CUET - Biology Full Test 1

Questions

1. Pick the odd one out

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

2. Complete the following sentences by choosing correct options

“In adults, each testis is ___ in shape, with a length of about ___ and a width of
about ___. The testis is covered by a dense covering. Each testis has about ___
compartments called ___.”
(a) Oval, 4-5 cm, 2-3 cm, 250, testicular lobules.
(b) Cylindrical, 2-3 cm, 4-5 cm, 350, testicular lobules.
(c) Spherical, 4-5 cm, 2-3 cm, 250, seminiferous tubules.
(d) Oval, 2-3 cm, 4-5 cm, 350, seminiferous tubules.

3. If a generation is skipped in the context of inheritance of colour blindness, a colour

blind man will have a colourblind _____
(a) Son
(b) Daughter
(c) Grandson
(d) Granddaughter

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4. Here 'a' & "b" are respectively

(a) a - discharge corona b - collection plates grounded

(b) a - collection plates grounded b - discharge corona
(c) a - particulate matter b- collection plant ground
(d) a - discharge corona b - particulate matter

5. The lowermost part of the oviduct is –

(a) Isthmus
(b) Ampulla
(c) Infundibulum
(d) Fimbriae

6. Match the List I with List II

List – I List – II
A. E I Ist in order of identification
B. co II Name of Genus
C. R III Name of Species
D. I IV Name of Strain

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(b) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(c) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(d) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV

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7. The diagram represents the age pyramids of the human population.

Here a, b & c represent triangular, bell-shaped and urn-shaped age pyramids.

Which of the following statements is true?
The number pre reproductive individuals is more than reproductive individuals
(a)
& post reproductive individuals in the bell-shaped age pyramid
The number of post reproductive individuals is equal to number of reproductive
(b)
individuals in a triangular age pyramid
The number of reproductive individuals is more than post reproductive
(c)
individuals and pre reproductive individuals in urn shaped age pyramid
The number of pre reproductive individuals & reproductive individuals are equal
(d)
in a triangular shaped pyramid.

8. Histone proteins can bind to DNA because

Histone proteins are acidic and positively charged while DNA is basic and
(a)
negatively charged
Histone proteins are basic and negatively charged while DNA is acidic and
(b)
positively charged
Histone proteins are basic and positively charged while DNA is acidic and
(c)
negatively charged
Histone proteins are acidic and negatively charged while DNA is basic and
(d)
positively charged

9. Eutrophication in water bodies leads to

(a) High Dissolved oxygen
(b) Low BOD
(c) Low Dissolved oxygen
(d) High productivity in an aquatic ecosystem

10. Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from

(a) Papaver somniferum
(b) Atropa belladonna
(c) Erythroxylum coca
(d) Datura

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11. The gross primary productivity minus respiration in an ecosystem is indicated as
(a) Total primary productivity
(b) Secondary productivity
(c) Net storage
(d) Net primary productivity

12. To be a part of an integrated pest management, a biocontrol agent should be

(a) Species-specific and symbiotic
(b) Narrow spectrum and symbiotic
(c) Free living and broad spectrum
(d) Species-specific and inactive on non-target organisms

13. Study the following diagram carefully and choose the correct set of options for A, B,
C, D, E, F and G in the diagram.

A – Vas deferens, B – Epididymis, C – Vasa efferentia, D – Rete testis, E – Urethra,

(a)
F – Prostate, G – Seminal vesicle
A – Vasa efferentia, B – Epididymis, C – Vas deferens, D – Rete testis, E – Urethra,
(b)
F – Prostate, G – Seminal vesicle
A – Vas deferens, B – Vasa efferentia, C – Rete testis, D – Epididymis, E – Urethra,
(c)
F – Prostate, G – Seminal vesicle
A – Vasa efferentia, B – Epididymis, C – Rete testis, D – Vas deferens, E – Urethra,
(d)
F – Prostate, G – Seminal vesicle

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14. Mother and father of a person with ‘O’ blood group have ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood groups
respectively. What would be the genotype of both mother and father?
(a) Mother is homozygous for ‘A’ blood group and father is heterozygous for ‘B’
(b) Mother is heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group and father is homozygous for ‘B’
Both mother and father are heterozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group,
(c)
respectively
(d) Both mother and father are homozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group, respectively

15. Semen or Seminal plasma consists of

(a) Sperm and the secretion of Prostate, Bulbourethral and Bartholin's glands
(b) Sperm and the secretion of Follicles, Ureters and Prostate gland
(c) Sperm and the secretion of Seminal vesicles, Prostate and Bulbourethral glands
(d) Sperm and the secretion of Seminal vesicles, Ureters and Prostate gland

16. Assertion: Gene flow increases genetic variations.

Reason: The random introduction of new alleles into the recipient population and
their removal from the donor population affects allele frequency.
If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
(a)
assertion.
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
(b)
of assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

17. Statement I: ZZ/ZW type of determination is seen in peacocks.

Statement II: XX/XY type of sex determination is seen in Drosophila.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

18. Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity?

(a) Overexploitation of natural resources
(b) Invasion by alien species
(c) Keeping animals in zoos
(d) Destruction of organisms on which other organisms are dependent for nutrition

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19. Lymphoid organs play a crucial role in immunity. Which among the following is a
primary lymphoid organ?
(a) Lymph nodes
(b) Bone marrow
(c) Peyer’s patches
(d) Spleen

20. Which of the following is the key factor in DNA profiling?

(a) BAC & YAC cloning vector
(b) Bioinformatics
(c) VNTR
(d) Automated DNA sequencers

21. Statement I: Zoospores are sexual reproductive structures.

Statement II: In asexual reproduction, the offspring produced are morphologically
and genetically identical to the parent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

22. In prokaryotes, the predominant site for the control of gene expression is at
(a) Transcription initiation
(b) RNA processing level
(c) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
(d) Translation

23. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of

(a) Convergent evolution
(b) Industrial melanism
(c) Natural selection
(d) Adaptive radiation

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24. Match the List I with List II

List – I List – II
A. Water hyacinth I. Eyes
B. Bryophyllum II. Leaf buds
C. Agave III. offset
D. Potato IV. Bulbils

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II
(b) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
(c) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
(d) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV

25. The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR322 are for
(a) Ampicillin and Tetracycline
(b) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
(c) Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline
(d) Tetracycline and Kanamycin

26. Assertion: The genetic code is degenerate.

Reason: Most amino acids are coded by more than one codon
If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
(a)
assertion.
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
(b)
of assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

27. Which of the following can be used as a biofertilizer?

(a) An association between pteridophytes and cyanobacteria Anabaena
(b) An association between gymnosperms and Nostoc
(c) An association between leguminous plants and Rhizobium
(d) All of the above

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28. The first rDNA was constructed by linking antibiotic–resistant genes with the native
plasmid of
(a) Escherihia coli
(b) Salmonella typhimurium
(c) Acetobacter aceti
(d) Bacillus thuringiensis

29. Choose the technique which is based on antigen-antibody interactions?

(a) PCR
(b) Electrophoresis
(c) ELISA
(d) ECG

30. Ploidy of ovary, anther, egg, pollen, male gamete and zygote are respectively
(a) 2n, 2n, n, 2n, n, 2n
(b) 2n, 2n, n, n, n, 2n
(c) 2n, n, n, n, n, n
(d) 2n, 2n, n, 2n, 2n, 2n

31. Which of the following is not included in ecological pyramids?

(a) Predators
(b) Saprophytes
(c) Flesh-eating animals
(d) Grazing animals

32. Assertion: Mendel couldn’t find any instance of linkage during his experiments.
Reason: The seven contrasting characters used in Mendel’s experiments were
present on different chromosomes or distantly located if on the same
chromosome.
Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
(a)
the assertion
Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct
(b)
explanation of the assertion
(c) The assertion is a true statement but the reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false

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33. Based on the following, answer the question:
A typical stamen consists of filament and anther. The anther is usually bilobed with
each lobe having two theca (dithecous). In each lobe, two microsporangia are
present. A typical microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers– the
epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and the tapetum that perform different
functions. In young anther, the sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each
microsporangium. As the anther develops, each cell of the sporogenous tissue is a
potential pollen or microspore mother cell. These pollen mother cells undergo
reduction division and form microspore tetrads.

Which layer of microsporangium provides nourishment for developing pollen

grains?
(a) Epidermis
(b) Middle layers
(c) Tapetum
(d) Endothecium

34. Based on the following, answer the question:

A typical stamen consists of filament and anther. The anther is usually bilobed with
each lobe having two theca (dithecous). In each lobe, two microsporangia are
present. A typical microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers–
the epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and the tapetum that perform different
functions. In young anther, the sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each
microsporangium. As the anther develops, each cell of the sporogenous tissue is a
potential pollen or microspore mother cell. These pollen mother cells undergo
reduction division and form microspore tetrads.

How many microsporangia are present in a bilobed anther?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

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35. Based on the following, answer the question:
A typical stamen consists of filament and anther. The anther is usually bilobed with
each lobe having two theca (dithecous). In each lobe, two microsporangia are
present. A typical microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers– the
epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and the tapetum that perform different
functions. In young anther, the sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each
microsporangium. As the anther develops, each cell of the sporogenous tissue is a
potential pollen or microspore mother cell. These pollen mother cells undergo
reduction division and form microspore tetrads.

What is the ploidy of the microspores in tetrad?

(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Triploid
(d) can be haploid or diploid

36. Based on the following, answer the question:

A typical stamen consists of filament and anther. The anther is usually bilobed with
each lobe having two theca (dithecous). In each lobe, two microsporangia are
present. A typical microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers– the
epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and the tapetum that perform different
functions. In young anther, the sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each
microsporangium. As the anther develops, each cell of the sporogenous tissue is a
potential pollen or microspore mother cell. These pollen mother cells undergo
reduction division and form microspore tetrads.

The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell (PMC) through
meiosis is called _________.
(a) Dehiscence
(b) Differentiation
(c) Microsporogenesis
(d) Megasporogenesis

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37. Based on the following information, answer the question:
A teacher brought to class an "unknown" pea plant with yellow seeds which could
have been homozygous (YY) or heterozygous (Yy), because both these genotypes
result in the same yellow phenotype. To determine the genotype, the teacher made
his students cross this plant with a green-seeded plant (yy). If all the offspring of
the cross have yellow seeds, then the yellow seeded unknown plant must be
homozygous for the dominant allele. But if both yellow and the green seeds appear
among the offspring, then the yellow-seeded parent must be heterozygous.

Which of the following best describes this cross?

(a) Monohybrid cross
(b) Monohybrid test cross
(c) Dihybrid test cross
(d) Trihybrid cross

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38. Based on the following information, answer the question:
A teacher brought to class an "unknown" pea plant with yellow seeds which could
have been homozygous (YY) or heterozygous (Yy), because both these genotypes
result in the same yellow phenotype. To determine the genotype, the teacher made
his students cross this plant with a green-seeded plant (yy). If all the offspring of
the cross have yellow seeds, then the yellow seeded unknown plant must be
homozygous for the dominant allele. But if both yellow and the green seeds appear
among the offspring, then the yellow-seeded parent must be heterozygous.

Which of the following has not occurred in the case described in the above
passage?
(a) Dominance of alleles
(b) Gamete formation
(c) Linkage
(d) Segregation of alleles

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39. Based on the following information, answer the question:
A teacher brought to class an "unknown" pea plant with yellow seeds which could
have been homozygous (YY) or heterozygous (Yy), because both these genotypes
result in the same yellow phenotype. To determine the genotype, the teacher made
his students cross this plant with a green-seeded plant (yy). If all the offspring of
the cross have yellow seeds, then the yellow seeded unknown plant must be
homozygous for the dominant allele. But if both yellow and the green seeds appear
among the offspring, then the yellow-seeded parent must be heterozygous.

If the offspring with the unknown genotype is actually heterozygous, which of the
following genotypes is not possible as a result of the cross described above?
(a) Yy
(b) yy
(c) Both Yy and YY are impossible
(d) YY

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40. Based on the following information, answer the question:
A teacher brought to class an "unknown" pea plant with yellow seeds which could
have been homozygous (YY) or heterozygous (Yy), because both these genotypes
result in the same yellow phenotype. To determine the genotype, the teacher made
his students cross this plant with a green-seeded plant (yy). If all the offspring of
the cross have yellow seeds, then the yellow seeded unknown plant must be
homozygous for the dominant allele. But if both yellow and the green seeds appear
among the offspring, then the yellow-seeded parent must be heterozygous.

What will be the genotypic ratios of the progenies respectively in the cases given
below?
(i) If a homozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a recessive parent.
(ii) If a heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a recessive parent.
(a) (i) - All tall; (ii) - 1 (tall) : 1 (dwarf)
(b) (i) - 1 (tall) : 1 (dwarf) ; (ii) - All tall
(c) (i) - 3 (tall): 1 (dwarf); (ii) - All tall
(d) (i) - All tall; (ii) - 3 (tall): 1 (dwarf)

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