CODE: TNPSC JDO 2021/MODEL EXAM – III / PAPER -I

7. In a particular material, if the modulus of rigidity is

PYRAMID IAS ACADEMY equal to the bulk modulus, then the Poisson’s ratio
KARAIKUDI will be
a) 1/8 b) ¼ c) ½ d) 1
TNPSC JDO MODEL EXAM -III
PAPER I ( CIVIL ENGINEERING) 8. If a point in a strained material is subjected to equal
Maximum Marks: 300 Duration :03.00Hrs normal and tangential stresses, then the angle of
obliquity is
1. If a material has identical properties in all a) 00 b) 450 c) tan-1(1/2) d) tan-1(2)
directions, it is said to be
a) homogenous b) isotropic 9. The relationship between Young’s modulus of
c) elastic d) orthotropic elasticity E, bulk modulus K and Poisson’s ratio 𝛍 is
given by
2. If a composite bar of steel and copper is heated, a) E = 2K(1-2μ) b) E = 3K(1+μ)
then the copper bar will be under c) E = 3K(1-2μ) d) E = 2K(1+μ)
a) tension b) compression c) shear d) torsion
10. For a linear, elastic, isotropic material, the number
3. Match List I with List of independent elastic constants is
List I (Name the person List II (Method) a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
whom the methods of
analysis are associated) 11. A steel rod of circular section tapers from 2 cm
A. Clapeyron 1. Moment distribution diameter to 1 cm diameter over a length of 50 cm. If
method the modulus of elasticity of the material is 2 x 106
B. Hardycross 2. Method for determining kg/cm2, then the increase in length under a pull of
crippling load on a column 3000kg will be
C. Lame 3.Theorem of three 0.3
a) 2π cm
30
b) π cm
300
c) π cm a) 750 cm
moments
D. Euler 4. Thick cylinders
12. A simply supported beam of length I carries a
a) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4 b) A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2
load varying uniformly from zero at left end to
c) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2 d) A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3 maximum at right end. The maximum bending
moment occurs at a distance of
4. A propped cantilever of span ‘l’ carries a uniformly
a) 1/√3from left end b) 1/3 from left end
distributed load of ‘w’ per unit run over its entire
c) 1/√3from right end d) 1/3 from right end
span. The values of prop reaction to keep the beam
horizontal is
wl 3 wl 5 13. Match List I (Euler load formulae for different end
a) 3
b) 8 wl c) 2 d) 8 wl restraints) with List II (conditions of end restraints)
List I List II
5. Match List I with List II 𝟒𝛑𝟐 𝐄𝐈 1. Pin –ended at both ends
A.
List I List II 𝐋𝟐
A. Ratio of lateral strain to 1. Strain B.
𝛑𝟐 𝐄𝐈 2. Fixed at one end and pinned at the
linear strain
𝟒𝐋𝟐 other end
B. Ratio of stress to strain 2. Poisson’s ratio C.
𝛑𝟐 𝐄𝐈 3. Fixed at both ends
𝐋𝟐
C. Ratio of extension to 3. Tensile stress 𝟐𝛑𝟐 𝐄𝐈 4. Fixed at one end and free at the
D.
original length 𝐋𝟐 other end
D. Ratio of axial pull to area 4. Young’s modulus a) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 b) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
of section c) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 d) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
a) A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1 b) A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3
c) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1 d) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3 14. A beam of uniform strength has at every cross-
section same
6. The relationship between the radius of a) bending moment b) bending stress
curvature R, bending moment M and flexural c) deflection d) stiffness
rigidity El is given by
a) R = M/EI b) M = El/R 15. A prismatic beam fixed at both ends carries a
c) EI =R/M d) E = Ml/R uniformly distributed load. The ratio of bending
moment at the supports to the bending moment
at mid-span is
a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0
 CODE: TNPSC JDO 2021/MODEL EXAM – III / PAPER -I

16. In the cantilever truss shown in fig the reaction at 23. What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy of
A is the frame shown in Fig if the axial deformation is
ignored?

a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 14
a) 10t b) 20t c) 30t d) 40t
24. What is the degree of static indeterminacy of the
17. If the Young’s Modulus ‘E’ is equal to the bulk beam shown in Fig. ?
modulus ‘K’, then what is the valve of the Poisson’s
ratio? (IES -2005)
a) ¼ b) ½ c) 1/3 d) ¾
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
18. A beam has a solid circular cross section having
diameter d. If a section of the beam is subjected to a 25. The strain energy of a structure due to bending is
shear force, F the maximum shear stress in the cross given by
section is given by M2 dx 1 M2 dx 2M2 dx 1 M2 dx
4 F 16 F 8 F 3 F
a) ∫ EI
b) 2 ∫ EI
c) ∫ EI
d) 3 ∫ EI
a) 2 b) 2 c) 2 d) 2
3 πd 3 πd 3 πd 16 πd
26. When a unit rotation is given at end A of the beam
19. The ratio of torsional moments of resistance of a shown in Fig the moment produced at end B will be
solid circular shaft of diameter D and a hollow shaft
having external diameter D and internal diameter ‘d’
is given by
D4 D4 −d4 D3 D3 −d3
a) b) c) d)
D4 −d4 D4 D3 −d3 D3

a) 0 b) 2EI/L c) 4 EI/L d) 6 EI/L

20. Couple M is applied at C on a simply supported
beam AB. What is the maximum shear force for the
27. Match List-I (Method of analysis) with List-II
beam
(Unknowns being evaluated)
a) Zero b) M c) 2M/3 d) M/3
List I List II
A. Flexibility 1. Degrees of freedom
21. The bending moment diagram for an overhanging
Method
beam is shown in Fig.
B. Stiffness 2. Redundant forces
Method
C. Kani's 3. Rotations by incremental
Method iteration and unknown sways of
plane frames
The point of contraflexure would include D. Moment 4. Displacement, rotations and
a) A and F b) B and E c) C and D d) A and D Distribution sways of plane frames
Method
22. Match List I List II a) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3 b) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
List I List II c) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3 d) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
(Type of beam with (S. F. diagram)
type of loading) 28. The following methods are used for
structural analysis:
1. Macaulay method 2. Column analogy method
3. Kani's method 4. Method of sections
Those used for determinate structural analysis would
include
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 4

a) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 b) A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2 29. A fixed beam AB is subjected to a triangular load
c) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 d) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1 varying from zero at end A to w per unit length at end
B. The ratio of fixed end moment at B to A will be
 CODE: TNPSC JDO 2021/MODEL EXAM – III / PAPER -I
1 1 2 3
a) b) c) d)
2 3 3 2

30. The frame shown in Fig has

a) one unknown reaction

component
b) two unknown reaction
components
c) three unknown reaction
components
d) six unknown reaction
components
31. A cantilever beam AB, fixed at A and carrying a
load W at the free end B, is found to deflect by 5 at the
mid-point of AB. The deflection of B due to a load W/2
at the mid-point will be
a) 25 b) 5 c) 5/2 d) 5/4

32. A steel frame is shown in Fig.

If joint O of the frame
is rigid, the rotational
stiffness of the frame at
point O is given by

11EI 10EI
a) b)
l l
8EI 6EI
c) d)
l l

33. The core of a rectangular section with sides b and

d is a
√b2 +d2 √b2 +d2
a) square with side 6 b) rhombus with side 6
c) rectangle with sides b/3 and d/3
b d
d) parallelogram with sides and
6√2 6√2

34. Two circular bars A and B of same material

and same length are of diameters DA and DB
respectively. The bars are subjected to the same
torque T. The ratio of strain energies stored in
the bars A and B is proportional to
DA DB D 2 D 4
a) DB
b) DA
c)(DA ) d) (DB )
B A

35. The ratio of intensity of stress in case of a

gradually applied load to that in case of a suddenly
applied load is
a) ½ b) 1 c) 2 d) more than 2

36. The phenomenon of decreased resistance of a

material to reversal of stress is called
a) creep b) fatigue c) resilience d) plasticity
 CODE: TNPSC JDO 2021/MODEL EXAM – III / PAPER -I

37. A beam simply supported at both the ends, of d) is directly proportional to the radius of main curve
length ‘L’ carries two equal unlike couples M at two
ends, If the flexural rigidity, El = constant, then the 47) The reaction time of a driver………with the
central deflection of beam is given by increase in speed.
ML2 ML2 ML2 ML2 a) remains constant b) decreases
a) b) 16EL c)64EL d)
4EL 8EL c) increases d) None of the above
48) The relation between porosity (n) and void ratio (e) is
38. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam carrying given by
a central load W is equal to 1+e n e 1−n
WL3 WL3 WL3 5 WL3
a) n = e b ) e = 1−n c) n = 1−e d) e = n
a) 484EI b) 96EI c) 192EI d) 384 EI
49 )The shearing strength of the following soil will be
39. If the diameter of a shaft subjected to torque alone poor
is doubled, then the horse power P can be increases to (a) CL (b) OL (c) SC (d) GC.
a) 16P b) 8P c) 4P d) 2P
50) At liquid limit a soil has
40. The shear stress distribution shown in (a) High shear strength
figure. represent a beam with cross (b) No shear strength
section. (c) Negligible (or) very small shear strength
(d) Nothing to do with shear strength.

51) Valid range for degree of saturation of a soil in

a) b) c) d) percentage
(a)0<S<100 (b)0 ≤ S ≤ l00 (c)0>S>100 (d)S ≤ 0.
41. The span length of truss bridge is in between
A) 20m-50m. B) 40m-80m. 52) . Textural classification is merely based on
C) 50m-110m. D) 70m-120m (a) Grain size (b) Plasticity index
(c) Shape of particles (d) Consistency limits
42. In traffic engineering, the elements are classified
into how many categories? 53) The shrinkage index is equal to
a)One b)Two c)Three d)Four a) liquid limit + plastic limit
b) plastic limit - liquid limit
43. Match List-I (Tests) with List- II (Properties) and c) plastic limit - shrinkage limit
List-I List- II d) shrinkage limit - liquid limit
A. CBR test 1.Modulus of sub-
grade reaction 54) Arboriculture means _______
B. Plate bearing test 2.Arbitrary soil a) Agriculture b) Wood culture
strength c) Tree culture d) None of these Tree culture.
C. Triaxial test 3.Exudation and
expansion pressure 55) . Match List I (type of soil) with List II (mode of
D. Stabilometer and 4.Shear parameters transportation and deposition
Cohesion-meter test List I List II
(a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 (b) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4 A Lacustrine soils 1 Transportation by
(c) A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3 (d) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3 wind
B Alluvial soil 2 Transportation by
44. In water bound macadam roads, binding material, running water
a) sand b) stone dust C Aeolian soils 3 Deposited at the
c) cement d) brick dust bottom of lakes
D Marine soils 4 Deposited in sea
45. Excessive camber on pavements may cause water
a) deterioration of central portion (a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 (b) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
b) slip of the speedy vehicles towards the edges (c) A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1 (d) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
c) erosion of the berms d) all the above. 56) Laterite is a/an
46. In an ideal transition curve, the radius of curvature a) volcanic rock b) argillaceous rock
a) is constant c) calcareous rock d) silicious rock.
b) At any point is directly proportional to its distance
from the point of commencement 57) The minimum compressive strength of second
c) At any point is inversely proportional to its distance class bricks should be
a) 95 kg/cm2 b) 70 kg/cm2
from the point of commencement
 CODE: TNPSC JDO 2021/MODEL EXAM – III / PAPER -I

c) 105 kg/cm2 d) 120 kg/cm2

58) Refractory bricks resist

a) high temperature b) chemical action
c)dampness d) all the above.
59) Bulking of sand is caused due to
a) surface moisture b) air voids
c) viscosity d) clay contents

60) Good quality cement contains higher percentage

of
a) Tricalcium silicate b) Di-calcium silicate
c) Tri-calcium aluminate
d) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite

61) The modulus of elasticity (E) of concrete is given

by
a) E= 1000fck b) E = 5000√fck
c) E = 7000√fck d) E = 10,000 √fck

62. A good building stone should not absorb

water more than
a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20%

63) The strength and durability of concrete depends

upon
a ) size of aggregates b ) grading of aggregates
c) moisture contents of aggregates d ) all of these

64. Match List I with List II

A Serviceability 1 Sliding
B Shear key 2 Deflection
C Shrinkage 3 Cracking
D Concrete spalling 4 Corrosion
a) A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2 b) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
c) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4 d) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3

65) The length of Vicat plunger in Vicat's apparatus

varies from
a ) 20 to 30 mm b ) 30 to 40 mm
c) 40 to 50 mm d ) 50 to 60 mm

66) The aggregate is called the cyclopean aggregate if

its size is
(a) between 0.15 mm and 4.5 mm (b) 4.75 mm to 40 mm 68) The property of material enabling it to be drawn
(c) 75 mm to 150 mm d) more than 150. into thin wires is called
(a) toughness (b) hardness
67) In a well-seasoned timber, the moisture content (c) ductility (d) malleability.
will be in the range of
(a) 20—25% (b)15—20% (c) 10—12% d)5—7%. 69) The main ingredient in the manufacture of glass
is
(a) silica (b) potash (c)soda (d)lime.

70) The oil/liquid in which base and pigment are

dissolved to form a paint is called
(a) thinner (b) filler
(c) vehicle (d) none of the above.
 CODE: TNPSC JDO 2021/MODEL EXAM – III / PAPER -I

71) For D.P.C. at plinth level, the commonly adopted 83. The pressure measured with the help of a pressure
material is gauge is called
a) bitumen sheeting b) plastic sheeting a)atmospheric pressure b)gauge pressure
c) mastic sheeting d) cement concrete c)absolute pressure d)mean pressure

72) The damp-proof course 84. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is
a) may be horizontal or vertical b) should be continuous a)103kN/m2 b)10.3m of water
c) should be of good impervious material c)740mm of mercury d)all of these
d) all of these.
85. The absolute pressure is equal to
73) A horizontal layer of bricks laid in mortar is a)gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
known as
b)gauge pressure-atmospheric pressure
a) course b) stretcher c) header d) closer
c)atmospheric pressure-gauge pressure
74) The minimum thickness of a wall in stone d)gauge pressure +vacuum pressure
masonry should not be less than
a) 100mm b) 200mm c) 350mm d) 450mm 86. The point at high the resultant pressure on an
immersed surface acts,is known as
75) A type of bond in a brick masonry in which each a)centre of gravity b)centre of depth
course consists of alternate headers and stretchers, is c)centre of pressure d)centre of immersed surface
called
a) English bond b) Flemish bond 87. Match List-I with List-I I
c) Stretching bond d) heading bond List-I List-ll
A. Concentrated sugar 1. Dilatant fluid
76) A roof which slopes in all the four direction is solution
a)gable roof b)hip roof B. Sewage sludge 2. Bingham plastic fluid
c)gambrel roof d)mansard roof C. Blood 3. Pseudo-plastic fluid
D. Air 4. Newtonian fluid
77) The horizontal members of the shutters of a door a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 b) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
or window are called c) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4 d) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
a)sills b)horns c)rails d)panels
88.One cubic metre of water weighs
78) Plastering on external exposed surface is known a)100litres b)250 litres c)500litres d)1000litres
as
a) Rendering b) Blending 89. A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing per
c) rebranding d) None of these. second is constant, is called __________flow
a)steady b)streamline c)turbulent d)unsteady
79. Specifications are of two types- General
specification or and __________________ 90. According to equation of continuity
a) Short specification b) General specification a)w1 a1 = w2 a2 b) w1 v1 = w2 v2
c) Detailed specification d) Brief specification c) a1 v1 = a2 v2 d) a1 /v1 = a2 /v2

80. The mass of 2.5m3 of a certain liquid is 2 tonnes.Its 91. According to Bernoulli’s equation
mass density is p v2 p v2
a)Z+w + 2g = constant b) Z+w − 2g = constant
a)200kg/m3 b)400kg/m3 c)600kg/m3 d)800kg/m3
p v2 p v2
c) Z- + = constant d) Z- − = constant
81. A glass tube of small diameter (d) is dipped in the w 2g w 2g
fluid.The height of rise or fall in the tube is given by
a)4wd/σ cosα b) σ cosα /4wd 92. Bernoulli’s equation is applied to
c)4 σ cosα/wd d)wd/4 σ cosα a)venturimeter b)orificemeter
where w=specific weight of liquid c)pitot tube d)all of these
𝛂=angle of contact of the liquid suface and
𝛔=surface tension 93 . A pitot tube is used to measure the
a)velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe
82. The pressure intensity in kN/m2 (or kPa) at any b)pressure difference between two points in a pipe
point in a liquid is c)total pressure of liquid flowing in a pipe
a)w b)wh c)w/h d)h/w d)discharge through a pipe
where W=specific weight of liquid,and
h=depth of liquid from the surface 94. An average value of coefficient of velocity is
a)0.62 b)0.76 c)0.84 d)0.97
 CODE: TNPSC JDO 2021/MODEL EXAM – III / PAPER -I

95. The discharge over a triangular notch 105. Which of the following solid wastes describes the
a) inversely proportional to H3/2 term ‘Municipal Solid Waste’?
b) directly proportional to H3/2 (a) Toxic (b) Hazardous
c) inversely proportional to H5/2 (c) Non-toxic (d) Non-hazardous
d) directly proportional to H5/2
106. Zero hardness of water is achieved by
96. The Cipolletti weir is a …….weir a) using lime soda process b) excess lime treatment
a) rectangular b) triangular c) trapezoidal d) circular c) ion exchange method d) using excess alum dosage

97. The hydraulic mean depth or the hydraulic radius 1 0 7 . Water for domestic use should have
is the ratio of (a) Sweet smell (b) faint smell
a) area of flow and wetted perimeter (c) Inoffensive smell (d) no smell.
b) wetted perimeter ad diameter of pipe
c) velocity of flow and area of flow d) none of these 108. Match List-I with List
List I List II
98. The hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of A. Soil pipe 1. Ventilating pipe
diameter (d) is B. Intercepting trap 2. Wash basin
a) d/6 b)d/4 c) d/2 d) d C. P-trap 3. Water closet waste
D. Cowl 4. House drainage
99. Match List I (name of instrument) with List II a) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 b) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
(variable measured) c) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 d) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
List I List II
A Hot-wire 1 Boundary shear 109. Greater D.O. is undesirable in
anemometer stress (a) boilers (b) aerobic treatment
B Orifice meter 2 Discharge (c) natural water bodies (d) Anaerobic treatment
C Pitot tube 3 Mean velocity
D Preston tube 4 Gas velocity
110. BOD represents
a) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 b) A-1 B-2 c-3 D-4
(a) Pollutional strength of a waste
c) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3 d) A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1
(b) Pollutional strength of an organic fraction of wastes
(c) Pollutional strength of inorganic fraction of wastes
100. According to Chezy’s formula, the discharge
(d) Pollutional strength of bio-degradable organic
through an open channel is
wastes.
a) A√m xi b) C√m xi c) AC √m xi d) mi √A xC
111. Which one of the following filters should be
101. The loss of head due to viscosity for laminar flow recommended for protected rural water
in pipes is supply project?
4μvl 8μvl 16μvl 32 μvl
a) wd2 b) wd2 c) wd2 d) wd2 a) pressure filter b) slow sand filter
c) diatomaceous earth filter d) rapid sand filter
102. Infiltration capacity of the soil is defined as
(a) The depth of water absorbed by the soil during the 112. Efficiency of disinfection is
storm (a)
No.of pathogens killed
× 100
No.of micro organisms present initially
(b) The maximum rate at which the soil absorbs water No.of pathogens killed
(c) The average rainfall intensity during the storm (b) No.of patogens present initially × 100
(d) The rate at which the runoff is generated. No.of micro organismss killed
(c) No.of pathogens present initially × 100
No.of micro organisms killed
103. Darcy's law for ground water motion states that (d) No.of micro organisms present initially × 100
the velocity
(a) Is proportional to hydraulic gradient 113. Pumping system is best suited when
(b) Is proportional to the square of hydraulic gradient (a) Fire accidents occur frequently
(c) Is inversely proportional to hydraulic gradient (B) Density of population is high and space available is
(d) Is proportional to the logarithm of hydraulic less
gradient. (c) Source of water is at low level
(D)Power failures are more common.
104. The equation for steady state yield from a tube-
well was first developed by 114. Aerosol is
(a)Darcy (b)Dupuit (c) Jacob (d)Chow. a)air in solution in a liquid medium
b)finely dispersed liquid or solid in a gas
 CODE: TNPSC JDO 2021/MODEL EXAM – III / PAPER -I

c)air saturated with a liquid droplets 127. Which of the following pairs are correctly
d)air blended with grit matched?
1. Telemeter Measurement of distance
115. For fish habitat in a river, the minimum 2. Price meter Measurement of
dissolved oxygen required is difference in elevation
a) 2 mg/L b) 4 mg/L c) 8 mg/L d) 10 mg/L between points
3. Sounding sextant Measurement of
116. Colour of fresh sewage is horizontal angles
(a) Green (b) brown (c) Pink (d) grey. 4. Clinometer Measurement of vertical
angles.
117. Efficiency of activated sludge process is Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 30 to 40 % (b) 50 to 60% (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 60 to 98% (d) 90 to 95% (c) 1,2and4 (d) 1,2and3

118. Match List-I ( Parameters) with List II

(Permissible concentration in drinking water' and
List-I List II
A. Hardness 1. 0.1 mg/L
B. Nitrate concentration 2. 0.5 mg/L
C. Iron concentration 3. 200 mg/L
D. Fluoride concentration 4. 45 mg/L
a) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1 b) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
c) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 d) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2

119. In which unit sound is measured?

a)Kilometer b)Pascal c)Kilogram d) Decibel

120. The product of H+ ions OH- ions in a stronger

alkali is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 10-1 d) 10-14

121. In geodetic surveys higher accuracy is achieved,

if
a) curvature of the earth surface is ignored
b) curvature of the earth surface is taken into account
c) angles between the curved lines are treated as plane
angles d) none of these.

122. A well conditioned triangle has no angle less

than
a) 20° b) 30° c) 45° d ) 60°.

123. In an adjusted level, when the bubble is central,

the axis of the bubble tube becomes parallel to
a)axis of altitude level b) line of collimation
c) axis of the telescope d) None of these.

124. The correction to be applied to each 30 metre

chain length along 6° slope, is
a)30 (secθ - 1) m b) 30 (sin θ - 1) m
c) 30 (cos θ - 1) m d ) 30 (tanθ - 1) m 128. If i is the stadia distance, f is the focal length and
125. The angle of intersection of a contour and a ridge d is the distance between the objective and vertical
line, is axis of the techeometer, the multiplying constant, is
a) 30° b ) 45° c) 60° d ) 90°. a) f/i b) i/f c) (f+d) d) f/d

126. An invar tape is made of an alloy of 129. The main principle of surveying is to work
a) copper and steel b) brass and nickel a) from part to the whole
c) brass and steel d) nickel and steel b) from whole to the part
 CODE: TNPSC JDO 2021/MODEL EXAM – III / PAPER -I

c) from higher level to the lower level B. For members carrying 2. 180
d) from lower level to higher level. compressive loads due to wind or
seismic forces only
130. If “Fore bearing” of a line is S 490 52’ E (assuming C. For members carrying tension 3. 250
there is no local attraction), the “Back bearing” of the but in which the reversal of stress
line will be occurs due to wind or seismic forces
a) S 520 49’ E b) S 490 52’ E a. A-1 B-2 C-3 b. A-2 b-3 c-1
c) N 490 08’ E d) N 490 52’ W c. A-3 B-1 C-2 d. A-1 b-3 c-2
131. A ‘level line’ is a
a) horizontal line 140. The web crippling due to excessive bearing stress
b) line parallel to the mean spheroidal surface of earth can be avoided by
c) line passing through the centre of cross hair and the a) decreasing the web thickness
centre of eye piece b) providing suitable stiffeners
d) line passing through the objective lens and the eye- c) increasing the length of the bearing plates
piece of a dumpy or tilting d) none of the above

132. When total station is sighted to the target, which 141. The overlap of batten plates with the main
of the operation acts first? members in welded connections should be more than
a) Rotation of optical axis a) 3t b) 4t c) 6t d) 8t
b) Rotation of vertical axis where t = thickness of the batten plate
c) Rotation of horizontal axis
d) Rotation of line of collimation 142. Stiffeners are used in a plate girder
a) to reduce the shear stress
133. If the angle of intersection and radius of simple
b) to take the bearing stress
circular are 120o and 700 m respectively, then
c) to avoid bulking of web plate.
i) length of long chord is 700 m
d) all of the above
ii) length of curve is 700/2m
a) only (i) is correct b) only (i) is correct
143. Web crippling generally occurs at the point-
c) both (i) and (ii) are correct d) none is correct
where
134. The 'point of curve' of a simple circular curve, is a) bending moment is maximum
a) point of tangency b) point of commencement b) shearing force is minimum
c) point of intersection d) mid-point of the curve. c) concentrated loads act d) all of the above

135. If whole circle bearing of a line is 120°, its 144. The connection of one beam to another beam by
reduced bearing is means of an angle at the bottom and an angle at the
a) S 20° E b ) S 60° E c) N 120° E d ) N 60° E. top, is known as
136. The tilt displacement in an aerial photograph is a) unstiffened seated connection
radial from b) stiffened seated connection
a) plumb point b) isocentre point c) seated connection d) none of these
c) principle point d) nadir point
145. Shear buckling of web in a plate girder is
137. As per IS : 800, the maximum deflection in a beam prevented by using
should not exceed a) vertical intermediate stiffener
L L L L
a) 180 b) 250 c )325 d) 360 b) end baring stiffer
where L is span of beam c) load bearing stiffener d) none of the above

138. Diameter of a bolt hole is usually taken as 146. The bracing provided in the plane of end posts is
a) gross diameter of bolt b) nominal diameter + 1.5 mm called
c) nominal diameter + 2.0 mm a) sway bracing b) portal bracing
d) nominal diameter of bolt c) top lateral bracing d) bottom lateral bracing

139. Match List I with List II 147. If the depth of actual neutral axis in a beam is
List I (Type of member ) List II more than the depth of critical neutral axis, then the
(Slenderness beam is called
ratio) a) balanced beam b) under-reinforced beam
A. For compression members 1. 350 c) over-reinforced beam d) none of the above
carrying dead and superimposed
loads
 CODE: TNPSC JDO 2021/MODEL EXAM – III / PAPER -I

148. Assertion (A) : In limit state design, over 156. Magnitude of minimum reinforcement
reinforced sections are not permitted. recommended for reinforced concrete using mild
Reason (R) : As the Concrete failure is brittle, the steel in slabs/ columns are
structure fails suddenly without any warning. a) 0.15%/0.60% b) 0.25%/0.80%
c) 0.50%/1.00% d) 0.15%/0.80%
149. The final & deflection due to all including effects
157. Match the List I with List II
of temperature, creep and shrinkage measured from
List I List II
as—cast level of the supports of floors, roofs and all
other horizontal members of reinforced concrete A IS -875 1 Earthquake resistant design
should not normally exceed B IS-1343 2 Loads
a. Span / 350 b. Span / 250 C IS-1893 3 Liquid storage structure
c. (Span / 350) or 20 mm whichever is less D IS-3370 4 Prestressed concrete
d. (5/348) of span a) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2 b) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
c) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 d) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
150. Match List I with List II
List I(Beam List II (Design Provision) 158. For a continuous slab of 3m × 3.5 m size, the
Variable) minimum overall depth of slab to satisfy vertical
A. Flexure 1. Minimum depth of section deflection limits is
B. Shear 2. Longitudinal steel a) 120 mm b) 100 mm c) 75 mm d) 50 mm
reinforcement
C. Bond 3. Stirrups 159. The minimum grade of reinforced concrete is
seawater as per IS 456-2000 is
D. Deflection 4. Anchorage in support
a) M 15 b) M 20 c) M 30 d)M 40
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
160. In limit state design of concrete for flexure, the
b. 2 3 1 4
area of stress block is taken as
c. 3 2 4 1
a) 0.530 fck. Xu b) 0.446 fck. Xu
d. 2 3 4 1
c) 0.420 fck. Xu d) 0.360 fck. Xu
151. An R.C.C. lintel is spanning an opening of 2 m
161. For a given activity, the optimistic time,
span in a brick wall. The height of the roof is 2.9 m
pessimistic time and the most probable estimates are
above the floor level and that of the opening is 2.1 m
5, 17 and 8 days respectively, The expected time is
above the floor level. The lintel is to be designed for
A. 8 days B. 9 days C. 10 days D. 15 days
self weight plus
a) triangular load of the wall b) UDLofwall
162. Time and progress chart of a construction, is also
c) UDL of wall + load from the roof
known as
d)triangular load + load from the roof.
A. Bar chart B. Gantt chart
C. Modified Mile stone chart D. All the above
152. Which one of the following states falls under the
163. For the supply of materials for concrete, form
‘Limit state of serviceability’ as per IS-456?
work reinforcing and placing of concrete, removal of
a) Stability under load
form work and curing of concrete, number of bar(s)
b) Loss of equilibrium of a structure
required on bar chart, is
c) Floor vibration d) Formation of mechanism A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6
153. The cover of longitudinal reinforcing bar in a
164. The main disadvantage of line organization, is
beam subjected to sea spray should not be less than
A. Rigid structure
which one of the following?
B. Extraordinary delay in communications
a. 50 mm b. 70 mm c. 75 mm d. 80 mm
C. Top level executions over work
D. All the above
154. The minimum head room over a stair must be
a) 200 cm b) 205 cm c) 210 cm d) 200 cm
165. Interfering float is the difference between
A. Total float and free float
155. As per IS 456-2000, which one of the following
B. Total float and independent float
correctly expresses the modulus of elasticity of
concrete? (read with the relevant units) C. Free float and independent float
D. None of the above
a) Ec=0.7 √fck b) Ec=500 √fck
c) Ec=5000 √fck d) Ec=5700 √fck 166. Which one of the following represents an
activity?
 CODE: TNPSC JDO 2021/MODEL EXAM – III / PAPER -I

A. Excavation for foundation B. Curing of concrete 173. The time by which a particular activity can be
C. Setting of question paper D. All the above delayed without affecting the preceding and
succeeding activities is known as
167. The constraints in case of resource smoothening A. Total float B. Free float
operation would be C. Interfering float D. Independent float
A. Resources B. Project duration time
C. Both resources and project duration time 174. While filling the tender for any work, the
D. None of the above contractor considers
A. site survey B. availability of construction materials
168. Mobilization advance up to 10% of the cost of C. availability of labour D. all the above.
work is given to a contractor
A. On commencement of work at site for payment of
loan taken by him
B. For the purchase of construction materials
C. For the payment of advances to labour and other
staff
D. For all activities required to start the work at site on
finalization of the contract document

169 Match the List I with List II

List I (Description of activity List II (Names
floats) of the floats)
a) Earliest start time of its successor 1. Total
activity minus earliest finish time
of the activity in question minus
the duration
b) Time available for an activity 2. Free
performance minus the duration of
the activity
c) Excess of minimum available 3. Interfering
time over the required activity
duration
d) Difference between total float 4. Independent
and free float of an activity 175. Match the List I with List II
a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 b) A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3 List I (Activity List II (Property of
c) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4 d) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3 types) activity)
a) Critical activity 1. It has float
170. Preliminary project report for a road project must to be crashed first
contain to reduce project
A. The detailed estimated cost based on detailed design duration
B. The several alternatives of the project that have been b) Critical activity 2. It has least cost slope
considered c) Dummy activity 3. It maintains logic of
C. The soil survey, traffic survey, concept design and network
approximate cost d) Subcritical 4. It has no float
D. The contract documents for inviting tenders a) A- 1 B-2 C-3 D-4 b) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
c) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1 d) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
171. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities
and probability of their occurrence follow 176. The Overall in-charge of an organisation at the
A. Normal distribution curve site responsible for the execution of the works, is
B. Poisson's distribution curve A. Executive Engineer B. Engineer
C. Beta distribution curve D. None of the above C. Junior Engineer D. Sub overseer

172. Slack time refers to 177. The process of incorporating changes and
A. An activity B. An event rescheduling or replanning is called
C. Both event and activity D. None of the above A. Resource levelling B. Resource smoothening
C. Updating D. Critical path scheduling
 CODE: TNPSC JDO 2021/MODEL EXAM – III / PAPER -I

178. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of

working known as 190. In the detailed estimate the areas are worked out
A. Line organization B. Line and staff organization to the nearest
C. Functional organization D. Effective organization a)0.001m2 b)0.01m2 c)0.05m2 d)0.005m2
179. Pick up the item of work not included in the 191. The total length of a cranked bar
plinth area estimate through a distance d)at 45° in case of a beam of effective
A. Wall thickness B. Room area length L, is
C. Verandah area D. Courtyard area. a) L + 0.42 d b)L + 2 x 0.42 d
c) L - 0.42 d d) L - 2 x 0.4 d.
180. In the analysis of rates, the profit for the
contractor is generally taken as 192. For 12 mm thick cement plastering 1 : 6 on 100
a)20% b)15% c)10% d)5% sq.m new brick work, the quantity of cement
required, is
181. When engineering departments undertake the A. 0.200 m3 B. 0.247 m3 C. 0.274 m3 D. 0.295 m3
works of other department the amount charged
towards design, supervision and execution etc,is 193. Which department looks after the execution and
called maintanence of water supply and sanitary works?
a)work changed establishment b)contingencies a)public work department b)social welfare department
c)service charges d)centage charges c)public health department d)none of the above

182. The inspection pit or chamber is a manhole 194. The most reliable estiamte is
provided in a base drainage system A. Detailed estimate B. Preliminary estimate
A. at every change of direction C. Plinth area estimate D. Cube rate estimate
B. at every change of gradient
C. at every 30 m intervals 195. The floor area includes the area of the balcony up to
D. All the above a) 100% b) 75% c) 50% d)25%.

183. The measurement is not made in square metres 196. Pick up the excavation where measurements are
in case of made in square meters for payment.
A. D.P.C. (Damp proof course) B. Form works A. Ordinary cuttings up to 1 m
C. Concrete Jaffries D. R.C. Chhajja. B. Surface dressing up to 15 cm depths
C. Surface excavation up to 30 cm depths
184. Minimum side lap required for asbestos cement D. Both (B) and (C)
sheet is
a)4cm b)10cm c)15cm d)25cm 197. The correct Prismoidal formula for volume is
A. D [first area + last area + Ʃ Even area + 2 Ʃ odd areas]
185. The main factor to be considered while preparing B. D/3 [first area + last area + 4 Ʃ Even area + 2 Ʃ odd
a detailed estimate, is areas]
A. Quantity of the materials C. D/3 [first area + last area + 2 Ʃ Even area + 4 Ʃ odd
B. Availability of materials areas]
C. Transportation of materials D. All the above. D. D/6 [first area + last area + 2 ∑ Even area + 4 ∑ odd
areas]
186. For 100 sq. m cement concrete (1 : 2: 4) 4 cm thick
floor, the quantity of cement required, is 198. Anti-siphonage pipe is connected to
A. 0.90 m³ B. 0.94 m³ C. 0.98 m³ D. 1.00 m³ A. Main soil pipe B. Bottom of P trap W.C.
C. Top of P trap W.C. D. Side of water closet
187. The quantity for expansions joint in buildings is
worked out in 199. Cost of fittings and their fixing is specified for
a)m3 b)m2 c)m d)lump-sum the following sanitary fittings
A. Water closets B. Flushing pipes
188. The slope of the outlet of 'P trap' below the C. Lavatary basins D. All the above.
horizontal is kept
A. 8° B. 10° C. 12° D. 14° 200. A layer of dry bricks put below the foundation
course ,in the case of soft soils, is called
189. The head of the circle of public works department a)soling b)shoring c)D.P.C
is
a)assistant engineer b) circle engineer
c)executive engineer d) superintending engineer