Language and Communication

Sentence Correction

1. Proponents of relaxations that Censorship Board allow production houses to each

year to provide them enough space to make creative piece of works consider them
vital for the economic growth of the entertainment industry while critics denounce
the relaxations as a leeway that increases the revenue of the production houses but
damages the moral character of the children.

(A) Proponents of relaxations that Censorship Board allow production houses each
year to provide them enough space to make creative pieces of work consider them
vital for the economic growth of the entertainment industry
(B) Proponents consider relaxations that Censorship Board allow production houses
each year to provide them enough space to make creative piece of works to be vital
for the economic growth of the entertainment industry.
(C) Proponents of relaxations that Censorship Board allows production houses each
year to provide them enough space to make creative pieces of work consider them
vital for the economic growth of the entertainment industry
(D) Proponents consider relaxations that Censorship Board allow production houses
each year to provide the producers enough space to make creative pieces of work
vital for the economic growth of the entertainment industry
(E) Proponents of relaxations that Censorship Board allow production houses each
year to provide them enough space to make creative pieces of work consider the
relaxations to be vital for the economic growth of the entertainment industry

2. While some academicians believe that business ethics should be integrated into
every business course, others say that students will take ethics seriously only if it
would be taught as a separately required course.

(A) only if it would be taught as a separately required course

(B) only if it is taught as a separate, required course
(C) if it is taught only as a course required separately
(D) if it was taught only as a separate and required course
(E) if it would only be taught as a required course, separately

3. Paleontologists believe that fragments of a primate jawbone unearthed in Burma

and estimated at 40 to 44 million years old provide evidence of a crucial step along
the evolutionary path that led to human beings.
(A) at 40 to 44 million years old provide evidence of
(B) as being 40 to 44 million years old provides evidence of
(C) that it is 40 to 44 million years old provides evidence of what was
(D) to be 40 to 44 million years old provide evidence of
(E) as 40 to 44 million years old provides evidence of

4. Although the initial setup of generators and a power grid by Edison and JP
Morgan was rather costly, the electrification of lighting in lower Manhattan doubled
work efficiency when the energy costs were cut in half.

(A) the electrification of lighting in lower Manhattan doubled work efficiency when
the energy costs were cut in half
(B) the electrification of lighting in lower Manhattan doubled work efficiency while
cutting energy costs in half
(C) the electrification of lighting in lower Manhattan doubled work efficiency while
costs were cut to half
(D) lighting electrification in lower Manhattan doubled work efficiency while energy
costs were cut in half
(E) lighting electrification in lower Manhattan doubled work efficiency while costs
were cut to half

5. Last year, land values in most parts of the pinelands rose almost so fast, and in
some parts even faster than what they did outside the pinelands.

(A) so fast, and in some parts even faster than what they did
(B) so fast, and in some parts even faster than, those
(C) as fast, and in some parts even faster than, those
(D) as fast as, and in some parts even faster than, those
(E) as fast as, and in some parts even faster than what they did

6. Researchers now regard interferon as not a single substance, but it is rather a

biological family of complex molecules that play an important, though not entirely
defined, role in the immune system.

(A) as not a single substance, but it is rather a biological family of complex

molecules that play
(B) as not a single substance but as a biological family of complex molecules
playing
(C) not as a single substance but as a biological family of complex molecules that
play
(D) not to be a single substance but rather a biological family of complex molecules
playing
(E) not as a single substance but instead as being a biological family of complex
molecules that play

7. A recent study of ancient clay deposits has provided new evidence supporting
the theory of global forest fires ignited by a meteorite impact that contributed to
the extinction of the dinosaurs and many other creatures some 65 million years
ago.

(A) supporting the theory of global forest fires ignited by a meteorite impact that
(B) supporting the theory that global forest fires ignited by a meteorite impact
(C) that supports the theory of global forest fires that were ignited by a meteorite
impact and that
(D) in support of the theory that global forest fires were ignited by a meteorite
impact and that
(E) of support for the theory of a meteorite impact that ignited global forest fires
and

8. To show that it is serious about addressing the state's power crisis, the
administration has plans for ordering all federal facilities in California to keep
thermostats at 78 degrees Fahrenheit and shutting down escalators during
electricity shortages this summer.

(A) has plans for ordering all federal facilities in California to keep thermostats at 78
degrees Fahrenheit and shutting
(B) has plans to order that all federal facilities in California are keeping thermostats
at 78 degrees Fahrenheit and shutting
(C) is planning on ordering all federal facilities in California to keep thermostats at
78 degrees Fahrenheit, and they will shut
(D) is planning to order that all federal facilities in California are keeping
thermostats at 78 degrees Fahrenheit and shut
(E) is planning to order all federal facilities in California to keep thermostats at 78
degrees Fahrenheit and shut

9. Although various eighteenth and nineteenth-century American poets had

professed an interest in Native American poetry and had pretended to imitate
Native American forms in their own works, until almost 1900,scholars and critics did
not begin seriously to study traditional Native American poetry in native languages.

(A) until almost 1900,scholars and critics did not begin seriously to study
(B) until almost 1900 scholars and critics had not begun seriously studying
(C) not until almost 1900 were scholars and critics to begin seriously to study
(D) it was not almost until 1900 when scholars and critics began to seriously study
(E) it was not until almost 1900 that scholars and critics seriously began studying

10. Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has

worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or
misinterpret them when they do appear.

(A) Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has

worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or
misinterpret them when they do appear.
(B) An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that
worked well in the past, makes missing signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting
ones likely when they do appear.
(C) An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action is likely to miss or
misinterpret signs of incipient trouble when they do appear, especially if it has
worked well in the past.
(D) Executives' being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has
worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or
misinterpreting them when they do appear.
(E) Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked
well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or
misinterpret them when they do appear.

Reading Comprehension

Read the passage and answer the following questions:

Historical documents have revealed that among the Timucua of Florida, a Native
American people, the best from the hunt or the harvest was given to families of
high social status, even in times of economic stress. Archaeological research
suggests a similar relationship between social status and diet in the Dallas
communities of eastern Tennessee, prehistoric Native American groups with a
social organization and economy similar to that of the Timucu(A)The first real clue
came when archaeologists discovered that skeletons of higher-status individuals
tended to be several centimeters taller than those of people of lower status.

In the largest Dallas communities, some individuals were buried in the earthen
mounds that served as substructures for buildings important to civic and religious
affairs. These burials included quantities of finely crafted items made of nonlocal
material, denoting the high political standing of those interred. Burials of
lower-status individuals contained primarily utilitarian items such as cooking
vessels and chipped Stone tools and are located in more remote sections of the
settlements. The burials actually formed a pattern, the tallest skeletons being found
in the mounds, and the heights declining as burials became more distant from the
mounds. While it is possible that taller people were simply more successful in
achieving high social standing, it is more likely that a number of stresses, including
those resulting from a relatively poor diet, which could affect stature, were
common among the lower-status groups.

Excavations indicate that three food categories made up the bulk of the
population's diet: agricultural crops cultivated in the fertile alluvial soils where the
communities were located, game, and wild edible plants, primarily nuts.
Information about dietary variation among community members is derived by
analyzing trace elements in human bone. Higher than normal levels of manganese,
strontium, and vanadium probably indicate a less nutritious diet heavily dependent
on edible plants. Very low concentrations of vanadium, which is scarce in meats and
somewhat lower in nuts than in other plant resources, are good evidence of meat
consumption and thus a better balanced-diet. As expected, vanadium was found in
considerably greater quantities in skeletons in the burials of lower-status groups.

11. According to the passage, which of the following statements regarding earthen
mounds in the Dallas communities is accurate?

(A) They served primarily as burial grounds.

(B) They were constructed in key locations on the perimeter of the village.
(C) They were elements in important structures in the community.
(D) They were used as storehouses for keeping valuable possessions safe.
(E) They contained utilitarian items made of nonlocal materials.

12. In the highlighted text (it is possible that taller people were simply more
successful in achieving high social standing), the author of the passage raises the
possibility that taller people achieved greater success most probably in order to

(A) suggest that two explanations for a phenomenon are equally plausible
(B) introduce empirical data supporting a position
(C) anticipate an objection to an argument
(D) question the usefulness of relying solely on physical evidence
(E) point out a weakness in a traditional argument

13. The passage suggests that the "relationship" mentioned in the highlighted text
was initially recognized when archaeologists

(A) attempted to trace the ancestry of the Timucua of Florida

(B) discovered a height differential among members of subgroups in the Dallas
community
(C) realized that the Dallas communities endured periods of nutritional deprivation
(D) began to compare the social organization and economies of the Timucua with
that of the Dallas communities
(E) became curious about differences in trace elements found in the bones of Dallas
community members

14. The passage suggests which of the following about the diet of the Dallas
communities?

(A) Wild edible plants were a relatively minor element in the diet.
(B) Game was less likely to be available to lower-status individuals than were edible
plants.
(C) The diet was composed primarily of agricultural crops when game was scarce.
(D) The diet was obtained entirely from local food sources.
(E) The diet was well balanced, especially at harvest time.

Read the passage and answer the following questions:

Modern architecture has been criticized for emphasizing practical and technical
issues at the expense of aesthetic concerns. The high-rise buildings constructed
throughout the industrialized world in the 1960s and 1970s provide ample evidence
that cost-efficiency and utility have became the overriding concerns of the modern
architect. However, Otto Wagner’s seminal text on modern architecture, first
published in Germany in 1896, indicates that the failure of modern architecture
cannot be blamed on the ideals of its founders.

Wagner’s Modern Architecture called for a new style based on modern

technologies and models of construction. He insisted that there could be no return
to traditional, preindustrial models; only by accepting wholeheartedly the political
and technological revolutions of the nineteenth century could the architect
establish the forms appropriate to a modern, urban society. “All modern creation,”
Wagner wrote, “must correspond to the new materials and demands of the
present…must illustrate our own better, democratic, self-confident, ideal nature,”
and must incorporate the new “colossal technical and scientific achievements” of
the age. This would indeed seem to be the basis of a purely materialist definition of
architecture, a prototype for the simplistic form-follows-function dogma that
opponents have identified as the intellectual basis of modern architecture.

But the picture was more complex, for Wagner was always careful to distinguish
between art and engineering. Ultimately, he envisaged (to have a mental picture of
especially in advance of realization, “envisages an entirely new system of
education”) the architect developing the skills of the engineer without losing the
powers of aesthetic judgment that Wagner felt were unique to the artist. “Since the
engineer is seldom a born artist and the architect must learn as a rule to be an
engineer, architects will in time succeed in extending their influence into the realm
occupied by the engineers, so that legitimate aesthetic demands can be met in a
satisfactory way.” In this symbiotic relationship essential to Modernism, art was to
exercise the controlling influence.

No other prospect was imaginable for Wagner, who was firmly rooted as a designer
and, indeed, as a teacher in the Classical tradition. The apparent inconsistency of a
confessed Classicist advising against the mechanical imitation of historical models
and arguing for new forms appropriate to the modern age created exactly the
tension that made Wagner’s writings and buildings so interesting. While he
justified, for example, the choice of a circular ground plan for churches in terms of
optimal sight-lines and the technology of the gasometer, the true inspiration was
derived from the centralized churches of the Italian Renaissance. He acknowledged
as rationalist that there was no way back to the social and technological conditions
that had produced the work of Michelangelo or Fischer von Erlach, but he
recognized his emotional attachment to the great works of the Italian Renaissance
and Austrian Baroque.

15. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

(A) Modern architecture has been criticized for emphasizing practical and technical
issues and for failing to focus on aesthetic concerns.
(B) Critics have failed to take into account the technological innovations and aesthetic
features that architects have incorporated into modern buildings.
(C) Wagner’s Modern Architecture provides architects with a chronicle of the origins of
modern architecture.
(D) Wagner’s Modern Architecture indicates that the founders of modern architecture
did not believe that practical issues should supersede the aesthetic concerns of the
past.
(E) Wagner’s seminal text, Modern Architecture, provides the intellectual basis for the
purely materialistic definition of modern architecture.

16. According to the passage, Wagner asserts which one of the following about the
roles of architect and engineer?

(A) The architect should make decision about aesthetic issues and leave decision
about technical matters to the engineers.
(B) The engineer has often developed the powers of aesthetic judgment previously
thought to be unique to the architect.
(C) The judgment of the engineer should be as important as the judgment of the
architect when decisions are made about aesthetic issues.
(D) The technical judgment of the engineer should prevail over the aesthetic
judgment of the architect in the design of modern buildings.
(E) The architect should acquire the knowledge of technical matters typically held
by the engineer.

17. The passage suggests that Wagner would be LEAST likely to agree with which
one of the following statements about classical architecture and the modern
architect?

(A) The modern architect should avoid the mechanical imitation of the models of
the Italian Renaissance and Austrian Baroque.
(B) The modern architect cannot design buildings appropriate to a modern, urban
society and still retain emotional attachments to the forms of the Italian
Renaissance and Austrian Baroque.
(C) The modern architect should possess knowledge of engineering as well as of
the architecture of the past.
(D) The modern architect should not base designs on the technological conditions
that underlay the design of the models of the Italian Renaissance and Austrian
Baroque.
(E) The designs of modern architects should reflect political ideals different from
those reflected in the designs of classical architecture.

18. The passage suggests which one of the following about the quotations from
Modern Architecture cited in the second paragraph?

(A) They represent the part of Wagner’s work that has had the least influence on
the architects who designed the high-rise buildings of the 1960s and 1970s.
(B) They describe the part of Wagner’s work that is most often evoked by
proponents of Wagner’s ideas on art and technology.
(C) They do not adequately reflect the complexity of Wagner’s ideas on the use of
modern technology in architecture.
(D) They reflect Wagner’s active participation in the political revolutions of the
nineteenth century.
(E) They provide an overview of Wagner’s ideas on the relationship between art and
technology.

19. The author of the passage states which one of the following about the concerns
of modern architecture?

(A) Cost-efficiency, utility, and aesthetic demands are the primary concerns of the
modern architect.
(B) Practical issues supersede aesthetic concerns in the design of many modern
buildings.
(C) Cost-efficiency is more important to the modern architects than are other
practical concerns.
(D) The design of many new buildings suggests that modern architects are still
inspired by architectural forms of the past.
(E) Many modern architects use current technology to design modern buildings
that are aesthetically pleasing.

20. The author mentions Wagner’s choice of a “circular ground plan for churches”
most likely in order to

(A) provide an example of the kinds of technological innovations Wagner

introduced into modern architecture
(B) provide an example of Wagner’s dismissal of historical forms from Italian
Renaissance
(C) provide an example of a modern building where technological issues were
much less significant than aesthetic demands
(D) provide evidence of Wagner’s tendency to imitate Italian Renaissance and
Austrian Baroque models
(E) provide evidence of the tension between Wagner’s commitment to modern
technology and to the Classical tradition

21. The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) summarizing the history of a debate

(B) explaining a traditional argument
(C) describing and evaluating a recent approach
(D) justifying a recent criticism by presenting new evidence
(E) supporting an assertion by discussing an important work
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word/s:

22. The sociologist responded to the charge that her new theory was ___ by pointing
out that it did not in fact contradict accepted sociological principles.
(A) banal
(B) heretical
(C) unproven
(D) complex
(E) superficial

23. Although Johnson ___ great enthusiasm for his employees’ project, in reality his
interest in the project was so ___ as to be almost nonexistent.

(A) generated..redundant
(B) displayed..preepmtive
(C) expected..indiscriminate
(D) feigned..perfunctory
(E) demanded..dispassionate

24. The Congress is having great difficulty developing a consensus on energy policy,
primarily because the policy objectives of various members of Congress rest on
such ___ assumptions.

(A) commonplace
(B) Trivial
(C) explicit
(D) divergent
(E) fundamental

25. Because medieval women’s public participation in spiritual life wasn’t welcomed
by the male establishment, compensating ___ religious writings, inoffensive to the
members of the establishment because of its ___, became important for many
women.

(A) involvement with..privacy

(B) attention to..popularity
(C) familiarity with..scarcity
(D) dissatisfaction with..profundity
(E) resistance to..domesticity
Analytical Ability

Critical Reasoning

1. "True crime" is an increasingly popular genre of documentaries and podcasts,

often reexamining the facts of a criminal trial and even leading to audiences calling
for the reversal of convictions. Critics argue that these "true crime" programs often
give audiences a misleading understanding of a case, as in the interest of creating
compelling entertainment their editors make creative decisions that leave out
important evidence and provide inaccurate accounts of events. These criticisms are
irrelevant, however, for appreciating the true crime genre, which has not only
entertained millions but given many of them a renewed interest in the field of
criminal justice.

Which of the following principles, if valid, best justifies the reasoning above?

(A) It is of the utmost importance for citizens to understand the criminal justice
system as thoroughly as possible.
(B) People convicted of crimes have a right to have their cases reexamined in the
future so that new information can come to light.
(C) Audial and visual entertainment is a form of free speech and its creators should
be permitted to express themselves however they wish.
(D) One's appreciation of a genre is not necessarily undermined by inaccurate
accounts of real-world events.
(E) Those who create art, regardless of genre, should be afforded the freedom to tell
stories as they understand them.

2. Solar radiation is a leading cause of skin cancer. In Britain, skin cancer is more
common on the right side of the face than on the left. Some dermatologists
hypothesize that this difference is due to drivers in Britain being directly exposed to
solar radiation on the right side of the face more often than on the left since drivers
there sit on the right side of the car and have a window on their right.

In evaluating the hypothesis, it would be most useful to determine whether

(A) many people in Britain who have never driven a car develop skin cancer
(B) drivers in Britain spend more time driving during daylight hours than drivers
elsewhere
(C) people in Britain who rarely drive or ride in cars are as likely to have skin cancer
on the right side of the face as those who drive frequently
(D) most people in Britain who develop skin cancer and who drove prior to
developing skin cancer continue to drive after being diagnosed
(E) many drivers in Britain attempt to protect themselves from the harmful effects
of the sun while driving

3. A conservation group in the United States is trying to change the long-standing

image of bats as frightening creatures. The group contends that bats are feared and
persecuted solely because they are shy animals that are active only at night.

Which of the following, if true, would cast the most serious doubt on the accuracy
of the group’s contention?

(A) Bats are steadily losing natural roosting places such as caves and hollow trees
and are thus turning to more developed areas for roosting.
(B) Bats are the chief consumers of nocturnal insects and thus can help make their
hunting territory more pleasant for humans.
(C) Bats are regarded as frightening creatures not only in the United States but also
in Europe, Africa, and South America.
(D) Raccoons and owls are shy and active only at night; yet they are not generally
feared and persecuted.
(E) People know more about the behavior of other greatly feared animal species,
such as lions, alligators, and snakes, than they do about the behavior of bats.

4. A sudden increase in the production of elephant ivory artifacts on the

Mediterranean coast of North Africa occurred in the tenth century. Historians
explain this increase as the result of an area opening up as a new source of ivory
and argue on this basis that the important medieval trade between North Africa
and East Africa began at this period.

Each of following, if true, provides some support for the historians’ account
described above EXCEPT:

(A) In East Africa gold coins from Mediterranean North Africa have been found at a
tenth-century site but at no earlier sites.
(B) The many surviving letters of pre-tenth-century North African merchants
include no mention of business transactions involving East Africa.
(C) Excavations in East Africa reveal a tenth-century change in architectural style to
reflect North African patterns.
(D) Documents from Mediterranean Europe and North Africa that date back earlier
than the tenth century show knowledge of East African animals.
(E) East African carvings in a style characteristic of the tenth century depict
seagoing vessels very different from those used by local sailors but of a type
common in the Mediterranean.

5. Plant scientists have used genetic engineering on seeds to produce crop

plants that are highly resistant to insect damage. Unfortunately, the seeds
themselves are quite expensive, and the plants require more fertilizer and water to
grow well than normal ones. Accordingly, for most farmers the savings on
pesticides would not compensate for the higher seed costs and the cost of
additional fertilizer. However, since consumer demand for grains, fruits, and
vegetables grown without the use of pesticides continues to rise, the use of
genetically engineered seeds of this kind is likely to become widespread.

In the argument given, the two portions in boldface play which of the following
roles?

(A) The first supplies a context for the argument; the second is the argument's main
conclusion.
(B) The first introduces a development that the argument predicts will have a
certain outcome; the second is a state of affairs that, according to the argument,
contributes to bringing about that outcome.
(C) The first presents a development that the argument predicts will have a certain
outcome; the second acknowledges a consideration that tends to weigh against
that prediction.
(D) The first provides evidence to support a prediction that the argument seeks to
defend; the second is that prediction.
(E) The first and the second each provide evidence to support the argument's main
conclusion.

6. Politician: Hybrid cars use significantly less fuel per kilometer than nonhybrids.
And fuel produces air pollution, which contributes to a number of environmental
problems. Motorists can save money by driving cars that are more fuel efficient, and
they will be encouraged to drive hybrid cars if we make them aware of that fact.
Therefore, we can help reduce the total amount of pollution emitted by cars in this
country by highlighting this advantage of hybrid cars.

Which of the following, if true, would most indicate a vulnerability of the politician's
argument?

(A) People with more fuel-efficient cars typically drive more than do those with less
fuel-efficient cars.
(B) Not all air pollution originates from automobiles.
(C) Hybrid cars have already begun to gain popularity.
(D) Fuel-efficient alternatives to hybrid cars will likely become available in the
future.
(E) The future cost of gasoline and other fuel cannot be predicted with absolute
precision or certainty.

Puzzle

Read the passage and answer the questions (7-11)

A camp counselor is organizing a game among nine campers. Three of the
campers-F, G, and H-are eight year olds; the other six campers-J, K, M, 0, P, and
S-are nine year olds. Two teams-team 1 and team 2-will be organized. Team 1 will
have four campers; team 2 will have five campers. In assigning campers to teams,
the counselor observes the following restrictions:
● Team 1 must have exactly two of the eight-year-old campers.
● K must be on the same team as 0.
● F and J cannot be on either of the teams together.
● M and P cannot be on either of the teams together.
● If K is on the same team as P, then H must be on the team that does not
include K and P.

7. Which of the following is a possible assignment of campers to the two teams?

(Team 1/ Team 2)
(A) F, G, K, O/ H, J, M, P, S
(B) F, G, M, S/ H, J, K, 0, P
(C) F, H, J, M/ G, K, 0, P, S
(D) F, H, M, S/ G, J, K, 0, P
(E) F, K, P, S/ G, H, J, M, O

8. If S and O are on team 2, the campers assigned to team I could be:

(A) F, H, K, M
(B) G, H, J, K
(C) G, H, J, P
(D) G, H, K, M
(E) G, J, M, P

9. If H and K are on team 2, which of the following is a pair of campers who must be
on team I?
(A) F and M
(B) F and O
(C) F and P
(D) J and P
(E) M and S

10. If F, M, and S are on team 1, which of the following must be true?

(A) G is on team 2.
(B) H is on team 2.
(C) K is on team 1.
(D) 0 is on team 1.
(E) P is on team 1.

11. If G is on the same team as H, which of the following must be true?

(A) G is on the same team as J.
(B) M is on the same team as S.
(C) P is on the same team as S.
(D) F is not on the same team as M.
(E) J is not on the same team as P.

11. Each of the following is a pair of campers who can be on team I together,
EXCEPT:
(A) F and M
(B) G and H
(C) Hand P
(D) J and K
(E) J and M

Read the passage and answer the questions (12-14)

Five patients-L, M, N, 0, and .P-must be scheduled to undergo physical therapy

treatments within a seven-day period beginning on the first day of a month and
ending on the seventh day of the same month. Exactly one patient can be treated
per day. The schedule must accommodate the following conditions:

● L is to receive exactly two treatments; the second treatment must be

scheduled for the fourth day after the day of the first treatment.
● M is to receive exactly one treatment.
● N is to receive exactly one treatment, which must be scheduled for either the
day before or the day after the day of L's first treatment.
● O is to .receive exactly one treatment, which must be scheduled for a day
anytime before the day of L's second treatment.
● P is to receive exactly one treatment, which must be scheduled for the third
day after the day of M's treatment.
12. If N is scheduled for the day before the day of L's first treatment, the days for
which M's treatment can be scheduled include the
(A) first day and second day
(B) first day and fourth day
(C) second day and third day
(D) second day and fourth day
(E) third day and fourth day

13. If M is to be scheduled for the first day of the month, which of the foliowing pairs
of patients cannot be scheduled for consecutive days?
(A) Land P
(B) M and L
(C) M and N
(D) N and 0
(E) N and P

14. Which of the following is a possible schedule, including the open day for which
no patient is scheduled, from the first day through the seventh day of the month?
(A) L, M, N, 0, L, P, open day
(B) M, L, N, P, open day, L, 0
(C) N, L, M, 0, P, L, open day
(D) N, L, 0, M, open day, L, P
(E) Open day, L, M, 0, L, N, P

Data Sufficiency

15.

Greg and Brian are both at Point A (above). Starting at the same time, Greg drives
to point B while Brian drives to point C. Who arrives at his destination first?
(1) Greg's average speed is 2/3 that of Brian's.
(2) Brian's average speed is 20 miles per hour greater than Greg's.

16. Is xy > x^2*y^2?

(1) 14*x^2 = 3
(2) y^2 = 1

17. Jack wants to use a circular rug on his rectangular office floor to cover two small
circular stains, each less than π/100 square feet in area and each more than 3 feet
from the nearest wall. Can the rug be placed to cover both stains?

(1) Jack's rug covers an area of 9π square feet.

(2) The centers of the stains are less than 4 feet apart.

18. Mary and Nancy can each perform a certain task in m and n hours, respectively.
Is m<n?

(1) Twice the time it would take both Mary and Nancy to perform the task together,
each working at their respective constant rates, is greater than m.
(2) Twice the time it would take both Mary and Nancy to perform the task together,
each working at their respective constant rates, is less than n.

19. All the T-shirts a clothing store stocks are plain—and they are all in one of exactly
four colors: blue, green, red, and yellow. On any day, the store sells about twice as
many blue T-shirts as it does green T-shirts. Last week, did the store sell more blue
T-shirts than red T-shirts?

(1) Last week, the store sold fewer blue T-shirts than red T-shirts and green T-shirts
combined.
(2) Last week, the store sold more blue T-shirts than half the total number of red
T-shirts and yellow T-shirts combined.

20. Laura sells encyclopaedias, and her monthly income has two components, a
fixed component of $1000, and a variable component of $C for each set of
encyclopaedias that she sells in that month over a sales target of n sets, where n>0.
How much did she earn in March?

(1) If Laura had sold three fewer sets in March, her income for that month would
have been $600 lower than it was.
(2) If Laura had sold 10 sets of encyclopaedias in March, her income for that month
would have been over $4000.
Mathematics

1. A can build a wall in 10 days, working alone; B can build the same wall in 20 days,
working alone; and C can break the entire built wall in 8 days, working alone. The
three of them work alone on the wall on successive days, with A working on the first
day, B on the second day, and C on the third day, and the cycle then repeats. In how
many days will the wall be built for the first time?

(A) 102 days

(B) 104 days
(C) 112 days
(D) 120 days
(E) 124 days

2. As a bicycle salesperson, Norman earns a fixed salary of $20 per week plus $6 per
bicycle for the first 6 bicycles he sells, $12 per bicycle for the next 6 bicycles he sells,
and $18 per bicycle for every bicycle sold after first 12. This week, he earned more
than twice as much as he did last week. If he sold x bicycles last week and y bicycles
this week, which of the following statements must be true?

I. y>2x
II. y>x
III. y>3

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II
(D) II and III
(E) I, II, III

3. There are 1200 respondents to a survey, and the number of male respondents is
more than 600. Now if 10% of male respondents and 30% of female respondents
support a certain policy, then what is the range of the number of people who
support this policy?

(A) 116
(B) 118
(C) 120
(D) 122
(E) 124
4. Milk and cream are combined to make a 60-liter mixture that is 50 percent
butterfat. If the milk is 5 percent butterfat and the cream is 75 percent butterfat,
approximately how many liters of milk are in the mixture?

(A) 20.00
(B) 21.43
(C) 30.00
(D) 38.57
(E) 42.75

5. If the length of each of the sides of three square garden plots is increased by 50%,
by what percent is the sum of the areas of the three plots increased?

(A) 375%
(B) 200%
(C) 150%
(D) 125%
(E) 50%

6. Which of the following cannot be the least common multiple of two positive
integers x and y?

(A) xy
(B) x
(C) y
(D) x - y
(E) x + y

7. Four identical frat boys can drink a certain keg of beer in six hours. How many
additional frat boys would be needed to drink the same keg of beer in four hours?

(A) 4/3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 8

8. A corporation with 5,000,000 shares of publicly listed stock reported total

earnings of $7.20 per share for the first 9 months of operation. During the final
quarter, the number of publicly listed shares was increased to 10,000,000 shares,
and fourth quarter earnings were reported as $1.25 per share. What are the average
annual earnings per share based on the number of shares at the end of the year?
(A) 1.75
(B) 2.40
(C) 3.15
(D) 3.60
(E) 4.85

9. Dinesh and Rahim start their journey from P and Q respectively, at the same
time. They meet at a point R, reverse their directions, and interchange their speeds.
Dinesh took t hours more to reach back P than Rahim took to reach back Q. By
what percentage is the initial speed of Dinesh greater than the speed of Rahim if it
is known that the ratio of the time taken by Rahim to reach R to the time t is 3:8?

(A) 500
(B) 350
(C) 300
(D) 200
(E) 150

10. A certain cube floating in a bucket of water has between 80 and 85 percent of its
volume below the surface of the water. If between 12 and 16 cubic centimeters of
the cube's volume is above the surface of the water, then the length of a side of the
cube is approximately

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) 9

11. In Arun's opinion, his weight is greater than 65 kg but less than 72 kg. His brother
doesn’t agree with Arun, and he thinks that Arun's weight is greater than 60 kg but
less than 70 kg. His mother's view is that his weight cannot be greater than 68 kg. If
all of them are correct in their estimation, what is the average of different probable
weights of Arun?

(A) 67 kg.
(B) 68 kg.
(C) 69 kg.
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
12. Machine H produces a certain product at a constant rate of 3 dozen units per
hour, and machine K produces the same product at a constant rate of 4 dozen units
per hour. The two machines produced 77 dozen units during a 14-hour period, and
at least one of the two machines was working at any time in that period. What was
the least amount of time that the two machines could have worked simultaneously
in that period to complete the production of 77 dozen units?

(A) 7 hr
(B) 7 hr 30 min
(C) 8 hr 45 min
(D) 10 hr 15 min
(E) 11 hr

13. A 10-kilogram soil mixture containing 30 percent sand and 70 percent humus, by
weight, is thoroughly mixed together. In order to create a 10-kilogram mixture that
contains 50 percent of each component, approximately how many kilograms of the
soil mixture should be removed and replaced by pure sand?

(A) 2.0
(B) 2.9
(C) 3.4
(D) 4.0
(E) 5.0

14.
AB
+BA
-----------
AAC

In the correctly worked addition problem shown, where the sum of the two-digit
positive integers AB and BA is the three-digit integer AAC, and A, B, and C are
different digits, what is the units digit of the integer AAC?

(A) 9
(B) 6
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 0

15. If xy > 0 and yz < 0, which of the following must be negative?

(A) xyz
(B) xyz2
(C) xy2z
(D) xy2z2
(E) x2y2z2

16. A firm's annual revenue grows twice as fast as its costs. In 2007 it operated at a
$1000 loss, it broke even in 2008, and in 2009 its revenues were 44% higher than in
2007. If the firm's revenues and costs grew at a constant rate over this period, what
was its profit in 2009?

(A) 700
(B) 1000
(C) 1300
(D) 1600
(E) 2000

17. An hourglass is formed from two identical cones, one kept on top of the other.
When the upper cone is full of sand and the lower one is empty, it takes an hour for
the sand to flow, at a constant rate, from the upper cone to lower cone. How long
does it take for the depth of sand in the lower cone to be one third of the depth of
sand in the upper cone? (The volume of a cone is πr^2/h^3)

(A) 160/9 min

(B) 20 min
(C) 555/16 min
(D) 380/9 min
(E) 40 min

18. In its annual fest, a college, which has 510 students, is organizing three events.
The students were allowed to participate in any number of events they liked. While
viewing the statistics of the performance, the general secretary noticed:

I. The number of students who participated in at least two events was 52% more
than those who participated in exactly one event.
II. The number of students participating in 1, 2, or 3 events, respectively, was at least
equal to 1.
III. The number of students who did not participate in any of the three events was
the minimum possible integral value under these conditions.
What can be the maximum number of students who participated in exactly 3
games?

(A) 200
(B) 300
(C) 303
(D) 304
(E) 305

19. If 45% of z is 120% of y and y is 75% of x, what percent of x is z?

(A) 200
(B) 160
(C) 100
(D) 65
(E) 50

20. A customer who intends to purchase an appliance has three coupons, only one
of which may be used:

Coupon 1: 10% off the listed price if the listed price is at least $50

Coupon 2: $20 off the listed price if the listed price is at least $100

Coupon 3: 18% off the amount by which the listed price exceeds $100

For which of the following listed prices will coupon $1$ offer a greater price
reduction than either coupon $2$ or coupon $3$?

(A) $179.95
(B) $199.95
(C) $219.95
(D) $239.95
(E) $259.95

21.

A factory assembles Product X from

three components, A, B, and C. One of
each component is needed for each
Product X and all three components must be available when assembly of each
Product X starts. It takes two days to assemble one Product X. Assembly of each
Product X starts at the beginning of one day and is finished at the end of the next
day. The factory can work on at most five Product Xs at once. If components are
available each day as shown in the table above, what is the largest number of
Product Xs that can be assembled during the three days covered by the table?

(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 9
(E) 10

22. A man bought an article for Rs .600. He marks up the cost of the article and sells
it in such a way that if he gives a 46(2/3)% discount, then the loss occurring to him
will be equal to the profit earned by him if he were to give a 20% discount. Find the
marked price of the article.
(A) Rs.1500
(B) Rs.800
(C) Rs.900
(D) Rs.1200
(E) Rs.1800

23. A woman decided to walk down the escalator in a shopping mall. The woman
found that if she walks down 26 steps, then she requires 30 seconds to reach the
bottom. If she walks down 34 steps, then she requires only 18 seconds to get to the
bottom. Time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the
moment the woman steps off from the last step at the bottom. What is the height
of the escalator in steps?

(A) 42
(B) 46
(C) 54
(D) 60
(E) 102
24.

The shaded region in the figure above represents a rectangular frame with length
18 inches and width 15 inches. The frame encloses a rectangular picture that has the
same area as the frame itself. If the length and width of the picture have the same
ratio as the length and width of the frame, what is the length of the picture, in
inches?

(A) 9√2
(B) 3/2
(C) 9/√2
(D) 15(1− 1/√2)
(E) 9/2

25. Penniless Pete's piggy bank has no pennies in it, but it has 100 coins, all nickels,
dimes, and quarters, whose total value is $8.35. It does not necessarily contain coins
of all three types. What is the difference between the largest and smallest number
of dimes that could be in the bank?
(Dime= 10 cents; Nickel= 5 cents; Penny= 1 cent)

(A) 0
(B) 13
(C) 37
(D) 64
(E) 83

Written

1. Write an argumentative essay on this statement: “Integration of religion in the

politics of the Indian Subcontinent is inevitable.” 15
2. Write a paragraph on "Sleep.” 5
3. Translate the following paragraph to Bangla: 10
Because we have so deeply interiorized writing, we find it difficult to consider writing to
be an alien technology, as we commonly assume printing and the computer to be. Most
people are surprised to learn that essentially the same objections commonly urged
today against computers were urged by Plato in the Phaedrus, against writing.

Writing, Plato has Socrates say, is inhuman, pretending to establish outside the mind
what in reality can be only in the mind. Secondly, Plato‘s Socrates urges that writing
destroys memory. Those who use writing will become forgetful, relying on external
resources for what they lack in internal resources. Thirdly, a written text is basically
unresponsive, whereas real speech and thought always exist essentially in a context of
give-and-take between real persons.

Without writing, words as such have no visual presence, even when the objects they
represent are visual. Thus, for most literates, to think of words as totally disassociated
from writing is psychologically threatening, for literates‘ sense of control over language
is closely tied to the visual transformations of language. Writing makes ―words‖ appear
similar to things because we think of words as the visible marks signalling words to
decoders, and we have an inability to represent to our minds a heritage of verbally
organized materials except as some variant of writing. A literate person, asked to think
of the word nevertheless, will normally have some image of the spelled-out word and be
quite unable to think of the word without adverting to the lettering. Thus the thought
processes of functionally literate human beings do not grow out of simply natural
powers but out of these powers as structured by the technology of writing.