;
74. Given below are two statements: (1) 2.25 × 10–4
(2) 1.35 × 10–5
Statement I: Kohlrausch’s law states that limiting
(3) 1.7 × 10–6
molar conductivity of an electrolyte can be
(4) 3.0 × 10–3
represented as the sum of the individual
contributions of the anion and cation of the 79. For the reaction, A + B → P, the rate law expression
electrolyte. is;
Statement II: A primary battery after use can be 1 3
Rate = k  A  2  B 2 . The overall order of the
recharged by passing current through it in the
opposite direction. reaction is;
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) 2
(2) 2.5
correct answer from the options given below:
(3) 0
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) 1.5
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect. 80. The limiting equivalent conductivity of NaCl, KCl
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is and KBr are 126.5, 150.0 and 151.5 S cm2 eq–1,
incorrect. respectively. The limiting equivalent ionic
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is conductance for Br– is 78 S cm2 eq–1. The limiting
correct. equivalent ionic conductance for Na+ ions would be;
(1) 128 S cm2 eq–1
75. How many Faradays are required to reduce 0.93 g (2) 125 S cm2 eq–1
of Nb5+ to Nb(s)? (3) 49 S cm2 eq–1
(4) 50 S cm2 eq–1
(Atomic weight : Nb = 93 u)
(1) 0.5 F
81. The electrode potential of a standard hydrogen
(2) 0.05 F
electrode is;
(3) 0.2 F (1) 0 V (2) 1 V
(4) 0.02 F (3) 0.1 V (4) 10 V
82. Any precipitate is formed when; 88. Which of the following redox reaction occurs when
(1) Solution becomes saturated the following half-cells are combined?
(2) The value of ionic product is less than the value I2 + 2e– → 2I– (1 M); E° = + 0.54 V
of solubility product Br2 + 2e– → 2Br– (1 M); E° = +1.09 V
(3) The value of ionic product is equal to the value
(1) 2Br– + I2 → Br2 + 2I–
of solubility product
(2) I2 + Br2 → 2I– + 2Br–
(4) The value of ionic product is greater than the
value of solubility product (3) 2I– + Br2 → I2 + 2Br–
(4) 2I– + 2Br– →I2 + Br2
83. For the reaction, 2B + A → 2C, which of the
following is correct? 89. If solubility product of the base M(OH)2 is 4 × 10–12,
(1) Rate of disappearance of B is twice the rate of the concentration of M2+ will be;
appearance of C. (1) 1 × 10–4 M
(2) Rate of disappearance of A is three times the (2) 3 × 10–4 M
rate of appearance of C. (3) 10–3 M
(3) Rate of appearance of C is twice the rate of (4) 10–1 M
disappearance of A.
(4) Rate of appearance of C is four times the rate 90. In a electrochemical cell;
of disappearance of A.
(1) Potential energy changes into kinetic energy
(2) Kinetic energy changes into potential energy
84. If 500 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid is mixed with 500
(3) Chemical energy changes into electrical energy
mL of 0.1 M NaOH, then the pH of solution will be;
(4) Electrical energy changes into chemical energy
(Ka of acetic acid = 10–5, log (0.05) = –1.3)
(1) 7
(2) 8.85 91. The reaction, A → C is a first order reaction. If the
(3) 6.25 1
volume of reaction vessel is reduced to of its
(4) 6.02 3
initial volume, the rate of reaction becomes;
85. If a salt bridge is not used between two half cells, (1) double (2) 4 times
voltage; (3) one fourth (4) 3 times
(1) Drops to zero
(2) Does not change 92. The E° for half cells Fe2+/Fe and Cu2+/Cu are –0.44
(3) Increases gradually V and + 0.32 V respectively. Then;
(4) Increases rapidly
(1) Cu2+oxidises Fe
(2) Cu2+oxidises Fe2+
SECTION-B
(3) Cu oxidises Fe2+
86. Among the following statements: (4) Cu reduces Fe2+
A. Unit of rate constant for 2nd order reaction is
s−1. 93. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
B. Unit of rate of the reaction for nth order reaction Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
is mol L−1 s−1. (R)
C. Unit of rate constant for 1st order reaction is s−1. Assertion (A): Salt hydrolysis is a process in which
The correct statements is/are; a salt reacts with water to from acid and base.
(1) A, B and C Reason (R): Hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and
(2) A only weak base is known as cationic hydrolysis.
(3) A and B In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) B and C correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is false but R is true.
87. In the galvanic cell Cu|Cu2+(1M)||Ag+(1M)Ag the (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
electrons will travel in the external circuit;
explanation of A.
(1) from Ag to Cu
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(2) from Cu to Ag
explanation of A.
(3) electrons do not travel in the external circuit
(4) in any direction (4) A is true but R is false.
94. Given below are two statements: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Statement I: The decrease in the concentration of (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
the reactant per unit time or increase in the incorrect.
concentration of the product per unit time is called (3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
rate of a reaction. incorrect.
Statement II: The instantaneous rate of reaction is (4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
defined as the change in concentration in an
infinitely small time interval.
98. Given below are two statements:
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Statement I: Molecularity is the number of
correct answer from the options given below:
molecules that react in an elementary step of a
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. reaction.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are Statement II: The molecularity of the elementary
incorrect. reaction, A + B → C is 2.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is In the light of the above statements, choose the
incorrect. correct answer from the options given below:
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
correct. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
95. If the half cell reaction A + e– → A– has a large (3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
negative reduction potential, it follows that; incorrect.
(1) A is readily reduced (4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
(2) A is readily oxidised
(3) A– is readily reduced
99. Calculate emf of the given cell at 298 K.
(4) A– is readily oxidised
Mg(s)|Mg2+(0.01 M)||Cu2+(0.01 M)|Cu(s)
(Given: E cell = 2.71 V )
96. Electrode potential data are given below:
(1) 2.71 V
Fe3+(aq) + e– → Fe2+ (aq); E° = + 0.77V
(2) 2.35 V
Al3+(aq) + 3e– → Al(s); E° = –1.66V
(3) 2.86 V
Br2(aq) + 2e– → 2Br–(aq); E° = + 1.08V (4) 2.01 V
Based on the data given above, oxidizing power of
Fe3+, Al3+ and Br2 will increase in the order; 100. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(1) Br2 < Fe3+ < Al3+ Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(2) Fe3+ < Al3+ < Br2 (R)
(3) Al3+ < Br2 < Fe3+ Assertion (A): In electrolytic cell, external source
(4) Al3+ < Fe3+ < Br2 of voltage is used to bring about a chemical reaction.
Reason (R): The amount of chemical reaction
97. Given below are two statements: which occur at any electrode during electrolysis is
inversely proportional to amount of electricity
Statement I: Buffer capacity is defined as the
passed through the electrolyte.
number of moles of an acid or a base required to be
In the light of the above statements, choose the
added to one litre of the buffer solution so as to
correct answer from the options given below:
change its pH by one unit.
(1) A is false but R is true.
Statement II: Mixture of CH3COOH and (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
CH3COONa (1 : 1 ratio) is an example of acidic explanation of A.
buffer. (3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
In the light of the above statements, choose the explanation of A.
correct answer from the options given below: (4) A is true but R is false.
 [VPRP Mega Test-6 | ROI | Dropper-NEET | 6-Oct-2024 | Ph-1]
Biological Classification (Lecture 4 to 8) and Microbes in Human Welfare

(BOTANY)
SECTION-A 107. Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol
agent of several plant pathogen?
101. Identify the microorganism which is responsible
for the production of an immunosuppressive (1) Azospirillum
molecule cyclosporin A; (2) Lactobacillus
(1) Trichoderma polysporum (3) Trichoderma
(2) Clostridium butylicum (4) Azotobacter
(3) Aspergillus niger
(4) Streptococcus cerevisiae 108. Chrysophytes, euglenoids and slime moulds are
included in the kingdom;
102. All the following are different means of vegetative (1) Animalia. (2) Monera.
reproduction in fungi, except; (3) Protista. (4) Fungi.
(1) fragmentation.
(2) fission. 109. Which of the following is put into an anaerobic
(3) oospores. sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
(4) budding (1) Effluents of primary treatment
(2) Primary sludge
103. Which of the following is a commercial blood (3) Floating debris
cholesterol lowering agent? (4) Activated sludge
(1) Streptokinase
(2) Lipases
110. Choose the incorrect statement from the following
(3) Cyclosporin A
about dinoflagellates.
(4) Statins
(1) They are mostly marine and photosynthetic.
(2) They are grouped under kingdom Monera.
104. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
(3) They appear yellow, green, brown, blue or red
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Production on an industrial scale, depending on the main pigments present in
requires growing microbes in very large vessels their cells.
called fermentors. (4) Most of them have two flagella; one lies
Reason R: Antibiotics are not synthesised by longitudinally and the other transversely in a
microbes. furrow between the wall plates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: 111. Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional
(1) A is true but R is false. value by increasing the amount of;
(2) A is false but R is true. (1) vitamin D.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (2) vitamin A.
explanation of A. (3) vitamin B12.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct (4) vitamin E.
explanation of A.
112. All the following are unicellular eukaryotes,
105. Which among the following organisms have an except;
infectious spore-like stage in their life cycle? (1) Euglena.
(1) Amoeboid protozoans (2) Aspergillus.
(2) Ciliated protozoans (3) Gonyaulax.
(3) Sporozoans
(4) Trypanosoma.
(4) Flagellated protozoans
113. Toddy the traditional drink is made by;
106. Sleeping sickness is caused by;
(1) fermenting sap from palms.
(1) Plasmodium.
(2) fermenting milk.
(2) Trypanosoma.
(3) Paramoecium. (3) juice of leaf of bamboo.
(4) Entamoeba. (4) fermenting the grains.
114. Match List-I with List-II. 120. Golden algae are also known as;
List-I List-II (1) desmids.
(A) Bread mould (I) Penicillium (2) diatoms.
(B) Multicellular (II) Saccharomyces (3) cyanobacteria.
sac-fungi (4) dinoflagellates.
(C) Unicellular (III) Rhizopus
sac-fungi 121. Match List-I with List-II.
(D) Parasitic fungi on (IV) Albugo List-I List-II
mustard (A) Sacharomyces (I) Clot Buster.
Choose the correct answer from the options given cerevisiae
below: (B) Monascus (II)
Ripening of
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I purpureus Swiss cheese.
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (C) Streptococcus (III) Commercial
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III production of
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV ethanol
(D) Propionibacterium (IV) Production of
115. Which one of the following is not a nitrogen fixing sharmanii blood
organism? cholesterol
(1) Nostoc lowering
(2) Anabaena agents.
(3) Oscillatoria Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Lactobacillus below;
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
116. Choose the incorrect statement from the following (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
about the spores produced in slime moulds. (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(1) They do not possess true walls. (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) They are extremely resistant towards adverse
conditions. 122. Which among the following are believed to be
(3) They are dispersed by air currents. primitive relatives of animals?
(4) They survive for many years. (1) Fungi
(2) Eubacteria
117. The technology of biogas production was (3) Archaebacteria
developed in India mainly due to the efforts of; (4) Protozoans
(1) IARI. (2) KVIC.
(3) both (1) and (2) (4) WHO. 123. Ladybird is useful to get rid of;
(1) aphids.
118. The given figure is an example of; (2) mosquitoes.
(3) bollworm.
(4) jassids.

124. Identify the organism from the following which is

a source of antibiotics.
(1) euglenoids. (1) Penicillium
(2) chrysophytes. (2) Nostoc
(3) protozoans. (3) Anabaena
(4) dinoflagellates. (4) Puccinia

119. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a; 125. Yeast is used in the production of;
(1) mechanical process. (1) bread and beer.
(2) chemical process. (2) cheese and butter.
(3) biological process. (3) citric acid and lactic acid.
(4) physical process. (4) lipase and pectinase.
126. Dikaryophase of fungus is seen in class(es); 133. The antibiotic penicillin is obtained from;
(1) phycomycetes only. (1) protozoan.
(2) ascomycetes and basidiomycetes. (2) bacteria.
(3) phycomycetes and basidiomycetes. (3) virus.
(4) basidiomycetes only. (4) fungus.

127. Microbial colonies; 134. Identify the fungus from the following that has
(1) can be grown on nutritive media. aseptate and coenocytic mycelium.
(2) can be seen by naked eyes. (1) Mucor
(3) are useful in the study of microbes. (2) Penicillium
(4) all of these. (3) Claviceps
(4) Aspergillus
128. All single-celled eukaryotes are placed under the
kingdom_______.
135. Given below are two statement:
(1) Monera. (2) Protista.
Statement I: Biocontrol refers to the use of
(3) Fungi. (4) Plantae.
biological methods for controlling plant diseases
129. What are flocs? and pests.
(1) Masses of anaerobic bacteria. Statement II: Use of biocontrol measures will
(2) Masses of aerobic fungi only. greatly reduce our dependence on toxic chemicals
(3) Masses of anaerobic bacteria and fungi. and pesticides.
(4) Masses of aerobic bacteria associated with In the light of the above statements, choose the
fungal filaments. most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
130. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: incorrect.
Assertion A: In diatoms the walls are (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
indestructible. correct.
Reason R: In diatoms the walls are embedded with (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
silica. (4) Both statement I and Statement II are
In the light of the above statements, choose the incorrect.
correct answer from the options given below:
SECTION-B
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true. 136. In a sewage treatment plant, primary treatment is;
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1) a physical process which involves
explanation of A. sedimentation only.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the (2) a physical process which involves both
correct explanation of A. filtration and sedimentation.
(3) a biological process which formation of
131. What is/are true about BOD? primary sludge and effluent.
A. BOD is directly proportional to polluting (4) a biological process which involves both
potential. filtration and sedimentation.
B. The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of
nitrogen by microorganisms.
137. Gal ghotu is a common name for which disease?
C. BOD is the indirect measure of inorganic
(1) Whooping cough
matter present in water.
(2) Diphtheria
(1) Only A
(3) Plague
(2) Only A and B
(4) Leprosy
(3) Only B and C
(4) A, B and C
138. ________ has a cavity (gullet) that opens to the
132. Identify the ciliated protozoan from the following. outside of the cell surface.
(1) Paramoecium (1) Entamoeba
(2) Amoeba (2) Trypanosoma
(3) Trypanosoma (3) Paramoecium
(4) Plasmodium (4) Euglena
139. The cell walls of fungi are composed of; 145. Given below are two statement:
(1) polysaccharide and amino acids. Statement I: Antibiotics are chemical substances,
(2) chitin and polysaccharides. which are produced by some microbes and can kill
(3) cellulose and silica. or retard the growth of other (disease-causing)
(4) silica and polysaccharides. microbes.
Statement II: Anti is a Greek word that means
‘against’, and bio means ‘life’, together they mean
140. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
‘against life’ (in the context of disease causing
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: organisms).
Assertion A: In agriculture, there is a method of In the light of the above statements, choose the
controlling pests that relies on natural predation most appropriate answer from the options given
rather than introduced chemicals. below:
Reason R: A key belief of the organic farmer is (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
that biodiversity furthers health. incorrect.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct answer from the options given below: correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(1) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are
(2) A is false but R is true.
incorrect.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. 146. Though they are photosynthetic in the presence of
(4) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct sunlight, when deprived of sunlight they behave
explanation of A. like heterotrophs predating on other smaller
organisms. They are;
141. Baculoviruses do not show; (1) Slime moulds.
(1) host specificity. (2) Protozoans.
(2) narrow spectrum application. (3) Chrysophytes.
(4) Euglenoids.
(3) effects on non-target insects.
(4) utility in the IPM programme.
147. ______ is an alcoholic beverage obtained without
distillation.
142. Identify the incorrect statements from the (1) Whiskey (2) Brandy
following about reproduction in fungi. (3) Wine (4) Rum
A. When a fungus reproduces sexually, two
haploid hyphae of compatible mating types 148. A disease which has a staggering effect on human
come together and fuse. population is caused by;
B. Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or (1) Amoeba.
non-motile gametes is called karyogamy. (2) Trypanosoma.
(3) Paramoecium.
C. Fusion of two nuclei is called plasmogamy.
(4) Plasmodium.
D. Meiosis in zygote results in haploid spores.
(1) A and B 149. Which one of the following helps in absorption of
(2) B and C phosphorus from soil by plants?
(3) C and D (1) Rhizobium (2) Nostoc
(4) A and D (3) Anabaena (4) Glomus

143. _______ are used in detergent formulations and are 150. Match List-I with List-II.
helpful in removing oily stains from laundry. List-I List-II
(1) Streptokinase (A) Aspergillus niger (I) Acetic Acid
(B) Acetobacter aceti (II) Lactic Acid
(2) Proteases
(C) Clostridium (III) Citric Acid
(3) Lipases
butylicum
(4) Pectinases
(D) Lactobacillus (IV) Butyric Acid
Choose the correct answer from the options given
144. Red tide is caused by; below;
(1) Gonyaulax. (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) golden algae. (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) Euglena. (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) diatoms. (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
 [VPRP Mega Test-6 | ROI | Dropper-NEET | 6-Oct-2024 | Ph-1]
Neural Control and Coordination (Except Eye and Ear), Chemical Coordination and Integration

(ZOOLOGY)
SECTION–A 158. How many hormones given in the box below are
released from the pituitary gland?
151. Which of the following cranial meninge(s) is in
LH, ACTH, TSH, Oxytocin, ADH, GnRH, PRL
contact with the brain tissue?
(1) Pia mater (1) Four (2) Five
(2) Dura mater (3) Six (4) Three
(3) Arachnoid mater
(4) Both (2) and (3) 159. The central information processing organ of our
body is;
152. Which of the following hormones regulates the (1) Spinal cord
pigmentation of skin in the human body? (2) Brain
(1) Follicle stimulating hormone (3) Vertebral column
(2) Melanocyte stimulating hormone (4) Pituitary gland
(3) Luteinising hormone
(4) Oxytocin 160. Which of the following features are not related to
hormones?
153. The Diabetes Insipidus is caused due to; A. These are non-nutrient chemicals
(1) Excessive secretion of insulin hormone B. They act as intracellular messengers
(2) Insufficient secretion of insulin hormone C. They are produced in trace amounts
(3) Insufficient secretion of ADH hormone D. They are secreted by exocrine glands
(4) Excessive secretion of ADH hormone
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
154. The hypothalamus is the basal part of;
(3) C and D
(1) diencephalon, forebrain
(2) diencephalon, midbrain (4) B and D
(3) corpora quadrigemina, hindbrain
(4) diencephalon, hindbrain 161. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. nodes of
Ranvier
155. Which of the following glands secrete melatonin (1) Present on dendrites
hormone? (2) Interruptions between myelin sheaths
(1) Adrenal gland (2) Pineal gland (3) Help in impulse conduction across the neuron
(3) Pituitary gland (4) Parathyroid gland (4) Observed in myelinated nerve fibres

156. The sodium-potassium pump actively transports; 162. _______ consist of fibre tracts that interconnect
(1) 3 Na+ outwards and 2 K+ into the cell different regions of the brain.
(2) 3 Na+ inwards and 2 K+ out of the cell Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(3) 3 Na+ and 2 K+ out of the cell (1) Medulla oblongata
(4) 3 Na+ and 2 K+ inwards the cell
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Pons
157. Which of the following options is incorrect for
(4) Cerebrum
electrical synapses?
(1) The membranes of pre- and post-synaptic
neurons are in very close proximity in 163. The midbrain is located between the;
electrical synapses. (1) thalamus/hypothalamus of the hindbrain and
(2) Electrical current can flow directly from one pons of the forebrain
neuron into the other across the electrical (2) cerebrum of hindbrain and cerebellum of
synapses. forebrain
(3) Impulse transmission across an electrical (3) thalamus/hypothalamus of the forebrain and
synapse is always slower than that across a pons of the hindbrain
chemical synapse. (4) cerebellum of forebrain and medulla of
(4) Electrical synapses are rare in our system. hindbrain
164. Given below are two statements: 167. Identify the set of incorrect statements from the
Statement I: LH stimulates the synthesis and following.
secretion of hormones called androgens from A. The ventral portion of the midbrain consists
testes of females. mainly of four round swellings called corpora
Statement II: FSH and androgens regulate quadrigemina.
spermatogenesis in males. B. The neural system provides chemical
In the light of the above statements, choose the coordination through hormones.
most appropriate answer from the options given C. The medulla of the brain is connected to the
below: spinal cord.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. D. Brain stem forms the connections between
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is the brain and spinal cord.
incorrect. (1) A and B
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (2) B and C
correct. (3) C and D
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are (4) A and D
incorrect.

168. Acromegaly is caused due to;

165. Identify the labeling “A” in the diagram given
(1) lower secretion of growth hormone in adults
below.
(2) excess secretion of growth hormone in adults
(3) lower secretion of prolactin hormone in
adults
(4) excess secretion of glucocorticoids in adults

169. Identify the odd one out from the following.

(1) Thyrocalcitonin
(2) Thymosins
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Triiodothyronine
(1) Vocal cord
(2) Trachea 170. Neurotransmitters can be correctly defined as the;
(3) Thyroid (1) Chemicals involved in the transmission of
(4) Parathyroid impulses at electrical synapses.
(2) Chemicals that adhere the neighboring cells
166. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as together.
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (3) Chemicals that always have an inhibitory
Assertion A: The hypothalamus contains several effect on its target cells.
groups of neurosecretory cells, which secrete (4) Chemicals involved in the transmission of
hormones. impulses at chemical synapses.
Reason R: The hypothalamus contains a number
of centres which control body temperature, urge 171. The neural system provides an organised network
for eating and drinking. of ____A_____ connections for a __B__
In the light of the above statements, choose the coordination.
correct answer from the options given below: Identify A and B correctly.
(1) A is true but R is false. A B
(2) A is false but R is true. (1) point to point slow
(3) Both A and R are true and R is a correct (2) diffused rapid
explanation of A. (3) point to point quick
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct (4) diffused slow
explanation of A.
172. Match List-I with List-II. 178. Which part of the brain acts as a major
List-I List-II coordinating centre for sensory and motor
(A) Somatostatin (I) Pituitary gland signaling?
(B) Growth hormone (II) Hypothalamus (1) Midbrain
(C) Glucagon (III) Adrenal gland (2) Thalamus
(D) Corticoids (IV) Pancreas (3) Hypothalamus
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) Cerebrum
below:
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III 179. Cytoplasm with typical cell organelles and Nissl’s
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III granules are present in the;
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (1) Axon
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) Cell body
(3) Synaptic vesicles
173. Which of the following is not the function of (4) Nodes of Ranvier
thyroid hormones?
(1) They play an important role in the regulation 180. Given below are two statements:
of the basal metabolic rate. Statement I: Synaptic knob possess synaptic vesicles
(2) The hormones of thyroid gland support the that contain chemicals called neurotransmitters.
process of red blood cell formation. Statement II: Unmyelinated nerve fibre is
(3) Thyroid hormones control the metabolism of enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a
carbohydrates, proteins and fats. myelin sheath around the axon.
(4) Thyroid hormones help in maintaining the In the light of the above statements, choose the
normal rhythms of sleep-wake cycle and most appropriate answer from the options given
body temperature. below:
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
174. Why does the immune system of old people
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
become weak?
incorrect.
(1) Due to decreased production of growth
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
hormones.
correct.
(2) Due to decreased production of thymosins.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(3) Due to over-secretion of growth hormones.
incorrect.
(4) Due to over-secretion of thymosins.

175. ______ is essential for the synthesis of hormones 181. Which of the following is not the function of the
of the thyroid gland. association areas of the brain?
Fill in the blank with the correct option. (1) Communication
(1) Magnesium (2) Memory
(2) Calcium (3) Regulation of sexual behaviour
(3) Iodine (4) Intersensory associations
(4) Iron
182. The hormone somatostatin inhibits the release of;
176. Choose the mis-matched pair. (1) Thyroid hormones
(1) Steroid hormone : Cortisol (2) Calcitonin
(2) Protein hormone : Insulin (3) Growth hormone
(3) Steroid hormone : Thyroid hormone (4) Parathyroid hormone
(4) Amino-acid derivative : Epinephrine

183. Where are the adrenal glands located?

177. The middle layer of adrenal cortex is;
(1) Between the lungs
(1) Zona reticularis
(2) Above the kidneys
(2) Pars intermedia
(3) Zona fasciculata (3) Around the trachea
(4) Zona glomerulosa (4) Base of hypothalamus
184. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 188. Which part of the brain contains centres to control
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions?
Assertion A: Myelinated nerve fibres are found in (1) Pons (2) Cerebellum
spinal and cranial nerves. (3) Cerebrum (4) Medulla oblongata
Reason R: The myelinated nerve fibres are
enveloped with Schwann cells, which do not form 189. Given below are two statements:
a myelin sheath around the axon. Statement I: Adenohypophysis portion of
In the light of the above statements, choose the pituitary gland consists of two portions, pars
correct answer from the options given below: distalis and pars nervosa.
(1) A is true but R is false. Statement II: Visceral nervous system is the part
(2) A is false but R is true. of the peripheral nervous system.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is a correct In the light of the above statements, choose the
explanation of A. most appropriate answer from the options given
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct below:
explanation of A. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
185. Match List-I with List-II. incorrect.
List-I List-II (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(A) Dendrites (I) Transmit impulses away correct.
from the cell body (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(B) Bipolar (II) Cerebral cortex incorrect.
neurons 190. Refer to the structures given below.
(C) Multipolar (III) Retina of eyes Medulla oblongata, Thalamus, Corpora
neurons quadrigemina, Pons, Cerebrum, Cerebellum
(D) Axon (IV) Transmit impulses to
cell body Which of the following structures are not
included in the human hindbrain?
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Thalamus, cerebellum and corpora quadrigemina
below:
(2) Thalamus, corpora quadrigemina and cerebrum
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(3) Pons, corpora quadrigemina and cerebellum
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) Pons, medulla oblongata and cerebrum
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
191. After ovulation, the ruptured ovarian follicle is
converted to a structure called ____A____ which
SECTION–B
secretes mainly ____B____.
186. The neurons are divided into three major types Identify A and B correctly.
based on the; A B
(1) Size of neurons (1) corpus luteum estrogen
(2) Length of neurons (2) corpus luteum progesterone
(3) Power of division of neurons
(3) oocyte testosterone
(4) Number of axon and dendrites
(4) corpus luteum testosterone
187. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 192. Cretinism can be prevented or cured by the
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: administration of;
Assertion A: Invertebrates possess very simple (1) Insulin (2) Aldosterone
endocrine systems with few hormones. (3) Thyroxine (4) Glucagon
Reason R: A large number of chemicals act as
hormones and provide coordination in the vertebrates. 193. Corpus callosum refers to the;
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) tract of muscle fibres that connect the two
correct answer from the options given below: cerebral hemispheres.
(1) A is true but R is false. (2) tract of nerve fibres that connect the two
(2) A is false but R is true. cerebellar hemispheres.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is a correct (3) tract of nerve fibres that connect the two
explanation of A. cerebral hemispheres.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct (4) tract of muscle fibres that connect the two
explanation of A. cerebellar hemispheres.
194. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 197. Which of the following sets of hormones bind
(1) The neural organisation is very simple in with receptors present on the plasma membrane?
lower invertebrates. (1) FSH and estrogen
(2) The neural system in Hydra is composed of a (2) Androgen and progesterone
network of neurons. (3) Epinephrine and glucagon
(3) Higher vertebrates have a less developed (4) Thyroxine and secretin
neural system.
(4) The neural system is better organised in 198. Which of the following hormones regulate the
insects, where a brain is present along with a calcium balances in our body?
number of ganglia and neural tissues. (1) Melanin and melatonin
(2) Parathyroid hormone and thyrocalcitonin
195. The glucose homeostasis in blood is maintained (3) Thymosin and thyrocalcitonin
by the combined activity of; (4) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
(1) Thyrocalcitonin and parathyroid hormone
(2) Insulin and glucagon 199. How many of the following statements is/are
(3) Glucocorticoids and aldosterone correct?
(4) Adrenaline and noradrenaline A. Motor and sensory areas are present in the
cerebral cortex of the brain.
196. Match List-I with List-II. B. In the forebrain, hypothalamus is located at
List-I List-II the base of thalamus.
(A) Nerve impulse (I) Transmits impulses C. Cerebral cortex is referred to as the white
from the CNS to the matter.
involuntary organs D. Cerebral aqueduct is a canal that passes
(B) Somatic neural (II) Action potential through the hindbrain.
system (1) Two (2) Three
(C) Limbic system (III) Transmit impulses from (3) Four (4) One
the CNS to skeletal
muscles 200. Which of the following hormones are synthesised
(D) Autonomic (IV) Expression of emotional by the hypothalamus and are transported axonally
neural system reactions
to neurohypophysis?
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) Insulin and Glucagon
below: (2) Oxytocin and Vasopressin
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (3) Growth hormone and prolactin
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) Luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV hormone
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

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