0% found this document useful (0 votes)
25 views40 pages

Anubhav: All India Open Mock Test

Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1/ 40

Date : 04/02/2024

C
Test Booklet Series

Test Code
02040224

ijh{k.k iqfLrdk vuqØe

ANUBHAV-II
ALL INDIA OPEN MOCK TEST
for CSE 2024 (P)
GENERAL STUDIES (Paper-II)
ENGLISH / fgUnh

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200


le; % nks ?k.Vs iw.kk±d % 200

Before attempting paper please read the instructions given on page no. 2 or 3 carefully and follow them.

Ñi;k iz'u&i=k gy djus ls igys i`"B la[;k 2 vFkok 3 ij fn, x, vuqns'kksa dks è;kuiwoZd i<+s rFkk mudk vuqlj.k djsaA

DELHI CENTRE:
Old Rajinder Nagar: 27-B, Pusa Road, Metro Pillar no. 118, Near Karol Bagh Metro, New Delhi-110060 | Phone: 8081300200
Mukherjee Nagar: 1422, Main Mukherjee Nagar Road, Near Batra Cinema, New Delhi-110009 | Phone: 8081300200
BHOPAL CENTRE: Plot No. 46 Zone - 2, M.P Nagar, Bhopal - 462011 | Phone: 8827664612, 8081300200
JAIPUR CENTRE: A-1, Lion’s Colony, Sitabari, Near The Theme Hotel, Tonk Road, Jaipur-302018 | Phone: 9358200511
tc rd vkidks ;g ijh{k.k iqfLrdk [kksyus dks u dgk tk, rc rd u [kksysaA

vuqns'k
1. ijh{kk çkjEHk gksus ds rqjUr ckn vki bl ijh{k.k iqfLrdk dh iM+rky vo'; dj ysa fd blesa dksbZ fcuk Nik] iQVk
;k NwVk gqvk i`"B vFkok ç'uka'k vkfn u gksA ;fn ,slk gS] rks bls lgh ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ls cny ysaA
2. Ñi;k è;ku j[ksa fd OMR mÙkj&i=kd esa mfpr LFkku ij jksy uEcj vkSj ijh{k.k iqfLrdk vuqØe C ;k
D dks è;ku ls ,oa fcuk fdlh pwd ;k folaxfr ds Hkjus vkSj dwVc¼ djus dh ftEesnkjh mEehnokj dh gSA
fdlh Hkh çdkj dh pwd@folaxfr dh fLFkfr esa mÙkj&i=kd fujLr dj fn;k tk,xkA
3. bl ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ij lkFk esa fn, x, dks"Bd esa vkidks
viuk vuqØekad fy[kuk gSA ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ij vkSj dqN u fy[ksaA
4. bl ijh{k.k iqfLrdk esa 80 ç'uka'k (ç'u) fn, x, gSaA çR;sd ç'uka'k fgUnh vkSj vaxzsth nksuksa esa Nik gSA çR;sd ç'uka'k
esa pkj çR;qÙkj (mÙkj) fn, x, gSaA buesa ls ,d çR;qÙkj dks pqu ysa] ftls vki mÙkj&i=kd ij vafdr djuk pkgrs
gSaA ;fn vkidks ,slk yxs fd ,d ls vf/d çR;qÙkj lgh gSa] rks ml çR;qÙkj dks vafdr djsa tks vkidks lokZsÙke yxsA
çR;sd ç'uka'k ds fy, dsoy ,d gh çR;qÙkj pquuk gSA
5. vkidks vius lHkh çR;qÙkj vyx ls fn, x, mÙkj&i=kd ij gh vafdr djus gSaA mÙkj&i=kd esa fn, x, funZs'k ns[ksaA
6. lHkh ç'uka'kksa ds vad leku gSaA
7. blls igys fd vki ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ds fofHkUu ç'uka'kksa ds çR;qÙkj mÙkj&i=kd ij vafdr djuk 'kq: djsa] vkidks
ços'k çek.k&i=k ds lkFk çsf"kr vuqns'kksa ds vuqlkj dqN fooj.k mÙkj&i=kd esa nsus gSaA
8. vki vius lHkh çR;qÙkjksa dks mÙkj&i=kd esa Hkjus ds ckn rFkk ijh{kk ds lekiu ij dsoy mÙkj&i=kd v/h{kd dks
lkSai nsaA vkidks vius lkFk ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ys tkus dh vuqefr gSA
9. dPps dke ds fy, i=kd] ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ds vUr esa layXu gSaA
10. xyr mÙkjksa ds fy, n.M %
lHkh ç'uksa esa mEehnokj }kjk fn, x, xyr mÙkjksa ds fy, n.M fn;k tk,xkA
(i) çR;sd ç'u ds fy, pkj oSdfYid mÙkj gSA mEehnokj }kjk çR;sd ç'u ds fy, fn, x, ,d xyr mÙkj ds
fy, ç'u gsrq fu;r fd, x, vadksa dk ,d&frgkbZ n.M ds :i esa dkVk tk,xkA
(ii) ;fn dksbZ mEehnokj ,d ls vf/d mÙkj nsrk gS] rks bls xyr mÙkj ekuk tk,xk] ;|fi fn, x, mÙkjksa esa ls
,d mÙkj lgh gksrk gS] fiQj Hkh ml ç'u ds fy, mi;ZqÙkkuqlkj gh mlh rjg dk n.M fn;k tk,xkA
(iii) ;fn mEehnokj }kjk dksbZ ç'u gy ugha fd;k tkrk gS vFkkZr~ mEehnokj }kjk mÙkj ugha fn;k tkrk gS] rks ml
ç'u ds fy, dksbZ n.M ugha fn;k tk,xkA
11. ç'u ls lacaf/r pqukSrh@vkifÙk% ;fn Nk=kksa dks yxrk gS fd ;k rks ç'u@mÙkjksa dks la'kksf/r djus dh vko';drk
gS ;k Li"Vhdj.k dh vko';drk gS] rks os lgk;d tkudkjh ds lkFk 5 iQjojh] 2024 ('kke 4:00 cts) rd
[email protected] ij bZ&esy dj ldrs gSaA

tc rd vkidks ;g ijh{k.k iqfLrdk [kksyus dks u dgk tk, rc rd u [kksysaA


DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES Not HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING
PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test
Booklet Series C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places
in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for
rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the
Test Booklet in the box provided alongside.
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (Questions). Each item is printed in Hindi and English. Each item
comprises four responses (Answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer
Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose only one response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate answer sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission
Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN
THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
11. Challenge the question: If students feel that either the question(s)/answer(s) needs to be modified or require
clarification, they can email at [email protected] with supporting information by 5 February, 2024
(4:00 PM).

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO


All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

1.
(a)
(b)

(c)

(d)

2.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

3.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

4.
(a)
(b)
(c)

(d)

© Copyright: 1–C www.nextias.com


Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

Directions for the following (Q.1 to Q.4): would have been presented to the audience
Read the following passage and answer the as the ultimate representation of love—but the
items that follows. Your answers to these items poet didn’t, instead conveying the idea that
should be based on the passages only. roses can be treacherous. So can love, the
Passage metaphor tells us. When one reaches out with
absolute trust to touch the object of his or her
A metaphor is a poetic device that deals with
affection, ouch, a thorn can cause great harm!
comparison. It compares similar qualities of
“Be careful,” the metaphor admonishes: Love
two dissimilar objects. With a simple metaphor,
is a feast to the senses, but it can overwhelm
one object becomes the other: Love is a rose.
us, and it can also hurt us. It can prick us and
Although this does not sound like a particularly
cause acute suffering. This is the poet’s
rich image, a metaphor can communicate so
much about a particular image that poets use perception of love—an admonition. What is
the point? Just this: It took almost 14 sentences
them more than any other type of figurative
language. The reason for this is that poets to clarify what a simple metaphor
communicates in only five words! That is the
compose their poetry to express what they are
experiencing emotionally at that moment. artistry and the joy of the simple metaphor.
Consequently, what the poet imagines love to 1. The main idea of this passage is
be may or may not be our perception of love. (a) Poetic devices are necessary for poets.
Therefore, the poet’s job is to enable us to (b) Poetry must never cater to the senses.
experience it, to feel it the same way that the (c) Always use words that create one
poet does. We should be able to nod in specific image.
agreement and say, “Yes, that’s it! I understand (d) The metaphor is a great poetic device.
precisely where this person is coming from.”
2. It can be inferred that a metaphor is
Let’s analyze this remarkably unsophisticated
(a) A type of figurative language.
metaphor concerning love and the rose to see
(b) The only poetic device.
what it offers. Because the poet uses a
comparison with a rose, first we must examine (c) Not precise enough.
the characteristics of that flower. A rose is (d) A type of flower in a poem.
spectacular in its beauty, its petals are velvety 3. It can be inferred that the true meaning
soft, and its aroma is soothing and pleasing. of the love is a rose metaphor is that
It’s possible to say that a rose is actually a (a) love is a true joy.
veritable feast to the senses: the visual, the (b) love comes only once in a lifetime.
tactile, and the aural [more commonly known (c) love is never permanent.
as the senses of sight, touch, and sound]. The
(d) love is a combination of good and bad
rose’s appearance seems to border on
experiences.
perfection, each petal seemingly symmetrical
4. According to the passage, the poet’s
in form. Isn’t this the way one’s love should
intention is
be? A loved one should be a delight to one’s
(a) to release anger.
senses and seem perfect. However, there is
another dimension added to the comparison (b) to announce heartache.
by using a rose. Roses have thorns. This is the (c) to enable you to experience the poet’s
comprehensive image the poet wants to point of view.
communicate; otherwise, a daisy or a mum (d) to reward the senses.

© Copyright: 2–C www.nextias.com


All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

5. 4

-1
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

6.

10.

(a)

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(b)
7. Z
Z
(c)
Z
(a) (b)
(c) (d) (d)

8. …………

(a) (b)
-2
(c) (d)

9.

(a) (b)
(c) (d)

© Copyright: 3–C www.nextias.com


Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

5. Prabhaas attempts a question paper that Directions for the following (Q.10 to Q.13):
has 3 sections with 5 questions in each Read the following three passages and answer
section. If Prabhaas has to attempt any the items that follows. Your answers to these
5 questions, choosing at least one question items should be based on the passages only.
from each section, then in how many
Passage – 1
ways can he attempt the paper?
Incentives, investment, and innovation are
(a) 1465 (b) 1824
driving India’s rapidly increasing Electric
(c) 2250 (d) 1750 Vehicle (EV) adoption. Finance will be critical
6. Nile, Barney and Sam have some amount to achieving scale. However, the real and
of money. Nile gives half his amount to perceived risks of a relatively new asset class
Barney, who then gives half of what he have meant that financial institutions like
now has to Sam. Sam gives half of what banks and NBFCs have not yet built up their
he now has to Nile, who, now has what confidence or capabilities of financing the
he started with. If the sum of Barney’s
sector.
initial amount and twice Sam’s initial
10. Which one of the following is the essential
amount is Rs. 51, what was the amount
(in rupees) Nile started with? message implied by the above passage?

(a) 42 (b) 39 (a) For the EV sector to achieve scale,


financial institutions should be
(c) 34 (d) 36
encouraged to hand out loans.
7. Z is a two-digit number whose units digit
is a non-zero and less than four. Z is (b) EV adoption and scalability depend
smaller than twice the number formed by upon the capacity of the country to
interchanging the positions of its digits. pursue innovations in this field.
How many values can Z take? (c) The government should step in to
(a) 18 (b) 14 finance the EV sector such that
(c) 13 (d) 16 innovations are incentivised.

8. Find the remainder of a number of (d) For financing the EV segment,


1234567891011………….67 digits divide financial institutions need to develop
by 5 : the capabilities to accurately
(a) 1 (b) 4 calculate the risks involved.

(c) 3 (d) 0 Passage - 2


9. In how much time can a train cover a A few firms profit from the intellectual
distance of 600 km if speed of train is 25% property rights (IPR) and technology
more than the speed of car and speed of connected to GM foods. Since businesses may
car is 20 % more than the speed of a truck now claim a patent on a whole species by
which covers 640 km in 18 hours in which
modifying a single gene inside the genome, this
it takes 30 minute break after every
raises questions regarding “seed sovereignty.”
150 km.
Once any of these types are made public, India
(a) 9 hours 36 mins can see severe IPR unrest. This would be
(b) 10 hours 20 mins contrary to the efforts made by our ancestors
(c) 10 hours to co-evolve a species during millions of years
(d) 7 hours 30 mins of evolution.
© Copyright: 4–C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

11. 12.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

13.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(a)
-3

(b)

(c)

(d)

14.
16 17 21 ? 304 3429

(a) (b)
(c) (d)

15.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

© Copyright: 5–C www.nextias.com


Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

11. Based on the passage, which of the 12. The passage implies which of the
following is/ are implied? following are the effects of the Aswan
1. Using seeds which are genetically Dam?
modified by corporations can impair (a) Crops need silt in order to flourish.
species diversity. (b) Farmers are glad that the dam was
2. We need to conduct independent built, despite the need to purchase
studies to verify the efficiency of GM fertilizer, because the river no longer
floods.
technology.
(c) The land around the river is not as
3. The technologies which can edit one
naturally fertile as it was before the
gene within a genome are owned
dam was built.
only by a few corporations.
(d) Egypt now competes successfully on
Select the correct answer using the code
economic level with western nations.
given below.
13. What is the significance of the author’s
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
statement that the dam generated half of
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Egypt’s output of electricity by the 1970s?
Passage - 3 (a) It proves that Egypt no longer needed
A cycle of floods followed by drought that to rely on other sources of electricity.
lasted for a large portion of the 20th century (b) It demonstrates the magnitude of the
caused great misery among the people living positive effects created by the dam.
along the Nile River. The Egyptian government (c) It argues that the positive energy
decided in the middle of the 1950s that
output is more important than any
constructing a sizable dam would avoid yearly
negative effects.
floods, provide hydroelectric power, and
(d) It shows that the dam fell short of
provide a reliable source of freshwater for
citizens and agricultural endeavours. Most initial expectations.
Egyptian communities had electricity by the 14. Find the missing number in the following
1970s, and the Aswan Dam supplied almost series:
half of Egypt’s overall electricity output.
16 17 21 ? 304 3429
These advantages, however, were offset by
negative long-term effects. For example, the (a) 58 (b) 44
dam prevents silt, essential for renewing the
(c) 48 (d) 56
minerals and nutrients that make land fertile,
from flowing to downstream lands. Farmers 15. A piece of paper is folded and cut as
have had to substitute artificial fertilizers, shown below in the question figures.
reducing profits and causing pervasive Indicate how it will appear when opened.
chemical pollution with deleterious effects for
the nearby human, animal, and plant
populations. It is difficult to draw definite
conclusions about a project with such
(a) (b)
profound and varied results, but it would be
untenable to assert that the Egyptian
government should never have built the (c) (d)
Aswan Dam.
© Copyright: 6–C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

( .16-17) (M, N, O, P, Q (a) (b)


R) (c) (d)
20.

(i)

(ii) Q M P
(iii) Q P
(iv) M P Q R

8
(a) 3 %
(v) P N 11

16. P
(b)
(a) N
(b) M
(c) Q
(d) (c)

17.
(a) M (b) N
7
(c) O (d) R (d) 4 %
11
18.
4

(a) (b)
-1
(c) (d)

19.

© Copyright: 7–C www.nextias.com


Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

Directions for the following (Q.16 to Q.17): (a) 32 years (b) 34 years
6 Persons (M, N, O, P, Q and R) are born in (c) 26 years (d) 31.5 years
different years - 1945, 1951, 1957, 1959, 1968
20. Rajdhani Express having length 135 m
and 1979. Their ages are calculated on the base
and Vande Bharat Express having length 145
of year 2023.
m are moving in opposite direction. They
Consider the following information:
enter into a tunnel which has length equal
(i) Person with vowel as his name has
to the sum of lengths of both trains. Trains
multiple of 11 as his age.
meet each other after 14 seconds of entering
(ii) Q is younger than M & older than P.
in the tunnel. They have their speeds in the
(iii) Q is older than P by 6 years.
ratio of 7 : 3. What will be the status of
(iv) The difference between ages of M and P
Rajdhani Express with respect to its tunnel
is 4 years more than difference between
entrance when it meets the Vande Bharat
ages of Q and R.
Express?
(v) Age of P is 1.5 times of age of N.
8
16. Who of the following could be P’s son? (a) 3 % of Rajdhani Express is still
11
(a) N outside the tunnel.
(b) M
(b) It is fully inside the tunnel and the
(c) Q
gap is approximately 45% its length
(d) None of the above
from the entrance of the tunnel.
17. Who is the second youngest among the
6 persons? (c) It is fully inside the tunnel and the
(a) M (b) N gap is approximately 27% its length
from the entrance of the tunnel.
(c) O (d) R
18. There is a ‘2’ digit number whose mirror 7
(d) 4 % of Rajdhani Express is still
image when the mirror is located to its 11
North exceeds the number formed by outside the tunnel.
interchanging its digits by 45. Find the
Directions for the following (Q.21 to Q.24):
number.
Read the following four passages and answer
(a) 83
the items that follows. Your answers to these
(b) 49
items should be based on the passages only.
(c) 86
(d) Insufficient data Passage - 1

19. The average age of Nandni and Anand is All medical professionals agree that we need
40 years. If Ankita replaces Nandni, the to concentrate on reducing the prevalence of
average age becomes 37 years and if pre-diabetes and improving its management.
Ankita replaces Anand, then the average On the preventive health front, a traditional
age becomes 43 years. If the average age kitchen revival, where a more diverse diet is
of Dhruv and Ishaan is half of the practiced, and rice does not form the centre
average age of Nandni, Anand and piece, may help. The more difficult challenge
Ankita, then the average age of all the five is the attitudinal shift towards movement.
people is: In many rural and urban areas in India,

© Copyright: 8–C www.nextias.com


All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

-3

21.

23.
(a)

(b)

(a) (b) (c)


(c) (d)

-2 (d)

-4

22.

(a)

(b) 24.

(c)

(d)

© Copyright: 9–C www.nextias.com


Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

physical work is linked with class hierarchy. Passage - 3


A family’s ability to hire more aid and maintain Everyone is sensitive to extreme weather
more functioning motions decreases as they conditions. But with age, the body may become
grow richer. less able to respond to long exposure to very
21. On the basis of the above passage, the hot or very cold temperatures. Some older
following assumptions have been made: people might develop hypothermia when
exposed to cold weather. Hypothermia is a
1. Regular movement and physical
drop in internal body temperature, which can
work may help prevent pre-diabetes.
be fatal if not detected and treated.
2. It is important to manage pre-
23. The paragraph best supports the
diabetes in people to prevent it from
statement that
turning into something more serious.
(a) cold weather is more dangerous for
Which of the following is/are valid
older people than warm weather.
assumptions?
(b) hypothermia is a condition that only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
affects older people.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) older people who live in warm
Passage - 2 climates are healthier than older
The government is generating a plethora of people who live in cold climates.
gender- disaggregated data through either (d) an older person is more susceptible
implementation-related statistics or through to hypothermia than a younger
surveys and using them to inform or reform person.
schemes, thus perpetuating a virtuous cycle. Passage - 4
It is now the onus of individuals and groups
A gig economy company’s business strategy
in academia, research and evaluation
is based on the fundamental idea of always
consultancies to conduct audits and third-
having a huge pool of employees available. The
party assessments of such data to further
shifting demand for services is then matched
mainstream women’s rights in public policy
with this abundant supply of labour. As a
for janhit.
result of the constant growth in the supply of
22. Based on the passage, which one of the labour, there is more competition and a greater
following is the most valid conclusion?
readiness to accept low pay. The platforms
(a) Quantification is a step towards may then offer services at low costs, helping
resolution and rectification of them to outbid their rivals and establish their
women’s rights challenges. own monopoly in the market.
(b) The statistical architecture of the
24. On the basis of the above passage, the
nation as we knew it has been rebuilt
following assumptions have been made:
to count women.
1. If the pool of employees in a gig-
(c) Use of data fortifies women’s access
economy company starts to drop,
to economic resources thus elevating
their social status. business can suffer.

(d) Gender mainstreaming must 2. Gig-economy models, if run


seamlessly pervade every sphere of successfully, can allow a company to
state policy. dominate the market.

© Copyright: 10 – C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

(a) (b)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) (d)
31. A
25. HEAR B

RIDE C
RACE
B
(a) (b) (a) (b)
(c) (d) (c) (d)

26. (32-33)
J K L M N O

(a) (b)
(c) (d) J M N O
K L
27.
N L

(a) (b) 32.


(c) (d) (a) J & L (b) N & M
(c) O & K (d) M & L
(28-29)
33.
B A (a) O L
D A (b) J N
(c) L O
D C
(d) O J
B E
(34-35)
28.
(a) B (b) C
(c) D (d) E

29.
(a) A (b) B
(c) D (d) C

30.
2 4 60
3 5 116
4 6 ?

© Copyright: 11 – C www.nextias.com
Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

Which of the following is/are valid (a) 150 (b) 180


assumptions? (c) 196 (d) 200
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1 1
31. A invested of the capital for of the
3 5
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1 1
25. In a certain code language ‘HEAR’ is time, B invested of the capital for of
4 6
coded as ‘825118’ and ‘RIDE’ is coded as
the time and C invested the rest of the
‘1881165’ then, how will ‘RACE’ be coded
capital for the rest of the time. Find the
in that language?
share of B out of a total profit of Rs. 8710.
(a) 18165 (b) 1811065 (a) 975 (b) 1025
(c) 181195 (d) 18195 (c) 1060 (d) 1525
26. Divide 200 into four parts which are in
Directions for the following (Q.32 to Q.33):
arithmetic progression such that the
Six persons J, K, L, M, N and O sit around a
product of the second part and third part
triangular table. Three persons sit at the corner
is 72 more than the product of the other
of the table facing inside the centre, while the
two parts.
rest seat in the middle of the edge facing
(a) 44,48,52,56 (b) 41,47,53,59 outside the centre.
(c) 32,50,68,86 (d) 38,44,50,56 J sits second to the left of M. N sits second to
27. What is the least natural number which the right of O. Two persons sit between K and
when divided by 7 and 11 leaves L. N sits second to the left of L and faces outside
remainders of 5 and 7 respectively? the centre.
32. Which among the following pair is odd
(a) 29 (b) 33
from the rest?
(c) 40 (d) 41
(a) J & L (b) N & M
Directions for the following (Q.28 to Q.29): (c) O & K (d) M & L
Consider the following statements:
33. Which of the following statements is true?
1. B’s age is thrice of A’s age
(a) Two persons sit between O and L.
2. D’s age is half of A’s age (b) One person sits between J and N.
3. D’s age is twice of C’s age (c) L sits second to the left of O.
4. B’s age is one-third of E’s age (d) O and J face in the same direction.
28. Which one among them is eldest? Directions for (34-35): A tank has two old
(a) B (b) C inlets which can fill it in 24 hrs and
120/7 hours respectively. A new outlet was
(c) D (d) E
recently installed whose rate is unknown.
29. Which one among these is youngest? Brahma opened the pipes to fill the empty tank,
(a) A (b) B since he was new he had not noticed the newly
installed outlet which was open. After
(c) D (d) C
sometime he closed the old inlets at a time when
30. Find the number in place of ‘?’ the tank would be normally full. From that
2 4 60 time it was observed that the tank got emptied
3 5 116 (due to new outlet being open) in 2.5 hours.
4 6 ? Answer the following questions:

© Copyright: 12 – C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

34. 38.

(a) I II

(b)
(c)
(d)

35.

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
I
36. *

II
21 * 4 * 156*13 * 11 = 83
(a) –, ÷, ×, + (b) ×, +, ÷, –
(a) I
(c) ×, –, ÷, + (d) +, ÷, –, ×
(b) II
37.
(c) I II
(d) I II

39. Z

II

I.
(a) I II
II.
(a) I (b) II I
(b) II I
(c) II (c) I II
(d) I II (d) I II

© Copyright: 13 – C www.nextias.com
Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

34. Find the capacity of newly installed outlet. 38. In question below is given a statement
followed by two conclusions numbered I
(a) 8.2 ltrs per hour
and II. You have to assume everything in
(b) 8.8 ltrs per hour the statement to be true, then consider the
(c) 9.6 ltrs per hour two conclusions together and decide
which of them logically follows beyond a
(d) 8 ltrs per hour
reasonable doubt from the information
35. If instead of closing the two old inlets had given in the statement.
Brahma closed new outlet, what would
Statement: Government has spoiled
be the time taken to fill the remaining many top ranking financial institutions by
tank? appointing bureaucrats as Directors of
(a) 8 Hours (b) 9 Hours these institutions.
(c) 10 Hours (d) 7 Hours Conclusions:

36. Select the correct combination of I. Government should appoint


mathematical signs to replace the ‘* ‘signs Directors of the financial institutes
taking into consideration the
and balance the given equation.
expertise of the person in the area of
21 * 4 * 156*13 * 11 = 83 finance.
(a) –, ÷, ×, + (b) ×, +, ÷, – II. The Director of the financial institute
(c) ×, –, ÷, + (d) +, ÷, –, × should have expertise commensurate
with the financial work carried out
37. In each of the questions below some
by the institute.
statements are given followed by some
(a) Only conclusion I follows
Conclusions numbered. You have to take
the given statements to be true even if they (b) Only conclusion II follows
seem to be at variance from commonly (c) Either I or II follows
known facts. Read all the Conclusions (d) Both I and II follow
and then decide which of the given
39. How many employees of Bank Z opted
Conclusions logically follows from the for V.R.S.?
given statements.
Statements:
Statements: No pink is yellow I. 18% of the 950 officer cadre
Some orange is yellow employees and 6% of the 1100 other
cadre employees opted for VRS.
Some grey are pink
II. 28% of the employees in the age-
Conclusions:
group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the
I. All grey is orange is a possibility employees in all other age-groups
II. Some grey are not yellow is a opted for VRS.
possibility (a) I alone is sufficient while II alone is
not sufficient
(a) Only I follows
(b) II alone is sufficient while I alone is
(b) Only II and I follow not sufficient
(c) Only II follows (c) Either I or II is sufficient
(d) Either I or II follows (d) Neither I nor II is sufficient

© Copyright: 14 – C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

40.
6M1
13N7
M N
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
44.
41.
HCF (a)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(b)
42.

(a) (b)
(c)
(c) (d)

43.
1 3 1 (d)
6 8 10
8 4 2
15
3
16 -2

(a) (b)
(c) (d)

-1

© Copyright: 15 – C www.nextias.com
Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

40. When a 3 digit number 786 is added to we interact with such as heirloom jewellery
another 3 digit number 6M1 we get four or clothes or food. The stories told to us by our
digit number 13N7, which is divisible by families, the meals we eat, and the clothes we
11. Find the value of M + N. wear, the places we visit all come together to
create the foundation of our working
(a) 10 (b) 14
knowledge of history.
(c) 11 (d) 8
44. What is the most rational and crucial
41. Find the number of pairs of two natural message given by the passage?
numbers having product = 5,400 and
(a) Our understanding of history comes
HCF = 30. mainly from lived experiences such
(a) 4 (b) 1 as interacting with jewellery.
(c) 2 (d) 3 (b) Working knowledge of history comes
42. How many of the following numbers are solely from our personal experiences
from school and society.
divisible by 132?
(c) Our historical worldview is informed
598, 462, 792, 4184, 972
by various sources including personal
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only experiences, media, and food.
(c) 3 only (d) 4 only (d) Our knowledge of history comes from
43. What is the minimum number of equal- what we learn from our families and
weight pieces that can be obtained when communities.
dividing four cakes which were purchased Passage – 2
for a birthday party, weighing 6 1 kg , The Central bank’s draft guidelines on ‘Fair
8
3 1 15 Lending Practice’ are aimed at obviating a
8 kg, 10 kg, and 3 kg ? practice where lenders have hitherto levied a
4 2 16
(a) 74 (b) 66 penal interest over and above the contracted
rate of interest when borrowers delay
(c) 67 (d) 80
repayment or default. Observing that the
Directions for the following (Q.44 to Q.47): regulatory intent of a penal levy was solely to
foster credit discipline among borrowers
Read the following four passages and answer
through a negative incentive, the RBI noted
the items that follows. Your answers to these
that lenders, however, had in practice turned
items should be based on the passages only.
the penal interest into a revenue enhancement
Passage – 1 tool. Supervisory reviews had found that some
It is widely believed that our understanding entities were in fact charging ‘excessive’ rates
of history comes from textbooks. This is not of penal interest, leading to hardship to the
entirely the case. As with most social sciences, borrowers and disputes. Lenders had also, in
our knowledge of history comes from lived certain cases, been capitalising the penal
experience. This includes what we read in interest, thereby increasing the principal
fiction or non-fiction or from the Internet; amount that the borrower would ultimately
what we watch on television or cinema; what have to repay. The banking regulator has now
we are told by our friends and family either in emphatically laid down that penal charges
person or via social media; what we see of should be recovered separately and must not
history in our daily experience in the form of be added either to the principal outstanding
monuments or ruins; and the material objects or the rate of interest charged on the loan.

© Copyright: 16 – C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

45.

46.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
-4
-3

© Copyright: 17 – C www.nextias.com
Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

45. With reference to the above passage, activity but it also reduces excessive public
which of the following could be the most spending and helps in greater capital creation.
rational and practical implications of the Good governance, reflected through
guidelines being implemented? conscientious policies, is another important
1. Lenders will no longer be able to aspect for reaping demographic dividend as
charge penal interest over and above it helps in creating a healthy environment for
the contracted rate of interest when increasing efficiency and productivity of the
borrowers delay repayment or population.
default. 46. Which one of the following statements
2. Lenders will have to recover penal best sums up the above passage?
charges separately and cannot add (a) The realization of demographic
them to the principal outstanding or dividend in India requires job
the rate of interest charged on the creation, education, skills generation,
loan.
and good governance to translate
3. Borrowers who were previously demographic opportunity into
charged excessive rates of penal
economic gains.
interest may now be able to dispute
(b) The key mechanisms to translate
and potentially reduce their overall
demographic bonus into economic
loan repayment amounts.
dividend are healthcare, job creation,
4. Credit discipline can improve among
and governance and these can help
borrowers and prevent lenders from
India become a developed country.
using penal interest as a revenue
enhancement tool. (c) Only job creation can ensure that
India will realize the demographic
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. dividend.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) The education, skills, and health
conditions of the population are not
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
important for the realization of
Passage – 3 demographic dividend in India.
There are four key mechanisms that translate
a demographic bonus to economic dividend: Passage – 4
employment, education and skills, health Empiricism is a philosophical approach that
conditions and governance. Employment or emphasizes the importance of evidence and
job creation is an important mechanism to observation in the formation of knowledge.
translate demographic bonus to economic Similarly, the rule of law is a legal principle
dividend. If India is able to generate sufficient that promotes the supremacy of law and
and quality jobs for its bulging working age equality before the law. Both concepts share a
population, realisation of demographic common emphasis on the importance of
dividend will become a reality. Education, evidence and impartiality. The rule of law
skills generation and ensuring a healthy requires that legal decisions are based on
lifespan by preventing diseases and disabilities evidence rather than personal or arbitrary
are also important channels that translate preferences. This aligns with the empiricist
demographic opportunity into economic gains. view that knowledge should be based on
A skilled and healthy workforce is critical not observation and evidence, rather than on
only for better productivity of an economic speculation or intuition.

© Copyright: 18 – C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

47. (c) I II
(d) I II
(a)
50.

(b)

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c)
( .51 - 52)

(d) " " "but


cut put hut nut"

" " "hut rat wet vet"


( .48-49)

" " "vet but hut


bat"

" " "nut hat rat"


48.
B  O=M<A
J=G>U>P=A 51. Trader
(a) vet (b) rat
I. A<J (c) hat (d) wet
II. B<G
52.
(a) nut vet (b) wet hut
(a) I
(c) cut hut (d) nut wet
(b) II
53. M N O P Q R S
(c) I II
O N
(d) I II
Q
49. P R
A  E<Z  B  N>P<O>Y>W M O P A
D
I. P>E
II. E N D

(a) I (a) P (b) M


(b) II (c) S (d) R

© Copyright: 19 – C www.nextias.com
Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

47. Which of the following is the most logical (c) Both conclusions I and II follow.
corollary to the above passage? (d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(a) Rule of law stresses the need for
50. If air is called green , green is called blue,
evidence and experimentation in the
blue is called sky, sky is called yellow,
formation of knowledge.
yellow is called water and water is called
(b) The rule of law promotes impartiality
pink, then what is the color of clear sky?
and objectivity in decision-making,
which is consistent with the (a) blue (b) sky
empiricist emphasis on speculation (c) yellow (d) water
or intuition.
(c) The overlap between empiricism and Directions for the following (Q.51 to Q.52):
the rule of law lies in their shared The data given below represents a coded
emphasis on the importance of language for different professions. Analyse it
evidence, impartiality, and and answer the questions that follow:
objectivity in decision-making.
(1) “Doctor Engineer Business CA Scientist”
(d) Empiricism emphasizes the need for
is written as “but cut put hut nut”
objective and impartial legal decisions
based on evidence. (2) “Banking Manager Trader CA” is written
as “hut rat wet vet”
Directions for the following (Q.48 to Q.49):
Some Statements followed by some (3) “CA Scientist Trader Astrologer” is
Conclusions are given below. Read all the written as “vet but hut bat”
Conclusions and then decide which of the (4) “Banking Engineer Writer” is written as
given Conclusions logically follows/ follow “ nut hat rat”
from the Statements:
51. What is the code for “Trader”?
48. Statements:
(a) vet (b) rat
B  O=M<A
J=G>U>P=A (c) hat (d) wet
Conclusion: 52. What will be the code for “Engineer
I. A < J Manager”?
II. B < G
(a) nut vet (b) wet hut
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Only conclusion I follows. (c) cut hut (d) nut wet
(b) Only conclusion II follows. 53. Seven persons i.e., M, N, O, P, Q, R and S
(c) Both conclusions I and II follow. appear for a medical test. O, N and Q live
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. in Delhi while the others live outside Delhi.
49. Statements: Only P and R were diagnosed with
A  E<Z  B  N>P<O>Y>W diabetes. Only M, O and P have Vitamin
Conclusion: A deficiency while the rest have Vitamin
D deficiency. Then find who among them
I. P>E
live outside Delhi and have Vitamin D
II. E N
deficiency with no diabetes.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Only conclusion I follows. (a) P (b) M
(b) Only conclusion II follows. (c) S (d) R

© Copyright: 20 – C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

54.

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
56.
4

(a)

(b)
-1
(c)

(d)

-3

CO2

55.

(a)
57.
(b)

(a)

(c)
(b)

(d)
(c)
-2
(d)

© Copyright: 21 – C www.nextias.com
Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

54. There are 9 letters and 9 corresponding them. Independence must begin at the bottom.
envelopes. If 9 letters are placed into 9 Thus, every village must become a republic or
envelopes randomly, find the number of Panchayat having full powers. It follows,
ways in which exactly one letter is placed therefore, that every village has to be self-
into a wrong envelope. sustained and capable of managing its affairs
(a) 1 (b) 0 even to the extent of defending itself against
(c) 9 ! (d) 7 ! the whole world.
Directions for the following (Q.55 to Q.58): 56. Which of the following would be most
Read the following four passages and answer supported author the passage above?
the items that follows. Your answers to these (a) Every village in India should have full
items should be based on the passages only. powers and become self-sustained.
Passage – 1 (b) Ruling over the people of India is
Rapid population growth, coupled with necessary for independence.
economic development and urbanization, has (c) Independence should begin at the
led to a surge in demand for natural resources. top, with the government in control.
This has put immense pressure on the Indian (d) Villages in India should rely on
ecosystems and natural resources, leading to
external support to manage their
environmental degradation, loss of
affairs.
biodiversity, and increased pollution levels.
The overconsumption of finite resources is also Passage – 3
contributing to climate change and Materials such as steel and cement are
exacerbating social and economic inequalities. important components in construction. But
Addressing this challenge will require a shift they’re also heavy CO2 emitters, making
towards sustainable consumption patterns decarbonizing these industries a priority. Steel
that prioritize efficiency, conservation, and the production alone accounts for around a
use of renewable resources. quarter of greenhouse gas emissions from the
55. Based on the passage, which of the manufacturing sector. A big part of this share
following is the most valid implication? comes from the mining and transportation of
ingredients used in the production process.
(a) Rapid population growth will
exacerbate and perpetuate existing 57. Which of the following is the most logical
social ills. and rational inference that can be made
from the above passage?
(b) Shifting towards use of renewable
resources can help mitigate social and (a) The construction industry is not
economic inequalities. important for reducing carbon
emissions.
(c) Indian ecosystems’ carrying capacity
(b) The impact of greenhouse gas
cannot match the demand for
emissions on mining and
natural resources.
transportation is undeniable.
(d) Environmental degradation and
(c) The steel and cement used in
biodiversity loss are irreversible
construction must be replaced by
causes of overconsumption.
sustainable materials.
Passage – 2 (d) The steel and cement industries are
Independence must mean that of the people significant contributors to
of India, not of those who are today ruling over greenhouse gas emissions.

© Copyright: 22 – C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

-4

59.
A!B
B#C
C$D
D+E

I. D$B
II. A!C
III. C + E
58.
(a)
(b) II
(a) (c) II III
(d) I III
60.
(b) J$N
N@A
A#C
C!F
(c)

I. F+A
II. A$J
(d) III. N ! C

(a)

( .59-60) (b) I III


(c) II
(d) III

'P+Q' 'P, Q ' 'P$Q' ( . 61-62)


‘P Q
'P ! Q' ‘P Q
’ 'P @ Q' 'P, Q ' A B C D
'P#Q' 'P Q E F G H I J
' A G E

© Copyright: 23 – C www.nextias.com
Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

Passage – 4 all the Conclusions and then decide which of


The South Africa-based company Rouxcel the given Conclusions logically follows/ follow
Technology has developed AI-enabled from the Statements.
bracelets that fit around rhinos’ ankles to help 59. Statements:
conservation teams easily locate the animals A!B
and monitor their behavior in real time. The
B#C
company’s algorithms use machine learning
C$D
to spot when an animal is exhibiting abnormal
movement patterns — a signal that it might D+E
be distressed, for example, if poachers are Conclusions:
close. It then sends an alert to wildlife I. D$B
operations centers and anti-poaching teams.
II. A!C
58. Which of the following is the most III. C + E
rational, logical assumption that can be Which one of the following is correct?
made on the basis of the above passage?
(a) None is true
(a) The use of the bracelets will obviate
(b) Only II is true
the need for traditional conservation
methods such as patrol teams and (c) Only II and III are true
tracking dogs. (d) Only I and III are true
(b) The bracelets and similar such devices 60. Statements:
significantly reduce the impact of J$N
poachers.
N@A
(c) Real-time information about an
A#C
animal’s whereabouts can help us
better understand their movement C!F
patterns. Conclusions:
(d) The bracelets can accurately I. F+A
determine the exact cause of an II. A$J
animal’s abnormal movement
III. N ! C
patterns.
Which one of the following is correct?
Directions for the following (Q.59 to Q.60): (a) None is true
In these questions, certain symbols have been (b) Only I and III are true
used to indicate relationships between
(c) Only II is true
elements as follows:
(d) Only III is true
‘P+Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’. ‘P$Q’
means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Directions for the following (Q.61 to Q.62):
Q. ‘P ! Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor Study the following information carefully and
equal to Q’. ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater answer the given questions.
than Q’. ‘P# Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than There are ten members in a three generation
nor smaller than Q. Some Statements followed family i.e., A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J.
by some Conclusions are given below. Read Among them there are 4 married couples and

© Copyright: 24 – C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

G C D J H (a) (b)
B D I F (c) (d)
F B C F B I
( .66-68)
E
UK UK
61. J
UK
(a) F
(b) B UK

(c) D UK UK

(d)
62. G UK
45%
40% 40% 765
(a) A G 360

(b) H G 25% 384


168
20% 20%
(c) F G 15% 15%

(d) J G
63. x 2015 2016 2017 2018
y Percentage of UK7 shoes produced

x y UK

UK UK
(a) y(100 – x) < 100x
(b) y(100 – x) > 100x
(c) y(100 + x) < 100x UK
(d) y(100 + x) > 100x
66.
64.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

67. UK
(a)
UK
(b)
(c)
(a) (b)
(d)
65. A, B C (c) (d)
B 68. UK
C A
A C
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

© Copyright: 25 – C www.nextias.com
Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

only four females. A is the wife of G’s maternal (a) 2.5 days (b) 3 days
uncle. E and G are sons of C. D has only 2 (c) 6 days (d) 4 days
children. J is father of H. B is married to D. I is
daughter-in-law of F and F is son-in-law of B. Directions for the following (Q.66 to Q.68):
C is married to F. B is father-in-law of I’s father- A shoe company produces shoes of three
in-law. E is not married. different sizes (UK7, UK8 and UK9). The given
61. Who among the following is the father bar graph shows the percentage of UK7 shoes
of J? produced out of the total number of shoes
(a) F produced, the percentage by which the
(b) B number of UK8 shows produced are more
than the number of UK7 shoes produced, and
(c) D
the number of UK9 shoes produced in five
(d) None of the above
different years by a shoe company.
62. Which of the following is true about G?
(a) A is the grandmother of G. 45%
40% 40% 765
(b) H is the sister of G. 360
(c) F is the father of G. 25% 168
384
20% 20%
(d) J is the son of G’s maternal uncle. 15% 15%
63. Ela’s salary is x% more than Daniel.
Daniel’s is y% less than Chitra. If Ela’s
salary is greater than Chitra’s, what is the 2015 2016 2017 2018
Percentage of UK7 shoes produced
percentage relation between x and y?
Percentage by which the number of UK8 shows are
(a) y(100 – x) < 100x more than that of UK7 shows
Number of UK9 shows produced
(b) y(100 – x) > 100x
(c) y(100 + x) < 100x
66. What is the average no. of shoes produced
(d) y(100 + x) > 100x
in 2016, 2107 and 2108?
64. When a car manufacturer Toyota reduced
selling price of car by 50%, the number of (a) 900 (b) 1250
cars sold increased by 500%. The (c) 1100 (d) 1200
manufacturer’s initial profit was 150%.
What is the percentage change in 67. What is the difference between the no. of
company’s profit? UK 8 shoes produced in 2015 and 2017
(a) 10% together and no. of UK 7 shoes produced
(b) 14% in 2018 ?

(c) 0% (a) 84 (b) 66


(d) Can’t be determined (c) 128 (d) 110
65. A, B and C can complete a work together
68. In which year/years the share of UK 9
in 6.4 days. B can complete the whole
shoes is highest among all the shoes
work in 96 days.If C is 33.33% more
produced in that year?
efficient than A. Then find the difference
in times taken by A and C to finish work (a) 2015 (b) 2017
alone? (c) 2018 (d) All of the above

© Copyright: 26 – C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

-1

70.

(a)
69.
(b)

(c)

(d)

71.

(a)

(b)
RBI
(c)

(d)
(a) (b)

(c) (d) -3
-2

© Copyright: 27 – C www.nextias.com
Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

Directions for the following (Q.69 to Q.73): profitability, further exacerbating their
Read the following four passages and answer financial situation. This, in turn, limits their
the items that follows. Your answers to these ability to repay loans, creating a vicious cycle.
items should be based on the passages only. The issue has been compounded by a lack of
political will to undertake bold structural
Passage – 1
reforms, such as reducing government
Given the extensive use of credit ratings in the intervention, improving corporate governance,
assessment of capital adequacy in banks, the and strengthening regulatory frameworks.
presence of unrated exposures can create Addressing this twin balance sheet problem is
information barriers for banks as well as the crucial for reviving India’s growth trajectory
supervisor. Given the prevalence of large and ensuring long-term economic stability.
unrated exposures in the banking system, the
70. Which among the following is the root
policy measure of the Reserve Bank India of
cause of the twin balance sheet problem
raising the risk weights for such exposures was
in India?
a step towards plugging the possible
regulatory arbitrage and encouraging banks (a) Excessive lending to large, inefficient
to have rated exposures. firms

69. Which of the following are the possible (b) Government intervention in the
reasons for RBI to raise the risk weights banking sector
of unrated exposures? (c) Low levels of investment by
1. To more accurately assess the credit corporations
risks associated with unrated (d) Inadequate regulatory frameworks
exposures.
71. Which of the following is the most
2. Discouraging banks to give loans to rational, logical assumption that can be
unrated borrowers. made on the basis of the above passage?
3. Exposure of large, domestic (a) The twin balance sheet problem has
systemically important banks to no impact on India’s economic
unrated exposures. growth and stability.
4. To overcome the information barrier (b) India’s political system is unwilling
faced by the RBI. to address the twin balance sheet
Select the correct answer using the code problem.
given below. (c) The twin balance sheet problem is
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only caused by lending to large firms and
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only corporations.

Passage – 2 (d) The profitability of corporations in


India is currently affected by the twin
The Indian banking sector is burdened with
balance sheet problem.
high levels of NPAs, resulting from excessive
lending to large, inefficient firms that are Passage – 3
unable to repay their loans. Meanwhile, Translocation, or the intentional movement of
corporations also face high debt levels, leading species to new locations, is a conservation
to reduced investment and impaired strategy aimed at restoring degraded

© Copyright: 28 – C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

73.

(a)

(b)

(c)

72. (d)

74.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

( .75-76)

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

-4 75.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

76.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

© Copyright: 29 – C www.nextias.com
Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

ecosystems and protecting endangered species. 73. The author of the passage would be most
However, translocated species may struggle to likely to agree with which one of the
adapt to new environments, and their following?
introduction can often result in unintended
(a) Illiterate people are just as intelligent
consequences such as predation, competition
with native species, and the spread of disease. as literate people.
Additionally, translocations frequently disrupt (b) Literacy should never be considered
natural genetic diversity and create as a requirement for voting or any
hybridization with other species. Careful other important rights.
planning, monitoring, and evaluation are
essential to ensure that translocations are (c) Insisting on literacy as a requirement
successful in achieving their conservation goals for voting is unfair and ineffective.
while minimizing negative ecological impacts. (d) Literate people are usually more
72. Which of the following are the most knowledgeable or intelligent than
logical and rational inferences that can illiterate people.
be made from the above passage?
74. Aman bought an article at 20% discount
1. For translocations to be successful, on MRP. He claimed to sell it at at a profit
looking at the genetic diversity of the of 20% on MRP. When a customer offered
ecosystem is essential.
him Rs. 400, he cheated by giving him Rs.
2. The diseases carried by a species can 60 instead of Rs. 160. Find the overall
impact new ecosystems adversely. profit percentage of Aman.
3. Translocation should especially be (a) 20% (b) 125%
used when the benefits outweigh the
risks. (c) 112.5% (d) 100%

4. Translocation should only be used as Directions for the following (Q.75 to Q.76):
a last resort when all other
Shivangi gave Chanchal and Amrita as many
conservation strategies have been
exhausted. Chocolates as each one of them (Chanchal and
Amrita) already had. Then Amrita gave
Select the correct answer using the code
Shivangi and Chanchal as many Chocolates
given below:
as each (Shivangi and Chanchal) already had.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Now each of them had an equal number of
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Chocolates. If number of Chocolates is 84.

Passage – 4 75. Find the number of Chocolates Shivangi


Those who insist on literacy as a test and insist initially have
upon making it a condition precedent to (a) 42 (b) 63
enfranchisement in my opinion, commit two
(c) 49 (d) 48
mistakes. Their first mistake consists in their
belief that an illiterate person is necessarily an 76. How many chocolates does Amrita
unintelligent person Their second mistake lies initially have?
in supposing that literacy necessarily imports
(a) 14 (b) 16
a higher level of intelligence or knowledge than
what the illiterate possesses. (c) 22 (d) 28

© Copyright: 30 – C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

77. 78. H F
F C

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
79. F A ___
___
(a) (b)
(a) I D (b) D H
(c) (d) (c) B C (d) I B

(78 79) 80.

A I C
B A B F
G G H
H A E H D
D G I B (a) (b)
C (c) (d)



© Copyright: 31 – C www.nextias.com
Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

77. The speed of a Bus on a Yamuna Highway 78. If the positions of the bike H and bike F
is 54 kmph without any passengers. If are interchanged, then bike C is in which
reduction in speed is proportional to direction with respect to bike F.
square of passengers present in the Bus.
(a) North - East (b) North - West
It is observed that speed of the Bus is
45 kmph with 25 passengers in it. Find (c) South – East (d) South – West
the maximum number of passengers the 79. The shortest distance between the bikes F
Bus can carry. and A is equal to the shortest distance
(a) 36 (b) 35 between the bikes ___ and ___.
(c) 25 (d) 28 (a) I and D (b) D and H
(c) B and C (d) I and B
Directions for the following (Q.78 to Q.79):
80. A shopkeeper dilutes a juice concentrate
Answer the questions based on the information
of 180 litres by adding 20 litres of water.
given below.
He sells 30 litres of this mixture. Now he
Nine Bikes A to I are parked such that :
take this mixture and further adds water
C is 4 km east of B. A is 2 km north of B. and concentrate in the ratio of 3 : 2 to
F is 4 km north of G. G is 2 km west of H. achieve a final solution of 275 litres with
H is 4 km south of A. E is parked in the middle 60% concentrate. How much water did
of H and D. he add in the second step?
D is 6 km east of G. I is parked in the middle of (a) 36 litres (b) 30 litres
B and C. (c) 45 litres (d) 18 litres



© Copyright: 32 – C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

© Copyright: 33 – C www.nextias.com
Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

© Copyright: 34 – C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

Space for Rough Work

© Copyright: 35 – C www.nextias.com
Anubhav-II | CSAT (Paper-II)

Space for Rough Work

© Copyright: 36 – C www.nextias.com
All India OPEN Mock Test for CSE 2024 (P)

Space for Rough Work

© Copyright: 37 – C www.nextias.com

You might also like