AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Important Questions 1st Lesson Waves

1 Waves — — 1 8
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Important Questions 1st Lesson Waves

Very Short Answer Questions
Question 1. Write the formula for speed of sound in solids and gases.
Answer: Speed of sound in solids,
Vs = Y/ρ−−−−√ [y = Young’s modulus of solid, ρ = density of solid]
Speed of sound in gases,
Vs = γP/ρ−−−−−√ [γP = Adiabatic Bulk modulus of gas, ρ = density of gas] .
Question 2.What does a wave represent ?

Answer:A wave represents the transport of energy through a medium from one point to another without
translation of the medium.
Question 3. Distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves.

Answer: Transverse waves
1. The particles of the medium vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
2. Crests and troughs are formed alternatively.
Longitudinal waves
1. The particles of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
2. Compressions and rare factions are formed alternatively.
Question 4. What are the parameters used to describe a progressive harmonic wave ?
Answer: Progressive wave equation is given y = a sin (ωt – kx)
Where ω = 2πv = 2πT; k = 2πλ
Parameters:
1. a = Amplitude
2. λ = Wavelength
3. T = Time period
4. v = Frequency
5. k = Propagation constant
6. ω = Angular frequency.
Question 5. What is the principle of superposition of waves ? .

Answer: When two or more waves are acting simultaneously on the particle of the medium, the resultant
displacement is equal to the algebraic sum of individual displacements of all the waves. This is the
principle of superposition of waves.
If y1, y2, ……………… yn be the individual displacements of the particles,then resultant displacement
y = y1 + y2 + ……………… + yn.
Question 6. Under what conditions will a wave be reflected ?

Answer: When the medium ends abruptly at any point.
1. If the density and rigidity modulus of the medium changes at any point.
Question 7. What is the phase difference between the incident and reflected waves when the wave is
reflected by a rigid boundary ?
Answer: Phase difference between the incident and reflected waves when the wave is reflected by a rigid
boundary is radian or 180°.
Question 8. What is a stationary or standing wave ?

Answer: When two identical progressive (Transeverse or longitudinal) waves travelling opposite directions
in a medium along the same straight line, which are superimposed then the resultant wave is called
stationary waves or standing wave.
Question 9. What do you understand by the terms node’ and ‘antinode’ ?

Answer: Node : The points at which the amplitude is zero, are called nodes.
Antinodes: The points at which the amplitude is maximum, are called antinodes.
Question 10. What is the distance between a node and an antinode in a stationary wave ?
Answer: The distance between node and antinode is λ4.
Question 11. What do you understand by ‘natural frequency’ or ‘normal mode of vibration’ ?
Answer: When a body is set into vibration and then left to itself, the vibrations made by it are called
natural or free vibrations. Its frequency is called natural frequency or normal mode of vibration.
Question 12. What are harmonics ?

Answer: The frequencies in which the standing waves can be formed are called harmonics..
(Or)
The integral multiple of fundamental frequencies are called harmonics.
Question 13. A string is stretched between two rigid supports. What frequencies of vibration are possible
in such a string ?
Answer: The possible frequencies of vibrations in a stretched string between two rigid supports is given by
vn = (n + 12) v2l where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ……….
Question 14. If the air column in a long tube, closed at one end, is set in vibration, what harmonics are
possible in the vibrating air column ?
Answer: The possible harmonics in the vibrating air column of a long closed tube is given by
vn = [2n +1]v4l where n = 0, 1, 2, 3,
Question 15.If the air column in a tube, open at both ends, is set in vibration; what harmonics are possible
?
Answer:The possible harmonics in vibrating air column of a long open tube is given by no
vn = nv21
where n = 1, 2, 3, ……………….
Question 16.What are ‘beats’ ?

Answer:Beats : When two sound notes of nearly frequency travelling in the same direction and interfere to
produce waxing and waning of sound at regular intervals of time is called “Beats”.
Short Answer Questions
Question 1.What are transverse waves ? Give illustrative examples of such waves.
Answer: Transverse waves: In a wave motion, the vibration of the particles and the direction of the
propagation of the waves are perpendicular to each other, the waves are said to be transverse waves.
Illustration:
1. Waves produced in the stretched strings are transverse.
2. When a stretched string is plucked, the waves travel along the string.
3. But the particles in the string vibrate in the direction perpendicular to the propagation of the wave.
4. They can propagate only in solids and on the surface of the liquids.
5. Ex : Light waves, surface water waves.
Question 2.What are longitudinal waves ? Give illustrative example of such waves.
Answer:Longitudinal waves : In a wave motion, the direction of the propagation of the wave and
vibrations of particles are in the same direction, the waves are said to be longitudinal waves.
Illustration:
1. Longitudinal waves may be easily illustrated by releasing a compressed spring.
2. A series of compressions and rarefactions (expansions) propagate along the spring.
C = Compression; R = Rarefaction.
3. They can travel in solids, liquids and gases.
4. Ex : Sound waves.
Question 3.What are ‘beats’ ? When do they occur ? Explain their use, if any.
Answer:Two sound waves of nearly same frequency are travelling in the same direction and interfere to
produce a regular waxing (maximum) and waning (minimum) in the intensity of the resultant sound
waves at regular intervals of time is called beats.
It two vibrating bodies have slightly difference in frequencies, beats can occur.
No. of beats can be heard, ∆υ = υ1 ~ υ2
Importance:
1. It can be used to tune musical instruments.
2. Beats are used to detect dangerous gases.
Explanation for tuning musical instruments with beats:
Musicians use. the beat phenomenon in tuning their musical instruments. If an instrument is sounded
against a standard frequency and tuned until the beats disappear. Then the instrument is in tune with the
standard frequency.
Question 4.What is ‘Doppler effect’ ? Give illustrative examples.

Answer:Doppler effect: The apparent change in the frequency heard by the observer due to relative
motion between .the observer and the source of sound is called doppler effect.
Examples:
1. The frequency of whistling, engine heard by a person standing on the platform appears to
increase, when the engine is approaching the platform and it appears to decrease when the
engine is moving away from the platform.
2. Due to Doppler effect the frequency of sound emitted by the siren of an approaching ambulance
appears to increase. Similarly the frequency of sound appears to drop when it is moving away.
Sample Problem on Doppler effect:
Two trucks heading in opposite direction with speeds of 60 kmph and 70 kmph respectively, approach
each other. The driver of the first truck sounds his horn of frequency 400Hz. What frequency does the
driver of the second truck hear ? (Velocity of sound = 330m/s). After the two trucks have passed each
other, what frequency does the driver of the second truckhear?
Answer:
Speed of first truck = 60 kmph
= 60 × 518 = 16.66 m/s;
Speed of second truck = 70 kmph 5
= 70 × 518 = 19.44 m/s
Frequency of horn of first truck = 400 Hz;
Velocity of sound, (V) =330 m/s
Frequency of sound heard by the driver of the second truck when approaching each other,
v1 = (V+V0V−Vs)v=(330+19.44330−16.66) × 400 = 446 Hz
Frequency of sound heard by the driver of the second truck when approaching each other,
V11 = (V−V0 V+Vs)v=(330−19.44330+16.66) × 400 = 358.5 Hz
Long Answer Questions
Question 1.Explain the formation of stationary waves in stretched strings and hence deduce the laws of
transverse wave in stretched strings. [IPE]
Answer:A string is a metal wire whose length is large when compared to its thickness. A stretched string is
fixed at both ends, when it is plucked at mid point, two reflected waves of same amplitude and frequency
at the ends are travelling in opposite direction and overlap along the length. Then the resultant waves are
known as the standing waves (or) stationary waves. Let two transverse progressive waves of same
amplitude a, wave length λ and frequency v, travelling in opposite direction be given by
y1 = a sin (kx – ωt) and y2 = a sin (kx + ωt)

where ω = 2πv and k = 2πλ
The resultant wave is given by y = y1 + y2
y = a sin (kx – ωt) + a sin (kx + ωt)
y = (2a sin kx) cos ωt
2a sin kx = Amplitude of resultant wave.
It depends on ‘kx’. If x = 0, λ2,2λ2,3λ2 ……………… etc, the amplitude = zero
These positions are known as “Nodes”.
If x = λ4,3λ4,5λ4 …………… etc., the amplitude = maximum (2a)
These positions are called “Antinodes”.
If the string vibrates in ‘P’ segments and T is its length, then length of each segment = lP
∴ lP=λ2⇒λ=2lP
Which is equal to λ2
Harmonic frequency v = vλ=vP2l

v = vP2l ………………. (1)
If’ T’ is tension (stretching force) in the string and ‘μ’ is linear density then velocity of transverse wave (v)
in the string is
v = Tμ−−√ …………… (2)
From the Eqs (1) and (2) :
Harmonic frequency v = P2lΓμ−−√
∴ Fundamental Frequency v = 12lTμ−−√ …………….. (3)

If P = 1 then it is called fundamental frequency (or) first harmonic frequency
Laws of Transverse Waves Along Stretched String:

Fundamental frequency of the vibrating string v = 12lTμ−−√
First Law : When the tension (T) and linear density (μ) are constant, the fundamental frequency (v) of a
∴ v ∝ 1l ⇒ vl = constant, when ‘T’ and ‘μ’ are constant. .

vibrating string is inversely proportional to its length.
Second Law: When the length (l) and its, linear density (m) are constant the fundamental frequency of a
∴ v ∝ T−−√ ⇒ vT√ = constant, when ‘l’ and ‘m’ are constant.

vibrating string is directly proportional to the square root of the stretching force (T).
JT .
Third Law: When the length (l) and the tension (T) are constant, the fundamental frequency of a vibrating
∴ v ∝ 1μ√ ⇒ vμ−−√ = constant, when ‘l’ and T are constant.

string is inversely proportional to the square root of the linear density (m).
Question 2.Explain the formation of stationary waves in an air column enclosed in open pipe. Derive the
equations for the frequencies of the harmonics produced. [A.P. 17; IPE 2015, 2016 (TS)]
Answer:A pipe, which is opened at both ends is called open pipe. When a sound wave is sent through a
open pipe, which gets reflected by the earth. Then incident and reflected waves are in same frequency,
travelling in the opposite directions are super-imposed stationary waves are formed.
Harmonics in open pipe : To form the stationary wave in open pipe, which has two anti nodes at two ends
of the pipe with a node between them.
∴ The vibrating length (l) = half of the wavelength (λ12)

l = λ12 ⇒ λ1 = 2l
fundamental frequency v1 = vλ1 where v is velocity,of sound in air, v1 = v21 = v
If λ2 is wavelength of second harmonic l = 2λ22 ⇒ λ2 = 212

For second harmonic (first overtone) will have one more node and antinode than the fundamental.
If ‘v2’ is frequency of second harmonic then v2 = vλ2=v×22l = 2v

v2 = 2v ……………… (2)
Similarly for third harmonic (second overtone) will have three nodes and four antinodes as shown in
above figure.
If λ3 is wave length of third harmonic l = 3λ32
λ3 = 2l3
If ‘v2‘ is frequency of third harmonic then
v3 = vλ3=v×32l = 3V
v3 = 3v …………… (3)
Similarly we can find the remaining or higher harmonic frequencies i.e., v3, v4 etc., can be determined in
the same way.
Therefore the ratio of the harmonic frequencies in open pipe can be written as given below.
v : V 1 : v2 = 1 : 2 : 3
Question 3.How are stationary waves formed in closed pipes ? Explain the various modes of vibrations
and obtain relations for their frequencies. [IPE 2015, 2016(A.P.), (T.S) A.P. & T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:A pipe, which is closed at one end and the other is opened is called closed pipe. When a sound
wave is sent through a closed pipe, which gets reflected at the closed end of the pipe. Then incident and
reflected waves are in same frequency, travelling in the opposite directions are superimposed stationary
waves are formed.
To form the stationary wave in closed pipe, which has atleast a node at closed end and antinode at open
end of the pipe, it is known as first harmonic in closed pipe. Then length of the pipe (l) is equal to one
fourth of the wave length.
∴ l = λ14 ⇒ λ1 = 4l
If ‘v1‘ is fundamental frequency then
v1 = vλ1 where ‘υ’ is velocity of sound in air
v1 = v4l = v …………….. (1)
To form the next harmonic in closed pipe, two nodes and two antinodes should be formed. So that there is
possible to form third harmonic in closed pipe. Since one more node and antinode should be included.
∴ l = 3λ34 where ‘λ3‘ is wave length of third harmonic

Then length of the pipe is equal to 34 of the wavelength.
λ3 = 4l3
where ‘X3’ is wave length of third harmonic.
∴ v3 = vλ3=3v41
If ‘v3‘ is third harmonic frequency (first overtone)
v3 = 3v …………….. (2)
Similarly the next overtone in the close pipe is only fifth harmonic, it will have three nodes and 3
antinodes between the closed end and open end.
∴ l = 5λ54 where ‘λ5‘ is wave length of fifth harmonic.

Then length of the pipe is equal to 54 of wave length (λ5)
λ5 = 4l5
If ‘v5‘ is frequency of fifth harmonic (second overtone)
v5 = vλ5=5v4l
∴ The frequencies of higher harmonics can be determined by using the same procedure. Therefore from
v5 = 5v …………….. (3)
the Eq (1), (2) and (3) only odd harmonics are formed.
Therefore the ratio of the frequencies of harmonics in closed pipe can be written as
v1 : v3 : v5 = v : 3v : 5v
v1 : v3 : v5 = 1 : 3 : 5
Question 4.What is Doppler effect ? Obtain an expression for the apparent frequency of sound heard when
the source is in motion with respect to an observer at rest. [Mar. 17, BMP, 2016 (AP) Mar. 14, (TS)]
Answer:Doppier effect: The apparent change in the frequency heard by the observer due to the relative
motion between the observer and the source of sound is called doppier effect. When a whistling railway
engine approaches an observer standing on the platform, the frequency of sound appears to increase.
When it moves away the frequency appear to decrease.
Expression for apparent frequency when source is in motion and listener at rest:
Let S = Source of sound
O = Listener
Let ‘S’ be the source, moving with a velocity ‘υs‘ towards the stationary listener.
The distance travelled by the source in time period T = υ s. T Therefore the successive compressions and
∴ Apparent wavelength λ’ = λ – υsT.

rarefactions are drawn closer to listener.
λ’ = λ – vsv [∵ υ = 1T]
= λv−vsv=v−vsv [∵ υ = vλ]
If “v'” is apparent frequency heard by the listener then v’ = vλ′ where ‘υ’ is Velocity of sound in air
v’ = v.vv−vS
Therefore the apparent frequency is greater than the actual frequency.
Similarly, if the source is away from the stationary listener then apparent frequency v’ = v.vv+vs, which
is less than the actual frequency.
Limitation : Doppler effect is applicable when the velocities of the source and listener are much less than
that of sound velocity.
Problems
Question 1.A stretched wire of length 0.6 m is observed to vibrate with a frequency of 30 Hz in the
fundamental mode. If the string has a linear mass of 0.05 kg / m find (a) the velocity of propagation of
transverse waves in the string (b) the tension in the string. [IPE 2016 (T.S)
Answer:v = 30 Hz; I = 0.6 m; μ = 0.05 kg m-1
υ = ?; T = ?
a) υ = 2vl = 2 × 30 × 0.6 = 36 m/s
b) T = υ2μ = 36 × 36 × 0.05 = 64.8 N .
Question 2.A string has a length of 0.4m and a mass of 0.16g. If the tension in the string is 70N, what are
the three lowest frequencies it produces when plucked ?
Solution:I = 0.4 m; M = 0.16g = 0.16 × 10-3 kg;
μ = M1=0.16×10−30.4 = 0.4 × 10-3 kg/m;
T = 70 N; vn = P21Tμ−−√
v1 = 121Tμ−−√=12×0.4700.4×10−3−−−−−−√ = 523 Hz
v2 = 2v1 = 2 × 523 = 1046 Hz
v3 = 3v1 = 3 × 523 = 1569 Hz
Question 3.A closed organ pipe 70 cm long is sounded. If the velocity of sound is 331 m/s, what is the
fundamental frequency of vibration of the air column ?
Solution:l = 70 cm = 70 × 10-2m; v = 331 m/s ;
v=?
v = v4l=3314×70×10−2 = 118.2 Hz.
Question 4.A steel cable of diameter 3 cm is kept under a tension of lOkN. The density of steel is 7.8 g/
cm3. With what speed would transverse waves propagate along the cable ?
Solution:T = 10 kN = 104 N
D = 3 cm; r = D2=32 cm
= 32 × 10-2m;
Question 5.A train sounds its whistle as it approaches and crosses a level crossing. An observer at the
crossing measures a frequency of 219 Hz as the train approaches and a frequency of 184 Hz as it leaves.
If the speed of sound is taken to be 340 m/s, find the speed of the train and the frequency of its whistle.
[T.S. Mar. 17]
Solution: When a whistling train away from rest observer,

v’ = [vv−vs]v ……………… (1)
When a whistling train away from rest observer,

v” = [vv+vs]v ……………… (2)
Here v’ = 219 Hz; v” = 184 Hz;
v = 340 m/s
Question 6.A rocket is moving at a speed of 200 m s-1 towards a stationary target. While moving, it emits
a wave of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the target gets reflected back to the rocket as
an echo. Calculate (1) the frequency of the sound as detected by the target and (2) the frequency of the
echo as detected by the rocket. [A.P. Mar. 16]
Solution:1) The observer is at rest and the source is moving with a speed of 200 m s -1. Since this is
comparable with the velocity of sound 330 ms-1, we must use Eq.
v = v0 [1+vSv]−1 and not the approximate
v = v0 [1 – vsv]
Since the source is approaching a stationary target, υ 0 = 0, and υs must be replaced by -υs. Thus, we have
v = v0 [1 – vsv]-1
≃ 2540Hz
v = 1000 Hz × [1 – 200 m s-1/330 m s-1]-1
2) The target is now the source (because it is the source of echo) and the rocket’s detector is now the
detector or observer (because it detects echo). Thus, υ s = 0 and υ0 has a positive value. The frequency of
the sound emitted by the source (the target) is v, the frequency intercepted by the target and not v 0,
Therefore, the frequency as registered by the rocket is
v’ = v(v+v0v)
≃ 4080Hz
= 2540 Hz × (200 m s−1+330 m s−1330 m s−1)
Textual Examples
Question 1.Given below are some examples of wave motion. State in each case if the wave motion is
transverse, longitudinal or a combination of both.
a) Motion of kink in a longitudinal spring produced by displacing one end of the spring sideways.
b) Waves produced in a cylinder containing a liquid by moving its piston back and forth.
c) Waves produced by a motorboat sailing in water.
d) Ultrasonic waves in air produced by a vibrating quartz crystal.
Solution:
a) Transverse and longitudinal
b) Longitudinal
c) Transverse and longitudinal
d) Longitudinal.
Question 2.A wave travelling along a string is des-cribed by, y(x, t) = 0.005 sin (80.0 x – 3.01), in which
the numerical constants are in SI untis (0.005 m, 80.0 rad m -1, and 3.0 rad s-1). Calculate (a) the
amplitude, (b) the wavelength, and (c) the period and frequency of the wave. Also, calculate the
displacement y of the wave at a distance x = 30.0 cm and time t = 20 s ?
Solution:On comparing this displacement equation with Eq. y (x, t)n = a sin(kx – ωt + Φ)
y(x, t) = a sin (kx – ωt).
We find
a) the amplitude of the wave is
0. 005 m = 5 mm.
b) the angular wave number k and angular frequency ω are k = 80.0 m -1 and ω = 3.0 s-1
We then relate the wavelength λ to k through Eq.
λ = 2πK
= 2π80.0 m−1 = 7.85 cm
c) Now we relate T to ω by the relation
T = 2πω
= 2π3.0 s−1
= 2.09 s
and frequency, v = 1T = 0.48 Hz
The displacement y at x = 30.0 cm and time t= 20s is given by
y = (0.005 m) sin (80.0 × 0.3 – 3.0 × 20)
= (0.005 m) sin (-36 + 12π)
= (0.005 m) sin (97°) ≃ 5 mm

= (0.005 m) sin (1.699)
Question 3.A steel wire 0.72 m long has a mass of 5.0 × 10-3 kg. If the .wire is under a tension
of 60 N, what is the speed of transverse waves on the wire ? [A.P. Mar. 19]
Solution:Mass per unit length of the wire,
μ = 5.0×10−3 kg0.72 m = 6.9 × 10-3 kg m-1
Tension, T = 60 N
The speed of wave on the wire is given by
υ = Tμ−−√=60 N6.9×10−3 kg m−1−−−−−−−−−−√ = 93 m s-1
Question 4.Estimate the speed of sound in air at standard temperature and pressure. The
mass of 1 mole of air is 29.0 × 10-3 kg.
Solution:We know that 1 mole of any gas occupies 22.4 litres at STP Therefore, density of air at STP is:
ρ0 = (mass of one mole of air) / (Volume of one mole of air at STP)
= 29.0×10−3 kg22.4×10−3 m3 = 1.29 kgm-3
According to Newton’s formula for the speed of sound in a medium, we get for the speed of sound in air at
STP,
υ = [1.01×105 N m−21.29 kg m−3]1/2 = 280 m s-1
Question 5.A pipe, 30.0 cm long is open at both ends. Which harmonic mode of the pipe
resonates a 1.1 kHz source ? Will resonance with the same source be observed if one end of
the pipe is closed ? Take the speed of sound in air as 330 m s-1.
Solution:The first harmonic frequency is given by
v1 = vλ1=v2L (open pipe)
Where L is the length of the pipe. The frequency of its nth; harmonic is
vn = nv2L for n = 1, 2, 3, ……………… (open pipe)
First few modes of an open pipe are shown in Fig.
For L = 30.0 cm. υ = 330 m s-1
vn = n×330( m s−1)0.6( m) = 550 s-1
Clearly, for a source of frequency 1.1 kHz the air column will resonate at υ 2, i.e. the second harmonic.
Now if one end of the pipe is closed (Fig.), the fundamental frequency is
and only to odd numbered harmonics are present :

v3 = \(\frac{3 v}{4 L}/latex], v5 = [latex]\frac{5 v}{4 L}\) and s0 0n.
For L = 30 cm and υ = 330 m s-1;, the fundamental frequency of the pipe closed at one end is 275 Hz and
the source frequency corresponds to its fourth harmonic. Since this harmonic is not a possible mode, no
resonance will be observed with the source, the moment one end is closed.
Question 6.Two sitar strings A and B playing the note ‘Dha’ are slightly put of tune and
produce beats of frequency 5 Hz. The tension of the string B is slightly increased and the beat
frequency is found to decrease to 3 Hz. What is the original frequency of B if the frequency of
A is 427 Hz ?
Solution:Increase in the tension of a string increases its frequency. It the original frequency of B (v B) were
greater than that of A(vA) .further increase in vB should have resulted in an increase in the beat frequency.
But the beat frequency is found to decrease. This shows that v B < vA. Since vA – vB = 5 Hz, and va = 427
Hz, we get vB = 422 Hz.
Question 7.A rocket is moving at a speed of 200 m s-1 towards a stationary target. While
moving, it emits a wave of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the target gets
reflected back to the rocket as an echo. Calculate (1) the frequency of the sound as detected by the
target and (2) the frequency of the echo as detected by the rocket. [A.P. Mar. 16]
Solution:1) The observer is at rest and the source is moving with a speed of 200 ms -1. Since this is
comparable with the velocity of sound 330 ms-1, we must use Eq.
v = v0 [1+vSv]−1 and not the approximate
v = v0 [1−vsv]
Since the source is approaching a stationary target, υ 0 = 0, and υs must be replaced by -υs. Thus, we have
v = v0 (1−vSv)−1
≃ 2540Hz
v = 1000 Hz × [1 – 200 m s-1/330 m s-1]-1
2) The target is now the source (because it is the source of echo) and the rocket’s detector is now the
detector or observer (because it detects echo). Thus, υ s = 0 and υ0 has a positive value. The frequency of
the sound emitted by the source (the target) is v0, the frequency intercepted by the target and not v0,
Therefore, the frequency as registered by the rocket is
v’ = v(v+v0v)
≃ 4080Hz
= 2540 Hz × (200 m s−1+330 m s−1330 m s−1)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Important Questions 6th Lesson Current Electricity

Question 1.Derive an expression for the effective resistance when three resistors are connected in
(i) series
(ii) parallel.
Answer:Effective resistance when three resistors are connected :
(i) In series :
1. Three resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected in series as shown in fig. V1, V2, V3 are the potential
differences across R1, R2 and R3. I is the current flowing through them.
2. Applying Ohm’s law to R1, R2 and R3, Then V1 = IR1, V2 = IR2, V3 = IR3
3. In series, V = V1 + V2 + V3
∴ R s = R1 + R2 + R3
IRs = IR1 + IR2 + IR3 [∵V = IRs]
ii) In parallel :
1. Three resistors, R1, R2 and R3 are connected in parallel as shown in fig. Potential differences across
each resistor is V.I1, I2, I3 are the currents flowing through them.
2. Applying Ohm’s law to R1, R2 and R3, then
⇒ I1 = VR1; I2 = VR2; I3 = VR3

V = I1R1 = I 2R2 = I 3R3
⇒ VRp=VR1+VR2+VR3 [∵ I = VRP]
3. In parallel, I = I1 + I2 + I3
∴ 1Rp=1R1+1R2+1R3
Question 2.On what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend ? Define electric
resistance and write its S.I unit. How does the resistance of a conductor vary if (a) Conductor is
stretched to 4 times of its length (b) Temperature of conductor is increased ? [Board Model Paper]
1. Resistance is directly proportional to length of the conductor (R ∝ l)

Answer:Dependence of Resistance on geometry :
2. Resistance is inversely proportional to area of cross-section (R ∝ 1/A)

i.e., R ∝ l/A ⇒ R = ρl / A; ρ is called specific resistance or resistivity of the material.
Dependence of Resistance on temperature : R1 = R1[1 + α(∆T)] & α = ΔR/RΔT
α is called temperature coefficient of resistance and its SI unit: K -1.
Definition of electrical resistance (R) : The ratio between the potential difference (V) across the ends of
the conductor and the current (i) flowing through the conductor is called its electrical resistance, R = V/i;
a) Resistance of the conductor, R = ρ l A = ρ l2V ⇒ R ∝ l2 (∵ ρ and V constant)

S.I unit of electrical resistance is ohm (Ω)
⇒ R1/R2 = (l1/l1)2 ∴ R1/R2 = (l/4l)

⇒ R2 = 16R
Hence resistance of the conductor increases by 16 times.
b) The value of the electrical resistance of a conductor increases with increase of temperature. Because,
temperature coefficient of resistance is positive for metals.
Question 1.State Kirchhoffs law for an electrical network. Using th&se laws deduce the condition for
balance in a Wheatstone bridge. [T.S. Mar. 16; 15; Mar. 14]
Answer:Kirchhoffs first law (Junction rule or KCL) : The algebraic sum of the currents at any junction is
∴ ΣI = 0
zero.
(or)
The sum of the currents flowing towards a junction is equal to the sum of currents away from the junction.
1. Kirchhoffs second law (Loop rule or KVL) : The algebraic sum of potential around any closed loop is
∴ Σ(IR) + ΣE = 0
zero.
Wheatstone bridge : Wheatstone’s bridge circuit consists of four resistances R 1, R2, R3 and R4 are
connected to form a closed path. A cell of emf is connected between the point A and C and a
galvanometer is connected between the points B and D as shown in fig. The current through the various
branches are indicated in the figure. The current through the galvanometer is I g and the resistance of the
galvanometer is G.
Applying Kirchhoffs first law at the junction D, I1 – I3 – Ig = 0 ………………. (1)
at the junction B, I2 + Ig – I4 = 0 ……………. (2)
Applying Kirchhoff s second law to the closed path ADBA,
-I1R1 – IgG + I2R2 = 0
⇒ I1R1 + IgG = I2R2 …………….. (3)

or
applying kirchhoft’s second law to the closed path DCBD,
⇒ I3R3 – IgG = I4R4 ……………….. (4)

-I3R3 + I4R4 + IgG = 0
When the galvanometer shows zero deflection the points D and B are at the same potential. So I g = 0.
Substituting this value in (1), (2), (3) and (4).
I1 = I3 ………………. (5)
I2 = I4 ……………… (6)
I1R1 = I2R2 ……………….. (7)
I3R3 = I4R4 …………….. (8)
Dividing (7) and (8)
∴ Wheatstone’s Bridge principle : R4 = R3 × R2R1

I1R1I3R3=I2R2I4R4⇒R1R3=R2R4 [∵ I1 = I3 & I2 = I4]
Question 2.State the working principle of potentiometer explain with the help of circuit
diagram how the emf of two primary cells are compared by using the potentiometer. [A.P. Mar. 16]
Answer:Working principle of potentiometer : The potential difference across a length of the potentiometer
wire is directly proportional to its length (or) when a steady current is passed through a uniform wire,
i.e. ε ∝ l ⇒ ε = Φl where Φ is potential gradient.

potential drop per unit length or potential gradient is constant,
Comparing the emf of two cells ε1 and ε2 :

1. To compare the emf of two cells of emf E1 and E2 with potentiometer is shown in diagram.
2. The points marked 1, 2, 3 form a two way key.

3. Consider first a position of the key where 1 and 3 are connected so that the galvanometer is
connected to ε1.
the galvanometer. Then ε1 ∝ l1 ⇒ ε1 = Φl1 ………………. (1)

4. The Jockey is moved along the wire till at a point N1 at a distance l1 from A, there is no deflection in
l2 (AN2), then ε2 ∝ l2 ⇒ ε2 = Φl2 ……………. (2)

5. Similarly, if another emf ε2 is balanced against
6. (1)(2)⇒ε1ε2=l1l2
Question 3.State the working principle of potentiometer. Explain with the help of circuit
diagram how the potentiometer is used to determine the internal resistance of the given
primary cell. [A.P. & T.S. Mar. 17, 15]
Answer:Working principle of potentiometer : The potential difference across a length of the potentiometer
wire is directly proportional to its length (or) when a steady current is passed through a uniform wire,
i.e. ε ∝ l ⇒ ε = Φl
potential drop per unit length or potential gradient is constant.
where Φ is potential gradient.

Measurement of internal resistance (r) with potentiometer :
1. Potentiometer to measure internal resistance (r) of a cell (ε) is shown in diagram.
2. The cell (emf ε) whose internal resistance (r) is to be determined is connected across a resistance
box (R.B) through a key K2.
3. With key K2 open, balance is obtained at length l1 (AN1). Then ε = Φl1 …………… (1)
4. When key K2 is closed, the cell sends a current (I) through the resitance box (R.B).
5. If V is the terminal potential difference of the cell and balance is obtained at length l 2 (AN2).
Then V = Φ l2 ………………… (2)
6. (1)(2)⇒εV=l1l2 ……………. (3)
7. But ε = I (r + R) and V = IR. This gives
εV=(r+R)R
∴ r = R(l1l2−1)
l1l2=(rR+1) [∵ from (3)]
Question 4.Under what condition is the heat produced in an electric circuit a)directly
proportional b) inversely proportional to the resistance of the circuit ? Compute the ratio of
the total quantity of heat produced in the two cases.
Answer:Expression of heat produced by electric current:
Consider a conductor AB of resistance R.
Let V = P.D applied across the ends of AB.
I = current flowing through AB.
∴ Total charge flowing from A to B in time t is q = It. By definition of P.D, work done is carrying unit charge
t = time for which the current is flowing.
from A to B = V
Total work done in carrying a charge q from A to B is
W = V × q = V It = I2 Rt (∵V = IR)
This work done is called electric work done. If this electric work done appears as heat, then amount of
heat produced (H) is given by
H = W = I2 Rt Joule.
This is a statement of Joule’s law of heating.
i.e., H ∝ R.
a) If same current flows through an electric circuit, heat is developed.
i.e., H2 ∝ 1R
b) If same P.D applied across the the electric circuit heat is developed.
c) The ratio of H1 and H2 is given by
∴ H1H2 = R2
H1H2=R1R
Problems
Question 1.A 10Ω thick wire is stretched so that its length becomes three times. Assuming
that there is no change in its density on stretching, calculate the resistance of the stretched wire.
Solution:
Given R1 = 10 Ω,
l1 = l
l2 = 3l, R2 ?
R1 = ρVl21
R2 = ρVl22
∴ R2 = 10 × 9 = 90Ω.
R˙2R1=(l2l1)2⇒R210=(3ll)2
Question 2.A wire of resistance 4R is bent in the form of a circle. What is the effective
resistance between the ends of the diameter ? [T.S. Mar. 16; Mar. 14]
Solution:Resistance of long wire = 4R
Hence the resistance of half wire = 4R2 = 2R
Now these two wire are connected in parallel. Hence the effective resistance between the ends of the
RP = R1R2R1+R2 ⇒ RP = 2R×2R2R+2R
diameter
∴ RP = R.
Question 3.Three resistors 3Ω, 6Ω and 9Ω are connected to a battery. In which of them will the power of
dissipation be maximum if:
a) They all are connected in parallel
b) They all are connected in series ? Give reasons.
Solution:Given R1 = 3Ω, R2 = 6Ω, R3 = 9Ω
a) Effective resistance in parallel is given by
1Rp=1R1+1R2+1R3=13+16+19
∴ RP = 1811 Ω
1RP=6+3+218
∴ Dissipated power in parallel,

PP ∝ 1RP ⇒ PP ∝ 1(1811)
∴ PP ∝ 1118 …………….. (1)
b) Effective resistance in series is given by
∴ Dissipated power in series, PS ∝ RS ⇒ PS ∝ 18

Rs = R1 + R2 + R3 = 3 + 6 + 9 = 18 Ω
From equations (1) and (2) power dissipation is maximum in series and minimum in parallel.
1. In series connection, P ∝ R and V ∝ R. Hence dissipated power (P) and potential difference (V) is
Reasons:
2. In parallel connection, P ∝ 1R and I ∝ 1R Hence dissipated power (P) and potential difference (V) is
more because current is same across each resistor.
less because voltage is same across each resistor.
Question 4.A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1Ω at 27.5°C and a resistance of 2.7Ω at 100°C. Determine
the temperature coeff. of resistivity of silver.
Solution:For silver wire, R1 = 2.1Ω, t1 = 27.5°C
R2 = 2.7 Ω, t2 = 100°C, α = ?
∴Temperature coefficient of resistivity

α = R2−R1R1t2−R2t1=2.7−2.12.1×100−2.7×27.5=0.6210−74.25=0.6135.75
α = 0.443 × 10-2/°C
Question 5.
In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell of emf 1.25 V gives a balance point at 35.0 cm length of the wire.
If the cell is replaced by another cell and the balance point shifts to 63.0 cm. what is the emf of the
second cell ? [A.P. Mar. 15
Solution:
Here ε1 = 1.25 V, l1 = 35.0 cm, ε2 = ?. l2 = 63.0 cm.
As ε2ε1=l2l1 or
ε2 = ε1×l2l1=1.25×6335 = 2.25 V
Question 6.A battery of emf 2.5 V and internal resistance r is connected in series with a resistor of 45 ohm
through an ammeter of resistance 1 ohm. The ammeter reads a current of 50 mA Draw the circuit
diagram and calculate the value of r. [T.S. Mar. 17]
Solution:Circuit diagram for the given data is shown below.
Given, E = 2.5 V; R = 45Ω;

rA = 1A; I = 50mA;
r=?
E = I (R + rA + r)
2.5 = 50 × 10-3 (45 + 1 + r)
∴ r = 50 – 46 = 4Ω.
46 + r = 2.550×10−3=2.5×10350 = 50
Question 7.The balancing point in meter bridge experiment is obtained at 30 cm from the left. If the right
gap contains 3.5 £2, what is the resistance in the left gap? [BMP]
∴ x = 1.5 Ω
Solution:xR=I1100−I1⇒x3.5=3070⇒x=30×3.570=1.5
The resistance in the left gap in meter bridge is, x = 1.5 Ω
Question 8.The storage battery of a car has an emf of 12 V If the internal resistance of the
battery is 0.4Q, what is the maximum current that can be drawn from the battery ?
Solution:Here E = 12 V, r = 0.4Ω
Maximum Current, Imax = Er=120.4 = 30 A
Question 9.A battery of emf 10V and internal resistance 3Ω is connected to a resistor. If the
current in the circuit is 0.5 A, what is the resistance of the resistor ? What is the terminal voltage of the
battery when the circuit is closed ? [T.S. Mar. 15]
Solution:Here E = 10 V, r = 3Ω,1 = 0.5 A, R = ?, V = ?
I = E(R+r) or (R + r) = EI=100.5= 20 or
R = 20 – 3 = 17Ω
Terminal voltage V = IR = 0.5 × 17 = 8.5 Ω.
Question 10.If the balancing point in a meter bridge from the left is 60 cm, compare the
resistance in the left and right gaps of meter bridge.
Solution:R1R2=I1100−I1=60100−60=6040=32⇒R1R2=32
Question 11.A potentiometer wire is 5m long and a potential difference of 6 V is maintained

between its ends. Find the emf of a cell which balances against a length of 180cm of the potentiometer
wire. [A.P. Mar. 17, 16]
Solution:Length of potentiometer wire L = 5m
Potential difference V = 6 Volt
Potential gradient Φ = VL=65 = 1.2V/m
Balancing length l = 180cm
= 1.80m
Emf of the cell E = Φl
= 1.2 × 1.8 = 2.16V.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Important Questions 14th Lesson Nuclei
Answer:Thalf = 0.693 × TMean ⇒ TMean = Thalf 0.693=720.693 = 103.8 days.

Question 1The half life of 58Co is 72 days. Calculate Its average life. [Board model Paper]
Question 2.Why do all electrons emitted during p-decay not have the same energy?
Answer:When a neutron is converted into a proton, an electron and neutron are emitted along with it.
11n⟶11H+0−1e+v
In β – decay proton remains in the nucleus, but electron and neutron are emitted with constant energy.
The energy of neutron is not constant. So, ail electrons do not have same energy.
Question 3.Neutrons are the best projectiles to produce nuclear reactions. Why ?
Answer:Neutrons are uncharged particles. So they do not get deflected by the electric and magnetic
fields. Hence Neutrons are considered as best projectiles in nuclear reaction.
Question 4.Neutrons cannot produce ionization. Why ?

Answer:Because neutrons are uncharged particles and cannot produce ionization.
Question 5.What are delayed neutrons ?

Answer:Neutrons are emitted in the fission products after, sometime are called delayed neutrons.
Question 6.What are thermal neutrons ? What is their importance ?

Answer:Neutrons having kinetic energies approximately 0.025 eV are called as slow neutrons or thermal
neutrons. 235U undergoes fission only when bombarded with thermal neutrons.
Question 7.What is the value of neutron multiplication factor in a controlled reaction and in an
uncontrolled chain reaction ?
Answer:In controlled chain reaction K = 1
In uncontrolled chain reaction K > 1
Question 8.What is the role of controlling rods in a nuclear reactor ?

Answer:In nuclear reactor, controlling rods are used to absorb the neutrons. Cadmium, boron materials
are used in the form of rods in reactor. These control the fission rate.
Question 9.Why are nuclear fusion reactions called thermo nuclear reactions ?
Answer:Nuclear fusion occurs at very high temperatures. So it is called as thermo nuclear reaction.
Question 10.Define Becquerel and Curie.

Answer:Becquerel: 1 disintegration or decay per second is called Becquerel. It is SI unit of activity.
1 disintegration or decay
i.e., Becquerel = 1 disintegration or decay second
Curie : 3.7 × 1010 decays per second is called Curie.
1 Curie : 1 Ci = 3.7×1010 decays second = 3.7 × 1010Bq.
Question 11.What is a chain reaction ?

Answer:Chain reaction : The neutrons produced in the fission of a nucleus can cause fission in other
neighbouring nuclei producing more and more neutrons to continue the fission until the whole fissionable
material is disintegrated. This is called chain reaction.
Question 12.What is the function of moderator in a nuclear reactor ?

Answer:They are used to slow down the fast moving neutrons produced during the fission process.
e.g.: Heavy water, Beryllium.
Question 13.What is the energy released in the fusion of four protons to form a helium nucleus ?
Answer:26.7 MeV energy is released.

Question 1.Write a short note on the discovery of neutron.
Answer:Bothe and Becker found that when beryllium is bombarded with a – particles of energy 5 MeY
which emitted a highly penetrating radiation.
1. The equation for above process can be written as
94Be+42He→136C + γ – (radiation energy)
2. The radiations are not effected by electric and magnetic fields.
3. In 1932, James Chadwick, had subjected nitrogen and argon to the beryllium radiation. He
interpreted the experimental results by assuming that the radiation is of a new kind of particles
which has no charge and its mass is equal to proton. These neutral particles were named as
neutrons. Thus the neutron was discovered.
4. The experimental results can be represented by the following equation.
94Be+42He→126C+10n+Q
Question 2.What are nuclear forces ? Write their properties.

Answer:The forces which hold the nucleons together in nucleus are called nuclear forces.
Properties of Nuclear forces:
1. Nuclear forces are attractive forces between proton and proton (P – N, proton and neutron (P – N)
and neutron and neutron (N – N).
2. Nuclear forces are independent of charge. It was found that force between proton and proton is
same as force between neutron and neutron.
3. These forces are short range forces i.e., these forces will act upto a small distance only. Generally
the range of nuclear forces is upto few Fermi (10-15 m).
4. These forces are non central forces, i.e., they do not act along the line joining the two nucleons.
5. These forces are exchange forces. The force between two nucleons is due to exchange of n-
mesons.
6. These forces are spin dependent. These forces are strong when the spin of two nucleons are in
same direction and they are weak when they are in opposite direction.
7. Nuclear forces are saturated forces i.e., the force between nucleons will extend upto the
immediate neighbouring nucleons only.
8. These are the strongest forces in nature. They are nearly 1038 times stronger than gravitational
forces and nearly 100 times stronger than Coulombic forces.
Question 3.Define half life period and decay constant for a radioactive substance. Deduce the relation
between them.
Answer:Half life period (T) : Time taken for the number of radio active nuclei to disintegrate to half of its
original number of nuclei is called Half life period.
Decay constant (λ) : The ratio of the rate of radioactive decay to the number of nuclei present at that
instant.
∴ λ = −(dNdt)N
It is a proportional constant and is denoted by ‘λ’.
Relation between half the period and decay constant:

1. The radioactive decay law N = N0 e-λt states that the number of radioactive nuclei in a radioactive
sample decreases exponentially with time. Here A is called decay constant.
2. If N0 is the number of nuclei at t = 0 and N is the radioactive nuclei at any instant of time’t’.
3. Substituting N = N02 at t = T in N = N0 e-λt
4. N02 = N0 e-λT
eλT = 2
λT= ln 2
∴ T = 0.693λ
T = ln2λ=2.303log210λ
Question 4.What is nuclear fission ? Give an example to illustrate it.

Answer:Nuclear fission : The process of dividing a heavy nucleus into two or more smaller and stable
nuclei due to nuclear reaction is called nuclear fission.
Ex: The fission reaction is 23592U+10n→14156Ba+9236Kr+310n+Q
Where Q is the energy released.
Q = (Total mass of reactants – Total mass of product) C2
= [(Mass of 23592U + Mass of 10n) – (Mass of 14156Ba + Mass of 9236Kr + Mass of three neutrons)] C2
= (235.043933 – 140.9177 – 91.895400 – 2 × 1.008665) amu × C2.
= 0.2135 × 931.5 MeV = 198.9 MeV = 200 MeV
Question 5.What is nuclear fusion ? Write the conditions for nuclear fusion to occur.
Answer:Nuclear fusion : The process of combining lighter nuclei to produce a larger nucleus is known as
nuclear fusion.
E.g : Hydrogen nuclei (1H1) are fused together to form heavy Helium (2He4) along with 25.71 MeV energy
released.
Conditions for nuclear fusion :
1. Nuclear fusion occurs at very high temperatures such as 10 7 kelvin and very high pressures. These
are obtained under the explosion of an atom bomb.
2. Higher density is also desirable so that collisions between light nuclei occur quite frequently.
Question 6.Distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.

Answer:Nuclear fission
1. In this process heavy nucleus is divided into two fragments along with few neutrons.
2. These reactions will takes place even at room temperature.
3. To start fission atleast one thermal neutron from outside is compulsory.
4. Energy released per unit mass of participants is less.
5. In this process neutrons are liberated.
6. This reaction can be controlled.
Ex: Nuclear reactor.
7. Atom bomb works on principle of fission reaction.
8. The energy released in fission can be used for peaceful purpose.
Ex: Nuclear reactor and Atomic power stations.
Nuclear fusion
1. In this process lighter nuclei will join together to produce heavy nucleus.
2. These reactions will takes place at very high temperature such as 107 Kelwin.
3. No necessary of external neutrons.
4. Energy released per unit mass of participants is high. Nearly seven times more than fission
reaction.
5. In this process positrons are liberated.
6. There is no control on fusion reaction.
7. Hydrogen bomb works on the principle of fusion reaction.
8. The energy released in fusion cannot be used for peaceful purpose.

Question 1.Define mass defect and binding energy. How does binding energy per nucleon vary with mass
number ? What is its significance ?
Answer:
1. Mass defect (∆M) : The difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is called the mass defect.
The nuclear mass M is always less than the total mass, Em, of its constituents.
Mass defect, (∆M) = [Zmp + (A – Z)mn – M]
2. Binding energy: The energy required to break the nucleus into its constituent nucleons is called the
binding energy.
Binding Energy, (Eb) = ∆MC2 = [Zmp + (A – Z)mn – M] 931.5 MeV
Nuclear binding energy is an indication of the stability of the nucleus.
Nuclear binding energy per nucleon Ebn = EbA
3. The following graph represents how the binding energy per nucleon varies with the mass number A.
4. From the graph that the binding energy is highest in the range 28 < A < 138. The binding energy of
these nuclei is very close to 8.7 MeV
5. With the increase in the mass number the binding energy per nucleon decreases and consequently for
the heavy nuclei like Uranium it is 7.6 MeV
6. In the region of smaller mass numbers, the binding energy per nucleon curve shows the characteristic
minima and maxima.
7. Minima are associated with nuclei containing an odd number of protons and neutrons such
as 63Li,105 B,147 N and the maxima are associated with nuclei having an even number of protons and
neutrons such as 42He,126C,168O.
Significance:
8. The curve explains the relationship between binding energy per nucleon and stability of the nuclei.
9. Uranium has a relatively low binding energy per nucleon as 7.6 MeV Hence to attain greater stability
Uranium breaks up into intermediate mass nuclei resulting in a phenomenon called fission.
10. On the other hand light nuclei such as hydrogen combine to form heavy nucleus to form helium for
greater stability, resulting in a phenomenon called fusion.
11. Iron is the most stable having binding energy per nucleon 8.7 MeV, and it neither undergoes fission
per fusion.
Question 2.What is radioactivity ? State the law of radioactive decay. Show that radioactive decay is
exponential in nature. [T.S. Mar. 16]
Answer:1. Radioactivity : The nuclei of certain elements disintegrate spontaneously by emitting alpha (α),
beta (β) and gamma (δ) rays. This phenomenon is called Radioactivity or Natural radioactivity.
2. Law of radioactivity decay : “The rate of radioactive decay (dNdt) (or) the number of
nuclei decaying per unit time at any instant, is directly proportional to the number of nuclei (N) present at
that instant is called law of radioactivity decay”.
3. Radioactive decay is exponential in nature : Consider a radioactive substance. Let the number of nuclei
dNdt ∝ N ⇒ dNdt = – λN
present in the sample at t = 0, be N0 and let N be the radioactive nuclei remain at an instant t.
dN = – λ Ndt …………………….. (1)

The proportionality constant λ is called decay constant or disintegration constant. The negative sign
indicates the decrease in the number of nuclei.
4. From eq. (1) dNN = – λ dt ……………… (2)
5. Integrating on both sides
∫dNN=−λ∫dt
ln N = – λt + C …………….. (3)
Where C = Integration constant.
∴ ln N = -λt + ln N0
6. At t = O; N = N0. Substituting in eq. (3), we get ln N0 = C
ln N – ln N0 = – λt
∴ N = N0 e-λt
ln (NN0) = – λt
The above equation represents radioactive decay law.

7. It states that the number of radioactive nuclei in a radioactive sample decreases exponentially with
time.
Sample Problems
Question 1.The half life of radium is 1600 years. How much time does lg of radium take to reduce to
0.125g. [IPE 2016 (TS)]
Answer:Half – life of radium = 1600 years;
∴ Time taken = Half life × no. of Half lives = 1600 × 3 = 4800 years
NN0=12n⇒0.1251=12n⇒1251000=12n⇒18=12n⇒123=12n⇒n=3
Question 2.Plutonium decays with a half-life of 24,000 years. If plutonium is stored for 72,000 years, what
fraction of it remains ?
Answer:Half life of plutonium, T = 24000 years; Stored time of plutonium, t = 72000 years
no. of half lives, n = tT=7200024000 = 3; Fraction of plutonium remains = NN0=12n=123=18
Question 3.Explain the principle and working of a nuclear reactor with the help of a labelled diagram. [A.P.
& T.S. Mar. 17, A.P. Mar. 16 15, Mar. 14]
Answer:
Principle : A nuclear reactor works on the principle of achieving controlled chain reaction in natural
Uranium 238U enriched with 235U, consequently generating large amounts of heat.
A nuclear reactor consists of (1) Fuel (2) Moderator (3) Control rods (4) Radiation shielding (5) Coolant.
1. Fuel and clad : In reactor the nuclear fuel is fabricated in the form of thin and long cylindrical rods.
These group of rods treated as a fuel assembly. These rods are surrounded by coolant, which is used to
transfer of heat produced in them. A part of the nuclear reactor which is used to store the nuclear fuel is
called the core of the reactor. Natural uranium, enriched uranium, plutonium and uranium – 233 are used
as nuclear fuels.
2. Moderator : The average energy of neutrons released in fission process is 2 MeV. They are used to slow
down the velocity of neutrons. Heavy water or graphite are used as moderating materials in reactor.
3. Control Rods : These are used to control the fission rate in reactor by absorbing the neutrons. Cadmium
and boron are used as controlling the neutrons, in the form of rods.
4. Shielding : During fission reaction beta and gamma rays are emitted in addition to neutrons. Suitable
shielding such as steel, lead, concrete etc., are provided around the reactor to absorb and reduce the
intensity of radiations to such low levels that do not harm the operating personnel.
5. Coolant : The heat generated in fuel elements is removed by using a suitable coolant to flow around
them. The coolants used are water at high pressures, molten sodium etc.
Working : Uranium fuel rods are placed in the aluminium cylinders. The graphite moderator is placed in
between the fuel cylinders. To control the number of neutrons, a number of control rods of cadnium or
beryllium or boron are placed in the holes of graphite block. When a few 235U nuclei undergo fission fast
neutrons are liberated. These neutrons pass through the surrounding graphite moderator and loose their
energy to become thermal neutrons. These thermal neutrons are captured by 235U. The heat generated
here is used for heating suitable coolants which is turn heat water and produce steam. This steam is
made to rotate steam turbine and there by drive a generator of production for electric power.
Question 4.Explain the source of stellar energy. Explain the carbon – nitrogen cycle, proton – proton cycle
occuring in stars.
Answer:Scientists proposed two types of cyclic processes for the sources of energy in the sun and stars.
The first is known as carbon-nitrogen cycle and the second is proton-proton cylce.
1. Carbon-Nitrogen Cycle : According to Bethe carbon-nitrogen cycle is mainly responsible for the
production of solar energy. This cycle consists of a chain of nuclear reactions in which hydrogen is
converted into Helium, with the help of Carbon and Nitrogen as catalysts. The nuclear reactions are as
given below.
2. Proton – Proton Cycle: A star is formed by the condensation of a large amount of matter at a point in
space. Its temperature rises to 2,00,000°C as the matter contracts under the influence of gravitational
attraction. At this temperature the thermal energy of the protons is sufficient to form a deuteron and a
positron. The deuteron then combines with another proton to form lighter nuclei of helium 32He. Two
such helium nuclei combine to form a helium nucleus latex]{ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}[/latex] and two
protons releasing a total amount of energy 25.71 MeV The nuclear fusion reactions are given below.
Problems
Question 1.Compare the radii of the nuclei of mass numbers 27 and 64.
Solution:A1 = 27; Asub>2 = 64
R1R2=[A1 A2]1/3 [∵ R = R0A1/3]
∴ R 1 : R2 = 3 : 4
R1R2=[2764]13=34
Question 2.Find the energy required to split 168O nucleus into four α-particles. The mass of an a-particle
is 4.002603u and that of oxygen is 15.994915u.
Solution:The energy required to split O = [Total mass of the products – Total mass of the reactants] c 2
Mass of four 42He – Mass of 168O] × c2
= [(4 X 4.002603) – 15.994915] u × c2
= [16.010412 – 15.994915] u × c2
= (0.015497) 931.5 MeV = 14.43 MeV
Question 3.A certain substance decays to 1/232 of its initial activity in 25 days. Calculate its half-life.
Solution:Fraction of substance decays
= Quantity remains Initial quantity
∴n=5
= 12n=132=125
Duration of time = 25 days
∴ Half life time = Duration of time n

We know (n) = Duration of time Half life time
255 = 5 days
Question 4.One gram of radium is reduced by 2 milli- gram in 5 years by a-decay. Calculate the half¬life
of radium.
Solution:Initial (original) mass (N0) = 1 gram
Reduced mass – 2 mg = 0.002 grams
Final mass (N)= 1 – 0.002 = 0.998 grams
e-λt = NN0 ⇒ eλt = N0 N ⇒ λt = loge[latex]\frac{\mathrm{N}_0}{\mathrm{~N}}[/latex]
t = 5 years
λt = 2.303 log [latex]\frac{\mathrm{N}_0}{\mathrm{~N}}[/latex]

λt = 2.303 log [latex]\frac{1}{0.998}[/latex]
= 2.303 log (1.002)
= 2.303 × 0.000868
= 0.001999
λ = 0.0019995 = 0.0003998
T = 0.693λ=0.6930.0003998 = 1733.3 years
Question 5.If one microgram of 92235U is completely destroyed in an atomhomb, how much energy will
be released ?
Solution:m = 1 μg = 1 × 10-6 g = 1 × 10-6 × 10-3 kg
= 10-9 kg
c = 3 × 108 m/s
E = mc2 = 1 × 10-9 × 9 × 106 = 9 × 107 J
Question 6.200 MeV energy is released when one nucleus of 235U undergoes fission. Find the number of
fissions per second required for producing a power of 1 megawatt.
Solution:E = 200 MeV
P = 1 × 106 W
P = nEt⇒nt=PE=106200×106×1.6×10−19
∴ P = 0.03125 × 1018
= 132 × 1018
= 3.125 × 106
Textual Examples
Question 1.Given the mass of iron nucleus as 55.85u and A = 56, find the nuclear density ?
Solution:mFe = 55.85, u = 9.27 × 10-26 kg
Nuclear density = mass volume
= 9.27×10−26(4π/3)(1.2×10−15)3×156
= 2.29 × 1017 kg m-3
The density of matter in neutron stars (an astrophysical object) is comparable to this density. This shows
that matter in these objects has been compressed to such an extent that they resemble a big nucleus.
Question 2.
Calculate the energy equivalent of 1 g of substance.
Solution:
Energy, E = 10-3 × (3 × 108)2 J
E = 10-3 × 9 × 1016 = 9 × 1013 J
Thus, if one gram of matter is converted to energy, there is a release of an enormous amount of energy.
Question 3.Find the energy equivalent of one atomic mass unit, first in Joules and then in
MeV. Using this, express the mass defect of 168O in MeV/c2.
Solution:1 u = 1.6605 × 10-27 kg
To convert it into energy units, we multiply it by c2 and find, that energy. equivalent
= 1.6605 × 10-27 × 2.9979 × 108 kg m2/s2
= 1.4924 × 10-10 J
= 1.4924×10−101.602×10−19 eV
= 0.9315 × 109 eV = 931.5 MeV
or, 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2.
For 168O, ∆M = 0.13691 u = 0.13691 × 931.5 MeV/c2 = 127.5 MeV/c2
The energy needed to separate 168O into hs constituents is thus 127.5 MeV/c2.
Question 4.The half-life of 23892U undergoing a – decay is 4.5 × 109 years. What is the
activity of 1 g sample of 23892U ?
Solution:T1/2 = 4.5 × 109 y
= 4.5 × 109 y × 3.16 × 107 s/y.
= 1.42 × 1017 s
One k mol of any isotope contains Avogadro’s number of atoms, and so 1 g of 23892U contains
1238×10−3 k mol × 6.025 × 1026 atoms/kmol
= 25.3 × 1020 atoms.
The decay rate R is
R = λN
= 0.693 T1/2 N = 0.693×25.3×10201.42×1017 S-1
= 1.23 × 104 S-1
= 1.23 × 104 Bq
Question 5.Tritium has a half-life of 12.5 y undergoing beta decay. What fraction of sample of
pure tritium will remain undecayed after 25 y.
Solution:By definition of half-life, half of the initial i sample will remain undecayed after 12.5 y. In the next
12.5 y, one-half of these nuclei would have decayed. Hence, one fourth of the sample of the initial pure s
tritium will remain undecayed.
Question 6.We are given the following atomic masses:
23892U = 238.05079 u
42He = 4.00260 u
23490Th = 234.04363 u
11H = 1.00783 u
23791Pa = 237.05121 u
Here the symbol Pa is for the element protactinium (Z = 91).
a) Calculate the energy released during the alpha decay of 23892U.
b) Show that 23892U cannot spontaneously emit a proton.
Solution:a) The alpha decay of 23892U is given by
The energy released in this process is given by

Q = (MU – MTh – MHe) c2
Substituting the atomic masses as given in the data, we find
Q = (238.05079 – 234.04363 – 4.00260)u × c2
= (0.00456 u) c2
= (0.00456 u) (931.5 MeV/u)
= 4.25 MeV
b) If 23892U spontaneously emits a proton, the decay process would be

23892U→23791 Pa+11H
The Q for this process to happen is
= (MU – MPa – MH)c2
(238.05079 – 237.05121 – 1.00783) u × c2
=(- 0.00825 u) c2
= – (0.00825 u) (931.5 MeV/u)
= -7.68 MeV
Thus, the Q of the process is negative and therefore it cannot proceed spontaneously. We will have to
supply an energy of 7.68 MeV to a 23892U nucleus to make it emit a proton.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Important Questions 2nd Lesson Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
Question 1.
What is optical density and how is it different from mass density ?
Answer:
Optical density: Optical density is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in media. Mass density: Mass
per unit volume is defined as mass density.
Mass density of an optically denser medium is less than that of optically rarer medium.
Question 2.
What are the laws of reflection through curved mirrors ?
Answer:
1. “The angle of reflection equals to the angle of incidence”.
2. “The incident ray, reflected ray and the normal to the reflecting surface at the point of incidence
lie in the same plane”.
Question 3.
Define ‘power’ of a convex lens. What is its unit ? [A.P. Mar. 17, T.S. Mar. 16]
Answer:
Power of a lens : Power of a lens is defined as its bending ability and is measured as reciprocal of focal
∴ Power of a lens = 1f( in metres) =100f( in cms)

length in metre.
Unit → Dioptre (D)

Problems
Question 1.
A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm is placed at a distance 35 cm from a wall. How far from the wall
should an object be placed so that its real image is formed on the wall ?
Answer:
f = 10 cm, υ = 35 cm
1f=1v+1−u (using sign convention)
1u=1v−1f=135−110
1u=10−3535×10=−114
U = – 14 cm.
Distance of the object from the wall = 35 – 14 = 21cm.
Question 2.
A concave mirror produces an image of a long vertical pin, placed 40cm from the mirror, at the position of
the object. Find the focal length of the mirror. [T.S. Mar. 17, 16]
Answer:
Give u = υ = 40cm
1f=1v+1u
1f=140+140
1f=240
f = 20 cm.
Question 3.
A small angled prism of 4° deviates a ray through 2.48°. Find the refractive index of the prism.
Answer:
A = 4°, Dm = 2.48°
Dm = A (μ – 1)
μ – 1 = DmA=2.484 = 0.62
μ = 1 + 0.62
μ = 1.62
Question 4.
What is ‘dispersion’? Which colour gets relatively more dispersed ? [Mar. 14]
Answer:
Dispersion : The phenomenon of splitting of white light ipto its constituent colours, on passing through a
prism is called dispersion of light.
The deviation is maximum for violet colour.
Question 5.
The focal length of a concave lens is 30 cm. Where should an object be placed so that its image is 1/10 of
its size ?
Solution:
f = 30 cm, h1 = h, h2 = h10
Question 6.
What is myopia ? How can it be corrected ? [T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Myopia (or) Near sightedness :
The light from a distant object arriving at the eye-lens may get converged at a point infront of the retina.
This type of defect is called myopia.
To correct this, we interpose a concave lens between the eye and the object.
Question 7.
What is hypermetropia ? How can it be corrected ? [A.P. Mar. 16]
Answer:
Hypermetropia (or) Farsightedness :
The light from a distant object arriving at the eye-lens may get converged at a point behind the retina.
This type of defect is called Hypermetropia.
To correct this, we interpose a convex lens (Convergent lens) between the eye and the object.
Question 8.
Draw neat labelled ray diagram of simple microscope. [PE 2015 (A.P.)]
Answer:
u = object distance
D = distance of near point.
Question 1.
Define focal length of a concave mirror. Prove that the radius of curvature of a concave mirror is double
its focal length. [A.P. Mar. 17]
Answer:
Focal length of concave mirror:
The distance between the focus F and the pole P of the mirror is called the focal length of the concave
mirror.
Consider a ray AB parallel to principal axis incident on a concave mirror at B and is re-flected along BF.
Let θ be the angle of incidence, ∠ABC = ∠BCP = θ

The line CB is normal to the mirror.
Draw BD ⊥ CP
In right angled ∆le
Tan θ = BDCD ……………. (1)
From ∆le BFD, Tan 2θ = BDFD ……………. (2)
Dividing eq (2) by eq (1), Tan2θTanθ=CDFD ………………….. (3)
∴ The point B lies very close to p.

If θ is very small, then tan θ ≈ θ and tan 2θ ≈ 2θ since the aperture of the lens is small
CD ≈ CP and FD ≈ FP
From eq (3), 2θθ=CPFP=Rf⇒2=Rf
R = 2f
Question 2.
Define critical angle. Explain total internal reflection using a neat diagram. [T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Critical angle:
When light ray travelling from denser medium to rarer medium, then the angle of incidence for which
angle of refraction in air is 90a is called critical angle.
C = sin-1 (1μ)
Total internal reflection:
When a light ray travels from denser to rarer medium, the angle of incidence is greater than the critical
angle, then it reflects into the same medium is called total internal reflection.
Explanation:
Consider an object in the denser medium. A ray OA incident on XY bends away from the normal. As the
angle of incidence is increased, the angle of refraction goes on increasing. For certain angle of incidence,
the refracted ray parallel to XY surface (r = 90°).
When the angle of incidence is further increased, the ray is not refracted but is totally reflected back in
the denser medium. This phenomenon is called total internal reflection.
Question 3.
Explain the formation of a mirage. [A.P. Mar. 16]
Answer:
In a desert, the sand becomes very hot during the day time and it rapidly heats the layer of air which is in
its contact. So density of air decreases. As a result the successive upward layers are denser than lower
layers.
When a beam of light travelling from the top of a tree enters a rarer layer, it is refracted away from the
normal. As a result at the surface of layers of air, each time the angle of incidence increases and
ultimately a stage is reached, when the angle of incidence becomes greater than the critical angle
between the two layers, the incident ray suffers total internal reflection.
So it appears as inverted image of the tree is formed and the same looks like a pool of water to the
observer.
Question 4.
Explain the formation of a rainbow. [A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Figure shows how sun light is broken into its segments in the process and a rainbow appears. The
dispersion of the violet and the red rays after internal reflection in the drop is shown in figure.
The red rays emerge from the drops of water at one angle (43°) and the violet rays emerge at another
angle (41°). The large number of water drops in the sky makes a rain-bow. The rainbow appears
semicircular for an observer on earth.
Question 5.
Why does the setting sun appear red ? [T.S. Mar. 17, Mar. 14]
Answer:
As sunlight travels through the earths atmosphere, gets scattered by the large number of molecules
present. This scattering of sun light is responsible for the colour of the sky, during sunrise and sunset etc.
∝ 1λ4.
The light of shorter wave length is scattered much more than light of larger wave-length. Scattering
Most of blue light is scattered, hence the bluish colour of sky predominates.
At sunset (or) sunrise, sun rays must pass through a larger atmospheric distance. More of the blue colour
is scattered away only red colour which is least scattered ap-pears to come from sun. Hence it appears
red.
Question 6.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the formation of image in a simple microscope. [T.S. Mar. 16, A.P.
Mar. 15]
Answer:
Simple microscope: It consists a single short focus convex lens. It increases the visual angle to see an
object clearly. It is also called magnifying glass (or) reading glass.
Working : The object is adjusted within the principal focus Of the convex lens to form the image at the
near point. The image is formed on same side of the object and it is virtual, erect and magnified as shown
in fig.
Magnifying power : The ratio of the angle subtended by the image at the eye to the angle subtended by
the object at the eye is called magnifying power of a simple microscope.
It is denoted by ‘m’.
m = αβ≃TanαTanβ
Question 7.
What is the position of the object for a simple microscope ? What is the maximum magnifi-cation of a
simple microscope for a realistic focal length ?
Answer:
When an object is placed between principal focus and optical centre of a convex lens, a virtual and erect
image will be formed on the same side of the object.
Magnifying power: It is defined as the ratio of the angle subtended at the eye by the image to the angle
subtended by the object at the eye.
From figure OJ = IJ’, ∠IO’G = α and ∠IO’J’ = β

m = αβ≃TanαTanβ
The above equation can be written as

m = 1 + Df …………… (2)
This shows that smaller the focal length of the lens, greater will be the magnifying power of microscope.
Question 1.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a compound microscope and explain its working. Derive an expression
for its magnification.
Answer:
Description : It consists of two convex lenses separated by a distance. The lens near the object is called
objective and the lens near the eye is called eye piece. The objective lens has small focal length and eye
piece has of larger focal length. The distance of the object can be adjusted by
means of a rack and pinion arrangement.
Working: The object OJ is placed outside the principal focus of the objective and the real image is formed
on the other side of it. The image I1 G1 is real, inverted and magnified.
This image acts as the object for the eyepiece. The position of the eyepiece is so adjusted that the image
due to the objective is between the optic centre and principal focus to form the final image at the near
point. The final image IG is virtual, inverted and magnified.
Magnifying Power: It is defined as the ratio of the angle subtended by the final image at the eye when
formed at near point to the angle subtended by the object at the eye when imagined to be at near point.
Imagining that the eye is at the optic centre, the angle subtended by the final image is a. When the object
is imagined to be taken at near point it is represented by IJ’ and OJ – IJ’.
The angle made by I J’ at the eye is β. Then by the definition of magnifying power
Dividing and multiplying by I1 G1 on the right side, we get
m = (IGI1G1)(I1G1OJ)
Magnifying power of the objective (m0) = I1 G1 / OJ = Height of the image due to the objective / Height of
its object.
Magnifying power of the eye piece (me) = IG/I1G1 = Height of the final image / Height of the object for the
∴ m = m0 × me ……………… (1)
eyepiece.
To find m0: In figure OJ O’ and I1 G1 O’ are similar triangles. (I1G1OJ)=O′I1O′O

Using sign convention, we find that O’I1 = + v0 and O’O = -u where v0 is the image distance due to the
objective and u is the object distance for the objective or the compound microscope. I 1G1 is negative and
∴ m0 = v0U (∵ I1G1OJ = m0)

OJ is positive.
∴ me = (1 + Dfe)
To find me : The eyepiece behaves like a simple microscope. So the magnifying power of the eye piece.
Where fe is the focal length of the eyepiece.

Substituting m0 and me in equation (1),
m = +v0u(1+Dfe)
When the object is very close to the principal focus F 0 of the objective, the image due to the objective
becomes very close to the eyepiece,
u ≈ -f0 and v0 ≈ L
Where L is the length of the microscope. Then
m ≈ −Lf0(1+Dfe)
Question 2.
a) Define Snell’s Law. Using a neat labelled diagram derive an expression for the refractive index of the
material of an equilateral prism.
b) A ray of light, after passing through a medium, meets the surface separating the medium from air at an
angle of 45° and is just not refracted. What is the refractive index of the medium ?
Answer:
a) Snell’s law:
The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is constant, called the
refractive index of the medium.
sinisinr = μ (constant).
Let ABC be the glass prism. Its angle of prism is A. The refractive index of the material of the prism is p.
Let AB and AC be the two refracting surfaces PQ = incident ray, RS = emergent ray.
Let angle of incidence = i1
angle of emergence = i2
angle of refraction = r1
angle of refraction at R = r2
After travelling through the prism it falls on AC and emerges as RS.
The D angle of deviation.
r1 + r2 + ∠T = 180° ……………….. (1)

From the ∆ QRT
∠A + ∠T = 180°
From the quadrilateral AQTR
∠T = 180° – A ………………. (2)
r1 + r2 + ∠T = 180° we get
From the equations (1) and (2)
r1 + r2 + 180° – A = 180°
r1 + r1 = A ………………. (3)
from the ∆ QUR
i1 – r1 + i2 – r2 + 180° – D = 180°
i1 + i2 = (r1 + r2) = D
i1 + i2 – A = D [∵r1 + r2 = A]
i1 + i2 = A + D ……………… (4)
Minimum deviation : Experimentally it is found that as the angle of incidence increased the angle of
deviation decreases till it reaches a minimum value and then it increases. This least value of deviation is
called angle of minimum deviation ‘δ’ as shown in the fig.
When D decreases the two angles i1 and i2 become closer to each other at the angle of minimum
deviation, the two angles of incidence are same i.e, i 1 = i2.
∴ i1 = i2 = i, r1 = r2 = r
As i1 = i2, r1 = r2
2r = A ⇒ r = A/2
substituting this in (1) and (2) we get
i + i = A + δ ⇒ i = A+δ2
According to Snell’s law μ =
μ=
Note :The minimum deviation depends on the refractive index of the prism material and the angle of the
prism.
μ = 1sinc ⇒ μ = 1sin45∘
b) Given that i = C = 45°
μ = 11/2√=2–√
μ = 1.414
Textual Examples
Question 1.
Suppose that the lower half of the concave mirror’s reflecting surface in figure is covered with an opaque
(non- reflective) material. What effect will this have on the image of an object p’ iced in front of the mirror
?
Solution:
You may think that the image will now show only half of the object, but taking the laws of reflection to be
true for all points of the remaining part of the mirror, the image will be that of the whole object. However,
as the area of the re-fleeting surface has been reduced, the intensity of the image will be low (in this
case, half).
Question 2.
A mobile phone lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror, as shown in Fig. Show by suitable
diagram, the formation of its image. Explain why the magnification is not uniform. Will the distortion of
image depend on the location of the phone with respect to the mirror ?
Solution:
The ray diagram for the formation of the image of the phone is shown in fig. The image of the part which
is on the plane perpendicular to principal axis will be on the same plane. It will be of the same size, i.e.,
B’C = BC. You can yourself realise why the image is distorted.
Question 3.
An object is placed at (i) 10 cm. (ii) 5 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 15cm. Find the
position, nature, and magnification of the image in each case.
Solution:
The focal length f = – 15/2 cm = – 7.5 cm
i) The object distance u = – 10 cm. Then
Eq. 1v+1u=1f gives
1v+1−10=1−7.5
or υ = 10×7.5−2.5 = -30 cm
The image is 30 cm from the mirror on the same side as the object.
Also, magnification
m = –vu=−(−30)(−10) = -3
The image is magnified, real and inverted.
ii) The object distance u = -5cm. Then
from Eq. 1v+1u=1f
1v+1−5=1−7.5
or υ = 5×7.5(7.5−5) = 15 cm
This image is formed at 15 cm behind the mirror. It is a virtual image.
Magnification m = – vu=−15(−5) = 3
The image is magnified, virtual and erect.
Question 4.
Suppose while sitting in a parked car, you notice a jogger approaching towards you in the side view mirror
of R = 2 m. If the jogger is running at a speed of 5ms-1, how fast the image of the jogger appear to move
when the jogger is (a) 39 m, (b) 29m, (c) 19 m and (d) 9 m away.
Solution:
From the mirror equation, Eq. 1v+1u=1f
we get
υ = fuu−f
For convex mirror, since R = 2m, f = 1 m.
Then for u = -39 m. v = (39)×1−39−1
= 3940
Since the jogger moves at a constant speed of 5ms”1, after Is the position of the image u (for u = – 39 +
5 = – 34) is (34/35) m.
The shift in the position of image in 1 s is
3940−3435=1365−13601400=51400
Therefore, the average speed of the im-age when the jogger is between 39 m and 34 m from the mirror,
is (1/280) ms-1. Similarly, it can be seen that for u = – 29 m, -19 m and -9 m, the speed with which the
image appears to move is 1150ms-1, 160 ms-1 and 110 ms-1 respectively.
Question 5.
The earth takes 24 h to rotate once about its axis. How much time does the sun take to shift by 1° when
viewed from the earth ?
Solution:
Time taken for 360° shift = 24h
Time taken for 1° shift = 24/360
h = 4 min.
Question 6.
Light from a point source in air falls on a spherical glass surface (n = 1.5 and radius of curvature = 20
cm). The distance of the light source from the glass surface is 100 cm. At what position the image is
formed ?
Solution:
We use the relation given by Eq.
h2v−hu=h2−h1R Here
u = – 100 cm, υ = ?. R = + 20 cm, n1 = 1, and n2 = 1.5. We then have
1.5v+1100=0.520
or υ = + 100 cm
Question 7.
A magician during a show makes a glass lens with n = 1.47 disappear in a trough of liquid. What is the
refractive index of the liquid ? Could the liquid be water ?
Answer:
The refractive index of the liquid must be equal to 1.47 in order to make the lens disappear. This means
n1 = n2. This gives 1/f = 0 or f → ∞. The lens in the liquid will act like a plane sheet of glass. No, the liquid
is not water. It could be glycerine.
Question 8.
(i) If f = 0.5 m for a glass lens, what is the power of the lens ? (ii) The radii of curvature 6f the faces of a
double convex lens are 10 cm and 15cm. Its focal length is 12 cm. What is the refractive index of glass ?
(iii) A convex lens has 20 cm focal length in air. What is focal length in water ?
(Refractive index of air-water = 1.33. Refractive index for air – glass = 1.5.)
Solution:
i) Power = + 2 dioptre.
ii) Here, we have f = + 12 cm,
R1 = + 10 cm, R2 = – 15 cm.
Refractive index of air is taken as unity.
We use the lens formula of Eq. h1DB+h1DB=h1f. The sign convention has to be applied for f, R1 and R2.
Substituting the values, we have
112 = (n – 1) (110 – 1−15)
This gives n = 1.5.
iii) For a glass lens in air, n2 = 1.5, n: = 1, f = + 20cm. Hence, the lens formula gives.
120=0.5[1R1−1R2]
For the same glass lens in water. n2 = 1.5, n1 = 1.33. Therefore,
1.33f=(1.5−1.33)[1R1−1R2]
Combining the above two equations, we find f = + 78.2 cm.
Question 9.
Find the position of the image formed by the lens combination given in the fig.
Solution:
Image formed by the first lens
1v1−1u=1f1
1v1−1−30=110
or v1 = 15 cm
The image formed by the first lens serves as the object for the second. This is at a distance of (15 – 5) cm
= 10 cm to the right of the second lens. Though the image is reeil, it serves as a virtual object for the
second lens, which means that the rays appear to come from it for the second lens.
1v3−110=1−10 or v2 ∞
The virtual image is formed at an infinite distance to the left of the second lens. This acts as an object for
the third lens.
1v3−1u3=1f3 or 1v3−1∞+130
or v3 = 30 cm
The final image is formed 30 cm to the right of the third lens.
Question 10.
What focal length should the reading spectacles have for a person for whom the least distance of distinct
vision is 50 cm ?
Solution:
The distance of normal vision is 25cm. So if a book is at u= – 25 cm. Its image should be formed at υ = –
50 cm. There-fore, the desired focal length given by
1f=1v−1u or 1f=1−50−1−25=150
or f = + 50 cm (convex lens).
Question 11.
a) The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye. What is ,. the power of the lens required
to enable him to see very distant objects clearly ?
b) In what way does the corrective lens help the above person ? Does the lens magnify very distant
objects ? Explain carefully.
c) The above person prefers to remove his spectacles while reading a book. Explain why?
Solution:
a) Solving as in the previous example, we find that the person should use a concave lens of focal length =
– 80 cm. i.e:, of power = – 1.25 dioptres.
b) No. The concave lens, in fact, reduces the size of the object, but the angle subtended by the image (at
the far point) at the eye. The eye is able to see distant objects not because the corrective lens magnifies
the object, but because it brings the (i.e., it produces virtual image of the object) at the far point of the
eye which then can be focussed by the eye-lens on the retina.
c) The myopic person may have a normal near point, i.e., about 25 cm (or even less). In order to read a
book with the spectacles, such a person must keep the book at a distance greater than 25cm so that the
image of the book by the concave lens is produced not closer than 25cm. The angular size of the book (dr
its image) at the greater distance is evidently less than the angular size when the book is placed at 25 cm
and no spectacles are needed. Hence, the person prefers to remove the spectacles while reading.
Question 12.
a) The near point of a hypermetropic person is 75 cm from the eye. What is the power of the lens required
to enable the person to read clearly a book held at 25cm from the eye ?
b) In what way does the corrective lens help the above person ? Does the lens magnify objects held near
the eye ?
c) The above person prefers to remove the spectacles while looking at the sky. Explain why? .
Solution:
a) u = – 25 cm, υ = – 75 cm
1/f = 1/25 – 1/75, i.e., f = 37.5 cm.
The corrective lens- needs to have a converging power of +2.67 dioptres.
b) The corrective lens produces a virtual image (at 75 cm) of an object at 25 cm. The angular size of this
image is the same as that of the object. In this sense the lens does not magnify the object but merely
brings the object to the near point of the hypermetric eye, which then gets focussed on the retina.
However, the angular size is greater than that of the same object at the near point (75 cm) viewed
without the spectacles.
c) A hypermetropic eye may have normal far point i.e., it may have enough converging power to focus
parallel rays from infinity on the retina of the shortened eyeball. Wearing spectacles of converging lenses
(used for near vision) will amount to more converging power than needed for parallel rays. Hence the
person prefers not to use the spectacles for far objects.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Important Questions 3rd Lesson Wave Optics
Question 1.
Explain Doppler effect in light. Distinguish between red shift and blue shift. [T.S. Mar. 16]
Answer:
Doppler effect in light : The change in the apparent frequency of light, due to relative motion between
source of light and observer. This phenomenon is called Doppler effect.
The apparent frequency of light increases when the distance between observer and source of light is
decreasing and the apparent frequency of light decreases, if the distance between source of light and
observer increasing.
Doppler shift can be expressed as = Δvv=−vradial c
Applications of Doppler effect in light:
1. It is used in measuring the speed of a star and speed of galaxies.
2. Measuring the speed of rotation of the sun.
Red shift: The apparent increase in wave length in the middle of the visible region of the spectrum moves
towards the red end of the spectrum is called red shift.
Blue shift: When waves are received from a source moving towards the observer, there is an apparent
decrease in wave length, this is called blue shift.
Question 2.
Derive the expression for the intensity at a point where interference of light occurs. Arrive at the
conditions for maximum and zero intensity. [A.P. Mar. 16; T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Let y1 and y2 be the displacements of the two waves having same amplitude a and <|> is the phase
difference between them.
y1 = a sin ωt …………… (1)

y2 = a sin (ωt + Φ) …………….. (2)
The resultant displacement y = y1 + y2
y = a sin ωt + a sin (ωt + Φ)
y = a sin ωt + a sin ωt cos Φ + a cos ωt sin Φ
y = a sin ωt [1 + cos Φ] + cos ωt (a sin Φ)
Let R cos θ = a(1+ cos Φ) ……………….. (4)
R sin θ = a sin Φ ………………. (5)
y = R sin ωt. cos θ + R cos ωt. sin θ
y = R sin (ωt + θ) ………………… (6)
where R is the resultant amplitude at P, squaring equations (4) and (5), then adding
R2 [cos2 θ + sin2 θ] = a2[l + cos2 Φ + 2 cos Φ + sin2 Φ]
R2 [1] = a2 [1 + 1 + 2 cos Φ]
I = R2 = 2a2 [1 + cos Φ] = 2a2 × 2 cos2 ϕ2;
I = 4a2 cos2 ϕ2 …………. (7)
i) Minimum intensity (Imax)
cos2 ϕ2 = 1
Φ = 2nπ Where n = 0, 1, 2, 3 ……….
∴ Imax = 4a2.
Φ = 0, 2π, 4π, 6π
ii) Minimum intensity (Imin)

cos2 θ2 = 1
Φ = (2n + 1)π Where n = 0, 1, 2, 3 ……….
∴ Imin = 0
Φ = π, 3π, 5π, 7π …………..
Question 3.
Does the principle of conservation of energy hold for interference and diffraction phenomena? Explain
briefly. [Mar. 14]
Answer:
Yes, law of conservation of energy is obeyed. In case of constructive interference, intensity becomes
maximum. Hence bright fringes are formed on the screen where as in the case of destructive
interference, intensity becomes minimum. Hence dark fringes are formed on the screen.
This establishes that in the interference and diffraction pattern, the intensity of light is simply being
redistributed i.e., energy is being transferred from dark fringe to bright fringe. No energy is being created
(or) destroyed in the process. Hence energy is redistributed.
Thus the principle of conservation of energy is being obeyed in the process of interference and diffraction.
Question 4.
How do you determine the resolving power of your eye ? [A.P. Mar. 17]
Answer:
Make black strips of equal width separated by white strips. All the black strips having same width, while
the width of white strips should increase from left to right.
Now watch the pattern with one eye. By moving away (or) closer to the wall, find the position where you
can just see some two black strips as separate strips.
All black strips to the left of this strips would merge into one another and would not be distinguishable on
the other hand, the black strips to the right of this would be more and more clearly visible.
Note the width d of the white strips and measure the distance D of the wall from eye.
Then resolution of your eye = dD
Question 5.
Explain polarisation of light by reflection and arrive at Brewster’s law from it.
Answer:
Polarisation of light by reflection : When unpolarized light is incident on the boundary of a denser
medium, at a particular angle of incidence the reflected light is completely plane polarised. This incident
angle is called Brewster’s angle (iB).
Brewster’s law:
When light is incident on a transparent surface at Brewster s angle, then reflected and refracted rays are
at right angles to each other.
∴ iB + r = π2 ⇒ r = π2 – iB
From snell’s law, refractive index,
n = siniBsinr=siniBsin(π2−iB)=siniBcosiB = tan iB
n = taniB, This is known as Brewster’s law.
Brewster’s law – statement: The refractive index of a denser medium is equal to tangent of the polarising
angle.
Question 6.
Discuss the intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet is rotated between two crossed polaroids.
[T.S. Mar. 17; Mar. 12]
Answer:
Let I0 be the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polariser P 1. Then the intensity of
light after passing through second polariser P2 will be I = I0cos2θ.
Where θ is the angle between pass axes P1 and P2. Since P1 and P2 are crossed the angle between the
pass axes of P2 and P3 will be (π2 – θ)
Hence the intensity of light emerging from P3 will be
I = I0cos2θ . cos2(π2 – θ)
= I0cos2θ . sin2θ
∴ The transmitted intensity will be maximum when θ = π4.

I = I04 sin2 2θ

Question 1.
Distinguish between Coherent and Incoherent addition of waves. Develop the theory of constructive
interferences.
Answer:
Coherent sources : The two sources which maintain zero (or) any constant phase relation between
themselves are known as Coherent sources.
Incoherent sources : If the phase difference changes with time, the two sources are known as incoherent
sources.
Theory of constructive and destructive interference :
Let the waves of two coherent sources be
y1 = a sin ωt ………………….. (1)
y2 = a sin (ωt + Φ) …………….. (2)
where a is amplitude and Φ is the phase difference between two displacements.
According to superposition principle, y = y1 + y2
y = a sin ωt + a sin (ωt + Φ) = a sin ωt + a sin ω cos Φ + a cos ωt sin Φ
y = a sin ωt [1 + cos Φ] + cos ωt [a sin Φ] ………………….. (3)
Let A cos θ = a(1 + cos Φ], ………………. (4)
A sin θ = a sin Φ ……………… (5)
Substituting equations (4) and (5) in equation (3)
y = A sin ωt. cos θ + A cos ωt sin θ
y = A sin (ωt + θ) …………………… (6)
Where A is resultant amplitude. Squaring equations (4) and (5), then adding
A2[cos2 θ + sin2 θ] = a2[1 + cos2 Φ + 2 cos Φ + sin2 Φ]
A2 [1] = a2 [1 + 1 + 2 cos Φ]
I = A2 = 2a2 [1 + cos Φ]
I = 2a2 × 2 cos2 ϕ2
I = 4a2 cos2 ϕ2
I = 4I0 cos2 ϕ2 …………….. (7) [∵ I0 = a2]
cos ϕ2 = 1 ⇒ Φ = 2nπ
Case (i) For constructive interference: Intensity should be maximum.
Where n = 0, 1, 2, 3 ⇒ Φ = 0, 2π, 4π, 6π ………….. Imax = 4I0
i.e., cos Φ = 0 ⇒ Φ = (2n + 1) π ; where π = 0, 1, 2, 3 ; Φ = π, 3π, 5π ⇒ Imin = 0.

Case (ii) For destructive interference: Intensity should be minimum
Question 2.
Describe Young’s experiment for observing interference and hence arrive at the expression for ‘fringe
width’.
Answer:
Interference: The modification of intensity obtained by the super position of two (or) more light waves is
called interference.
Description :
1. Thomas Young experimentally observed the phenomenon of interference of light using two
coherent sources.
2. A small pin hole ‘S’ illuminated by monochromatic source of light which produces a spherical wave.
3. S1 and S2 are two narrow pin holes equidistant from S.
4. Screen is placed at a distance D.
5. The points at which any two crests (or) any two troughs are superimposed, constructive
interference takes place bright fringe will be observed on the screen.
6. The points at which crest of one wave and trough of another wave are superimposed, destructive
interference takes place dark fringe will be observed on the screen.
7. Thus on the screen alternately bright and dark frings are observed.
Expression for fringe width :
1. It is the distance between two successive bright (or) dark fringes, denoted by β.
The path difference (δ) = d sin θ

2. If θ is very small then from figure sin θ ≈ tan θ = xD
∴ d sin θ = nλ
3. For bright fringes path difference S2P – S1P = nλ
d × xD = nλ
x = nλDd ……………. (1) where n = 0, 1, 2, 3 …………….
This equation represents the position of bright fringe.
When n = 0, x0 = 0.
n = 1, x1 = λDd and n = 2, x2 = 2λDd
The distance between any two consecutive bright fringes is
4. For dark fringes path difference S2P – S1P = (2n + 1) λ2 ∴ d sin θ = (2n + 1) λ2
x2 – x1 = 2λDd−λDd⇒β=λDd ………… (2)
d × xD = (2n + 1) λ2 ⇒ x = (2n+1)λD2d ………….. (3) where n = 0, 1, 2, 3…………
When n = 0, x0 = λD2d ⇒ n = 1, x1 = 3λD2d; n = 2, x2 = 5λD2d ………….

This equation (3) represents, position of dark fringe.
The distance between any two consecutive dark fringes is x 2 – x1 = 5λD2 d−3λD2 d=5λD−3λD2 d
β = λDd …………………….. (4)
Hence fringe width is same for bright and dark fringes.
Problems
Question 1.
What speed should a galaxy move with respect to us so that the sodium line at 589.0 nm is observed at
589.6 nm ? .
Solution:
Since vλ = c, Δvv=Δλλ
(for small changes in v and λ). For
∆λ = 589.6 – 589.0 = + 0.6 nm
we get [usmg Equation Δvv=vradial c]
or, υradial ≅ + c(0.6589.0) = +3.06 × 105 m s-1

Δvv=−Δλλ=−vradial c˙
= 306 km/s
Therefore, the galaxy is moving away from us.
Question 2.
Unpolarised light is incident on a plane glass surface. What should be the angle of the incidence so that
the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other ?
Solution:
For i + r to be equal to π/2, we should have tan iB = μ = 1.5. This gives iB = 57°. This is the Brewster’s
angle for air to glass interface.
Question 3.
What is the Brewster angle for air to glass transition ? (Refractive index of glass = 1.5.)
Solution:
∴ ip = tan-1 (1.5); ip = 56.3

Here, ip = ? μ = 1.5; As tan ip = μ = 1.5
Question 4.
In Young’s double-slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity of light at a
point on the screen where path difference is λ, is K units. What is the intensity of light at a point where
path difference is λ/3 ?
Solution:
Let I1 = I2 = I. If Φ is phase difference between the two light waves, then resultant intensity,
IR = I1 + I2 + 2I1I2−−−√ . cos Φ
∴ IR = I + I + 2 II −−−√ . cos 0° = 4I = k
When path difference = λ, Phase difference Φ = 0°
∴ IR = I + I + 2 II −−−√ cos 2π3 ⇒ I’R = 2I + 2I(−12) = I = k4

When path difference = λ3, phase difference Φ = 2π3 rad
Question 5.
Assume that light of wavelength 6000Å is coming from a star. What is the limit of resolution of a
telescope whose objective has a diameter of 100 inch ?
Solution:
A 100 inch telescope implies that 2a = 100 inch = 254 cm. Thus if,
λ = 6000 Å = 6 × 10-5 cm
then ∆θ ≈ 0.61×6×10−5127
= 2.9 × 10-7 radians.
Question 6.
In a Youngs double-slit experiment, the slits are separated by 0.28 mm and the screen is placed 1.4 m
away. The distance between the central bright fringe and the fourth bright fringe is measured to be 1.2
cm. Determine the wavelength of light used in the experiment.
Solution:
Since, β = Dd nλ ⇒ βn⋅dD ⇒ λ = 1.2×10−2×2.8×10−24×1.4

d = 0.28 mm = 0.28 × 10-3 m, D = 1.4 m, β = 1.2 × 10-2 m, n = 4
⇒ λ = 600 × 10-9 m
⇒ λ = 600 nm.
Textual Examples
Question 1.
What speed should a galaxy move with respect to us so that the sodium line at 589.0 nm is observed at
589.6 nm ?
Solution:
Since vλ = c, Δvv=Δλλ
(for small changes in v and λ). For
∆λ = 589.6 – 589.0 = + 0.6 nm
we get [usmg Equation Δvv=vradial c]
or, υradial ≅ + c(0.6589.0) = +3.06 × 105 m s-1

Δvv=−Δλλ=−vradial c˙
= 306 km/s
Therefore, the galaxy is moving away from us.
Question 2.
(a) When monochromatic light is incident on a surface separating, two media, the reflected and refracted
light both have the same frequency as the incident frequency. Explain why ?
(b) When light travels from a rarer to a denser medium, the speed decreases. Does the reduction in speed
imply a reduction in the energy carried by the light wave ?
(c) In the wave picture of light, intensity of light is determined by the square of the amplitude of the wave.
What determines the intensity of light in the photon picture of light.
Solution:
a) Reflection and refraction arise through interaction of incident light with the atomic constituents of
matter. Atoms may be viewed as oscillators, which take up the frequency of the external agency (light)
and undergo forced oscillations. The frequency of light emitted by a charged oscillator equals its
frequency of oscillation. Thus, the frequency of scattered light equals the frequency of incident light.
b) No. energy carried by a wave depends on the amplitude of the wave, not on the speed of wave
propagation.
c) For a given frequency, intensity of light in the photon picture is determined by the number of photons
crossing ah unit area per unit time.
Question 3.
Two slits are made one millimetre apart and the screen is placed one metre away. What is the fringe
separation when blue*: green light of wavelength 500 nm is used ?
Solution:
Fringe spacing = Dλd=1×5×10−71×10−3 m
= 5 × 10-4 m = 0.5 mm
Question 4.
What is the effect on the interference fringes in a Young’s double-slit experiment due to each of the
following operations :
(a) the screen is moved away from the plane of the slits;
(b) the (monochromatic) source is replaced by another (monochro-matic) source of shorter wavelength;
(c) the separation between the two slits is increased;
(d) the source slit is moved Closer to the double-slit plane;
(e) the width of the source slit is increased;
(f) the monochromatic source is replaced by a source of white light ?
(In each operation, take all parameters, other than the one specified, to remain unchanged.)
Solution:
a) Angular separation of the fringes remains constant (= λ/d). The actual separation of the fringes
increases in proportion to the distance of the screen from the plane of the two slits.
b) The separation of the fringes (and also angular separation) decreases. See, however, the condition
mentioned in (d) below.
c) The separation of the fringes (and also angular separation) decreases. See however, the condition
mentioned in (d) below.
d) Let s be the size of the source and S its distance from the plane of the two slits. For interference fringes
to be seen, the condition s/S < λ/d should be satisfied; otherwise, interference patterns produced by
different parts of the source overlap and no fringes are seen. Thus, as S decreases (i.e., the source slit is
brought closer), the interference pattern gets less and less sharp, and when the source is brought too
close for this condition to be valid, the fringes disappear. Till this happens, the fringe separation remains
fixed.
e) Same as in (d). As the source slit which increases, fringe pattern gets less and less sharp. When the
source slit is so wide that the condition s/S ≤ λ/d is not satisfied, the interference pattern disappears.
f) The interference patterns due to different component colours of white light overlap (incoherently). The
central bright fringes for different colours are at the same position. Therefore, the central fringe is white.
For a point P for which S2P – S1P = λb/2, where λb (≈ 4000 Å) represents the wavelength for the blue
colour, the blue component will be absent and the fringe will appear red in colour. Slightly farther away
where S2Q – S1Q = λb = λr/2 where λr (≈ 8000 Å) is the wavelength for the red colour, the fringe will be
predominantly blue.
Thus, the fringe closest on either side of the central white fringe is red and the farthest will appear blue.
After a few fringes, no clear fringe pattern is seen.
Question 5.
In Textual Example 3, what should the width of each slit be to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit pattern
within the central maximum of the single slit pattern ?
Solution:
We want aθ = λ, θ = λa
10 λd = 2λa, a = d5 = 0.2 mm
Question 6.
Assume that light of wavelength 6000 Å is coming from a star. What is the limit of resolution of a
telescope whose objective has a diameter of 100 inch ?
Solution:
A 100 inch telescope implies that 2a =100 inch = 254 cm.
Thus if,
λ = 6000 Å = 6 × 10-5 cm
then
∆θ ≈ 0.61×6×10−5127
≈ 2.9 × 10-7 radians.
Question 7.
For what distance is ray optics a good approximation when the aperture is 3 mm wide and the wavelength
is 500 nm ?
Solution:
ZF = a2λ=(3×10−3)25×10−7 = 18 m
Question 8.
Discuss the intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet is rotated between two crossed
polaroids ?
Solution:
Let I0 be the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polariser P 1. Then the intensity of
light after passing through second polariser P2 will be I = I0cos2θ,
where θ is the angle between pass axes of P1 and P2. Since P2 and P3 are crossed the angle between the
pass axes of P2 and P3 will be (π/2 – θ). Hence the intensity of light emerging from P3 will be
I = I0cos2θ cos2 (π2 – θ)
= I0 cos2 θ sin2 θ = (I0/4) sin2 2θ
Therefore, the ‘transmitted intensity will be maximum when θ = π/4.
Question 9.Unpolarised light is incident on a plane glass surface. What should be the angle of the
incidence so that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other ?
Solution:For i + r to be equal to π/2, we should have tan i B = μ = 1.5. This gives iB = 57°. This is the
Brewster’s angle for air to glass interface.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Important Questions 8th Lesson Magnetism and Matter
Question 1.
A magnetic dipole placed in a magnetic field experiences a net force. What can you say about the nature
of the magnetic field ?
Answer:
The nature of the magnetic field is uniform, magnetic dipole (bar magnet) experiences a net force (or
torque).
Question 2.
Do you find two magnetic field lines intersecting ? Why ?
Answer:
Two magnetic field lines never intersect. If they intersect, at the point of intersection the field can have
two directions. This is impossible. So, two field lines never intersect.
Question 3.
What happens to the compass needles at the Earth’s poles ? [T.S. Mar. 17; IPE 2014]
Answer:
At the Earth poles, the magnetic field lines are converging or diverging,vertically so that the horizontal
component is negligible. Hence, the compass needle can point along any direction.
Question 4.
What do you understand by the ‘magnetisation’ of a sample ? Give its SI unit. [IPE 2016 (AP)]
Answer:
Magnetisation (M) of a sample is equal to its net magnetic moment per unit volume.
Magnetisation, M = mnetV, SI unit of magnetisation is Am-1.
Question 5.
What is the magnetic moment associated with a solenoid ? [IPE 2016 (TS)]
Answer:
The magnitude of magnetic moment of the solenoid is, M = n × 2l × i × πa 2
where, ‘n’ is number of turns, ‘2l’ is length of the solenoid, ‘i’ is current passing through coil, and ‘a’ is
area of cross section of solenoid.
Question 6.
What are the units of magnetic moment, magnetic induction and magnetic field ? [IPE 2016 (AP), (TS)]
Answer:
The unit of magnetic moment (M) is ampere-meter2 (Am2).
The unit of magnetic induction (B) is tesla (T) or N/A-m.
The unit of magnetic field (B) is tesla.
Question 7.
Magnetic lines form continuous closed loops. Why ? [T.S. 2017; IPE 2016(AP)]
Answer:
Magnetic lines are imaginary lines. Within the magnet, they move from south pole to north pole and
outside the magnet they move from north pole to south pole. Hence, magnetic lines form continuous
closed loops.
Question 8.
Define magnetic declination. [IPE 2016 (TS)]
Answer:
Magnetic declination at a place is the angle between magnetic meridian and geographic meridian at that
place.
Question 9.
Define magnetic inclination or angle of dip. [A.P. Mar. 17; A.P. & T.S. 2015 (TS), 14]
Answer:
Magnetic inclination at a place is the angle between direction of total strength of earth’s magnetic field
and horizontal line in magnetic meridian.
Question 10.
Classify the following materials with regard to magnetism: Manganese, Cobalt, Nickel, Bismuth, Oxygen,
Copper. [T.S. 2015, 2016 (TS); A.P. Mar. 17]
Answer:
Manganese …………. Paramagnetic
Cobalt ………….. Ferromagnetic
Nickel …………….. Ferromagnetic
Bismuth ……………. Diamagnetic
Oxygen ………………. Paramagnetic
Copper …………………. Diamagnetic
Question 11.
The force between two magnet poles separated by a distance ‘d’ in air is ‘F’. At what distance between
them does the force become doubled ?
Answer:
Force between two magnetic poles, F1 = F;
Distance between two magnetic poles, d1 = d
Force between two magnetic poles increased by double F2 = 2F
Distance between two magnetic poles, d2 = ?
From Coulombs law, F1d12 = F2 d22
⇒ d22 = d22
Fd2 = 2 F d22
d2 = d2√
Question 12.
If B is the magnetic field produced at the centre of a circular coil of one turn of length L carrying current I
then what is the magnetic field at the centre of the same coil which is made into 10 turns ?
Answer:
For first circular coil; B1 = B, n1 = 1; I1 = I; a1 = L2π
As B = μ0nIa22r, B ∝ n.
For second circular coil, B2 = ? n2 = 10; I2 = I; a2 = L2π
B2 B1=n2n1
∴ B2 = 10 B
B2 B=101
Question 13.
If the number of turns of a solenoid is doubled, keeping the other factors constant, how does the
magnetic field at the axis of the solenoid change ?
Answer:
B1 = B (say); n1 = n; n2 = 2n; B2 = ?
As I, a2, 2l and r are constants, B ∝ n

Magnetic field at the centre of a solenoid is given by B = μ0nIa2(2l)2r3
⇒ B2 B1=n2n1⇒B2 B=2nn
∴ B2 = 2B
Question 14.
A closely wound solenoid of 800 turns and area of cross section 2.5 × 10 -4 m2 carries a current of 3.0A.
Explain the sense in which the solenoid acts like a bar magnet. What is its associated magnetic moment ?
Answer:
Here n = 800, a = 2.5 × 10-4 m2, I = 3.0 A
A magnetic field develop along the axis of the solenoid. Therefore the current carrying solenoid behaves
like a bar magnet
m = N IA = 800 × 3.0 × 2.5 × 10-4
= 0.6 Am2 along the axis of solenoid.
Question 1.
Compare the properties of para, dia and ferromagnetic substances.
Answer:
Diamagnetic substances
a) When these materials placed in a magnetic field, they are magnetised feebly in the opposite direction
to the applied external field.
b) When a rod of diamagnetic material is suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field, it comes to rest in
the perpe-ndicular direction to the magnetic field.
c) When they are kept in a non-uniform magnetic field, they move from the region of greater field
strength to the region of less field strength.
d) The relative permeability is less than 1. μr < 1 and negative.
e) The susceptibility (χ) is low and negative.
E.g.: Copper, Silver, Water, Gold, Antimony, Bismuth, Mercury, Quartz Diamond etc.
Paramagnetic substances
a) When these materials placed in a magnetic field, they are magnetised feebly in the direction of the
applied magnetic field.
b) When a rod of paramagnetic material is suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field, it comes to rest
in the direction of the applied magnetic field.
c) When they are kept in a non-uniform magnetic field„they move from the region of less field strength to
the region of greater field strength.
d) The relative permeability is greater than 1. μr > 1 and positive.
e) The susceptibility (χ) is small and positive.
E.g.: Aluminium, Magnesium, Tungsten, Platinum, Mang-anese, liquid oxygen, Ferric chloride, Cupric
chloride etc.
Ferromagnetic substances
a) When these materials placed in a magnetic field,they are magnetised strongly in the direction of the
applied external field.
b) When a rod of ferromagnetic material is suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field, it comes to rest
in the direction of the applied magnetic field.
c) When they are kept in a non-uniform magnetic field they move from the regions of lesser (magnetic
field) strength to the regions of stronger (magnetic field) strength.
d) The relative permeability is much greater than 1. μr >> 1 and positive.
e) The susceptibility (χ) is high and positive.
E.g.: Iron, Cobalt, Nickel, Gadolinium and their alloys.
Question 2.
Explain the elements of the Earth’s magnetic field and draw a sketch showing the relationship between
the vertical component, horizontal component and angle of dip.
Answer:
The magnetic field of the earth at a point on its surface can be specified by the declination D, the angle of
dip or the inclination I and the horizontal component of the earth’s field HE. These are known as the
elements of the earth’s magnetic field.
Explanation:
1. The total magnetic field at P can be resolved into a horizontal component H E and a vertical
component ZE.
2. The angle that BE makes with HE is the angle of dip, I.
3. Representing the vertical component by ZE, we have
ZE= BE Sin I
HE = BE Cos I
Which gives Tan I = ZEHE
Question 3.
Define magnetic susceptibility of a material. Name two elements one having positive susceptibility and
other having negative susceptibility.
Answer:
1. Susceptibility: When a material is placed in a magnetic field, the ratio of the intensity of
magnetization acquired by it to the intensity of the applied magnetic field is called its
susceptibility.
Suspectibility χ = Intensity of magnetisation, I Applied magnetic field, H
2. The susceptibility of a material represents its ability to get magnetism.
3. Susceptibility is a dimension less quantity.
4. Relation between μr and χ :
a) Suppose that material is placed in a magnetic field of intensity H. Let I be the intensity of
magnetisation acquired by it.
B = μ0H + μ0I ⇒ BH = μ0[1 + IH]

b) Then the magnetic induction within the material is
⇒ μ = μ0[1 + χ] ⇒ μμ0 = 1 + χ
∴ μr = 1 + χ [∵μr = μμ0]
5. Negative susceptibility (χ) of diamagnetic elements are Bismuth (-1.66 × 10 -5) and copper (-9.8 ×
10-6).
6. Positive susceptibility of paramagnetic elements are Aluminium (2.3 × 10 -5) and oxygen at STP
(2.1 × 10-6).
7. Large and positive susceptibility of Ferromagnetic elements are Cobalt and Nickel.
Question 4.
Derive an expression for magnetic field induction on the equatorial line of a barmagnet. [Board Model
Paper]
Answer:
At a point on equatorial line: Let us consider a point ‘P’ at a distance ‘d’ on the equatorial line from the
centre of a bar magnet.
Qeustion 5.
What do you understand by “hysteresis” ? How does this propertry influence the choice of materials used
in different appliances where electromagnets are used ?
Answer:
1. Cycle of magnetisation : When a ferromagnetic specimen is slowly magnetised, the intensity of
magnetisation varies with magnetic field through a cycle is called cycle of magnetisation.
2. Hysterisis : The lagging of intensity of magnetisation (I) and magnetic induction (B) behind
magnetic field intensity (H) when a magnetic specimen is subjected to a cycle of magnetisation is
called hysterisis.
3. Retentivity : The value of I for which H = 0 is called retentivity or residual magnetism.
4. Coercivity: The value of magnetising force required to reduce I is zero in reverse direction of H is
called coercive force or coercivity.
5. Hysterisis curve : The curve represents the relation between B or I of a ferromagnetic material with
magnetising force or magnetic intensity H is known as Hysterisis curve.
6. Explanation of hysterisis loop or curve :
a) In fig, a closed curve ABCDEFA in H – I plane, called hysteris loop is shown in fig.
b) When ferromagnetic specimen is slowly magnetised, I increases with H.
c) Part OA of the curve shows that I increases with H.
d) At point A, the value I becomes constant is called saturation value.
e) At B, I has some value while H is zero.
f) In fig. BO represents retentivity. and OC represents coercivity.
7. Uses : The properties of hysterisis curve, i.e., saturation, retentivity, coercivity and hysterisis loss
help us to choose the material for specific purpose.
1. Permanent magnets : A permanent magnet should have both large retentivity and large
coercivity. Permanent magnets are used in galvanometers, voltmeres, ammeters, etc.
2. An electromagnet core : The electromagnet core material should have maximum induction
field B even with small fields H, low hysterisis loss and high initial permeability.
3. Transformer cores, Dynamocore, Chokes, Telephone diaphragms: The core material should
have high initial permeability, low hysterisis loss and high specific resistance to reduce eddy
currents. Soft iron is the best suited material.
Question 6.
Prove that a bar magnet and a solenoid produce similar fields.
Answer:
Bar magnet produce similar field of Solenoid :
1. We know that the current loop acts as a magnetic dipole. According to Ampere’s all magnetic
phenomena can be explained in terms of circulating currents.
2. Cutting a bar magnet is like a solenoid. We get two similar solenoids with weaker magnetic
properties.
3. The magnetic field lines remain continuous, emerging from one face of solenoid and entering into
other face of solenoid.
4. If we were to move a small compass needle in the neighbourhood of a bar magnet and a current
carrying solenoid, we would find that the deflections of the needle are similar in both cases as
shown in diagrams.
The axial field of a finite solenoid in order to demonstrate its similarity to that of a bar magnet
5. The magnetic field at point P due to bar magnet in the form of solenoid is B = μ04π⋅2mr3
6. The total magnetic field, at a point P due to solenoid is given by
B = μ0nI2a2r3(2l)=μ04π2n(2l)Iπa2r3
∴ B = μ04π2 mr3
7. The magnitude of the magnetic moment of the solenoid is, m = n(2l) I (πa 2).
8. Therefore, magnetic moment of a bar magnet is equal to magnetic moment of an equivalent

solenoid that produces the same magnetic field.
Question 7.
A small magnetic needle is set into oscillations in a magnetic field B obtain an expression for the time
period of oscillation.
Answer:
Expression for time period of oscillation :
1. A small compass needle (magnetic dipole) of known magnetic moment m and moment of Inertia i
is placing in uniform magnetic field B and allowing it to oscillate in the magnetic field.
2. This arrangement is shown in Figure.
3. The torque on the needle is τ = m × B
4. In magnitude τ = mB sin θ.
Here τ is restoring torque and θ is the angle between m and B.
5. Therefore, in equilibrium i d2θdt2 = – mB sinθ. Negative sign with mB sin0 implies that restoring
torque is in opposition to deflecting torque.
6. For small values of o in radians, we approximate sinθ ≃ θ and get id2θdt2 ≃ – mBθ
d2θdt2≈−mBjθ …………….. (1)
This represents a simple harmonic motion. .
From equation (I) and (II), we get ⇒ ω2 = mBJ

7. From defination of simple harmonic motion, we have d2θdt2 = – ω2θ …………… (2)
∴ ω = mBJ−−−√
8. Therefore, the time period is T = =2πω=2πJmB−−−√
Qeustion 8.
A bar magnet, held horizontally, is set into angular oscillations in the Earth’s magnetic field. It has time
periods T1 and T2 at two places, where the angles of dip are θ1 and θ2 respectively. Deduce an expression
for the ratio of the resultant magnetic fields at the two places.
Answer:
1. Suppose, the resultant magnetic fields is to be compared at two places A and B.
2. A barmagnet, held horizontally at A and which is set into angular oscillations in the Earth’s
magnetic field.
3. Let time period of a bar magnet at place A’ is T1 and angular displacement or angle of dip is θ1.
4. As the bar magnet is free to rotate horizontally, it does nqt remain vertical component (B 1 sin θ1).
It can have only horizontal component (B1 cosθ1).
5. The time period of a bar magnet in uniform magnetic field is given by T = 2π ImBH−−−−√
6. Now, in this case T = T1 and BH = B1Cosθ1

7. Therefore time period of a bar magnet at place ‘A’ is given by
T1 = 2π ImB1cosθ1−−−−−−−√ …………… (1) Where I is moment of Inertia of a barmagnet and m
is magnitude of magnetic moment.
8. Similarly, the same bar magnet is placed at B and which is set into angular oscillations in the
earth’s magnetic field.
9. Let time period of a bar magnet at place B is T2 and angle of dip is θ2.
10. Since horizontal component of earths field at B is BH = B2 cos θ2, time period,
T2 = 2π ImB2cosθ2−−−−−−−√ ………………… (2)
11. Dividing equation (1) by equation (2), we get T1T2=mB2cosθ2mB1cosθ1−−−−−−−√
Squaring on both sides, we have T21 T22=B2cosθ2 B1cosθ1
12. But B1 = μ0H1, and B2 = μ0H2
T21 T22=μ0H2cosθ2μ0H1cosθ1
13. Therefore, H1H2=T22cosθ2 T21cosθ1
14. By knowing T1, T2 and θ1, θ2 at different places A and B, we can find the ratio of resultant magnetic
fields.
Question 9.
Obtain Gauss’ Law for magnetism and explain it.
Answer:
Gauss law for Magnetism :
1. According to Gauss’s law for magnetism, the net magnetic flux (Φ B) through any closed surface is
always zero.
2. The law implies that the no. of magnetic field lines leaving any closed surface is always equal to
the number of magnetic field lines entering it.
3. Suppose a closed surface S is held in a uniform magnetic field B. Consider a small vector area
element ∆S of this surface as shown in figure.
4. Magnetic flux through this area element is defined as ∆ΦB = B. ∆S. Then the net flux ΦB, is,
ΦB = ∑all ΔϕB=∑all B. ΔS=0
ΦB = ∮B.ds = 0 …………………. (I)

5. If the area elements are really small, we can rewrite this equation as
6. Comparing this equation with Gauss’s law of electrostatics i.e., electric flux through a closed
ΦE = ∮ E. ΔS=qε0 …………….. (II) Where q is the electric charge enclosed by the surface.
surface S is given by
7. In an electric dipole were enclosed by the surface equal and opposite charges in the dipole add
upto zero. Therefore, ΦE would be zero.
8. The fact that ΦB = 0 indicates that the simplest magnetic element is a dipole or current loop.
9. The isolated magnetic poles, called magnetic monopoles are not known to exist.
10. All magnetic phenomena can be explained interms of an arrangement of magnetic dipoles and /or
current loops.
11. Thus corresponding to equation (II) of Gauss’s theorem in electrostatics, we can visualize equation
(I) as
ΦE = ∫S B . dS = μ0 (m) + μ0 (-m) = 0 where m is strength of N-pole and -m is strength of
S – pole of same magnet.
12. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is zero.
Question 10.
What are ferromagnetic materials ? Give examples. What happens to a ferromagnetic material at curie
temperature ? [IPE 2015 (TS)]
Answer:
Ferro magnetic substances : (a) These are strongly attracted by magnet, (b) Susceptibility is large,
positive and temperature dependent, (c) Relative permeability, μr > > 1 (d) Atoms have permanent dipole
moments which are organised in domains. Ex: Iron, Cobalt, Nickel
Curie temperature : The temperature above which a ferro magnetic substance changes in to para
magnetic substance changes in to para magnetic substance is called curie temperature.
Problems
Question 1.
A coil of 20 turns has an area of 800 mm2 and carries a current of 0.5A. If it is placed in a magnetic field of
intensity 0.3T with its plane parallel to the field, what is the torque that it experiences ? ,
Answer:
n = 20; A = 800 mm2 = 800 × 10-6 m2; i = 0.5A; B = 0.3T; θ = 0°.
When the plane parallel to the field,
∴ τ = 2.4 10-3 Nm
T = Bin A cos θ = 0.3 × 0.5 × 20 × 800× 10-6 × cos 0°
Question 2.
In the Bohr atom model the electrons move around the nucleus in circular orbits. Obtain an expression
the magnetic moment (p) of the electron in a Hydrogen atom in terms of its angular momentum L.
Answer:
Consider an electron of charge e, moves with constant speed v in a circular orbit of radius ‘r’ in Hydrogen
atom as shown in fig.
Time period of orbiting electron, T = 2πrv ⇒ I = e2πrv=ev2πr

The current constitute by revolving electron in circular motion around a nucleus, I = .
⇒ μ = ev2πr (πr2) = evr2

orbital magnetic moment, μ = IA = I (πr2)
∴μ = e2 m L where L = mvr = angular momentum.

μ = e2 m (mvr) [∵ Multiplying and dividing with ‘m’ on right side]
Qeustion 3.
A bar magnet of length 0.1m and with a magnetic moment of 5Am2 is placed in a uniform a magnetic field
of intensity 0.4T, with its axis making an angle of 60° with the field. What is the torque on the magnet ?
Answer:
Given, 2l = 0.1m; m = 5A – m2; B = 0.4T; θ = 60°.
∴ T = 1.732 N – m
Torque, T = mB sin θ = 5 × 0.4 × sin 60° = 2 × 3√2
Question 4.
A solenoid of length 22.5 cm has a total of 900 turns and carries a current of 0.8 A. What is the
magnetising field H near the centre and far away from the ends of the solenoid ?
Answer:
l = 22.5 cm = 22.5 × 10-2 m = 452 × 10-2m
N = 900; I = 0.8A; H = ?
H = NIl=900×0.8(452)×10−2
∴ H = 3200 Am-1
H = 90045 × 0.8 × 102 × 2
Qeustion 5.
The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at a certain place is 2.6 × 10 -5T and the angle of
dip is 60°. What is the magnetic field of the earth at this location ?
Answer:
Given HE = 2.6 × 10-5T;
D (or) δ = 60°
∴ BE = 5.2 × 10-5 T
BE = HEcosD=2.6×10−5cos60∘=2.6×10−5(1/2) = 5.2 × 10-5 T
Question 6.
In the magnetic meridian of a certain place, the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is 0.26
G and the dip angle is 60°. What is the magnetic field of the earth at this location ?
Solution:
It is given that HE = 0.26 G. From Fig., we have
The earth’s magnetic field, BE, its horizontal and vertical components. HE and ZE. Also shown are the
declination, D and the inclination or angle of dip, I.
cos 60° = HEBE
BE = HEcos60∘
= 0.26(1/2) = 0.52 G
Qeustion 7.
What is the magnitude of the equatorial and axial fields due to a bar magnet of length 8.0 cm at a
distance of 50 cm from its mid-point ? The magnetic moment of the bar magnet is 0.40 A m 2.
Solution:
From Eq.
Question 8.
The earth’s magnetic field at the equator is approximately 0.4 G. Estimate the earth’s dipole moment. .
Solution:
The equatorial magnetic field is,
We are given that BE ~ 0.4 G = 4 × 10-5 T. For r, we take the radius of the earth 6.4 × 106 m.
Hence,
m = 4×10−5×(6.4×106)3μ0/4π = 4 × 102 × (6.4 × 106)3 (μ0/4π = 10-7)
= 1.05 × 1023 A m2
This is close to the value 8 × 1022 A m2 quoted in geomagnetic texts.
Textual Examples
Question 1.
In Fig, the magnetic needle has magnetic moment 6.7 × 10-2 Am2 and moment of inertia i = 7.5 × 10-6 kg
m2. It performs 10 complete oscillations in 6.70 s. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field ?
Solution:
The time period of oscillation is, :
T = 6.7010 = 0.67 s
The axial field of a finite solenoid in order to demonstrate its similarity to that of a bar magnet.
From Eq. B =
= 4×(3.14)2×7.5×10−66.7×10−2×(.067)2
= 0.01 T
Question 2.
A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with an external field of 800 G experiences a torque of
0.016 Nm.
(a) What is the magnetic moment of the magnet ?
(b) What is the work done in moving it from its most stable to most unstable position ?
(c) The bar magnet is replaced by a solenoid of cross-sectional area 2 × 10 -4 m2 and 1000 turns, but of the
same magnetic moment. Determine the current flowing through the solenoid.
Solution:
a) From Eq., τ = m B sin θ, θ = 30°, hence sin θ = 1/2.
Thus, 0.016 = m × (800 × 10-4 T) × (1/2)
m = 160 × 2/800 =0.40 Am2
b) From Eq . Um = -m. B, the most stable position is θ = 0° and the most unstable position is q = 180°.
Work done is given by
W = Um (θ = 180°) – Um (θ = 0°)
= 2 m B = 2 × 0.40 × 800 × 10-4 = 0.064 J
c) From Eq., ms = NIA. From part (a), ms = 0.40 Am2
0.40 = 1000 × I × 2 × 10-4
I = 0.40 × 104/(1000 × 2) = 2A
Question 3.
a) What happens if a bar magnet is cut into two pieces :
(i) transverse to its length,
(ii) along its length ?
b) A magnetised needle in a uniform magnetic field experiences a torque but no net force. An iron nail
near a bar magnet, however, experiences a force of attraction in addition to a torque. Why ?
c) Must every magnetic configuration have a north pole and a south pole ? What about the field due to a
toroid ?
d) Two identical looking iron bars A and B are given, one of which is definitely known to be magnetised.
(We do not know which one.) How would one ascertain whether or not both are magnetised ? If only one
is magnetised how does one ascertain which one ? (Use nothing else but the bars A and B].
Solution:
a) In either case, one gets two magnets, each with a north and south pole.
b) No force if the field is uniform. The iron nail experiences a non-uniform field due to the bar magnet.
There is induced magnetic moment in the nail, therefore, it experiences both force and torque. Then net
force is attractive because the induced south pole (say) in the nail is closer to the north pole of magnet
than induced north pole.
c) Not necessarily. True only if the source of the field has a net nonzero magnetic moment. This is not so
for a toroid or even for a straight infinite conductor.
d) Try to bring different ends of the bars closer. A repulsive force in some situation establishes that both
are magnetised. If it is always attractive, then one of them is not magnetised. In a bar magnet the
intensity of the magnetic field is the strongest at the two ends (poles) and weakest at the central region.
This fact may be used to determine whether A or B is the magnet. In this case, to see which one of the
two bars is magnet, pick up one, (say, A) and lower one of its end first one of the ends of the other (say,
B) and then on the middle of B. If you notice that in the middle of B, A experiences no force, then B is
magnetised. If you do not notice any change from the end to the middle of B, then A is magnetised.
Question 4.
What is the magnitude of the equatorial and axial fields due to a bar magnet of length 8.0 cm at a
distance of 50 cm from its mid-point ? The magnetic moment of the bar magnet is 0.40 A m 2, the same as
in Example – 2.
Solution:
From Eq.
Question 5.
Figure shows a small magnetised needle P placed at a point O. The arrow shows the direction of its
magnetic moment. The other arrows show different positions (and orientations of the magnetic moment)
of another identical magnetised needle Q.
a) In which configuration the system is not in equilibrium ?

b) In which configuration is the system in (i) stable, and (ii) unstable equilibrium ?
c) Which configuration corresponds to the lowest potential energy among all the configurations shown ?
Solution:
Potential energy of the configuration arises due to the potential energy of one dipole (say, Q) in the
magnetic field due to other (P). Use the result that the field due to P is given by the expression. *
BP = –μ04πmpr3 (on the normal bisector)
BP = μ024πmpr3 (on axis)
where mp is the magnetic moment of the dipole P.
Equilibrium is stable when mQ is parallel to BP, and unstable when it is anti-parallel to BP. For instance for
the configuration Q3 for which Q is along the perpendicular bisector of the dipole P, the magnetic moment
of Q is parallel to the magnetic field at the position 3. Hence Q 3 is stable. Thus,
a) PQ1 and PQ2
b) (i) PQ3, PQ6 (stable); (ii) PQ5, PQ4 (unstable)
c) PQ6.
Question 6.
Many of the diagrams given in Fig. show magnetic field lines (thick lines in the figure) wrongly. Point out
what is wrong with them. Some of them may describe electrostatic field lines correctly. Point out which
ones.
Solution:
a) Wrong: Magnetic field lines can never emanate from a point, as shown in figure. Over any closed
surface, the net flux of B must always be zero, i.e., pictorially as many field lines should seem to enter the
surface as the number of lines leaving it. The field lines shown, in fact, represent electric field of a long
positively charged wire. The correct magnetic field lines are circling the straight conductor.
b) Wrong: Magnetic field lines (like electric lines) can never cross each other, because otherwise the
direction of field at the point of intersection is ambiguous. There is further error in the figure.
Magnetostatic field lines can never form closed loops around empty space. A closed loop of static
magnetic field line must enclose a region across which a current is passing. By contrast, electrostatic field
lines can never form closed loops, neither in empty space, nor when the loop encloses charges.
c) Right: Magnetic lines are completely confined within a toroid: Nothing wrong here in field lines forming
closed loops, since each loop encloses a region across which a current passes. Note, for clarity of figure,
only a few field lines within the toroid have been shown. Actually, the entire region enclosed by the
windings contains magnetic field.,
d) Wrong: Field lines due to a solenoid at its ends and outside cannot be so completely straight and
confined; such a thing violates Ampere’s law. The lines should curve out at both ends, and meet
eventually to form closed loops.
e) Right: These are field lines outside and inside a bar magnet. Note carefully the direction of field lines
inside. Not all field lines emanate out of a north pole (or converge into a south pole). Around both the N-
pole, and the S-pole, the next flux of the field is zero.
f) Wrong: These field lines cannot possibly represent a magnetic field. Look at the upper region. All the
field lines seem to emanate out of the shaded plate. The net flux through a surface surrounding the
shaded plate is not zero. This is impossible for a magnetic field. The given field lines, in fact, show the
electrostatic field lines around a positively charged upper plate and a negatively charged lower plate. The
difference between Fig. [(e) and (f)] should be carefully grasped.
g) Wrong: Magnetic field lines between two pole pieces cannot be precisely straight at the ends. Some
fringing of lines is inevitable. Otherwise, Ampere’s law is violated. This is also true for electric field lines.
Question 7.
a) Magnetic field lines show the direction (at every point) along which a small magnetised needle aligns
(at the point). Do the magnetic field line’s also represent the lines of force on a moving charged particle
at every point ?
b) Magnetic field lines can be entirely confined within the core of a toroid, but not within a straight
solenoid. Why ?
c) If magnetic monopoles existed, how would the Gauss’s law of magnetism be modified ?
d) Does a bar magnet exert a torque on itself due to its own field ? Does one element of a current –
carrying wire exert a force on another element of the same wire ?
e) Magnetic field arises due to charges in motion. Can a system have magnetic moments even though its
net charge is zero ?
Solution:
a) No. The magnetic force is always normal to B (remember magnetic force = qv × B). It is misleading to
call magnetic field lines as lines of force.
b) If field lines were entirely confined between two ends of a straight solenoid, the flux through the cross-
section at each end would be non-zero. But the flux of field B through any closed surface must always be
zero. For a toroid, this difficulty is absent because it has no ‘ends’.
c) Gauss’s law of magnetism states that the flux of,B thrugh any closed surface is always
zero ∫sB⋅ds = o.
If monopoles existed, the right hand side would be equal to the monopole (magnetic charge) qm enclosed
by S. [Analogous to Gauss’s law of electrostatics, ∫sB⋅ds = μ0qm
where qm is the (monopole) magnetic charge enclosed by S.]
d) No. There is no force or torque on an element due to the field produced by that element itself. But
there is a force (or torque) on an element of the same wire. (For the special case of a straight wire, this
force is zero).
e) Yes. The average of the cahrge in the system may be zero. Yet, the mean of the magnetic moments
due to various current loops may not be zero. We will come across such examples in connection with
paramagnetic material where atoms have net dipole moment through their net charge is zero.
Question 8.
The earth’s magnetic field at the equator is approximately 0.4 G. Estimate the earth’s dipole moment.
Solution:
The equatorial magnetic field is,
BE = μ0 m4πr3
We are given that BE ~ 0.4 G = 4 × 10-5 T. For r, we take the radius of the earth 6.4 × 106 m. Hence,
m = 4×10−5×(6.4×106)3μ0/4π = 4 × 102 × (6.4 × 106)3 (μ0/4π = 10-7)
= 1.05 × 1023 A m2
This is close to the value 8 × 1022 A m2 quoted in geomagnetic texts.
Question 9.
In the magnetic meridian of a certain place, the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is 0.26
G and the dip angle is 60°. What is the magnetic field of the earth at this location ?
Solution:
It is given that HE = 0.26 G. From Fig., we have
The earth’s magnetic field, BE, its horizontal and vertical components. HE and ZE. Also shown are the
declination, D and the inclination or angle of dip, I.
cos 60° = HEBE
BE = HEcos60∘
= 0.26(1/2) = 0.52 G
Question 10.
A solenoid has a core of a material with relative permeability 400. The windings of the solenoid are
insulated from the core and carry a current of 2A. If the number of turns is 1000 per metre, calculate (a)
H, (b) M, (c) B and (d) the magnetising current Im.
Solution:
a) The field H is dependent of the material of the core, and is
H = nI = 1000 × 2.0 = 2 × 103 A/m
b) The magnetic field B is given by
B = μrμ0H
= 400 × 4π × 10-7 (N/A3) × 2 × 103 (A/m) = 1.0 T
c) Magnetisation is given by
= (μrμ0H – μ0H)/μ0 = (μr – 1) H = 399 × H ≃ 8 × 105 A/m

M = (B – μ0 H)/μ0
d) The magnetising current IM is the additional current that needs to be passed through the windings of
the solenoid in the absence of the core which would give a B value as in the presence of the core. Thus B
= μrn0 (I + IM). Using I = 2A, B = 1 T, we get IM = 794A.
Question 11.
A domain in ferromagnetic iron is in the form of a cube of side length 1 μm. Estimate the number of iron
atoms in the domain and the maximum possible dipole moment and magnetisation of the domain. The
molecular mass of iron is 55 g/mole and its density is 7.9 g/cm 3. Assume that each iron atom has a dipole
moment of 9.27 × 10-24 A m3.
Solution:
The volume of the cubic domain is
V = (10-6 m)3 = 10-18 m3 = 10-12 cm3
Its mass is volume × density = 7.9 g cm-3 × 10-12 cm3 = 7.9 × 10-12 g
It is given that Afagadro number (6.023 × 1023) of iron atoms have a mass of 55g. Hence,the number of
atoms in the domain is
N = 7.9×10−12×6.023×102355
= 8.65 × 1010 atoms
The maximum possible dipole moment mmax is achieved for the (unrealistic) case when all the atomic
moments are perfectly aligned. Thus,
mmax = (8.65 × 1010) × (9-27 × 10-24)
= 8.0 × 10-13 Am2
The consequent magnetisation is
Mmax = mmax/DomainVolume :
= 8.0 × 10-13 Am2/10-18 m3
= 8.0 × 105 Am-1.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Important Questions 4th
Lesson Electric Charges and Fields
Question 1.
What is meant by the statement ‘charge is quantized’? [IPE 2015 (TS)]
Answer:
The minimum charge that can be transferred from one body to the other is equal to the charge of the electron (e
= 1.602 × 10-19C). A charge always exists an integral multiple of charge of electron (q = ne). Therefore charge
is said to be quantized.
Question 2.
Repulsion is the sure test of charging than attraction. Why ?
Answer:
A charged body may attract a neutral body and also an opposite charged body. But it always repels like a
charged body. Hence repulsion is the sure test of electrification.
Question 3.
How many electrons constitute 1 C of charge ?
Answer:
n = qe=11.6×10−19 = 6.25 × 1018 electrons
Question 4.
What happens to the weight of a body when it is charged positively ?
Answer:
When a body is positively charged it must loose some electrons. Hence, weight of the body will decrease.
Question 5.
What happens to the force between two charges if the distance between them is [Board Model Paper]
a) halved
b) doubled ?
From Coulombs law, F ∝ 1 d2. So

Answer:
a) When distance is reduced to half, force increases by four times.

[∵ F2 = F1d21(d12)2 = 4 F1]
b) When distance is doubled to half, force increases by four times.
[∵ F2 = F1d2|2d1|2 = 14 F1]
Question 6.
The electric lines of force do not intersect. Why ?
Answer:
They do not intersect because if they intersect, at the point of intersection, intensity of electric field must act in
two different directions, which is impossible.
Question 7.
Consider two charges + q and -q placed at B and C of an equilateral triangle ABC. For this system, the total
charge is zero. But the electric field (intensity) at A which is equidistant from B and C is not zero. Why ?
Answer:
Charges are scalars, but the electrical intensities are vectors and add vectorially.
Question 8.
Electrostatic field lines of force do not form closed loops. If they form closed loops then the work done in
moving a charge along a closed path will not be zero. From the above two statements can you guess the nature
of electrostatic force ?
Answer:
It is conservative force.
Question 9.
State Gauss’s law in electrostatics. [IPE 2015 (TS)]
Answer:
Gauss’s law: It states that “the total electric flux through any closed surface is equal to 1ε0 times net charge
∮E→⋅ds→=qε0
enclosed by the surface”.
Question 10.
When is the electric flux negative and when is it positive ?
Answer:
Electric flux Φ = E→⋅A→. If angle between E→ and A→ is 180°, then flux will have a -ve’ sign. We
consider the flux flowing out of the surface as positive and flux entering into the surface as negative.
Question 11.
Write the expression for electric intensity due to an infinite long charged wire at a distance radial distance r
from the wire.
Answer:
The electric intensity due to an infinitely long charged wire E = λ2πε0r perpendicular to the conductor.
Where λ = Uniform linear charge density
r = Distance of the point from the conductor.
Question 12.
Write the expression for electric intensity due to an infinite plane sheet of charge.
Answer:
The electric intensity due to an infinite plane sheet of charge is E = σ2ε0.
Question 13.
Write the expression for electric intensity due to a charged conducting spherical shell at points outside and
inside the shell.
Answer:
a) Intensity of electric field at any point inside a spherical shell is zero.
E = 14πε0⋅qr2
b) Intensity of electric field at any point- outside a uniformly charged spherical shell is
Question 14.
A proton and an α-particle are released in a uniform electric field. Find the ratio of (a) forces experienced by
them (b) accelerations gained by each.
a) As F = Eq, F ∝ q, ⇒ FpFα=QpQα=12
Answer:
∴ FpFα=12
b) As a = EQm ⇒ a ∝ Qm ⇒ apaα=epQα×mαmp=12×41=21
∴ apaα=21
Question 15.
The electric field in a region is given by E¯=ai¯+bj¯. Here a and b are constants. Find the net flux
passing through a square area of side L parallel to y-z plane.
Answer:
Flux passing through square area, Φ = E¯¯¯¯⋅A¯¯¯¯=(ai¯+bi¯)⋅(L2i¯) = aL2 Wb

Electric field, E¯=ai¯+bj¯
Question 16.
A hollow sphere of radius ‘r’ has a unifrom charge density ‘σ’. It is kept in a cube of edge 3r such that the
center of the cube coincides with the center of the shell. Calculate the electric flux that comes out of a face of
the cube.
Answer:
The flux through a single face of the cube, Φ1 = f6=16⋅Qε0=σ×4πr26ε0=2πr2σ3ε0

Charge on the hallow sphere, q = σ × 4πr2.
Question 17.
Consider a uniform electric field . What is the flux of this field through a square of 10 cm
on a side whose plane is parallel to the YZ plane ?
Answer:
Given, (field is along positive x-axis)
Surface area of square, S = (10 × 10-2)(10 × 10-2) = 10-2m2.
When plane of the square is parallel to yz-plane its area vector points towards 4-ve x-axis.
∴ Flux through square, Φ = EScosθ = 3 × 103 × 10-2 × cos0° => <(> = 30 NC-1m2.
So θ = 0°.
Question 1.
State and explain Coulomb’s inverse square law in electricity. [T.S. Mar. 17; Mar. 14]
Answer:
Coulomb’s law – Statement: Force between two charges is proportional to the product of the charges and
inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. The force acts along the straight line joining
the two charges.
Explanation : Let us consider two charges q1 and q2 be separated by a distance r.
Then F ∝ q1q2 and F ∝ 1r2 or F ∝ q1q2r2

∴ F = 14πε0⋅q1q2r2 where 14πε0 = 9 × 109 Nm2C-2.
In vector form, in free space F→=14πε0q1q2r2r^. Here r^ is a unit vector.
ε0 is called permittivity of free space.
ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2/N-m2 or Farad/meter.
In a medium, Fm = 14πεq1q2r2=14πε0εr×q1q2r2 [∵ ε = ε0εr]
Where ε is called permittivity of the medium.
Question 2.
Define intensity of electric field at a point. Derive an expression for the intensity due to a point charge. [A.P.
Mar. 16]
Answer:
Intensity of electric field (E) : Intensity of electric field at any point in an electric field is defined as the force
experienced by a unit positive charge placed at that point.
Expression :
1. Intensity of electric field is a vector. It’s direction is along the direction of motion of positive charge.
2. Consider point charge q. Electric field will exist around that charge. Consider any point P in that
3. Force acting on q0 due to q is F = 14πε0⋅qq0r2

electric field at a distance r from the given charge. A test charge q0 is placed at P.
4. Intensity of electric field at that point is equal to the force experienced by a test charge q 0.
E = 14πε0⋅qr2N/C or V/m
Intensity of electric field, E = Fq0
Question 3.
Derive the equation for the couple acting on a electric dipole in a uniform electric field.
Answer:
1. A pair of opposite charges separated by a small distance is called dipole.

2. Consider the charge of dipole are -q and +q coulomb and the distance between them is 2a.
3. Then the electric dipole moment P is given by P = q × 2a = 2aq. It is a vector. It’s direction is from -q
to +q along the axis of dipole.
4. It is placed in a uniform electric field E, making an angle θ with, field direction as shown in fig.
5. Due to electric field force on +q is F = +.qE and force on -q is F = -qE.
6. These two equal and opposite charges constitute torque or moment of couple.
i.e., torque, τ = ⊥r distance × magnitude of one of force

∴ τ = (2a sin θ)qE = 2aqE sin θ = PE sin θ
7. In vector form, τ⃗ =P→×E→
Question 4.
Derive an expression for the intensity of the electric field at a point on the axial line of an electric dipole. [A.P.
Mar. 17; T.S. Mar. 16]
Answer:
Electric field at a point on the axis of a dipole :
1. Consider an electric dipole consisting of two charges -q and + q separated by a distance ‘2a’ with centre
‘O’.
2. We shall calculate electric field E at point P on the axial line of dipole, and at a distance OP = r.
3. Let E1 and E2 be the intensities of electric field at P due to charges + q and -q respectively.
Question 5.
Derive an expression for the intensity of the electric field at a point on the equatorial plane of an electric
dipole. [A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Electric field intensity on equatorial line of electric dipole :
1. Consider an electric dipole consisting of two charges-q and +q separated by a distance ‘2a’ with centre
at ’O’.
2. We shall calculate electric field E at P on equatorial line of dipole and at a distance OP = r.
4. The ⊥r components (E1 sin θ and E2 sin θ) cancel each other because they are equal and opposite. The I
3. Let E1 and E2 be the electric fields at P due to charges +q and -q respectively.
lel components (E1 cos θ and E2 cos θ) are in the same direction and hence add up.
5. The resultant field intensity at point P is given by E = E1 cos θ + E2 cos θ
∴ E = 14πε0×2aq(r2+a2)3/2
6. From figure, cos θ = a(r2+a2)1/2
7. If r >> a, then a2 can be neglected in comparison to r2. Then E

E = P4πε0×1r3
In vector form E = E→=P→4πε0r3
Question 6.
State Gauss’s law in electrostatics and explain its importance. [T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Gauss’s law : The total electric flux through any closed surface is equal to 1ε0 times the net charge enclosed
Total electric flux, Φ = ∮sE→⋅ds→=qε0

by the surface.
Here q is the total charge enclosed by the surface ‘S’, ∮ represents surface integral of the closed surface.
Importance :
1. Gauss’s law is very useful in calculating the electric field in case of problems where it is possible to
construct a closed surface. Such surface is called Gaussian surface.
2. Gauss’s law is true for any closed surface, no matter what its shape or size.
3. Symmetric considerations in many problems make the application of Gauss’s law much easier.
Question 1.
State Gauss’s law in electrostatics. Applying Gauss’s law derive the expression for electric intensity due to an
infinite plane sheet of charge.
Answer:
by the surface. i.e., Φ = ∮sE→⋅ds→=qε0

Gauss’s law : The total electric flux through any closed surface is equal to 1ε0 times the net charge enclosed
Expression for E due to an infinite plane sheet of charge:

1. Consider an infinite plane sheet of charge Let the charge distribution is uniform on this plane.
2. Uniform charge density on this surface σ = dqdS where dq is the charge over an infinite small area ds.
3. Construct a horizontal cylindrical Gaussian surface ABÇD perpendicular to the plane with length 2r.
4. The flat surfaces BC and AD are parallel to the plane sheet and are at equal distance from the plane.
these two surfaces is ∮SE→⋅dS→=∫ Eds = E(S + S) = 2ES ……………….. (1)

5. Let area of these surfaces are dS1 and dS2. They are parallel to E→. So flux through
6. Consider cylindrical surface of AB and CD. Let their areas are say dS3 and dS4. These surfaces are ⊥r to
electric intensity E→.
Since ∮S E.dS = 0.
7. So angle between E→ and dS3−→ or dS4 is 90°. Total flux through these surfaces is zero.
8. From Gauss’s law total flux, Φ = ∮E→⋅dS→ = 2ES = qε0

∴ 2ES = σSε0 [∵Q = σ × S]
9. Therefore intensity of electric field due to an infinite plane sheet of charge E = σ2ε0.
Textual Examples
Question 1.
How can you charge a metal sphere positively without touching it ?
Solution:
Figure (a) shows an uncharged metallic sphere on an insulating metal stand. Bring a negatively charged rod
close to the metallic sphere, as shown in Fig. (b). As the rod is brought close to the sphere, the free electrons in
the sphere move away due to repulsion and start piling up at the farther end. The near end becomes positively
charged due to deficit of electrons. This process of charge distribution stops when the net force on the free
electrons inside the metal is zero. Connect the sphere to the ground by a conducting wire. The electrons will
flow to the ground while the positive charges at the near end will remain held there due to the attractive force
of the negative charges on the rod, as shown in Fig. (c). Disconnect the sphere from the ground. The positive
charge continues to be held at the near end [Fig. 4.5 (d)]. Remove the electrified rod. The positive charge will
spread uniformly over the sphere as shown in Fig. (e).
Question 2.
If 109 electrons move out of a body to another body every second, how much time is required to get a total
charge of 1 C on the other body? .
Solution:
In one second electrons move out of the body. Therefore the charge given out in one second is 1.6 × 10-19 ×
109C = 1.6 × 10-10 C. The time required o accumulate a charge of 1 C can then be estimated to be 1 C ÷ (1.6 ×
10-10 C/s) = 6.25 × 109 s = 6.25 × 109 ÷ (365 × 24 × 3600) years = 198 years. Thus to collect a charge of one
coulomb, from a body from which 109 electrons move, out every second, we will need approximately 200
years. One coulomb is, therefore, a very large unit for many practical purposes.
It is, however, also important to know what is roughly the number of electrons contained in a piece of one
cubic centimetre of a material. A cubic piece of copper of side 1 cm contains about 2.5 × 10 24 electrons.
Question 3.
How much positive and negative charge is there in a cup of.water ?
Solution:
Let us assume that the mass of one cup of water is 250 g. The molecular mass of. water is 18g. Thus, one mole
(= 6.02 × 1023 molecules) of water is 18 g. Therefore the number of molecules in one cup of water is (250/18) ×
6.02 × 1023.
Each molecule of water contains two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom, i.e., 10 electrons and 10 protons.
Hence the total positive and total negative charge has the same magnitude. It is equal to (250/18) × 6.02 ×
1023 × 10 × 1.6 × 10-19 C = 1.34 × 107C.
Question 4.
Coulomb’s law for electrostatic force between two point charges and Newton’s law for gravitational force
between two stationary point masses, both have inverse-square depen-dence on the distance between the
charges/masses, (a) Compare the strength of these forces by determining the ratio of their magnitudes (i) for an
electron and a protron and (ii) for two protons (b) Estimate the accelerations of electron and proton due to the
electrical force of their mutual attraction when they are 1 Å (= 10-10 m) apart ?
(mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg, m3 = 9.11 × 10-31 kg).
Solution:
a) i) The electric force between an electron and a proton at a distance r apart is :
Fe = –mpmer2
Where the negative sign indicates that the force is attractive. The corresponding gravitational force (always
attractive) is :
FG = -Gmpmer2
∣∣FeFG∣∣=e24πε0Gmpme = 2.4 × 10
Where mp and me are the masses of a proton and an electron respectively.
39
ii) On similar lines, the ratio of the magnitudes of electric force to the gravitational force between two protons
∣∣FeFG∣∣=e24πε0Gmpme = 1.3 × 10
at a distance r apart is :
36
However, it may be mentioned here that the signs of the two forces are different. For two protons, the
gravitational force is attractive in nature and the Coulomb force is repulsive. The actual values of these forces
between two protons inside a nucleus (distance between two protons
is ~ 10-15m inside a nucleus) are Fe ~ 230 N whereas FG ~ 1.9 × 10-34 N.
The (dimensionless) ratio of the two forces shows that electrical forces are enormously stronger than the
gravitational forces.
b) The electric force F exerted by a proton on an electron is same in magnitude to the force exerted by an
electron on a proton; however the masses of an electron and a proton are different. Thus, the magnitude of
force is
|F| = 14πε0e2r2 = 8.987 × 109 Nm2/C2 × (1.6 × 10-19C)2 / (10-10 m)2
= 2.3 × 10-8N
Using Newton’s second law of motion, F = ma, the acceleration that an electron will undergo is a = 2.3 × 10 -
8
N/9.11 × 10-31 kg = 2.5 × 1022 m/s2
Comparing this with the value of acceleration due to gravity, we can conclude that the effect of gravitational
field is negligible on the motion of electron and it undergoes very large accelerations under the action of
Coulomb force due to a proton.
The value for acceleration of the proton is
a = 2.3 × 10-8 N/1.67 × 10-27 kg = 1.4 × 109 m/s2.
Question 5.
A charged metallic sphere A is suspended by a nylon thread. Another charged metallic sphere B held by an
insulating handle is brought close to A such that the distance between their centres is 10 cm, as shown in Fig.
(a). The resulting repulsion of A is noted (for example, by shining a beam of light and measuring the deflection
of its shadow on a screen). Spheres A and B are touched by uncharged spheres C and D respectively, as shown
in Fig. (b). C and D are then removed and B is brought closer to A to a distance of 5.0 cm between their
centres, as shown in Fig. (c). What is the expected repulsion of A on the basis of Coulomb’s law ? Spheres A
and C and spheres B and D have identical sizes. Ignore the size of A and B in comparison to the separation
between their centres.
Solution:
Let the original charge on sphere A be q and that on B be q’. At a distance r between their centres, the
magnitude of the electrostatic force on each is given by
F = 14πε0(qq′)r2
Neglecting the sizes of spheres A and B in comparison to r. When an identical but uncharged sphere C touches
A, the charges redistribute on A and C and by symmetry, each sphere carries a charge q/2. Similarly, after D
touches B, the redistributed charge on each is q’/2. Now, if the separation between A and B is halved, the
magnitude of the electrostatic force on each is
F’ = 14πε0(q/2)(q′/2)(r/2)2=14πε0(qq′)r2 = F
Thus the electrostatic force on A, due to B, remains unaltered.
Question 6.
Consider three charges q1, q2, q3 each equal to q at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side l. What is the
force on a charge Q (with the same sign as q) placed at the centroid of the triangle, as shown in Fig. ?
Solution:
In the given equilateral triangle ABC of sides of length l, if we draw a perpendicular AD to the side BC,
AD = AC cos 30° = (3√2)l and the distance AO of the centroid O from A is
(2/3) AD = (13√)l.
By symmetry AO = BO = CO.
Thus,
Force F1 on Q due to charge q at A = 34πε0Qql2 along AO
Force F2 on Q due to charge q at B = 34πε0Qql2 along BO
Force F3 on Q due to charge q at C = 34πε0Qql2 along CO
The resultant of forces F2 and F3 is 34πε0Qql2 along OA, by the parallelogram law. Therefore, the total force
on Q = 34πε0Qql2(r^−r^) = 0, where r^ is the unit vector along OA.
It is clear also by symmetry that the three forces will sum to zero. Suppose that the resultant force was non-
zero but in some direction. Consider what would happen if the system was rotated through 60° about O.
Question 7.
Consider the charges q, q and -q placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle, as shown in Fig. What is the
force on each charge ?
Solution:
The forces acting on charge q at A due to charges q at B and -q at C are F12 along BA and F13 along AC
respectively, as shown in Fig. By the parallelogram law, the total force F1 on the charge q at A is given by
F1 = F r^1 where r^1 is a unit vector along BC.
The force of attraction or repulsion for each pair of charges has the same magnitude
F = q24πε0l2
The total force F2 on charge q at B is thus F2 = F r^2, where r^2 is a unit vector along AC.
Similarly the total force on charge -q at C is F3 = 3–√ Fn^, where n^ is the unit vector along the
direction bisecting the ∠BCA.
It is interesting to see that the sum of the forces on the three charges is zero, i.e.,
F1 + F2 + F3 = 0
The result is not at all surprising. It follows straight from the fact that Coulomb’s law is consistent with
Newton’s third law. The proof is left to you as an exercise.
Question 8.
An electron falls through a distance of 1.5 cm in a uniform electric field of magnitude 2.0 × 10 4 N C-1 (Fig. a).
The direction of the field is reversed keeping its magnitude unchanged and a proton falls through the same
distance (Fig. b) Compute the time of fall in each case. Contrast the situation with that of ‘free fall under
gravity’.
Solution:
In Fig. (a) the field is upward, so the negatively charged electron experiences a downward force of magnitude
eE where E is the magnitude f the electric field. The acceleration of the electron is a e = eE/me.
Where me is the mass of the electron.
Starting from rest, the time required by the electron to fall through a distance h is given by
te = 2 hae−−−√=2hme eE−−−−√
For e = 1.6 × 10-19C, me = 9.11 × 10-31 kg.
E = 2.0 × 104 NC-1, h 1.5 × 10-2 m.
te = 2.9 × 10-9 s
In Fig. (b), the field is downward and the positively charged proton experiences a downward force of
magnitude eE. The acceleration of the proton is
ap = eE/mp
Where mp is the mass of the proton ; mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg. The time of fall for the proton is
tp = 2 hap−−−√=2h mpeE−−−−√ = 1.3 × 10-7 s
Thus, the heavier particle (proton) takes a greater time to fall through the same distance. This is in basic
contrast to the situation of, free fall under gravity’ where the time of fall is independent of the mass of the
body. Note that in this example we have ignored the acceleration due to gravity in calculating the time of fall.
To see if this is justified, let us calculate the acceleration of the proton in the given electric field
ap = eEmp=(1.6×10−19C)×(2.0×104NC−1)1.67×10−27 kg
= 1.9 × 1012 ms-2
Which is enormous compared to the value of g (9.8 ms-2), the acceleration due to gravity. The acceleration of
the electron is even greater. Thus, the effect of acceleration due to gravity can be ignored in this example.
Question 9.
Two point charges q1 and q2, of magnitude +10-8 C and -10-8 C, respectively, are placed 0.1 m apart. Calculate
the electric fields at points A, B and C shown in Fig.
Solution:
The electric field vector E1A at A due to the positive charge qx points towards the right and has a magnitude
E1A = (9×109Nm2C−2)×(10−8C)(0.05 m)2 = 3.6 × 104 NC-1
The electric field vector E2A at A due to the negative charge q2 points towards the right and has the same
magnitude. Hence the magnitude of the total electric field EA at A is
EA = E1A + E2A = 7.2 × 104 NC-1
EA is directed toward the right.
The electric field vector E1B at B due to the positive charge q1 points towards the left and has a magnitude.
E1B = (9×109Nm2C−2)×(10−8C)(0.05 m)2 = 3.6 × 104 NC-1
The electric field vector E2B at B due to the negative charge q2 points towards the right and has a magnitude.
E2B = (9×109Nm2C−2)×(10−8C)(0.15 m)2 = 4 × 104 NC-1
The magnitude of the total electric field at B is EB = E1B – E2B = 3.2 × 104 NC-1
EB is directed towards the left.
The magnitude of each electric field vector at point C, due to charge q1 and q2 is
E1C = E2C = (9×109Nm2C−2)×(10−8C)(0.10 m)2 = 9 × 103 NC-1
The directions in which these two vectors point are indicated in Fig. The resultant of these two vectors is
EC = E1 cos π3 + E2 cos π3 = 9 × 103 NC-1
EC points towards the right.
Question 10.
Two charges 10 μC are placed 5.0 mm apart. Determine the electric field at (a) a point P on the axis of the
dipole 15 cm away from its centre O on the side of the positive charge, as shown in Fig. (a) and (b) a point Q,
15 cm away from O on a line passing through O and normal to the axis of the dipole, as shown in Fig. (b).
Solution:
a) Field at P due to charge +10 μC
= 10−5C4π(8.854×10−12C2 N−1 m−2)×1(15−0.25)2×10−4 m2
= 4.13 × 106 NC-1 along BP
Field at P due to charge -10 μC
= 10−5C4π(8.854×10−12C2 N−1 m−2)×1(15+0.25)2×10−4 m2
= 3.86 × 106 NC-1 along PA
The resultant electric field at P due to the two charges at A and B is 2.7 × 105 NC-1 along BP.
In this example, the ratio OP/OB is quite large (= 60). Thus, we can’expect to get approximately the same
result as above by directly using the formula for electric field at a far-away point on the axis of a dipole. For a
dipole consisting of charges ±q,.2a distance apart, the electric field at a distance r from the centre on the axis of
the dipole has a magnitude.
E = 2p4πε0r3 (r/a > > 1)
Where p = 2aq is the magnitude of the dipole moment.
The direction of electric field on the dipole axis is always along the direction of the dipole moment vector (i.e.,
from -q to q). Here, p = 10-5 × C ; 5 × 10-3 m = 5 × 10-8 C m
Therefore,
E = 2×5×10−8Cm4π(8.854×10−12C2 N−1 m−2)×1(15)3×10−6 m3
= 2.6 × 105 N C-1
Along the dipolemoment direction AB, which is close to the result obtained earlier.
b) Field at Q due to charge +10 μC at B
= 10−5C4π(8.854×10−12C2 N−1 m−2)×1(152+(0.25)2]×10−4 m2x
= 3.99 × 106 N C-1 along BQ
Field at Q due to charge – 10 μC at A
= 10−5C4π(8.854×10−12C2 N−1 m−2)×1[152+(0.25)2]×10−4 m2
= 3.99 × 106 × N C-1 along QA ‘
Clearly, the components of these two forces with equal magnitudes cancel along the direction OQ but add up
along the direction parallel to BA. Therefore, the resultant electric field at Q due to the two charges at A and B
is
= 2 × 0.25152+(0.25)2√ × 3.99 × 106NC-1 along BA
= 1.33 × 105 N C-1 along BA.
As in (a), we can expect to get approximately the same result by directly using the formula for dipole field at a
point on the normal to the axis of the dipole :
E = p4πε0r3 (r/a > > 1)
= 5×10−8Cm4π(8.854×10−12C2 N−1 m−2)×1(15)3×10−6 m3
= 1.33 × 105 N C-1
The direction of electric field in this case is opposite to the direction of the dipole moment vector. Again the
result agrees with that obtained before.
Question 11.
The electric field components in Fig. are Ex = ax1/2, Ey = Ez = 0, in which a = 800 N/C m1/2. Calculate (a) the
flux through the cube and (b) the charge within the cube. Assume that a = 0.1 m.
Solution:
a) Since the electric field has only an x component, for faces perpendicular to x direction, the angle between E
and ∆S is ± π/2. Therefore, the flux Φ = E. ∆S is separately zero for each face of the cube except the two
shaded ones. Now the magnitude of the electric field at the left face is EL = x1/2 = αa1/2
(x = a at the left face).
The magnitude of electric field at the right face is ER = αx1/2 = α(2a)1/2
(x = 2a at the right face).
The corresponding fluxes are
ΦL = EL . ∆S = ∆SEL . n^L = EL ∆S cos θ = -EL ∆S, since θ = 180°
= -ELa2
ΦR = ER . ∆S = ER ∆S cos θ = ER ∆S, since θ = 0°
= ERa2
Net flux through the cube.
= ΦR + ΦL = ERa2 – ELa2 = a2 (ER – EL) = αa2 [(2a)1/2 – a1/2]
= αa5/2 (2–√ – 1)
= 800 (0.1)5/2 (2–√ – 1)
= 1.05 N m2 C-1
b) We can use Gauss’s law to find the total charge q inside the cube.
We have f = qε0 or q = Φε0. Therefore,
q = 1.05 × 8.854 × 10-12 C = 9.27 × 10-27 C.
Question 12.
An electric field is uniform and in the positive x direction for positive x and uniform with the same magnitude
but in the negative x direction for negative x. It is given that E = 200 i^ N/C for x > 0 and E = -200 i^ N/C
for x < 0. A right circular cylinder of length 20 cm and radius 5 cm has its centre at the origin and its axis along
the x-axis so that one face is at x = +10 cm and the other is at x = – 10 cm (Fig.),
(a) What is the net outward flux through each flat face ?
(b) What is the flux through the side of the cylinder ?
(c) What is the net outward flux through the cylinder ?
(d) What is the net charge inside the cylinder ?
Solution:
a) We can see from the figure that on the left face E and ∆S are parallel. Therefore, the outward flux is
ΦL = E. ∆S = -200 i^ . ∆S
= +200 ∆S, since i^ . ∆S = – ∆S
= +200 × π(0.05)2 = + 1.57 Nm2C-1
On the right face, E and AS are parallel and therefore
ΦR = E. ∆S = +1.57 Nm2C-1.
b) For any point on the side of the cylinder E is perpendicular to ∆S and hence E. ∆S = 0. Therefore, the flux
out of the side of the cylinder is zero.
c) Net outward flux through the cylinder Φ = 1.57 + 1.57 + 0 = 3.14 Nm2C-1.
d) The net charge within the cylinder can be found by using Gauss’s law which gives
q = ε0Φ
= 3.14 × 8.854 × 10-12 C
= 2.78 × 10-11 C
Question 13.
An early model for an atom considered it to have a positively charged point nucleus of charge Ze, surrounded
by a uniform density of negative charge up to a radius R. The atom as a whole is neutral. For this model, what
is the electric field at a distance r from the nucleus ?
Solution:
The charge distribution for this model of the atom is as shown in Fig. The total negative charge in the uniform
spherical charge distribution of radius R must be -Ze, since the atom (nucleus of charge Z e + negative charge)
is neutral.
This immediately gives us the negative charge density p, since we must have
4πR33 ρ = 0 – Ze or ρ = – 3Ze4πR3
To find the electric field E(r) at a point P which is a distance r away from the nucleus, we use Gauss’s law.
Because of the spherical symmetry of the charge distribution, the magnitude of the electric field E(r) depends
only on the radial distance, no matter what the direction of r. Its direction is along (or opposite to) the radius
vector r from the origin to the point P. The obviouis Gaussian surface is a spherical surface centred at the
nucleus. We consider two situations, namely r < R and r > R.
i) r < R : The electric flux Φ enclosed by the spherical surface is Φ = E(r) × 4πr 2
Where E(r) is the magnitude of the electric field at r. This is because the field at any point on the spherical
Gaussian surface has the same direction as the normal to the surface there, and has the same magnitude at all
points on the surface.
The charge q enclosed by the Gaussian surface is the positive nuclear charge and the negative charge within
the sphere of radius r,
i.e., q = Ze + 4πr33 ρ
Substituting for the charge density p obtained earlier, we have
q = Ze – Zer3R3
Gauss’s law then gives,
The electric field is directed radially outward.
ii) r > R: In this case, the total charge enclosed by the Gaussian spherical surface is zero since the atom is
neutral. Thus, from Gauss’s law,
E(r) × 4 π r2 = 0 or E(r) = 0 ; r > R
At r = R, both cases give the same result: E = 0.
Lesson Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Question 1.
Derive an expression for the electric potential due to a point charge. [T.S.
Mar. 16]
Answer:
Expression for the electric potential due to a point charge:
1. Electric potential at a point is defined as the amount of workdone in

moving a unit + ve charge from infinity to that point.
2. Consider a point P at a distance r from the point charge having charge

+ q. The electric field at P = E = q4πε0x2
3. Workdone in taking a unit +ve charge from B to A = dV = -E.dx (-ve
sign shows that the workdone is +ve in the direction B to A, whereas
the potential difference is +ve in the direction A to B.
4. Therefore, potential at P = The amount of workdone in taking a unit
+ve charge from infinity to P
Question 2.
Derive an expression for the electrostatic potential energy of a system of
two point charges and find its relation with electric potential of a charge.
Answer:
Expression for the electrostatic potential energy of a system of two point
charges :
1. Let two point charges q1 and q2 are separated by distance ‘r’ in space.
2. An electric field will develop around the charge q 1.
3. To bring a charge q2 from infinity to the point B some work must be
done.
Workdone = q2 vB
But vB = 14πε0q1r
W = 14πε0q1q2r
4. This amount of workdone is stored as electrostatic potential energy
(U) of a system of two charged particles. Its unit is joule.
∴ U = 14πε0q1q2r
5. If the two charges are similar then ‘U’ is positive. This is in accordance
with the fact that two similar charges repel one another and positive
work has to be done on the system to bring the charges nearer.
6. Conversely if the two charges are of opposite sign, they attract one
another and potential energy is negative.
Question 3.
Derive an expression for the potential energy of an electric dipole placed in
a uniform electric field.
Answer:
Expression for potential energy of an electric dipole placed in a uniform
electric field :
1. Consider a electric dipole of length 2a having charges + q and -q.

2. The electric dipole is placed in uniform electric field E and it’s axis
makes an angle θ with E.
3. Force on charges are equal but opposite sign. They constitute torque
on the dipole.
Torque τ = one of its force (F) × ⊥r distance (BC)

F = qE and sinθ = BC2a ⇒ BC = 2a sinθ
∴ Torque τ = qE × 2a sinθ = PE sin θ [∴ p = 2aq]
4. Suppose the dipole is rotated through an angle dθ, the workdone dw is
given by
dw = τdθ = PE sinθ dθ
5. For rotating the dipole from angle θ1 to θ2
workdone W = ∫θ2θ1 PE sinθdθ = PE(cosθ1 – cosθ2)
6. This workdone (W) is then stored as potential energy(U) in the dipole.
∴ U = PE(cosθ1 – cosθ2)
7. If θ1 = 90° and θ2 = 0°, U = – PE cos1.
In vector form U = –P→⋅E→
Question 4.
Derive an expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. [A.P.
Mar. 16; T.S. Mar. 14]
Answer:
Expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor:
1. P and Q are two parallel plates of a capacitor separated by a distance

of d.
2. The area of each plate is A. The plate P is charged and Q is earth
connected.
3. The charge on P is + q and surface charge density of charge = σ
∴ q = Aσ
4. The electric intensity at point x , E = |σ|ε0

5. Potential difference between the plates P and Q,
∫dV=∫0d−Edx=∫0d−σε0dx=σdε0
6. Capacitance of the capacitor C = QV=Aσσdε0=ε0 A d Farads (In air)
Note : Capacity of a capacitor with dielectric medium is C
= ε0 A[ d−t+tk] Farads.
Question 5.
Explain the behaviour of dielectrics in an external field.
Answer:
1. When an external field is applied across dielectrics, the centre of

positive charge distribution shifts in the direction of electric field and
that of the negative charge distribution shifts
opposite to the electric field and induce a net electric field within the
medium opposite to the external field. In such situation the molecules
are said to be polarised.
2. Now consider a capacitor with a dielectric between the plates. The net
field in the dielectric becomes less.
3. If E0 is the external field strength and Ei is the electric field strength
induced, then the net field, E→net =E→0+E→i
(Enet) = E0 – Ei = EK where K is the dielectric constant of the medium.
Question 6.
Define electric potential. Derive an expression for the electric potential due
to an electric dipole and hence the electric potential at a point (a) the axial
line of electric dipole (b) on the equatorial line of electric dipole.
Answer:
Electric potential (V) : The workdone by a unit positive charge from infinite
to a point in an electric field is called electric potential.
Expression for the potential at a point due to a dipole:
1. Consider A and B having -q and + q charges separated by a distance

2a.
2. The electric dipole moment P = q × 2a along AB
3. The electric potential at the point’P’is to be calculated.
4. P is at a distance ‘r’ from the point ‘O’. θ is the angle between the line
OP and AB.
5. BN and AM are perpendicular to OP.
6. Potential at ‘P’ due to charge +q at B,
V1 = 14πε0[qBP]
∴ V1 = 14πε0[qNP] [∵ BP = NP]
7. Potential at P due to charge -q at A, V2 = 14πε0[−qAP]
∴ V2 = 14πε0[qMP] [∵ AP = MP]
8. Therefore, Resultant potential at P is V = V1 + V2
9. In △le ONB, ON = OB cos0 = a cosθ; ∴NP = OP – ON = r – a cosθ

V = 14πε0[qNP−qMP] ………… (1)
In △le AMO, OM = AO cos0 = a cosθ; ∴ MP = MO + OP = r + a

………………… (2)
10.
cosθ ………………. (3)
11. Substituting (2) and (3) in (1), we get
12. As r > >a, a2 cos2θ can be neglected with comparision of r2.

∴ V = Pcosθ4πε0r2
13. (a) Electric potential on the axial line of dipole:
 When θ = 0°, point p lies on the side of + q. ____

∴ V = P4πε0r2 [∵ cos 0° = 1]
 When θ = 180°, point p lies on the side of — q.
∴ V = −P4πε0r2 [∵ cos 180° = -1]
Qeustion 7.
What is series combination of capacitors. Derive the formula for equivalent
capacitance in series combination. [A.P.& T.S. Mar.15]
Answer:
Series combination : If a number of condensers are connected end to end
between the fixed points then such combination is called series.
In this combination
1. Charge on each capacitor is equal.

2. P.D’s across the capacitors is not equal.
Consider three capacitors of capacitances C1, C2 and C3 are connected in
series across a battery of P.D V as shown in figure.
Let ‘Q’ be the charge on each capacitor.

Let V1, V2 and V3 be the P.D’s of three
V = V1 + V2 + V3 ……………… (1)
RD across Ist condenser V1 = QC1
RD across IIInd condenser V2 = QC2
RD across IIIIrd condenser V3 = QC3
∴ From the equation (1),V = V1 + V2 + V3
= QC1+QC2+QC3=Q[1C1+1C2+1C3]
VQ=1C1+1C2+1C3
1C=1C1+1C2+1C3 [∵ 1C=VQ
For ‘n’ number of capacitors, the effective capacitance
1C=1C1+1C2+1C3+…+1Cn
Question 8.
What is parallel combination of capacitors. Derive the formula for
equivalent capacitance in parallel combination. [T.S. Mar. 17; A.P.& T.S.
Mar. 15]
Answer:
Parallel Combination: The first plates of different capacitors are connected
at one terminal and all the second plates of the capacitors are connected at
another terminal then the two terminals are connected to the two terminals
of battery is called parallel combination.
In this combination,
1. The P.D’s between each capacitor is equal (or) same.
2. Charge on each capacitor is not equal.
Consider three capacitors of capacitance C1, C2 and C3 are connected in
parallel across a P.D V as shown in fig.
The charge on Ist capacitor Q1 = C1 V
The charge on IInd capacitor Q2 = C2 V
The charge on IIIrd capacitor Q3 = C3 V
∴ The total charge Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3
Q = V(C1 + C2 + C3) ⇒ QV = C1 + C2 + C3
= C1 V + C 2 V + C 3 V
C = C1 + C2 + C3 [∵ C = QV]
for ‘n’ number of capacitors connected in parallel, the equivalent
capacitance can be written as
C = C1 + C2 + C3 + ……………. + Cn
Question 9.
Derive an expression for the energy stored in a capacitor.
Answer:
Expression for the energy stored in a capacitor : Consider an uncharged
capacitor of capacitance ‘c’ and its initial will be zero. Now it is connected
across a battery for charging then the final potential difference across the
capacitor be V and final charge on the capacitor be ‘Q’
∴ Average potential difference VA = O+V2=V2
Hence workdone to move the charge Q = W = VA × Q = VQ2
This is stored as electrostatic potential energy ‘U’
∴ U = QV2
We know Q = CV then ‘U’ can be written as given below.
U = QV2=12 CV2 = Q22C
∴ Energy stored in a capacitor
U = QV2=12 CV2 = 12Q2C
Qeustion 10.
What is the energy stored when the space between the plates is filled with
dielectric.
a) With charging battery disconnected ?
b) With charging battery connected in the circuit ?
Answer:
Effect of Dielectric on energy stored :
Case (a) : When the charging battery is disconnected from the circuit:
Let the capacitor is charged by a battery and disconnected from the circuit.
Now the space between the plates is filled with a dielectric of dielectric
constant ‘K’ then potential decreases by 1 K times and charge remains
constant.
Capacity increases by’K’ times.
New capacity C’ = QV = QVK = KQV = KC [V’ = VK; C = QV]
∴ C’ = KC
Energy stored U’ = 12 QV = 12 Q VK = UK
U’ = UK
∴ Energy stored decreases by 1 K times.
Case (b) : When the charging battery is connected in the circuit:
Let the charging battery is continue the supply of charge. When the
dielectric is introduced then potential decreases by 1 K times and charge on
the plates increases until the potential difference attains the original value
=V
New charge on the plates Q’= KQ
Hence new capacity C’ = Q′V=KQV = KC
Energy stored in the capacitor U’ = 12 QV; = 12 (KQ) V = KU
U = KU
∴ Energy stored in the capacitor increases by ‘K times.
Problems
Question 1.
(a) Calculate the potential at a point P due to a charge of 4 × 10 -7 C located
9 cm away,
(b) Hence obtain the work done in bringing a charge of 2 × 10 -9 C from
infinity to the point P. Does the answer depend on the path along which the
charge is brought ?
Solution:
(a) V = 14πε0Qr
= 9 × 109 Nm2 C-2 4×10−7C0.09 m
= 4 × 104 V
(b) W = qV = 2 × 10-9 C × 4 × 104V
= 8 × 10-5 J
No, work done will be path independent. Any arbitrary infinitesimal path
can be resolved into two perpendicular displacements. One along r and
another perpendicular to r. The work done corresponding to the later will be
zero.
Qeustion 2.
Two charges 3 × 10-8 C and -2 × 10-8 C are located 15 cm apart. At what
point on the line joining the two charges is the electric potential zero ? Thke
the potential at infinity to be zero.
Solution:
Let us take the origin O at the location of the positive charge. The line
joining the two charges is taken to be x-axis; the negative charge is taken
to be on the right side of the origin fig.
Let P be the required point on the x-axis where the potential is zero. If x is
the x – coordinate of P, obviously x must be positive. (There is no possibility
of potentials due to the two charges adding up to zero for x < 0.) If x lies
between O and A, we have
14πε0[3×10−8x×10−2−2×10−8(15−x)×10−2] = 0
where x is in cm. That is 3x−215−x = 0
which gives x = 9 cm
If x lies on the extended line OA, the required condition is 3x−2x−15 = 0
Which gives x = 45 cm
Thus, electric potential is zero at 9 cm and 45 cm away from the positive
charge on the side of the negative charge. Note that the formula for
potential used in the calculation required choosing potential to be zero at
infinity.
Question 3.
A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as the plates
of a parallel plate capacitor but has a thickness (3/4)d, where d is the
separation of the plates. How is the capacitance changed when die slab is
inserted between the plates ?
Solution:
Let E0 = Vg/d be the electric field between the plates when there is no
dielectric and the potential difference is V0. If the dielectric is now inserted,
the electric field in the dielectric will be E = E 0/K. The potential difference
will then be
V = E0(14d)+E0K(34d)
= E0 d(14+34 K)=V0K+34 K
The potential difference decreases by the factor (K + 3)/K while the free
charge Q0 on the plates remains unchanged. The capacitance thus
increases,
C = Q0 V=4 K K+3Q0 V0=4 K K+3C0
Question 4.
Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD of side d. as
shown in fig. Find the work required to put together this arrangement, (b) A
charge q0 is brought to the centre of the square, the four charges being
held fixed at its comers. How much extra work is needed to do this ?
Solution:
(a) Since the work done depends on the final arrangement of the charges,
and not on how they are put together, we calculate work needed for one
way of putting the charges at A, B, C and D. Suppose, first the charge +q is
brought to A and then the charges -q, +q, and -q are brought to B, C and D,
respectively. The total work needed can be calculated in steps.
1. Work needed to bring charge +q to A when no charge is present

elsewhere: this is zero.
2. Work needed to bring -q to B when + q is at A. This is given by (charge
at B) × (electrostatic potential at B due to change +q at A) = -q
× (q4πε0d)
3. Work needed to bring charge +q to C when +q is at A and -q is at B.
This is given by – (charge at Q × (potential at C due to charges at A
and B) .
4. Work needed to bring -q to D when +q at A, -q at B, and +q at C.

This is given by (charge at D) × (potential at D due to charges at A, B
and C)
Add the work done is steps (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). The total work
required is
The work done depends only on the arrangement of the charges, and
not how they are assembled. By definition, this is the total
electrostatic energy of the charges.
(Students may try calculating same work/energy by taking charges in
any other order they desire and convince themselves that the energy
will remain the same.)
b) The extra work necessary to bring a charge q0 to the point E when the
four charges are at A, B, C and D is q0 × (electrostatic potential at E due to
the charges at A, B, C and D). The electrostatic potential at E is clearly zero
since potential due to A and C is cancelled by that due to B and D.Hence no
work is required to bring any charge to point E.
Question 5.
a) Determine the electrostatic potential energy of a system consisting of
two charges 7μC and -2μC (and with no external field) placed at (-9 cm,
0,0) and (9cm, 0, 0) respectively.
b) How much work is required to separate the two charges infinitely away
from each ‘ other?
Solution:
(a) U = 14πε0q1q2r
= 9 × 109 × 14πε0q1q2r = -0.7 J.
(b)W = U2 – U1 = 0 – U = 0 – (-0.7)
= 0.7J.
Question 6.
There is a uniform electric field in the XOY plane represented by
(40i^+30j^) Vm-1. If the electric potential at the origin is 200 V, the
electric potential at the point with coordinates (2m, 1m) is
Answer:
Given, uniform Electric field intensity,
E→ = (40i^+30j^) Vm-1
Electric potential at the origin = 200V
Position vector dr→=(2i^+1j^) m
We know that,
dV = −E⃗ ⋅dr⃗ =−(40i^+30j^)⋅(2i^+j^)
Vp – V0 = -(80 + 30) = -110Volt. ’
Vp = V0 – 110 = (200 – 110) Volt = 90 Volt
∴ Potential at point P, Vp = 90Volt.
Question 7.
An equilateral triangle has a side length L. A charge +q is kept at the
centroid of the triangle. P is a point on the perimeter of the triangle. The
ratio of the minimum and maximum possible electric potentials for the
point P is
Answer:
Charge at the centroid of an equilateral triangle = +q
The charge + q divides the line segment in ratio 2 : 1.
That means rmax = 2 and rmin = 1
Question 8.
A condenser of certain capacity is charged to a potential V and stores some
energy. A second condenser of twice the capacity is to store half the
energy of the first, find to what potential one must be charged ?
Solution:
(For first capacitor, C1 = C; V1 = V
And U1 = 12 C1V12 = 12 CV2 …………………. (1)
For second capacitor, C2 = 2C1 = 2C;
U2 = U12=14CV2; Let potential difference across the capacitor = V 2
⇒ 14 CV2 = 12 × 2C × V22
Then, U2 = 12 C2V22
⇒ V22 = V24
∴ V2 = V2
Question 9.
Three Capacitors each of capaitance 9 pF are connected in series.
a) What is the total capacitance of the combination ?
b) What is the potential difference across each capacitor if the combination
is connected to a 120 V supply ?
Solution:
combination 1Cs=1C1+1C2+1C3⇒1CS=19+19+19=39=13
a) Resultant capacitance in series
CS = 3pF
b) Rd across each capacitor = V3=1203 = 40V
Question 10.
Three capacitors of capacitances 2 pF, 3 pF and 4 pF are connected in
parallel. [A.P. Mar. 17]
a) What is the total capacitance of the combination ?
b) Determine the charge on each capacitor if the combination is connected
to a 100 V supply.
Solution:
a) Cp = C1 + C2 + C3 = 2 + 3 + 4 = 9pF
b) For each capacitor, V is same = 100 Volt
q1 = C1V = 2 × 100 = 200pC
q2 = C2V = 3 × 100 = 300pC
q2 = C3V = 4 × 100 = 400pC
Textual Examples
Question 1.
(a) Calculate the potential at a point P due to a charge of 4 × 10 -7C located
9 cm away.
(b) Hence obtain the work done in bringing a charge of 2 × 10 -9C from
infinity to the point P. Does the answer depend on the path along which the
charge is brought ?
Solution:
(a) V = 14πε0Qr
= 9 × 109 Nm2 C-2 4×10−7C0.09 m
= 4 × 104 V
(b) W = qV = 2 × 10-9 C × 4 × 104V
= 8 × 10-5 J
No, work done will be path independent. Any arbitrary infinitesimal path
can be resolved into two perpendicular displacements. One along r and
another perpendicular to r. The work done corresponding to the later will be
zero.
Question 2.
Two charges 3 × 10-8 C and -2 × 10-8C are located 15 cm apart. At what
point on the line joining the two charges is the electric potential zero ? Take
the potential at infinity to be zero.
Solution:
Let us take the origin O at the location of the positive charge. The line
joining the two charges is taken to be x-axis; the negative charge is taken
to be on the right side of the origin fig.
Let P be the required point on the x-axis where the potential is zero. If x is
the x – coordinate of P, obviously x must be positive. (There is no possibility
of potentials due to the two charges adding up to zero for x < 0.) If x lies
between O and A, we have
14πε0[3×10−8x×10−2−2×10−8(15−x)×10−2] = 0
where x is in cm. That is 3x−215−x = 0
which gives x = 9 cm.
If x lies on the extended line OA, the required condition is 3x−2x−15 = 0
Which gives x. = 45 cm
Thus, electric potential is zero at 9 cm and 45 cm away from the positive
charge on the side of the negative charge. Note that the formula for
potential used in the claculation required choosing potential to be zero at
infinity.
Question 3.
Figure (a) and (b) shows the field lines of a positive and negative point
charge respectively.
(a) Give the signs of the potential difference V p – VQ; VB – VA.
(b) Give the sign of the potential energy difference of a small negative
charge between the points Q and P; A and B.
(c) Give the sign of the work done by the field in moving a small positive
charge from Q to P.
(d) Give the sign of the work done by the external agency in moving a small
negative charge from B And A.
(e) Does the kinetic energy of a small negative charge increase or decrease
in going from B to A ?
(a) As V ∝ 1r, Vp > VQ. Thus, (Vp – VQ) is positive. Also VB is less negative than
Solution:
VA. Thus, VB > VA or (VB – VA) is positive.

(b) A small negative charge will be attracted towards positive charge. The
negative charge moves from higher potential energy to lower potential
energy. Therefore the sign of potential energy difference of a small
negative charge between Q and P is positive. Similarly. (PE.) A > (P.E.)B and
hence sign of potential energy differences is positive.
(c) In moving a small positive charge from Q to P, work has to be done by

an external agency against the eletric field. Therefore, work done by the
field is negative.
(d) In moving a small negative charge from B to A work has to be done by

the external agency. It is positive.
(e) Due to force of repulsion on the negative charge, velocity decreases

and hence the kinetic energy decreases in going form B to A.
Question 4.
Four charges are arranged at the comets of a square ABCD of side d. as
shown in fig. 5.15.(a) Find the work required to put together this
arrangement, (b) A charge q0 is brought to the centre of the square, the
four charges being held fixed at its comers. How much extra work is
needed to do this ?
Solution:
(a) Since the work done depends on the final arrangement of the charges,
and not on how they are put together, we calculate work needed for one
way of putting the charges at A, B, C and D. Suppose, first the charge +q is
brought to A, and then the charges -q, +q, and -q are brought to B, C and
D, respectively The total work needed can be calculated in steps.
1. Work needed to bring charge +q to A when no charge is present

elesewhere: this is zero.
2. Work needed to bring -q to B when +q is at A. This is given by (charge
at B) x (electrostatic .potential at B due to charge +q at A) = -q
× (q4πε0 d)
3. Work needed to bring charge +q to C when +q is at A and -q is at B.
This is given by – (charge at Q × (potential at C due to charges at A
and B) .
4. Work needed to bring -q to D when +q at A, -q at B, and +q at C.

This is given by (charge at D) × (potential at D due to charges at A, B
and C)
Add the work done is steps (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). The total work
required is
The work done depends only on the arrangement of the charges, and
not how they are assembled. By definition, this is the total
electrostatic energy of the charges.
(Students may try calculating same work/energy by taking charges in
any other order they desire and convince themselves that the energy
will remain the same.)
b) The extra work necessary to bring a charge q0 to the point E when the
four charges are at A, B, C and D is q0 × (electrostatic potential at E due to
the charges at A, B, C and D). The electrostatic potential at E is clearly zero
since potential due to A and C is cancelled by that due to B and D.Hence no
work is required to bring any charge to point E.
Question 5.
a) Determine the electrostatic potential energy of a system consisting of
two charges 7µC and -2µC (and with no external field) placed at (-9 cm,
0,0) and (9cm, 0, 0) respectively.
b) How much work is required to separate the two charges infinitely away
from each other ?
c) Suppose that the same system of charges is now placed in an external
electric field E = A(1/r2); A = 9 × 105 C m-2. What would the electrostatic
energy of the configuration be ?
Solution:
(a) U = 14πε0q1q2r
= 9 × 109 × 14πε0q1q2r = -0.7 J.
(b)W = U2 – U1 = 0 – U = 0 – (-0.7)
= 0.7J.
c) The mutual interaction energy of the two charges remains unchanged. In

addition, there is the energy of interaction of the two charges with the
external electric field. We find,
q1V(r1) + q2V(r2) = A 7μC0.09 m + A −2μC0.09 m
and the net electrostatic energy is
q1V(r1) + q2V(r2) + q1q24πε0r12
= A 7μC0.09 m + A −2μC0.09 m
= 70 – 20 – 0.7 = 49.3J
Question 6.
A molecule of a substance has a perma-nent electric dipole moment of
magnitude 10-29C m. A mole of this substance is polarised (at low
temperature) by applying a strong electrostatic field of magnitude 10 6 V m-1.
The direction of the field is suddenly changed by an angle of 60°. Estimate
the heat released by the substance in aligning its dipoles along the new
direction of the field. For simplicity, assume 100% polarisation of the
sample.
Solution:
Here, dipole moment of each molecules = 10 -29C m
As 1 mole of the substance contains 6 × 1023 molecules,
total dipole moment of all the molecules, p = 6 × 10 23 × 10-29 Cm
= 6 × 10-6 C m
Initial potential energy, Ut = -pE cos θ
=-6 × 10-6 × 106 cos 0° = -6 J
Final potential energy (when θ = 60°),
Uf = -6 × 10-6 × 106 × cos 60° = – 3J
Change in potential energy
= -3 J – (-6j) = 3 J
So, there is loss in potential energy. This must be the energy released by
the substance in the form of heat in aligning its dipoles.
Question 7.
(a) A comb run through one’s dry hair attracts small bits of paper. Why ?
What happens if the hair is wet or if it is a rainy day ? (Remember, a paper
does not conduct electricity.)
(b) Ordinary rubber is an insulator. But special rubber types of aircraft are
made slightly conducting. Why is this necessary ?
(c) Vehicles carrying inflammable materials usually have metallic ropes
touching the ground during motion. Why?
(d) A bird perches on a bare high power line, and nothing happens to the
bird. A man standing on the ground touches the same line and gets a fatal
shock. Why ?
Solution:
(a) This is because the comb gets charged by friction. The molecules in the
paper gets polarised by the charged comb, resulting in a net force of
attraction, if the hair is wet, or if it is a rainy day. friction between hair and
the comb reduces. The comb does not get charged and thus it will not
attract small bits of paper.
(b) To enable them to conduct charge (produced by friction) to the ground;

as too much of static electricity accumulated may result in spark and result
in fire.
(c) Reason similar to (b).
(d) Current passes only when there is difference in potential.
Question 8.
A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as the plates
of a parallelplate capacitor but has a thickness (3/4)d, where d is the
separation of the plates. How is the capacitance changed when the slab is
inserted between the plates ?
Solution:
Let E0 = Vg/d be the electric field between the plates when there is no
dielectric and the potential difference is V0. If the dielectric is now inserted,
the electric field in the dielectric will be E = E 0/K. The potential difference
will then be
V = E0(14d)+E0K(34d)
= E0 d(14+34 K)=V0K+34 K
The potential difference decreases by the factor (K + 3)/K while the free
charge Q0 on the plates remains unchanged. The capacitance thus
increases,
C = Q0 V=4 K K+3Q0 V0=4 K K+3C0
Question 9.
A network of four 10μF capacitors is connected to a 500V supply, as shown
in Fig. Determine
(a) the equivalent capacitance of the network and
(b) the charge on each capacitor, (Note, the charge on a capacitor is the
charge on the plate with higher potential, equal and opposite to the charge
on the plate with lower potential.)
Solution:
(a) In the given network, C1, C2 and C3 are connected in series. The effective
capacitance C’ of these three capacitors isgivgftby
1C′=1C1+1C2+1C3
For C1 = C2 = C3 = 10 μF. C = (10/3) μF. The network has C and
C4 connected in parallel. Thus, the equivalent capacitance C of the network
is
C = C’ + C4 = (103 + 10) μF = 13.3 μF
(b) Clearly, from the figure, the charge on each of the capacitors, C 1, C2 and
C3 is the same, say Q. Let the charge on C4 be Q. Now, since the potential
difference c across AB is Q/C1 across BC is Q/C2. across CD is Q/C3, we have
QC1+QC2+QC3 = 500 V
Also Q’/C4 = 500V.
This gives for the given value of the capacitances,
Q = 500 V × 103 μF = 1.7 × 10-3C and
Q’ = 500 V × 10μF = 5.0 × 10-3C
Question 10.
(a) A 900pF capacitor is charged by 100 V battery [Fig.a]. How much
electrostatic energy is stored by the capacitor ?
(b) The capacitor is disconnected from the battery and connected to
another 900 pF capacitor. What is the electrostatic y energy stored by the
system ?
Solution:
The charge on the capacitor is
Q = CV = 900 × 10-12F × 100 V
= 9 × 10-8C
The energy stored by the capacitor is
= (1/2) CV2 = (1/2) QV
= (1/2) × 9 × 10-8C × 100 V
= 4.5 × 10-6 J
(b) In the steady situation, the two capacitors have their positive plates at
the same potential, and their negative plates at the same potential. Let the
common potential difference be V. The charge on each capacitor is then Q’
= CV’. By charge conservation, Q’ = Q/2. This implies V’ = V/2. The total
energy of the system is
= 2 × 12Q’V’ = 14QV = 2.25 × 106J
Thus in going from (a) to (b), though no charge is lost; the final energy is
only half the initial energy. Where has the remaining energy gone ?
There is a transient period before the system settles to the situation (b).
During this period, a transient current flows from the first capacitor to the
second. Energy is lost during this time in the form of heat and
electromagnetic radiation.
Lesson Moving Charges and Magnetism
Question 1.
What is the importance of Oersted’s experiment ? [T.S. Mar. 17]
Answer:
Importance of Oersted’s experiment is every current carrying conductor
produces a magnetic field around it and which is perpendicular to current
carrying conductor.
Question 2.
State Ampere’s law and Biot-Savart’s law.
Answer:
Ampere’s law : The line integral of the intensity of magnetic induction
∴ ∮B→⋅d→l = μ0 i.
around a closed path is equal to g0 times the total current enclosed in it.
Biot – Savart’s laws : Biot – Savart’s law states that the intensity of
magnetic induction (dB) due to a small element is directly proportional to
the
i) current (i)
ii) length of the element (dZ)
iii) sine angle between radius vector (r) and dl and inversely proportional to
∴dB ∝ idlsinθr2
the square of the point from current element.
dB = μ04π⋅idlsinθr2
Question 3.
Write the expression for the magnetic induction at any point on the axis of
a circular current-carrying coil. Hence, obtain an expression for the
magnetic induction at the centre of the circular coil.
Answer:
1. Intensity of magnetic induction field on the axis of the circular coil B

= μ0nir22(r2+x2)3/2
2. At the centre of the coil B = μ0ni2r
Question 4.
A circular coil of radius T having N turns carries a current “i”. What is its
magnetic moment ?
Answer:
Magnetic moment (M) = N i A
M = N i (πr2) (∵ A = πr2)
∴ M = π N i r2
Question 5.
What is the force on a conductor of length L carrying a current “i” placed in
a magnetic field of induction B ? When does it become maximum ?
Answer:
1. Force on a conductor (F) = B i L sinθ

2. If θ = 90°,FMax = BiL
i.e., the direction of current and magnetic field are perpendicular
to,each other, then force is maximum.
Question 6.
What is the force on a charged particle of charge “q” moving with a velocity
“v” in a uniform magnetic field of induction B ? When does it become
maximum ?
Answer:
1. Force on a charged particle (F) = B q v sin θ.

2. If θ = 90°, FMax = B q v.
Question 7.
Distinguish between ammeter and voltmeter. [A.P. Mar. 17; A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Ammeter
1. It is used to measure current.

2. Resistance of an ideal ammeter is zero.
3. It is connected in series in the circuits.
Voltmeter
1. It is used to measure RD between two points.

2. Resistance of ideal voltmeter is infinity.
3. It is connected in parallel in the circuits.
Question 8.
What is the principle of a moving coil galvanometer ?
Answer:
Moving coil galvanometer is based on the fact that when a current carrying
∴ current in the coil (i) ∝ deflecting angle (θ).

coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field, it experiences a torque.
Question 9.
What is the smallest value of current that can be measured with a moving
coil galvanometer ?
Answer:
Moving coil galvanometer is sensitive galvanometer, it is used to measure
very small current upto 10-9 A.
Question 10.
How do you convert a moving coil galvanometer into an ammeter ?
Answer:
A small resistance is connected in parallel to the moving coil galvanometer,
then it converts to ammeter.
S = Giig−1
Question 11.
How do you convert a moving coil galvanometer into a voltmeter ? [T.S.
Mar. 16, 15, 14; A.P. Mar. 16]
Answer:
A high resistance is connected in series to the moving coil galvanometer,
then it converts to voltmeter.
R = vig – G
Question 12.
What is the relation between the permittivity of free space e 0, the
permeability of free space m0 and the speed of light In vaccum?
Answer:
Speed of light in vaccum (C) = 1μ0ε0√
Here μ0 = m0 = permeability in vaccum
ε0 = permittivity in vaccum.
Question 13.
A current carrying circular loop lies on a smooth horizontal plane. Can a
uniform magnetic Held be set up in such a manner that the loop turns
about the vertical axis ?
Answer:
Torque (τ) = M→×B→=iA→×B→ (M = n i A)
where i is current, A→ is area vector, B→ is magnetic field. Area
vector A→ acts normal to the loop, so torque τ⃗ cannot act along the
vertical axis. The magnetic field is not set up to turn the loop around itself.
Question 14.
A current carrying circular loop is placed in a uniform external magnetic
field. If the loop is free to turn, what is its orientation when it achieves
stable equilibrium?
Answer:
The plane of the loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field
because the torque on the loop in this orientation is zero.
Question 15.
A wire loop of irregular shape carrying current is placed in an external
magnetic field. If the wire is flexible, what shape will the loop change to ?
Why ?
Answer:
For a given perimeter, a circle has maximum area among all geometrical
shapes. So to maximise the magnetic flux through it will assume a circular
shape with its plane normal to the field.
Question 16.
Consider a tightly wound 100 turn coil of radius 10 cm, carrying a current of
1 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil ?
Solution:
Since the coil is tightly wound we may take each circular element to have
the same radius R = 10 cm = 0.1 m. The number of turns N = 100. The
magnitude of the magnetic field is (From Eq.),
B0 = μ0I2Ri^
B = μ0NI2R=4π×10−7×102×12×10−1 = 2π × 10-4 = 6.28 × 10-4 T
Question 17.
A solenoid of length 0.5 m has a radius of 1 cm and is made up of 500
turns. It carries a current of 5 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic
field inside the solenoid ?
Solution:
The number of turns per unit length is,
n = 5000.5 = 1000 turns / m
The length l = 0.5m and radius r = 0.01 m. Thus, l/a = 50 i.e., l >> a.
Hence, we can use the long solenoid formula, namely, Eq. (B = μ 0nI)
B = μ0 n I
= 4π × 10-7 × 103 × 5 = 6.28 × 10-3 T
Question 18.
A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8.0 cm carries
a current of 0.40 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the
centre of the coil ?
Solution:
Here, n = 100, r = 8cm = 8 × 10-2 m and I = 0.40 A
B = μ04π⋅2πInr=10−7×2×3.14×0.4×1008×10−2 = 3.1 × 10-4 T

The magnetic field B at the centre
The direction of magnetic field depends on the direction of current if the

direction of current is anticlockwise. According to Maxwell’s right hand rule,
the direction of magnetic field at the centre of coil will be perpendicular
outwards to the plane of paper.
Question 19.
What is the magnitude of magnetic force per unit length on a wire carrying
a current of 8A and making an angle of 30° with the direction of a uniform
magnetic field of 0.15 T ?
Solution:
According to the question
I = 8 A, 6 = 30°, B = 0,15 T, l = 1 m
The magnitude of magnetic force

f = I (l × B) = I l B sin θ
= 8 × 1 × 0.15 × sin 30°
= 8×0.152 = 4 × 0.15 = 0.6 N/m
Question 1.
State and explain Biot-Savart’s law.
Answer:
Consider a very small element of length dl of a conductor carrying current
(i). Magnetic induction due to small element at a point P distance r from the
element.
Magnetic induction (dB) is directly proportional to i) current (i) ii) Length of
the element (di) iii) sine angle between r and dl and inversely proportional
to the square of the distance from small element to point P.
Question 2.
State and explain Ampere’s law.
Answer:
Ampere’s law : The line integral of the intensity of magnetic induction field
around closed path is equal to μ0 times the net current (i) enclosed by the
path.
∮B→⋅dl→ = μ i 0
Proof: Consider a long straight conductor carrying current i as shown in

figure. Magnetic induction at a distance r from the conductor is given by
B = μ0i2πr (From Biot-Savart’s law)
∮B→.dl→=∮Bdlcosθ
The value of B is same at all points on the circle.
= B∮dl = B × 2π
∮B→⋅dl→ = μ0i
= μ0i2πr × 2πr
This proves Ampere’s circuital laws.
Question 3.
Find the magnetic induction due to a long current carrying conductor.
Answer:
Consider a long straight conductor carrying a current i. Let P be a point at a
distance r from the conductor. Let r be the radius of the circle passing
through point p.
Magnetic induction is same at all points on the circle. Consider a small
∮B→⋅dl→=∮Bdlcosθ
element of length dl.
Angle between B and dl is zero i.e. θ = 0
∮B→⋅dl→ = B (2πr) ………………. (1)

= B∮dl
∮B→⋅dl→ = μ0i ……………. (2)

According to Ampere’s laws
From equations (1) and (2), B (2πr) = μ0i

= μ0i2πr
Question 4.
Derive an expression for the magnetic induction at the centre of a current
carrying circular coil using Biot-Savart’s law.
Answer:
Consider a circular coil of radius r and carry a current! Consider a small
element ‘dl’. Let O is the centre of the coil. By using Biot – Savart’s law,
dB = μ04π⋅idlsinθr2
Here angle dl→ and r→ is 90° (i.e., θ = 90°)
dB = μ04πidlr2 …………… (1)
As the field due to all elements of the circular loop have the same direction.
The resultant magnetic field can be obtained by integrating equation (1)
Question 5.
Derive an expression for the magnetic induction of a point on the axis of a
current carrying circular coil using Biot-Savart’s law.
Answer:
Consider a circular coil of radius R and carrying a current i. Let P is a point

on the axis at a distance x from the centre O. Let r be the distance of small
element (dl) from P.
dB = μ04π⋅idlsinθr2=μ04π⋅idlr2 ……………….. (1)

From Biot – savart’s law
(∵ θ = 90° Angle between dl→ and r→)

dB can be resolved into two components dB cosθ and dB sinθ. If we
consider another This also resolved into dB cosθ and dB sinθ.
The components along the axis will add up and perpendicular to the axis
will cancel.
∴ Resultant magnetic induction at P is
Question 6.
Explain how crossed E and B fields serve as a velocity selector.
Answer:
When a charged particle q moving with a velocity v in presence of both
electric and magnetic fields.
The force experienced due to electric field FE = qE→
The force experienced due to magnetic field FB = q (v⃗ ×B⃗ )
Consider electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other and
also perpendicular to the velocity of the particle.
E = Ej^,B = Bk^, v = υi^

FE = qEj^, FB =q(vi^ × Bk^) = – qvBj^
∴ F = F E + FB
F = q (E – υB)j^
Thus electric and magnetic forces are in opposite directions.
We adjust E and B such that, the forces are equal
FE = FB
qE = q υ B
υ = EB
This condition can be used to selefct charged particles of a particular
velocity. The crossed field E and B serve as a velocity selector.
Question 7.
What are the basic components of a cyclotron ? Mention its uses ?
Answer:
Cyclotron is a device used to accelerate positively charged particles like
protons, α – particles, deutrons etc.
Cyclotron mainly consists of
1. Two hollow D-shaped metallic chambers D1 and D2

2. High-frequency oscillator
3. Strong electro magnet
4. Vaccum chamber.
Uses of cyclotron :
1. It is used for producing radioactive material for medical purposes i.e.

diagnostics and treatment of chronic diseases. “
2. It is used to improve the quality of solids by adding ions.
3. It is used to synthesise fresh substances.
4. It is used to bombard the atoms with highly accelerated particles to
study the nuclear reactions.
Question 8.
Derive an expression for the magnetic dipole moment of a revolving
electron. [A.P. Mar. 16]
Solution:
Consider an electron revolving in a circular orbit of radius r with speed v
and frequency υ. If the electron cross a point P on the circle in every
revolution, then distance travelled by electron to complete one revolution
= 2πr.
No. of revolutions in one second (υ) = v2πr
The electric current (i) = Charge Time = charge × frequency
i = e × v2πr
∴ Magentic dipole moment (M) = iA (∵ N = 1)
M = ev2πr × πr2 (∵ A = πr2)
M = evr2
Question 1.
Deduce an expression for the force on a current carrying conductor placed
in a magnetic field. Derive an expression for the force per unit length
between two parallel current-carrying conductors.
Answer:
Expression for the Force acting on a current carrying conductor :
Consider a straight conductor (wire) of length T, area of cross section ’A1,
carrying a current T, which is placed in a uniform magnetic field of
induction ’B’ as shown in fig.
We know the external magnetic field exerts a force on the conductor.

The electrons in effect move with an average velocity called drift velocity
‘Vd‘. The direction of conventional current will be opposite to the direction
of drift velocity.
Let us assume that the current flows through the conductor from left ‘B’ in
the plane of the paper makes an angle ‘θ’ with the direction of current ‘i’ as
shown in fig.
If F’ is the force acting on the charge ‘q’ in B.
∴ F’ = q Vd B sin θ
If ‘n’ represents number of moving electrons per unit volume (∵ n = NV)
∴ Current i = nq Vd A
If ‘N’ is the number of electrons in the length ‘l’
N = nlA
Total force on conductor F = F’.N (∵N = nV = n × A × l)
= (q Vd B sin θ) (nlA)
(nqVdA) (lB sin θ)
∴ F = ilB sin θ
Case (i) : If θ = 0°, FMin = 0
Case (ii) : If θ = 90°, FMax = Bil
Expression for the force between two Parallel conductors carrying
conductors :
Consider two straight parallel conductors AB and ‘CD’ carrying currents ‘ix’
and ‘i2’ and which are separated by a distance ‘r’ as shown in fig.
If B1 and B2 are magnetic inductions produced by the current carrying

conductors AB and CD. Magnetic induction Bx at a distance ‘r’ from the
conductor ‘AB’ can be written as B1 = μ0i12πr
If ‘F’ is forœ acting on ‘CD’ clue to magnetic induction ‘B 1‘ then
FCD = i2lB1
Where l = length of the conductor
FCD = i2l (μ0i12πr)=μ0i1i2l2πr ……………. (1)
The direction of the force can be determined by using Flemings left hand
rule.
Similarly we can find the force acting on the A conductor AB due to
magnetic induction B2.
FAB = i1lB2
∴ FAB = i1l (μ0i22πr) ………….. (2) [∵B2 = (μ0i22πr)]
From the equations (1) and (2) FAB = FCD = μ0i1i2l2πr
∴ Force between two parallel, straight conductors carrying currents,
F = μ0i1i2l2πr
Force per unit length Fl=μ0i1i22πr
Question 2.
Obtain an expression for the torque on a current carrying loop placed in a
uniform ‘ magnetic field. Describe the construction and working of a
moving coil galvanometer.
Answer:
Torque acting on a coil carrying a current kept in a uniform magnetic field :
Let a rectangular current loop ABCD of length l = AB = CD and width b =
AD – BC carrying a current “i” be suspended in a magnetic field of flux
density B.
The normal ON drawn to the plane of the coil makes an angle ‘θ’ with the
magnetic field B.
Force on arm AD = ib¯¯¯×B¯¯¯¯ acting upwards along the axis of suspension

Force on arm BC = ib¯¯¯×B¯¯¯¯ acting downwards along the axis of
suspension
Hence these two forces cancel.
Force on arm AB = ilB acting perpendicular to the plane as shown.
Force on arm CD = ilB acting perpendicular to the plane as shown.
These two forces constitute a couple on the coil.
Moment of the couple = (Force) × (Perpendicular distance between the
forces) = ilB (PQ sin θ)
Torque = ilB b sinθ
But l × b = Area of coil
∴ Torque = iAB sin θ
If the loop has ‘n’ turns the torque on the coil
τ = n i AB sin θ
If ‘Φ’ is the deflection of the coil, that is the angle between the plane of the
coil and magnetic field B
τ = n i AB cos Φ
Moving coil galvanometer:
Principle : When a current carrying coil is placed in the uniform magnetic
field, it experiences a torque.
Construction :
1. It consists of a coil wound on a non metallic frame.

2. A rectangular coil is suspended between two concave shaped
magnetic poles with the help of phosphour Bronze wire.
3. The lower portion of the coil is connected to a spring.
4. A small plane mirror M is fixed to the phosphour Bronze wire to
measure the deflection of the coil.
5. A small soft iron cylinder is placed within the coil without touching the
coil. The soft iron cylinder increases the induction field strength.
6. The concave shaped magnetic poles render the field radial. So
maximum torque acting on it.
7. The whole of the apparatus is kept inside a brass case provided with a
glass window.
Theory:
Consider a rectangular coil of length l and breadth b and carrying current i
suspended in the induction field strength B.
Deflecting torque (τ) = B i A N …………….. (5)
where A = Area of the coil
N = Total number of turns.
The restoring torque developed in the suspension = C θ …………….. (2)
Where C is the couple per unit twist and 9 is the deflection made by the
coil.
When the coil is in equilibrium position
Deflecting torque = Restoring torque
B i A N = Cθ
i = (CBAN)θ
Where K = CBAN = Galvanometer constant.
i∝θ
i = K θ ……………… (3)
Thus deflection of the coil is directly proportional to the current flowing

through it. The deflection in the coil is measured using lamp and scale
arrangement.
Question 3.
How can a galvanometer be converted to an ammeter ? Why is the parallel
resistance smaller that the galvanometer resistance ? A moving coil
galvanometer can measure a current of 10-6 A. What is the resistance of
the shunt required if it is to measure 1A ?
Answer:
Conversion of Galvanometer into Ammeter :
Galvanometer is converted into an ammeter by connecting a suitable
resistance is parallel to it:
This arrangement decreases the effective resistance.
Ammeter is used for measuring the current in an electric circuit and it is

connected in series in circuit. The inclusion of the ammeter in the circuit
should not alter the current or total resistance of the circuit so it has very
low resistance.
The resistance of An ideal Ammeter is zero.

Let G and S be the Galvanometer and shunt resistances respectively.
Let ‘i’ be the total current, divided at A into i g and is as shown in fig.
From Kirchhoffs Ist law, i = ig + is
As ‘G’ and ‘S’ are parallel P.D. across
Galvanometer = P.D. across shunt
igG = isS
S = igisG
= Gigi−ig [∵ is = i – ig]
If iig = n ⇒ ig = in
S = Giig−1
∴ The current flowing through the galvanometer be (1n)th of total current.

∴ S = Gn−1
If ‘R’ is the effective resistance between points ‘A’ and ‘B’ then
Hence current through galvanometer is proportional to the total current.

Since ‘S’ is small major portion of the current flows through it and a small
portion of current flows through G. So shunt protects the galvanometer
from high currents. Parallel resistance is smaller than Galvanometer
resistance because to protect the Galvanometer from high (large) current
(or) to pass. Large currents through shunt and small current passes through
the galvanometer.
Solution for the problem : Current in the circuit i = 1A;
Current through the galvanometer, ig = 10-6A
Shunt resistance, S = Gn−1=Giig−1=G106−1=G99.999Ω
Question 4.
How can a galvanometer be converted to a voltmeter ? Why is the series
resistance greater that the galvanometer resistance ? A moving coil
galvanometer of resistance 5Ω can measure a current of 15mA. What is the
series resistance required if it is to measure 1.5V ?
Answer:
Conversion of Galvanometer into Voltmeter : A galvanometer is converted
into voltmeter by connecting a high resistance (R) in series with it.
Voltmeter is used to measure the P.D. between any two points in circuit
and it is connected in parallel to the component of the circuit.
Let ‘V’ be the potential difference to be measured between the points ‘A’
and ‘B’.
∴ V = (R + G) ig [∴ V = iR]
ig = Current passing through the galvanometer
Vig = R + G
R = Vig – G ……………. (1)
The value of ‘R’ can be calculated by using the above formula. If V g is the
maximum P.D. across the galvanometer then Vg = ig G
∴ ig = VgG …………….. (2)
Substitute ‘ig‘ in Equ (1)
If VVg = n ⇒ R = G(n – 1)
R = VGVg – G = (VVg−1)
Note : n = VVg is the ratio of maximum voltage to be measured to the

maximum voltage across the galvanometer.
Series resistance is greater than galvanometer resistance because the
current in external resistance and potential difference will be decreased
and to increase the resistance of the galvanometer.
Solution for the problem:
Problems
Question 1.
Two long and parallel straight wires A and B canying currents of 8.0 A and
5.0 A in the same direction are separated by a distance of 4.0 cm. Estimate
the force on a 10 cm section of wire A.
Solution:
F = μ04π⋅2I1I2r=10−7×2×8×50.04 = 2 × 10-4 N
Given I1 = 8A, I2 = 5A and r = 4 cm = 0.4m
The force on A of length 10 cm is F1 = F × 0.1 (∵ 1 m = 100 cm)

F1 = 2 × 10-4 × 0.1
F1 = 2 × 10-5 N.
Question 2.
A current of 10A passes through two very long wires held parallel to each
other and separated by a distance of 1m. What is the force per unit length
between them ? [A.P. & T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:
i1 = i2 = 10A
r = 1m
Fl=μ0i1i22πr
= 4π×10−7×10×102π×1
Fl = 2 × 10-5 Nm-1.
Question 3.
A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5 m carries a current of 2 A. It is
suspended in mid-air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field B (Fig.). What
is the magnitude of the magnetic field ?
Solution:
From Eq F = Il × B we find that there is an upward force F, of magnitude
IlB,. For mid-air suspension, this must be balanced by the force due to
gravity.
m g = I lB mg
B = mgIl
= 0.2×9.82×1.5 = 0.65 T
Note that it would have been sufficient to specify mll, the mass per unit
length of the wire. The earth’s magnetic field is approximately 4 × 10 -5 T
and we have ignored it.
Question 4.
The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at a certain place is
3.0 × 10-5 T and the direction of the field is from the geographic south to
the geographic north. A very long straight conductor is carrying a steady
current of 1 A. What is the force per unit length on it when it is placed on a
horizontal table and the direction of the current is
(a) east to west;
(b) south to north ?
Solution:
F = Il × B
F = IlB sin θ
The force per unit length is
f = F/l = IB sinθ
a) When the current is flowing from east to west,
θ = 90°
Hence,
f = IB
= 1 × 3 × 10-5 = 3 × 10-5 Nm-1
This is larger than the value 2 × 10-7 Nm-1 quoted in the definition of the
ampere. Hence it is important to eliminate the effect of the earth’s
magnetic field and other stray fields while standardising the ampere.
The direction of the force is downwards. This direction may be obtained by
the directional property of cross product of vectors.
b) When the current is flowing from south to north, .

θ = 0°
f=0
Hence there is no force on the conductor.
Textual Examples
Question 1.
A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5 m carries a current of 2 A. It is
suspended in mid-air by a uniform horizontal niagnetic field B (Fig.). What is
the magnitude of the magnetic field ?
Solution:
From Eq F = Il × B we find that there is an upward force F, of magnitude
IlB,. For mid-air suspension, this must be balanced by the force due to
gravity, m g = I lB .
B = mgIl
= 0.2×9.82×1.5 = 0.65 T
Note that it would have been sufficient to specify m/l, the mass per unit
length of the wire. The earth’s magnetic field is approximately 4 × 10 -5 T
and we have ignored it.
Question 2.
If the magnetic field is parallel to the positive y-axis and the charged
particle is moving along the positive x-axis (Fig.), which way would the
Lorentz force be for (a) an electron (negative charge), (b) a proton (positive
charge).
Solution:
The velocity v of particle is along the x-axis, while B, the magnetic field is
along the y-axis, so v × B is along the z-axis (screw rule or right-hand
thumb rule). So, (a) for electron it will be along -z axis, (b) for a positive
charge (proton) the force is along +z axis.
Question 3.
What is the radius of the path of ah electron (mass 9 × 10 -31 kg and charge
1.6 × 10-19 C) moving at a speed of 3 × 107 m/s in a magnetic field of 6 ×
10-4 T perpendicular to it ? What is its frequency ? Calculate its energy in
keV. (1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J).
Solution:
Using Eq. r = mυ/qb we find
r = mυ/(qB) = 9 × 10-31 kg × 3 × 107 m s-1 / (1.6 × 10-19 C × 6 × 10-4 T)
= 26 × 10-2 m = 26 cm
v = υ / (2 πr) = 2 × 106 s-1 = 2 × 106 Hz = 2MHz.
E = (1/2)mυ2 = (1/2) 9 × 10-31 kg × 9 × 1014 m2/s = 40.5 × 10-17 J
≈ 4 × 10-16 J = 2.5 keV.
Question 4.
A cyclotron’s oscillator frequency is 10 MHz. What should be the operating
magnetic field for accelerating protons ? If the radius of its does is 60 cm,
what is the kinetic energy (in MeV) of the proton beam produced by the
accelerator.
(e = 1.60 × 10-19 C, mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg, 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10-13 J).
Solution:
The oscillator frequency should be same as proton’s cyclotron frequency.
Using Eqs. r = mυ/qb and ω = 2πυ = qBM we have
B = 2π m υ/q = 6.3 × 1.67 × 10-27 × 107 / (1.6 × 10-19) = 0.66 T
Final velocity of protons is
υ = r × 2π v = 0.6 m × 6.3 × 107 = 3.78 × 107 m/s.
E = 1/2 mv2 = 1.67 × 10-27 × 14.3 × 1014/ (2 × 1.6 × 10-13) = 7 MeV
Question 5.
element ∆1 = ∆xi^ is placed at the origin and carries a large current I = 10
A (Fig.). Wat is the magnetic field on the y-axis at a distance of 0.5 m. ∆x =
1 cm.
Solution:
|dB| = μ04πIdlsinθr2
dl = ∆x = 10-2 m, I = 10 A, r = 0.5 m = y, μ0/4π = 10-7 TmA
θ = 90°; sin θ = 1
|dB| = 10−7×10×10−225×10−2 = 4 × 10-8 T
The direction of the field is in the +z-direction. This is so since,
dl × r = Δxi^×yj^=yΔx(i^×j^)yΔxk^
We remind you of the following cyclic property of cross-products,
i^×j^=k;j^×k^=i^;k^×i^=j^
Note that the field is small in magnitude.
Question 6.
A straight wire carrying a current of 12 A is bent into a semi-circular arc of
radius 2.0 cm as shown in Fig. Consider the magnetic field B at the centre
of the arc. (a) What is the magnetic field due to the straight segments ? (b)
In what way the contribution to B from the semicircle differs from that of a
circular loop and in what way does it resemble ? (c) Would your answer be
different if the wire were bent into a semi-circular arc of the same radius
but in the opposite way as shown in Fig. (b) ?
Solution:
a) dl and r for each element of the straight segments are parallel.
Therefore, dl × r = 0. Straight segments do not contribute to |B|.
b) For all segments of the semicircular arc, dl × r are all parallel to each
other (into the plane of the paper). All such contributions add up in
magnitude. Hence direction of B for a semicircular arc is given by the right-
hand rule and magnitude is half that of a circular loop. Thus B is 1.9 × 10 -4 T
normal to the plane of the paper going into it.
c) Same magnitude of B but opposite in direction to that in (b).
Question 7.
Consider a tightly wound 100 turn coil of radius 10 cm, carrying a current of
1 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil?
Solution:
Since the coil is tightly wound we may take each circular element to have
the same radius R = 10 cm = 0.1 m. The number of turns N = 100. The
magnitude of the magnetic field is (From Eq.),
B0 = μ0I2Ri^
B = μ0NI2R=4π×10−7×102×12×10−1 = 2π × 10-4 = 6.25 × 10-4 T
Question 8.
Magnetic field due to a long current-carrying wire Oersted’s experiments
showed that there is a magnetic field around a current-carrying wire. We
determine the magnitude of magnetic field at some distance from a long
striaght wire carrying a current I.
Solution:
The direction of the field is given by the right hand rule. The figure shows
an element dl of the current-carrying wire. The point P, where the field is to
be determined is at a perpendicular distance ‘S’ from the wire. The position
vector of P from dl is r.
The magnitude dB of the magnetic field due to dl is given by Biot-Savart

law to be
now from the figure S = r cosθ which gives l/r 2 = cos2θ/s2
and l’ = S tanθ which gives dl’ = S sec 2θ dθ = S dθ/cos2θ
thus dB = μ0Icosθ4πS dθ
we integrate this to get B at P If the wire is very long then the limits for 0
would be -π/2 to π/2
thus B = μ0l2πS (emerging from the paper at P)
Find ∮ B . dl for the paths shown in (a) and (b)

Question 9.
Solution:
a) Going around theKpath in the anticlockwise direction, I 1 is taken as
positive while I3 is negative. Currents I2 and I4 do not matter as they are NOT
∮ B . dl = μ0(I1 – I3)
enclosed by the path.
Note : Currents I2 and I4 create magnetic fields all around them and B due to
them on any element of the path would be non-zero. However, the sum
B.dZ due to them would be zero, b) Calculation of B. dl for the entire path
can be broken up into two separate calculations, one covering all
contributions from an anti-clockwise traversal around I 1 and the other
covering all contributions from a clockwise traversal around I 3. Thus
∫1 B.dl = μ0I1 for all elements around I1 traversed in an anti-clockwise
direction
I3 taken as positive because it is flowing into the plane. Thus the total ∮ B.dl
∫2 B.dl = μ0I3 for all elements around I3 traversed in a clockwise direction;
= μ0 (I1 – I3)
Question 10.
Figure shows the circular cross-section of a long straight wire of radius a
carrying steady current I. The current I is uniformly distributed across this
cross-section. Calculate the magnetic field in the region r < a (dashed inner
circle) and r > a (dashed outer circle).
Solution:
a) Consider the case r > a. The Amperian loop, labelled 2, is a circle
concentric with the cross-section. For this loop,
L = 2πr
Ie = Current enclosed by the loop = I
The result is the familiar expression for a long straight wire B(2πr) = μ 0I
B = μ0I2πr ……………… (1)
b) Consider the case r < a. The Amperian loop is a circle labelled 1 . For this
loop, taking the radius of the circle to be r,
L=2πr
Now the current enclosed Ie is not I (because r < a), but is less than this
value. Since the current distribution is uniform, the current enclosed is,
Figure shows a plot of the magnitude of B with distance r from the centre
(axis) of the wire. The direction of the field is tangential to the respective
circular loop (1 or 2) and given by the right-hand rule described earlier in
this section.
This example possesses the required symmetry so that Ampere’s law can
be applied readily.
Question 11.
A solenoid of length 0.5 m has a radius of 1 cm and is made up of 500
turns. It carries a current of 5 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic
field inside the solenoid ?
Solution:
The number of turns per unit length is,
n = 5000.5 = 1000 turns / m
The length l = 0.5m and radius r = 0.01 m. Thus, l/a = 50 i.e., l > >a.
Hence, we can use the long solenoid formula, namely, Eq. (B = μ 0nI)
B = μ0 n I
= 4π × 10-7 × 103 × 5 = 6.28 × 10-3 T
Question 12.
The horizontal componet of the earth’s magnetic field at a certain place is
3.0 × 10-5 T and the direction of the field is from the geographic south to
the geographic north. A very long straight conductor is carrying a steady
current of 1A. What is the force per unit length on it when it is placed on a
horizontal table and the direction of the current is
(a) east to west;
(b) south to north ?
Solution:
F = Il × B
F = IlB sin θ
The force per unit length is
f = F/l = IB sinθ
a) When the current is flowing from east to west,
θ = 90°
Hence,
f = IB
= 1 × 3 × 10-5 = 3 × 10-5 Nm-1
This is larger than the value 2 × 10-7 Nm-1 quoted in the definition of the
ampere. Hence it is important to eliminate the effect of the earth’s
magnetic field and other stray fields while standardising the ampere.
The direction of the force is downwards. This direction may be obtained by
the directional property of cross product of vectors.
b) When the current is flowing from south to north,

θ = 0°
f=0
Hence there is no force on the conductor.
Question 13.
A 100 turn closely wound circular coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of
3.2A. (a) What is the field at the centre of the coil ? (b) What is the
magnetic moment of this coil ?
The coil is placed in a vertical plane and is free to rotate about a horizontal
axis which coincides with its diameter. A uniform magnetic field of 2T in the
horizontal direction exists such that initially the axis of the coil is in the
direction of the field. The coil rotates through an angle of 90° under the
influence of the magnetic field, (c) What are the magnitudes of the torques
on the coil in the initial and final position ? (d) What is the angular speed
acquired by the coil when it has rotated by 90° ? The moment of inertia of
the coil is 0.1 kg m2. [A.P. Mar. 19]
Solution:
a) From B = μ0NI2R
Here, N = 100; I = 3.2 A, and R = 0.1 m. Hence,
B = 4π×10−7×102×3.22×10−1=4×10−5×102×10−1 (using π × 3.2 = 10)
= 2 × 10-3 T
The direction is given by the right-hand thumb rule.
b) The magnetic moment is given by
m = N I A = N I π r2 = 100 × 3.2 × 3.14 × 10-2 = 10 A m2
The direction is once again given by the right hand thumb rule.
c) τ = |m × B|
= mBsin θ
Initially, θ = 0. Thus initial torque τi = 0. Finally, θ = π/2 (or 90°).
Thus, final torque τf = m B = 10 × 2 = 20 N m.
d) From Newton’s second law.

Idωdt = mBsin θ
where I is the moment of inertia of the coil. From chain rule,
dωdt=dωdθdθdt=dωdθω
Using this,
Iω dω = m B sinθ dθ
Integrating from θ = 0 to θ = π/2,
I∫ωI0ωdω=mB∫π/20sinθdθ
Iω2I2=−mB[cosθ]|π/20=mB
ω = (2mBI)1/2=(2×2010−1)1/2 = 20 s
f
-1
Question 14.
a) A current-carrying circular loop lies on a smooth horizontal plane. Can a
uniform magnetic field be set up in such a manner that the loop turns
around it self (i.e. turns about the vertical axis).
Solution:
No, because that would require τ to the in the vertical direction. But τ = I A
× B, and since A of the horizontal loop is in the vertical direction, τ would
be in the plane of the loop for any B.
b) A current-carrying circular loop is located in a uniform external magnetic

field. If the loop is free to turn, what is its. orientation of stable
equilibrium ? Show that in this orientation, the flux of the total field
(external field + field produced by the loop) is maximum.
Solution:
Orientation of stable equilibrium is one where the area vector A of the loop
is in the direction of external magnetic field. In this orientation, the
magnetic field produced by the loop is in the same direction as external
field, both normal to the plane of the loop, thus giving rise to maximum flux
of the total field.
c) A loop of irregular shape carrying current is located in an external

magnetic field. If the wire is flexible, why does it change to a circular
shape ? What could be the sense of current in the loop and the direction of
magnetic field ?
Solution:
It assumes circular shape with its plane normal to the field to maximize
flux, since for a given perimeter, a circle encloses greater area than any
other shape.
Question 15.
In the circuit (Fig.) the current is to be measured. What is the value of the
current if the ammeter shown (a) is a galvanometer with a resistance R G =
60.00 Ω; (b) is a galvanometer described in (a) but converted to an
ammeter by a shunt resistance rs = 0.02 Ω; (c) is an ideal ammeter with
zero resistance ?
Solution:
a) Total resistance in the circuit is,
RG + 3 = 63 Ω. Hence I = 3/63 = 0.048 A.
b) Resistance of the galvanometer converted to an ammeter is,

RGrsRG+rs=60Ω×0.02Ω(60+0.02)Ω = 0.02 Ω
Total resistance in the circuit is,
0.02 Ω + 3 Ω = 3.02 Ω. Hence I = 3/3.02 = 0.99 A.
c) For the ideal ammeter with zero resistance,
1 = 3/3 = 1.00 A
Lesson Electromagnetic Induction
Question 1.
What did the experiments of Faraday and Henry show ?
Answer:
The discovery and understanding of electromagnetic induction are based on a long series of experiments
carried out by Faraday and Henry.
Question 2.
Define magnetic flux.
Answer:
Magnetic flux is defined as the number of magnetic lines of force crossing through the surface.
ΦB – B→⋅A→ = BA cos θ
C.G.S unit → Maxwell .
S.I. unit → Weber (wb)
Magnetic flux is a scalar.
Question 3.
State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.
Answer:
ε ∝ −dϕdt
“Magnitude of induced e.m.f is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux”
Question 4.
State Lenz’s law.
Answer:
The direction of induced e.m.f (or) current is such that it opposes the cause which produces it. Lenz’s law is in
accordance with law of conservation of energy.
Question 5.
What happens to the mechanical energy (of motion) when a conductor is moved in a uniform magnetic field ?
Answer:
Motional e.m.f is produced to the motion of the conductor in a magnetic field.
Motion e.m.f (ε) B/υ.
Question 6.
What are Eddy currents ? [A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Eddy currents (or) Focault currents : The induced circulating currents produced in a conductor itself due to
change in magnetic flux linked with the conductor are called Eddy currents.
Due to Eddy currents, the energy is dissipated in the form of heat energy.
Question 7.
Define ‘inductance’.
Answer:
Inductance is a coefficient of electromagnetic induction and is an intrinsic property of a material just like
capacitance.
Inductance is an important scalar quantity which depends upon the geometry (i.e, dimensions) of a coil.
Question 8.
What do you understand by ‘self inductance’ ?
Answer:
Self inductance of a coil is defined as the induced e.m.f produced in the coil through which the rate of change
of current is unity.
ε = -L dIdt; ε = -L, If dIdt = 1 A/s.
Question 1.
Obtain an expression for the emf induced across a conductor which is moved in a uniform magnetic field
which is perpendicular to the plane of motion.
Answer:
Consider a conductor PQ of length l moving freely in a uniform magnetic field B→ with uniform veiority υ
on a rectangular conductor ABCD. Let any arbitrary charge q in the conductor also move in the field with same
velocity.
Magnitude of Lorentz force on this charge

(F) = Bqυ ……………….. (1)
Workdone in moving the charge from P to Q is given by ‘
W = Force × displacement
W = Bqυ × l ………………. (2) (∵ Direction of force on the charge as per Flemings left hand rule)
ε = Bqυlq ⇒ ε = Blυ ……………. (3)

Electromagnetic force (ε) = WQ
Question 2.
Describe the ways in which Eddy currents are used to advantage. [A.P. Mar. 17, 16; A.P. & T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Eddy currents are used to advantage in
i) Magnetic braking in trains : A strong magnetic field is applied across the metallic drum rotating with the
axle of the electric train. Thus large eddy currents are produced in the metallic drum. These currents oppose the
motion of the drum and hence the axle of the train which ultimately makes the train come to rest.
ii) Induction Motor: Eddy currents are used to rotate the short circuited motor of an induction motor. Ceiling
fans are also induction motors which run on single phase alternating current.
iii) Electromagnetic damping : Certain galvanometers have a fixed core made of non magnetic metallic
material. When the coil oscillates, the eddy currents generated in the core oppose the motion and bring the coil
to rest quickly.
iv) Induction furnace : Induction furnace can be used to produce high temperatures and can be utilised to
prepare alloys, by melting the constituent metals. A high frequency alternating current is passed through a coil.
The eddy currents generated in the metals produce high temperatures sufficient to melt it.
v) Analogue energy meters : Concept of eddy currents is used in energy meters to record the consumption of
electricity. Aluminium disc used in these meters get induced due to varying magnetic field. It rotates due to
eddy currents produced in it.
Question 3.
Obtain an expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial solenoids.
Answer:
Consider two solenoids as shown in figure. The length of primary coil be l and area of cross section A. Let
N1 and N2 are the total number of turns in the primary and secondary solenoids. Let n1 and n2 be the number of
turns per unit length
(n1 = N1l and n2 = N2l). Current in the primary coil is i.
∴ Magnetic field inside the primary (B) = μ0n1 I = μ0 N1l I ……….. (1)
Magnetic flux through each turn of primary
ΦB = B→⋅A→ = μ0 N1l I × A ……………. (2)
∴ Total magnetic flux linked with secondary = μ0N1il × A × N2 ……………. (3)

The same magnetic flux is linked with the secondary coil.
∴ Mi = μ0 N1 N2iAl ……………… (4)

If M be mutual inductance of the two coils, the total flux linked with the secondary is Mi.
M = μ0 N1 N2 Al …………….. (5) (∵ A = πr2)

(or) M = μ0 N1 N2(πr2)l ………….. (6) (∵μr = μμ0)
Problems
Question 1.
A wheel with 10 metallic spokes each 0.5 m long is rotated with a speed of 120 rev/min in a plane normal to
the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field HE at a place. If HE = 0.4 G at the place, what is the induced
emf between the axle and the rim of the wheel ? (Note that 1 G = 10-4 T.)
Solution:
Induced emf = (1/2) ω B R2
= (1/2) × 4π × 0.4 × 10-4 × (0.5)2
= 6.28 × 10-5 V
Question 2.
Number of turns in a coil are 100. When a current of 5A is flowing through the coil, the magnetic flux is 10 -
6
Wb. Find the self induction. [Board Model Paper]
Solution:
Self inductance, L = nϕi
number of turns, n = 100; magnetic flux, Φ = 10-6Wb; Current, i = 5A
∴ Self inductance, L = 20 µH
L = 100×10−65 = 20 × 10-6 = 20 µH
Question 3.
Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1 s. If an average emf of 200 V is induced, give an estimate
of the self-inductance of the circuit. [Mar. 16 (T.S.) Mar. 14]
Solution:
Change in current, dI = 5 – 0 = 5A,
Time taken in current change dt = 0.1 s
Induced emf in the circuit e = L . dIdt ⇒ 200 = L(50.1) or L = 20050 = 4 H.

Induced average emf eav = 200 V
Question 4.
A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If the current in one coil changes from 0 to 20 A in
0.5 s, what is the change of flux linkage with the other coil ? [T.S. Mar. 17]
Solution:
Given, mutual inductance of coil M = 1.5 H
Current change in coil dI = 20 – 0 = 20 A
Time taken in change dt = 0.5s, Induced emf in the coil e M = MdIdt=dϕdt
dΦ = M.dI = 1.5 × 20, dΦ = 30 Wb,
Thus the change of flux linkage is 30 Wb.
Question 5.
A jet plane is travelling towards west at a speed of 1800 km/K What is the voltage difference developed
between the ends of the wing having a span of 25 m, if the Earth’s magnetic field at the location has a
magnitude of 5 × 10-4 T and the dip angle is 30°.
Solution:
Speed of jet plane V = 1800 km/h = 1800 × 518 = 500 m/s
l = Distance between the ends of wings = 25 m
The magnitude of magnetic field B = 5 × 10-4 T
Angle of dip γ = 30°.
Use the formula of motional emf
e = BvVl, e = B sin γ Vl (Bv = B sin γ),
e = 5 × 10-4 × sin 30° × 500 × 25, e = 3.1V
Thus, the voltage difference developed between the ends is 3.1 V.
Textual Examples
Question 1.
(a) What would you do to obtain a large deflection of the galvanometer ?
(b) How would you demonstrate the presence of an induced current in the absence of a gal-vanometer ?
Solution:
a) To obtain a large deflection, one or more of the following steps can be taken :
1. Use a rod made of soft iron inside the coil C2.

2. Connect the coil to a powerful battery, and
3. Move the arrangement rapidly towards the test coil C1.
b) Replace the galvanometer by a small bulb, the kind one finds in a small torch light. The relative motion
between the two coils will cause the bulb to glow and thus demonstrate the presence of an induced current.
Question 2.
A square loop of side 10 cm and resistance 0.5 Ω is placed vertically in the east-west plane. A uniform
magnetic field of 0.10 T is set up across the plane in the north-east direction. The magnetic field is decreased to
zero in 0.70 s at a steady rate. Determine the magnitudes of induced emf and current during this time interval.
Solution:
The angle θ made by the area vector of the loop with the magnetic field is 45°.
From eq. ΦB = B.A. = BA cosθ the initial magnetic flux is Φ = BA cosθ
= 0.1×10−22√ Wb
Final flux, Φmin = 0
The change in flux is brought about in 0.70 s. From Eq. ε = dϕBdt, the magnitude of the induced emf is given
by
ε = |ΔϕB|Δt=|(ϕ−0)|Δt=10−32√×0.7 = 1.0 mV
And the magnitude of the current is
I = εR=10−3⋅V0.5Ω = 2 mA.
Note that the earth’s magnetic field also produces a flux through the loop.
Question 3.
A circular coil of radius 10 cm, 1500 turns and resistance 2 Ω is placed with its plane perpendicular to the
horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field. It is rotated about its vertical diameter through 180° in 0.25
s. Estimate the magnitudes of the emf and current induced in the coil. .Horizontal component of the earth’s
magnetic field at the place is 3.0 × 10-5 T.
Solution:
Initial flux through the coil,
ΦB(initial) = BA C0S θ
= 3.0 × 10-5 × (π × 10-2) × cos 0°
= 3π × 10-7 Wb.
Final flux after the rotation,
ΦB(final) = 3.0 × 10-5 × (π × 10-2) × cos 180°
= -3π × 10-7 Wb.
Therefore, estimated value of the induced emf is,
ε = NΔϕΔt = 500 × (6π × 10-7)/0.25
= 3.8 × 10-3 V
I = ε/R = 1.9. × 10-3 A.
Note that the magnitudes of ε and I are the estimated values.
Question 4.
The following figure shows planar loops of different shapes moving out of or into a region of a magnetic field
which is directed normal to the plane of the loop away from the reader. Determine the direction of induced
current in each loop using Lenz’s law.
Solution:
1. The magnetic flux through the rectangular loop abed increases, due to the motion of the loop into the region of
magnetic field. The induced current must flow along the path bcdab so that it opposes the increasing flux.
2. Due to the outward motion, magnetic flux through the triangular loop abc decreases due to which the induced
current flows along bacd, so as to oppose the change in flux.
3. As the magnetic flux decreases due to motion of the irregular shaped loop abed out of the region of magnetic
field, the induced current flows along edabe, so as to oppose change in flux.
Question 5.
a) A closed loop is held stationary in the magnetic field between the north and south poles of two permanent
magnets held fixed. Can we hope to generate current in the loop by using very strong magnets ?
b) A closed loop moves normal to the constant electric field between the plates of a large capacitor. Is a current
induced in the loop (i) when it is wholly inside the region between the capacitor plates (ii) When it is partially
outside the plates of the capacitor ? The electric field is normal to the plane of the loop.
c) A rectangular loop and a circular loop are moving out of a uniform magnetic field region as in the figure, to
a field-free region with a constant velocity v. In which loop do you expect the induced emf to be constant
during the passage out of the field region ? The field is normal to the loops.
d) Predict the polarity of the capacitor in the situation described by the following figure.
Solution:
a) No. However strong the magnet may be, current can be induced only by changing the magnetic flux through
the loop.
b) No current is induced in either case. Current can not be induced by changing the electric flux.
c) The induced emf is expected to be constant only in the case of the rectangular loop. In the case of circular
loop, the rate of change of area of the loop during its passage out of the field region is not constant, hence
induced emf will vary accordingly.
d) The polarity of plate ‘A’ will be positive with respect to plate ‘B’ in the capacitor.
Question 6.
A metallic rod of 1 m length is rotated with a frequency of 50 rev/s, with one end hinged at the centre and the
other end at the circumference of a circular metallic ring of radius 1 m, about an axis passing through the
centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring as in figure. A constant and uniform magnetic field of 1 T
parallel to the axis is present everywhere. What is the emf between the centre and the metallic ring ?
Solution:
Method I : As the rod is rotated, free electrons in the rod move towards the outer end due to Lorentz force and
get distributed over the ring. Thus, the resulting separation of charges produces an emf across the ends of the
rod. At a certain value of emf, there is no more flow of electrons and a steady state is reached.
Using equation (ε = – Bl dxdt = BlV), the magnitude of the emf generated across a length dr of the rod as it
moves at right angles to the magnetic field is given by
dε = Bυ dr. Hence,
ε = ∫dε=∫R0Bvdr=∫R0Bωrdr=BωR22
Note that we have used υ = ωr. This gives
ε = 12 × 1.0 × 2π × 50 × (12) = 157 V.
Method II: To calculate the emf, we can imagine a closed loop OPQ in which point O and P are connected with
a resistor R and OQ is the rotating rod. The potential difference across the resistor is then equal to the induced
emf and equals B × (rate of change of area of loop). If θ is the angle between the rod and the radius of the
circle at P at time t, the area of the sector OPQ is given by
πR2 × θ2π=12, R2θ
where R is the radius of the circle. Hence, the induced emf is
e = B × ddt[12R2θ]=12BR2dθdt=BωR22
[Note: dθdt = ω = 2πv]
This expression is identical to the – expression obtained by Method I and we get the same value of ε.
Question 7.
A wheel with 10 metallic spokes each 0.5 m long is rotated with a speed of 120 rev/min in a plane normal to
the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field HE at a place. If HE = 0.4 G at the place, what is the induced
emf between the axle and the rim of the wheel ? Note that 1 G = 10-4 T.
Solution:
Induced emf = (1/2) ω B R2
= (1/2) × 4π × 0.4 × 10-4 × (0.5)2
= 6.28 × 10-5 V
Question 8.
Refer to fig. The arm PQ of the rectangular conductor is moved from x = 0, outwards. The uniform magnetic
field is perpendicular to the plane and extends from x = 0 to x = b and is zero for x > b. Only the arm PQ
possesses substantial resistance r. Consider the situation when the arm PQ is pulled outwards from x = 0 to x =
2b, and is then moved back to x = 0 with constant speed o. Obtain expressions for the flux, the induced emf,
the force necessary to pull the arm and the power dissipated as Joule heat. Sketch the variation of these
quantities with distance.
Solution:
Let us first consider the forward motion from x = 0 to x = 2b. The flux ΦB linked with the circuit SPQR is
ΦB = Blx 0 ≤ x < b
= Blυ b ≤ x < 2b
The induced emf is,
ε = – dϕBdt
= -Blυ 0 ≤ x < b
= 0 b ≤ x < 2b.
When the induced emf is non-zero, the current I is (in magnitude)
I = Blvr
The force required to keep the arm PQ in constant motion is I lB. Its direction is to the left. In magnitude
F = B2l2vr 0 ≤ x < b
= 0 b ≤ x < 2b
The Joule heating loss is
Pj = I2r
= B 2 l 2 v2 r 0 ≤ x < b
= 0 b ≤ x < 2b
One obtains similar expressions for the inward motion from x = 2b to x = 0.
Question 9.
Two concentric circular coils, one of small radius r1 and the other of large radius r2, such that r1 << r2, are
placed co-axially with centres coinciding. Obtain the mutual inductance of the arrangement.
Solution:
Let a current I2 flow through the outer circular coil. The field at the centre of the coil is B2 = μ0I2/2r2. Since the
other co-axially placed coil has a very small radius. B2 may be considered constant over its cross-sectional
area. Hence,
Φ2 = πr21 B2
= μ0πr212r2I2
= M12I2
Thus,
M12 = μ0πr212r2
From Equation M12 = M21 = M
M12 = M21 = μ0πr212r2
Note that we calculated M12 from an approximate value of Φ1 assuming the magnetic field B2 to be uniform
over the area πr21. However, we can accept this value because r1 << r2.
Question 10.
(a) Obtain the expression for the magnetic energy stored in a solenoid in terms of magnetic field B, area A and
length l of the solenoid.
(b) How does this magnetic energy compare with the electrostatic energy stored in a capacitor ?
Solution:
a) From Equation ε = – L dIdT,
the magnetic energy is
UB = 12 LI2
= 12 L(Bμ0n)2
(since B = μ0nI, for a solenoid)
= 12 (μ0n2Al) (Bμ0n)2
[from Equation L = μ0n2Al]
= 12μ0 B2Al
b) The magnetic energy per unit volume is,
uB = UBV
[where Vis volume that contains flux]
= UBAl=B2μ0 ……………….. (1)
We have already obtained the relation for the electrostatic energy stored per unit volume in a parallel plate
capacitor.
uE = 12 ε0E2 ………………. (2)
In both the cases energy is proportional to the square of the field strength.
Question 11.
Kamla peddles a stationary bicycle, the pedals of the bicycle are attached to a 100 turn coil of area 0.10 m 2.
The coil rotates at half a revolution per second and it is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.01 T
perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the coil. What is the maximum voltage generated in the coil ?
Solution:
Here f = 0.5 Hz; N = 100, A = 0.1 m2 and B = 0.01 T.
Employing Equation ε = NBA ω sin ωt
ε0 = NBA (2πv)
= 100 × 0.01 × 0.1 × 2 × 3.14 × 0.5
= 0.314 V
The maximum voltage is 0.314 V
Lesson Alternating Current
Question 1.
A transformer converts 200 V ac into 2000 V ac. Calculate the number of turns in the ‘ secondary if the
primary has 10 turns. [T.S. Mar. 16]
Answer:
VsVp=NsNp
Vp = 200V, Vs = 2000V, Np = 10
Ns = VsVp × Np = 2000200 × 10
Ns = 100.
Question 2.
What type of transformer is used in a 6V bed lamp ? [A.P. Mar. 17]
Answer:
Step down transformer is used in 6V bed lamp.
Question 3.
What is the phenomenon involved in the working of a transformer ? [Mar. 16(A.P.) Mar. 14]
Answer:
Transformer works on the principle of mutual induction.
Question 4.
What is transformer ratio ?
Answer:
The ratio of secondary e.m.f to the primary e.m.f. (or) number of turns in secondary to the number of turns in
the primary is called the transformer ratio.
Transformer ratio = VsVp=NsNp
Question 5.
Write the expression for the reactance of i) an inductor and (ii) a capacitor.
Answer:
1. Inductive reactance (XL) = ωL

2. Capacitive reactance (XC) = 1ωC
Question 6.
What is the phase difference between A.C emf and current in the following: Pure resistor, pure inductor and
pure capacitor. [T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:
1. In pure resistor A.C. e.m.f and current are in phase with each other.
2. In pure inductor, current lags behind the e.m.f. by an angle of π2 (or) 90°.
3. In pure capacitor, current leads the e.m.f by an angle π2 (or) 90°.
Question 7.
Define power factor. On which factors does power factor depend ?
Answer:
The ratio of true power and apparent power (virtual power) in an a.c circuit is called as power factor of the
circuit.
Power factor (cosΦ) = PPrms [∵ Prms = Vrms Irms]
Power factor depends on r.m.s voltage, r.m.s current and average power (P).
Question 8.
What is meant by wattless component of current ?
Answer:
Average power (P) = Vrms(Irms sinΦ) cosπ2
The average power consumed in the circuit due to (Irms sinΦ) component of current is zero. This component of
current is known as wattless current. (Irms sinΦ) is the wattless component of current.
Question 9.
When does a LCR series circuit have minimum impedance ?
Answer:
In LCR series circuit, Impendence (Z) = R2+(1ωC−ωL)2−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√
At a particular frequency, ωL = 1ωC
The impedance is minimum (Z = R)
This frequency is called resonant frequency.
Question 10.
What is the phase difference between voltage and current when the power factor in LCR series circuit is unity ?
Answer:
In LCR series circuit power factor (cosΦ) = 1
Phase difference between voltage and current is zero. (Φ = 0)
Question 1.
State the principle on which a transformer works. Describe the working of a transformer with necessary theory.
Answer:
Transformer is a device to convert a low alternating current of high voltage into high alternating current of low
voltage and vice versa.
Principle : It works on the principle of mutual induction between two coils.
Working : When an alternating emf is applied across the primary coil, the input voltage changes with time.
Hence the magnetic flux through the primary also changes with time.
This changing magnetic flux will be linked with secondary through the core. An emf is induced in the
secondary.
Theory: Let N1 and N2 be the number of turns in the primary and secondary. Let VP and VS be the emf s across
the primary and secondary.
VSVp= Output emf Input emf=−N2dϕdt−N1dϕdt=N2N1
∴ VSVP=N2 N1 = Transformer ratio
Efficiency of transformer :
It is the ratio of output power to the input power.
η = Outputpower Input power × 100
Problems
Question 1.
A light bulb is rated at 100W for a 220 V supply. Find
(a) the resistance of the bulb;
(b) the peak voltage of the source; and
(c) the rms current through the bulb. [A.P. Mar. 15]
Solution:
(a) We are given P = 100 W and V = 220V The resistance of the bulb is
R = V2P=(220 V)2100 W = 484 Ω
(b) The peak voltage of the source is υm = 2–√V = 311 V
(c) Since, P = 1 V
I = PV=100 W220 V = 0.450 A.
Question 2.
A pure inductor of 25.0 mH is connected to a source of 220 V. Find the inductive reactance and rms current in
the circuit if the frequency of the source is 50 Hz.
Solution:
The inductive reactance,
XL = 2πvL = 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 25 × 10-3 = 7.85 Ω
The rms current in the circuit is I = VXL=220 V7.85Ω = 28 A
Question 3.
The instantaneous current and instantaneous voltage across a series circuit containing resistance and inductance
are given by i = 2–√ sin (100t – π/4)A and υ = 40 sin (100t) V. Calculate the resistance ?
Solution:
i = 2–√ sin (100t – π/4)A (∵i = i0sin(ωt – Φ))
υ = 40 sin(100t)V (∵ V = V0sin(ωt ))
i0 = 2–√ , V0 = 40, ω = 100, Φ = π/4
R = V0i0 cosΦ = 402√ cosπ4, R = 402√×12√, R = 20 Ω
Question 4.
In an AC circuit, a condenser, a resistor and a pure inductor are connected in series across an alternator (AC
generator). If the voltages across them are 20 V, 35 V and 20 V respectively, find the voltage supplied by the
alternator.
Solution:
VC = 20V, VR = 35V, VL = 20V
V = V2R+(V2L−V2C)−−−−−−−−−−−−−√ ; V = (35)2+(202−202)−−−
−−−−−−−−−−−−−√ ; V = 352−−−√; V = 35 Volt.
Question 5.
What is step up transformer ? How it differs from step down transformer ?
Solution:
The ratio of number of turns in the secondary coil to the number of turns in the primary coil is called
transformer ratio.
T = NSNp=No. of turns in the secondary No. of turns in the primary
If NS > NP, then the transformer is called step up transformer.
If NS < NP, then the transformer is called step down transformer.
Textual Examples
Question 1.
A light bulb is rated at 100W for a 220 V supply. Find
(a) the resistance of the bulb;
(b) the peak voltage of the source; and
(c) the rms current through the bulb. [A.P. Mar. 15]
Solution:
(a) We are given P = 100 W and V = 220V.
The resistance of the bulb is
R = V2P=(220 V)2100 W = 484 Ω
(b) The peak voltage of the source is υm = 2–√V = 311 V
(c) Since, P = 1 V
I = PV=100 W220 V = 0.450 A.
Question 2.
A pure inductor of 25.0 mH is connected to a source of 220 V. Find the inductive reactance and rms current in
the circuit if the frequency of the source is 50 Hz.
Solution:
The inductive reactance,
XL = 2πvL = 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 25 × 10-3 = 7.85 Ω
The rms current in the circuit is I = VXL=220 V7.85Ω = 28 A
Question 3.
A lamp is connected in series with a capacitor. Predict your observations for dc and ac connections. What
happens in each case if the capacitance of the capacitor is reduced ?
Solution:
When a dc source is connected to a capacitor, the capacitor gets charged and after charging no current flows in
the circuit and the lamp will not glow. There will be no change even if C is reduced. With ac source, the
capacitor offers capacitative reactance (1/ωC) and the current flows in the circuit. Consequently, the lamp will
shine. Reducing C will increase reactance and the lamp will shine less brightly than before.
Question 4.
A 15.0 μF capacitor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz source. Find the capacitive reactance and the current (rms
and peak) in the circuit. If the frequency is doubled, what happens to the capacitive reactance and the current ?
Solution:
The capacitive reactance is
Xc = 12πvC=12π(50 Hz)(15.0×10−6 F)
= 212 Ω
The rms current is I = VXC=220 V212Ω
= 1.04 A
The peak current is
im = 2–√I = (1.41)(1.04A) = 1.47A
This current oscillates between + 1.47A and – 1.47 A, and is ahead of the voltage by π/2.
If the frequency is doubled, the capacitive reactance is halved and consequently, the current is doubled.
Question 5.
A light bulb and an open coil inductor are connected to an ac source through a key as shown in the figure.
The switch is closed and after sometime, an iron rod is inserted into the interior of the inductor. The glow of
the light bulb (a) increases; (b) decreases; (c) is unchanged, as the iron rod is inserted. Give your answer with
reasons.
Solution:
As the iron rod is inserted, the magnetic field inside the coil magnetizes the iron increasing the magnetic field
inside it. Hence, the inductance of the coil increases. Consequently, the inductive reactance of the coil
increases. As a result, a larger fraction of the applied ac voltage appears across the inductor, leaving less
voltage across the bulb. Therefore, the glow of the light bulb decreases.
Question 6.
A resistor of 200Ω and a capacitor of 15.0 μF are connected in series to a 220V, 50 Hz ac source,
(a) Calculate the current in the circuit;
(b) Calculate the voltage (rms) across the resistor and the capacitor. Is the algebraic sum of these voltages more
than the source voltage ? If yes, resolve the paradox.
Solution:
Given
R = 200Ω. C = 15.0 μF = 15.0 × 10-6F
V = 220V, v = 50Hz
(a) In order to calculate the current, we need the impedance of the circuit. It is
Z = R2+X2C−−−−−−−√=R2+(2πvC)−2−−−−−−−−−−−−√
= (200Ω)2+(2×3.14×50×10−6 F)−2−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
−−−−−−−−−−−√
= (200Ω)2+(212Ω)2−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√ = 291.5Ω
Therefore, the current in the circuit is
I = VZ=220 V291.5Ω = 0.755A
(b) Since the current is the same throughout the circuit, we have
VR = IR = (0.755 A) (200Ω) = 151V
VC = IXC = (0.755A) (212.3Ω) = 160.3V
The algebraic sum of the two voltages, VR and VC is 311.3 V which is more than the source voltage of 220 V.
How to resolve this paradox ? As you have learnt in the text, the two voltages are not in the same phase.
Therefore, they cannot be added like ordinary numbers. The two voltages are out of phase by ninety degrees.
Therefore, the total of these voltages must be obtained using the Pythagorean theorem:
VR+C = V2R+V2C−−−−−−−√ = 220 V
Thus, if the phase difference between two voltages is properly taken into account, the total voltage across the
resistor and the capacitor is equal to the voltage of the source.
Question 7.
a) For circuits used for transporting electric power, a low power factor implies large power loss in
transmission. Explain.
b) Power factor can often be improved by the use of a capacitor of appropriate capacitance in the circuit.
Explain.
Solution:
a) We know that P = IV cosΦ where cosΦ is the power factor. To supply a given power at a given voltage, if
cosΦ is small, we have to increase current accordingly. But this will lead to large power loss (I R) in
transmission.
b) Suppose in a circuit, current I lags the voltage by an angle Φ.

Then power factor cosΦ = R/Z
We can improve the power factor (tending to 1) by making Z tend to R. Let us understand, with the help of a
phasor diagram in the figure how this can be achieved. Let us resolve I into two components, IP
along the applied voltage V and Iq perpendicular to the applied voltage. Iq is called the wattless component
since corresponding to this component of current, there is no power loss. IP is known as the power component
because it is in phase with the voltage and corresponds to power loss in the circuit.
It’s clear from this analysis that if we want to improve power factor, we must completely neutralize the lagging
wattless current Iq by an equal leading wattless current I’q. This can be done by connecting a capacitor of
appropriate value in parallel so that Iq and I’q cancel each other and P is effectively IP V.
Question 8.
A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V , and frequency 50 Hz is applied to a series LCR circuit in which R =
3Ω. L = 25.48 mH. and C = 796μF. Find
(a) the impedance of the circuit;
(b) the phase difference between the voltage across the source and the current;
(c) the power dissipated in the circuit; and
(d) the power factor.
Solution:
a) To find the impedance of the circuit, we first calculate XL and XC.
XL = 2πvL
= 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 25.48 × 10-3Ω = 8Ω
XC = 12πvC
= 12×3.14×50×796×10−6 = 4Ω
Therefore,
z = R2+(XL−XC)2−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√=32+(8−4)2−−−−−−−−
−−√
= 5Ω
b) Phase difference, Φ = tan-1XC−XLR
= tan-1(4−83) = -53.1°
c) The power dissipated in the circuit is
P = I 2R
Therefore, P = (40A)2 × 3Ω = 4800W
= 4.8 kW
d) Power factor = cos Φ = cos 53.1° = 0.6.
Question 9.
Suppose the frequency of the source in the previous example can be varied,
(a) What is the frequency of the source at which resonance occurs ?
(b) Calculate the impedance, the current, and the power dissipated at the resonant condition.
Solution:
(a) The frequency at which the resonance occurs is
ω0 = 1LC√=125.48×10−3×796×10−6√
= 222.1 rad/s
vr = ω02π=221.12×3.14 Hz = 35.4Hz
b) The impedance Z at resonant condition is equal to the resistance
Z = R = 3Ω
The rms current at resonance is ,
as V = vm2√
I = VZ=VR=(2832√)13 = 66.7 A
The power dissipated at resonance is
P = I2 × R = (66.7)2 × 3 = 13.35 kW
You can see that in the present case, power dissipated at resonance is more than the power dissipated in
Example 8.
Question 10.
At an airport, a person is made to walk through the doorway of a metal detector, for security reasons. If she/he
is carrying anything made of metal, the metal detector emits a sound. On what principle does this detector
work ?
Solution:
The metal detector works on the principle of resonance in ac circuits. When you walk through a metal detector,
you are, in fact, walking through a coil of many turns. The coil is connected to a capacitor tuned so that the
circuit is in resonance. When you walk through with metal in your pocket, the impedance of the circuit changes
– resulting in significant change in current in the circuit. This change in current is detected and the electronic
circuitry causes a sound to be emitted as an alarm.
Question 11.
Show that in the free oscillations of an LC circuit, the sum of energies stored in the capacitor and the inductor
is constant in time.
Solution:
Let q0 be the initial charge tin a capacitor. Let the charged capacitor be connected to an inductor of inductance
L. this LC circuit will sustain an oscillation with frequency
ω(2πv=1LC√)
At an instant t, charge q on the capacitor and the current i are given by :
q(t) = q0 cos ωt
i(t) = -q0 co sin ωt
Energy stored in the capacitor at time ‘t’ is
UE = 12 C V2 = 12q2C=q202C cos2 (ωt)
Energy stored in the inductor at time ‘t’ is
UM = 12 L i2
= 12 L q02 ω2sin2 (ωt)
= Q202Csin2(ωt) [∵ ω = 1/ LC−−−√]
Sum of energies
UE + UM = q202C [cos2 ωt + sin2ωt) = q202C
This sum is constant in time as q0 and C, both are time-independent.
CategoriesInter 2nd YearPost navigation
Lesson Electromagnetic Waves
Question 1.
Give any one use of infrared rays. [T.S. Mar. 17; A.P. Mar. 16]
Answer:
1. Infrared radiation plays an important role in maintaining the Earth warm.

2. Infrared lamps are used in physical therapy.
3. Infrared detectors are used in Earth Satellites.
4. These are used in taking photographs during the conditions of fog, smoke etc.
Question 2.
How are infrared rays produced ? How they can be detected ?
Answer:
Infrared rays can be produced by vibrations of atoms and molecules. These waves can be detected by
Thermopile, Bolometer, IR photographic film.
Question 3.
How are radio waves produced ? How can they detected ?
Answer:
Radio waves can be produced by rapid acceleration and deceleration of electrons in aerials (conductors). These
can be detected by receivers of aerials.
Question 4.
If the wave length of E.M radiation is doubled, what happens to the energy of photon ? [IPE 2016 (TS)]
Answer:
If the wave length of electromagnetic radiation is doubled, then energy will be halved because energy is
E = hυ = hc/λ ⇒ E ∝ 1/λ (∵ hc is a constant)

inversely proportional to.wavelength of electromagnetic waves.
Question 5.
What is the principle of production of electromagnetic waves ?
Answer:
If the charge is accelerated both the magnetic field and electric field will change with Space and time, then
electromagnetic waves are produced.
Question 6.
What is the ratio of speed of infrared rays and ultraviolet rays in vaccum ?
Answer:
The ratio of speed of infrared rays and ultraviolet rays in vacuum is 1 : 1.
All electromagnetic waves travel with same speed 3 × 108 m /s in vaccum.
Question 7.
What is the relation between the amplitudes of the electric and magnetic fields in free space for an
electromagnetic wave ?
Answer:
E0 = CB0
Where E0 = Amplitude of electric field.
B0 = Amplitude of magnetic field.
C = velocity of light.
Question 8.
What are the applications of microwaves ? [A.P. Mar. 17; T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:
1. Microwaves are used in Radars.

2. Microwaves are used for cooking purposes.
3. A radar using microwave can help in detecting the speed of automobile while in motion.
Question 9.
Microwaves are used in Radars, why ? [Mar. 14]
Answer:
As microwaves are of smaller wavelengths, hence they can be transmitted as a beam signal in a particular
direction. Microwaves do not bend around the comers of any obstacle coming in their path.
Question 10.
Give two uses of infrared rays.
Answer:
1. Infrared rays are used for producing dehydrated fruits.

2. They are used in the secret writings on the ancient walls.
3. They are used in green houses to keep the plants warm.
Question 11.
How are microwaves produced ? How can they detected ? [A.P. Mar. 16; IPE 15]
Answer:
Microwaves can be produced using Klystron valve or Magnetrons.
Microwaves can be detected using point contact diodes.
Question 12.
The charging current for a capacitor is 0.6 A. What is the displacement current across its plates ?
Answer:
i = charging current for a capacitor = 0.6 A
∴ i = id = 0.6 A
i = id = ε0 = dϕBdt
∴ Displacement current (id) = 0.6 A.

Question 13.
What physical quantity is the same for X-rays of wavelength 10-10m, red light of wavelength 6800 Å and
radiowaves of wavelength 500in ?
Answer:
The speed in vaccum is same for all the given wavelengths, which is 3 × 108 m/s.
Question 14.
A radio can tune into any station in the 7.5 MHz to 12MHz band. What is the corresponding wavelength
band ?
Answer:
λ1 = 3×1087.5×106 = 40 m
λ2 = 3×10812×106 = 25 m
Thus wavelength band is 40m to 25m.
Question 15.
The amplitude of the magnetic field part of a harmonic electromagnetic wave in vaccum is B 0 = 510 nT. What
is the amplitude of the electric field part of the wave ?
Answer:
Here, B0 = 510nT = 510 × 10-9T
E0 = CB0 = 3 × 108 × 510 × 10-9 = 153 NC-1.
Question 16.
Define displacement current
Answer:
Displacement current (Id) is equal to ε0 times to the rate of change of electric flux. Displacement current is not
the current produced due to charge carried. But it is due to varying electric flux. It is the current in the sense
that it produces a magnetic field.
Id = ε0 dϕεdt
Question 1.
State six characteristics of electromagnetic waves.
Answer:
Characteristics of electromagnetic waves :
1. Electromagnetic waves are produced by accelerated charges.

2. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
3. Electromagnetic waves donot require material medium for their propagation.
4. Electromagnetic waves obey principle of superposition of waves.
5. Velocity of E.M waves in vaccum depends on permittivity and permeability of free space.
6. Electromagnetic waves carry energy and momentum.
7. Electromagnetic waves exert pressure when they strike a surface.
Question 2.
What is Greenhouse effect and its contribution towards the surface temperature of earth ?
Answer:
Green house effect: Temperature of the earth increases due to the radiation emitted by
the earth is trapped by atmospheric gases like CO2, CH4, N2, chlorofluoro carbons etc., is called green house
effect.
1. Radiation from the sun enters the atmosphere and heat the objects on the earth. These heated objects emit
infrared rays.
2. These rays are reflected back to Earth’s surface and trapped in the Earth’s atmosphere. Due to this
temperature of the earth increases.
3. The layers of carbon dioxide (CO2) and low lying clouds prevent infrared rays to escape Earth’s atmosphere.
4. Since day-by-day the amount of carbondioxide in the atmosphere increases, more • infrared rays are
entrapped in the atmosphere.
5. Hence the temperature of the Earth’s surface increases day by day.
Problems
Question 1.
A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vaccum along z-direction. What can you say about the directions of its
electric and magnetic field vectors ? If the frequency of the wave is 30 MHz. What is its wavelength ?
Answer:
Electric and magnetic fields E¯¯¯¯ and B¯¯¯¯ of an electromagnetic wave must be perpendicular to the
propagation of electromagnetic wave. Hence they lie in X – Y plane mutually perpendicular to each other.
Frequency of wave, v = 30MHz = 30 × 106Hz.; Velocity of light, C = 3 × 108m/s
Wavelength of the wave, λ = CV=3×10830×106 = 10m
Question 2.
A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium position with a frequency of 109 Hz. What is the
frequency of the electromagnetic waves produced by the oscillator ?
Answer:
According to Maxwell, a charged particle oscillating with a frequency produces electro-magnetic waves of
same frequency. Hence frequency of EM waves produced is, 109Hz.
Textual Examples
Question 1.
A parallel plate capacitor with circular plates of radius 1 m has a capacitance of 1 nF. At t = 0, It is connected
for charging in series with a resistor R = 1 M Q across a 2V battery (fig)- Calculate the magnetic field at a
point P halfway between the centre and the periphery of the plates, after t = 10-3 s. (The charge on the capacitor
at time τ is q (t) = CV [1 – exp (-t/τ)], where the time constant τ is equal to CR.).
Solution:
The time constant of the CR circuit is τ = CR = 10-3s. Then, we have
q(t) = CV [1 – exp (-t/τ) ]
= 2 × 10-9 [1 – exp (-t /10-3)
The electric field in between the plates at time t is
E = q(t)ε0A=qπε0; A = π (1)2 m2 = area of the plates.
Consider now a circular loop of radius (1/2)m parallel to the plates passing through R The magnetic field B at
all points on the loop is along the loop arid of the same value.
The flux ΦE through this loop is
The flux ΦE = E × area of the loop
= E × π × (12)2 = πE4=q4ε0
The displacement current
id = e0 dϕEdt = 14dqdt = 0.5 × 10-6 exp (-1)
at t = 10-3s. Now, applying Ampere-Maxwell law to the loop, we get
B × 2π × (12) = m0.(ic + id) = m0(0 + id) = 0.5 × 10-6 m0 exp(-1)
or, B = 0.74 × 10-13 T.
Question 2.
A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz travels in free space along the x – direction. At a
particular point in space and time, E = 6.3j^ V/m. What is B at the point ?
Solution:
Using Eq. B0 = [E0/c] the magnitude of B is
B = Ec
= 6.3 V/m3×108 m/s = 2.1 × 10-8 T
To find the direction, we note that E is along y-direction and the wave propagates along x- axis. Therefore, B
should be in a direction perpendicular to both x- and y-axes. Using vector algebra, E × B should be along x-
direction. Since, (+j^) × (+k^) = i, B is along the z-direction. Thus. B = 2.1 × 10-8 k^ T
Question 3.
The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by
By = 2 × 10-7 sin (0.5 × 103 × + 1.5 × 1011 t)T.
a) What is the wavelength and frequency of the wave ?
b) Write an expression for the electric field.
Solution:
a) Comparing the given equation with
By = B0 sin [2π(xλ+tT)]
We get, λ = 2π0.5×103 m = 1.26 cm,
and 1 T = v = (1.5 × 1011)/2π = 23.9 GHz
b) E0 = B0C = 2 × 10-7 T × 3 × 108 m/s = 6 × 101 V/m
The electric field component is perpendicular to the direction of propagation and the di-rection of magnetic
field. Therefore, the electric field component along the z-axis is obtained as E z = 60 sin (0.5 × 103x + 1.5 ×
1011t) V/m.
Question 4.
Light with an energy flux of 18 W/cm2 falls on a non reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface has
an area of 20 cm2 find the average force exerted on the surface during a 30 minute time span.
Solution:
The total energy falling on the surface is
U = (18 W/cm2) × (20 cm2) × (30 × 60)
= 6.48 × 105 J
Therefore, the total momentum delivered (for complete absorption) is
P = UC=6.48×105I3×108m/s = 2.16 × 10-3 kg m/s
The average force exerted on the surface is
F = pt=2.16×10−30.18×104 = 1.2 × 10-6 N
Question 5.
Calculate the electric and magnetic fields produced by the radiation coming from a 100 W bulb at a distance of
3m. Assume that the efficiency of the bulb is 2.5% and it is a point source.
Solution:
The bulb, as a point source, radiates light in all directions uniformly. At a distance of 3m, the surface area of
the surrounding sphere is A = 4 πr2 = 4π (3)2 = 113m2
The intensity at this distance is
I = Power Area =100 W×2.5%113 m2 = 0.022 W.m2
Half of this intensity is provided by the electric field and half by the magnetic field.
12I=12(ε0E2rmsC)
= 12 (0.022 W/m2)
Erms = 0.022(8.85×10−12)(3×108)−−−−−−−−−−−−−√ V/m = 2.9 V/m
The value of E found above is the root mean square value of the electric field. Since the electric field in a light
beam is sinusoidal, the peak electric field, E0 is
E0 = 2–√Erms = 2–√ × 2.9 V/m
= 4.07 V/m
Thus, you see that the electric field strength of the light that you use for reading is fairly large. Compare it with
electric field strength of TV or FM waves, which is of the order of a few microvolts per metre.
Now, let us calculate the strength of the magnetic field. It is
Brms = ErmsC=2.9Vm−13×108 ms−1 = 9.6 × 10-9 T.
Again, since tbs field in the light beam is sinusoidal, the peak magnetic field is B 0 = 2–√ Brms = 1.4 × 10-8 T.
Note that although the energy in the magnetic field is equal to the energy in the electric field, the magnetic
field strength is evidently very weak.
Lesson Atoms
Question 1.
What is the physical meaning of negative energy of an electron’ ?
Answer:
The ‘negative energy of an electron’ indicates that the electron is bound to the nucleus due to force of
attraction.
Question 2.
Sharp lines are present in the spectrum of a gas. What does this indicate ?
Answer:
Sharp lines in the spectrum of gas, indicates bright lines against dark background.
Question 3.
Name a physical quantity whose dimensions are the same as those of angular momentum.
Answer:
Planck’s constant.
Question 4.
What is the difference between α – particle and helium atom ?
Answer:
Alpha particle
1. It is a + 2e charged Helium nucleus.

2. It contains 2 protons and 2 neutrons.
Helium atom
1. It has no charge.
2. It contains 2 protons, 2 electrons and 2 neutrons.
Question 5.
Among alpha, beta and gamma radiations, which get affected by the electric field ?
Answer:
Alpha and Beta radiations are get affected by the electric field.
Question 6.
What do you understand by the phrase ground state atom ?
Answer:
If the electron is present in the ground state, it is called ground state atom.
Question 7.
Why does the mass of the nucleus not have any significance in scattering in Rutherford’s experiment ?
Answer:
The size of the atom is 10-10 m and size of the nucleus is 10-15 m. Hence atom has large empty space. So the
mass of nucleus has no significance in Rutherford’s scattering experiment.
Question 8.
The Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the ultraviolet region. Why ? [A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
The calculated values of wavelengths lie in the ultraviolet region of the spectrum will agree with the values of
wavelengths observed experimentally by Lyman.
Question 9.
Write down a table giving longest and shortest wavelengths of different spectral series.
Answer:
Wavelength limits of some spectral series of hydrogen.
Question 10.
Give two drawbacks of Rutherford’s atomic model.
Answer:
Drawbacks of Rutherford’s atomic model:
1. As the revolving electron loses energy continuously, it must spiral inwards and eventually fall into the nucleus.
But matter .is stable, we cannot expect the atom collapse.
2. The atoms should emit continuous spectrum, but what we observe is only a line spectrum.
Question 11.
If the kinetic energy of revolving electron in an orbit is K, what is its potential energy and total energy ?
Answer:
For an electron revolving round the nucleus, total energy is always negative and it is numerically equal to
∴ Total energy = -Kinetic energy = -K

kinetic energy.
Potential energy is always negative and PE = 2 × TE = -2K
Question 1.
What is impact parameter and angle of scattering ? How are they related to each other ?
Answer:
1. Impact parameter (b) : Impact parameter is defined as the perpendicular distance of the initial velocity vector
of the alpha particle from the central line of the nucleus, when the particle is far away from the nucleus of the
atom.
2. Scattering angle (θ) : The scattering angle (θ) is the angle between the asymtotic direction of approach of the α
– particle and the asymtotic direction in which it receeds.
3. The relation between b and θ is b = 14πε0Ze2E cot θ2 where E = K.E of α – particle = 12 mυ2.
Question 2.
Explain the distance of closest approach and impact parameter.
Answer:
Distance of closest approach :
1. Suppose an α-particle with initial kinetic energy (K.E) is directed towards the centre of the nucleus of an atom.
2. On account of Coulomb’s repulsive force between nucleus and alpha particle, kinetic energy of alpha particle
goes on decreasing and in turn, electric potential energy of the particle goes on increasing.
3. At certain distance d’ from the nucleus, K. E of α-particle reduces to zero. The particle stops and it cannot go
closer to the nucleus. It is repelled by the nucleus and therefore it retraces its path, turning through 180°.
4. Therefore, the distance d is known as the distance of closest of approach.
The closest distance of approach,

d = 14πε0×Ze2(12mv2)
5. Impact parameter (b) : Impact parameter is defined as the ⊥r distance of the initial velocity vector of the α –
particle from the central line of the nucleus, when the particle is far away from the nucleus of the atom.
Question 3.
Describe Rutherford atom model. What are the draw backs of this model ?
Answer:
Rutherford atom model: The essential features of Rutherford’s nuclear model of the atom or planetary model
of the atom are as follows :
1. Every atom consists of tiny central core, called the atomic nucleus, in which the entire positive charge and
almost entire mass of the atom are concentrated.
2. The size of nucleus is of the order of 10-15m, which is very small as compared to the size of the atom which is of
the order of 10-10 m.
3. The atomic nucleus is surrounded by certain number of electrons. As atom on the whole is electrically neutral,
the total negative charge of electrons surrounding the nucleus is equal to total positive charge on the nucleus.
4. These electrons revolve around the nucleus in various circular orbits as do the planets around the sun. The
centripetal force required by electron for revolution is provided by the electrostatic force of attraction between
the electrons and the nucleus.
Drawbacks : According to classical E.M. theory,
1. the revolving electron loses energy continuously, it must spiral inwards and eventually fall into the nucleus. As
matter is stable, we cannot expect the atoms to collapse.
2. since the frequency of radiation emitted is the same as the frequency of revolution, the atom should radiate a
continuous spectrum, but what we observe is only a line spectrum.
Question 4.
What are the limitations of Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom ? [A.P. Mar. 17; Mar. 14]
Answer:
Limitations of Bohr’s theory of Hydrogen atom :
1. This theory is applicable only to simplest atom like hydrogen, with z = 1. The theory fails in case of atoms of
other elements for which z > 1.
2. The theory does not explain why orbits of electrons are taken as circular, while elliptical orbits are also possible.
3. Bohr’s theory does not say anything about the relative intensities of spectral lines.
4. Bohr’s theory does not take into account the wave properties of electrons.
Question 5.
Write a short note on Debroglie’s explanation of Bohr’s second postulate of quantization. [T.S. Mar. 17]
Answer:
Debroglie’s explanation of Bohr’s second postulate of quantization :
1. The second postulate of Bohr atom model says that angular momentum of electron orbiting around the
nucleus is quantized i.e., mυr = nh2π where n = 1, 2, 3,….
2. According to Debroglie, the electron in its circular orbit, as proposed by Bohr, must be seen as a particle wave.
3. When a string fixed at two ends is plucked, a large number of wavelengths are excited and standing wave is
formed.
4. It means that in a string, standing waves form when total distance travelled by a wave down the string and back
is an integral number of wavelengths.
5. According to Debroglie, a stationary orbit is that which contains an integral number of Debrogile waves
associated with the revolving electron.
6. For an electron revolving in nth circular orbit of radius rn, total distance covered = circumference of the orbit =
∴ For permissible orbit, 2πrn = nλ

2πrn
7. According to Debrogile, λ = hmvn
∴ 2πrn = nhmvn
Where υn is speed of electron revolving in nth orbit
mυnrn = nh2π=n(h2π)
i.e., angular momentum of electron revolving in nth orbit must be an integral multiple of h2π, which is the
quantum condition proposed by Bohr in second postulate.
Question 6.
Explain the different types of spectral series in hydrogen atom. [T.S. Mar. 16, A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum consisting of five series.
1. Lyman series : v = Rc (112−1n2) where n = 2, 3, 4

2. Balmer series : v = Rc (122−1n2) where n = 3, 4, 5.
3. Paschen series : v = Rc (132−1n2) where n = 4, 5, 6
4. Brackett series: v = Rc (142−1n2) where n = 5, 6, 7
5. Pfund series: v = Rc (152−1n2) where n = 6, 7, 8
Question 1.
State the basic postulates of Bohr’s theory of atomic spectra. Hence obtain an expression for the radius of orbit
and the energy of orbital electron in a hydrogen atom. [A.P. Mar. 16]
Answer:
a) Basic postulates of Bohr’s theory are
1. The electron revolves round a nucleus in an atom in various orbits known as stationary orbits. The electrons
cannot emit radiation when moving in their own stationary levels.
2. The electron can revolve round the nucleus only in allowed orbits whose angular momentum is the integral
multiple of h2π
i.e., mυnrn = nh2π …………… (1)
where n = 1, 2, 3 …………..
If an electron jumps from higher energy (E2) orbit to the lower energy (E1) orbit, the difference of energy is
i.e., E = hv = E2 – E1 ⇒ v = E2−E1h …………… (2)

radiated in the form of radiation.
b) Energy of emitted radiation: In hydrogen atom, a single electron of charge – e, revolves around the nucleus
of charge e in a circular orbit of radius rn.
1) K.E. of electron : For the electron to be in circular orbit, centripetal force = The electrostatic force of
attraction between the electron and nucleus.
3) Radius of the oribit: Substituting the value of (6) in (2),

mrn(n2 h24π2r2n m2)=Ke2r2n
∴ rn = 0.53 n2
rn = n2h24π2mKe2 ……………. (1)
4) Total energy (En) : Revolving electron possess K.E. as well as P.E.
Problems
Question 1.
The radius of the first electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 x HTum. What is the radius of the second orbit ?
∴ rn ∝ n2
Solution:
⇒ r2 = 4r1
∴ r2 = 4 × 5.3 × 10-11 = 2.12 × 10-10m.
Question 2.
The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of the hydrogen atom is -3.4eV. What is the potential
energy of the electron in this state?
Solution:
In 1st orbit, E = -3.4 eV
Total energy E = KZe22r−KZe2r
KZe2r = U(say)
E = U2 – u = −U2
∴ U = -2 × -3.4 = 6.8 eV.

U = -2E
Question 3.
The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is -3.4eV. What is the kinetic energy
of the electron in this state ?
Solution:
In Hydrogen like atom, we know that
K = – Total energy E
∴ K = -(-3.4) = 3.4 eV . . ,
Here E = – 3.4eV
Question 4.
Prove that the ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV.
Solution:
n = 1 corresponds to ground state.
E = −13.6n2 eV
E = −13.612 eV
E = -13.6 eV
∴ Ionisation energy of hydrogen atom = 13.6 eV

The minimum energy required to free the electron from the ground state of hydrogen atom = 13.6 eV.
Question 5.
Calculate the ionization energy for a lithium atom.
Solution:
For 3Li atom, Z = 3, n = 2 [∵Li = 1s2 2s1]
7
En = 13.6Z2n2 eV
∴ Ionization energy of Lithium = 30.6eV

= 13.6×(3)24 = 30.6 eV
Question 6.
The wavelength of the first member of Lyman series is 1216 A. Calculate the wavelength of second member of
Balmer series.
Solution:
Textual Examples
Question 1.
In the Rutherford’s nuclear model of the atom, the nucleus (radius about 10-15m) is analogous to the sun about
which the electron move in orbit (radius ≈ 10-10m) like the earth orbits around the sun. If the dimensions of the
solar system had the same proportions as those of the atom, would the earth be closer to or farther away from
the sun than actually it is ? The radius of earth’s orbit is about 1.5 × 1011m. The radius of sun is taken as 7 ×
108 m.
Solution:
The ratio of the radius of electron’s orbit to the radius of nucleus is (10-10 m)/(10-15 m) = 105, that is, the radius
of the electron’s orbit is 105 times larger than the radius of nucleus. If the radius of the earth’s orbit around the
sun were 105 times larger than the radius of the sun, the radius of the earth’s orbit would be 105 × 7 × 108 m = 7
× 1013 m. This is more than 100 times greater than the actual orbital radius of earth. Thus, the earth would be
much farther away from the sun.
It implies that an atom contains a much greater fraction of empty space than our solar system does.
Question 2.
In a Geiger-Marsden experiment, what is the distance of closest approach to the nucleus of a 7.7 MeV α-
particle before it comes momentarily to rest and reverses its direction?
Solution:
The key idea here is that throughout the scattering process, the total mechanical energy of the system
consisting of an α-particle and a gold nucleus is conserved. The system’s initial mechanical energy is E i; before
the particle and nucleus interact, and it is equal to its mechanical energy E f when the α-particle momentarily
stops. The initial energy Et is just the kinetic energy K of the incoming α-particle. The final energy Ef is just the
electric potential energy U of the system. The potential energy U can be calculated from Equation.
F = 14πε0(2e)(Ze)r2
Let d be the centre-to-centre distance between the α-particle and the gold nucleus when the α-particle is at its
stopping point. Then we can write the conservation of energy
Ei = Ef as
K = 14πε0(2e)(Ze)d=2Ze24πε0 d
Thus the distance of closest approach d is given by
d = 2Ze24πε0 K
The maximum kinetic energy found in α-particles of natural origin is 7.7 MeV or 1.2 × 10-12 J. Since 1/4πε0 =
9.0 × 109N m2/C2. Therefore with e = 1.6 × 10-19C, we have,
d = (2)(9.0×109Nm2/C2)(1.6×10−19C)2Z1.2×10−12 J
= 3.84 × 10-16 Zm
The atomic number of foil material gold is Z = 79, so that
d (Au) = 3.0 × 10-14m = 30 fm. (1 fm (i.e. fermi) = 10-15m.)
The radius of gold nucleus is, therefore, less than 3.0 × 10-14 m. This is not in very good agreement with the
observed result as the actual radius of gold nucleus is 6 fm. The cause of discrepancy is that the distance of
closest approach is considerably larger than the sum of the radii of the gold nucleus and the a-particle. Thus,
the α-particle reverses its motion without ever actually touching the gold nucleus.
Question 3.
It is found experimentally that 13.6 eV energy is required to separate a hydrogen atom into a proton and an
electron. Compute the orbital radius and the velocity of the electron in a hydrogen atom.
Solution:
Total energy of the electron in hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV = -13.6 × 1.6 × 10-19J
= -2.2 × 10-18 J.
Thus from equation, E = – e28πε0r we have
– e28πε0r = 2.2 10-18 J
This gives the orbital radius
r = – e28πε0r = (9×109Nm2/C2)(1.6×10−19C)2(2)(−2.2×10−18 J)
= 5.3 × 10-11 m.
The velocity of the revolving electron can be computed from Equation r = –e24πε0rmv2
with
m = 9.1 × 10-31kg,
υ = e4πε0mr√ = 2.2 × 106 m/s
Question 4.
According to the classical electromagnetic theory, calculate the initial frequency of the light emitted by the
electron revolving around a proton in hydrogen atom.
Solution:
From Examjple 3 we know that velocity of electron moving around a proton in hydrogen atom in an orbit of
radius 5.3 × 10-11 m is 2.2 × 10-6 m/s. Thus, the frequency of the electron moving around the proton is
v = v2πr=2.2×106 m s−12π(5.3×10−11 m)
≈ 6.6 × 1015 Hz.
According to the classical electromagnetic theory we know that the frequency of the electromagnetic waves
emitted by the revolving electrons is equal to the frequency of its revolution around the nucleus. Thus the
initial frequency of the light emitted is 6.6 × 1015Hz.
Question 5.
A 10 kg satellite circles earth once every 2 h in an orbit having a radius of 8000 km. Assuming that Bohr’s
angular momentum postulate applies to satellites just as it does to an electron in the hydrogen atom, find the
quantum number of the orbit of the satellite.
Solution:
From equation, we have
mυnrn = nh/2π
Here m = 10 kg and rn = 8 × 106 m. We have the time period T of the circling satellite as 2h. That is T = 7200 s.
Thus the velocity υn = 2π rn/T
The quantum number of the orbit of satellite
n = (2π rn)2 × m(T × h)
Substituting the values,
n = (2π × 8 × 106m)2 × 10/(7200 s × 6.64 × 10-34 J s)
= 5.3 × 1045
Note that the quantum number for the satellite motion is extremely large. In fact for such large quantum
numbers the results of quantisation conditions tend to those of classical physics.
Question 6.
Using the Rydberg formula, calculate the wavelengths of the first four spectral lines in the Lyman series of the
hydrogen spectrum.
Solution:
The Rydberg formula is
hc/λif = (1n2f−1n2i)
The wavelengths of the first four lines in the Lyman series correspond to transitions from ni = 2, 3, 4, 5 to nf =
1. We know that
me48ε20 h2 = 13.6 eV = 21.76 × 10-19 J
Therefore,
Substituting, ni = 2, 3, 4, 5 we get λ21 = 1218 Å, λ31 = 1028 Å, λ41 = 974.3 Å, and λ51 = 951.4 Å.
CategoriesInter 2nd YearPost navigation
Lesson Semiconductor Electronics: Material,
Devices and Simple Circuits
Question 1.
What is an n-type semiconductor ? What are the majority and minority
charge carriers in it ?
Answer:
 If a pentavalent impurity is added to pure tetravalent semiconductor,

it is called n-type semiconductor.
 In n-type semiconductor majority charge carriers are electrons and
minority charge carriers are holes.
Question 2.
What are intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors ? [A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
 Pure form of semiconductors are called intrinsic semiconductors.

 When impure atoms are added to increase their conductivity, they are
called extrinsic semiconductors.
Question 3.
What is a p-type semiconductor ? What are the majority and minority
charge carriers in it ? [A.P. & T.S. Mar. 17]
Answer:
If a trivalent impurity is added to a tetravalent semiconductor, it is called p-
type semi-conductor.
In p-type semiconductor majority charge carriers are holes and minority

charge carriers are electrons.
Question 4.
What is a p-n junction diode ? Define depletion’ layer.
Answer:
When an intrinsic semiconductor crystal is grown with one side doped with
trivalent element and on the other side doped with pentavalent element, a
junction is formed in the crystal. It is called p-n junction diode.
A thin narrow region is formed on either side of the p-n junction, which is
free from charge carriers is called depletion layer.
Question 5.
How is a battery connected to a junction diode in i) forward and ii) reverse
bias ?
Answer:
i) In p-n junction diode, if p-side is connected to positive terminal of a cell
and n-side to negative terminal, it is called forward bias.
ii) In a p-n junction diode, p-side is connected to negative terminal of a cell

and n-side to positive terminal, it is called reverse bias.
Question 6.
What is the maximum percentage of rectification in half wave and full wave
rectifiers ?
Answer:
1. The percentage of rectification in half-wave rectifier is 40.6%.

2. The percentage of rectification in full-wave rectifiers is 81.2%.
Question 7.
What is Zener voltage (Vz) and how will a Zener diode be connected in
circuits generally ?
Answer:
1. When Zener diode is in reverse biased, at a particular voltage current

increases suddenly is called Zener (or) break down voltage.
2. Zener diode always connected in reverse bias.
Question 8.
Write the expressions for the efficiency of a full wave rectifier and a half
wave rectifier.
Answer:
1. Efficiency of half wave rectifier (η) = 0.406RLrf+RL

2. Efficiency of full wave rectifier (η) = 0.812RLrf+RL
Question 9.
What happens to the width of the depletion layer in a p-n junction diode
when it is
i) forward-biased and ii) reverse biased ?
Answer:
When a p-n junction diode is forward bias, thickness of depletion layer
decreases and in reverse bias, thickness of depletion layer increases.
Question 10.
Draw the circuit symbols for p-n-p and n-p-n transistors. [Mar. 14]
Answer:
Question 11.
Define amplifier and amplification factor.
Answer:
1. Rising the strength of a weak signal is known as amplification and the

device is called amplifier.
2. Amplification factor is the ratio between output voltage to the input
voltage.
A = V0 Vi
Question 12.
In which bias can a Zener diode be used as voltage regulator ?
Answer:
In reverse bias Zener diode can be used as voltage regulator.
Question 13.
Which gates are called universal gates ? [T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:
NAND gate and NOR gates are called universal gates.
Question 14.
Write the truth table of NAND gate. How does it differ from AND gate ?
Answer:
Question 1.
What is a rectifier ? Explain the working of half wave and full Wave
rectifiers with diagrams. [A.P. Mar. 17]
Answer:
Rectifier: It is a circuit which converts ac into d.c. A p-n junction diode is
used as a rectifier.
Half-wave rectifier:
1. A half wave rectifier can be constructed with a single diode. The ac

input signal is fed to the primary coil of a transformer. The output
signal is taken across the load resistance R L.
2. During positive half cycle, the diode is forward biased and current
flows through the diode.
3. During negative half cycle, diode is reverse biased and no current
flows through the load resistance.
4. This means current flows through the diode only during positive half
cycles and negative half cycles are blocked. Hence in the output we
get only positive half cycles.
5. Rectifier efficiency is defined as the ratio of output dc power to the
input ac power.
η = PdcPac=0.406RLrf+RL
Where rf = Forward resistance of a diode; RL = Load resistance
The maximum efficiency of half wave rectifier is 40.6%.
Full wave rectifier : The process of converting an alternating current into a
direct current is called rectification.
The device used for this purpose is called rectifier.
1. A full wave rectifier can be constructed with the help of two diodes
D1 and D2.
2. The secondary transformer is centre tapped at C and its ends are
connected to the p regions of two diodes D1 & D2.
3. The output voltage is measured across the load resistance R L.
4. During positive half cycles of ac, the diode D 1 is forward biased and
current flows through the load resistance RL. At this time D2 will be
reverse biased and will be in switch off position.
5. During negative half cycles of ac, the diode D 2 is forward biased and
the current flows through RL. At this time D1 will be reverse biased and
will be in switch off position.
6. Hence positive output is obtained for all the input ac signals.
7. The efficiency of a rectifier is defined as the ratio between the output
dc power to the input ac power.
η = PdcPac=0.812RLrf+RL
The maximum efficiency of a full wave rectifier is 81.2%.
Question 2.
What is a junction diode ? Explain the formation of depletion region at the
junction. Explain the variation of depletion region in forward and reverse-
biased condition.
Answer:
p-n junction diode: When a p-type semiconductor is suitablyjoined to n-type
semiconductor, a p-n junction diode is formed. ’
The circuit symbol of p-n junction diode is shown in figure.
Formation of depletion layer at the junction: When p-n junction is formed,

the free electrons on n-side diffuse over to p-side, they combine with holes
and become neutral. Similarly holes on p-side diffuse over to n-side and
combihe with electrons become neutral.
This results in a narrow region formed on either side of the junction. This
region is called depletion layer. Depletion layer is free from charge carriers.
The n-type material near the junction becomes positively charged due to
immobile donor ions and p-type material becomes negatively charged due
to immobile acceptor ions. This creates an electric field near the junction
directed from n-region to p-region and cause a potential barrier.
The potential barrier stops further diffusion of holes and electrons across
the* junction. The value of the potential barrier depends upon the nature of
the crystal, its temperature and the amount of doping.
Forward bias :
“When a positive terminal of a battery is connected to p-side and negative
terminal is connected to n-side; then p-n junction diode is said to be
forward bias”.
The holes in the p-region are repelled by the positive polarity and move
towards the junction. Similarly electrons in the n-region are repelled by the
negative polarity and move towards the junction.
As a result, the width of the depletion layer decreases. The charge carriers
cross the junction apd electric current flows in the circuit.
Hence in forward bias resistance of diode is low. This position is called
switch on position.
Reverse bias:
“When the negative terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and

positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side of the p-n junction,
then the diode is said to be reverse bias”.
The holes in the p-region are attracted towards negative polarity and move
away from the junction. Similarly the electrons in the n-region are attracted
towards positive polarity and move away from the junction.
So, width of the depletion layer and potential barrier increases. Hence
resistance of p-n junction diode increases. Thus the reverse biased diode is
called switch off position.
Question 3.
What is a Zener diode ? Explain how it is used as a voltage regulator.
Answer:
Zener diode : Zener diode is a heavily doped germanium (or) silicon p-n
junction diode. It works on reverse bias break down region.
The circuit symbol of zener diode is shown in figure.
Zener diode can be used as a voltage regulator. In- general zener diode is
connected in reverse bias in the circuits.
1. The zener diode is connected to a battery, through a resistance R. The

battery reverse biases the zener diode.
2. The load resistance RL is connected across the terminals of the zener
diode.
3. The value of R is selected in such away that In the absence of load
RL maximum safe current flows in the diode.
4. Now consider that load is connected across the diode. The load draws
a current.
5. The current through the diode falls by the same amount but the
voltage drops across the load remains constant.
6. The series resistance ‘R’ absorbs the output voltage fluctuations, so as
to maintain constant voltage across the load.
7. The voltage across the zener diode remains constant even if the load
RL varies. Thus, zener diode works as voltage regulator.
8. If I is the input current, IZ and IL are zener and load currents.
I = IZ + IL; Vin = IR + VZ
But V0ut = VZ
∴ Vout = Vin – IR
Question 4.
Explain the working of LED and what are its advantages over conventional
incandescent low power lamps.
Answer:
Light emitting diode (LED) : It is a photoelectronic device which converts
electrical energy into light energy.
It is a heavily doped p-n junction diode which under forward bias emits
spontaneous radiation. The diode is covered with a transparent cover so
that the emitted light may not come out. Working : When p-n junction diode
is forward biased, the movement of majority charge carriers takes place
across the junction. The electrons move from n-side to p-side through the
junction and holes move from p-side to n-side.
As a result of it, concentration of majority carriers increases rapidly at the

junction.
When there is no bias across the junction, therefore there are excess
minority carriers on either side of the junction, which recombine with
majority carriers near the junction.
On recombination of electrons and hole, the energy is given out in the form
of heat and light.
Advantages of LED’s over incandescent lamp :
1. LED is cheap and easy to handle.

2. LED has less power and low operational voltage.
3. LED has fast action and requires no warm up time.
4. LED can be used in burglar alarm system.
Question 5.
Define NAND and NOR gates. Give their truth tables. [T.S. Mar. 17]
Answer:
NAND gate : NAND gate is a combination of AND gate and NOT gate.
NAND gate can be obtained by connecting a NOT gate in the output of an

AND gate. NAND gates are called universal gates.
1. If both inputs are low, output is high.

A = 0, B = 0, X = 1
2. If any input is low, output is high.
A = 0, B = 1, X = 1
A = 1, B = 0, X =1
3. If both inputs are high, output is low.
A = 1, B = 1, X = 0
NOR gate : NOR gate is a combination of OR gate and NOT gate when the
output of OR gate is connected to NOT gate. It has two (or) more inputs and
one output.
1. If both inputs are low, output is high.

A = 0, B = 0, X = 1
2. If any input is high, the output is low.
A = 0, B = 1, X = 0
A = 1, B = 0, X = 0
3. If both inputs are high, the output is low.
A = 1, B = 1, X = 0
NOR gate is also a universal gate.
Question 6.
Explain the working of a solar cell and draw its I-V characteristics.
Answer:
Solar cell is a p-n junction device which converts solar energy into electric
energy.
It consists of a silicon (or) gallium – arsenic p-n junction diode packed in a
can with glass window on top. The upper layer is of p- type semiconductor.
It is very thin so that the incident light photons may easily reach the p-n
junction.
Working : When light (E = hv) falls at the junction, electron – hole pairs are
generated near the junction. The electrons and holes produced move in
opposite directions due to junction field. They will be collected at the two
sides of the junction giving rise to a photo voltage between top and bottom
metal electrodes. Top metal acts as positive electrode and bottom metal
acts as a negative electrode. When an external load is connected across
metal electrodes a photo current flows.
I-V characteristics : I – V characteristics of solar cell is drawn in the fourth

quadrant of the coordinate axes. Because it does not draw current.
Uses : They are used in calculators, wrist watches, artificial satellites etc.
Question 7.
Explain the operation of a NOT gate and give its truth table. [IPE 15, T.S.]
Answer:
NOT gate: NOT gate is the basic gate. It has one input and one output. The
NOT gate is also called an inverter. The circuit symbol of NOT gate is shown
in figure.
1. If input is low, output is high.

A = 0, X = 0¯¯¯ = 1
2. If input is high, output is low.
A = 1, X = 1¯¯¯ = 0
Question 8.
Draw an OR gate using two diodes and explain its operation. Write the truth
table and logic symbol of OR gate.
Answer:
OR Gate : It has two input terminals and one output terminal. If both inputs
are low the output is low. If one of the inputs is high, or both the inputs are
high then the output of the gate is high. The truth tables of OR gate.
In truth table logic function is written as A or B ‘OR’ logic function is

represented by the symbol ‘plus’.
Q=A+B
Logic gate ‘OR’ is shown given below.
Implementation of OR gate using diodes :

Let D1 and D2 be two diodes.
A potential of 5V represents the logical value 1.
A potential of OV represents the logical value 0.
When A = 0, B = 0 both the diodes are reverse biased and there is no

current through the resistance. So, the potential at Q is zero i.e., Q = 0.
When A = 0 or B = 0 and the other equal to a potential of 5 V the diode
whose anode is at a potential of 5 V is forward – biased and that diode
behaves like a closed switch. The output potential then becomes 5 V i.e., Q
= 1. When both A and B are 1, both the diodes are forward-biased and the
potential at Q is same as that at A and B which is 5 V i.e., Q = 1. The output
is same as that of the OR gate.
Question 9.
Sketch a basic AND circuit with two diodes and explain its operation.
Explain how doping increases the conductivity in semiconductors ?
Answer:
AND gate : It has two input terminals and one output terminal.
 If both the inputs are low (or) one of the inputs is low.
 The output is low in an AND gate.
 If both the inputs .are high
 The output of the gate is high.
 Note : If A and B are the inputs of the gate and the output is ‘Q’ then
‘Q’ is a logical function of A and B.
AND gate Truth Tables
The logical function AND is represented by the symbol dot so that the
output, Q = A.B and the circuit symbol used for the logic gate AND is
shown in Fig.
The logical function AND is similar to the multiplication.

Implementation of AND gate using diodes : Let D 1 and D2 represents two
diodes. A potential of 5 V represents the logical value 1 and a potential of 0
V represents the logical value zero (0). When A = 0, B = ,0 both the diodes
D1 and D2 are forward-biased and they behave like closed switches. Hence,
the output Q is same as that A or B (equal to zero.) When A = 0 or B = 0,
D1 or D2 is forward – biased and Q is zero. When A = 1 and B = T both the
diodes are reverse – biased and they behave like open switches. There is
no current through the resistance R making the potential at Q equal to 5V
i.e., Q = 1. The output is same as that of an AND gate.
Doping increases the conductivity in Semiconductors: If a pentavalent

impurity (Arsenic) is added to a pure tetravalent semiconductor it is called
n-type semiconductor. Arsenic has 5 valence electrons, but only 4 electrons
are needed to form covalent bonds with the adjacent Germanium atoms.
The fifth electron is very loosely bound and become a free electron.
Therefore excess electrons are available for conduction and conductivity of
semiconductor increases.
Similarly when a trivalent impurity Indium is added to pure Germanium it is

called p-type semi-conductor. In this excess holes in addition to those
formed due to thermal energy are available for conduction in the valence
band and the conductivity of semiconductor increases.
Question 10.
Explain how transistor can be used as a switch ?
Answer:
To understand the operation of transistor as a switch.
1. As long as Vi is low and unable to forward bias the transistor, V 0 is high

(at Vcc).
2. If Vi is high enough to drive the transistor into saturation then V 0 is
low, very near to zero.
3. When the transistor is not conducting it is said to be switched off and

when it is driven into saturation it is said to be switched on.
4. We can say that a low input to the transistor gives a high output and
high input gives a low output.
5. When the transistor is used in the cutoff (or) saturation state it acts as
a switch.
Problems
Question 1.
In a half wave rectifier, a p-n junction diode with internal resistance 20 ohm
is used. If the load resistance of 2 ohm is used in the circuit, then find the
efficiency of this half wave rectifier.
Solution:
Internal resistance (rf) = 20Ω
RL = 2kΩ = 2000 Ω
η = 0.406RLrf+RL=0.406×200020+2000×100=812×1002020
η = 40.2%.
Question 2.
A full wave p-n junction diode rectifier uses a load resistance of 1300 ohm.
The internal resistance of each diode is 9 ohm. Find the efficiency of this
full wave rectifier.
Solution:
Given that RL = 1300 Ω
rf = 9Ω
η = 0.812RLrf+RL=0.812×13009+1300×100;η=8120×131309
η = 80.64%.
Question 3.
Calculate the current amplification factor β(beta) when change in collector
current is 1mA and change in base current is 20μA.
Solution:
Change in collector current (∆IC) = 1mA = 10-3 A
Change in base current (∆IB) = 20 μA = 20 × 10-6 A
β = ΔICΔIB=10−320×10−6; β = 100020
β = 50
Question 4.
For a transistor amplifier, the collector load resistance R L = 2k ohm and the
input resistance Ri = 1 k ohm. If the current gain is 50, calculate voltage
gain of the amplifier.
Solution:
RL = 2kΩ = 2 × 103 Ω
Ri = 1kΩ = 1 × 103 Ω
β = 50.
Voltage gain (AV) = β × RLRi=50×2×1031×103
AV = 100.
Textual Examples
Question 1.
C, Si and Ge have same lattice structure. Why is C insulator while Si and Ge
intrinsic semiconductors ?
Solution:
The 4 bonding electrons of C, Si or Ge lie, respectively, in the second, third
and fourth orbit. Hence, energy required to take out and electron from
these atoms(i.e., ionisation energy Eg) will be least for Ge, following by Si
and highest for C. Hence, number of free electrons for conduction in Ge and
Si are significant but negligibly small for C.
Question 2.
Suppose a pure Si crystal has 5 × 1028 atoms m-3. It is doped by 1 ppm
concentration of pentavalent As. Calculate the number of electrons and
holes. Given that n. = 1.5 × 1016 m-3.
Solution:
Note that thermally generated electrons (ni ~ 1016 m-3) are negligibly small
as compared to those produced by doping.
Therefore, ni ≈ ND.
Since nenh = ni2, The number of holes, nh = (1.5 × 1016)2 / 5 × 1028 × 16-6
nh = (2.25 × 1032)/(5 × 1022) ~ 4.5 × 109m-3
Question 3.
Can we take one slab of p-type semiconductor and physically join it to
another n-type semiconductor to get p-n junction ?
Solution:
No ! Any slab, howsoever flat, will have roughness much large than the
inter-atomic crystal spacing(~2 to 3 A°) and hence continuous contact at
the atomic level will not be possible. The junction will behave as a
discontinuity for the flowing charge carriers.
Question 4.
The V-I characteristics of a silicon diode are shown in the Fig. Calculate the
resistance of the diode at (a) ID = 15 mA and (b) VD = -10 V.
Solution:
Considering the diode characteristics as a straight line between I = 10 mA
to I = 20 mA passing through the origin, we can calculate the resistance
using Ohm’s law.
a) From the curve, at I = 20 mA, V = 0.8 V, I = 10 mA, V = 0.7 V
rfb = ∆V/∆I = 0.1V/10mA = 10Ω
b) From the curve at V = -10 V, I = -1 µA.
Therefore rrb = 10V/1µA = 1.0 × 107 Ω
Question 5.
In a Zener regulated power supply a Zener diode’with V z = 6.0 V is used for
regulation. The load current is to be 4.0 mA and the unregulated input is
10,0 V. What should be the value of series resistor R s?
Solution:
The value of Rs should be such that the current through the Zener diode is
much larger than the load current. This is to have good load regulation.
Choose Zener current as five times the load current, i.e., I z = 20 mA. The
total current through RS is , therefore, 24 mA. The voltage drop across R S is
10.0 – 6.0 = 4.0 V This gives RS = 4.0V/(24 × 10-3) A = 167Ω. The nearest
value of carbon resistor is 150 Ω. So, a series resistor of 150 Ω is
appropriate. Note that slight variation in the value of the resistor does not
matter, what is important is that the current I Z should be sufficiently larger
than IL.
Question 6.
The current in the forward bias is known to be more (~mA) than the current
in the reverse bias (~µA). What is the reason then to operate the
photodiodes in reverse bias ?
Solution:
Consider the case of an n-type semiconductor. Obviously, the majority
carrier density (n) is considerably larger than the minority hole density p
(i.e., n> > p). On illumination, let the excess eletrons and holes generated
be ∆n and ∆p, respectively,
n’ = n + ∆n
p’ = p + ∆p
Here n’ and p’ are the electron and hole concentrations at any particular
illumination and n and p are carriers concentration when there is no
illumination. Remember ∆n = ∆p and n > > p. Hence, the fractional change
in the majority carriers (i.e., ∆n/n) would be much less than that in the
minority carriers (i.e,, ∆p/p). In general, we can state that the fractional
change due to the photo-effects on the minority carrier dominated reverse
bias current is more easily measurable than the fractional change in the
forward bias current. Hence, photodiodes-are preferably used in the
reverse bias condition for measuring light intensity.
Question 7.
Why are Si and GaAs are preferred materials for solar cells ?
Solution:
The solar radiation spectrum received by us is shown in figure.
The maxima is near 1.5 eV. For photo-excitation, hv > E g. Hence,

semiconductor with band gap ~1.5 eV or lower is likely to give better solar
conversion efficiency. Silicon has Eg ~ 1.1 eV while for GaAS it is ~ 1.53 eV.
In fact, GaAs is better On spite of its higher band gap) than Si because of its
relatively higher absorption coefficient. If we choose materials like CdS or
CdSe(Eg ~ 2.4 eV), we can use only the high energy component of the solar
energy for photo-conversion and a significant part of energy will be of no
use.
The question arises: why we do not use material like pbS(E g ~ 0.4 eV) which
satisfy the condition hv > Eg for v maxima corresponding to the solar
radiation spectra ? if we do so, most of the solar radiation will be absorbed
on the top-layer of solar cell mid will not reach in or near the depletion
region. For effective electron-hole separation, due to the junction field, we
want the photo-generation to occur in the junction region only.
Question 8.
From the output charactristics shown in fig, calculate the values of β ac and
βdc of the transistor when VCE is 10 V and IC = 4.0 mA.
Solution:
βac = (ΔICΔIB)VCE ; βdc = ICIB
For determining βac and βdc at the stated values of VCE and IC one can proceed
as follows. Consider any two characteristics for two values of I B which lie
above and below the given value of IC. Here IC = 4.0 mA. (Choose
characteristics for IB = 30 and 20μA.) At V CE = 10V
we read the two values of Ic from the graph. Then
∆IB = (30 – 20)μA = 10μA. ∆IC
= (4.5 – 3.0) mA = 1.5 mA
Therefore, βac =1.5 mA/ 10μA = 150
For determining βdc either estimate the value of IB corresponding to IC = 4.0
mA at VCE = 10V or calculate the two values of βdc for the two characteristics
chosen and find their mean.
Therefore, for IC = 4.5 mA and IB = 30 μA
βdc = 4.5 mA/30 μA = 150 and for IC = 3.0 mA/ and IB = 20 μA
βdc = 3.0 mA / 20 μA= 150
Hence, βdc = (150 + 150)/ 2 = 150
Question 9.
In Fig. the VBB supply can be varied from OV to 5.0 V. The Si transistor has
βdc = 250 and RB = 100 kΩ, RC = 1 KΩ, VCC = 5.0V. Assume that when the
transistor is saturated, VCE = 0V and VBE = 0.8V. Calculate
(a) the minimum base current, for which the transistor will reach saturation.
Hence,
(b) determine V1 for when the transistor is ‘switched on’,
(c) find the ranges of V1 for which the transistor is ‘switched of and
‘switched on’.
Solution:
Given at stauration
VCE = OV, VBE = 0.8V
VCE = VCC – ICRC
IC = VCC / RC = 5.0V/1/0 kΩ = 5.0mA
Therefore, IB = IC/β
= 5.0 mA/250 = 20μA
The input voltage at which the transistor will go into saturation is given by
VIH = VBB = IBRB + VBE
= 20μA × 100 kΩ + 0.8V = 2.8V
The value of input voltage below which the transistor remains cutoff is
given by
VIL = 0.6V, VIH = 2.8V
Between 0.0V and 0.6V the transistor will be in the ‘switched off-state.
Between 2.8V and 5.0V, it will be in ‘switched on’ state.
Note that the transistor is in active state when I B varies from 0.0mA to
20mA. In this range, IC = βIB is valid. In the saturation range IC ≤ βIB.
Question 10.
For a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector
resistance of 2.0 kΩ is 2.0 V. Suppose the current amplification factor of the
transistor is 100, what should be the value of R B in series with VBB supply of
2.0 V if the dc base current has to be 10 times the signal current. Also
calculate the dc drop across the collector resistance. (Refer to Fig)
Solution:
The output ac voltage is 2.0 V. So, the ac collector current i C= 2.0/2000 =
1.0 mA. The signal current through the base is, therefore given by i B = iC/β
= 1.0 mA/100 = 0.010 mA. The dc base current has to be 10 × 0.010 =
0.10 mA
From VBB = VBE+ IB RB RB = (VBB – VBE)/IB. Assuming VBE = 0.6V
RB = (2.0 – 0.6)/0.10 = 14kΩ
The dc collector current IC = 100 × 0.10 = 10 mA.
Question 11.
Justify the output waveform (Y) of the OR gate for the following inputs A
and B given in fig.
Solution:
Note the following :
 At t ≤ t1; A = 0, B = 0; Hence Y = 0
 For t1 to t2; A = 1, B = 0; Hence Y = 1
 For t > t6; A = 0,B = 1; Hence Y = 1
Therefore the waveform Y will be as shown in the Fig.
Question 12.
Take A and B input waveforms similar to that in Example 11. Sketch the
output waveform obtained from AND gate.
Solution:
 For t ≤ t1; A = 0, B = 0; Hence Y = 0

 For t > t6; A = 0,B = 1; Hence Y = 0
Based on the above, the output waveform for AND gate can be drawn as
given below.
Question 13.
Sketch the output Y from a NAND gate having inputs A and B given below :
Solution:
 For t ≤ t1; A = 1, B = 1; Hence Y = 0

 For t > t6; A = 0,B = 1; Hence Y = 1
Lesson Communication Systems
Question 1.
What are the basic blocks of a communication system ?
Answer:
Basic blocks in communication system are
1. Transmitter
2. Receiver
3. Channel
Question 2.
What is ‘World Wide Web” (WWW) ?
Answer:
Tern Berners -Lee invented the World Wide Web.
It is an encyclopedia of knowledge accessible to every one round the clock through out the year.
Question 3.
Mention the frequency range of speech signals.
Answer:
Speech signals frequency range is 300 Hz to 3100 Hz.
Question 4.
What is sky wave propagation ?
Answer:
In the frequency range from a MHz upto about 30 MHz, long distance communication can be achieved by
ionospheric reflection of radio waves back towards the earth. This mode of propagation is called sky wave
propagation.
Question 5.
Mention the various parts of the ionosphere ?
Answer:
Parts of ionosphere are
1. D Part of stratosphere (65-70 km day only),

2. E Part of stratosphere (100 km day only),
3. F1 Part of mesosphere (170 km – 190 km),
4. F2 Part of thermosphere [300 km at night 250 – 400 km during day time].
Question 6.
Define modulation. Why is it necessary ? [A.P. 17; A.P., T.S. Mar. 16, T.S. Mar. 15, Mar. 14]
Answer:
Modulation : The process of combining low frequency audio signal with high frequency carrier wave is called
modulation.
Necessary: Low frequency signals cannot transmit directly. To reduce size of the antenna and to avoid mixing
up of signal from different transmitters modulation is necessary.
Question 7.
Mention the basic methods of modulation. [T.S. Mar. 15, 17, A.P. Mar. 16]
Answer:
The basic methods of modulation are :
1. Amplitude modulation (AM)

2. Frequency modulation (FM)
3. Phase modulation (PM)
Question 8.
Which type of communication is employed in Mobile Phones ? [A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Space wave mode of propagation is employed in mobile phones.
Textual Examples
Question 1.
A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a height 32 m and the height of the receiving antenna Is 50 m.
What is the maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in LOS mode? Given radius of
earth 6.4 × 106 m.
Solution:
dm = 2RhT−−−−−√+2RhR−−−−−√
dm = 2×64×105×32−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√+2×64×105×50 m−−−
−−−−−−−−−−−−−√
=64 × 10 × 10−−√ +8 × 10 × 10−−√m = 144 × 10 × 10−−√m
2 3 2
= 45.5 km.
Question 2.
A message signal of frequency 10 kHz and peak voltage of 10 volts Is used to modulate a carrier of frequency
1 MHz and peak voltage of 20 volts. Determine
(a) modulation index
(b) the side bands produced.
Solution:
a) Modulation index = 102 = 0.5
b) The side bands are at (1000 + 10 kHz) = 1010 kHz and (1000 – 10 kHz) = 990 kHz.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Important Questions 1st Lesson Waves

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1 Waves — — 1 8

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Important Questions 1st Lesson Waves

Question 2.What does a wave represent ?

Question 3. Distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves.

Question 5. What is the principle of superposition of waves ? .

Question 6. Under what conditions will a wave be reflected ?

Question 8. What is a stationary or standing wave ?

Question 9. What do you understand by the terms node’ and ‘antinode’ ?

Question 12. What are harmonics ?

Question 16.What are ‘beats’ ?

Short Answer Questions

Question 4.What is ‘Doppler effect’ ? Give illustrative examples.

Long Answer Questions

y1 = a sin (kx – ωt) and y2 = a sin (kx + ωt)

Harmonic frequency v = vλ=vP2l

∴ Fundamental Frequency v = 12lTμ−−√ …………….. (3)

Laws of Transverse Waves Along Stretched String:

∴ v ∝ 1l ⇒ vl = constant, when ‘T’ and ‘μ’ are constant. .

∴ v ∝ T−−√ ⇒ vT√ = constant, when ‘l’ and ‘m’ are constant.

∴ v ∝ 1μ√ ⇒ vμ−−√ = constant, when ‘l’ and T are constant.

∴ The vibrating length (l) = half of the wavelength (λ12)

If λ2 is wavelength of second harmonic l = 2λ22 ⇒ λ2 = 212

If ‘v2’ is frequency of second harmonic then v2 = vλ2=v×22l = 2v

∴ l = 3λ34 where ‘λ3‘ is wave length of third harmonic

∴ l = 5λ54 where ‘λ5‘ is wave length of fifth harmonic.

∴ Apparent wavelength λ’ = λ – υsT.

Solution: When a whistling train away from rest observer,

When a whistling train away from rest observer,

= (0.005 m) sin (97°) ≃ 5 mm

and only to odd numbered harmonics are present :

Short Answer Questions

⇒ I1 = VR1; I2 = VR2; I3 = VR3

1. Resistance is directly proportional to length of the conductor (R ∝ l)

2. Resistance is inversely proportional to area of cross-section (R ∝ 1/A)

a) Resistance of the conductor, R = ρ l A = ρ l2V ⇒ R ∝ l2 (∵ ρ and V constant)

⇒ R1/R2 = (l1/l1)2 ∴ R1/R2 = (l/4l)

⇒ I1R1 + IgG = I2R2 …………….. (3)

applying kirchhoft’s second law to the closed path DCBD,

⇒ I3R3 – IgG = I4R4 ……………….. (4)

∴ Wheatstone’s Bridge principle : R4 = R3 × R2R1

i.e. ε ∝ l ⇒ ε = Φl where Φ is potential gradient.

Comparing the emf of two cells ε1 and ε2 :

2. The points marked 1, 2, 3 form a two way key.

the galvanometer. Then ε1 ∝ l1 ⇒ ε1 = Φl1 ………………. (1)

l2 (AN2), then ε2 ∝ l2 ⇒ ε2 = Φl2 ……………. (2)

where Φ is potential gradient.

c) The ratio of H1 and H2 is given by

∴ Dissipated power in parallel,

∴ Dissipated power in series, PS ∝ RS ⇒ PS ∝ 18

less because voltage is same across each resistor.

∴Temperature coefficient of resistivity

Given, E = 2.5 V; R = 45Ω;

The resistance in the left gap in meter bridge is, x = 1.5 Ω

Question 11.A potentiometer wire is 5m long and a potential difference of 6 V is maintained

Very Short Answer Questions

Answer:Thalf = 0.693 × TMean ⇒ TMean = Thalf 0.693=720.693 = 103.8 days.

Question 4.Neutrons cannot produce ionization. Why ?

Question 5.What are delayed neutrons ?

Question 6.What are thermal neutrons ? What is their importance ?

Question 8.What is the role of controlling rods in a nuclear reactor ?