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|26/06/2024 Code-A_(Phase-1)

Aakash
Medlcal|IT-JEE| Foundations
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456
MM :720 Fortnighty Test Series 2024-25 RM(P1)-Test-02A Time: 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Motion in a Plane, Laws of Motion
Chemistry: Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Botany: Cell Cycle and Cell Division, The Living World
Zoology: Biomolecules-i: (Proteins, types and functions, Lipids, Nucleic acids, Enzymes,
Cofactors), Breathing and Exchange of
Gases-l: (Upto mechanism of breathing)

General Instructions:
1. There are two secions in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Secion-A & only 10
questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks, For every wrong response, -1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unansweredlunattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
NEEIFoundios
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rübbing material on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICs h-cc001)

SECTION-A,

1
The coordinates of a moving particle at any time t are 3. The position-time graph for a particle of mass 6 kg
and y = Br°. The speed of the particle at moving along x-axis is shown figure. Then impulse on
given byx= at particle at t= 2 seconds is
time tis given by
a
x(m)
(1) +B

(2) Va+B
(3) 3¢a +B 20
(4) 3tya+B2
2. A ball of mass 0.2 kg moves witha velocity
of 20 m/s
and >s)
it stops in 0.1 s. Then the magnitude of force
on the ball
(1) 120 Ns
Fma –
(2) 420 Ns
40 N
m o'eeo
o (3) - 120 Ns
(2) 20 N
(4) 60 Ns
(3) 4 N
(4) 2 N

1
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Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

4. According to Newton's 3rd law of motion 10. The acceleration of block A (of mass 10 kg), kept on a
smooth horizontal surface, when a force Fof magnitude
(1) Action arises before reaction 10 N is applied on it as shown in figure will be
(2) Reaction arises before action
(3) Action and reaction always act on same body F= 10 N
(4) Action and reaction always act on different bodies
S60
5. a unit vector is represented by
If 0.5 +0.5-+ck, then the
value of cis approximately 10 kg
A1) 0.70
(2) 0.20
(3) 0.50 (1) 0.25 mis2
(4) 0.25
(2) 2 m/s2
6 Kinetic friction between two surfaces
(3) 1 mis
(1) Opposes the relative motion between them
A0.5 m/s2
(2)
Acts opposite to thè direction of relative mnotion
between them 11. A body of mass m is projected with initial speed u at an
(3) Acts in same direction on both the surfaces angle 9 with horizontal. The magnitude of change in
momentum after the body reaches its maximum height is
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) 2mu cose
7. Two forces (3i +43) N and (2i +) N are acing on a
(2) Zero
body of mass 1 kg, then magnitude of acceleration (3) mu sine
produced in the body will be
(4) 2m sinê
(1) 5 m/s?
I+ 12. Thevelocity óf a
projecile at the initial point O is
(2)
2 ms?
(4i+7j) m/s ts velocity (in m/s) at point A will be,
(3) 5/2 m/s?
(910 m/s)
(4) 4/2 m/s2

Velocity vector and acceleration vector in a uniform

8.
circular motion are related as
(Aalkh
(1) Both are in the same direction
(2) Both are perpendicular to each other Medic
(3) Both are in opposite direction
(4) Both are at acute angle
9. To the driver of a car A moving with velocity
m/s, a second car B appears to have a
velocity (5i + 123) m/s. The true velocity of the car B is
raxis
m/s (1) -4i –7j
lsi+8;) m/s
(3) 2i+3j
) (-si +8i) m/s
(4) 4i +7]
(4) (2i+163) m/s

2
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Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25
RM(P1)-Test-02A

13. The equation of motion of a projectile are

given by x =24t 18. A body is acted upon by two forces 3 N and 4 N. The
m and y= (32t -
10r) m. The angle of projection with direction of forces are not known. The resultant force on
horizontal is the body may be
) 53°
(1) 6 N/
(2) 37° (2) 8 N
32-
(3) 45° 0) (3) 10 N
(4) 60° (4) 12 N
14. Tension in string PQ as shown in the figure is (g = 10 19. A projectile is thrown from level ground at some angle 0
m's²) from horizontal with speedu. The ratio of kinetic energy at
point of projecion to kinetic energy at point of landing for
projectile is

P37 ) 1:1
(2) 1:4
(3) 1:9
|10 kgl (4) 1:16

(1) 500N 20 Unit vector of

Á = B+ where B =5i-jand
N
(2)
C=-2i-3j, will be given by
(3) 100N
N
(1) (3i+4j)
(4)
(2) 5(4i –3)
15. A body of mass 2 kg is revolving with angular speed 2T
radian/s in a circular path of radius 1 m. The centripetal (3) 5(34 + 4j)
force acting on body (in N) is
(4) (3i-43) tions
(1) 812
21. the net external force acting on a body is zero, then the
If
(2) 4112
body
(3) 32 (1) Must be at rest
(2) Can move with constant velocity
(4) 2112
(3) Must have zero acceleration
16. A circular race track of radius 120 m is banked at an Both (2) and (3)
angle of 53°. The optimum speed of car to avoid wear Medical S
ms
and tear of its tyres is (g= 10 ) 22. A body of mass 1 kg is placed on a rough horizontal
surface having coefficient of friction y =0.5. If a horizontal
(1) 40 m/s force of 2 N is acting on it, the frictional force on the body
will be
(2) 20 m/s
(1) 5 N
(3) 30 m/s
(2) 2 N
(4) 10 mls
B which (3) 3 N
17. A 4 kg block A is placed on the top of 8 kg block
on B when a force of 20 (4) 4 N
rests on smooth table. A just slips force F
N is applied only on A. The maximum horizontal
(in the diagramgiven below) required to make both A and 23. Trajectory of a particle projected at an angle from earth
B move together is
surface with speed 20 m/s is
(1) Straight line
A
(2) Circular

3) Parabolic

(1) 36 N (4) Hyperbolic

(2) 5 N

(3) 40 N

(4) 60 N

3
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Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

24. A monkey of mass 60 kg climbs on a rope which can 29. A machine gun fires n bullets per second and the mass of
withstand a maximum tension of 900 N. For which of the each bullet is 20 g. If 100 m/s is the speed of each bullet
to
following value of acceleration, monkey will not be able and a force of 10 N is required to hold the gun, then the
climb safely on the rope? value ofn is

(1) 4 ms-2 (1) 1

(2) 2
(2) 5 ms-2
(3) 3
(3) 0.8 ms-2
(4) 5
(4) 8 ms-2 30. An object of mass 3 kg is at rest. If a force
25. A particle initially at rest, starts moving under the F = N acts on the object, then velocity of the
(32i+9)
acceleration =(2i +j) m/s'. The velocity (in ms) of
object at t=2 seconds (in m/s) is
particle after time 2sis (1) 72? + 12j
(1) 2i +
(2) 6i
(2) 4i +23
(3) 32i + 6j
(3) 2i +3j
(4) 2j
(4)
i+6j
31. A block of mass 10 kg is kept on smooth floor of a truck
26. Ifthe momentum of a body varies with time t as and attached to its wall by a light string as shown in the
p= (5t +t+1) kgm/s. The average force for the time figure. If the string can bear a maximum tension 250 N,
intervalt= 0 to 2sis then the maximum acceleration of truck in rightward
direction such that the block remains stationary with
(1) 22 N respect to the truck is
(2) 33 N 0k9
(3) 11 N
(4) 44 N

27. For the arrangement shown in figure, the ratio of tension

T and T2 is (1) 25 m/s
10 kg 6 kg. 4 kg
(2) 10 mis2
Fz 40 N
(3) 15 m/s2

Smooth Medical (4) 40 m/s2

(1) 1:2 32. Two objects A and B are thrown with velocities
(2) 5:8 uA=4i+5j and uB=i+j respectively from some
(3) 2:1 point on horizontal ground. The magnitude of relative
velocity of object B w.rt. object A at any point when they
(4) 4 :5 are in air will be
28. In the arrangement shown in figure, acceleration of block
IS
(1) 3 ms1
(2) 4 ms-1
(3) 5 ms-1
mg (4) 6 ms-1
F=
2
m
33. A block of mass m=5 kg is kept on rough horizontal disc
at a distance 2 m from the centre. The coefficient of
friction between the block and the disc is u = 0.8. If the
(1) upward disc is under uniform circular motion, then its angular
(2)
speed wjust above which the block will start sliding is
donvard
(1) 0.25 rad/s
(3) g upward
(2) 0.5 rad/s
(4) Zero
(3) 1 rad/s

(4) 2 rad/s

4
 Page 5 of 23
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25 RM(P1)-Test-02A

34. Find contact force between blocks

100 N 20kg

(1) 20 N

(2) 40 N
(3) 60 N

(4) 50 N

35. What is the acceleration of 6 kg block, when acceleration

of 3
kg block is 3 msas
shown in figure?
ms
3

6 kg M0000003 kg F=15 N

Smooth surface
(1) 3 ms2
(2) 4 ms2
(3) 1
ms2
(4) 2 ms-2
Undations
SECTION-B

36. Two weights 10 kg each are attached by means of two 38. If acceleration of block A in case 1 is a1, in case 2 is a2
strings to the two ends of a spring balance, as shown in and in case 3 is ag, then aj:a2 :ag is
figure. The pulleys are frictionless. The reading of the
balance would be UT
Medicall Aaka

2rmg

10 kg| 10 kgl Am
Case-2
(1) 100N
(2) 500N m2mg
(3) Zero
(4) 10 N Case-3
37. A boy of mass 40 kg wants to climb up a rope hanging (1) 1:3:6
vertically. The rope can withstand a maximum tension of
(2) 3:1:6
600 N. The maximum acceleration with which the boy can
climb the rope is (g= 10 m/s (3) 4:1:2
(1) 10 m/s?
(4) 2:1:1
(2) 5 mýs2

(3) 2.5 ms2

(4) 7.5 ms2

5
 Page 6 of 23

39, A block can slide on

a smooth inclined plane of 45. A block of mass 5 kg is pulled by a force of 30 N on
inclination 0 fixed on the floor of an elevator. When the horizontal surface as shown in figure. If acceleration of
a retardation a, the
elevator is moving down with block is 3 ms,then coeficient of friction is
of the block relative to the incline is
acceleration -2
3 ms
(1) (g +a)sino
(2) (g- a)
5 kg 30 N
(3) gsine
(4) (g- a)sin
(1) 0.1
40. A is moving down with retardation of 5 m/s. The
lift
apparent weight of the man (whose mass is 50 kg) (2) 0.2
standing in the lift is
(3) 0.3
(1) 250 N
(4) 0.4
(2) 750N 46. Breaking strength of a rope is 60% of the weight of a
(3) 500 N person. With what minimum acceleration, the person
should slide down the rope, such that it does not break?
(4) 1000 N
(1)
41. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial
velocity 40 m/s. The range of the missile is (g = 10 m/s) (2) 2
(1) 60 m
(3)
(2) 160 m

(3) 200 m (4)

(4) 40 m 47. A stone of mass 4 kg is whirled in a horizontal circle by

attaching it to a 169 m long string. The string can
42. The vectors -i+3j+4k and -i+3j+(a +2) are withstand a maximum tension of 4 N. The maximum
equal, then value of a is speed of revolution of the stone such that the string does
not break is
(1) -1
(1) 10
(2) -2
(2) 13 m/s
s8) 2
(3) 16 m/s
(49) -
(4) 12 m/s
43. Ifa truck moving with a constant speed of 2 m/s on a level
m, then the 48. Abody of mass 10 kg is suspended by a spring balance
road can take a sharp circular turn of radius 2 MOical on an inclined plane as shown in figure. The spring
minimum value of coefficient of friction between tyres of
truck and road so that it does not skid is (Take g=
balance measures
mis²)
(1) 0.1

(2) 0.2
(3) 0.3
kg
(4) 0.4 10
44. All the strings shown in figure are massless. If horizontal 450
force 12 N is applied on 3 kg, then tension in the string
AB is (1) 50 N

A B, N (2) 100 N
12
1kg 2kg 3kg
(3) 50/2 N
(Smooth) (4) 100/2N
(1) 2 N

(2) 3 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 12 N

6
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Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25 RM(P1)-Test-02A

49. A particle is moving along a circular path with uniform

speed. Through what angle does its angular velocity
change when it completes half of the circular path?
(1) 180

(2) 360°

(3) 90°
(4) 0°
50. An insect trapped in a circular groove of radius 12 cm
moves along the groove steadily and completes 7
revolutions in 100 s. The Linear speed of the insect is
(1) 5.3 cm/s
(2) 3.2 cm/s
(3) 6.3 m/s
(4) 7.2 m/s

Foundations
CHEMISTRY

tash-CC001)
SECTION-A

51. The maximum number of orbital(s) that can be associated 54. Which of the following oxide is neutral in nature?
with the following quantum numbers is Medical (1) NazO
mj = 0
n=4,|=1,
(2) NO
(1) 1
(3) Cl207
(2) 2
(4) Alz03
(3) 3
(4) 5 55. Which among the following elements show diagonal
relationship with berylium?
with atomic
52. Inthe modern periodic table, the element (1) Mg
number 33 belongs to
(2) Si
(1) 5h period and 15 group
(3) Al
(2) 3rd period and 13 group
(4) Na
(3) 4h period and 13 group 56. Which of the following element has the highest first
ionisation potential?
(4) 4h period and 15n group (1) C
a dumb-bell shape?
53. Which of the following orbitals has B
(2)
(1) s (3) N
(4) O
(3) d
(4) f
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Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

57. Given below are two statements. 63. Electromagnetic radiation which has longest wavelength
Statement I: The radiusS of 2nd orbit of He ion is 1.058 is
(1) Visible light
Statement Il: Splitting of spectral line in electrical field is
called stark effect. (2) Microwave
Choose the correct option from the following:
(3) Radio wave
(1) Statement Iis correctbut statement Il is incorrect (4) Gamma rays
(2) Statement lis incorrect but statement Il is correct
64. Consider the following statements
(3) Both statements are incorrect (a) Variation of heat capacity of solids can be explained
(4) Both statements are correct by particle nature of electromagnetic radiation
(b) Diffraction of light can be explained by wave nature of
58. Which among the following is the incorrect set of quantum electromagnetic radiation
numbers? (c) Work function of lithium is lesser than sodium
m|s The correct statement(s) islare
(1) (a) only
(1)42-1+
(2) (a) and (b) only
(2)|5|11
(3) (b) and (c) only
(3)2oo (4) (a), (b) and (c)

65. The correct order of negative electrorn gain enthalpy ís

(1) (1) (1)O>S> Se> Te
(2) S> O> Se > Te
(2) (2)
(3) S> Se> Te >O
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
(4) Se >S>Te>0
66. Which quantum number gives information about spatial
59. Among the following () ratio is maximum for
orientation of the orbital with respect to standard set of co
(1) Electron
ordinate axes?
(1) Principal quantum number
(2) Proton
(2) Azimuthal quantum number
(3) a-particle
(3) Magnetic orbital quantum number
(4) Neutron
(4) Spin quantum number
60. Chalcogens are elements belonging to
67. Correct order of atomic radii of F, O, C andN is
(1) Noble gases Medical (1) F> O> N>C
(2) Transition elements
(2) C > N>O>F
(3) Representative elements
(4) Inner-Transition elements
(3) N>C>0>F
(4) O> F>C>N
6. Beis isoelectronic with which of the following ions? 68. Eka-silicon is also called as
(1) Ht (1) Gallium

(2) Lit (2) Aluminium

(3) Indium
(3) Nat
A)
Germanium
(4) Mg2+
69. Ifa particle of mass 0.5 g is moving with a velocity of 200
62. The general electronic configuration of p-block elements m/s then the wavelength associated with the particle is (h
=
6.625 x 10-34 Js)
(2) ns1-2np0-6 m
(1) 6.625 x 10-32
(2) nsnp-6 (2) 6.625 x 10-33m
(3) nsnp-6 (3) 6.625 x 10 -34 m
(4) ns²ng-6 (4) 6.625 x 103b m
 Page 9 of 23

Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

70. TwO electrons occupying the same orbital can

be 77. Consider the following statements about cathode rays:
distinguished by
(a) They are negatively charged particles
(1) Principal quantum number (b) The characteristics of cathode rays do not depend
upon the material of electrodes used.
(2) Azimuthal quantum number
(c) They start from anode and move towards cathode.
(3) Spin quantum number The correct statements are:
(4) Magnetic quantun number )(a) and (b) only
71. Select the ion of largest sze (2) (b) and (c) only
in gas phase among the
given species (3) (a) and (c) only
(1) Mg2+ (4) (a). (b) and (c)

(2)
o2 78. Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted when
a light of frequency 1.1 x 10< Hz is irradiated on a metal
(3) Nat
surface whose threshold frequency is equal to 1.0 x 10
(4) N3 Hz, is (h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js)

(1) 6.6 x y
72, Number of angular and radial nodes present in 5p orbital 10-25
are respectively
(2) 1.8 x 10-21 J.
1
(1) 2 and
(3) 5.1 x 10-20
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 1 and 3 (4) 6.6 x 10-22 J
(4) '3 and 1 79. In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is

73. On the basis of Rutherford model of atom radius of followed by a statement of reason (R).
nucleus is about Assertion (A) : The second lonisation enthalphy of an
element will be lesser than the first lonisation enthalphy.
(1) 10-1m Reason (R) : It is more easier to remove an electron from
a positively charged ion than from the neutral atom.
In the light of above statements choose the correct
(2) 10-12m
answer.
Ja) 10-15m (1)
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) 10-20 m
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2) not
74. ifshortest wavelength in Lyman series of H-atom be 'xA, the correct explanation of the assertion
then the longest wavelength in Balmer series of He (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
would be (in Å
Medical (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(1) 80. Kinetic energy of an electron present in the third excited
(2) z state of Li<t ion will be
(1) 6.04 eV
(3)
(2) 7.65 eV
(4) 12 .
20 (3) 1.51 eV
75. Which of the following pairs are isobars? (4) 13.6 eV
(1)
C and c 81. Ifthe wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is 100 nm
then the energy of the quanta will be (h = 6.625 x 10-34J
(2)
C and N s; c =3 x 10 ms-l)
o
(3)
C and (1) 6.25 x
10-18 j
N
(4) "0 and (2) 3.75 x 10-19 J
76. Orbital angular momentum of electron present in a 3p (3) 6.625 x 10-17 J
orbital is
(4) 1.99
>x
10-18 J
(1) /12h
(2) /on

(3) /21
(4) 4h
 Page 10 of 23
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

82. ldentify the incorrect match from the options. 84, Angular momentum of electron in the third orbit of
UPAC Official Name hydrogen atom is
Name
la.Unnilbium |Nobelium
0
(1)
b.Unnilquadium|(ü) |Rutherfordium
(2) 2h
lc.||Unnilseptium (ii)|Bohrium
d.Unnilennium |(iv)lDubnium (3)

(1) a, () (4) 3

(2) b, (ii)
85. The number of elements present in sixth period
(3) c, (i)
(1) 18
<a d, (iv)
(2) 8
83. Maximum number of electrons in a shell having principal
quantum number equal to 6 is (3) 32

(1) 6 (4) 2

(2) 12
(3) 36
(4) 72

SECTION-B

86. Which of the following is a s-block element? 90. Given below are two statements.
(1) Ca n Statement I:Heisenberg uncertainty principle rules out
existence of definite paths or trajectories of electrons and
2) Fe other similar particles.
Statement_ I|\: Heisenberg uncertainty principle is
(3) O o significant both for the motion of microscopic and
(4) Xe od macroscopic objects.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct
87. Correct order of electronegativity of the given elements is answer.
(1) P> N>C> Si
Medical (1) Both statement-l and statement-llare correct
(2) N>P>C>Si (2) Both statement-Iand statement-llare incorrect
(3) N >C>P> Si (3) Statement-l is correct but statement-il is incorrect
(4) N > P> Si> C (4) Statement-l is incorrect but statement-Ill is correct
88. The correct order of energy of given orbitals in 91. Which among the following is not a representative
multielectron species is element?
(1) 4d>5p > 5s (1) Sn
w2) 5p>5s> 4d (2) Sb
(3) 5p > 4d> 5s (3) Sr
(4) 5s > 5p > 4d (4) Ce
89. Which among the following elements belong to 92. The amphoteric oxide among the following is
Chalcogen family?
) Cao
(1) Br.
(2) SrO
(2) Se
(3) BeO
(3) As
(4) BaO
(4) Kr

10
 Page 11 of 23
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25
RM(P1)-Test-02A

93. Most electropositive

element among the following is 97. Which of the following transitions will emit photon of
(1) Na minimum wavelength?
(2) Mg (1) n4 - n1
(3) Al
(2) n4 - n2
(4) Be
(3) n3 n1
g4. Spectral line of which series does not belong
infrared (4) n2 n1
region?
(1) Pfund 98. Outer shel electronic configuration of the most
electronegative element is
(2) Brackett
(1) 2s22p4
(3) Paschen
(4) Balmer (2) 2s²2p5

95. The wave number for longest wavelength transition in the (3) 3s23p4
Lyman series of atomic hydrogen is (RH = Rydberg
(4) 3s23p5
constant for hydrogen)
(1) }R 39. Element which does not have nsnp configuraion?
(2) RH (1) B

(3) R (2) C
(3) Ga
(4) R
(4) In
96. Numbers of neutrons and protons respectively present in 100.The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence
Br are electron of potassium atom (Z = 19) is
2
35,45 .A)41,0, +}
(2) 35, 35 (2) 4,0, 0,
(3) 45,35 (3) 4,0,1
(4) 45,45 +i
(4)3, 1,0,
(Aakash-c(?
IIT-J
Medicall

BOTANY

SECTION-A

102.Mango and potato belong to same

102AIl of the following phenomena may occur twice in
meiosis, except (1) Family
(1) Spindle formation 2) Class
(2) Uncoiling of chromosomes (3) Genera.
(3) DNA duplication v (4) Order
(4) Centriole duplication

11
 Page 12 of 23
Diplo
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A
Lip Zas Be
M

103.Read the following statements and choose the correct 110.1CBN stands for
option, (1) Indian Code for Botanical Nomenclature
Assertion : During zygotene stage, chromosomes start
pairing together and this process is called terminalisation. (2) International Code for Biological Nomenclature
Reason : Anaphase- begins with simultaneous splitting
of centromeres of eachh chronmosome, (3) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (4) Indian Code for Biological Nomenclature
(2 the correct explanation of the assertion 111. The interphase does not include
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2) not
the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) G1 phase
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (2) G2 phase
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements o) Mphase
104.Interkinesis is a stage between a and b (4) S phase

(1) (a) Telophase ll; (b) Prophase | 112.Splitting of centromeres and separation of chromatids
0ccurs at
(2) (a) Telophase ll; (b) Prophase |l
(1) Telophase
(3) (a) Telophase l;(b) Prophase I

2) Anaphase
(4) (a) Telophase l; (b) Prophase I| (3) Prophase
105.What will be the amount of DNA in a meiosis-ll product, if
(4) Metaphase
the meiocyte contains 40 pg DNA in G1 phase?
113.Which of the given statements is not true for binomial
A) 20 Pg nomenclature system?
(2) 80 pg
Biological names are generally in Latin or Latinised
(3) 10 pg irrespective of their origin
(4) 5 pg (2) Both the words if hand written are underlined together
106.Which of the following statement is correct for prophase? (3) Name of the author is written after specific epithet in
an abbreviated form
(1) Spindle fibres atach to kinetochores of chromosome a First word represents the genus, which starts with a
(4)
(2) Centromere split and chromatids separate capital letter
(3) Chromatids move to opposite poles 114.During which phase of cell cycle, genetic material
Chromosomal material çondenses to form compact becomes double?
) chromosomes (1) Gap2 phase

107 Asters are Medical 2) Synthesis phase

(1) Formed by centromere and astral rays (3) Gap1 phase
(2) Seen in all plants
(4) Quiescent phase
(3) Formed during prophase J 115.In quiescent phase, cells
(4) Absent in animals (1) Undergo rapid proliferation
108.Branch of science which deals with the study of principles 2 Are metabolically active
and procedures for grouping of organisms is
(3) Are in G1 phase
(1) Classification
(2) Identification (4) Continuously increase in size
S3) Taxonomy 116.Morphology of chromosomes is best studied in
(4) Nomenclature J) Metaphase
109.Biodiversity is referred as (2) Anaphase

(1) Diverse environment of a paricular species (3) Prophase

2) The number and types of organisms on earth (4) Telophase

Availability of different food resources for a specific 117.The most dramatic period of the cellcycle is
(3)
organism (1) Interphase
(4) Variaion among the offspring of an organism < (2) M-phase
(3) S-phase
(4) Go-phase
 Page 13 of 23
Fortnightly Test Senes 202425 RM(PI)-Test-02A

118.When karyokinesis is not tolloved by

cytokinesis, it 126.Taxonomy along with evolutionary relationships is called
results in the
(1) Systematics
) Entance of the cell into Go phase
(2) Classification
(2) Fomabon of cell plate
(3) Taxonomic hierarchy
(3) Haploid stage of the cell
(4) Taxonomical
aids
(4) Formabon of syncytum
127.Synapsis occurs between
119.Family which includes genera Felis and Panthera is
(1) Two sister chromatids
(1) MusGdae
2) Two homologous chromosomes
(2) Felidae (3) Two non-homologous chromosomes
(3) Canidae
(4) Sex chromosomes only
(4) Convolvulaceae
128.Anaphase | differs from anaphase of mitosis as in the
120.In final stage of prophase-l of meiosis former
(1) Chiasmata formation occurs Separation of homologous chromosomes does not
(1)
(2) Crossing over occurs 0Ccur

(3) Recombinase enzyme gets fully activated< (2) Splitting of centromere occurs

(4) Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place ,(3) Sister chromatids do not separate
(4) Chromosomes cluster at the poles
121Activity of recombinase enzyme occurs during
(1) Leptotene 129. marks the end of the cell division.
Select the correct option to complete the statement.
2) Pachytene
(1)Formation of metaphasic plate
(3) Diplotene
(2) Division ofnucleus into two daughter nuclei
(4) Diakinesis
(3) Reappearance of Golgi bodies in the cells
122.Which one is not a significance of mitosis? Division of cytoplasm into two daughter cells
4)
(1) Growth of multicellular organisms v (130,.During cytokinesis in an animal cell
(2) Restoration of nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio of cell
Furrow starts at the centre of the cell and grows
(1)
(3) Replacement of older cells outwards
4) Incease geneic variability in the population (2) Furrow starts at the periphery and then moves
inwards
123.Interphase lasts about of the duration of cell
cycle. Medical (Aa (3) Phragmoplast is formed by golgi complex

(1) Less than 5% (4) Cytoplasm divides centrifugally

(2) 10% -20% 131.How many tetrads will be formed if a diploid cell that
contains 18 chromosomes?
3 More than 95%
(1) 18
(4) Less than 10%
S2) 9
124.There are five different stages of prophase-l I.e.,
Leptotene (L), Pachytene (P), Diplotene (D), Zygotene (Z) (3) 27
and Diakinesis (D;). (4) 36
Arrange the stages in correct sequence.
132.The Muscidae of housefly is equivalent to
(1) D - P -L - D;
-Z
of
mango. Complete the statement by selecting correct
option to fill up the blank.
JeL -2-P-D- D
(1) Sapindales
(3) Z - L - P -D
-D
.2) Anacardiaceae
(4) P - L -Z- D; - D
(3) Dicotyledonae
125.During M phase, the complete disintegration of the (4) Poales
nuclear envelope marks the start of
a) Metaphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

13
 Page 14 of 23
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

133A chromosome after S phase (seen in Prophase) has 135.How many mitotic divisions are 4
required to produce 64 6u
cells from one cell?
.(1) TWo chromatids
(1) 64
(2) Four chromatids
(2) 16
(3) A single chromatid
(4) Three chronmatids U8) 63
(4) 8
134.Dyad of cells appears at
J1)Telophase
(2) Telophase ll

(3) Prophase I

(4) Anaphase I

SECTION-B

136.Duration of one cell cycle for yeast cell is about 141.Rules of Binomial nomenclature were given by
(1) 90 hours (1) Robert Hooke
(2) 24 minutes (2) Rudolf Virchow
(3 90 minutes .3) Carolus Linnaeus
(4) 24 hours (4) Ernst Mayr
137.Chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by 142.If a human cell completes its cell cycle in 24 hours then
(1) Chromatids the approximatete time for its actual cell division will be
about
2) Kinetochores
(1) 23 hours
(3) Satellite (2) 10 hours
(4) Telomere
(3) 6 hours
138.The lowest and basic category of classification is 1
hour
1) Species 143.In which of the following aspects, anaphase of mitosis is
(2) Genus Medical similar to anaphase lI?
(3) Class (1) Occurrence only in diploid cells
(4) Family (2) Separation of homologous chromosomes
139.The scientific names ensure that each organism has (3) Splitting of centromere
(4) Formation of two metaphasic plates
(1) Two names -one local and one taxonomic name
(2) Two names - one vernacular and one Latin name 144.Lion, leopard and tiger are all species of the genus

(3) A name that has been used for other known organism (1) Felis
4)
Only one name, which is universally accepted
2)
Panthera
140.Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. mitosis. (3) Canis
(4) Musca
(1 Daughter cells and parent,cell are identical .to each
other 145.Which of the following plants does not belong to the order
It is required during gametogenesis of haploid Polymoniales?
organisms (1) Potato
(3) It was first observed by Strasburger in plant cell (2) Petunia
(4) It does not occur in the gonad cells of animals (3) Datura
(4) Wheat

14
 Page 15 of 23
Cortnightly Test Series 2024-25 RM(P1)-Tost-02A

146.At which oT the

given stages of prophase-| of meiosis,
148.What will be the content of DNA a diploid cell at the
nucleolus disappears
disintegrates?
Qnd nuclenr envelope end of S-phase if its meiotic product has 5 picogram of
DNA?
(1) Zygotene
(1) 20 pg
(2) Pachytene
(2) 10 pg
(3) Diplotene
(3) 5 pg
(4) Diakinesis
(4) 40 pg
147What will be the number of chromatids in prophase I
ofa 149.Chiasmata or X-shaped structures become visible during
cell having 10 bìvalents?
1) Diplotene stage

)20
(2) Zygotene stage
(2) 40
(3) Pachytene stage
(3) S0
(4) Leptotene stage
(4) 60
150.All the following events occur in the resting phase of cell
cycle, except
(1) Condensation of chromatin material

(2) Duplication of cell organelles

(3) Duplication of genetic material
(4) Growth of cellin size

ZOOLOGY

Qundations
SECTION-A

151.Most abundant protein in whole of the biosphere is 154.In a single nucleotide, bond is present between
phosphate and ribose sugar.
f1) RuBisCO
(1) Hydrogen
) Collagen
edicall
(2) Ester
(3) Albumin
(3) Phosphodiester
(4) Globulin
(4) Disulphide
152.The heterocyclic nitrogenous base which is not
considered as a pyrimidine is 155.Assertion (A): When an enzyme is subjected to
temperature higher than its optimum value, its enzymatic
)Adenine
activity declines.
(2) Thymine Reason (R): Heat denatures proteins.
the light of above statements, select the correct
(3) Cytosine answer from the options given below.
(4) Uracil Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
153.How many C-atoms are present in arachidonic acid
excluding the carbon of carboxylic acid group? Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(2)
explanation of the (A)
) 19
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false
(2) 20
(4) (A) is true but (R) is talse
(3) 16
(4) 15

15
 Page 16 of 23

Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

156.You isolate an unidentified liquid 'X' froma sample of 161.Most enzymes are in nature. Cho0se the option
beans. You add the liquid 'x' to a beaker of water and that correctly fills the blank.
shake it vigorously. After few minutes, water and the liquid
(1) Fats
X' get separated into two layers where 'X* floats on water.
The unknown liquid 'X* is most likely to be alan (2) Carbohydrates
(1) Enzyme 3) Proteins
(2) Protein (4) Steroids
3) Lipid
162.Triglyceride is formed by
(4) Carbohydrate
1) 1 Glycerol +3 Fatty acids
157.During conversion of substrate to product, transition
(2) 3 Glycerol + 1 Fatty acid
states formed are
(3) 3 Glycerol + 3 Fatty acids
(1) Stable and transient
(4) 3 Glycerol + 2 Fatty acids
A2) Temporary and unstable
(3) Low energy states 163.DNA consists of two complementary nucleotide chains. If
the sequence of nucleotide in one of the chains is
(4) Permanent altered structural states AGCTTCGA, then the nucleotide sequence the other
chain shall be
158.Match column I and column I| and cho0se the correct
Code. (1) TAGCATAT

Column Column I| (2) GATCCTAG

Enzymes
) of peptidecatalyses hydrolysis
a.
Hydrolases .3) TÇGAAGCT
bonds.
linking (4) GCTAAGCT
b. Dehydrogenases (i) Enzymes catalysing the
together of two compounds 164.During normal expiration in humans
Enzymes catalysing oxidation
C. Ligases (iii) and reduction between two (1)Volume of thoracic cavity increases
substrates (2) Pressure within thoracic cavity decreases
Enzymes catalysing removal of 3)
External intercostal muscle relaxes
d. Lyases (iv) groups from substrates and
leaving double bonds. (4) Diaphragm contracts

165.In humans, part(s) of respiratory system which is/are not

(1) a(0); b(i), c(ii), d(iv) supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings is/are
(2) aiv), b(), c(ii), d() (1) Trachea
(2) Tertiary bronchi
3) a), b(i), c(iü), d(y)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(), d()
ical -(3) Initial bronchioles
(4) Alveoli
159Addition of which molecule from options given below can
help to overcome competitiv inhibition of enyme 166.Branchial respiration is shown by
succinate dehydrogenase?
(1) Aquatic arthropods
(1) Malonate
(2) Flatworms
(2) Oxaloacetate
(3) Succinate
(3) Sponges
(4) Malate (4) Terrestrial reptiles
167.Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence.
160.Assertion (A): Prosthetic group binds tightly with
apoenzyme while the association of co-enzyme with () Utilisation of O2 by tissues
apoenzyme is only transient. (ü) Breathing / Inspiration
(iii) Exchange of gases between oxygenated blood
Reason (R) : Prosthetic group is an organic co-factor and
while co-enzyme is an inorganic co-factor. tissue
In he light of above statements, choose the correct Aiv) Exchange of gases between deoxygenated blood
opion. and alveoli
Select the correct option.
(1) Both Asserion and Reason are true and Reason is (1) iv - ii - ii - i

the correct explanation of the Assertion

Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not
(2) - iii - iv -
ii
i

(3) i -
ii ii - iv
(2)
the correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false A4)
ii iv - i -
-
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

16
 Page 17 of 23
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25 RM(P1)-Test-
02A

168.Haemoglobin has 2 a-chains and 2 B-chains. 175.The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally and ventally
level of organization exhibited by it is
The highest
respectively by
(1) Primary
,1) Vertebral column and Sternum
(2) Secondary
(2) Sternum and Vertebral column
(3) Tertiary
(3) Ribs and Sternum
(4) Quaternary (4) Diaphragm and Clavicle
169.The rate of breathing in a healthy human adult under 176.Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in
normal physiological conditions is stabilizing the three-dimensional tertiary structure of most
(1) 38-44 times/nmin proteins?
2) 12-16 times/min (1) Hydrogen bonds

(3) 70-72 times/min .2) Electrostatic interactions

(4) 20-24 timesmin (3) Hydrophobic interactions

(4) Peptide bonds
170.Pulmonary ventilation takes place between
(1) Atmospheric air 177.How many of the folowing factors affect the enzymatic
and alveolar air acivity?
(2) Lungs and pulmonary capillaries (a) Temperature
(b) pH
(3)) Tissue capillaries and tissue (c)Change in substrate concentration
(4) Tissue and cells (d)Absence of co-factors
Select the correct option.
171.Funcion not performed by conducting part of human
respiratory tract is (1) Four

(1) Humidification of
inhaled air 2) Three
(2) Trapping of foreign particles (3) Two

Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and (4) One

A3) atmospheric air 178.The correct representation of palmiic acid is

(4)
Bringing the temperature of inhaled air to body (1) CH3- (CH2)16-COOH
temperature
(2) CH3 - (CH2)14-COOH
172.The heterocyclic nitrogenous bases containing double
ring in their structure, found in RNA are (3) CH3(CH2)7 CH=CH (CH2)7 COOH

)Adenine and Guanine (4) CH3 - (CH2)18- COOH

) Uracil and Thymine many base pairs would be found in a B-DNA double
Medical 179.How
helix, that is 170 Å long?
(3) Cytosine and Thymine
(1) 3.4
(4) Cytosine and Guanine
(2) 34
173.Contaction of which of the following muscles increases
the volume of thoracic cavity in the dorso-ventral axis? )50
A) Internal intercostal muscles (4) 100
(2) Diaphragm 180.Read the following given statements and choose the
(3) External intercostal muscles
correct option.
Statement A : The lungs are situated in the thoracic
(4) Both diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles chamber.
Statement B:Anatomically, thoracic chamber is an air
174.Read the following statements and choose the correct tight chamber.
option.
Statement (A): Respiration is an anabolic process which (1) Both statements A and B are incorrect <
leads to the formation of carbon dioxide. (2) Both statements A and B are correct
Statement (B): During respiration, CO2 produced by the
(3) Only statement A is correct
cells is released out.
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct (4) Only statement B is correct

(2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect

(3) Only statement (A) is Correct
(4) Only statement (A) is incorrect

17
 Page 18 of 23
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

183.Which of the following does not represent a

181.Choose the correct sequence of events polymer?
a. Active site of enzyme breaks the chemical bonds of the

.csubstrate.
The enzyme releases the product of
recaction.
Substrate binds to active site of enzyme.
(1) RuBisCO
(2) Cellulose

d. Binding of substrate induces enzyme to alter its shape. (3) Collagen

,e. Enzyme product complex is formed.
4) Palmitic acid
(1) a - b e
c
d
184.Proteins can be described as all the following, except
2) c - d-a -e b
(1) Homopolymers
(3) c - a -d e -b (2) Polymer of different amino acids
(4) c - d -e a -b ~
(3) Macromolecules
182.If cytosine is 18% in DNA of an organism then calculate
(4) Heteropolymers
percentage of adenine in DNA of that organism
3296 185.The sequence of amino acids i.e., the positional
a) information in a protein is revealed by which level of
(2) 18% structural organisation of a protein?
G
(3) 6496 (1) Primary structure
(4) 38% (2) Secondary structure
(3) Tertiary structure

100 (4) Quaternary structure

35
62
3
SECTION-B

186.All of the folowing are proteinaceous enzymes, except 190.The movement of.air into and out of the lungs is carried
out by creating a pressure gradient between the lungs
(1) Lysozyme
and atmosphere. Inspiration can occur if
(2) Ligase (a) Intra-pulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric
pressure
(3) Deoxyribonuclease (b) There is increase in the volume of thoracic chamber in
(4) Ribozyme the antero-posterior axis
(c) There is increase in pulmonary volume
187.With the increase in substrate concentration, the velocity Select the option that includes correct statements only.
of the enzymatic reaction rises and ultimately reachesa
only (a)
maximum velocity. What happens to the enzymatic activity Medical (A
when more substrate is added in this condition? (2) (b) and (c) only
(1) It will
decrease (3) Only (c)
(2) It will
increase (4) (a), (b) and (c)
3)
it will remain unchanged 191.Trachea divides at which level into right and left primary
(4) It will first increase then it will decrease bronchi in humans?

188.FAll in the blank by choosing the correct option to (1) sn cervical vertebra
complete the analogy.
Fishes: gills:: Earthworms: .2) 5" thoracic vertebra
(1) Lungs < (3) 7n cervical vertebra
2)
Moist skin
(4) 5n umbar vertebra
(3) Tracheal tubes
192.Choose the correct pathway of air during expiration.
(4) Book lungs
Alveoli Bronchi Bronchioles Pharynx
189.DNA structuwally resembles RNA, as both have (1) d
Nostrils
(1) Same sugar < (2 Pharynx Bronchi Trachea Alveoli
(2) Adenine and uracil nitrogenous bases Nostrils
Alveoli Bronchioles Bronchi Larynx
(3) ldentical structural stability A (3)
Nasal cavity Nostrils
(4) Nucleotides as monomer units Bronchi Trachea Pharynx
(4) Larynx
Nostrils

18
 Page 19 of 23
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25
RM(P1)-Test-02A

193.Choose the incorrect statement

w.rt. Ihuman sound bOX.
(1) It is a cartilaginous structure
197.Identify the structure given below and select the correct
statement.
(2) It is also called larynx
(3) It passoge for food and air
It
is COmmon
is covered by
HO-P0H,C, Sytosine
cartilaginous flap, epiglottis, during
9 swallowing OH
194.Read the following features:
L
Presence of thin flattened simple squamous epithelium OH OH
ii. Absence of cilia

i). Absence of cartilage 1) lt is a nucleotide, cyidylic acid

Choose the option which fulills all the above criteria. (2) It contains only ester bond
(1) Pimary bronchi (3) It is presentin only DNA
(2) Pharynx (4) It contains
deoxyribose sugar
(3) Alveoli
198.Km represents
(4) Trachea (1) Maximum velocity of reaction
195.A Co-factor which forms coordination
bonds with side (2) Half the maximum velocity of reaction
chains at the active site of enzyme carboxypeptidase
and
with its substrate is (3) The
temperature at which an enzyme shows optimum
acivity
(1)Calcium
A4) The concentration of substrate at
(2) Zinc Y
(3) Haem 199.Enzymes isolated from thermophilic organisms can retain
their catalytic potential upto
(4) Vitamin
) 80°C - 90°c
196.Match the following Column and Column l
I|
(2) 40°C 50°C only
Column Column ll
a. Trypsin ) Hormone (3) 37°C- 40°C only
b. Insulin (i) Intercellular groundsubstance (4) 50°C -60°C only
C. Antbody (ii) Fight infecious agents
200.Assertion (A): Lecithin is an example of phospholipid.
d. Collagen (iv) Enzyme Reason (R): In lecithin, two -OH groups of glycerol are
Select the correct option. esterified with two fattyy acids and one -OH group is
esterified with phosphate group.
(1) a(), b(i), c(i), d(iv) In the light of above statements,
select the correct option.
S) a(iv),b), c(ii), di) Medical Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) a(v), b(i), c(ii), d()
Both ASsertion and Reason are true but Reason is not
(4) a), b(), c(iv), d(ii) (2)
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assetion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

19
 Page 20 of 23

26/06/2024 Code-A(Phase-1)

Aakash
Medical| IIT-JEE| Foundations

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM:720 Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A Time: 200 Min.

PHYSICs

SECTION-A
1. (3) 19. (1)

2. (1) 20. (4)

3. (3) 21, (4)

4. (4) 22. (2)

5. (1) 23. (3)

6
(4) 24. (4)

7. (3) 25. (2)

8. (2) 26. (3) Foundations

9. (2) 27. (2)

10. (4) 28. (2)

11, (3) 29. (4)

12. (2) 30. (4)

EE

A
13. (1) 31.

14. (4) 32, (3)

15. (1) Medicak (4)

16. (1) 34. (1)

17. (3) 35. (3)

18. (1)

SECTION-B
36. (1) 44. (1)

37. (2) 45. (3)

38. (1) 46. (2)

39. (1) 47. (2)

40. (2) 48. (3)

41. (2) 49. (4)

42. (3) 50. (1)

43. (2)

1
 Page 21 of 23
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25 RM(P1)-Test-02A

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A
51, (1) 69. (2)

52. (4) 70. (3)

53. (2) 71. (4)

54. (2) 72. (3)

55. (3) 73. (3)

56. (3) 74, (3)

57. (4) 75. (2)

58. (4) 76. (3)

59. (1) 77. (1)

60. (3) 78. (4)

61. (2) 79. (4)

62. (4) 80. (2)

63. (3) 81, (4)

Foundations
64. (2) 82. (4)

65. (3) 83. (4)

66. (3) 84. (3)

67. (2) 85. (3)

68. (4) -JEE

SECTION-B

86. (1) 94. (4)

Medica
87. (3) 95. (3)

88, (3) 96, (3)

89. (2) 97. (1)

90. (3)

91. (4) 99. (2)

92. (3)

93. (1)

BOTANY

SECTION-A
101. (3) 119. (2)

102. (2) 120. (4)

103. (4) 121. (2)

2
 Page 22 of 23
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25 RM(P1)-Test-02A

104. (4) 122, (4)

105. (1) 123. (3)

106. (4) 124. (2)
107. (3) 125. (1)
108. (3) 126. (1)

109. (2) 127. (2)

110. (3) 128. (3)
111. (3) 129. (4)
112. (2) 130. (2)
113. (2) 131. (2)

114. (2) 132. (2)

115. (2) 133. (1)
116. (1) 134. (1)

117. (2) 135. (3)

118. (4)

136, (3)

137. (2)

138. (1)
SECTION-B

1sh
144, (2)
145. (4)
146. (4)
Foundations

139. (4) 147. (2)

140. (4) 148. (1)

141. (3) 149. (1)
EE
142. (4) 150. (1)

143. (3) |
dical|
ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. (1) 169. (2)

152. (1) 170. (1)

153. (1) 171, (3)

154. (2) 172. (1)

155. (2) 173. (3)

156. (3) 174. (4)

157. (2) 175. (1)

158. (3) 176. (4)

159. (3) 177. (1)

160. (3) 178. (2)

3
 Page 23 of 23
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25 RM(P1)-Test-02A

161, (3) 179, (3)

162. (1) 180. (2)

163. (3) 181. (2)

164, (3) 182, (1)

165. (4) 183. (4)

166. (1) 184. (1)

167. (4) 185. (1)

168. (4)

SECTION-B
186. (4) 194. (3)

187. (3) 195. (2)

188. (2) 196. (2)
189. (4) 197. (1)

190. (4) 198, (4)

191. (2) 199. (1)

Aakash
192. (3) 200. (1)

193. (3)
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