RBTS 10

ALL INDIA RANK BOOSTER TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23
RBTS-10
TEST-ID : 810
DURATION : 200 Minutes DATE : 11-04-2023 MARKS : 720
Topic Covered
Physics : Full Syllabus
Chemistry : Full Syllabus
Biology : Full Syllabus

(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:
• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________
All India RBTS–10 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 11-Apr.-2023
INSTRUCTION
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write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
• Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.
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and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
• No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
• The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
• The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
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• The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
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NLI / 2
TOPIC : Full Syllabus

SECTION-A SECTION-A
1. A thin convex lens of focal length 5cm, made of 1. 5cm, ( = 1.5)
glass ( = 1.5) is cut into two equal parts by cutting
it perpendicular to its axis. If its one part is dipped
 4  4
in water     , then find the focal length of this   3  ,
 3   
part in water :
(1) 20 cm (1) 20 cm
(2) 40 cm (2) 40 cm
(3) 30 cm (3) 30 cm
(4) 60 cm. (4) 60 cm.
2. The refractive index of a prism is 2 . If the angle 2. 2. 60o,

of prims is 60o, at what angle a ray must be incident
on it so that it suffers minimum deviation :
(1) 30o (1) 30o
(2) 45o (2) 45o
(3) 60o u te
(3) 60o
o
(4) 90 . s tit90 .
(4) o
3. The length of a telscope is 100 cm and 3. t In 100 cm

magnification is 19 for relaxed eye. The focalg h
lengths of objective and eye-lens are nearly : L
i 19
(1) 90 cm and 10 cm ew (1) 90 cm 10 cm
(2) 85 cm and 15 cm
N (2) 85 cm 15 cm
(3) 80 cm and 20 cm (3) 80 cm 20 cm
(4) 95 cm and 5 cm. (4) 95 cm 5 cm.
4. In a single slit diffraction experiment first minima 4. 1 = 6000Å

of  1 = 6000Å coincides with first maxima for 2 , 2
wavelength 2, then 2 is :
(1) 4000 Å (1) 4000 Å
(2) 5000 Å (2) 5000 Å
(3) 4800 Å (3) 4800 Å
(4) 5500 Å. (4) 5500 Å.
5. Light rays of wavelengths 6000 Å and of photon 5. 6000 Å 39.6

intensity 39.6 watt/m2 are incident on a metal
surface. If only one percent of photons incident
on the surface emit photoelectrons, then the
number of electrons emitted per second per unit
area from the surface will be : [Planck constant = = 6.64 × 10–34 J-
6.64 × 10–34 J-s; Velocity of light = 3 × 108 ms–1] : s) = 3 × 108 ms–1] :
(1) 12 × 1018 (2) 10 × 1018 (1) 12 × 1018 (2) 10 × 1018
(3) 12 × 1017 (4) 12 × 1015. (3) 12 × 1017 (4) 12 × 1015.
NLI / 3
6. What is the force exerted by a photon of intensity 6. 1.4
–2
1.4 kWm , if the falls on a perfect absorber of
radius 2 metre :
(1) 5.88 × 10–5 N (1) 5.88 × 10–5 N
(2) 108 N (2) 108 N
(3) 8.35 × 104 N (3) 8.35 × 104 N
(4) 8.8 × 10–8 N. (4) 8.8 × 10–8 N.
7. Figure shows the results of an experiment on 7.

photoelectric effect. The graphs A, B, C and D A, B, C D
relate to the light beam having different
wavelengths :
Current A
Current A B
B (i)
(i) C
C D
D
BA D C
+ Anode voltage (V) teB A D C
+ Anode voltage (V)
titu
(1) Beam B has highest frequency Ins(1) B
ht
(2) Beam C has longest wavelength
L ig (2) C
(3)
emission e w
Beam A has the highest rate of photoelectric (3) A
N (4)
(4) All of these
8. Mass of proton is 2000 times the mass of the 8. 2000

electron. The de Broglie wavelength associated 1Å
with both of them is 1 Å. Then ratio of K.E. of
electron to that of proton is:
(1) 1 : 1 (1) 1 : 1
(2) 2000 : 1 (2) 2000 : 1
(3) 1 : 20002 (3) 1 : 20002
(4) 1 : 100 (4) 1 : 100
9. The radius of a nucleus with atomic number 7 is 2 9. 7 2

fermi. The radius of the nucleus with atomic 189
number 189 is:
(1) 3
(1) 3 fermi
(2) 4
(2) 4 fermi
(3) 5
(3) 5 fermi
(4) 6 fermi. (4) 6 .
NLI / 4
10. How many different wavelengths may be observed 10.
in the spectrum from a hydrogen sample if the
4
atoms are excited to states with principal
quantum number 4 : :
(1) 6 (1) 6
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 12. (4) 12.
11. In the circuit, the forward resistance of each diode 11. 50 
is 50 and the reverse resistance of each diode is
infinite. Find the current through 20 ohm resistor : 20 
D1 30 D1 30
30 30
D2 D2
I I I I
10V 20 10V 20

(1) 0.2A (2) 0.4A
(1) 0.2A (2) 0.4A
(3) 0.3 A (4) 0.1 A.
u te (3) 0.3 A (4) 0.1 A.
12. Three rods A, B and C made of the same material 12. tit A, B C
and having the same cross-section have length n s
10 cm, 20cm and 10 cm respectively. Their ends t I
10 , 20
are at temperature 60 C, 60 C and 0 C as shwon.g h

o o 10
o 60oC,
Then the temperature of the junction D is : L
i 60 C 0C o o
D :
e w o
60 C
A
N o
A
60 C
C 10cm C 10cm
10cm D 0 C 10cm D
o o
0C B B
o
60oC 60 C
(1) 30oC (1) 30oC
(2) 36oC (2) 36oC
(3) 50oC (3) 50oC
(4) 40oC. (4) 40oC.
13. A process 1  2 using diatomic gas is shown on 13. 1  2

the P-V diagram below. P 2 = 2P 1 = 10 6 N/m 2, P-V P2 = 2P1 = 106 N/m2,
V2 = 4V1 = 0.4 m3. The molar heat capacity of the
gas in this process will be : V2 = 4V1 = 0.4 m3
P P
2 2
1 1
3 3
V V
(1) 35R/12 (2) 25R/13 (1) 35R/12 (2) 25R/13
(3) 35R/11 (4) 22R/7. (3) 35R/11 (4) 22R/7.
NLI / 5
14. Regarding a semiconductor which one of the 14.
following is wrong :
(1)
(1) There are no free elctrons at room temperature
(2) There are no free electrons at 0K (2) 0 K
(3) The number of free electrons increases with rise of (3)
temperature
(4)
(4) The charge carriers are electrons and holes.
15. If a ball of steel (density  = 7.8 g cm–3) attains a 15. (  = 7.8 g cm–3)
terminal velocity of 10 cm s–1 when falling in water 10 cm s–1 (
(Coefficient of viscosity water = 8.5 × 10–4 Pa. s),  = 8.5 × 10–4 Pa. s), ( = 1.2 g
then, its terminal velocity in glycerine ( = 1.2 g cm–3,  = 13.2 Pa. s)
cm–3,  = 13.2 Pa. s) would be, nearly :
(1) 6.25 × 10–4 cm s–1
(1) 6.25 × 10–4 cm s–1
(2) 6.45 × 10–4 cm s–1
(2) 6.45 × 10–4 cm s–1
(3) 1.5 × 10–5 cm s–1
(3) 1.5 × 10–5 cm s–1
(4) 1.6 × 10–4 cm s–1 (4) 1.6 × 10–4 cm s–1
16. A mercury drop of radius 1 cm is sprayed into 106 16. 1 cm 106

droplets of equal size. Calculate the energy 35 × 10–3
expanded if surface tension of mercury is 35 × 10–3 N/m :
N/m :
u te × 10
(1) 0.156 –3 J
(1) 0.156 × 10–3 J
s tit3.356 × 10
(2) –3 J
(2) 3.356 × 10–3 J
t In (3) 4.356 × 10 –3 J
gh (4) 3.560 × 10
(3) 4.356 × 10–3 J
(4) 3.560 × 10–3 J. Li –3 J.
17. The temperature of sun is measured by ew 17.

N
(1) Gas thermometer (1)
(2) Pyrometer (2)
(3) Platinum resistance thermometer (3)
(4) Thermo couple thermometer (4)
18. In young's interference experiment, if I0 be the 18. I0

intensity at the central bright fringe,  be the fringe  x
width then the intensity as the function of distance
x from the central bright frings is :
x
x (1) I=Io cos2  
(1) I=Io cos2    
 
 
  (2) I=Io cos2  
(2) I=Io cos2   x
x
     
(3) I = Io cos2   (3) I = Io cos2  
 x   x 
x  x 
(4) I = Io cos2   (4) I = Io cos2  
     
NLI / 6
19. Two open pipes A and B are sounded together such 19.
that 2 beats are heard. Now A is closed beat
frequencey is still 2. What is the ratio of length's of
pipe :
(1) 1 : 1
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 3 : 4
(2) 3 : 4
(3) 4 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 2 : 1
(4) 2 : 1
20. The displacement, y of a particle on a straight line 20. y = f (x,t),
is given by y = f (x,t), as a function of time. Which
of the following functions does not represent wave
motion : :
(1) Y= A sin (kx- t) (1) Y= A sin (kx- t)

(2) Y= A sin2 (kx- t)
(2) Y= A sin2 (kx- t)
(3) Y= A sin (k2x2- t2)
(3) Y= A sin (k2x2- 2t2)

 (4) Y= A sin (kx+ t+ )
(4) Y= A sin (kx+ t+ ) 10
10
21. E = 0.40 cos [2000t + 0.80]
21. The frequency of a cosine wave ; E = 0.40 cos
:
u te
tit1000  Hz
[2000t + 0.80] would be :
(1) 1000  Hz s(1)
t In (2) 2000 Hz
gh (3) 20 Hz
(2) 2000 Hz
(3) 20 Hz Li
(4) 1000/ Hz ew (4) 1000/ Hz
N
22. If escape velocity on the surface of a planet is Ve. 22. Ve
If planet shrinks such that its radius decreases to
1/4 th of present radius. Then acceleration due to
gravity on its surface is :
(1) 2Ve
(1) 2Ve
(2) Ve (2) Ve
(3) Ve/2 (3) Ve/2
(4) Ve/4. (4) Ve/4.

23. If a particle of mass m is moving on a straight line 23. m P-Q
P – Q with constant acceleration a. If particle is at a A,B
position A & B then about the origin magnitude of LA L B
angular momentum are LA & LB respectively :
P P
A A
B B
Q Q
O O
(1) LA = LB (2) LA > LB (1) LA = LB (2) LA > LB
(3) LA < LB (4) None of these
(3) LA < LB (4)
NLI / 7
24. Two spheres of mass M1 & M 2 are placed in air & 24. M1 , M 2
gravitational force between two masses is F. If a F
liquid is filled in space having specific gravity 5 5
around the masses the gravitational force is :
(1) F (1) F
(2) 5F (2) 5F
(3) F/5 (3) F/5
(4) 25 F (4) 25 F.
25. A helium nucleus makes a full rotation in a circle 25. 0.8

of radius 0.8 m in 2 s. The value of the magnetic
(0 = permitivity
field B at the centre of a circle will be ( 0 =
constant)
permitivity constant)
10 19
10 19 (1)
(1) 0
0
(2) 10–19 0
(2) 10–19 0
(3) 2 × 10–19 0
(3) 2 × 10–19 0
u te
2  10 19
s tit 2  10 19
(4)
 t In (4)  0
gh26.
0
26. A capacitor of capacitance 2F is charged to Lai 2F) 200 V

w
potential difference of 200 V. After disconnecting
Ne with
from the battery, it is connected in parallel
an another unchanged capacitor. The common 20 V
potential is 20 V. The capacitance of the second
capacitor is :
(1) 2F
(1) 2F
(2) 4F (2) 4F
(3) 18F (3) 18F
(4) 16F. (4) 16F
27. In the circuit shown, what is the potential different 27. A B :

across A and B :
20 V 20 V
A B A B
(1) 50 V (1) 50 V
(2) 30 V (2) 30 V
(3) 45 V (3) 45 V
(4) –20 V. (4) –20 V
NLI / 8
28. The potential gradient along the length of a 28. 10 V/
uniform wire is 10 V/m. The points A, B, C and D m A, B, C D B
are shown inthe figure below along with a scale C
in contact with the wire. The potential difference
between B and C will be : 8 cm
8 cm 4 cm 2 cm
4 cm 2 cm A B C D
A B C D
(1) 3 V
(1) 3 V (2) 0.4 V
(2) 0.4 V
(3) 0.2 V
(3) 0.2 V
(4) 4 V
(4) 4 V.
29. A +ve charge +q and –ve charge –q are placed at x 29. +q –q 'x = –a x = +a'
= –a and x = +a, respectively. Plot of variation of V
along the x-axis, which are correct :
u te
stit
(1) (2)
t In(1) (2)
igh
L
ew
N
(3) (4) (3) (4)
30. A battery of 3 cells each of emf of 2 volt and no 30. 2 v,

internal resistance is connected in a circuit as
shown. The reading of the ammeter ( of negligible
resistance ) when the key K is (a) open and (b) K (a) (b)
closed are :
(1) (a) 1.5A , (b) 1.5 A

(1) (a) 1.5A , (b) 1.5 A
(2) (a) 1.5 A , (b) 0.75 A
(2) (a) 1.5 A , (b) 0.75 A
(3) (a) 1.5 A , (b) 4/3 A
(3) (a) 1.5 A , (b) 4/3 A
(4) (a) 2 A , (b) 1 A
(4) (a) 2 A , (b) 1 A
NLI / 9
31. Two charges of equal magnitude q are situated at 31. q r
a distance r apart. One of the charges is moved
around the other charge at rest in a circle of radius
r. The amount of work done is :
r 2 r 2
(1) q × (1) q ×
4 4
(2) q × 2r (2) q × 2r
(3) Zero (3)
q2 q2
(4) (4)
r2 r2
32. A potentiometer wire of length 100 cm has a 32. 100 cm 10 
resistance of 10. It is connected in series with a
resistance and a cell of emf 2V and of negligible 2V
internal resistance. A source of emf of 10 millivolts
is balanced against a length of 40 cm of
potentiometer wire. The value of the resistance is
(1) 970 (1) 970

(2) 490 (2) 490
(3) 395 u te (3) 395
(4) 790 stit

(4) 790
n
33. tI
An electric dipole of dipole moment P and moment h33. P I
g
Li
of inertia I is made to oscillate with a small E
amplitude about its equilibrium position
ewin a
N
uniform electric field E. Then the frequency of
oscillation is : PE I
(1) 2 (2)
I PE
PE I
(1) 2 (2)
I PE
1 PE I
(3) (4) 2
1 PE I 2 I PE
(3) (4) 2
2 I PE
34. A non-conducting rod AB of length l has a total 34. AB l q
charge q. The rod is rotated about an axis passing
through its centre of mass with a constant angular
velocity  as shown in figure. The magnetic 
moment of the rod is :
ql2
ql2 (1)
(1) 2
2

 ql2
ql2 (2)
(2) 3
3
ql2 A B
ql2 A B (3) C
(3) C 24
24
ql2
ql2 (4)
(4) 6
6
NLI / 10
35. A long, straight, hollow conducting tube carries a 35. i
current i. The tube has the shape as shown in
P, Q R
figure. The magnetic field induction at P, Q and R
is B1, B2 and B3 respectively, then : B1 , B 2 B3
P P
Q Q
R R
Long hollow Long hollow
tube tube
(1) B1 > B2 > B3 (1) B1 > B2 > B3

(2) B1 = B2  B3 (2) B1 = B2  B3
(3) B1 = B2 = B3 (3) B1 = B2 = B3
(4) B1 < B2 < B3. (4) B1 < B2 < B3.
SECTION-B SECTION-B
36. Current versus time graph in a coil is shown in 36.
figure. Then the graph between induced emf and
time is given by :
u te i
i
stit
t In
t igh t
L
e ew e e
e
N
(1) (2) (1) (2)
t t t t
e e e e
(3) (4) (3) (4)

t t t t
37. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time 37. t x = t3 y = t3.
t are given by x = t3 and y = t3. The speed of the
particle at time t is given by :
(1)  2  2
(1)  2  2
(2) t 2  2  2 (2) t 2  2  2
(3) 3t  2  2 (3) 3t  2  2
(4) 3t 2  2  2 (4) 3t 2  2  2
NLI / 11
38. A body moves in a circular path of radius r = 500 38. r = 500 m
m with tangential acceleration a1 = 2 m/s2. When a1 = 2 m/s2
its tangential linear velocity is 30 m/s, the total
30 m/s,
acceleration will be :
(1) 5.4 m/s–2
(1) 5.4 m/s–2
(2) 3.9 ms–2 (2) 3.9 ms–2
(3) 2.7 ms–2 (3) 2.7 ms–2
(4) 2.1 ms–2. (4) 2.1 ms–2.
39. A body of mass m thrown vertically upwards 39. m h

attains a maximum height h. At what height will
its kinetic energy be 75% of its initial value :
75%
h
(1) h
3 (1)
3
h
(2) h
4 (2)
4
h h
(3)
5
u te
(3)
5
s tit
(4)
h
6 t In (4) h
g h 6
40. The momentum of a body in two perpendicular Li 40. t Px =

directions at any time ‘t’ are given by p = w
2t +6 2
N e x
3t 2
3t2
2t2 + 6 Py  3 t = 2 sec
and py = + 3 . The force acting on the body at 2
2
t = 2 sec, is :
(1) 5 units
(1) 5 units
(2) 2 units (2) 2 units
(3) 10 units (3) 10 unis
(4) None (4)
41. If there is change of angular momentum for J to 5 41. J J

J in 5 second . Then the torque is :
3J 3J
(1) (1)
5 5
4J 4J
(2) (2)
5 5
5J 5J
(3) (3)
4 4
(4) None of these
(4)
NLI / 12
42. A balloon is rising vertically up with a velocity of 42. 29

29 m/s. A stone is dropped from it & it reaches the
ground in 10 sec. Find height of balloon when the
stone was dropped. (g = 10 m/s2): (g = 10 ):
(1) 210 m (1) 210 m

(2) 440 m
(2) 440 m
(3) 180 m
(3) 180 m
(4) 325 m
(4) 325 m
43. A body falls from height h. The v-s graph is : 43. h
v v v v
(1) (2) (1) (2)
s s s s
v v v v
u te
tit
s
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
t In
s s
igh s s
L 44.
44. w
Two concentric circular coils, one of small radius r1
1
Ne are
r & the other of large radius r such r >>r
2
placed co-axially with centres concidning. the
2 1 r (r 2 2
>>r1 )
mutual inductance of arrangement will be :
0 r12 0 r22 0 r12 0 r22

(1) (2) (1) (2)
2r2 2r1 2r2 2r1
 r12  r22
 r12  r22 (3) (4)
(3) (4) 2 0 r2 2 0 r1
2 0 r2 2 0 r1
45. A 1m long metallic rod is rotated with an angular 45. 1

frequency of 400 rad/s about an axis normal to 400
the rod passing through its one end. The other
end of rod is in contact with a circular metallic 0.5
ring. A constant & uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T
parallel to axis exists every where. Find emf
developed between the centre & ring :
(1) – 10 V
(1) – 10 V
(2) 100V (2) 100V
(3) 50 V (3) 50 V
(4) 5V. (4) 5V.

NLI / 13
46. The rubber cord of a catapult is pulled back until 46.

its original length has been doubled. Assuming that 2
the cross-section of the cord is 2 mm square and mm 7
Y = 1 × 10 N/m 2
that Y for rubber is 1 × 107 N/m2 what is the tension :

in the cord :
(1) 20 N
(1) 20 N
(2) 40 N
(2) 40 N
(3) 74 N
(3) 74 N
(4) 60 N.
(4) 60 N.
47.
47. Which of the following is most elastic :
(1)
(1) Steel
(2) Plastic (2)
(3) Rubber (3)

(4) Mud ball (4)
48. The reciprocal of bulk modulus of a substance is 48.
called its :
(1)
(1) Modulus of elasticity
(2)
(2) Compressibility
u te
(3)it
(3) Rigidity
s t
(4) Viscosity
t In (4)
49. Solids are capable of : igh49.
L (1)
(1) Longitudinal strain only
ew
(2) Longitudinal and shearing strains N (2)
(3) Longitudinal, shearing and volume strains (3)
(4) Volume strain only. (4)
50. A wire can sustain the weight of 20 kg before 50. 20 kg

breaking. If the wire is cut into two equal parts,
each part can sustain a weight of : :
(1) 10 kg (1) 10 kg
(2) 20 kg (2) 20 kg
(3) 40 kg (3) 40 kg
(4) 80 kg. (4) 80 kg.
NLI / 14
Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197, Pb=207
SECTION-A SECTION-A
51. The order of degree of hydrolysis of M/10 solution 51. K2O(I), K2S (II), K2Se (III) K2Te (IV) M/10
of K2O(I), K2S (II), K2Se (III) and K2Te (IV) will be
:
(1) I > II > III > IV
(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) IV > III > II > I
(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) IV > II > I > III
(3) IV > II > I > III
(4) I > III > IV > II
(4) I > III > IV > II
52. For following equilibrium ; 52.
PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) and PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

N2O4(g)  2NO2(g), the degree of dissociation of N2O4(g)  2NO2(g), PCl5 N2 O 4
PCl5 and N2O4 is same. If the ratio of equilibrium
pressure is 36:1 respectively, the ratio of (KP )PCl5 to
(KP )N2O4 will be : 36:1 (KP )PCl5 (KP )N2O4
(1) 2 : 9
u te (1) 2 : 9
(2) 9 : 1 (2)it9 : 1
s t
(3) 36 : 1
t In 36 : 1
(3)
(4) 3 : 1
g h (4) 3 : 1
53. i
L 53.
Equal volume of which of the following solutions
w
will give the precipitate of ferric oxalatee(K of sp ( Ksp =1.0×10–7) :
ferric oxalate is 1.0×10 ) :–7 N
(1) M/10 FeCl3 M/10 Na2C2O4
(1) M/10 FeCl3 solution and M/10 Na2C2O4 solution
(2) M/15 FeCl3 M/15 Na2C2O4
(2) M/15 FeCl3 solution and M/15 Na2C2O4 solution
(3) M/20 FeCl3 solution and M/20 Na2C2O4 solution (3) M/20 FeCl3 M/20 Na2C2O4
(4) All of these (4)

54. A sealed tube which can withstand a pressure of 54. 3
3 atmosphere is filled with air at 270C and 760 mm 270C 760 mm
pressure. The temperature, at which the tube will
brust, will be :
(1) 3810C
(1) 3810C
(2) 6270C
(2) 6270C
(3) 4520C (3) 4520C
(4) 11730C (4) 11730C
55. Van der Waals’ real gas, act as an ideal gas, at 55.
which condition :
(1) High temperature, low pressure (1)
(2) Low temperature, high pressure (2)
(3) High temperature, high pressure (3)
(4) Low temperature, low pressure (4)
NLI / 15
56. In the heterogeneous equilibrium; 56.

+ 2–
Ag2CrO4(s)  2Ag (aq) + CrO (aq)
4 Ag2CrO4(s)  2Ag+(aq) + CrO42–(aq)
What will be the effect on the concentration of Ag+ CrO42–
CrO42– ion, upon doubling the concentration of Ag+
ion :
(1)
(1) reduced to half
(2)
(2) reduced to quarter
(3)
(3) increase to double
(4) remains unaffected (4)
57. The number of moles of hydroxide (OH–) ion in 57. 0.3 0.005 M, Ba(OH)2 (OH–)
0.3 litre of 0.005 M solution of Ba(OH)2 is :
(1) 0.0075 (1) 0.0075
(2) 0.0015 (2) 0.0015
(3) 0.003 (3) 0.003
(4) 0.0050 (4) 0.0050
te
58. The hydrogen phosphate of certain metal has 58. MHPO4
u
tit
formula MHPO4. The formula of metal chloride
would be :
s
(1) MCl t In (1) MCl
igh (2) MCl
(2) MCl2
L 2
(3) M2Cl3 ew (3) M2Cl3
(4) MCl3
N (4) MCl3
59. If ionisation potential for hydrogen atom is 13.6eV, 59. 13.6eV He+
then ionisation potential for He+ will be:
(1) 54.4 eV (1) 54.4 eV
(2) 6.8 eV (2) 6.8 eV
(3) 13.6 eV (3) 13.6 eV
(4) 24.5 eV. (4) 24.5 eV.
60. Change in enthalpy of reaction 60.
2H2O2(l)  2H2O(l) + O2(g) 2H2O(l)  2H2O(l) + O2(g)
If heat of formation of H2O2(l) and H2O(l) are –188 H2O2(l) H2O(l) –188
and–286 kJ/mol respectively : –286 kJ/mol
(1) –196 KJ/mol (1) –196 KJ/mol
(2) +196 KJ/mol (2) +196 KJ/mol
(3) +948 KJ/mol (3) +948 KJ/mol
(4) –948 KJ/mol (4) –948 KJ/mol
NLI / 16
61. During detection of phosphorous in an organic 61.
compound yellow precepitate are formed due to
formation of :
(1) (NH4)3PO4
(1) (NH4)3PO4
(2) (NH4)2MoO4
(2) (NH4)2MoO4
(3) MgNH4PO4
(3) MgNH4PO4
(4) (NH4)3PO4.12MoO3
(4) (NH4)3PO4.12MoO3
62. A compound with molecular formula, C7H16 shows 62. C7H16
optical isomerism, the compound will be :
(1) 2, 3-dimethylpentane (1) 2, 3-
(2) 2,2-dimethylpentane (2) 2,2-
(3) 2-methylhexane (3) 2-
(4) None of these (4)
63. Identify the set of reagent/reaction conditions 'X' 63. 'X'
and 'Y' in the following set of transformations : 'Y'
CH3  CH2  CH2Br  
X
 Pr oduct  
Y
 CH3  CH  CH3 CH3  CH2  CH2Br  
X
 Pr oduct  
Y
 CH3  CH  CH3
Br Br
0
te
(1) X=dilute aqueous NaOH, 20 C; (1) X= NaOH, 20 C; 0
u
tit
0
Y=HBr/acetic acid, 20 C Y=HBr/ , 200C
(2) X=concentrated alcoholic NaOH, 800C; s
Y=HBr/acetic acid, 200C t In Y=HBr/
(2) X= NaOH, 800C;
gh (3) X=
, 200C
(3) X=dilute aqueous NaOH, 200C;
Li NaOH, 200C;
Y=Br2/CHCl3, 00C
ew Y=Br2/CHCl3, 00C
(4) X=concentraed alcoholic NaOH, 800C; N (4) X= NaOH, 800C;
Y=Br2/CHCl3, 00C Y=Br2/CHCl3, 00C
64. Monomer of orlon is : 64.
(1) vinyl cynide (1)
(2) vinyl chloride (2)
(3) caprolactam (3)
(4) pthalic acid and glycol (4)
65. Among the following four structures I to IV 65. I IV
CH3 O CH3 CH3 O CH3

I. C 2H 5–CH–C 3H 7 II. CH 3–C–CH–C2H 5 I. C 2H 5–CH–C 3H 7 II. CH 3–C–CH–C2H 5
H CH3 H CH3
III. H–C + IV. C2H5–CH–C2H5 III. H–C + IV. C2H5–CH–C2H5
H H
It is true that :
(1) Only II and IV are chiral compouds (1) II IV
(2) All four are chiral compounds (2)
(3) Only I and II are chiral compounds (3) I II
(4) Only III is a chiral compound (4) III
NLI / 17
66. Among the following compounds, the optically 66.
active alkane having lowest molecular mass is :
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
CH3 CH3
(2) CH3–CH2–CH–CH3 (2) CH3–CH2–CH–CH3
H H
(3) CH3–C– (3) CH3–C–
C 2 H5 C2 H5
(4) CH3–CH2–C  CH (4) CH3–CH2–C  CH
67. IUPAC name of the compound 67.
CH3 CH3
CH3  O  CH  CH  CH2  CH3 CH3  O  CH  CH  CH2  CH3
CH3 CH3
(1) 2-Methoxy-3-methylpentane (1) 2- -3-
(2) 3-Methyl-2-methoxyhexane (2) 3- -2-
(3) 3-Methyl-4-methoxypentane
u te (3) 3- -4-
(4) 2-Methoxy hexane s tit2-
(4)
t In CH3
CH 3
h
68. –CH OH on dehydration with conc. H SOig
/ 68. –CH2 OH H2SO4/ 1600C
2
L 2 4
w
Ne
0
160 C predominantly forms :
CH3 CH3
(1) =CH2 (2) –CH3 (1) =CH2 (2) –CH3
CH3 CH3
(3) –CH3 (4) –CH3 (3) –CH3 (4) –CH3
69. Butylated hydroxy toluene (BHT) is : 69. (BHT)
(1) Antioxidant (1)
(2) Analegic (2)
(3) Antipyratic (3)

(4) Antibiotic (4)
70. An alcohol on oxidation is found to give CH3COOH 70. CH3COOH
and CH3CH2COOH. The structure of the alcohol is : CH3CH2COOH
(1) CH3CH2CH2OH
(1) CH3CH2CH2OH
(2) (CH3)2C(OH)CH2CH3
(2) (CH3)2C(OH)CH2CH3
(3) CH3(CH2)3CH2OH
(3) CH3(CH2)3CH2OH
(4) CH3–CHOH–CH2–CH2–CH3
(4) CH3–CHOH–CH2–CH2–CH3
NLI / 18
71. Which of the following compounds is most acidic : 71.
OH OH
(1) (1)
CHO CHO
OH OH
(2) (2)
CHO CHO
(3) HO CHO (3) HO CHO
CH2OH CH2OH
(4) (4)
72. Identify Z in the sequence 72. Z


 P2 O5
CH3COONH4   X 
 Y 
H2 O / H
Z 
CH3COONH4  P2 O5
 X   Y 
H2 O / H
Z

(1) CH3CH2CONH2 (1) CH3CH2CONH2

(2) Ch3CN
u te (2) Ch3CN
(3) CH COOH
3
s titCH COOH
(3) 3
(4) (CH CO) O t In (4) (CH CO) O

h
3 2 3 2
73. Aniline is a set of reaction yielded a product D ig 73. D

L
C H NH   A  B  C 
NaNO2 CuCN H2
ew D HNO2
C H NH   A  B  C  D
NaNO2 CuCN H2 HNO2
6 5 2 HCl
N
Ni 6 5 2 HCl Ni
The structure of the product D would be : (1) C6H5CH2OH

(1) C6H5CH2OH
(2) C6H5CH2NH2
(2) C6H5CH2NH2
(3) C6H5NHOH
(3) C6H5NHOH
(4) C6H5NHCH2CH3 (4) C6H5NHCH2CH3
 
74. CH3 CH  CH2 

H2 O / H
 A 
P.C.C
 B 
NH2NH2
C2H5 ONa
C 74. CH3 CH  CH2 
H2 O / H
 A 
P.C.C
 B 
NH2NH2
C2H5 ONa
C
Compound C is : C
(1) Aldoxime (1)
(2) Ethoxy propane (2)
(3) Propane (3)
(4) Propanol (4)
75. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy 75.
level of an atom :
(1) 32
(1) 32
(2) 8
(2) 8
(3) 4
(3) 4
(4) 16 (4) 16
NLI / 19
76. Which of the following have X–O–X linkage : 76. X–O–X
(X is the central atom) (X )
i. Cr2O7–2 ii. S2O3–2 i. Cr2O –2
ii. S2O3–2
7
iii. Pyrosilicate iv. Hyponitrous acid iii. iv.

(1) i, iii (1) i, iii
(2) iii, iv (2) iii, iv
(3) i, iii, iv (3) i, iii, iv
(4) i, ii (4) i, ii
77. Which is correct statement : 77.
As the s-character of a hybrid orbital decreases. s-
i. The bond angle decreases i.
ii. The bond strength increases ii.
iii. The bond length increases iii.
iv. Size of orbitals increases iv.
(1) i, iii, iv (1) i, iii, iv
(2) ii, iii, iv (2) ii, iii, iv
(3) i, ii (3) i, ii
(4) All are correct (4)
u te
tit
78. The screening effect of inner electrons on the 78.
nucleus causes : s
t In
gh
(1) A decrease in the ionization potential (1)
Li
(2) An increase in the ionization potential (2)
ew
(3) No effect on the ionization potential N (3)

79. Atomic weight and atomic number of an element 79. x 232
x is 232 and 90 respectivelly, then how many - 90 Y 208
-
82
and  -particles, which will be lost so that an
-
element 82Y208 is produced :
(1) 6 + 4
(1) 6 + 4
(2) 6 + 6
(2) 6 + 6
(3) 4 + 4
(3) 4 + 4
(4) 6 + 0
(4) 6 + zero
80. In which of the following pair of species, both the 80.

metals are in its maximum Oxidation state :
(1) CrO2Cl2, MnO4– (1) CrO2Cl2, MnO4–
(2) Fe3O4, MnO2 (2) Fe3O4, MnO2
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3–, MnO3 (3) [Fe(CN)6]3–, MnO3

NLI / 20
81. Match items of Column I with the items of Column 81. I II

II and assign the correct
Column I Column II I II
(A) Cyanide process (1) Ultrapure Ge A Ge
(B) Froth Floatation (2) Dressing of PbS
B PbS
Process
C Al
(C) Electrolytic reduction (3) Extraction of Al
D Au
(D) Zone refining (4) Extraction of Au
Ni
(5) Purification of Ni
Code :
1 A B C D
(1) A (4) B (2) C (3) D (1)
2 A B C D
(2) A (2) B (3) C (1) D (5)
(3) A (1) B (2) C (3) D (4)

3 A B C D
(4) A (3) B (4) C (5) D (1) 4 A B C D
82. Arrange the following in increasing order of 82.

u te
reactivity :
A.t
it
s
A. Nascent hydrogen
t In B.
B. Molecular Hydrogen igh C.
L
C. Atomic hydrogen
ew D.
D. Occluded hydrogen N
(1) A > C > D > B
(1) A > C > D > B
(2) C > D > A > B
(2) C > D > A > B
(3) B < D < A < C
(3) B < D < A < C
(4) A > D > C > B (4) A > D > C > B
83. The decreasing order of bond angle is : 83.
(1) NO2 > NO2+ > NO2– (1) NO2 > NO2+ > NO2–
(2) NO2– > NO2 > NO2+ (2) NO2– > NO2 > NO2+
(3) NO2+ > NO2 > NO2– (3) NO2+ > NO2 > NO2–
(4) NO2+ > NO2– > NO2. (4) NO2+ > NO2– > NO2.
84. Calculate the magnetic moment of a divalent ion 84.

in aqueous sotluion. If its atomic number is 25 :
(1) 3.92 BM (1) 3.92 BM

(2) 5.92 BM (2) 5.92 BM
(3) 2.92 BM (3) 2.92 BM
(4) 8.92 BM (4) 8.92 BM

NLI / 21
85. What should be the hybridisation of C in CO, CO 2 85. CO, CO2 C3 O 2 C

and C3O2 respectively :
(1) sp, sp2 sp3
(1) sp, sp2 and sp3
(2) sp, sp sp2
(2) sp, sp and sp2
(3) sp, sp and sp3 (3) sp, sp sp3
(4) sp, sp and sp (4) sp, sp sp
SECTION-B SECTION-B
86. Given that EFe3 |Fe  0.036 V, EFe2 |Fe  0.439 V ,

o o
86.
o
EFe 3
|Fe
 0.036 V, EFe
o
2
|Fe
 0.439 V ,
the value of standard electrode potental for the 3

Fe(aq) 2
 e  Fe(aq)
3 2
change Fe (aq)  e  Fe (aq) will be :
(1) 0.770 V (1) 0.770 V

(2) –0.270 V (2) –0.270 V
(3) –0.072 V (3) –0.072 V
(4) 0.385 V (4) 0.385 V
87. E1, E2 and E3 are the e.m.f. values of the three 87. E1, E2
galvanic cells respectively : E3
i. 2+ 2+
Zn|Zn (1 M) || Cu (0.1 M)|Cu i.u teZn|Zn2+(1 M) || Cu2+(0.1 M)|Cu
ii. Zn|Zn2+(1 M) || Cu2+(1 M)|Cu s tit
ii. Zn|Zn 2+
(1 M) || Cu2+(1 M)|Cu
iii. Zn|Zn2+(0.1 M) || Cu2+(1 M)|Cu t In iii. Zn|Zn 2+
(0.1 M) || Cu2+(1 M)|Cu
Which one of the following is true : igh
L
(1) E2 > E3 > E1 ew (1) E2 > E3 > E1
(2) E3 > E2 > E1
N
(2) E3 > E2 > E1
(3) E1 > E2 > E3 (3) E1 > E2 > E3
(4) E1 > E3 > E2 (4) E1 > E3 > E2
88. Find the weight ratio of WH2 : WO2 by electrolysis 88. H2O 4F
of H2O by passing 4F electricity : WH2 : WO2
(1) WH2 : WO2 = 1 : 8 (1) WH2 : WO2 = 1 : 8
(2) WH2 : WO2 = 1 : 2 (2) WH2 : WO2 = 1 : 2
(3) WH2 : WO2 = 2 : 1 (3) WH2 : WO2 = 2 : 1
(4) WH2 : WO2 = 8 : 1 (4) WH2 : WO2 = 8 : 1
89. Find the product of electrolysis at anode and at 89. NaCl

cathode evolve due to electrolysis of aquous NaCl
respectively: (1) H2 O2
(1) H2 gas at cathode, O2 gas at anode (2) H2 Cl2

(2) H2 gas at cathode, Cl2 gas at anode
(3) H2 Cl2
(3) H2 gas at anode, Cl2 gas at cathode
(4) H2 gas at anode, O2 gas at cathode (4) H2 O2
NLI / 22
90. A 5A current is passed through a solution of zinc 90. 5A 40
sulphate for 40 min. The amount of zinc deposited
at the cathode is :
(1) 40.65 g (1) 40.65 g
(2) 0.4065 g (2) 0.4065 g
(3) 4.065 g (3) 4.065 g
(4) 65.04 g (4) 65.04 g
91. Bond angle is minimum in : 91.
(1) H2O (1) H2O
(2) H2S (2) H2S
(3) H2Se (3) H2Se
(4) H2Te (4) H2Te
92. Which among the following option is correct for 92.
acidic nature of oxide :
(1) TeO3 < SeO3 < SO3 (1) TeO3 < SeO3 < SO3
(2) TeO2 > SeO2 > SO2 (2) TeO2 > SeO2 > SO2
(3) TeO2 > SeO2 > SO3 (3) TeO2 > SeO2 > SO3
(4) SO3 > TeO2 > SeO2 (4) SO3 > TeO2 > SeO2
93. Bromine is obtained on commercial scale from 93.
u te (Commercial scale)
(1) Caliche
s tit
(1)
(2) Carnellite
t In (2)
(3) Common salt
igh (3)
(4) Cryolite L (4)
94. Among the fluorides below, the one which does ew 94.
not exist is N
(1) XeF4
(1) XeF4
(2) HeF4
(2) HeF4
(3) SF4 (3) SF4
(4) CF4 (4) CF4

95. Which of the following process is not feasible 95.
spontaneously :
(1) F2 + H2O  HF + O2
(1) F2 + H2O  HF + O2
(2) Cl2 + H2O  HCl + HOCI
(2) Cl2 + H2O  HCl + HOCI
(3) Br2 + H2O  HBr + HOBr (3) Br2 + H2O  HBr + HOBr
(4) I2 + H2O  HI + HO (4) I2 + H2O  HI + HO

96. Select inter halogen compound which is/are not 96.
exist :
i. IF3 ii. CIF7
i. IF3 ii. CIF7
iii. CIF3 iv. BrF4
iii. CIF3 iv. BrF4
(1) i iii
(1) i and iii
(2) ii and iv (2) ii iv
(3) ii only (3) ii
(4) ii and iii (4) ii iii

NLI / 23
97. The correct sequence of enzymes which are used 97.

in the formation of alcohol from starch are :
(1) Diastase, Zymase, Maltase (1) , ,
(2) Zymase, Diastase, Maltase (2) , ,

(3) Maltase, Diastase, Zymase (3) , ,
(4) Diastase, Maltase, Zymase (4) , ,
98. Identify the product Z in the following sequence 98. Z
of reactions : OH 
H3 O
OH 
NaOH
 X 
CO2
4  7 atm
 Y  Z

H3 O

NaOH
 X 
CO2
4  7 atm
 Y  Z 4 to K
4 to K
(1)
(1) Aspirin
(2)
(2) Salicylaldehyde
(3)
(3) Benzoic acid
(4) Salicylic acid (4)
99. When CH3MgI is made to react with acetone and 99. CH3MgI
formed product is hydrolised we get :
(1) Primary alcohol (1)
u te
(2) Secondary alcohol s tit
(2)
t In (3)
gh (4)
(3) tertiary alcohol
(4) an aldehyde Li
ew
100. Ethanol  X  Y  Z
PBr Alc.KOH (i)H SO ,room temperature
100. Consider the following reaction,
N
3 2 4
(ii)H2O, heat
Ethanol 
PBr3
 X 
Alc.KOH
 Y 
(i)H2 SO4 ,room temperature
(ii)H2O, heat
Z
Z
The product Z is :
(1) CH2=CH2
(1) CH2=CH2
(2) CH3CH2–O–CH2CH3
(2) CH3CH2–O–CH2CH3
(3) CH3CH2–O–SO3H
(3) CH3CH2–O–SO3H
(4) CH3CH2OH (4) CH3CH2OH
NLI / 24
PART–1–[SECTION–A] PART–1–[SECTION–A]
101. Given below are two statements : 101.
Statement I : -I:
DNA strand which has the polarity (5'  3') and the 5'  3'
sequence same as RNA (except thymine at the place
of uracil), is displaced during transcription.
Statement II :
In transcription strand that has the polarity 3' - 5' acts - II :
as a template, and is also referred to as template 3'  5'
strand.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct. (4) I II
102. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 102. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
(R)
Assertion (A)
u te (A) :
In long DNA molecules, the two strands of DNA cannot
stit
be separated in its entire length.
t In
Reason (R)
g h (R) :
Li
Due to very high energy requirement replication occur
wto as
within a small opening of the DNA helix, referred
e
replication fork. N
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) (1) A R R, A
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (2) A R
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (3) A R
explanation of (A) (4) A R R, A
103. Given below are two statements : 103.
Statement I : -I:
Whales, bats, Cheetah and human (all mammals)
share similarities in the pattern of bones of forelimbs
Statement II :
these structures are homologous. Homology indicates - II :
common ancestry.
correct answer from the options given below
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct. (4) I II
NLI / 25
104. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 104. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R)
(A) :
Assertion (A)
Disturbance in genetic equilibrium, or Hardy- Weinberg

equilibrium, i.e.,. change of frequency of alleles in a
population would then be interpreted as resulting in
evolution.
(R) :
Reason (R)
Microbial experiments show that pre-existing

advantageous mutations when selected will result in
observation of new phenotypes.

correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) A R R, A
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (2) A R

(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
u te
(3) A R
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
s tit
explanation of (A)
t In (4) A R R, A
105. Systema Naturae was written by :

igh105.
L
(1) Linnaeus
e w (1)
N
(2) Aristotle (2)
(3) Mayr (3)
(4) Lamark (4)
106. Match column I with column II and select the 106. I II

correct option :
Column I Column II I II
a. Panthera i. Mango a. i.
b. Solanum ii. Man b. ii.
c. Homo iii. Makoi c. iii.

d. Mangifera iv. Leopard
d. iv.
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
NLI / 26
107. Identify the organism and tell which type of 107.
nutrition is found in it:
(1) Heterotrophic (1)

(2) Autotrophic (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
108. Mycorrhiza is : 108.
(1) Symbiotic association of a soil fungus and roots of
higher plants (1)
(2) Parasitic association between a fungus and roots
of seed plants (2)
(3) Saprophytic association between a fungus and root
of seed plants (3)
(4) Symbiotic association between an alga and root of

(4)
seed plants.
u te
109. Which among the following was not a character 109. it
considered for classifying fungi : s t
(1) The type of mycellium t In
g h (1)
(2) The type of spore Li (2)
(3) The type of fruiting bodies ew (3)
N
(4) The type of stored food store (4)
110. Which of the following acts as hydrocolloids 110.
(1) CaCO3 (2) Algin (1) CaCO3 (2)
(3) Carageen (4) Both 2 and 3 (3) (4) 2 3
111. Female gametophyte in pinus is 111.
(1) unicellular (1)
(2) multicellular (2)
(3) bears 2 or more archegonia (3)
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) 2 3
112. In Oogamous type of sexual reproduction, which 112.
statements are correct regarding to male and
female gametes:
(a)
(a) male gamete is small and motile
(b) male gamete is large and motile (b)
(c) female gamete is small and non motile (c)

(d) female gamete is large and non-motile (d)
(1) both a and c (2) both a and d (1) a c (2) a d
(3) both b and c (4) both b and d (3) b c (4) b d
NLI / 27
113. Which is correct regarding Obelia : 113.
(1) Polyp produces medusae asexually (1)
(2) Medusae produce polyp asexually (2)
(3) Canal system (3)
(4) Presence of choanocytes (4)

114. A phylum, which is exclusively marine and larvae 114.
having bilateral symmetry is :
(1)
(1) Mollusca
(2)
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Arthropoda (3)
(4) Ctenophora. (4)
115. Match the following 115.

a. Polyadelphous i. Brinjal a. i.
b. Epipetalous ii. Citrus b. ii.
c. Epiphyllous iii. Lily
c. iii.
d. Perigynous iv. Peach
d.
u te iv.
tita-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(1)
s
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
t In (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
igh (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i L (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
116. The technical term used for the androecium in aew
flower of China rose is :
N 116.
(1)
(1) Polyadelphous
(2)
(2) Monoadelphous
(3) Diadelphous (3)
(4) Polyandrous (4)
117. Which of the following family has tricarpellary, 117.

syncarpous, ovary superior with many ovules and
axile placentation :
(1)
(1) Liliaceae
(2)
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Fabaceae (3)

118. Variation in the length of filaments with in a flower 118.
as in:
(1)
(1) Salvia
(2)
(2) Mustard
(3) Citrus (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2

NLI / 28
119. Match the following column l and column ll : 119. l ll :

a. Marginal i. Pea a. i.
b. Axil ii. Lemon
b. ii.
c. Parietal iii. Argemon
c. iii.
d. Free - central iv. Primrose
d. iv.
e. Basal v. Marigold
e. v.
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
(2) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i (2) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii, e-v (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii, e-v
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iv (4) a-iii, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iv
120. Lenticels are present in : 120.
(1) All woody trees (1)
(2) Most woody trees (2)
(3) Some woody trees (3)
(4) Taller woody trees (4)
121. Examples of lateral meristem 121.

u te
(1) Fascicular vascular cambium s tit
(1)
t In (2)
gh (3)
(2) Interfascicular cambium
(3) Cork-cambium Li
(4) All of these ew (4)
N
122. Xylem & phloem arranged in an alternate manner 122.
on different radii, the arrangement is called
(1) Radial (1)
(2) Conjoint (2)
(3) Both of these (3)
(4) Conjuctive (4)
123. How many teeth are present in gizzard of 123.

cockroach:
(1) 6
(1) 6
(2) 7
(2) 7
(3) 8
(3) 8
(4) 9 (4) 9
124. Wall of artery contain which type of muscle : 124.
(1) Striated muscle (1)
(2) Voluntary muscle (2)
(3) Smooth muscle (3)
(4) Skeletol muscle (4)

NLI / 29
125. Which one of the following cell organelle has its 125.
own DNA :
(1) ER (1)
(2) Mitochondria (2)
(3) Dictyosome (3)
(4) Lysosome (4)

126. In cyanobacteria like Nostoc and Anabane there 126.
are pigment containing structure, can you tell what
are those :
(1)
(1) Anthophore
(2) Chromatophore (2)
(3) Chromoplast (3)
(4) Chloroplast. (4)

127. Centrosome contains centrioles, which are made 127.
up of:
(1)
(1) Lignin
(2)
(2) Pectin
(3) Suberin
u te (3)
(4)it
(4) Tubulin protein
s t
In
128. Many bacteria have small circular DNA outside 128.
the genomic DNA. These smaller DNA are called t
as: igh
(1) Genomic DNA
L (1)
w
(2) snDNA Ne (2) snDNA
(3) Plasmid (3)

(4) siDNA. (4) siDNA.
129. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and 129.
glycolipids is :
(1)
(1) Lysosome
(2)
(2) Vacuole
(3) Golgi apparatus (3)
(4) Plastid (4)

130. Match the following 130.
(i) Protein a. 3% (i) a. 3%
(ii) Lipid b. 2% (ii) b. 2%
(iii) Carbohydrates c. 1%
(iii) c. 1%
(iv) Nucleic acid d. 10-15%
(iv) d. 10-15%
(v) Ions e. 5-7%
(v) e. 5-7%
(1) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-e, v-c
(1) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-e, v-c
(2) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-e, v-c
(2) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-e, v-c
(3) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-e, v-c
(3) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-e, v-c
(4) i-d, ii-e, iii-a, iv-b, v-c (4) i-d, ii-e, iii-a, iv-b, v-c
NLI / 30
131. Quaternary structure is present in : 131.
(1) Histone (1)
(2) Haemoglobin (2)
(3) Globulin (3)
(4) Potassium. (4)
132. Which of the following statement is incorrect : 132.
(1) Plant cytokinesis usually occurs by cell plate (1)

method
(2) The spindle formation starts in prophase (2)
(3) Cell plate formation starts from sides of cell (3)
(4) The new nuclear membrane is formed in telophase (4)
133. In oocytes of some vertebrates which stage can 133.

last for months or years
(1) Diplontene (1)
(2) Pachytene (2)

u te
tit
(3) Diakinesis (3)
s
(4) None of these
t In (4)
igh
L
ew
N
134. 134.
Which among the following statement is true with

respect to the above shown figure :
(1)
(1) Centromere splits and chromatids separates
(2) Nuclear envelope reappears (2)
(3) Bivalents are formed (3)
(4) Centromere does not splits but the chromatids
separate. (4)
135. Diffusion rate is affected by 135.
(1) Gradient of concentration (1)
(2) Permeability of the membrane (2)
(3) Temperature & pressure (3)
(4) All (4)

NLI / 31
PART–1–[SECTION–B] PART–1–[SECTION–B]
136. Uphill transport is a property, which is found in 136.
the process of :
(1)
(1) Simple diffusion
(2)
(2) Facilitated transport
(3) Active transport (3)
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) (2)

+
137. NH3 synthesized in plants is converted into NH4 , 137. NH4+
NH4+ is further converted into : NH4+
(1) N2 (2) NO3 (1) N2 (2) NO3
(3) Aminoacids (4) All of these (3) (4)
138. Solution culture is related with : 138.
(1) Nutrient solution (1)
(2) Hydroponics (2)
(3) Soil less culture (3)
(4) All of the above (4)
139. Which of the following is true for plasmodium 139.
u te
a. During unfavourable conditions the a.tit
plasmodium differentiates and form fruiting s
bodies t In
b. The spores possess true walls igh b.
L c.
c. w
Spores of plasmodium are extremely resistant
and survive for many years Ne
d. The spores are dispersed by air currents d.
(1) all are true (1)
(2) a,b,d are true (2) a,b,d
(3) b,c,d are true (3) b,c,d

(4) a,b,c are true (4) a,b,c
140. However, calyx and corolla are accessory organs. 140.
In some flower the calyx and corolla are not
distinct, termed as :
(1)
(1) Perianth
(2) Whorl (2)
(3) Unisexual (3)
(4) Carpel (4)

141. Who recognized the role of light as source of 141.
energy in photosynthesis :
(1)
(1) Priestley
(2) Ingenhousz (2)
(3) Stephen hales (3)

(4) Julius sachs (4)
NLI / 32
142. Select the incorrect statement among the 142.

followings:
(1)
(1) ATP synthesis is linked to development of a proton
gradient across a membrane
(2) In respiration, proton accumulate in the (2)
intermembrane space of the mitochondria when
electron move through the ETS.
(3)
(3) The NADP reductase enzyme is located on the
stroma side of the thylakoid membrane.
(4)
(4) Protons in the stoma decrease in number within
the chloroplast, while in the lumen there is
accumulation of protons and this creates a proton
gradient across the thylakoid membrane, as well
as an observable increase in pH in the lumen. pH
143. What is the R.Q. value of protein : 143.
(1) Less than 1 (1)
(2) More than 1 (2)
(3) 1 u te (3)
s tit
(4) None.
t In (4)
144. In respiration, for each ATP produced, 2H pass h144.
+
g ATP 2H+ F0
through F from Li
0
ew
(1) Matrix to intermembrane space N (1)
(2) Matrix to cytoplasm (2)
(3) Intermembrane space to the matrix (3)
(4) None (4)
145. Bakane disease is also known as : 145.
(1) Plasticity (1)
(2) Differentiation (2)
(3) Foolish seedling (3)
(4) Brakish disease. (4)
146. Formation of ATP in mitochondria is called : 146. ATP
(1) Mitochondria (1)
(2) Hydrolysis (2)
(3) Oxidative phosphorylation (3)
(4) Photophosphorylation (4)

NLI / 33
147. Which statement is correct : 147.
(1) Certain drugs coming in contact with the mucosa
(1)
of mouth and lower side of the tongue are absorbed
into the blood capillaries lining them.
(2) In small Intestine absorption of water, simple sug- (2)
ars, and alcohol etc. takes place.
(3) Large Intestine is principal organ for absorption of
nutrients. The digestion is completed here and the (3)
final products of digestion such as glucose, fruc-
tose, fatty acids, glycerol and amino acids are ab-
sorbed through the mucosa into the blood stream
and lymph.
(4) In stomach absorption of water, some minerals and
drugs takes place. (4)
148. Which of the following is correct about Diatoms : 148.
(1) Chief producers in the oceans (1)
(2) The cell walls form two thin overlapping shells (2)
(3) The walls are embedded with silica (3)

149. Nerve impulse is generated when the nerve cell 149.
undergoes or passes :
(1)
u te
(1) Excited stage
s tit
(2)
(2) Depolarization
t In (3)
(3) Action potential
igh (4)
(4) All of these L
150. Conduction of nerve impulse is : ew 150.
N
(1) No difference in the rate of conduction in (1)
myelinated and nonmyelinated fibres
(2) Faster in non-myelinated fibres (2)
(3) Faster in myelinated fibres (3)
(4) Not possible in myelinated fibres (4)
PART–2–[SECTION–A] PART–2–[SECTION–A]
151. Which of the following is not correctly matched : 151.
(1) Cerebellum - Balance (1)
(2) Limbic system - Regulation of sexual behaviour (2)
(3) Hypothalamus - Urge for eating (3)
(4) Medulla oblongata - Temperature regulation (4)

152. Resting membrane potential is maintained by : 152.
(1) Hormones (1)
(2) Neurotransmitters (2)
(3) Ion pumps (3)

NLI / 34
153. Na+/K+ pump in cell is an example of : 153.
(1) Passive transport (1)
(2) Osmosis (2)
(3) Diffusion (3)
(4) Active transport (4)
154. The part of internal ear responsible for hearing 154.
is :
(1) Cochlea (1)

(2) Semicircular canal (2)
(3) Utriculus (3)
(4) Sacculus (4)

155. The organ of corti is a structure present in : 155.
(1) External ear (1)
(2) Middle ear (2)
(3) Semicircular canal (3)
(4) Cochlea
u te
(4)
156. The human hind brain comprises three parts, one 156. t
it
s
of which is
t In
(1) Cerebellum igh (1)
L
(2) Hypothalamus
e w (2)
(3) Spinal
N (3)
(4) Corpus callosum (4)

157. In a medulated nerve fibre, the conduction of 157.
impulse is faster due to the presence of :
(1) Pericytes (2) Nissl’s granule (1) (2)

(3) Endoneurium (4) Myelin sheath (3) (4)
158. Sodium potassium pump maintains : 158.
(1) Resting potential (1)
(2) Action potential (2)
(3) Both (3)
(4) None (4)

159. Melatonin is responsible for : 159.
(1) Menstrual cycle (1)
(2) Pigmentation (2)
(3) Defence capability (3)

NLI / 35
160. See the given diagrammatic representation. 160. A, B, C D
Identify A, B, C and D
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
(1) A – Hypothalamic neurons, B – Portal circulation,

(1) A – , B – ,
C – Posterior pituitary, D – Anterior pituitary C– ,D–
(2) A – Hypothalamic neurons, B – Potral circulation,
u te
(2) A – , B – ,
C – Anterior pituitary, D – Posterior pituitary
s titC – ,D–
(3) A – Epithalamic neurons, B – Hypothalamic vein,
t In (3) A – , B – ,
C – Pars distalis, D – Posterior intermedia
igh C– ,D–
L
(4) A – Hypothalamic neurons, B – Hypothalamic
ew (4) A – , B – ,
N pituitary
artery, C – Posterior pituitary, D – Anterior C– ,D–
161. Which is the possible stimulatory role of 161.
glucocorticoid regarding cellular metabolism :
(1) Gluconeogenesis (1)

(2) Lipolysis (2)
(3) Proteolysis (3)
(4) All (4)
162. Which hormone is amino-acid derivatives : 162.
(1) Estrogen (1)
(2) Epinephrine (2)
(3) Androgens (3)
163. Which hormone is not an amino-acid derivative : 163.
(1) Estrogen (1)
(2) PTH (2) PTH
(3) Androgens (3)

NLI / 36
164. Which statement is correct : 164.
(1) Thyroid regulates BMR (1)
(2) Thyroid influences water balance (2)
(3) Thyroid secrete a protein hormone thyrocalcitonin, (3)

which regulates calcium level
(4) All are correct (4)
165. Glucagon stimulates : 165.
(1) glycogenolysis (1)
(2) gluconeogenesis (2)
(3) glycogenesis (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2

166. According to the accepted concept of hormone 166.
action, if receptor molecules are removed from
target organs
(1)
(1) The target organ will continue to respond to the
hormone without any difference
(2) The target organ will continue to respond to the
(2)
u te
hormone but will require higher concentration
s tit
(3) The target organ will not respond to the hormone
t In (3)
(4) The target organ will continue to respond to theg h (4)
Li
hormone but in the opposite way
w
Ne
167. Adrenaline is equivalent to which neurotransmitter 167.
(1) GABA (1) GABA
(2) Serotonin (2)
(3) Epinephrine (3)
(4) Norepinephrine (4)
168. Estrogen and testosterone are steroid hormones, 168.

and are most likely bind to :
(1) Membrane ions channels (1)
(2) Enzyme-linked membrane receptors (2)
(3) G-protein linked membrane receptors (3) G-
(4) Intracellular receptors (4)
169. Filiform apparatus present at the micropylar part 169.

of the synergids functions as :
(1) Guiding agent for entry of pollen tube (1)
(2) Guiding agent for entry of polar nuclei (2)
(3) Function as fertilizing agent (3)
(4) Both (2) and (3). (4) (2) (3)

NLI / 37
170. Seeds of lupine from Arctic Tundra, germinated 170.
and flowered after an ............. of dormancy :
(1) 1000 hrs (1)

(2) 1000 years (2)
(3) 10,000 years (3)
(4) 20,000 years. (4)

171. Pollen grains can be stored in pollen bank at 171.
which temperature :
(1) –190C
(1) –190C
(2) +1960C
(2) +1960C
(3) –960C (3) –960C
(4) –1960C (4) –1960
172. What are the next stages of development of 172.
zygote after proembryo formation during
embryogeny
(1) Heart shaped embryo, globular embryo, mature
(1)
embryo
(2) Globular embryo, heart shaped embryo, mature (2)
embryo
(3) Glandular embryo, mature embryo (3)
u te
(4) Heart shaped embryo, globular embryo, glandular
embryo s tit
(4)
173. Find the incorrect statement(s) t In
173.
(a) Vallisneria and Hydrilla grow in fresh water/igh (a)
marine water L
w
(b) Zostera is water pollinated
Ne (b)
(c) In water lily, type of pollination is anemophily
and entomophily (c)
(d) In all of water pollinated species pollens are
protected from wetting by mucilagenous
(d)
covering
(1) a, d
(1) a, d
(2) a, b
(2) a, b
(3) c, d
(3) c, d
(4) a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
174. Match the following : 174.
Column I Column II
I II
a. Syncarpous i. Locule
i. a.
b. Apocarpous ii. Ovule
ii. b.
c. Ovarian cavity iii. Free pistil
iii. c.
d. Megasporangium iv. Fused pistil
iv. d.
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii.
NLI / 38
175. Which of the following is not a reproductive event 175.
of human
(1) gametogenesis (1)

(2) parturition (2)
(3) triple fusion (3)
(4) gestation (4)

176. Which is an incorrect statement 176.
(a) Lippes loop is copper releasing IUDs (a)
(b) Vault is a barrier method of birth control (b)
(c) Amniocentesis is encouraged by state (c)
government
(d) CDRI is situated in U.P. (d)

(1) a and c (1) a c
(2) b and c (2) b c
(3) c and d (3) c d
(4) a and d (4) a
ted
177. What is the popular name of IVF : 177. itu
s t
(1) Amniocentesis
t In (1)
(2) Tubectomy
igh (2)
(3) Test tube baby L (3)
ew
(4) All N (4)
178. Out of a population of 800 individuals in F 2 178. F2
gener - ation of a cross between yellow round and
green wrinkled pea plants, what would be number
of green and wrinkled seeds :
(1) 100 (2) 200 (1) 100 (2) 200
(3) 50 (4) 150 (3) 50 (4) 150
179. Fruitfly Drosophila melanogaster was found to be 179.
very suitable for experimental verification of chro-
mosomal theory of inheritance by Morgan and his
colleagues because : (1)
(1) It reproduces parthenogenetically
(2) Smaller female is easily distinguishable from large (2)
male (3)
(3) A single mating produces two young flies
(4) It completes life cycle in about two week (4)
180. If seed size is considered as phenotype then allele 180.
B: B:
(1) Dominant over b (1) b
(2) Co-dominant with b (2) b
(3) Incompletaly dominant over b (3) b
(4) Two of these (4)
NLI / 39
181. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell 181.
division results in :
(1) Gain of chromosome (1)
(2) Loss of chromosome (2)
(3) Gain or loss of chromosomes (3)
(4) None (4)

182. Microsporangium is surrounded by four layers 182.
epidermis, middle layer,............ and tapetum :
(1) Cortex (1)
(2) Periblem (2)
(3) Bundle sheath (3)
(4) Endothecium. (4)
183. When two genetic loci produce identical 183.

phenotypes in cis and trans position, they are
considered to be :
(1)
(1) Pseudoalleles
(2) Different genes
u te (2)
(3) Multiple alleles s tit

(3)
(4) Parts of same gene t In (4)

igh184.
184. Which RNA polymerase, transcribes precursor of :
mRNA: L
w
Ne
(1) ll
(1) RNA Pol ll
(2) l
(2) RNA Pol l
(3) RNA Pol lll (3) lll
(4) RNA Pol lV (4) lV

185. About how many years ago the invertebrates were 185.
formed :
(1) 2000
(1) 2000 million
(2) 500
(2) 500 million
(3) 350
(3) 350 million
(4) 320
(4) 320 million
PART–2–[SECTION–B] PART–2–[SECTION–B]
186. Which one of the following phenomenon supports 186.
Darwin's concept of natural selection in organic
evolution:
(1)
(1) Development of transgenic animals
(2)
(2) Production of 'dolly', the sheep by cloning
(3)
(3) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
(4) Development of organs from 'stem cells' for organ (4)
transplantation
NLI / 40
187. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying: 187. HIV AIDS
(1) Helper T-lymphocytes (1)
(2)  -lymphocytes (2)  -
(3) Leucocytes (3)
(4) Thrombocytes (4)
188. Which is the correct matching : 188.
Column-I Column–II I II
(a) Droplet infection (i) Passive immunity
(a) i
(b) Colostrum (ii) Helminth infection
(b) ii
(c) Filaria (iii) Pneumonia
(c) iii
(d) B-lymphocytes (iv) Antibodies
(d) iv
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
189. Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) at suitable temperature 189.
multiply, thus conversing milk to curd, which
u te
tit
improves its nutritional quality by increase :
s
(1) Vitamin B12
t In (1) B12
(2) Vitamin B2
igh (2) B2
(3) Vitamin B6 L (3) B6
ew
(4) Folic acid N (4)
190. Which of the following is pair of biofertilizers : 190.
(1) Azolla and BGA (1)
(2) Nostoc and legume (2)
(3) Rhizobium and grasses (3)
(4) Solmonella and E.coli (4)
191. In MOET fertilized eggs at ................ cells stage 191. In MOET fertilized eggs at ................ cells stage
are recovered non surgically and transfered to are recovered non surgically and transfered to
surrogate mother : surrogate mother :
(1) 6 - 10 (1) 6 - 10
(2) 8 - 32 (2) 8 - 32
(3) 2 - 6 (3) 2 - 6
(4) 14 - 16. (4) 14 - 16.
192. Nicotine stimulates adrenal gland to release : 192.
(1) Adrenaline
(1)
(2) Noradrenaline
(2)
(3) Thyroxine (3)
(4) Both 1 & 2 (4)
NLI / 41
193. World livestock population in India and China is : 193.

(1) More than 40% (1)
(2) More than 70% (2)
(3) More than 75% (3)
(4) Less than 50% (4)
194. Basic steps in genetic modification of an 194.

organism:
(1) Introduction of desired DNA into host (1)
(2) Identify the DNA with desirable genes (2)
(3) Maintenance of introduced DNA in host (3)

195. Mainly micro injection is the method for 195.
introducing the alien DNA into host cells of :
(1) Bacterial (1)
(2) Prokaryotes cell (2)

u te
(3) Animal cells
s tit
(3)
(4) Plant cells t In (4)

igh196.
196. Cutting of DNA at specific location become L
possible with the discovery of so – called : w
(1) Molecular scissors Ne (1)
(2)
(2) Restriction enzymes
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
197. A pathogen in animals have the ability to 197.

transforms normal cells into cancerous cells :
(1) Trichoderma (1)
(2) Baculoviruses (2)
(3) Rhizobium (3)
(4) Retroviruses (4)

198. These chemical and fertilizers harmful to 198.
environment is protected by the use of :
(1) Sterlization (1)
(2) Fusion (2)
(3) Pollination (3)
(4) Genetically modified crop. (4)

NLI / 42
199. Populations evolve to maximise their reproductive 199.

fitness this is called Darwinian fitness. This is
represented by :
(1) Low 'r' value (1)
(2) High 'r' value (2)
(3) Moderate 'r' value (3)
(4) Fixed low 'r' value. (4)
200. Arctic & Alpine tundra biome is situated in : 200.
(1) Maximum annual precipitations & minimum annual (1)

temperature zone
(2) Minimum annual precipitation & maximum annual (2)

temperature zone
(3) Minimum annual temperature zone (3)
(4) Maximum annual temperature zone (4)
u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
NLI / 43
NEW BATCHES COMMENCE FROM
• Pre Foundation (9th & 10th) - 11th April
• Two Year + One Year Foundation - 11th April
• Regular Batch - 11th April

u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
NLI / 48
u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
NLI / 49
u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
NLI / 50
u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
NLI / 51

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ALL INDIA RANK BOOSTER TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23

Physics : Full Syllabus

Chemistry : Full Syllabus

Biology : Full Syllabus

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TOPIC : Full Syllabus

2. The refractive index of a prism is 2 . If the angle 2. 2. 60o,

(2) 45o (2) 45o

3. The length of a telscope is 100 cm and 3. t In 100 cm

(1) 90 cm and 10 cm ew (1) 90 cm 10 cm

(3) 80 cm and 20 cm (3) 80 cm 20 cm

(4) 95 cm and 5 cm. (4) 95 cm 5 cm.

4. In a single slit diffraction experiment first minima 4. 1 = 6000Å

(3) 4800 Å (3) 4800 Å

(4) 5500 Å. (4) 5500 Å.

5. Light rays of wavelengths 6000 Å and of photon 5. 6000 Å 39.6

(1) 12 × 1018 (2) 10 × 1018 (1) 12 × 1018 (2) 10 × 1018

(3) 12 × 1017 (4) 12 × 1015. (3) 12 × 1017 (4) 12 × 1015.

(1) 5.88 × 10–5 N (1) 5.88 × 10–5 N

(2) 108 N (2) 108 N

(3) 8.35 × 104 N (3) 8.35 × 104 N

(4) 8.8 × 10–8 N. (4) 8.8 × 10–8 N.

7. Figure shows the results of an experiment on 7.

8. Mass of proton is 2000 times the mass of the 8. 2000

(2) 2000 : 1 (2) 2000 : 1

(3) 1 : 20002 (3) 1 : 20002

(4) 1 : 100 (4) 1 : 100

9. The radius of a nucleus with atomic number 7 is 2 9. 7 2

(4) 6 fermi. (4) 6 .

10V 20 10V 20

are at temperature 60 C, 60 C and 0 C as shwon.g h

(1) 30oC (1) 30oC

(2) 36oC (2) 36oC

(3) 50oC (3) 50oC

(4) 40oC. (4) 40oC.

13. A process 1  2 using diatomic gas is shown on 13. 1  2

(3) 35R/11 (4) 22R/7. (3) 35R/11 (4) 22R/7.

(4) 1.6 × 10–4 cm s–1 (4) 1.6 × 10–4 cm s–1

16. A mercury drop of radius 1 cm is sprayed into 106 16. 1 cm 106

17. The temperature of sun is measured by ew 17.

(2) Pyrometer (2)

(3) Platinum resistance thermometer (3)

(4) Thermo couple thermometer (4)

18. In young's interference experiment, if I0 be the 18. I0

(1) Y= A sin (kx- t) (1) Y= A sin (kx- t)

(3) Ve/2 (3) Ve/2

(4) Ve/4. (4) Ve/4.

(3) F/5 (3) F/5

25. A helium nucleus makes a full rotation in a circle 25. 0.8

26. A capacitor of capacitance 2F is charged to Lai 2F) 200 V

(2) 4F (2) 4F

(3) 18F (3) 18F