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Home  CSEB QUESTIONS  CO-OPERATIVE SERVICE EXAMINATION BOARD: MODEL QUESTIONS

CO-OPERATIVE SERVICE EXAMINATION BOARD: MODEL

QUESTIONS
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CO-OPERATIVE SERVICE EXAMINATION BOARD: MODEL

QUESTIONS

Model Questions for Promotion Test / Model Questions for Co-operative Service Examination

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Kerala Co-operative Service Examination board conducts written examination of candidates for selection to
PSC EXAM PROGRAMME 2022 
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various of posts as and when the requisition for such examination, is received from the concerned
societies. The Board shall be responsible for the proper conduct of the examination.

* CSEB Exam Questions and Answers

1. Annual General Body meeting of a co-operative Society should be convened within -------- from the
close of the financial year.
a) 1 year b) 6 months c) 3 months d) 9 months
Answer: (b)

2. What is leadership?
a) Influencing
b) Motivating
c) Good communication
d) None of these.
Answer: (a)

3. Crossing of a cheque can be cancelled by---------------.

a) Banker b) Drawer c) Drawer e) None of these.
Answer: (b)

4. -------------- is one among the preamble of the Kerala Co-operative Societies Act.1969
a) Concern for the community b) Management excellence
c) Each for all and all for each d) None of these
Answer: (b)

5. Registrar of Co-operative Societies can supersede the Managing committee of ---------- only.
a) Urban co-operative Banks
b) Government Assisted Co-operatives
c) All Co-operatives
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

6. Auditor of a Co-operative Society shall be appointed from among the panel approved by -----------
a) Registrar of Co-operative Societies
b) Director of Co-operative Audit
c) NABARD
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

7. From the following which one is the hardware of a computer?

a) DOS b) Monitor c) LOTUS d) None of these
Answer: (b)

8. Co-operative Flag was designed by --------------.

a) William King b) Charles Gide
c) C.R.Fray d) None of these.
Answer: (b)

9. ------------is a statutory reserve created from a net profit of a Co-operative Society.

a) Building fund
b) depreciation fund
c) Reserve fund
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

10. Maximum strength of the Managing Committee of a Primary Co-operative Society is ----------.
a) 21 b)15 c) 7 d) 13
Answer: (b)

11. Maximum amount of Co-operative Education fund set apart from the Net profit of a Co-operative
Society is Rs.----------
a) 40000/- b) 60000/-
c) 15000/- d) 25000/-
Answer: (b)

12. Maximum limit for the surrender of Earned leave admissible to the employees of Co-operative
Society on retirement is ----------
a) 30 days b) 45 days
c) 300 days d) 180 days
Answer: (a)

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13. Gahan is created in the form ---------
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a) 8A b) 8B
c) 8D d) None of these
Answer: (a)

14. Written Examination for direct recruitment to the post of clerks in a primary Credit Society is
conducted by -------------
a) Public service Commission
b) Co-operative Service Examination Board
c) Managing committee
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

15. Section 80 of the Kerala co-operative societies Act came into effect from -------------.
a) 1.1.1974
b) 14.7.1969
c) 15.5.1969
d) None of
these.
Answer: (c)

16. Autonomy and Independence is the ------------ Co-operative principle

a) 2nd b) 4th
c) 5th d) None of these
Answer: (b)

17. Maximum period of loan fixed for the issue of loans to members in a Service Co-operative Bank is
---------.
a. 12 months
b) 24 months
c) 120 months
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

18. Fluid Resources should be invested as per the directions of the-----

b. Reserve Bank of India
b) Registrar of Co-operative Societies
c) Kerala state Co-operative Bank
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

19. Multipurpose Co-operative Societies are the most important types

of Societies in--------------
a) U.S.A b) England
c) Japan d) None of these
Answer: (c)

20. -------------- is an output device.

a) Paper Tape Reader
b) Visual display unit
c) Printer
d) None of the above
Answer: (c)

21. No member of a Co-operative Society expelled under the provisions of the Kerala, Co-operative
Societies Act shall be eligible for re-admission in that Society for a period of -------------- from the date
of such expulsion.
d. 5 years b) one year
c) 2 years d) 3 years
Answer: (b)

22. Savings Bank Account will become operated after--------

a) One-year b) Two years c) 3years d) None of these
Answer: (b)

23. -------------- is the middle-level Co-operative Institution in the Short term / Medium-term credit
structure.
a) State Co-operative Bank b) District Co-operative Bank
c) Urban co-operative Bank d) None of these
Answer: (b)

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24. Legal heirs have to submit the ---------- certificate to the Bank for claiming a credit balance
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exceeding Rs. 25000/-
a) Heirship certificate b) Succession certificate
c) Death certificate) none of these
Answer: (b)

25. Fixed Deposit Account is a ----------- liability

a) Demand liability
b) Time liability
c) Contingent liability
d) none of these.
Answer: (b)

26. Garnishee order is issued by the Court on the request of the--------

a) Debtor b) Creditor
c) Banker d) None of these
Answer: (d)

27. Expansion of A.T.M is---------------

a) Automatic transfer machine
b) Automatic Teller Machine
c) Automatic Testing Machine
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

28. Liquid Asset is ----------------.

a) Fixed Asset
b) Statutory Asset
c) Floating Asset
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

29. A person is known as ------------- if he is unable to pay his debts in full

a) Bankrupt b) Debtor
c) Insolvent d) None of these
Answer: (c)

30. Banker has to look after -------------- before advancing money to the Borrower.
a) Safety b) liquidity
c) Security d) all of these
Answer: (d)

31. NABARD was established on---------------.

a) 1982 b) 1949 c) 1969 d) None of these
Answer: (a)

32. Internet Banking is also known as --------------.

a) Cyber Banking b) Online Banking
c) Personal Computer Banking d) all of these
Answer: (d)

33. Surplus funds in Banking Institutions will occur when---------

a) Outstanding loan amount is larger than outstanding deposits
b) Outstanding deposits are larger than the outstanding loan amounts
c) Outstanding loan amount is larger than its overdue
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

34. Issue of notice of maturity of deposits to the depositor is ---------.

a) Mandatory b) Obligatory
c) legal) none of these
Answer: (b)

35. Immovable property offered as security for availing loan shall be created by means of --------------.
a) Pledge b) mortgage
c) hypothecation d) None of these
Answer: (c)

36. One of the following services cannot be accessed through mobile banking
a) Balance enquiry b) Cheque status enquiry
c) Cash withdrawal d) Stop payment order
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Answer: (c)
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37. High yielding Loans are a -------------.

a) Performing Asset b) Non-performing Asset
c) Fixed Asset d) None of these
Answer: (a)

38. Maximum validity of a cheque is ----------

a) 3 months b) 6 months
c) 12 months d) None of these
Answer: (a)

39. --------- is a plastic card that provides purchase of goods on credit and withdrawal of cash.
a) Debit card b) credit card
c) ATM card d) None of these
Answer: (b)

40. Current Account shall not be opened in the names of ---------

a) Woman b) physically handicapped persons
c) illiterate person d) All of these
Answer: (c)

41. Important reform suggested by Prof.Vaidyanathan Committee for the revival of Service Co-
operative Society is to -------------
a) ensure full voting membership rights to all users of financial services.
b) restriction on term of office of office bearers.
c) strong support by providing maximum share capital from the Government
d) None of these
Answer: (a)

42. Election to the President of a Co-operative Society is conducted by-----

a) Managing Committee
b) State Co-operative Election Commission
c) Registrar of Co-operative Societies
d) none of these.
Answer: (b)

43. Experts in the Board of Director Board of the Primary C-o-operative Society are ----------------------
--.
a) Elected by the General Body
b) Co-opted by the Managing Committee
c) Nominated by the Registrar of Co-operative Societies
d) Co-opted by the Reserve Bank of India
Answer: (b)

44. Maximum period of Administrator/Administrative Committee of Co-operative Society carrying

Banking business is ---------
a) 6 months b) one year
c) 3 months d) None of these
Answer: (b)

45. The Chief Executive of the Society shall prepare the financial statements and statutory statements
within ------------ months from the close of the financial year.
a) One b) 2 c) 6 d) 3
Answer: (a)

46. ----------- means allocating the work in such a way that one person’s work is automatically checked
by another
a) Internal allocation b) internal control
c) Internal check d) None of these
Answer: (c)

47. ‘Co-operative Ombudsman’ in Kerala is set by -------------

a) Government of Kerala b) Government of India
c) Honourable High Court of Kerala d) None of these
Answer: (b)

48. All primary Credit Co-operatives shall open their branches with the prior permission of ---------
a) Reserve Bank of India b) Government of Kerala
c) Registrar of Co-operative Societies d) Apex Society
Answer: (c)
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49. The Government shall in consultation with ----------- fix or alter the number and designation of the
officers and servants of different classes of Societies specified in section 80(1) of KCS Act 1969.
a) Kerala State Co-operative Union b) Apex Society
c) Registrar of Co-operative Societies d) None of these
Answer: (c)

50. As per section 80 (6) of KCS Act 1969 ---------------- shall have the power to fix the minimum and
maximum limit of establishment expenses of co-operative Societies.
a) Registrar of Co-operative Societies
b) Kerala State Cooperative Union
c) government of kerala
d) none of these
Answer: (c)

51. Any Officer willfully fails to hand over cash balance or securities or records to an Officer
authorized by the Registrar of Co-operative Societies shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term
up to ---------- or with a fine up to Rs5000/-or with both
a) 6 months b) one year c) 7 years d) 2 years
Answer: (b)

52. All monitory disputes referred to under section 69 of KCS Act 1969 shall be filed within ----------
years when the repayment is over.
a) 3 years b) 5 years
c) 10 years d) None of these
Answer: (a)

53. -------------- is a term that refers to the physical components of a computer system (electronic and
electrical) which are used for processing data.
a) Software
b) Hardware
c) all of these
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

54. Monitory unit of a computer is one which --------------

a) A storage area for the computer programme as it is being executed.
b) A storage area for data which is about to be processed.
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
Answer: (c)

55) Steps to be followed for document development are----------------

a) Plan, edit, enter, format, preview and print.
b) Enter, edit, format, preview and print.
c) Plan, enter, edit, format, preview and print.
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

56. The word feature that makes some basic assumptions about the text entered and automatically
makes changes based on those assumptions is ----------------.
a) Auto change b) Autocorrect
c) Auto text d) Autoformat
Answer: (b)

57. Font sizes are measured in --------------

a) inches
b) points
c) bits
d) pieces
Answer: (b)

58. Punched cards were first introduced by --------------

a) Powers b)Pascal
c) Herman Hollerith d)None of these
Answer: (c)

59. CPU is the abbreviated term of ----------------

a) Central processing unit b) Central printing unit
c) Central peripheral unit d) None of these
Answer: (a)

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60. The mouse can also be used to---------------with the help of proper software
a) Draw pictures b) Type text
c) All of the above d) None of the above
Answer: (a)

61. The --------------- recognizes the shape of characters with the help of light sources.
a) OCR b) OMR c) CRT d) None of these
Answer: (a)

62. The device that can understand the difference between data and a programme is------------------.
a) Input device
b) Output device
c) Microprocessor
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

63. ----------- is the cheapest memory device in terms of cost/Bit.

a) Magnetic disks
b) Compact disks
c) Semiconductor memories
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

64. The expansion of D.M.A is -------------

a) Direct Memory Allocator
b) Direct Memory Access
c) Distinct Memory Access
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

65. The instructions in ------------- are not constantly changing depending upon the needs of the CPU.
a) RAM disk
b) ROM disk
c) Floppy disk
d) None of these
Answer: (a)

66. Two broad categories of software are----------

a) Word processing and spreadsheet b) Windows and macOS
c) Transaction and applications d) None of these
Answer: (c)

67. The feature that allows previewing a document in the Computer before it is printed is-------------?
a) Print Review b) page review
c) Print preview d) None of these
Answer: (c)

68. Fourth generation computers -------------------

a) Were the first to use microprocessors
b) Were the first to use integrated circuits in the hardware
c) Were introduced before 1970
d) All of the above
Answer: (a)

69. ------------ is one of the following which can be employed as an input device of a computer system.
a) Printer b) Card reader c) Punch reader d) None of the above
Answer: (b)

70. Magnetic disk is also known as--------------.

a) Floppy Disk
b) Hard disk
c) Magnetic Tapes and cassette
d) None of the above
Answer: (b)

71. -------------- is an output device.

a) Paper Tape Reader
b) Visual display unit
c) Printer

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d) None of the above
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Answer: (c)

72. Stealing money from an Institution by way of falsification of records is – -------------

a) Forgery b) Breach of Trust
c) Misappropriation d) None of these
Answer: (a)

73. Difference between Assets and Liabilities in the Balance sheet is called----------------
a) Net profit /net loss b) Gross income/expenditure
c) Net worth d) None of these
Answer: (a)

74. Interest on deposit is -------------- income

a) Gross income
b) Revenue income
c) Capital income
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

75) Budget presented before the General Body of a Co-operative Society after the financial year is
called-------------
a) annual Budget
b) Supplementary Budget
c) revised budget
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

76. The word Debenture is derived from --------------.

a) Debit b) Debt c) Debere d) None of these.
Answer: (c)

77. ------------- is one of the elements of Co-operative Governance

a) Transparency b) Autocracy c) Bureaucracy d) None of these
Answer: (a)

78. In the word ’VIBGYOR’, V stands for ----------

a) Victory b) validity c) felt need d) None of these
Answer: (c)

79. Depreciation is a ---------------.

a) Statutory reserve b) charged provision
c) Contingent expenditure d) None of these
Answer: (b)

80. Reserve fund invested comes under ------------- side of the Balance Sheet
a) Asset b) liability
c) Both sides d) None of these
Answer: (c)

81. Maximum percentage of Professional education fund appropriated from the Net profit of a Co-
operative Society is----------------
a) 10% b)15% c) 5% d) c) None of these
Answer: (c)

82. Liability payable during the year is called --------------.

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a) Current liability
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b) contingent liability
c) current asset
d) None of these
Answer: (a)

83. Miscellaneous Co-operatives should not collect deposits from-------

a) Members b) Nominal or associate members
c) Committee Members d) all of these
Answer: (b)

84. ----------- is a component of the working capital of a Co-operative Society

a) Share
b) furniture
c) depreciation reserve
d) interest on deposits
Answer: (a)

85. Maximum age limit for direct recruitment to the post of Deputy General Manager in District Co-
operative Bank is ---------
(a) 37 (b) 40 (c) 45 (d) none of these
Answer: (c)

86. Training means -------------

a) Knowledge b) Attitude c) Skill d) All of these.
Answer: (d)

87. Negotiable Instruments Act came into force in the year---------------.

a) 1969 b) 1882 c) 1881 d) None of these.
Answer: (b)

88. The Head of Audit of the Co-operative Department is-------------

a) Director of Audit b) Registrar of Co-operative Societies
c) Accountant General of Kerala d) None of these
Answer: (a)

89. Primary Co-operative Urban Banks owes its origin to --------------.

a) Raiffeisen Society
b) Schultz Delitzch Banks
c) Peoples Banks
d) None of these.
Answer: (b)

90. CRR in Commercial Banks is deposited in -------------------.

a) Reserve Bank of India b) State Bank of India
c) State Bank of Travancore d) None of these
Answer: (a)

91. Kerala State Co-operative Agricultural And Rural Development Bank Act came into force in the
year---------------.
a) 1969 b) 1884 c) 1881 d) None of these.
Answer: (b)

92. Co-operative Audit involves ------------- also

a) Administrative Audit b) Interim audit
c) Internal audit d) None of these
Answer: (a)

93. The word Debenture is derived from --------------.

a) Debit b) Debt c) Debee d) None of these.
Answer: (d)

94. Kerala State Co-operative Agricultural And Rural Development Bank Ltd were formerly known as
-------------------.
a) Kerala State Co-operative Bank
b) Kerala Agricultural Development Bank
c) Kerala Co-operative Central Land Mortgage Bank
d) None of these

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Answer: (c)
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95. Maximum amount of audit fee charged for auditing a Co-operative Society is Rs----------
a) 25000/- b) 100000 c) 50000 d) None of these
Answer: (b)

96. Entry Point Norms (EPN) of RBI for licensing urban Co-operative Banks having a population of
more than one lakh in the area is ----------
a) 500 members and share capital Rs.25 lacs
b) 3000members and share capital Rs.400 lacs
c) 100members and share capital Rs.1 lac
d) None of these
Answer: (a)

97. In the core banking system all------------- will be connected to a central server
a) all banks b) all branches of the Bank
c) all co-operative Banks d) None of these
Answer: (b)

98. Internet banking is also known as -----------

a) Cyberbanking b) online banking
c) personal Computer banking d) all of these
Answer: (d)

99. Cash reserve ratio(CRR) and Statutory Liquid Ratio(SLR) are related to --------------
a) Cash management b) liquidity management
c) Risk management d) None of these
Answer: (a)

100. A contract guarantee is governed by the provisions of -------------

a) Negotiable Instrument Act b) Banking Regulation Act
c) Indian Contract Act d) None of these
Answer: (c)

101. Women's representation in the Managing Committee of a Primary Co-operative society is---------
a) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4
Answer: (a)

102. The final voter's list in a Primary Credit Co-operative Society for election is
published by ---------------
a) Returning Officer
b) Electoral Officer
c) Managing Committee
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

103. The retirement age of an employee of a Co-operative Society shall be------Years.

a) 56 b) 58 c) 60 d) None of these
Answer: (b)

104. ................ can exercise casting vote in the meeting of the Managing Committee of a Co-operative
Society
a) Chairman b) Administrator
c) Managing director d) None of these
Answer: (a)

105. ‘Subsidiary state partnership fund’ is maintained by----------------

a) State Co-operative Bank b) District C-operative Bank
c) State Government c) None of these
Answer: (b)

106. The expansion of ‘MASK’ is --------------.

a) Mutual Aid Scheme Kerala b) Mutual Assistance Scheme Kerala
c) Mutual Arrangement Scheme Kerala d) None of these
Answer: (c)

107. Prudential norms include--------------.

a) Income recognition
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b) Assets classification
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c) provisioning
d) all of these
Answer: (d)

108. Primary Agricultural Credit Society (PACS) can become a Member of ----------------.
a) State Co-operative Bank
b) Primary Co-operative Agricultural and Rural Development Bank
c) Kerala Co-operative Agricultural and Rural Development Bank
d) None of these
Answer: (d)

109. In CAMELS rating ‘C’ stands for-------------.

a) Capability
b) Competency
c) Capital adequacy
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

110. KICMA is an Institution functioning under the control of -------------

a) Institute of co-operative Management
b) Kerala State Co-operative Bank
c) Kerala State co-operative Union
d) None of the above
Answer: (c)

111. Section138 of the negotiable Instruments Act states that the drawer of the cheque is liable to be
punished if the cheque is bounced for -------.
a) not crossing b) alteration of figures
c) insufficient funds d) None of these
Answer: (c)

112. Bank provides overdraft facility in -----------.

a) SB Account b) current account
c) Fixed Deposit Account d) None of these
Answer: (b)

113. The authorized share capital of a co-operative Bank in Kerala is fixed in the -----------
a) Kerala co-operative Societies Act
b) Banking Regulation Act
c) By-laws of the Bank
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

114. Authority to issue legal heir certificate of deceased is----------

a) Court
b) Revenue authorities
c) Registration authorities
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

115. Cheque presented subsequent to the receipt of ‘stop payment order‘ will be returned after writing
the words--------------- across the cheque.
a) Payment stopped b) refer to drawer
c) Payment stopped by the drawer d) None of these
Answer: (c)
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116. Primary urban co-operative Bank should strengthen its -------- for increasing borrowing power.
a) deposits b) share capital c) profit d) None of these
Answer: (b)

117. e-banking provides ----------- to customers.

a) Online banking service
b) any time banking service
c) All of these
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

118. The implementing agency of the Kissan credit card scheme is----------.
a) Commercial Banks b) Regional rural banks
c) Co-operative Banks d) all of these
Answer: (d)

119. When the rate of interest is changed from time to time it is called ------------
a) Fixed-rate
b) nominal rate
c) floating rate
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

120. Succession certificate issued by ------------- is valid throughout India.

a) Supreme Court of India b) Any court
c) High Court d) None of these
Answer: (b)

121. Naturally, the guardian of a minor is---------------

a) father b) mother c) brother c) None of these
Answer: (a)

122. A Primary Co-operative Society not coming under the Banking Regulation Act shall maintain
fluid resources to the extent of -----------its demand liabilities
a) 10% b) 20% c) 100% d) None of these
Answer: (b)

123. Protection to collecting Banker under N.I Act is available only if it is a -----------
a) Bearer cheque b) order cheque
c) order cheque as well as crossed one d) None of these
Answer: (c)

124. All loans can be treated as secured loans if those loans were disbursed against--------------.
a) Personal security b) on the security of gold
d) charge on crop d) None of these
Answer: (b)

125. Documentation means--------------------

a) drafting of documents
b) filing and execution of security document
c) keeping them safe and legally alive after execution
d) All of these
Answer: (d)

126. The industrial development of India was established under the initiative of--------------.
a) SBI b) World Bank c) RBI d) None of these
Answer: (c)

127. Is it necessary to register an ‘equitable mortgage’

a) yes
b) Not necessary
c) at certain times
d) Necessary if the loan amount exceeds Rs.one lack
Answer: (b)

128. A depositor can withdraw the amount from his SB Account through ---------- in a Primary Credit
Co-operative Society
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a) Cheque b) voucher
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c) Withdrawal slip d) None of these
Answer: (c)

129. A banker should obtain ------------- writing if the customer's account is to be operated by another
a) probate b) mandate
c) pronote d) None of these
Answer: (b)

130. Cash or other assets continually undergoing conversion into cash is known as-------------.
a) Fixed asset
b) Statutory asset
c) floating asset
d) none of these.
Answer: (c)

131. Drawer in the case of Demand Draft is----------

a) Purchaser
b) Payee
c) Issuing Banker
d) None of these
Answer: (a)

132. RBI’s licensing policy for setting new co-operative Urban Banks is based on --------------.
a) Strong start-up capital b) Corporate Governance
c) All of these c) None of these
Answer: (c)

133. Banks without any branch is called--------------

a) Federal bank
b) unit Bank
c) Apex Bank
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

134. Urban co-operative Bank shall maintain SLR at the rate ------------- its demand and time liability
a) 10% b) 24% c) 25% d) 6%
Answer: (b)

135. The maximum Interest rate on various deposits in a Service Co-operative Bank is fixed by --------
-----
a) Reserve Bank of India b) Managing Committee
c) Registrar of Co-operative Societies d) None of these
Answer: (c)

136. The basis of the quantum of mortgaged loan to be sanctioned by the Banker to the borrower is ----
--------
a) encumbrance certificate
b) Possession and enjoyment certificate
c) Valuation certificate
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

137. The essential characteristic of Banking is to accept deposits from ----------- for the purpose of
lending or investment.
a) members b) public c) government d) None of these
Answer: (b)

138. ----------- is the right of the Banker.

a) General lien b) Moral lien c) special lien d) None of these
Answer: (a)

139. A document is defined in ------------

a) Indian Evidence Act b) Negotiable Instrument Act
c) Indian Stamp Act d) None of these
Answer: (a)

140. Co-operative Bank as section5 (CCI) of Banking Regulation Act Include -----------------.
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a) Primary Agricultural Credit Society b) PCARDB
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c) Urban Co-operative society d) None of these
Answer: (d)

141. ------------ maintains currency chest with public Sector Banks

a) RBI b) SBI c) State Co-Operative Bank d) None of these
Answer: (a)

142. ’protest’ is issued by---------------

a) Borrower b) Banker c) Notary public d) none of these
Answer: (c)

143. Gilt-edged securities include----------

a) Securities issued by 1st class Magistrate
b) Government securities
c) Debentures
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

144. Material alteration in a cheque means ----------------

a) Alteration from general crossing to special crossing
b) Negligible alteration c) Alteration of the amount
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

145. Responsibility for fixing stamp of proper value to the document is vested with ----------------
a) Banker b) Executor
c) Both of them d) None of these.
Answer: (b)

146. Transfer of money, paying telephone bills, and water charges can be done at your home or
workplace of a customer is called ----------------
a) Telephone banking b) ATM service
c) Internet banking d) None of these
Answer: (c)

147. Photograph of operators while opening new deposit accounts was insisted as per the
recommendation of ------------
a) Prof.Vaidyanathan committee b) Narasimham committee
c) Ghosh Committee d) None of these
Answer: (c)

148. Power of Attorney in writing is executed in the presence of -------------------

a) Banker b) Magistrate c) Notary d) None of these
Answer: (c)

149. ----------- is not a negotiable instrument

a) cheque b) Demand draft c) pay order d) all of these
Answer: (c)

150. Non-Performing Assets is not -------------

a) generating loss b) generating income
c) high yielding loans d) None of these
Answer: (b)

151. ----------------- is one of the main functions of management.

a) Classification b) identification
c) control d) none of these.
Answer: (c)

152. ------------- is the process of measuring or assessing the actual or potential dangers of a particular
situation.
a) recovery management b) fund management
c) risk management d) None of these
Answer: (c)

153. Interest leakage has occurred when-----------------.

a) interest payable is larger than interest receivable
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b) interest is receivable is larger than the interest payable
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c) accumulated loss of the Institution exceeds its own funds.
d) None of these
Answer: (a)

154. The movement of cash to and from the Bank is called ---------------
a) Cash outflow
b) cash inflow
c) cash-in-transit
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

155. Customer relationship management confers ----------- of the institution.

a) quality and efficiency b) decision support
c) all of these d) None of these
Answer: (c)

156. Expansion of the term KYC -------------------.

a) know your capacity
b) know your Company
c) Know your customer
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

157. --------- is one way of oral communication.

a) e-mail b) Television c) SMS d) None of these
Answer: (b)

158.------------- is defined as the interaction of the individual with the environment, and interaction of
the people and their jobs.
a) stress b) communication
c) leadership d) Co-ordination
Answer: (a)

159. Banking and other financial services were brought under the purview of service tax by-------------
a) Indian Finance Act 1994 b)Indian Finance Act 2001
c) Income-tax Act d) none of theses
Answer: (b)

160. Leaders governance is governance of--------------

a) Managing Director b) Board of directors
c) Administrator d) None of these
Answer: (b)

161. Football game is a good example of-------------

a) risk management b) team management
c) even management d) None of these
Answer: (b)

162. Which of the following is distress?

a) getting married b) changing job
c) excessive obligations d) None of these
Answer: (c)

163. Low-cost borrowings improve ------------------ of a financial Institution.

a) stability
b)credibility
c) profitability
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

164. ------------- is one of the major aspects of Time Management

a) Excessive communication b) Politeness
c) Regularity d) None of these
Answer: (c)

165. A good leader ----------------- his group members

a) controls b) dictates

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c) inspires d) teaches
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Answer: (c)

166. --------------- involves assessment of various types of risks and altering balance sheet items in a
dynamic manner to manage risks.
a) Risk Management b) Recovery Management
c) Asset and Liability Management d) None of these
Answer: (c)

167. An employee of an Institution attending office late ------------.

a) can sign in the attendance register
b) can sign in the late Attendance register
c) need not sign in any register
d) should enter on leave
Answer: (b)

168. Letters received in the Co-operative Bank should be entered in ------------

a) Dispatch Register
b) inward register
c) Admission register
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

169. ---------- is an effective measure to prevent a financing Institution from burglary.

a) appointing a watchman holding a rifle license
b) installation of safety alarm, metal detector, video camera
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
Answer: (c)

170. Customers Relationship Management -----------------

a) reduce costs through optimization of business process
b) increase loyalty
c) All of the above
d) none of the above
Answer: (c)

171. Encumbrance certificate discloses the liability of ---------------

a) loanee b)individual c) Property d) None of these
Answer: (c)

172. Application for a loan from PCARD Bank should be accompanied with -----------
a) Title deed of property
b) Possession and valuation certificate of land
c) all of these
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

173. The SCARD Banks in the country have formed their own Federation namely--------------.
a) National Federation of State Co-operative Agricultural and Rural Development Banks.
b) National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development Bank
c) National Co-operative Consumer federation
d) None of these
Answer: (a)

174. KSCARDB is permitted to issue debentures under the provisions of ------------------

a) Kerala Co-operative Societies Act b) KSCARDB Act
c) Kerala Financial Code d) None of these
Answer: (b)

175. ---------------- is the Trustee to fulfil the obligation of KSCARD Bank to the holders of
debentures.
a) Government b) Registrar of co-operative Societies
c) NABARD d) None of these
Answer: (b)

176. The presumptive value is ----------------------------------.

a) value of the land offered as security after the proposed development is affected.
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b) market value of the land preceding the projected development of land
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c) difference between pre-development value and post development value
d) None of these
Answer: (a)

177. Technical Enquiry Report (TER) is prepared by-----------

a) Supervisor of PCARD Bank
b) Legal adviser of the Bank
c) Valuation officer
d) None of these
Answer: (a)

178. Under SWARTO loans the margin to be met by the borrower is --------------
a) 15% b) 10% c) 5% d)25%
Answer: (a)

179. Under schematic lending, PCARDB can finance projects up to a TFO limit of ----------------------.
a) Rs 30 lakhs b) Rs.40 lakhs c) Rs 50 lakhs d) Rs.10 lakhs
Answer: (c)

180. Maximum repayment period of the loan under Kissan Credit Card Scheme is-------------
a) 1 year b) 2years 3) 3 years d) None of these
Answer: (a)

181. Bonus above the minimum level shall be paid to the employees On the basis of----------
a) Net profit b) gross income
c) allocable surplus d) None of these
Answer: (c)

182. Co-operative Department is part of ---------------

a) Official Management
b) Professional management
c) all of these
d) None of these
Answer: (a)

183. All powers of the Registrar of Co-operative Societies except Audit is delegated to--------------
a) Joint Registrar of Co-operative Societies.
b) Deputy Registrar of Co-operative Societies
c) Assistant registrar of Co-operative Societies
d) all of them
Answer: (a)

184. Audit of ---------------- shall be placed before the Legislative Assembly

a) Urban Co-operative Banks b) Regional Co-operatives
c) Apex co-operatives d) All co-operatives
Answer: (c)

185. ----------------- is the head of the audit wing of the Co-operative Department
a) Registrar of Co-operative Societies
b) Director of Co-operative Audit
c) Additional Director
d) None of them
Answer: (b)

186 --------------- is a statement containing the various ledgers balances on a particular date
a) Receipt and Disbursement Statement
b) Trial Balance
c) Balance Sheet
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

187. Procedure to be adopted in auditing the accounts of different types of Co-operatives should be in
the manner specified in the -------------------------
a) Co-operative Societies Act b) audit manual
c) Kerala Account Code d) None of these
Answer: (b)

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188. Maximum age limit for recruitment in the case of applicants belonging to S.C/ST Community in a
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Co-operative Society is -----------------.
a) 37 b) 40 c) 45 d) 43.
Answer: (c)

189. Maximum marks provided for written examination for the recruitment of staff conducted by the
Kerala Service Examination Board in a Co-operative Credit Society is----------
a) 100 b) 80 c) 85 d) None of these
Answer: (b)

190. Maximum number of Earned leave to be credited in the leave Account of employee is --------------
-
a) 180 days b) 230 days c) 300 days d) 90 days
Answer: (c)

191.------------------ is not eligible to be appointed under dying-in Harness scheme.

a) Nephew/Niece b) Adopted son
c) Mother c) All of them.
Answer: (b)

192. The government shall in consultation with -------------- fix or alter the number and Designation of
officers and servants of different classes of Societies specified in subsection (1) of33 section 80 of the
KCS Act 1969 SEARCH THIS BLOG
a) State co-operative Union b) Apex Institution
c) Registrar of Co-operative Societies d) None of these Search this blog
Answer: (c)

193. The maximum amount of gratuity admissible to an employee of an

Institution no covered under Gratuity Act 1972 is----------
a) Rs.10 lakhs
b) Rs.7 lakhs
c) Rs 7.50 lakhs
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

194. Maximum qualifying service for the purpose of pension to the employees of Co-operative Society
is------------
a) 33 years b) 30 years c) 25 years d) no limit
Answer: (b)

195. The maximum amount of pension admissible to an employee of District Co-operative Bank in
Kerala is --------------
a) Rs.10000/- b) Rs15000/ c) Rs20000/- d) None of these
Answer: (d)

196. ------------- shall impose punishment withholding increment of a senior clerk of a Co-operative
Society.
a) President
b) Chief Executive
c) Sub Committee
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

197. All monitory disputes referred to in section 69 of the KCS Act 1969 shall be filed within -----------
years from the date of overdue RECENT POSTS
a) 5 years b) 3 years c)10 years d) no time limit
Answer: (b) Revolutions that Influenced t
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198. Assistance under the Kerala Risk fund scheme is not applicable to ----------- KAS Exam Questions & Answe
a) Self-employment loans b) gold loans  December 19, 2023

c) Non-Agricultural loans d) loans under SHG scheme

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199. Co-operative Ombudsman/ombudsmen appointed under Section 69A of the KCS Act 1969 shall -
----------years of Bar practice PSC HISTORY & GEOGRAPHY O
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) None of these RELATED QUESTIONS AND AN
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200. Central Information Commissioner and Central Information Commissioners under the provisions
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of the Right to information Act 2005 is appointed by------------------ POPULAR POSTS
a) Prime Minister if India b) Chief Justice of India
c) President of India d) None of these CTET/ SET/ K-TET - PEDAGOGY
Answer: (c) & ANSWERS
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