Manufacturing Engineering-I Exit Exam Questions 2016 E.

1. The angle between face of the tool and a line parallel with the base of the tool, measured in
perpendicular plane to through the side cutting edge is
A. Side relief angle
B. Back rake angle
C. Side rake angle
D. End relief angle
2. Continuous chips during machining forms when
A. Speed is high, feed is low
B. Speed is high, feed is high
C. Speed is low, feed is low
D. Speed is low, feed is high
3. The least count of a metric vernier caliper having 25 divisions on vernier scale matching with
24 divisions of scale (1 main scale division = 0.5mm) is
A. 0.005 mm
B. 0.01 mm
C. 0.02 mm
D. 0.05 mm
4. The property by virtue of which sand mould is capable of withstanding a high temperature of
the molten metal without fusing is known as
A. Porosity
B. Adhesiveness
C. Cohesiveness
D. Refractories
5. The process in which leaving a tab without any material is
A. Notching
B. Lancing
C. Parting
D. Sliting
6. In die cutting operation, punching a number of holes in a sheet is called
A. Perforating
 B. Parting
C. Notching
D. Lancing
7. Internal gears are manufactured by
A. Hobbing
B. Shaping with pinion cutter
C. Shaping with rack cutter
D. Milling mulling
8. In which of the following casting process the sand is mixed with a thermosetting resin to form
a mould?
A. Shell moulding
B. Squeeze casting
C. Centrifugal casting
D. Die casting
9. In the orthogonal cutting of metals _________
A. The cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
B. The cutting forces occur in one direction only
C. The cutting edge is wider than the depth of cut
D. All of the mentioned
10. In oblique cutting of the metals, the cutting edge of the tool is
A. Perpendicular to the workpiece
B. Perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
C. Parallel to the direction of tool travel
D. Inclined at an angle less than 90° to the direction of tool travel
11. Discontinuous chips are formed during machining of
A. Brittle metals
B. Ductile metals
C. Hard metals
D. Soft metals
12. The factor responsible for the formation of discontinuous chips is
A. Low cutting speed and large rake angle
 B. Low cutting speed and small rake angle
C. High cutting speed and large rake angle
D. High cutting speed and small rake angle
13. The high cutting speed and large rake angle of the tool will result in the formation of
A. Continuous chips
B. Discontinuous chips
C. Continuous chips with built up edge
D. None of the mentioned
14. A built-up-edge is formed while machining __________
A. Ductile materials at high speed
B. Ductile materials at low speed
C. Brittle materials at high speed
D. Brittle materials at low speed
15. A single-point cutting tool with 12°C rake angle is used to machine a steel work-piece. The
depth of cut, i.e., uncut thickness is 0.81 mm. The chip thickness under orthogonal machining
condition is 1.8 mm. The shear angle is approximately
A. 22°C
B. 26°C
C. 56°C
D. 76°C
16. In an orthogonal machining operation:
Uncut thickness = 0.5 mm
Cutting speed = 20 m/min
Rake angel = 15°
Width of cut = 5 mm Chip thickness = 0.7 mm
Thrust force = 200 N Cutting force = 1200 N
The values of shear angle and shear strain, respectively, are
A. 30.30 and 1.98
B. 30.30 and 4.23
C. 40.20 and 2.97
D. 40.20 and 1.65
17. Which of the following parameters govern the value of the shear angle in continuous chip
formation?
A. True feed
B. Chip thickness
C. Rake angle of the cutting tool
D. All of the mentioned
18. In determining the various forces on the chip, Merchant assumed that the
A. Cutting edge of the tool is sharp and it does not make any flank contact with the
workpiece
B. Only continuous chip without built up edge is produced
C. Cutting velocity remains constant
D. All of the mentioned
19. In metal machining, the zone where the heat is generated due to friction between the moving
chip and the tool face is called
A. Friction zone
B. Work tool contact zone
C. Shear zone
D. None of the mentioned
20. In metal machining, the zone where the maximum heat is generated due to the plastic
deformation of metal is called:
A. Friction zone
B. Work tool contact zone
C. Shear zone
D. None of the mentioned
21. The ratio of the cutting force to the cross-sectional area being cut is called:
A. Specific cutting force
B. Thrust force
C. Frictional force
D. None of the mentioned
22. Crater wear occurs mainly on the
A. Nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool
 B. Face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge only
C. Cutting edge only
D. Front face only
23. Flank wear depends upon the
A. Hardness of the work and tool material at the operating temperature
B. Amount and distribution of hard constituents in the work material
C. Degree of strain hardening in the chip
D. None of the mentioned
24. Crater wear leads to
A. Increase in cutting temperature
B. Weakening of tool
C. Friction and cutting forces
D. All of the mentioned
25. Flank wear occurs mainly on the
A. Nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool
B. Face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge only
C. Cutting edge only
D. Front face only
26. Tool life is measured by the
A. Number of pieces machined between tool sharpening’s
B. Time the tool is in contact with the job
C. Volume of material removed between tool sharpening’s
D. All of the mentioned
27. The tool life is said to be over if
A. Poor surface finish is obtained
B. There is sudden increase in cutting forces and power consumption
C. Overheating and fuming due to heat of friction starts
D. All of the mentioned
28. Tool life is generally better when
A. Grain size of the metal is large
B. Grain size of the metal is small
 C. Hard constituents are present in the micro structure of the tool material
D. None of the mentioned
29. Using the Taylor Equation for tool life and letting n = 0.5 and C = 120, calculate the percentage
increase in tool life when the cutting speed is reduced by 50%.
A. 100%
B. 200%
C. 300%
D. 400%
30. The specific cutting energy used for establishing the machinability of the metal depends upon
its
A. Coefficient of friction
B. Micro-structure
C. Work hardening characteristics
D. All of the mentioned
31. The machining of titanium is difficult due to
A. High thermal conductivity of titanium
B. Chemical reaction between tool and work
C. Low tool-chip contact area
D. None of the mentioned
32. The factor considered for evaluation of maintainability is
A. Cutting forces and power consumption
B. Tool life
C. Type of chips and shear angle
D. All of the mentioned
33. In machining metals, chips break due to _____________ of work material.
A. Toughness
B. Ductility
C. Elasticity
D. Work hardening
34. In machining metals, surface roughness is due to
A. Feed marks or ridges left by the cutting tool
 B. Fragment of built-up edge on the machined surface
C. Cutting tool vibrations
D. All of the mentioned
35. The tool material, for faster machining, should have
A. Wear resistance
B. Red hardness
C. Toughness
D. All of the mentioned
36. The various cutting tool materials used are:
A. High speed steels
B. Cast cobalt alloys
C. Carbides
D. All of the mentioned
37. High speed steels are suitable for making
A. High positive rake angle tools
B. Interrupted cuts
C. Machine tools with ow stiffness that are subject to vibration
D. All of the mentioned
38. ___________ improves toughness, wear resistance, and high temperature strength.
A. Chromium
B. Vanadium
C. Tungsten
D. None of the mentioned
39. Coating materials used are
A. Titanium nitride
B. Titanium carbide
C. Titanium carbonitride
D. All of the mentioned
40. Characteristics of coated cutting tools are:
A. High hardness
B. Chemical stability
 C. Low thermal conductivity
D. All of the mentioned
41. Ceramic tools are fixed to a tool body by ___________
A. Soldering
B. Brazing
C. Welding
D. Clamping
42. Primary and secondary deformation zone in metal cutting operation is located at respectively:
A. Around shear plane and tool chip interface
B. Shear plane and tool face
C. Tool chip interface and shear plane
D. Tool chip interface and tool face
43. Temperature rise in primary deformation zone is generally due to:
A. Plastic deformation of metal in shear zone
B. Friction between tool and chip
C. Rubbing action of tool piece with work piece
D. None of the mentioned
44. Temperature rise in secondary deformation zone is generally due to:
A. Plastic deformation of metal in shear zone
B. Friction between tool and chip
C. Rubbing action of tool piece with work piece
D. None of the mentioned
45. What is the need for unconventional machining processes?
A. High production rate
B. Low cost of production
C. Better surface integrity
D. High surface finish
46. Non-Traditional machining is recommended when we need which of the following features?
A. Complex shapes
B. High surface quality
C. Low-rigidity structures
 D. All of the mentioned
47. In mechanical machining, material is removed by ___________
A. Erosion
B. Corrosion
C. Abrasion
D. Vaporization
48. Material in thermal machining is removed by which of the following means?
A. Vaporization
B. Melting
C. Electro-plating
D. All of the mentioned
49. Which of the following process comes under mechanical machining?
A. USM
B. EDM
C. LBM
D. PAM
50. Vacuum is the machining medium for ________
A. LBM
B. WJM
C. EBM
D. None
51. In an ultrasonic machining process, the material removal rate increases with
A. Increase in the frequency and increase in the amplitude of vibration
B. Increase in the frequency and decrease in the amplitude of vibration
C. Decrease in the frequency and increase in the amplitude of vibration
D. Decrease in the frequency and decrease in the amplitude of vibration
52. In ultrasonic machining, abrasive particles motion is _______ to the workpiece.
A. Tangential
B. Oscillatory
C. Circular
D. Normal
53. In an ultrasonic machining process, the material removal rate is plotted as a function of the
feed force of the ultrasonic machining tool. With increasing feed force, the material removal
rate exhibits the following behavior:
A. Increases linearly
B. Decreases linearly
C. Does not change
D. First increases and then decreases
54. Which one of the following statements is true for the ultrasonic machining (USM) process?
A. In USM, the tool vibrates at subsonic frequency
B. USM does not employ magneto strictive transducer
C. USM is an excellent process for machining ductile materials
D. USM often uses a slurry comprising abrasive-particles and water
55. Which of the following is not a part of machining system of Water jet machining?
A. Transducer
B. Accumulator
C. Jet cutting nozzle
D. Hydraulic pump
56. On which property of water, will the accumulator in Water jet machining rely on?
A. Density
B. Compressibility
C. Viscosity
D. Velocity
57. Which of the following does not damage the nozzle used in Water jet machining?
A. Particles of dirt
B. Mineral deposits
C. Water
D. All of the mentioned
58. In AJM, which of the following materials are used as abrasive grains?
A. Al2O3
B. SiC
C. Glass beads
 D. All of the mentioned
59. In Abrasive jet machining, work piece material of removed by which of the following means?
A. Vaporization
B. Electro plating
C. Mechanical abrasion
D. Corrosion
60. In machining system of AJM, which is the medium of carrying the abrasive grains for
machining?
A. Liquids
B. Gases
C. Any fluids
D. None of the mentioned
61. In machining system of AJM, what is/are the gas/es used for carrying the abrasives?
A. CO2
B. Air
C. Nitrogen
D. All of the mentioned
62. Which of the following holds true about electro-chemical machining?
A. Material is removed from the cathode and deposited on the anode
B. Material is removed from the anode and carried away by the electrolyte
C. Major drawback is that the finished product has residual stresses
D. It can also be used for all non-metals
63. Which of the following is true about ECM process?
A. Unable to machine high strength materials
B. Excessive tool wear
C. It gives burr free surface
D. Surface hardness of the workpiece gets reduced
64. The tool in ECM should have which of the following properties?
A. High machinability
B. Lower corrosion rate
C. High softness
 D. High conductive resistance
65. Special coatings applied on work piece materials in order to protect them from chemical
reaction are known as _________
A. Maskants
B. Protective coverings
C. Protective varnishing
D. None of the mentioned
66. During Chemical milling, depth of etch is controlled by which factor of immersion?
A. Time
B. Mask method
C. Mask area
D. None of the mentioned
67. Of the following, which ratio defines the etch factor?
A. Etching depth to undercut
B. Undercut to etching depth
C. Undercut to mask area
D. Mask area to undercut
68. LBM offers a good solution for which material properties below?
A. Thermal conductivity
B. Specific heat
C. Boiling temperature
D. All of the mentioned
69. Which types of lasers are used in Laser beam machining?
A. Continuous wave
B. Pulsed mode
C. Continuous wave & Pulsed mode
D. None of the mentioned
70. Which type of electrode is used for drilling in Electro discharge machining?
A. Flat electrode
B. Cuboidal electrode
C. Tubular electrode
 D. Spherical electrode
71. The replica of the final object to be made is known as?
A. Parting line
B. Flask
C. Pattern
D. Mould
72. Skeleton patterns are generally used for-
A. Small castings
B. Non-ferrous castings
C. Large castings
D. Hollow castings
73. ___________ forms a seat in mold on which the sand core rests during pouring.
A. Pattern
B. Sand
C. Core
D. Core Print
74. Which of the following is a property of core material used in a foundry?
A. Appropriate for long production
B. Low Weight
C. Reusable
D. Core Print
75. The _______ is responsible for cavities in castings in the foundry.
A. Patterns
B. Sand
C. Cores
D. Riser
76. The number of cores to be used to form castings is _____________
A. One
B. Ten
C. Depends on the sand
D. Depends on the design
77. Which of the following pattern operation is cheapest?
A. Sweep pattern
B. Gated pattern
C. Match plate pattern
D. Skeleton pattern
78. Which pattern operation is used for manufacturing wheel rims?
A. Follow board pattern
B. Segmental pattern
C. Sweep pattern
D. Gated pattern
79. Which of the following processes is the first step involved in the sand casting?
A. Clamping
B. Cooling
C. Mould making
D. Pouring
80. Which of the following statement is not true?
A. During the pouring process, filling time of molten metal should be short to avoid
early solidification of the casting
B. The process shakeout is generally referred to escaping of gases from the molten
casting during the solidification
C. Quick solidification of the casting can cause defects like shrinkages, cracks or blow
holes
D. A trimming press is a machine tool which is widely used for removing the excess
material from the casting part
81. The furnace used for melting cast iron in foundry is a:
A. Blast furnace
B. Muffle furnace
C. Cupola
D. Crucible
82. Process in which lowest tolerances in cast products of ferrous and non-ferrous metals can be
achieved as
 A. Die casting
B. Shell casting
C. Investment casting
D. Shad casting
83. Which of the following problems arises in die casting that can be solved by having vacuum die
casting?
A. Overheating
B. Interruption in progressive solidification
C. Air in the cavity
D. Difficulty in cooling of casting
84. Which of the following helps in reducing the oxidation of the material in vacuum die casting?
A. Mould thickness
B. Mould material
C. Tight tolerances
D. Mould coating
85. Which of the following considerations distinguish die casting from the permanent mould
casting?
A. Moulding material
B. Way of pouring molten metal
C. Coating on mould
D. Size of castings
86. Which of the following methods of casting is best suited for casting of hollow pipes and tubes?
A. Investment casting
B. Permanent mould casting
C. Die casting
D. Centrifugal casting
87. Casting defect happened when the molten metal is unable to fill the cavity completely leaving
unfilled cavities is called___________.
A. Misrun
B. Runout
C. Air inclusion
 D. Cold shut
88. Sprue in casting refers to:
A. Gate
B. Runner
C. Riser
D. Vertical passage