1.

The following specimen may be normally received for analysis in Chemical Pathology
Laboratory EXCEPT…….
A. Stool
B. Pericardial
C. Fluid
D. Breast tissue
2. Methods commonly employed in the Chemical Pathology Laboratory for the purpose of
sample analysis include;
A. End point mode
B. Fixed time mode
C. Initial Rate mode
D. Colorimetric rate mode
3. The following statement is not true concerning the measurement using the Sample
Blanking methods;
A. Reaction occurs in two phases
B. Reaction occurs strictly in one phase
C. Bilirubin is good analyte analyzed by this method
D. It is always applied in the kinetic mode
4. The following segment of nephron is not involved in reabsorption of filtered sodium
A. Glumerulus
B. Proximal convulated tuble
C. Digital convoluted tuble
D. Loop of henile
5. Regarding type II diabetes mellitus
A. There is a substantial loss of B-cells in the islets of Langerhans
B. It is associated with certain HLA groups
C. Ketonuria is a common feature
D. The tissue response to insulin is normal

6. High level of which lipoprotein class(s) are associated with decreased risk of accelerated
Atherosclerosis
A. Chylomicrons
B. VLDL – cholesterol
C. LDL – cholesterol
D. HDL – cholesterol

7. The equivalent of 10mg/dl, mass concentration of Calcium is expressed in substance

concentration is……(Molar weight of Calcium is 40g)
A. 200mmol/L
B. 10mmol/L
C. 250mmol/L
D. 240mmol/L
8. The urine of a healthy person should contain which of the following analyte?
A. Glucose
B. Blood
C. Protein
D. Urobilinogen
9. In modified oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for pregnant women, how many grams of
glucose is given?
A. 75g
B. 90g
C. 100g
D. 175g
10. Which of the following is LIKELY to be affected if a non-fasting sample is taken for
Lipid Profile test?
A. LDH-Cholesterol.
B. Triglycerides
C. Total Cholesterol
D. HDL-Cholesterol
11. Hyperglycaemia usually results in
A. Excessive sodium losses
B. Polydipsia
C. Inappropriate secretion of ADH associated with low urine osmolality
D. Prostatitis
12. Estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR)
A. Is valid in all age groups
B. Is a useful assessment of the progress chronic liver disease
C. Can be used to assess renal activity
D. Is the basis for the classification of chronic kidney disease (CKD)
13. In BUe Cr, the "e" stands for,
A. Electrodes
B. Electrolytes
C. Electricity
D. Enzyme
14. Which of the following is NOT a cause of metabolic acidosis?
A. Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
C. Severe diarrhoea
D. Hypertension
15. The causes of respiratory alkalosis includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. High altitude
B. Anxiety
С. Нурохіа
D. Asthma
16. Which of the following substance can be used in the measurement of Glomerular
filtration rate?
A. Urea
B. Albumin
C. Creatinine
D. Bilirubin
17. Some usual causes of glomerulonephritis include these EXCEPT
A. Hematuria
B. Auto-immune disease
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Congestive urinal failure
18. Which of these enzymes is an indiscriminate marker in Liver function Tests (LFTs)
A. ALP
B. ALT
C. GGT
D. LDH
19. You checked your Liver Function Test and realized Total Bilirubin 20.40 umol/L and
Direct Bilirubin 0.36 umol/L, your Head of Lab saw your results and said your conjugated
bilirubin is very high, what was the concentration?
A. 20.76 umol/L
B. 7.344 umol/L
C. 8.016 umol/L
D. 20.04 umol/L
20. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is all of these EXCEPT
A. Glycoprotein
B. Hormone
C. Tumor marker
D. Antibody
21. The MOST appropriate urine specimen for pregnancy test is:
A. Late morning urine
B. Early morning urine
C. Any urine specimen
D. Doesn't matter
22. Which of these is considered a liver specific enzyme?
A. ALT
B. AST
C. GGT
D. LDH
23. Which of the following is considered a good-cholesterol
A. VLDL-Cholesterol
B. LDL-Cholesterol
C. HDL-Cholesterol
D. Total Cholesterol
24. A doctor requested a Thyroid function Test (TFT) for 70yr old patient, as the Medical
Laboratory Scientist on duty, which of these parameters would you exclude from the panel?
A. fT5
B. TSH
C. fT3
D. fT4
25. The process of specimen collection, handling, and processing remains one of the primary
areas of...
A. Pre-analytical error
B. analytical error
C. postanalytical error
D. all the above
26. In clinical chemistry ... are important to allow a clinician to assess patient results against
an appropriate population.
A. Confidence interval
B. internal ranges
C. reference intervals
D. all the above
27. Range of values that include a specified probability, usually 90% or 95%.
A.Confidence interval
B. Internal ranges
C. Reference intervals
D. All the above
28. The following are processes used to prepare reagent grade water in clinical chemistry...
A.Distillation
В.Ion exchange
C.Reverse osmosis
D.All the above
29. is the rate in milliliters per minute at which small substances, such as creatinine and urea,
are filtered through the kidney's glomeruli.
A. Glomerular Filtration
B. Glomerular Filtration Rate
C. Glomerular Activity rate
D. Glomerular Function Rate
30. The following important infectious agents can be transmitted in transfused blood
ЕХСЕРТ...
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Plasmodium species
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Schistosoma haematobium
31. Which of the following statements about the red cell antigen is NOT true?
A. Blood group antigens are either sugars or proteins
B. Blood group antigens are attached to any components in the red blood cell membrane.
C. The antigens of the ABO blood groups are produced by a series of reaction which
enzymes catalyze the transfer of sugar units.
D. A person’s DNA determines the type of enzymes they have, and therefore of
32. Auto or Self antigens are antigens………….
A. present in one’s own cells
B. altered by the action of bacteria and viruses as a non-self
C. altered by the action of chemicals or drugs as a non-self
D. that elicits the production of antibodies
33. All of the following are seen in autoimmunity EXCEPT…
A. Autoimmunity is the immune response of auto antibody against…..
B. Autoimmunity is the humoral immune response against the…..
C. There are more than 80 different kinds of disease caused by….
D. Production of autoantigens is elicited by autoantibodies
34. Which of the following is NOT a cause of autoimmune disease?
A. Sequestered or hidden antigens
B. Self-antigens
C. Cessation of tolerance
D. Cross reacting antigens
35. The following occur in haemolytic autoimmune disease EXCEPT….
A. The disease is due to destruction of all blood components
B. Auto Antibodies are formal against one’s own RBC but not platelets or leucocytes
C. Haemolytic anemia, Leukocytosis and thrombocytosis are part of its presentation.
D. Is a systematic autoimmune disease
36. In autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, the antigen-antibody reaction are dependent on the
following EXCEPT…
A. Class of Antibody
B. Number and spacing of antigenic sites on cell
C. Unavailability of complement
D. Functional status of reticuloendothelial system.
37. HLA matching is important in blood transfusion for the following reasons EXCEPT…..
A. Alloimmunization with increased risk for platelets refractioness can occur
B. There can be transfusion related acute lung injury.
C. There can be transfusion associated graft vs host disease.
D. There can be non-fertile transfusion reaction.
38. The following are true with platelets refractoriness EXCEPT …..
A. Platelet refractoriness is the repeated failure to achieve the expected increment in platelets
count after two or more platelet transfusions.
B. Platelet refractoriness can be due to alloimmunization of HLA or platelet antigen
C. Platelet refractoriness is not due to ABO mismatch.
D. Platelet refractoriness can be due to non-immune factor such as insufficient dosing and
poor platelet quality.
39. Match the following blood groups with their respective antibodies.
A person who is blood group A
A. has anti-A antibody in their serum
B. has anti-B antibody in their serum
C. has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibody in their serum has
D. both anti-A and anti-B antibody in their serum
40. Match the following blood groups with their respective antibodies.
A person who is blood group B
A. has anti-A antibody in their serum
B. has anti-B antibody in their serum
C. has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibody in their serum
D. has both anti-A and anti-B antibody in their serum
41. Match the following blood groups with their respective antibodies.
A person who is blood group AB
A. has anti-A antibody in their serum
B. has anti-B antibody in their serum
C. has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibody in their serum
D. has both anti-A and anti-B antibody in their serum
42. Match the following blood groups with their respective antibodies.
A person who is blood group O
A. has anti-A antibody in their serum
B. has anti-B antibody in their serum
C. has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibody in their serum
D. has both anti-A and anti-B antibody in their serum
43. In blood transfusion science, antigen-antibody reactions are affected by the...
A. type of anti. D
B. ionic strength of the medium,
C. temperature
D. ratio of antibody to antigen.
44. When Anti Human Globulin (AHG) is not available, the use of low..is recommended.
A. Albumin
B. immune IgG
C. ionic strength saline (LISS)
D. All the above
45. In blood grouping and cross matching haemolysis or agglutination means that the donor
blood is...
A. Contaminated
B. Concentrated
C. ABO incompatible.
D. ABO compatible.
46. Testing pre- and post-transfusion samples and the donor blood for ABO incompatibility.
Check for incompatibility by...
A. Re-grouping the pre-transfusion patient's sample
B. Grouping the patient's post-transfusion sample.
C. Re-grouping the donor blood.
D. All the above
47. This type of anticoagulant is COMMONLY used in the Haematology laboratory.
A. Sodium citrate
B. Dipotassium ethylenediaminetetraacetate (K2EDTA)
C. Heparin
D. All the above
48. EDTA is used in concentration of ...of whole blood.
A. 1.5 mg/1 mL
B. 150 mg/1 mL
C. 15.0 mg/1 mL
D. 155 mg/1 mL
49. An excess of ... can alter the expected dilution of blood and produce errors in the results.
A. Red blood cells
B. white blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Anticoagulant
50....is used as an anticoagulant for aPTT and PT testing.
A. Heparin
B. Sodium citrate
C. EDTA
D. All the above
51. The standard needle for blood collection with a syringe or evacuated blood collection
tubes is a... needle.
A. 22-G
B. 23-G
C. 21-G
D. 20-G
52. In addition to length, needles are classifies by ...size.
A. Strength
B. Mailability
C. Shortness
D. Gauge
53. A patient complains of the following symptoms, which of them is NOT associated with
anaemia
A. Weakness
B. Dizziness
C. Cold hands or feet
D. Fever
54. A Complete Blood Count results shows reduced Hgb, normal MCV, normal MCHC and
reduced RBCs, what is the CORRECT description for this type of results?
A. Hypochromic anaemia
B. Normochromic normocytic anaemia
C. Microcytic Normochromic anaemia
D. Normochromic hypochromic anaemia
55. Which of the following BEST describes a microcytic cell in an FBC report?
A. Low MCHC
B. Low MCV
C. High MCH
D. Low HGB
56. The liquid portion of a centrifuged blood in a red-top tube is referred to as...
A. Whole blood
B. Haematocrit
C. Plasma
D. Serum
57. In anisocytosis, the RBC has different...
A. colors
B. shapes
C. sizes
D. nucleus
58. Which of the following is a technique for laboratory detection of antigen-antibody
reaction?
A. Tube technique
B. Tile technique
C. Gel columns technique
D. All the above
59. This statement about Erythropoietin is FALSE.
A. It's produced by the hypothalamus
B. It's a hormone
C. It regulates red blood cell production
D. It's produced by the kidneys
60. The MOST stable parameter of a Full blood Count is?
A. WBC
B. Hemoglobin
C. MCV
D. Platelet count
61. Which of these is NOT an example of poikilocytosis?
A. Spherocytes
B. Howell-Jolly body
C. Ovalocytes
D. Tear drop
62. Itching around the rectum is commonly caused by the pinworm, Enterobius vermicularis.
Which of the following is FALSE regarding pinworm infection.
A. It has a simple rectum to mouth life cycle
B. Diagnosis is best made by a stool concentration method
C. It is highly contagious infecting a number of members of a family at the same time.
D. The egg is oval, flat on one side and contains a single larvae folded over a safety pin.
63. Artheochiasis is primary a/n
A. Lungs diseas
B. Intersternal disease
C. Heart disease
D. Urogenital disease
64. Malabsorption is due to infestation of
A. Cholera
B. Ascariasis
C. Giarda
D. Hookworm
65. Which of the following protozoa is Ciliate?
A. Leishmania
B. Balantidium
C. Giardia
D. Trichomonas.
66. Which of the following is not transmitted by faeco-oral route
A. Giardiasis
B. Enterobiasis
C. Strongyloidiasis
D. Typhoid
67. Moebic dysentery is caused by
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Entamoeba coli
C. Dientamoeba fragilis
D. Endolimax nana
68. Giardiasis spreads by means of
A. Trophozoites
B. Cysts
C. Vegatative
D. Zygote
69. Entamoeba gingivalis is associated with
A. Gum bleeding
B. Mouth ulcer
C. Tissue necrosis
D. Pyorrhea
70. Protozoa of human mouth spread by means of
A. Cyst
B. Trophozoites
C. Ookinetes
D. Endospores
71. The bacterialogical stain used to identify Mycobacteria is
A. Gram Stain
B. Ziehl Neelsen ZN stain
C. Weight stain
D. Trichrome stain
72. A gram-negative bacterium was recovered from a urine culture of a patient with a history
of recurrent urinary tract infections. The organism was lactose negative, oxidase negative,
urease positive and motile. This is organism is likely to be
A. Escherichia coli
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
73. Disease that affects many people at different countries is termed as...
A. Sporadic
B. Epidemic
C. Pandemic
D. Endemic
74. The ability of a pathogen to spread in a host tissues after establishing infection is known
as...
A. Adhesion
B. Invasiveness
C. Toxigenicity
D. None of these
75. Staining material of gram-positive bacterium is...
A. Fast blue
B. Hematoxylin
C. Crystal violet
D. Safranin
76. Bacillus is an example of
A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Gram negative bacteria
C. Virus
D. None of these
77. In gram staining, the which of these serves as a mordant?
A. Crystal violet
B. lodine
C. Saffranin
D. None of these
78. The biochemical test coagulase, is used for the differentiation of which of these;
A. Salmonella spp.
B. Staphylococcus spp
C. E Coli
D. Klebsiella spp.
79. Blood agar is a/an
A. Enriched medium
B. Enrichment medium
C. Selective medium
D. Differential medium
80. Which of these is the LARGEST intestinal nematode of humans?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. None of these
81. Filariform is the infective larvae form of which parasitic infection?
A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. None of these
82. The ova of this nematode can be recovered from the perianal skin or with the scotch tape
technique and not from stool samples.
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Trichuris trichiura
83. A viral infection is suspected in an Syear old boy. A reverse transcription polymerase
chain reaction (RT-qPCR) test was conducted and came out positive for SARS-CoV-2 nucleic
material.
Which of these statements is FALSE?
A. The virus is an RNA virus
B. The boy has an infectious virus present
C. None of the above
D. All the above
84. This is a culture medium for fungi...
A. Potato dextrose agar
B. CLED agar
C. Blood agar
D. Chocolate agar
85. The antibody that is first formed in response to an infection is...
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgA
86. Helicobacter pylori is a...
A. Parasite
B. Protozoa
C. Bacteria
D. Virus
87. All these may be found in urine of a healthy person EXCEPT...
A. Epithelial cells
B. Pus cells
C. Hyaline cast
D. Cellular cast
88. Eosinophilia is ONE of the basic diagnostic features of...
A. Bacterial infection
B. Viral infection
C. Parasitic infection
D. Mycological infection
89. Vaccines prepared from killed microbes are known as
A. Inactivated vaccines
B. Attenuated vaccines
C. Live vaccines
D. mRNA vaccines
90. The type of cestode related to ingesting of raw or undercooked infected pork meat is...
A. Taenia saginata
B. Taenia solium
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus
91. Choose the ODD one out.
A. Diphyllobothrium lattum
B. Taenia saginata
C. Taenia solium
D. Ancylostoma duodenale
92. Which of the following cell wall components is unique to gram-negative cells?
A. Lipopolysaccharide
B. Teichoic acid
C. Mycolic acid
D. Peptidoglycan
93. A stool sample was received at the microbiology lab, which of these is a criteria to reject
the sample.
A. There is no sign of leakage
B. There is no sign of contamination
C. Sample has signs of visible blood
D. Sample is labelled as sputum
94. A gram-negative diplococci organism, which is catalase-positive, produces glucose and
identified from a urethral culture from a married man could only be...
A. E. coli
B. Chlamydia spp.
C. N. gonorrhoeae
D. N. meningitis
95. H. influenzae is a...
А. Cocci
B. Cocobacilli
C. Bacilli
D. Diplococci
96. Bouin's solution is... colour.
A. Red
B. Brown
C. Yellow
D. Green
97. Decalcification occurs with all of the following methods EXCEPT
A. Simple acis
B. Radiography
C. Chelation
D. Ion-exchange
98. the process of saturating tissue with the medium that will be used for embedding is
A. clearing
B. Dehydration
C. Fixation
D. Infiltration
99. ONE is odd: these agents can be used to preserve tissues in the Histolab
A. Glycoxal
B. Potassium permanganate
C. Heat
D. Potassium dichromate
100. ONE of these staining mechanism gives a strong and petrmant reaction
A. Ionic bond
B. Electrostatic bond
C. Ion rich and ion deficient attraction
D. Covalent bond
101. Cytological evaluation is based on
A. Fluids
B. Mucous
C. Tissues
D. Cells
102. In paraffin technique, which of these arrangements correctly describes the step-by-step
procedure?
A. Tissue sampling, washing, fixation, clearing, dehydration
B. Fixation, tissue sampling, clearing, dehydration, clearing
C. Tissue sampling, fixation, washing, dehydration, clearing
D. Washing, fixation, dehydration, clearing, tissue sampling
103. In histopathology, tissue fixation is essential to...
A. Remove water
B. Prevent deterioration
C. Replace alcohol
D. Keep the cell alive
104. Which of these is stained by alcian blue?
A. Acid Mucopolysaccharides
B. Phospholipids
C. Glycogen
D. Lipids
105. In a pap test report what does LSIL stand for?
A. Low squamous international lesion
B. Low-level squamous intraepithelial lesion
C. Low-grade squamous international lesion
D. Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
106. Fungi infections are easily demonstrated by H&E stain in histology, however the
polysaccharides in their cell wall can be demonstrated also by
A. PAS stain
B. ZN stain
C. Auramine stain
D. Cannot be demonstrated
107. Which of these is the correct order of arrangement to the progression of cancer in the
cervix?
A. CIN 1, CIN 2, CIS, CIN 3, Carcinoma
B. CIN 3, CIN 2, CIN 1, Carcinoma, CIS
C. CIN 1, CIN 2, CIN 3, CIS, Carcinoma
D. CIS, CIN 1, CIN 2, CIN 3, Carcinoma
108. The MAIN purpose of a cryotome is
A. Slicing samples embedded in lipid soluble media
B. Slicing frozen samples
C. Slicing of desiccated samples
D. Slicing samples embedded in water soluble media
109. In enzyme histochemistry, the only enzyme that can be demonstrated on paraffin
sections is
A. Chloroacetate esterase
B. Cytochrome oxidase
C. Alanine phosphatase
D. Aminotransferase
110. An ideal fixative should have all the following EXCEPT...
A. Attract antigens on tissue processing
B. Give a good morphological preservation of the tissue
C. Not destroy the immunoreactivity of the antigens in the tissue
D. Prevent extraction, diffusion and displacement of the antigen during processing
111. The wavelength of visible spectrum of light for the human eye ranges between
A. 350 and 450 nm
B. 250 and 400 nm
C. 400 and 750 nm
D. 800 and 950 nm
112. Which macromolecules are proven by PAS reaction?
A. Proteins
B. RNA
C. Polysaccharides
D. DNA
113. Which of these factors CANNOT affect a dye-tissue reaction?
A. pH
B. Enzyme
C. Molecular size
D. Temperature
114. At neutral pH and 37°C ninhydrin reacts with a-amino groups to produce aldehydes, this
can be demonstrated using
A. Schiff's reagent
B. Million reagent
C. Nitrite reagent
D. DMAB reagent
115. The only amino acid that contains hydroxyphenyl group and can be demonstrated by
million
reaction is
A. Phenylalanine
B. Tyrosine
C. Glutamine
D. Alanine
116. A medical laboratory scientist in a histopathology lab decided to fix nucleic acids in
tissues, she is unsure which solvent to use for fixation. Which of these may NOT be the best
choice for her?
A. Ethanol
B. Acetone
C. Methanol
D. Distilled water
117. Which virus is strongly associated with cervical neoplasia
A. Human immunodeficiency virus
B. Human papilloma virus
C. Human perpendicular virus
D. Human intraepithelial virus
118. In frozen sections, the tissue should be sent to the laboratory
A. In 10% formalin
B. In carnoy's fixative
C. In saline
D. Fresh unfixed
119. Decalcification of calcified tissue and bone can be done in the lab by the all the
following
ЕХСЕРТ:
A. Aqueous nitric acid
B. Chelating agents
C. Glacial acetic acid
D. Microwave
110. One can use immunohistochemistry for all of the following purposes EXCEPT
A. To distinguish neoplastic from non-neoplastic lesion
B. To distinguish benign and malignant lesion
C. To localize the cell of origin of tumor
D. To detect autoantibodies in the serum