(One Year Crp-2425) C-lot-ph-1-Cpt-1-Adv.-p1 (Vec, KM, Lom, Wep & Com)
(One Year Crp-2425) C-lot-ph-1-Cpt-1-Adv.-p1 (Vec, KM, Lom, Wep & Com)
(One Year Crp-2425) C-lot-ph-1-Cpt-1-Adv.-p1 (Vec, KM, Lom, Wep & Com)
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & C in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided
for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
(ii) Part-A (07-10) – This section contains Four (04) List-Match Sets, and each List-Match set has Two (02) Multiple
Choice Questions. Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II. FOUR options are given in each Multiple
Choice Question based On List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in
the Multiple Choice Question. Each question carries +3 Marks for the correct combination chosen and –1 mark for
the wrong options chosen.
(ii) Part-C (01-08) contains eight (08) Numerical questions, the answer of which may be positive or negative numbers
or decimals and round off the value to Two decimal places (e.g., 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30) and
each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.
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SECTION-I : PHYSICS
PART–A (One or More Than One Options Correct Type)
This part contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.
1. A spring and block is placed on a fixed smooth wedge as shown. Block
Following conclusion can be drawn about block. m
(A) magnitude of its momentum will be max when Fnet on block is zero
Spring
(B) its kinetic energy will be max when Fnet on block is zero
Fix Wedge
(C) KE of block is max when block just touches the spring.
(D) net force on block is maximum when KE=0
1. A, B, D
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With the help of equations (1) and (4), we have
a12 = a1 − a2 = a1( −ˆi) − a2 (i)
ˆ = (a + a )(i)
1 2
ˆ
4. A man of mass m stands on a plane plank mass (m/2), lying on a smooth horizontal floor.
Initially both are at rest. Then the man starts walking on the plank towards the east and stops
after a distance '' relative to the plank. Then
(A) The plank will slide to the west by a distance
(B) The plank will continue to move towards the west over the smooth floor
(C) The plank will slide to the west by (2/3) and then stop
(D) The centre of mass of the plank-man system will remain at rest on the floor
4. C, D
6. A block is suspended by an ideal spring constant K. If the block is pulled down by constant
force F and if maximum displacement of block from it’s initial position of rest is z, then select
the INCORRECT statement.
(A) z = F/K
(B) z = 2F/K
(C) Work done by force F is equal to 2Fz.
1 2
(D) Increase in potential energy of the spring is Kz
2
6. A, C, D
Apply work-energy theorem
1 mg
2
1 mg
2
mgz − K + z − K + Fz = 0 z = 2F/K.
2 K 2 K
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Distances covered in 1st t sec, 2nd t sec., 3rd t sec. are in
(II) (Q) v1 : v 2 : v 3 = 1: 1: 1
the ratio
(III) Distances covered in t sec., 2t sec., 3t sec. are in the ratio (R) s1 : s2 : s3 = 1: 3 : 5
Change in the velocity at the end of 1 st t sec., 2nd t sec., 3rd
(IV) (S) s1 : s2 : s3 = 1: 4 : 9
t sec. are in the ratio
(T) None of these
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I–P; II–S; III–Q, IV–R (B) I–P; II–R; III–S; IV–Q
(C) I–Q; II–P; III–R, IV–S (D) I–P; II–R; III–Q, IV–S
7. B
(I) v1 = u1 + at1
v1 = 0 + at = at
Similarly, v 2 = 2at and v 3 = 3at
v1 : v 2 : v 3 = 1: 2 : 3
(III) s1 =
1 2
2
1
( )
1
at ; s2 = a 4t 2 ; s3 = a 9t 2
2 2
( )
s1 : s2 : s3 = 1: 4 : 9
(IV) Acceleration of particle is constant, hence change in velocity in 1st t s, 2nd t s and 3rd t s is
same.
That is v1 : v 2 : v 3 = 1: 1: 1
30°
List-I List-II
(I) By gravity (P) 144J
(II) By normal reaction (Q) 32J
(III) By friction (R) 56J
(IV) By all the forces (S) 48J
(T) None of these
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I–P; II–T; III–Q, IV–R (B) I–S; II–P; III–R; IV–Q
(C) I–T; II–P; III–S, IV–Q (D) I–T; II–R; III–Q, IV–S
8. C
1
Wmg = 9.8 2 16 1 160J
2
1
WN = 9 2 16 = 144J
2
3
WFs = 16
2
N = mgcos 30 + mgsin30 = 4
Wall = 32J
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9. A particle of mass 1 kg has velocity v1 = ( 2t ) ˆi and another particle of mass 2 kg has velocity
( )
v = t 2 ˆj.
2
List-I List-II
20
(I) Net force on centre of mass at 2s (P) unit
9
(II) Velocity of centre of mass at 2s (Q) 68 unit
80
(III) Displacement of centre of mass in 2s (R) unit
3
(IV) Momentum of centre of mass at 2s (S) 86 unit
(T) None of these
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I–Q; II–R; III–P; IV–T (B) I–P; II–R; III–R; IV–Q
(C) I–Q; II–S; III–P; IV–Q (D) I–R; II–Q; III–P; IV–S
9. A
2tiˆ + 2t 2 ˆj
v cm =
3
2ˆ 4 ˆ
acm = i + tj
3 3
ˆ
F = ma = 2i + 4tjˆ
F = 4 + 64 = 68
Now at t=2s, F = 2iˆ + 8ˆj
4iˆ + 8ˆj
Again at t=2s, Vcm =
3
80
Vcm =
3
t2 ˆ 2 3 ˆ
Also x cm = i + t j
3 9
4 16 ˆ 4 ˆ 4 ˆ
at t = 2s, x cm = ˆi + j = i + j
3 9 3 3
4 16 4 5 20
dcm = 1 + = = .
3 9 3 3 9
10. Net force on a system of particles in ground frame is zero. In each situation of list-I
a statement is given regarding this system. Match the statements in list-I with results in list-II.
List-I List-II
(I) Acceleration of COM of system in ground frame (P) Is constant
(II) Net momentum of system in ground frame (Q) Is zero
(III) Net momentum of system in the CM frame (R) May be zero
(IV) Kinetic energy of system in the CM frame (S) May be constant
(T) Depends on internal forces
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I–P,Q; II–P,R; III–P,Q; IV–R,S (B) I–P,S; II–P,Q; III–P,R; IV–P,S
(C) I–P,Q; II–P,S; III–Q,S; IV–P,S (D) I–P,S; II–P,R; III–P,Q; IV–Q,S
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10. A
Fext = 0 aCM = 0 a1
PCM = cons tan t. P1 + P2 + .... = cons tan t
In C.M from
PCM = 0 P1 + P2 + ..... = 0
K.E. of system depends upon internal forces also.
2. 5.00
For collision the relative velocity of A with respect to B should be along the line AB
3. A bob of mass m, suspended by a string of length 1, is given a minimum velocity required to
completely a full circle in the vertical plane. At the highest point, it collides elastically with
another bob of mass m suspended by a string of length 2, which is initially at rest. Both the
strings are mass-less and inextensible. If the second bob, after collision acquires the minimum
1
speed required to complete a full circle in the vertical plane, the ratio is
2
3. 5.00
g 1 = 5g 2
2
v= g 1
After collision
1
=5 v= g 1
2
2
g 1
1 v= g 1
5g 1
4. A ball with a speed of 9 m/s, strikes another identical ball such that after collision the direction
of each ball makes an angle of 30° with the original line of motion. If the speeds of the two
balls after the collision is 3 x m/s. Find the value of x.
4. 3.00
m 9 = mv1 cos30 + mv 2 cos30
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and 0 = mv1 sin30 − mv 2 sin30 v1 = v 2 = 3 3 m / s.
5. A body of mass M at rest explodes into three pieces, two of which of mass M/4 each are
thrown off in perpendicular directions with velocities of 3 m/s and 4 m/s respectively. The third
piece will be thrown off with a velocity of k/10 (m/s). Find the value of k
5. 25.00
Using conservation of momentum P1 + P2 + P3 = 0
6. One end of the pile of chain falls vertically through a hole in its support and pull
the remaining links steadily. The links which are at rest acquire the velocity of
the hanging position suddenly and without having interaction with the remaining
stationary links and with the support. If the acceleration a of the falling chain is
g/k. Find the value of k. Ignore any friction.
x
6. 3.00
Let the velocity of the end of the falling chain be v, when a length x has already fallen. Taking
mass per unit length of the chain as , we can write,
(vdt)v dv
xg − = x.v
dt dx
vdv
gx − v 2 = x
dx
2
dv v
or, v + =g
dx x
This equation may be solved by using integrating factor. The solution is
2gx C
v2 = + 2 , where C is an arbitrary constant.
3 x
At t = 0, x = 0 and v = 0
2gx
C = 0 and v 2 =
3
7. A canon ball is fired with speed 50 m/s with respect to ground from
one end of stationary rail-road car which rest on a smooth track. The
ball collides with opposite wall and stops. The ratio of mass of ball
1
to that of car is and the length of the car is 50m. If distance
99
travelled by car just before the collision is ‘’ then ‘8’ (in meter) is
______.
7. 4.00
C.M. of system will be at rest.
1
m (50 – ) = 99 m() = m
2
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8. 10.00 N1 ma sin 37
ma
N1 = mg
ma cos 37
N2 = m a sin 37
macos37 − N2 − N1
abd = = 10m / s2 .
m 1
N
N2
mg
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SECTION-II : CHEMISTRY
PART – A (One or More Than One Options Correct Type)
This part contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.
1. Which of the following Pairs are isostructural?
(A) NF3 , NO3 − (B) NF3 , H3O+ (C) NO3 − , BF3 (D) NF3 , NH3
1. B,C
NF3, sp3 pyramidal, H3O+, sp3 pyramidal NH3, sp3 = pyramidal
2. The species which contain an odd number of valence electrons and Paramagnetic are
(A) NO (B) NO2 (C) CIO2 (D) N2O4
2. A,B,C
NO, NO2 ClO2
4. Choose the correct relations on the basis of Bohr’s theory for H-atom:
1 1
(A) Velocity pf electron (B) Frequency of revolution
n n3
1
(C) Radius of orbit n3 (D) Energy of electron
n2
4. A,B,D
1 1 v 1
v ,E 2 , frequency of revolution = 3
n n 2r n
6 KC for the reaction 2A (g) + B(g) A2B(g) is 2 × 10-2 at 25oC and it is 2 × 10-1 at
o
50 C. Choose the incorrect statement (s) from the following
(A) Decomposition of A2B is favoured at low temperature
(B) Formation of A2B is favoured at low pressure.
(C) Formation of A2B is favoured by introducing an inert gas at constant pressure.
(D) Decomposition of A2B is favoured by removing B(g) from the reaction mixture
6. B, C
The forward reaction is endothermic & no. of moles of gaseous substances decreases.
Hence, forward reaction is favoured by high temperature and high pressure.
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Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition
asked in the Multiple Choice Questions.
7. Match the following
List – I List – II
(I) The limits of pH values of buffer solution (P) 5 10 −12
The [H3O]+ concentration in 0.001 M Ba(OH)2
(II) (Q) Equal
solution
The buffer capacity of a solution is maximum
(III) (R) 1st order reaction
when conc. Of salt to that acid is
(IV) Hydrolysis of ethyl acetate in acidic solution (S) pK a 1
(T) 10 times
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I–P; II–S; III–Q, IV–R (B) I–P; II–R; III–S; IV–Q
(C) I–Q; II–P; III–R, IV–S (D) I–S; II–P; III–Q, IV–R
7. D
pH = − log [H+]
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(II) C ⎯→D + E k= 6.010−3 sec−1 (Q)
t1/ 2
a−1 ⎯⎯→
dx
= tan−1(4)
(IV) S⎯→ P+Q, k=3.010−5 L3 mol−3 sec−1 (S) log dt
log(a − x) ⎯⎯→
log K
(T)
1
⎯⎯→
T
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I–P,S; II–S,T; III–Q, IV–R,T (B) I–P; II–R; III–S; IV–Q,T
(C) I–Q,T; II–R,T; III–P,T, IV–S,T (D) I–P; II–R; III–Q, IV–S,T
9. C
t1/2 a1−n
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This part contains Eight (08) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals and round off the value to Two decimal places. (e.g., 6.25, 7.00,
–0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30
1. The ratio of velocity of electron in nth Bohr’s orbit of H-atom to the velocity of light is 1:275.
What is the value of n?
1. 2
V=2.18106 z/n
2. The wave function of an orbital is represented as 420 . The azimuthal quantum number of
that orbital is.
2 2
Azimuthal quantum number = 2
3. What is the maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the quantum numbers
n = 4, m = +1?
3. 6
n = 4; = 0; m = 0
= 1; m = –1, 0, +1
= 2; m = –2, –1, 0, +1, +2
= 3; m = –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3
There are three orbitals having me = +1, thus maximum number of electrons in them will be
6.
4. Solubility product constant of a sparingly soluble salt MCl2 is 4 10−12 at 250 C . Also at 250 C
, solubility of MCl2 in an aqueous solution of CaCl2 is 0.25 10−12 M . Hence concentration
(M) of CaCl2 solution is _______.
4. 2 C110501
Ksp of MCl2 = 4 10−12
4 10−12 = 0.25 10−12 ( Cl − )
2
2
Cl − = 42
Cl − = 4
CaCl2 = 2
5. Find out the number of angular nodes in the orbital to which the last electron of Cr enter.
5. 2
Last electron of Cr enters in d−subshell, hence l=2
6. One litre of a buffer solution containing 0.005 M ( NH 4 )2 SO4 and 0.1M NH 4OH having
pK b = 5 , has a pH 2x. Hence x is ___________
6. 5 C110504
NH 4+
POH = Pkb + log
NH 4OH
1
= 5 + log = 5 −1 = 4
10
pH = 10
x=5
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7. If an excited H−atoms emission spectrum contains ten emission lines, the highest orbit in
which the electron is expected to be found is
7. 5
8. Calculate the number of molecule having sp3 hybridization for central atom from the following
NH3, XeO3,SF4,N(SiH3)3,PCl3,XeOF4,BF3,I3-
8. 3
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PART-III: MATHEMATICS
PART–A (One or More Than One Options Correct Type)
This part contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.
1. Let f:R→R be defined by f(x) = Min(|x|, 1−|x|). Then which of the following hold(s) good?
(A) Range of f is (−, 1] (B) f is aperiodic
(C) f is neither even nor odd function (D) f is neither injective nor surjective
1. B,D
(0,1) (1/2,1/2)
f(x) = Min(|x|, 1−|x|) (−1/2,1/2)
Df = R
f(−x) = f(x)
f is even function
(1/2,0)
Put |x| = 1 − |x| (−1/2,0)
1
x=
2
1
Clearly R f = −,
2
Also f is aperiodic.
x3 + 1
2. If lim − ax 2 − bx − c = 4 then
x →
x +1
(A) a+b<c (B) a+b>c (C) a−b−c=7 (D) a−b−c=5
2. B,D
x3 + 1
Since lim − ax 2 − bx − c = 4
x →
x +1
x 3 + 1 − (ax 2 − bx − c)(x + 1)
lim =4
x →
x +1
(1 − a)x (a + b)x − (b + c)x + (1 − c)
3 2
lim =4
x →
x +1
1−a=0 a = 1; a + b = 0 b = −1
−(b+c)=4 b+c = −4 c = −3
(a−b−c)=5
3 cos x + ln(x 2 + x + 1) ; − x 0
px 4 − qx + 3 ; 0 x 1
3. Let f(x) = is continuous xR, then
2x − p + q ; 1 x 2
x 2 + px ; 2x
5 3
(A) p2 + q2 = (B) p > q (C) p2 + q2 = (D) p < q
8 8
3 A,D
Continuity at x = 1
p − q+3 = 2−p+q
−1
p−q= ….(1)
2
Continuity at x = 2,
4−p+q=4+2p
3p−q = 0 …(2)
From (1) and (2)
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1 3
p= ,q =
4 4
4. Let f(x) = 4 sin3x + 9cos2x + 6 sinx − 3 for 0 x . Maximum value of f(x) occurs at x equals
to
5
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
6 6 2
4. B,C
f (x) = (12 sin2 x − 18 sin x + 6)cos x = 0
Hence cos x = 0
x=
2
or 6(2sin2x−3sinx+1)=0
or 2sin2x − 2sinx − sin x + 1 = 0
or 2 sin x(sin x−1)−(sin x−1) =0
1
sin x = 1 or sin x =
2
5
x = or x = or x =
2 6 6
Now f(0) = f() = 6
f = 4+6−3 =7
2
4 3 1 27 29
f = + 9. + 3 − 3 = + =
6 8 4 2 4 4
5 1 3 29
f = 4. + 9. + 3 − 3 =
6 8 4 4
5
Hence maximum occurs at x = or
6 6
/2
sin x
5. If = cos x + sin x
dx then
0
(A) is rational (B) is irrational (C) (0, 1) (D) > 1
5. B,C
/2
cos x
Sol. = dx
0 cos x + sin x
6. Let f(x) is a twice differentiable function such that f(0) = 2, f(3) = 5 then
(A) f (x) = 1 for atleast one x (0, 3) (B) f(x) is strictly increasing
(C) f(x) = 1 for atleast one x (0, 3) (D) f(x) = 3 for atleast one x (0, 3)
6. A,D
5−2
f (x) = =1
3−0
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7. Match the List– I with List– II
List I List II
(P) x 2 + 2cos x + 2 on (0, / 2) has (1) Local maximum at cos−1(2/3)
(Q) 9x − 4 tan x on (0, /2) has (2) Maximum at x = 1/2
(R) x2 − x
(1/ 2 − x ) cos x + sin x − (3) No local extremum
4
(S) 1
2 − x cos ( x + 3 ) + (1/ ) sin (x + 3) on (0, 4) (4) Minimum at x = 1
The correct option is
(A) (P) - (3) (Q) - (1) (R) - (2) (S) - (4)
(B) (P) - (2) (Q) - (4) (R) - (1) (S) - (3)
(C) (P) - (3) (Q) - (4) (R) - (3) (S) - (1)
(D) (P) - (2) (Q) - (1) (R) - (3) (S) - (4)
7. A
Let f(x) = x 2 + 2cos x + 2, then f '(x) = 2(x − sin x).
Now f '(x) = 0 if sin x = x but sin x x for any x (0, /2).
Hence f has no extremum. If f(x) = 9x − 4 tan x then f '(x) = 9 − 4 sec 2 x. Thus, f '(x) = 0 iff
sec 2 x = 9 / 4 i.e., x = cos−1(2 / 3)
Or x = cos−1( −2 / 3).
Also, f "(x) = −8 sec 2 x tan x.
0 2
f "(cos−1 2 / 3) = 8 0
4 5
Thus f has local maximum at cos−1(2 / 3)
List I List II
(P) e −1
2x
e− x
(R)
1 + ex dx is equal to (3) ( )
log e2x + 1 − x + c
(S) 1 1
− +c
1 − e2x
dx is equal to (4)
(
2 e +1
2x
)
The correct option is
(A) (P) - (3) (Q) - (1) (R) - (2) (S) - (4)
(B) (P) - (2) (Q) - (4) (R) - (1) (S) - (3)
(C) (P) - (3) (Q) - (4) (R) - (2) (S) - (1)
(D) (P) - (2) (Q) - (1) (R) - (3) (S) - (4)
8. C
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1
Change e − x into
ex
List I List II
(P) Let f : R→R be a differentiable function and
x2
(f(t) − t) (1) 0
f(1) = 1,f (1) = 3. Then the value of lim dt is
x →1
1 (x − 1)2
(Q) 1+ n 4
n
lim
n →
is equal to (2) –1
2
(R) 2x
If f(x) = lim tan−1(nx),x 0, then = lim+ [f(x) − 1] is
n → x →0 (3) 2
{where [.] represents greatest integer function}
(S) n 1
lim r =
n →
r =1 2 (4) 4
{where [.] represents greatest integer function}
The correct option is
(A) (P) - (3) (Q) - (1) (R) - (2) (S) - (4)
(B) (P) - (2) (Q) - (4) (R) - (1) (S) - (3)
(C) (P) - (3) (Q) - (4) (R) - (3) (S) - (1)
(D) (P) - (4) (Q) - (3) (R) - (2) (S) - (1)
9. D
x2
x2
f(t) − t
(f(t) − t)dt
P. lim dt = lim 1
x →1
1 (x − 1)2 x →1 (x − 1)2
2x(f(x 2 ) − x 2 ) f(x 2 ) − x 2 + 2x 2 f (x 2 ) − 2x 2
lim = lim =4
x →1 2(x − 1) x →1 1
n n 1/ n −1 1 41/ n −1
1+ n 4 n
4 − 1 lim
4
n lim 1
n4
Q. lim = lim 1 + = en→ 2
=e n → 2 1/ n
= e2 =2
n → n → 2
2
2x
R. f(x) = lim tan−1(nx) = x,x 0
n →
1n
1
S. lim r = lim 1 − n = 0
n →
r =1
2 n →
2
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10. Match the List– I with List– II
List I List II
(P) n −1
n2 − r 2
lim = k, then 2k = (1) 0
n →
r =1 n2
(Q)
( )
4
tan x + cot x dx = (2)
0
4
(R) 1
sin x cos2 xdx =
3
(3)
−1 2
(S) 2
sin3 xdx
0 sin3 x + cos3 x
= (4)
2
( )
/4 /4 d tan x − cot x
( )
4
1 tan x + cot x
Q. tan x + cot x dx = (tan x + cot x)dx = 2 dx
2 tan x + cot x
( )
2
0 0 0 tan x − cot x +2
/4
1 tan x − cot x
= 2. tan−1 =
2 2 0 2
1
1 1 − e− x 1 − ex 1
( tan x )− / 4 + 0 f( −x) =
/4
= −x
sec 2
( − x) = − sec 2 x = −f(x) 2 =1
2 1+ e 1+ e x
2
1 n 100
2. Let f(n) = +
2 100
where [x] denotes the integral part of x. Then the value of
n =1
f(n) =
-1 2 5
f '(x) f(x)
4. Suppose = 0 f(x) is continuous differentiable function with f’(x) 0 and satisfies
f ''(x) f '(x)
f(0) = 1 and f’(0) = 2, then f(x) = e x + k, then + k is equal to ______ .
4. 2.00
f’(x).f’(x) – f(x).f’’(x)= 0
[f '(x)]2 – f(x)f ''(x)
or =0
[f '(x)2
d f(x)
=0
dx f '(x)
f(x)
Integrating, +C .….. (i)
f '(x)
f(0)
Put x = 0, =C
f '(0)
1 f(x) 1
C = . Hence, = …. (ii)
2 f '(x) 2
From Eq. (i), 2f(x) = f’(x)
f '(x)
=2
f(x)
Again, integrating, ln [f(x)] = 2x + k
Put x = 0 to get, k = 0
f(x)= e2x l + k = 2 + 0 = 2
ln x
5. The maximum value of f(x) = is then [] is equal to
x
5. 0
1
x − ln x
x 1 − ln x
f '(x) = = = 0, x=e
x
2 2
x
1
maximum value f(x) =
e
x
6. Let f:R→R be defined as f(x) = (sin2 (t) + 1)dt and g is the inverse function of f, then
0
3
g = , then is equal to
4 2
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6. 1.00 f
3 1 1 3
So, g = = x= f =
2 4
4 f 2 2
2 g=f−1
x
3
7. cos2 x dx =
−
7. 0
f(x) is odd.
8. If f(x) is increasing with f( − 2) f(4 − ) , then minimum positive integral value of is
8. 4.00
f( − 2) f(4 − )
( − 2) (4 − )
>3
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FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
BATCH: One Year CRP (2425) C-LOT
PHASE TEST-I: PAPER-I
JEE ADVANCED LEVEL
ANSWER KEY
SECTION – I (PHYSICS) SECTION– II (CHEMISTRY) SECTION– III (MATHS)
PART–A PART–A
1. A, B, D 1. B,D
2. A, B, C, D 2. B,D
3. A 3 A,D
4. C, D 4. B,C
5. A, B, C 5. B,C
6. A, C, D 6. A,D
7. B 7. A
8. C 8. C
9. A 9. D
10. A 10. A
PART–C PART–C
1. 3.50 1. 1.00
2. 5.00 2. 7.00
3. 5.00 3. 2.00
4. 3.00 4. 2.00
5. 25.00 5. 0
6. 3.00 6. 1.00
7. 4.00 7. 0
8. 10.00 8. 4.00
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[