SHAHEEN GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS

Bidar (Head office)

Class: NEET LONG TERM Subject :PCB Marks:720 Date: 24-07-2023

01
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. Use of Electronic / Manual Calculator is prohibited.
Version
2. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.
Physics: Motion in a straight Line, Motion in a Plane upto Paralleogram law of vectors and it's applications
Chemistry: Classification of Elements & Periodicity in Properties Revision : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry.
Biology : Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom upto Gymnosperms, Animal Kingdom, Structural Organisation in
animals upto Muscular Tissue
PREPARED BY PROOF READING BY PREPARED BY PROOF READING BY PREPARED BY PROOF READING BY
PHY CHEM BIO
Mr. Srinivas Reddy Mr. Srinivas Reddy Mr.Chandramouli Mr. Chandramouli Mr. Nadeem (Director) Mr. Nadeem (Director)

1. Anaeroplane flies 400 m north and 300 m south and then flies 1200 m upwards then net
displacement is.
(a) 1200 m (b) 1300 m (c) 1400 m (d) 1500 m
2. One car moving on a straight road covers one third of the distance with 10 km/hr and the
rest with 30 km/hr. The average speed is.
2
(a)18 km/hr (b) 80 km/hr (c) 46 km/hr (d) 36 km/hr
3
3. A car runs at constant speed on a circular track of radius 10 m, taking 6.28s on each lap.
The average speed and average velocity after three complete laps is.
(a) Velocity 30 ms–1,speed 30 ms–1 (b) Velocity zero, speed 10 ms–1
(c) Velocity zero, speed zero (d) Velocity 10 ms–1, speed 30 ms
4. A wheel of radius 1 meter rolls forward half a revolution on a horizontal ground. The
magnitude of the displacement of the point of the wheel initially in contact with the
ground is
(a) 2π (b) 2π (c) 𝜋 2 + 4 (d) 𝜋
5. A drunkard is walking along a straight road. He takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps
backward, followed by 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward and so on. Each step is one
meter long and takes one second. There is a pit on the road 13 meter away from the
starting point then drunkard will fall into the pit after.
(a) 29 s (b) 21 s (c) 37 s (d) 31 s
th th
6. If a car covers 2/5 of the total distance with 𝑣1 speed and 3/5 distance with 𝑣2 then
average speed is.
5𝑣 𝑣 𝑣 +𝑣 2𝑣 𝑣 5𝑣 𝑣
(a) 1 2 (b) 1 2 (c) 1 2 (d) 1 2
2𝑣1 +3𝑣2 2 𝑣1 +𝑣2 3𝑣1 +2𝑣2
1 -1 1
7. A car covers part of total distance with a speed of 20 km hr and second part with a
3 3
1
speed of 30 km hr-1 and the last part with a speed of 60 km hr-1 then average speed of
3
car is
(a) 55 kmhr-1 (b) 30 kmhr-1 (c) 45 kmhr-1 (d) 37.3 kmhr-1
8. A bullet fired into a fixed target loses half of its velocity after penetrating 6 cm. How much
further it will penetrate before coming to rest assuming it faces constant resistance to motion?
(a) 1.5 cm (b) 1.0 cm (c) 3.0 cm (d) 2.0 cm
9. A particle experiences a constant acceleration for 30 sec after starting from rest. If it
travels a distance S1 in the first 10 sec and a distance S2 in the next 20 sec, then.
(a) S1 = S2/3 (b) S1 = S2/ 8 (c) S1 = S2/3 (d) S1 = S2/4
VERSION – 01 NEET LONG TERM (REPEATERS) Page 1 of 24
10. A car moving with a speed of 40 km/h can be stopped by applying brakes after 3 m. If the
same car is moving with a speed of 80 km/h, what is the minimum stopping distance.
(a) 8 m (b) 12 m (c) 4 m (d) 6 m
11. Two cars start off to race with velocities 5 m/s and 2m/s and travel in straight line with
uniform accelerations 1 m/s2 and 2m/s2 respectively. If they reach the final point at the
same instant, then the length of the path is
(a) 30 m (b) 48 m (c) 20 m (d) 24 m
2
12. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate of 8 m/s for some time. Then, it retards at a
constant rate of 4 m/s2 and comes to rest. If it remains in motion for 6 second, then the
maximum speed attained by the car is.
(a) 2 m/s (b) 6 m/s (c) 4 m/s (d) 16 m/s
13. A body A starts from rest with an acceleration a1. After 2 seconds, another body B starts
from rest with an acceleration a2. If they travel equal distances in the 5th second, after
the start of A, then the ratio a1:a2 is equal to.
(a) 5 : 9 (b) 5 : 7 (c) 9 : 5 (d) 9 : 7
14. A body A moves with a uniform acceleration ‘a’ and zero initial velocity. Another body B,
starts from the same point moves in the same direction with a constant velocity v. The two
bodies meet after a time t. The velocity of the body with acceleration when they meet will be
(a) 2𝑣 (b) 𝑣 (c)3𝑣 (d) 4𝑣
15. A body is moving with uniform acceleration describes 40 m in the first 5 sec and 60 m in
next 5 sec. Its initial velocity will be
(a) 4 m/s (b) 2.5 m/s (c) 6 m/s (d)11 m/s
16. A particle moves with uniform acceleration along a straight line AB. Its velocities at A and B
are 2 m/s and 14m/s respectively. M is the mid-point of AB. The particle takes t1 second to
go from A to M and t2 seconds to go from M to B. Then t2 : t1 is
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 3 : 1
3 2
17. Equation of displacement for any particle is 𝑆 = 3𝑡 − 7𝑡 + 14𝑡 + 8𝑚. Its acceleration at
time t=1 sec is.
(a) 10 m/s2 (b) 16 m/s2 (c) 25 m/s2 (d) 4 m/s2
18. The acceleration 'a' in m/s2 of a particle is given by 𝑎 = 3𝑡 2 + 2𝑡 + 2 where t is the
time. If the particle starts out with a velocity 𝑢 = 4𝑚/𝑠 at 𝑡 = 0, then the velocity of the
particle at the end of 2 second is.
(a) 12 m/s (b) 20 m/s (c) 27 m/s (d) 36 m/s
2 3
19. The position 𝑥 of a particle varies with time t as 𝑥 = 𝑎𝑡 − 𝑏𝑡 . The acceleration of the
particle will be zero at time 𝑡 equal to .
𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎
(a) (b) (c) (d)
𝑏 2𝑏 3𝑏 4𝑏
20. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in straight line and their positions
are represented by 𝑥𝑝 𝑡 = 𝑎𝑡 + 𝑏𝑡 2 and 𝑥𝑄 𝑡 = 𝑓𝑡 − 𝑡 2 . At what time do the cars
have the same velocity?
𝑎−𝑓 𝑎 +𝑓 𝑎+𝑓 𝑓−𝑎
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1+𝑏 2(𝑏−1) 2(1+𝑏) 2(1+𝑏)
21. The acceleration of a particle is increasing linearly with time t as bt. The particle starts
from origin with an initial velocity 𝑣0. The distance travelled by the particle in time t will be
1 1 1 1
(a) 𝑣0𝑡 + 𝑏𝑡2 (b) 𝑣0𝑡 + 𝑏𝑡 2 (c) 𝑣0𝑡 + 𝑏𝑡3 (d) 𝑣0𝑡 + 𝑏𝑡 3
3 2 6 3
22. The relation 3𝑡 = 3𝑥 + 6 describes the displacement of a particle in one dimentional
motion where 𝑥 is in meters and t in sec. Acceleration of the particle is.
(a) Zero (b) 2 m/s2 (c) 3 m/s2 (d) 6m/s2
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23. If the velocity of a particle is 𝑣 = 𝐴𝑡 + 𝐵𝑡 2 , where A and B are constants, then the distance
travelled by it between 1s and 2s is
3 7 𝐴 𝐵 3
(a) 𝐴 + 𝐵 (b) + (c) 𝐴 + 4𝐵 (d) 3𝐴 + 7𝐵
2 3 2 3 2
24. A particle of unit mass undergoes one dimensional motion such that its velocity varies
according to 𝑣 𝑥 = 𝛽𝑥 −2𝑛 , where 𝛽 and 𝑛 are constants and 𝑥 is the position of the
particle. The Acceleration of the particle as function of 𝑥, is given by
(a) −2𝛽𝑛𝑥 −2𝑛+1 (b) −2𝛽 2 𝑥 −4𝑛+1 (c) −2𝛽𝑛𝑥 −2𝑛−1 (d) −2𝛽 2 𝑛𝑥 −4𝑛−1
25. A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of water is h below the top of the well. If
v is velocity of sound, the time T after which the splash of sound heard is given by.
2𝑕 2𝑕 𝑕 2𝑕 𝑕 𝑕 2𝑕
(a) 𝑇 = (b) 𝑇 = + (c) 𝑇 = + (d) 𝑇 = +
𝑣 𝑔 𝑣 𝑣 𝑔 2𝑔 𝑣
26. When a ball is thrown up vertically with velocity Vo, it reaches a maximum height of 'h'. If
one wishes to quadraple the maximum height then the ball should be thrown with velocity.
(a) 3 Vo (b) 2Vo (c) 9Vo (d) 3/2Vo
27. Drops of water falls from the roof of a building 9m. High at regular intervals of time.
When the first drop reached the ground, at the same instant fourth drop starts to fall. At
the same instant , the distances of the second and third drops from the roof.
(a) 6 m and 1 m (b) 4 m and 3 m (c) 4 m and 1 m (d) 5 m and 2 m
𝑚
28. A ball is thrown vertically upward. It has a speed of 10 when it has reached half of its
𝑠𝑒𝑐
maximum height. How high does the ball rise from point of projection? (Take g=10m/s 2)
(a) 10 m (b) 5 m (c) 15 m (d) 20 m.
29. A body is released from the top of the tower of height H. It takes t time to reach the
𝑡
ground. Where is the body time after release.
2
𝐻 𝐻
(a) At meters from ground (b) At meters from ground
2 4
3𝐻 𝐻
(c) At meters from ground (d) At meters from the ground
4 6
30. A rocket is fired vertically from the ground. It moves upwards with a constant
acceleration 10 m/s2 after 30 sec the fuel is finished. After what time from the instant of
firing the rocket will attain the maximum height? g = 10 m/s2:-
(a)30 s (b) 45 s (c) 60 s (d)75 s
31. A ball is dropped on the floor from a height of 10 m. It rebounds to a height of 2.5 m. If
the ball is in contact with the floor for 0.01 sec, the average acceleration during contact is.
(a) 2100m/s2 downwards (b) 2100m/s2 upwards
(c) 1400m/s2 (d) 700m/s2
32. A body is released from a height and falls freely towards the earth. Another body is
released from the same height exactly one second later. The separation between the two
bodies, two seconds after the release of the second body is.
(a) 4.9m (b) 9.8m (c) 19.6m (d) 24.5m
33. A stone is dropped from a height 2h. Simultaneously, another stone is thrown up from the
ground which reaches a height 4h. The two stones will cross each other after time.
𝑕 𝑕
(a) (b) 8 𝑔𝑕 (c) 2 𝑔𝑕 (d)
8𝑔 2𝑔

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34. A body falls freely from rest. It covers as much distance in the last second of its motion as
covered in the first three seconds. The body has fallen for a time of.
(a) 3s (b) 5s (c) 7s (d) 9s
35. A parachutist after bailing out falls 50 m without friction. When parachute opens, it
decelerates at 2 m/s2. He reaches the ground with a speed of 6 m/s. At what height, did he
bail out? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(a) 293 m (b) 286 m (c) 91 m (d)182 m
36. A ball is projected upwards from the foot of a tower. The ball crosses the top of the tower
twice after an interval of 6 s and ball reaches the ground after 12 s. The height of the
tower is (g = 10 m/s2):
(a) 120 m (b) 135 m (c) 175 m (d) 240 m
37. The variation of velocity of a particle with time moving along a straight line is illustrated in
the following figure. The distance travelled by the particle in four seconds is.

(a) 60 m (b) 55 m (c) 25 m (d) 30 m

38. The 𝜐 − 𝑡 plot of a moving object is shown in the figure. The average velocity of the
object during the first 10 seconds is.

(a) zero (b) 2.5 ms–1 (c) 5 ms–1 (d) 2 ms–1

39. The graph shows the variation of velocity of a rocket with time. Then, the maximum
height attained by the rocket is

(a) 1.1 km (b) 5 km (c) 55 km (d) 110 km

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40. A particle starts rest. Its acceleration (a) versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The
maximum speed of the particle will be

(a) 110 m/s (b) 55 m/s (c) 550 m/s (d) 660 m/s
41. In figure shown, the graph shows the variation of acceleration of body with time t. The
velocity of the body at t = 0 is zero. The velocity of the body at t = 30 s is

(a) 30 m/s (b) 20 m/s (c) 40 m/s (d) none

42. The resultant of vectors 𝑂𝐴, 𝑂𝐵, 𝑂𝐶 as shown is

(a) 2r (b) 2𝑟 (c) r( 2 − 1) (d) r( 2 + 1)

43. Vector additon and substraction differs in
(a) commutative law (b) associative law
(c) magnitude and direction (d) All the above
𝑇
44. If Point-P is in equilibrium then 1 is
𝑇2

1
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d)
3
45. Two vectors are given by 𝑎 = −2𝑖 + 𝑗 − 3𝑘 and 𝑏 = 5𝑖 + 3𝑗 − 2𝑘. if 3𝑎 + 2𝑏 − 𝑐 = 0
then the vector 𝑐 is
(a) 4𝑖 − 9𝑗 + 13𝑘 (b) 9𝑖 + 4𝑗 + 13𝑘 (c) −4𝑖 + 9𝑗 + 13𝑘 (d) 4𝑖 + 9𝑗 − 13𝑘
46. The mass of a molecule of water is
(a) 3 × 10–25 kg (b) 3 × 10–26 kg (c) 1.5 × 10–26 kg (d) 2.5 × 10–26 kg
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47. With increase of temperature, which of these changes?
(a) Molality (b) Weight fraction of solute
(c) Molarity (d) Mole fraction
48. Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true
and F if it is false.
(i) Gay-Lussac’s law of gaseous volumes is actually the law of definite proportion by volume.
(ii) Law of conservation of mass is true for physical change, but not for chemical change.
(iii) The percentage of oxygen in H2O2 is different from that in H2O. Hence, it violates law
of definite proportions.
(iv) Fixed mass of A reacts with two different masses of B (say x and y), then the ratio of
x/y can be any positive integer.
(v) At STP, 5 mL of N2 and H2 have different no. of molecules.
(a) TTFTF (b) FTTFT (c) TFFTF (d) TFTTF
49. Assertion : The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason : The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of various
atoms present in a compound.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
50. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?
(a) 1.25 × 10–2 (b) 2.5 × 10–2 (c) 0.02 (d) 3.125 × 10–2
51. 1 c.c. N2O at NTP contains :
1.8 6.02
(a) × 1022 atoms (b) × 1023 molecules
224 22400
1.32 23
(c) × 10 electrons (d) All of the above
224
52. Liquid benzene (C6H6) burns in oxygen according to the equation 2C 6H6 (l) +15O2
(g) 12CO2 (g) + 6H2O(g). How many litres of O2 at STP are needed to complete the
combustion of 39 g of liquid benzene?(Mol. wt. of O2 = 32, C6H6 = 78)
(a) 74 L (b) 11.2 L (c) 22.4 L (d) 84 L
53. In the reaction
4NH3(g) + 5O2 (g)  4NO(g) + 6H2O(l)
When 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made to react to completion,
(a) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced (b) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced
(c) all the oxygen will be consumed (d) all the ammonia will be consumed
54. A 5 molar solution of H2SO4 is diluted from 1 litre to a volume of 10 litres, the normality of
the solution will be :
(a) 1N (b) 0.1N (c) 5N (d) 0.5N
–1
55. Number of atoms in 558.5 gram Fe (at. wt. of Fe = 55.85 g mol ) is
(a) twice that in 60 g carbon (b) 6.023 × 1022
(c) half that in 8 g He (d) 558.5 × 6.023 × 1023
56. Choose the correct option that represents the result of the given calculation to the
43.0 × 0.0243
appropriate number of significant figures:
0.340 ×4
(a) 0.768 (b) 0.77 (c) 0.76 (d) 0.7683
57. The law of triads is applicable to a group of
(a) Cl, Br, I (b) C, N, O (c) Na, K, Rb (d) H, O, N
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58. According to Newlands theory, when elements are arranged in the order of increasing
atomic weight which number element had similar properties to the first element.
(a) third (b) seventh (c) eighth (d) sixth
59. Modern periodic table is based on the atomic number of the elements. The experiment
which proved the significance of the atomic number was
(a) Mulliken’s oil drop experiment (b) Mosley’s work on X-ray spectra
(c) Bragg’s work on X-ray diffraction (d) Discovery of X-rays by Rontgen
60. The symbol and IUPAC name for the element with atomic number 120, respectively are
(a) Ubn and unbinilium (b) Ubn and unbiunium
(c) Ubn and unnibium (d) Ubn and unnilium
61. The long form of periodic table consists of
(a) seven periods and eight groups (b) seven periods and eighteen groups
(c) eight periods and eighteen groups (d) eighteen periods and eight groups
62. All the members in a group in long form of periodic table have the same
(a) valence (b) number of valence electrons
(c) chemical properties (d) All of the above
63. If the atomic number of an element is 33, it will be placed in the periodic table in the
(a) First group (b) Third group (c) Fifth group (d) Seventh group.
64. Which of the following is not an actinoid ?
(a) Curium (Z = 96) (b) Californium (Z = 98)
(c) Uranium (Z = 92) (d) Terbium (Z = 65)
65. The elements with atomic numbers 9, 17, 35, 53 and 85 belong to
(a) alkali metals (b) alkaline earth metals (c) halogens (d) noble gases
66. Which group of the periodic table contains coinage metal ?
(a) IIA (b) IB (c) IA (d) None of these
67. In the long form of the periodic table all the non-metals are placed in
(a) s-block (b) p-block (c) f-block (d) d-block
3– 2– –
68. In the ions P , S and Cl , the increasing order of size is
(a) Cl–, S2–, P3– (b) P3–, S2–, Cl– (c) S2–, Cl–, P3– (d) S2–, P3–, Cl–
69. Arrange S, P, As in order of increasing ionisation energy
(a) S < P < As (b) P < S < As (c) As < S < P (d) As < P < S
70. Consider the following changes
A  A+ + e– : E1 and A+  A2+ + e– : E2
The energy required to pull out the two electrons are E1 and E2 respectively. The correct
relationship between two energies would be
(a) E1 < E2 (b) E1 = E2 (c) E1 > E2 (d) E1  E2
71. Choose the correct coding for following statements. Here T stands for True and F stands for
False statement.
(i) Mendeleev left several gaps in his periodic table for the undiscovered elements.
(ii) The gap under aluminium and a gap under silicon was left and these elements were
called Eka aluminium and Eka silicon.
(iii) Germanium was placed in place of Eka-aluminium and gallium was placed in place of
Eka silicon.
(a) TTT (b) TFF (c) TTF (d) TFT

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72. Which of the following statement(s) about the modern periodic table is/are incorrect ?
(i) The elements in the modern periodic table are arranged on the basis of their
decreasing atomic number
(ii) The elements in the modern periodic table are arranged on the basis of their
increasing atomic masses
(iii) Isotopes are placed in adjoining group(s) in the periodic table
(iv) The elements in the modern periodic table are arranged on the basis of their increasing
atomic number
(a) (i) only (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (iv) only
73. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) The second period (n = 2) starts with lithium and third electron enters the 2s orbital. The
next element, beryllium has four electrons and has the electronic configuration 1s22s2.
From the next element boron, the 2p orbitals are filled with electrons when the L shell is
completed at neon (2s22p6). Thus there are 8 elements in the second period.
(ii) Successive filling of 3s and 3p orbitals gives rise to the third period of 8 elements from
sodium to argon.
(iii) The fourth period (n = 4) starts at potassium and the added electron fill up the first 4s
and 4p orbitals than 3d orbital is filled.
(iv) Fifth period begins with rubidium with the filling of 5s orbital and ends at xenon with
the filling up of the 5p orbital.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
74. Choose the correct codes for the following statements related to s-block elements. Here ‘T’
stands for true and F stands for false statement.
(i) They are all reactive metals with low ionization enthalpies.
(ii) Their metallic character and reactivity increase as we go down the group.
(iii) They are found in pure form in nature.
(iv) All the compounds of s-block elements are ionic in nature.
(a) TTFF (b) TTFT (c) TTTF (d) TFFF
75. Consider the following statements:
(i) Atomic radii decreases across a row of the periodic table when we move from left to right.
(ii) Atomic radii increases down the column as we move from top to bottom.
(iii) Although the order of elements is based on atomic numbers, vertical families share
similar chemical properties.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
76. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(i) Ionization enthalpy is expressed in units of kJmol–1.
(ii) Ionization enthalpy is always positive.
(iii) Second ionization enthalpy will be higher than the third ionization enthalpy.
(a) Only (ii) (b) Only (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) None of these

VERSION – 01 NEET LONG TERM (REPEATERS) Page 8 of 24

77. Match the columns.
Column-I Column-II
(Name of element) (Group of element)
(A) Nitrogen (p) 15
(B) Aluminium (q) 16
(C) Chlorine (r) 17
(D) Oxygen (s) 13
(E) Copper (t) 11
(a) A – (p), B – (s), C – (r), D – (q), E – (t)
(b) A – (s), B – (p). C – (r), D – (q), E – (t)
(c) A – (p), B–(s), C – (q), D – (r), E – (t)
(d) A – (p), B – (s), C – (r), D – (t), E – (q)
78. Match the columns.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Element with largest size in second period (p) Boron
(B) Element with smallest size in group 13 (q) Fluorine
(C) Element with maximum non-metallic character (r) Bromine
(D) Element with smallest size in fourth period (s) Lithium
(E) Element with most metallic character in group 14 (t) Lead
(a) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (t), E – (r) (b) A – (p), B – (s), C – (q), D – (r), E – (t)
(c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r), E – (t) (d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r), E – (t)
79. Assertion : According to Mendeleev, periodic properties of elements is a function of their
atomic number.
Reason : Atomic number is equal to the number of protons.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
80. Assertion : Second ionization enthalpy will be higher the first ionization enthalpy.
Reason: Ionization enthalpy is a quantitative measure of the tendency of an element to lose electron.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
81. An element has electronic configuration 1s22s22p63s23p4.
(a) Period = 3rd, block = p, group = 16 (b) Period = 5th, block = s, group = 1
(c) Period = 3rd, block = p, group = 10 (d) Period = 4th, block = d, group = 12
82. The correct sequence which shows decreasing order of the ionic radii of the elements is
(a) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2– (b) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > O2– > F–
(c) Na+ > F– > Mg2+ > O2– > Al3+ (d) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+
83. The van der Waal and covalent radii of fluorine atom respectively from the following figure are.

(a) 219pm, 72pm (b) 75pm, 72pm (c) 147pm, 72pm (d) 147pm, 144pm
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84. As we move across the second period from C to F ionisation enthalpy increases but the
trend from C to F for ionisation enthalpy is C < O < N < F why it is not C < N < O < F. This
is because
(a) atomic radii of O > atomic radii of N
(b) electronic configuration of N is more stable than electronic configuration of O
(c) atomic radii of N > atomic radii of O
(d) None of these
85. An element X belongs to fourth period and fifteenth group of the periodic table. Which one
of the following is true regarding the outer electronic configuration of X ? It has
(a) Partially filled d-orbitals and completely filled s-orbitals
(b) Completely filled s-orbital and completely filled p-orbitals
(c) Completely filled s-orbital and half-filled p-orbitals
(d) Half-filled d-robitals and completely filled s-orbitals
86. Assertion : Helium is placed in group 18 along with p-block elements.
Reason : It shows properties similar to p-block elements.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
87. Match the columns.
Column-I Column-II
(Name of element) (Period of element)
(A) Hydrogen (p) 3
(B) Sodium (q) 4
(C) Calcium (r) 6
(D) Barium (s) 1
(E) Iodine (t) 5
(a) A – (p), B – (s), C – (q), D – (r), E – (t) (b) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r), E – (t)
(c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r), E – (t) (d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (t), E – (r)
88. Which of the following is correct ?
(a) Isoelectronic ions have same nuclear charge
(b) Isoelectronic ions have same neutrons
(c) Isoelectronic ions have same number of electrons
(d) All are correct
89. f-block elements are called inner transition elements because
(a) they have properties similar to those of transition elements
(b) they exist in between transition elements
(c) the last electron enters into the f-orbital of the penultimate shell
(d) the last electron enters into any orbital of penultimate shell
90. Which of the following is the correct set of elements to Dobereiner’s triads ?
(a) Li Na K (b) Br Cl I (c) Fe Ni Co (d) Data insufficient
7 23 39 80 35.5 127 55.85 58.71 58.93

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91. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : Agar is one of the commercial products obtained from members of
phaeophyceae.
Statement-II : Major pigments chlorophyll a, d and phycoerythrin is found in the members
of phaeopyceae.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(b) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
92. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : The form and size of algae is highly variable, ranging from colonial forms
like Ulothrix and Spirogyra and to the filamentous forms like Volvox.
Statement-II : Aniosogamous type of reproduction is found in Eudorina.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(b) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
93. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : Most of the members of chlorophyceae have one or more storage bodies
called pyrenoids located in the chloroplasts.
Statement-II : Cell wall of members of rhodophyceae is made up of cellulose, pectin and
polysulphate esters.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(b) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
94. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : Mosses along with lichens are the first organisms to colonise rocks and hence
are of great ecological importance.
Statement-II : Gammae are unicellular, asexual buds which develop in small receptacles
called gemma cups located on the thalli.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(b) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
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95. Identify the correct set of statements :
(a) The main plant body of the bryophytes is haploid.
(b) In bryophytes, zygotes do not undergo reduction division immediately and they
produce a multicellular body called sporophyte.
(c) Bryophyte are amphibian of plant kingdom.
(d) Funaria, Polytrichum and Sphagnum are liverworts.
(e) In mosses rhizoids are unbranched and unicellular.
Choose the correct answer from options given below :
(a) (a), (b) and (c) only (b) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
(c) (d) and (e) only (d) (a), (b) and (d) only
96. Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R) .
Assertion (A) : Hydra and Auralia are classified as cnidaria.
Reason (R) : Hydra and Auralia have cnidoblast cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is the not correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(d) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
97. Identify the correct set of statements :
(a) Mollusca is a second largest phylum.
(b) In cartilagenons fishes skin is tough and contains minute placoid scales.
(c) Birds are poikilothermic animals.
(d) In osteichthyes, airbladder is present which regulate buoyancy.
(e) Pneumatic bones are present in birds.
Choose the correct answer from options given below :
(a) a and d only (b) b, c, d and e only (c) a, b, d and e only (d) b and c only
98. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : All chordates are vertebrates but all vertebrates are not chordates.
Statement-II : Sub phylum urochordata and cephalochordate are often referred as
protochordata.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(b) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(c) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
99. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : In cephalochordate notochord is persistent throughout their life.
Statement-II : Branchiostoma is an example of cephalochordata
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(b) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(c) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
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100. Given below are two statements –
Statement I : Bones have a solid and pliable ground substances rich in calcium salts and
collagen fibre.
Statement II : Most of cartilages in vertebrate embryos are replaced by bone in adults.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.
(a) Both statement – I and statement – II are incorrect.
(b) Statement – I is correct but statement – II is incorrect.
(c) Statement – I is incorrect but statement – II is correct.
(d) Both statement – I and statement – II are correct.
101. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : In urochordata notochord is persistent throughout their life.
Statement-II : Branchiostoma is an example of cephalochordata
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(b) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(c) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
102. Dikaryon formation is the characteristic feature of
(a) ascomycetes and basidiomycetes. (b) phycomycetes and basidiomycetes.
(c) ascomycetes and phycomycetes. (d) phycomycetes and zygomycetes.
103. Fungi are filamentous with the exception of "X" which is unicellular. Identify X.
(a) Yeast (b) Albugo (c) Mucor (d) Lichen
104. The bacteria which oxidize various inorganic substances and use the released energy for the
synthesis of food are called _______________.
(a) Archaebacteria (b) Heterotrophic bacteria
(c) Photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria (d) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
105. Which of the following pairs come under the group chrysophytes?
(a) Diatoms and Euglena (b) Euglena and Trypanosoma
(c) Diatoms and Desmids (d) Gonyaulax and Desmids
106. Which of the following is the smallest living cell and can live without oxygen?
(a) Mycoplasma (b) Mycorrhiza (c) Euglena (d) Trypanosoma
107. Which of the following pigment is present in cyanobacteria?
(a) Chlorophyll ‘a’ (b) Chlorophyll ‘b’
(c) Chlorophyll ‘c’ (d) Chlorophyll ‘d’
108. Bladderwort and Venus fly trap are examples of
(a) insectivorous plants (b) parasitic plants
(c) N2 – rich plants (d) aquatic plants
109. Which of the following is a parasitic fungi on the mustard plant?
(a) Albugo (b) Puccinia (c) Yeast (d) Ustilago
110. Which of the following statements is not correct for viruses?
(a) Viruses are obligate parasites.
(b) Viruses can multiply only when they are inside the living cells.
(c) Viruses cannot pass through bacterial filters.
(d) Viruses are made up of protein and DNA or RNA
(never both DNA and RNA).
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111. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) TMV has a double-stranded RNA molecule.
(b) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses.
(c) The bacteriophage has double-stranded DNA.
(d) Most animal viruses are DNA viruses.
112. Which of the following statement is/ are correct for bacteria?
(a) They are the members of the kingdom monera.
(b) They live in extreme habitats such as hot springs, deserts, snow and deep oceans.
(c) They show the most extensive metabolic diversity.
(d) All of the above
113. Which of the following class of fungi is being described by the given statements?
(i) They are found in aquatic habitats and on decaying wood in moist and damp places.
(ii) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic.
(iii) Asexual reproduction takes place by zoospores (motile) or by aplanospores (non-motile).
(iv) Some common examples are Mucor, Rhizopus and Albugo.
(a) Ascomycetes (b) Phycomycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes
114. The given statements are some characters of a particular group of Kingdom protista.
(i) Most of them are fresh water organisms found in standing water.
(ii) They have a protein rich layer (called pellicle) which makes their body flexible.
(iii) They have two flagella, a short and a long one.
(iv) Though they are photosynthetic in the presence of sunlight, but in the absence of
sunlight they behave like heterotrophs by predating on other smaller organisms.
Identify the correct group on the basis of these characters.
(a) Protozoans (b) Chrysophytes (c) Slime moulds (d) Euglenoids
115. Which of the following group of kingdom protista is being described in the statements
given below ?
(i) This group includes diatoms and golden algae.
(ii) They are microscopic and float passively in water currents (plankton).
(iii) Most of them are photosynthetic.
(iv) They have deposits in their habitat; this accumulation over billion of years is referred to
as ‘diatomaceous earth’.
(a) Dinoflagellates (b) Chrysophytes (c) Euglenoids (d) Slime moulds
116. Read the given statements and answer the question.
(i) It includes unicellular as well as multicellular fungi.
(ii) In multicellular forms, hyphae are branched and septate.
(iii) Conidiophore produces conidia (spores) exogenously in chain.
(iv) Sexual spores are ascospores produced endogenously in chain.
(v) Fruiting body is called ascocarp.
Identify the correct class of fungi which have all the above given characteristics.
(a) Phycomycetes (b) Sac fungi (c) Club fungi (d) Fungi imperfecti
117. T. O. Diener discovered a new infectious agent that was smaller than viruses and have the
following characteristics.
(i) It causes potato spindle tuber disease.
(ii) It has free RNA.
(iii) Molecular weight of RNA is low.
Identify the infections agent.
(a) Viruses (b) Viroids (c) Virion (d) Mycoplasma
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118. Consider the following statements with respect to characteristic features of the kingdom.
(i) In animalia, the mode of nutrition is autotrophic.
(ii) In monera, the nuclear membrane is present.
(iii) In protista, the cell type is prokaryotic.
(iv) In plantae, the cell wall is present.
Of the above statements, which one is correct ?
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only (c) (iii) only (d) (iv) only
119. Read the following statements and answer the question given below
(i) They are saprophytic protists.
(ii) Under suitable conditions, they form an aggregation (called plasmodium) which may
grow and spread over several feet.
(iii) During unfavourable conditions, the plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting
bodies bearing spores at their tips.
Which of the following class of protists is being described by the above statements ?
(a) Euglenoids (b) Dinoflagellates
(c) Slime moulds (d) Protozoans
120. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about class basidiomycetes ?
(i) They are commonly known as imperfect fungi because only the asexual or vegetative
phases of these fungi are known.
(ii) They grow in soil, on logs and tree stumps and in living plant bodies as parasites, e.g.,
rusts and smuts.
(iii) The mycelium is branched and septate.
(iv) Some common members are Agaricus, Ustilago and Puccinia.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these
121. Read the following statements and answer the question.
(i) Some members are saprophytes or parasites while a large number of them are
decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling.
(ii) They reproduce only by asexual spores known as conidia.
(iii) Mycelium is septate and branched.
(iv) Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma are examples of this class.
Which of the following class of fungi is being described by the above statements ?
(a) Phycomycetes (b) Deuteromycetes (c) Basidiomycetes (d) Ascomycetes
122. Match the class of fungi given in column-I with their common name given in column-II and
select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Class of fungi) (Common name)
A. Phycomycetes I. Sac fungi
B. Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi
C. Basidiomycetes III. Fungi imperfecti
D. Deuteromycetes IV. Club fungi
(a) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (b) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
(c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III (d) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I

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123. Match the terms given in column-I with their examples given in column-II and choose the
correct option
Column-I Column-II
(Terms) (Examples)
A. Ascus I. Nostoc
B. Basidium II. Penicillium
C. Protista III. Agaricus
D. Cyanobacteria IV. Euglena
E. Animalia V. Sponges
(a) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – I (b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – V, E – IV
(c) A – II, B – V, C – III, D – I, E – IV (d) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I, E – V
124. Match the class of fungi given in column I with their examples given in column II and
choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
(Class of fungi) (Examples)
A. Ascomycetes I. Rhizopus
B. Basidiomycetes II. Penicillium
C. Deuteromycetes III. Ustilago
D. Phycomycetes IV. Alternaria
(a) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II (b) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III (d) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
125. Identify the figures A, B and C given below.

(a) A – Euglena, B – Paramecium, C – Agaricus

(b) A – Euglena, B – Planaria, C – Agaricus
(c) A – Planaria, B – Paramecium, C – Agaricus
(d) A – Euglena, B – Paramecium, C – Aspergillus
126. Identify the basis of classification of fungi into phycomycetes, ascomycetes, basidiomycetes
and deuteromycetes.
i. Fruiting bodies ii. Nature of habitat
iii. Morphology of mycelium iv. Mode of spore formation
(a) i & ii only (b) ii & iii only (c) i, iii, & iv only (d) All of these
127. Refer to the statement and answer the question.
"Once the sexual stage of members of deuteromycetes were discovered, they were often
moved to X and Y." Identify X and Y.
(a) X - Monera ; Y – Protista (b) X - Basidiomycetes ; Y - Phycomycetes
(c) X - Ascomycetes ; Y – Basidiomycetes (d) X - Phycomycetes ; Y – Archaebacteria
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128. A scientist "X" demonstrated that extract of infected plants of "Y" could cause infection in
healthy plants and called the fluid as "Contagium vivum fluidum".
Identify X and Y.
X Y
(a) W. M. Stanley Potato
(b) M. W. Beijerinek Tobacco
(c) D. J. Ivanowsky Cauliflower
(d) Pasteur Tomato
129. The natural system of classification for flowering plants was given by
(a) Carolus Linnaeus (b) Bentham and Hooker
(c) Engler and Prantl (d) R. H. Whittaker
130. Phylogenetic classification system is based on the
(a) morphological characters of various organisms.
(b) anatomical characters of various organisms.
(c) physiological characters of various organisms.
(d) evolutionary relationships between the various organisms.
131. Cytological information like chromosome number, structure, behaviour are related with
(a) numerical taxonomy (b) cytotaxonomy
(c) chemotaxonomy (d) all of these
132. In class phaeophyceae, the plant body is usually attached to the substratum by a A and
has a stalk, the B and leaf like photosynthetic organ-the C .
(a) A – holdfast, B – stipe, C – frond (b) A – stipe, B – holdfast, C – frond
(c) A – frond, B – stipe, C – holdfast (d) A – stipe, B – frond, C – holdfast
133. What is the number and position of insertions of flagella in rhodopyceae class of algae ?
(a) 2 - 8, equal, apical (b) 2, unequal, lateral
(c) 2 - 6, equal, lateral (d) Flagella are absent in Rhodophyceae
134. In bryophytes, male and female sex organs are called ______ and ______ respectively.
(a) microsporangia; macrosporangia (b) male strobili; female strobili
(c) antheridia; archegonia (d) androecium; gynoecium
135. Laminaria (Kelp) and Fucus (Rock weed) are examples of
(a) green algae (b) brown algae (c) red algae (d) golden brown algae
136. Which of the following branch of science is being described by the given statements?
(i) It can easily done by using computers based on all observable characters.
(ii) Numbers and codes are assigned to all the characters and the data are then processed.
(iii) Each character is given equal weightage and at the same time hundred of characters can
be considered.
(a) Cytotaxonomy (b) Numerical taxonomy
(c) Chemotaxonomy (d) b-taxonomy
137. The following statements are associated with one class of algae. Identify the class of algae.
(i) One or more storage bodies called pyrenoids located in the chloroplasts are present in the
members of this class.
(ii) They have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of cellulose and an outer layer of pectose.
(iii) Asexual reproduction is by flagellated zoospores produced in zoosporangia.
(iv) Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Ulothrix, Spirogyra and Chara are commonly found members
of this class.
(a) Chlorophyceae (b) Rhodophyceae (c) Phaeophyceae (d) None of these
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138. Refer to the following statement(s) and identify the group of plant which is being described
by the given statements?
(i) They include various mosses and liverworts that are found commonly growing in moist
shaded areas in the hills.
(ii) They lack true roots, stem or leaves.
(iii) The main plant body is haploid.
(iv) They produce a multicellular body sporophyte which is not free living but attached to
the photosynthetic gametophyte and derives nourishment from it.
(a) Algae (b) Fungi
(c) Bryophytes (d) Pteridophytes
139. Which of the following group of plant is being described by the given statements ?
(i) The plant body is thalloid.
(ii) Asexual reproduction takes place by fragmentation of thalli, or by the formation of
specialized structures called gemmae.
(iii) The sporophyte is differentiated into a foot, seta and capsule.
(iv) They grow usually in moist and shady habitats.
(a) Liverworts (b) Moss (c) Fern (d) Gymnosperm
140. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Phaeophyceae I. Have an elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal
B. Rhodophyceae II. first terrestrial plant with vascular tissue-phloem and xylem
C. Mosses III. Asexual reproduction by biflagellate zoosposes
D. Pteridophytes IV. Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gracilaria
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
141. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(System of classification) (Characteristics)
A. Artificial system of classification I. Based on few morphological characters
B. Natural system of classification II. Based on evolutionary relationships
between the various organisms
C. Phylogenetic system III. Based on natural affinities among the
of classification organisms and consider external as well as
internal features.
(a) A – II; B – I; C – III (b) A – I; B – III; C – II
(c) A – III; B – II; C – I (d) A – I; B – II; C – III

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142. The given figures (A, B, C, D) represent the members algae. Identify the correct option for
the given diagrams.

S.No. A B C D
(a) Porphyra Fucus Dictyota Polysiphonia
(b) Polysiphonia Porphyra Dictyota Fucus
(c) Fucus Dictyota Porphyra Polysiphonia
(d) Porphyra Polysiphonia Fucus Dictyota
143. Which of the following possesses electric organs and belongs to class chondrichthyes?
(a) Torpedo (b) Petromyzon (c) Trygon (d) Exocoetus
144. Which of the following possesses poison sting and belongs to class chondrichthyes?
(a) Labeo (b) Myxine (c) Clarias (d) Trygon
145. Which of the following pairs of animals comprises ‘jawless fishes’?
(a) Mackerals and rohu (b) Lampreys and hag fishes
(c) Guppies and hag fishes (d) Lampreys and eels
146. In amphibians, respiration occurs through
(a) gills (b) lungs (c) skin (d) all of these
147. In amphibians, heart is ________ chambered.
(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) none of these
148. Which of the following is a poisonous snake?
(a) Naja (Cobra) (b) Bangarus (Krait) (c) Viper (Viper) (d) All of these
149. Heart is three - chambered in reptiles, except
(a) turtle (b) Chameleon (c) Naja (Cobra) (d) crocodile
150. Which of the following is a chordate feature and not shared by the non-chordates ?
(a) Metamerism (b) Axial organization
(c) Bilateral symmetry (d) Pharyngeal gill slits
151. Which of the following statements (i – v) are incorrect?
(i) Parapodia are lateral appendages in arthropods used for swimming.
(ii) Radula in molluscs are structures involved in excretion.
(iii) Aschelminthes are dioecious.
(iv) Echinoderm adults show radial symmetry.
(v) Ctenophorans are diploblastic.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (i), (iv) and (v) (d) (iii) and (v)
152. Which of the following phylum is being described by the given statements?
(i) They are bilaterally symmetrical,triploblastic, segmented and coelomate animals.
(ii) The body consists of head, thorax, abdomen and have jointed appendages.
(iii) Circulatory system is of open type.
(iv) Excretion takes place through malphigian tubules.
(a) Arthropoda (b) Annelida (c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata
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153. Which of the following characteristics is correct for reptilia?
(a) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal, they do
not have external ears.
(b) Body is covered with moist skin and is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a
tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca.
(c) Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton and air-bladder regulate buoyancy.
(d) Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton and body is covered with placoid scales.
154. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding class aves?
(i) The forelimbs are modified into wings and the hindlimbs generally have scales and are
modified for walking, swimming or clasping the tree branches.
(ii) Heart is completely four-chambered.
(iii) They are warm- blooded (homoiothermous) animals i.e., they are able to maintain a
constant body temperature.
(iv) They are oviparous and development is direct.
(a) Both (i) and (iii) (b) Both (i) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
155. Which one of the following categories of animals is correctly described with no single
exception in it?
(a) In chondrichthyes notochord is persistent throughout life.
(b) All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing.
(c) All sponges are marine.
(d) All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded
(poikilothermal).
156. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding phylum aschelminthes?
(i) The body is circular in cross-section hence the name roundworms.
(ii) Alimentary canal is complete with a well-developed muscular pharynx.
(iii) Sexes are separate (dioecious), i.e., males and females are distinct.
(iv) Nephridia help in osmoregulation and excretion.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
157. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding phylum mollusca?
(a) They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(b) Body is covered by a calcareous shell and is unsegmented with a distinct head, muscular
foot and visceral hump.
(c) The mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for feeding, called radula.
(d) All of the above
158. Which of the following class is being correctly described by given statements (i - iv)?
(i) All living members of this class are ectoparasites on some fishes.
(ii) They have a sucking and circular mouth without jaws.
(iii) Circulation is of closed type.
(iv) They are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water. After spawing, within a few
days they die.
(a) Cyclostomata (b) Chondrichthyes (c) Osteichthyes (d) Amphibia

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159. Which of the following class is being described by the given statements (i - iv)?
(i) They are found in a variety of habitats- polar icecaps, deserts, mountains, forests,
grasslands and dark caves.
(ii) Most unique mammalian characteristic is the presence of mammary glands by which the
young ones are nourished.
(iii) Heart is four-chambered.
(iv) Sexes are separate and fertilization is internal.
(a) Reptilia (b) Aves (c) Mammalia (d) Amphibia
160. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for class amphibia?
(i) Body is divisible into head and trunk.
(ii) Respiration is through gills only.
(iii) The heart is two chambered i.e. one auricle and one ventricle.
(iv) Fertilization is internal.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
161. Match the types of animals given in column I with their examples given in column II and
choose the correct option.
Column -I Column -II
(Types of animals) (Examples)
A. Limbless reptiles I. Whale
B. Jawless vertebrates II. Lamprey
C. Flightless bird III. Ichthyophis
D. Largest animal IV. Ostrich
E. Limbless amphibia V. Cobra
(a) A – II; B – V; C – IV; D – I; E – III (b) A – V; B – II; C – IV; D – I; E – III
(c) A – V; B – II; C – I; D – IV; E – III (d) A – V; B – IV; C – II; D – I; E – III
162. Match the characteristic feature/terms given in column I with the phylum to which they
belongs given in column II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Characteristic feature/term) (Phylum)
A. Choanocytes I. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidoblasts II. Ctenophora
C. Flame cells III. Porifera
D. Nephridia IV. Coelenterata
E. Comb plates V. Annelida
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – V; E – III (b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – III
(c) A – V; B – I; C – III; D – II; E – IV (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II
163. Column I contains zoological names of animals and column II contains their common
name. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column -I Column- II
A. Physalia I. Sea anemone
B. Meandrina II. Brain coral
C. Gorgonia III. Sea fan
D. Adamsia IV. Portuguese man-of-war
(a) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(c) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I (d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
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164. Match the phylum given in column - I with their example given in column - II and choose
the correct option.
Column -I Column- II
(Phylum) (Examples)
A. Echinodermata I. Ascidia, Doliolum
B. Hemichordata II. Asterias, Ophiura
C. Urochordata III. Branchiostoma
D. Cephalochordata IV. Balanoglossus, Saccoglossus
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III (b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I (d) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
165. Match the animal name (column-I), with its characteristics (column-II), and the phylum/ class
(column-III) to which it belongs.
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(a) Ichthyophis Terres trial Reptilia
(b) Limulus Body covered by chitinous exoskeleton Pisces
(c) Adamsia Radially symmetrical Porifera
(d) Petromyzon Ectoparasite Cyclos tomata
166. The given figures (A & B) shows the germinal layer.

The animals having structures shown in the figures are respectively called
(a) diploblastic, triploblastic (b) triploblastic, diploblastic
(c) diploblastic, diploblastic (d) triploblastic, triploblastic
167. Identify the figures and select the correct option.

(a) A - Pseudocoelomate; B - Coelomate, C-Acoelomate

(b) A - Coelomate, B - Pseudocoelomate, C- Acoelomate
(c) A - Coelomate; B- Acoelomate; C - Pseudocoelomate
(d) A - Coelomate; B- Acoelomate; C-Eucoelomate

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168. The given figure shows some characteristic features marked as chordates. Identify the
correct labelling A,B,C and D.

(a) A-Notochord; B-Post-anal part; C-Gill slits; D-Nerve cord

(b) A-Nerve cord; B-Notochord; C-Post-anal part; D-Gill slits
(c) A-Notochord; B-Nerve cord; C-Gill slits; D-Post-anal part
(d) A-Gill slits; B-Post-anal part; C-Nerve cord; Dnotochord
169. Refer the figures A, B and C and choose the correct option which shows animals that
regulate buoyancy with the help of air bladder.

(a) A and B (b) A and C (c) B and C (d) All of the above.
170. Which of the following belong to phylum arthropoda?
(a) Bombyx and Apis (b) Laccifer and Anopheles
(c) Locusta and Limulus (d) All of the above
171. Aquatic annelids (like Nereis) possess lateral appendages called ______________, which
help in swimming.
(a) visceral hump (b) parapodia (c) radula (d) spicules
172. Which of the following group of animals reproduces only by sexual means?
(a) Ctenophora (b) Cnidaria (c) Porifera (d) Protozoa
173. Which of the following is a living fossil?
(a) Balanoglossus (b) Echinus (c) Ancylostoma (d) Limulus
174. A file like rasping organ for feeding, called radula, present in the phylum __________.
(a) arthropoda (b) mollusca (c) echinodermata (d) chordata
175. In phylum echinodermata, the adult echinoderms are ______A_________ but larvae are
_______B______ .
(a) A – radially symmetrical; B – bilaterally symmetrical
(b) A – bilaterally symmetrical; B – radially symmetrical
(c) A – bilaterally symmetrical; B – asymmetrical
(d) A – metamerically segmented; B – asymmetrical
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176. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, an external ectoderm
and an internal endoderm, are called diploblastic animals.
(ii) Notochord is an ectodermally derived rod like structure formed on the ventral side
during embryonic development in some animals.
(iii) In some animals, the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm, instead, the mesoderm is
present as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm and such a body
cavity is called pseudocoelom.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii) (c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) All of these
177. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding phylum coelenterata?
(i) They are aquatic, mostly marine, sessile or freeswimming, radially symmetrical animals.
(ii) They have a central gastro-vascular cavity with a single opening called hypostome.
(iii) Digestion is extracellular and intracellular.
(iv) Examples are Sycon, Spongilla and Euspongia.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
178. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Platyhelminthes has incomplete digestive system.
(b) In coelenterates, the arrangement of cells is more complex.
(c) Nereis is monoecious but earthworms and leeches are dioecious.
(d) Simple and compound eyes are present in the animals of those phylum whose over two-
thirds of all named species on earth are arthropods.
179. Which of the following phylum is being described by the given statements?
(i) They are bilaterally symmetrical,triploblastic, segmented and coelomate animals.
(ii) They posses either setae or parapodia.
(iii) Circulatory system is of close type.
(iv) Excretion takes place through nephridia.
(a) Arthropoda (b) Annelida (c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata
180. Protonema and leafy stage are the predominant stage of the life cycle of
(a) moss (b) dicots (c) liverwort (d) gymnosperm

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