Nsec-2014-2024 Pyqs

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QP CODE C 203

National Standard Examination in Chemistry 2014

(1) The compound which undergoes hydrolysis on just warming with water and forms the
corresponding hydroxyl derivative is
(A) 2,4,6–trinitrochlorobenzene (B) 2–chloro–1–butene
(C) 2–chloro–2 methylbutane (D) 2,4–dimethoxychlorobenzene

(2) The pair of compounds that will not react with each other in an aqueous solution, at
room temperature is
(A) FeCl3, SnCl2 (B) HgCl2, SnCl2
(C) FeCl2, SnCl2 (D) FeCl3, KI

(3) At 700K, for the reaction 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ≪ 2SO3(g) the KP is 3.2 × 104 . At the

same temperature the KP for the reaction SO3 (g) ≪ SO2 (g) + 0.5O2 (g) is

(A) 3.125 × 10−5 (B) 5.59 × 10−3


(C) 1.79 × 104 (D) 1.79 × 10−2

(4) Amylose and cellulose are polymers of glucose in which glucose units are joined to
each other respectively by linkages of the type
(A) α, β (B) β, β (C) α, α (D) αβ, β

(5) 2-methylpentane is

(A) H (B) CH3 (C) C H3 (D) H


H CH3 H H H H H CH3

H3 C H H3 C H H C H3 H CH2 CH3
CH2 CH3 CH 2CH 3 C H3 H

(6) The molecule having the highest dipole moment is


(A) CO2 (B) CH4 (C) NH3 (D) NF3

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QP CODE C 203

(7) Two samples A and B of an ideal gas, initially at same temperature and pressure, are
compressed from volume V to V/2, isothermally for A and adiabatically for B. The
final pressure of A will be
(A) greater than that of B (B) less than that of B
(C) twice that of B (D) equal to that at B

(8) A nitrile X is treated with LiAlH4 to obtain compound Y (C2H7N). In a separate


reaction X is hydrolyzed in an acid medium to obtain Z. The product obtained after
mixing Y and Z will be
(A) CH3CONHCH2CH3 (B) CH3CH2CONHCH2CH3
(C) (CH3COO−)(CH3CH2NH3+) (D) (CH3CH2COO−)(CH3NH3+)

(9) pH of a saturated solution of magnesium hydroxide in water at 298K is 10.5. The


solubility of the hydroxide in water at 298 K is
(A) 1.58 x 10−4 mol L−1 (B) 1.58 x 10−11 mol L−1
(C) 3.16 x10−4 mol L−1 (D) 9.98 x 10−8 mol L−1

(10) The species which has triangular planar geometry is


(A) NF3 (B) NO3− (C) AlCl3 (D) SbH3

(11) The order of acidity in aqueous solution for the following acids is
(A) H2S < H2Se < H2Te (B) H2Se < H2S < H2Te
(C) H2Te < H2S < H2Se (D) H2Se < H2Te < H2S

(12) The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A) 5-bromo-3-(bromomethyl)pent-1-ene
(B) 3-(1-bromopropyl)-4-bromobut-1-ene
(C) 1,4-dibromo-3-ethenylbutane
(D) 1-bromo-3-(bromomethyl)but-4-ene

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QP CODE C 203

(13) Serine (HOCH2CH(NH2)COOH) is an essential amino acid. The correct Fischer


projection of serine is
H
(A) N H2 (B)
HOH2 C NH2
H CH2 OH

COOH COOH

COOH
(C) CH2 OH (D)

H COOH H2 N H

N H2 CH2 OH

(14) The complex having zero crystal field stabilization energy is


(A) [Mn(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
(C) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Co(H2O)6]3+

(15) Solubility products of silver chloride and silver thiocyanate are 1.2 x10−10 and
7.1 x10−13 respectively. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
AgCl (s) + CNS−1(aq) ≪ AgCNS (s) + Cl−1 (aq) is

(A) 0.0625 (B) 169 (C) 13 (D) 1.40 x 10−4

(16) I. 5H2O2 + 2MnO4− + 6H+ → 2Mn2+ + 5O2 + 8H2O


II. H2O2 + Ag2O → 2 Ag + H2O + O2
The role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is
(A) oxidising in I and reducing in II (B) reducing in I and oxidising in II
(C) reducing in I as well as in II (D) oxidising in I as well as in II

(17) The most stable carbocation is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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QP CODE C 203

(18) Helium can be singly ionized by losing one electron to become the He+ cation. Which
of the following statements is true concerning this helium cation?
(A) The line spectrum of this helium cation will resemble the line spectrum of a
hydrogen atom.
(B) The line spectrum of this helium cation will resemble the line spectrum of a
lithium cation.
(C) The line spectrum of this helium cation will remain the same as for unionized
helium.
(D) The line spectrum of this helium cation will resemble the line spectrum of a
hydrogen ion.

(19) Of the following, the ion with the largest size is


(A) O2− (B) Na+ (C) F− (D) Al3+

(20) The colourless salt that gives white precipitate with BaCl2 in aqueous HCl is
(A) K2SO4 (B) K2SO3 (C) KNO3 (D) KBr

(21) The heat of formation of ethanol, from the following data is


C2H5OH(l) + 3 O2(g) → 2 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(l) -1368 kJ
∆Hf CO2(g) = -393.5 kJ/mol; ∆Hf H2O(1) = -286 kJ/mol.
(A) –277 kJ/mol (B) –1260.5 kJ/mol
(C) –688.5 kJ/mol (D) –3013 kJ/mol

(22) Osmotic pressure of a 2% w/v solution of glucose is same as 5% w/v solution of a


nonvolatile non-electrolyte solute. The molar mass of the solute is
(A) 180 (B) 450 (C) 72 (D) 45

(23) 50 g of sucrose is hydrolysed to a mixture of glucose and fructose. Sucrose is


dextrorotatory, however the mixture formed is laevorotatory. This is because
(A) more amount of β-D-fructose is formed than that of β-D-glucose
(B) β-D-glucose undergoes inversion of configuration
(C) β-D-fructose and β-D-glucose undergo inversion to their α-anomers
(D) laevorotation of β-D-fructose is more than dextrorotation of β-D-glucose.

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QP CODE C 203

(24) Among the following the compound that is not aromatic is

..

(25) The magnetic moment of a divalent ion of an element with atomic number 24 in an
aqueous solution is
(A) 4.90 BM (B) 2.45 BM (C) 2.83 BM (D) 1.73 BM

(26) The major product of the following reaction is

CO-NH
Br 2, FeBr 3

(27) The correct order of stability for the following species is


(A) Li2 < He2+ < O2+ < C2 (B) C2 < O2+ < Li2 < He2+
(C) He2+ < Li2 < C2< O2+ (D) O2+ < C2 < Li2 < He2+

(28) The colligative property used in the determination of molar mass of a polymer is
(A) lowering of the vapour pressure (B) elevation in the boiling point
(C) depression in the freezing point (D) osmotic pressure

(29) From the following the species that are isoelectronic are
(I) NH3, (II) CH3+, (III) NH2−, (IV) NH4+

(A) (I), (II), (III) (B) (II), (III), (IV)


(C) (I), (II), (IV) (D) (I), (III), (IV)

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QP CODE C 203

(30) The pair of equimolar compounds that would give a single condensation product
when treated with an alkali is

(31) In electrophoresis,
(A) the colloidal particles migrate in an applied electric field.
(B) the medium migrates in an applied electric field.
(C) both colloidal particles and the medium migrate.
(D) neither the particles nor the medium migrate.

(32) When a person suffers from typhoid, the metabolic process stimulated in the body to
fight against this disease is synthesis of
(A) Lipid (B) carbohydrate (C) Protein (D) DNA

(33) If a weak base has the dissociation constant, Kb, then the value of the dissociation
constant, Ka, of its conjugate acid is given by
(A) 1/Kb (B) Kw/Kb (C) Kb/Kw (D) KwKb

(34) The product P obtained through the following sequence of reactions is

(A) 3-chloroaniline (B) 4-bromochlorobenzene


(C) 3-bromochlorobenzene (D) 3-bromoaniline

(35) Real gases behave ideally at


(A) low pressure and low temperature (B) high pressure and low temperature
(C) low pressure and high temperature (D) high pressure and high temperature

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QP CODE C 203

(36) In the cyanide extraction process of silver from Argentite ore, the oxidizing and the
reducing agents used are respectively
(A) O2 and CO (B) O2 and Zn dust
(C) HNO3 and Zn dust (D) HNO3 and CO

(37) The main product X formed in the following reactions is

(38) Out of the following metal extraction processes, those in which carbon-based
reduction methods are not used are
(I) Sn from SnO2 (II) Fe from Fe2O3
(III) Al from Al2O3 (IV) Mg from MgCO3.CaCO3
(A) (I) and (IV) (B) (II) and (III) (C) (III) and (IV) (D) (II) and (IV)

(39) The graph that wrongly represents the Boyle’s law for an ideal gas is

P PV

1/V P
I II

P
PV

V
P

III IV

(A) II (B) I (C) IV (D) III

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QP CODE C 203

(40) The best sequence of reactions to prepare 2-heptanone is

NaNH2 n-C 4H9Br H2 O, Hg 2+


(A) propyne X Y
H2SO4

NaNH2 n-C5 H11 Br H2 O, Hg 2+


(B) ethyne X Y
H2 SO4

NaNH2 CH3Br H2 O, Hg 2+
(C) 1-hexyne X Y
H2 SO4

NaNH2 C2H5Br H2 O, Hg 2+
(D) 1-pentyne X Y
H2SO4

(41) Approximate numbers of moles of hydrogen atoms in 1.006 x 1023 molecules of


diethyl ether are
(A) 0.16 (B) 6 (C) 1.67 (D) 3

(42) Upon long standing, concentrated HNO3


(A) remains colourless, but gives out NO
(B) turns yellow brown due to formation of NO2
(C) turns yellow brown due to the formation of N2O4
(D) remains colourless, but gives N2O

(43) The sugars that are produced on hydrolysis of DNA and RNA are
(A) epimers (B) two different sugars
(C) positional isomers (D) diasteromers

(44) When a nucleophile attacks a carbonyl group to form an intermediate, the


hybridisation of the carbon atom changes from
(A) sp3 to sp2 (B) sp2 to sp (C) sp to sp2 (D) sp2 to sp3

(45) Aluminum carbide (Al4C3) liberates methane on treatment with water. The grams of
aluminum carbide required to produce 11.2 L of methane under STP conditions is
[Given Al = 27]
(A) 48 (B) 72 (C) 144 (D) 24

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QP CODE C 203

(46) The correct statement for crystalline CsI3 is


(A) it contains Cs+, I− and molecular I2 (B) it is a covalent compound
(C) it contains Cs+ and I3− (D) it contains Cs3+ and I−

(47) The product X formed in the following reaction is


C6H5MgBr + CH3OH  X
(A) benzene (B) methoxybenzene (C) phenol (D) toluene

(48) Ionic salt AX grows in face centered cubic lattice with cell length ‘a’. The ratio
r A+ / r x− for this salt will be:
(A) 0.155 (B) 0.225 (C) 0.414 (D) 0.732

(49) The hybridization of boron in the stable borane having the lowest molecular weight
is-
(A) sp2 (B) sp3 (C) sp (D) sp3d

(50) The product ‘N’ of the following reaction is

(51) The specific gravity of a HNO3 solution is 1.42 and it is 70% w/w. The molar
concentration of HNO3 is
(A) 15.8 (B) 31.6 (C) 11.1 (D) 14.2

(52) Bleaching powder contains a salt of an oxoacid as one of its components. The
anhydride of that acid is
(A) Cl2O (B) Cl2O7 (C) ClO2 (D) Cl2O6

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QP CODE C 203

base
(53) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH(CH3)2 + CH3COCl → CH3CH2CH(OCOCH3)CH(CH3)2 + HCl
In the above reaction, if the reactant alcohol is a pure R
R-isomer,
isomer, the product would
(A) have configuration inverted at the chiral atom
(B) be a racemic mixture
(C) have the same configuration at the chiral atom
(D) be optically inactive

(54) The unit cell of a compound made up of the three elements X, Y and Z is given
below.

The formula of this compound is:

(A) X2YZ3 (B) XY3Z (C) XYZ3 (D) X3YZ2

(55) N2 gas stored in a cylinder, fixed with a movable piston, undergoes adiabatic
ad
expansion. The statement that is true for the given situation is
(A) q= w (B) ∆U = w (C) ∆U= 0 (D)∆U= q

(56) For the following cell at 25


25°C the E.M.F. is, (if Eo M2+/M = 0.347V)
0.347V

M (S) M 2+ (1M) M 2+ (0.01M) M (S)

(A) 0.089V (B) 0.598V (C) 0.251V (D) 0.764 V

(57) Which of the following hydrogen halide


halides react with AgNO3 to give a precipitate that
dissolves in hypo solution
solution?
(I) HCl (II) HF (III) HI (IV) HBr
(A) (III), (I), (II) (B) (I), (III), (IV)
(C) (IV), (II), (I) (D) (II), (IV), (III)

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QP CODE C 203

(58) The correct order of dipole moment for the following molecules is

(A) IV > I > III > II (B) I > IV > III > II
(C) III > I > II >IV (D) II > III > IV > I

(59) The compound that is most reactive with alcoholic KOH is


(A) CH2=CH-Br (B) CH3CH2Br
(C) (CH3)2CH-Br (D) CH3COCH2CH2Br

(60) The enthalpy of vaporization of benzene is +35.3 kJ/mol at its boiling point of 80°C.
The entropy change in the transition of vapour to liquid at its boiling point is
(A) −100 (B) +100 (C) +342 (D) −342

(61) For a strong electrolyte, the change in the molar conductance with concentration is
represented by
(I) (II)
Λ
Λ

√C √C
(III) (IV)

Λ Λ

√C √C

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

(62) The order of basicity is


(I) Ph-CONH2 (II) Ph-NH2 (III) Ph-CH2-NH2 (IV) p-OCH3Ph-NH2
(A) II > IV > I > III (B) III > II > IV > I
(C) III > IV > II > I (D) I > II > IV > III

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QP CODE C 203

(63) The specific conductance of 0.01M solution of the weak monobasic acid is
0.20 ×10-3 S cm−1. The dissociation constant of the acid is:
Given: Λ0 HA = 400 S cm2 mol−1
(A) 5 × 10−2 (B) 2.5 × 10−5 (C) 5 ×10−4 (D) 2.5 × 10−11

(64) The set of quantum numbers that cannot be allotted to an electron in an atom is
(A) n = 3, l = 2, ml = +2, ms = -1/2 (B) n = 2, l = 0, ml = +1, ms = +1/2
(C) n = 1, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2 (D) n = 4, l = 3, ml = 0, ms = -1/2

(65) Polyvinyl alcohol is an important polymer. The structure is given below

It is prepared by polymerization of
(A) CH2=CH-OH
(B) CH2=CH-OCOCH3, followed by hydrolysis
(C) CH2=CH-CN, followed by hydrolysis
(D) CH2=CH-COOCH3, followed by hydrolysis

(66) For SF4, the molecular geometry and hybridization of the central atom respectively
are
(A) Square planar, dsp2 (B) Tetrahedral, sp3
(C) Seesaw, sp3d (D) Square pyramid, sp3d

(67) If the energy of an electron in the 1st and 2nd energy levels of an H atom are −13.6 eV
and −3.4eV, respectively, the energy required in eV to excite an electron from the 1st
to the 2nd energy level is
(A) 17.0 (B) −17.0 (C) 10.2 (D) −10.2

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QP CODE C 203

(68) The pKa values of the acids A to D are found to be 4.19, 3.41, 4.46 and 4.76. The acid
having pKa of 3.41 is

(69) The reaction given below is the cell reaction in a galvanic cell.
Cd(s) + Sn2+ (aq) → Cd2+(aq) + Sn(s),

Where, [Cd2+] = 0.1M and [Sn2+] = 0.025M

Given: E0 Cd2+/Cd = − 0.403V E0 Sn2+/ Sn = − 0.136V, F = 96485 Cmol−1

At 25°C, the free energy change for this reaction is

(A) – 48.05 KJ (B) – 54.96 KJ (C) – 100.58KJ (D) – 107.46 KJ

(70) Triethylamine is reacted with a peracid to obtain X. The nitrogen atom in X has
formal charge
(A) 0 (B) +1 (C) −1 (D) +2

(71) The species that cannot exist is


(A) SiF62− (B) BF63− (C) SF6 (D) AlF63−

(72) The experimental observations for the following reaction are given below
P + Q → Product.

[P]/ M [Q]/ M Initial Rate/mol s−1


0.2 0.5 8x10 −3
0.4 0.5 3.2 x10 −2
0.2 0.25 4x10 −3

The order of this reaction is:


(A) Zero (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

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QP CODE C 203

(73) Absorbance of a chlorophyll solution measured at 660 nm at 25°C using a 1 cm cell


was found to be 0.4. The same solution is heated up to 35°C and absorbance is
measured once again under the same condition. The observed absorbance will be
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.8

(74) The species which is unable to show disproportionation reaction is


(A) ClO3− (B) ClO4− (C) ClO2− (D) ClO−

(75) At normal temperature, X and Y are

(A) resonance structures (B) tautomers

(C) functional isomers (D) positional isomers

(76) The element X formed in the following nuclear reaction is


53
24 Cr + 42 α → 01n + X

56 55 56 55
(A) 26 Fe (B) 25 Mn (C) 25 Mn
(D) 26 Fe

(77) As part of a diagnostic procedure for a thyroid disorder, a patient is given a certain
amount of iodine-131. The half life of this radioactive iodine-131 is 8.0 days. The
percent fraction of iodine-131 that will remain in the body after 32 days, if there is no
elimination of iodine through the body is

(A) 6.25 (B) 0.0625 (C) 2.77 (D) 25

(78) 1-Phenoxypropane is treated with excess of conc. HI at 0oC and the mixture of
products is treated with thionyl chloride. The products formed are-
(A) n-propanol + Chlorobenzene (B) Phenol + n-propyl iodide
(C) n-propyl chloride + Chlorobenzene (D) n-propyl chloride + Phenol

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QP CODE C 203

(79) To a solution containing one mole MCl3.4NH3, on addition of excess silver nitrate
solution, it was found that two moles of AgCl are precipitated. This observation
suggests that the secondary valence of M in this complex is
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 2

(80) (i) chlorobenzene is mono-nitrated to M


(ii) nitrobenzene is mono-chlorinated to N
(iii) anisole is mono-nitrated to P
(iv) 2-nitrochlorobenzene is mono-nitrated to Q
Out of M, N, P and Q the compound that undergoes reaction with aq. NaOH fastest is
(A) M (B) N (C) P (D) Q

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C 230

NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN CHEMISTRY 2015

(1) A bottle of H3PO4 solution contains 70% (w/w) acid. If the density of the solution is 1.54 g
cm−3, the volume of the H3PO4 solution required to prepare 1 L of I N solution is
(A) 90 mL (B) 45 mL
(C) 30 mL (D) 23 mL

(2) Wood or cattle dung ash is used for cleaning cooking utensils in many parts of India. The
statement that is not true for this ash is:
(A) it largely consists of metal oxides and silicates because non-metals are removed as
gaseous compounds during burning of the wood/dung cakes.
(B) when added to water, it forms alkaline solution with pH~8 and above, which helps to
remove oily substances from the utensils.
(C) several chemical components of ash remain undissolved as solids in water and these
solids help in cleaning by providing scrubbing action.
(D) if left moist for a few hours in air, it slowly turns acidic because of oxidative
decomposition

(3) The two projection formulae that represent a pair of enantiomers are

I II III IV

(A) I and II (B) III and IV


(C) I and III (D) II and IV

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C 230

(4) When 1 L of 0.1 M sulphuric acid solution is allowed to react with 1 L of 0.1 M sodium
hydroxide solution, the amount of sodium sulphate (anhydrous) that can be obtained from
the solution formed and the concentration of H+ in the solution respectively are
(A) 3.55 g, 0.1 M (B) 7.10 g, 0.025 M
(C) 3.55 g, 0.025 M (D) 7.10 g, 0.05 M

(5) The best sequence of reactions for the following conversion is

(A) (i) 1 mol Br2/FeBr3 (ii) KMnO4, heat (iii) HNO3 + H2SO4
(B) (i) HNO3 + H2SO4 (ii) 1 mol Br2/FeBr3 (iii) KMnO4, heat
(C) (i) KMnO4, heat (ii) HNO3 + H2SO4 (iii) 1 mol Br2/FeBr3
(D) (i) 1 mole Br2/FeBr3 (ii) HNO3 + H2SO4 (iii) KMnO4, heat

(6) If λ0 and λ are the threshold wavelength and the wavelength of the incident light,
respectively on a metal surface, the velocity of the photoelectron ejected from the metal
surface is (me = mass of electron, h = Planck’s constant, c = speed of light)
(  )  (  )
(A)  (B) 

      
(C)   (D) − 
  

(7) A current of 5.0 A flows for 4.0 h through an electrolytic cell containing a molten salt of
metal M. This results in deposition of 0.25 mol of the metal M at the cathode. The
oxidation state of M in the molten salt is (1 Faraday = 96485 C mol−1)
(A) +1 (B) +2
(C) +3 (D) +4

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(8) The major product (Y) of the following reaction is -

CH3 MgI (excess) CrO 3


H3 O +, heat

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(9) The compound that will NOT react with hot concentrated aqueous alkali at atmospheric
pressure is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(10) The nature of CsAuCl3 is (this compound contains Au in two oxidation states and there is
no Au-Au bond)
(A) diamagnetic (B) paramagnetic
(C) ferromagnetic (D) antiferromagnetic

(11) The standard electrode potentials, E0 of Fe3+/Fe2+ and Fe2+/Fe at 300 K are +0.77 V and
−0.44 V, respectively. The E0 of Fe3+/Fe at the same temperature is
(A) 1.21 V (B) 0.33 V
(C) −0.036 V (D) 0.036 V

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C 230

(12) The incorrect statement for lanthanides among the following statements is
(A) 4f and 5d orbitals are so close in energy that it is very difficult to locate the exact
position of electrons in lanthanides
(B) most common stable oxidation state is +3
(C) tripositive lanthanide ions have characteristic color depending on nature of
group with which they combine to form compounds
(D) some lanthanide ions absorb either in infrared or ultraviolet region of electromagnetic
spectrum

(13) 4-Hydroxy-4-methylpentanal on heating with excess of methanol in the presence of an


acid catalyst followed by dehydration of the product gives

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(14) Ice crystallizes in a hexagonal lattice. At a certain low temperature, the lattice constants
are a = 4.53 Å and c = 7.41 Å. The number of H2O molecules contained in a unit cell (d ≈
0.92 g cm−3 at the given temperature) is
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 24

(15) In the redox reaction

2MnO  
 + 5C O + 16H → 2Mn

+ 10CO + 8H O

20 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 react quantitatively with


(A) 20 mL of 0.1 M oxalate (B) 40 mL of 0.1 M oxalate
(C) 50 mL of 0.25 M oxalate (D) 50 mL of 0.1 M oxalate

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(16) The vapor pressure of benzene is 53.3 kPa at 60.6 °C, but it fall to 51.5 kPa when 19 g of
a nonvolatile organic compound is dissolved in 500 g benzene. The molar mass of the
nonvolatile compound is
(A) 82 (B) 85
(C) 88 (D) 92

(17) Sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia and forms a deep blue solution. The color is
due to absorption of light by
(A) sodium ions (B) ammoniated electrons
(C) free electrons (D) ammoniated sodium ions

(18) An organic base (X) reacts with nitrous acid at 0oC to give a clear solution. Heating the
solution with KCN and cuprous cyanide followed by continued heating with conc. HCl
gives a crystalline solid. Heating this solid with alkaline potassium permanganate gives a
compound which dehydrates on heating to a crystalline solid. ‘X’ is -
H
N
CH3
CH3
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(19) The de Broglie wavelength of an object of mass 33 g moving with a velocity of 200 m s−1
is of the order of
(A) 10−31 m (B) 10−34 m
(C) 10−37 m (D) 10−41 m

(20) A person having osteoporosis is suffering from lead poisoning. Ethylene diamine tetra
acetic acid (EDTA) is administered for this condition. The best form of EDTA to be used
for such administration is -

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C 230

(A) EDTA (B) tetrasodium salt


(C) disodium salt (D) calcium dihydrogen salt

(21) A water sample from a municipal water supply was found to have a pH = 7.0. On
evaporating 2 L of this water, 2.016 g of white solid was left behind in the evaporation
vessel, i.e., the total dissolved solid (TDS) content of this water was 1008 mg L−1.
However, addition of soap to a bucket of this water did not produce any visible scum.
Based on these findings, one can conclude that
(A) there are no Ca2+ or Mg2+ ion in the water
(B) there are no CO32 − or HCO3− ion in the water
(C) concentration of any ion in the water is lower than 0.038 M
(D) water may be containing Na+ ions in concentration > 0.04 M

(22) The best reaction sequence to convert 2-methyl-1-bromopropane into 4-methyl-2-


bromopentane is
(A) (i) Mg in ether (ii) acetaldehyde (iii) H+, H2O iv) ∆ v) HBr, H2O2
(B) (i) NaC≡CH in ether (ii) H2, Lindlar catalyst (iii) HBr, no peroxide
(C) (i) alcoholic KOH (ii) CH3COOOH (iii) H2/Pt (iv) HBr, heat
(D) (i) NaC≡CH in ether (ii) H3O+ + HgSO4 (iii) HBr, heat

(23) Metallic copper dissolves in


(A) dilute HCl (B) concentrated HCl
(C) aqueous KCN (D) pure ammonia

(24) A 50 mL solution of pH = 1 is mixed with a 50 mL solution of pH = 2. The pH of the


mixture is
(A) 0.86 (B) 1.26

(C) 1.76 (D) 2.26

(25) The Fischer projection formula that represents the following compound is

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CH3
H OH
H OH
HO H
CH3
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(26) Four statements for the following reaction are given below

[CoCl2(NH3)4]+ + Cl− → [CoCl3(NH3)3] + NH3

(I) only one isomer is produced if the reactant complex ion is a trans isomer
(II) three isomers are produced if the reactant complex ion is a cis isomer
(III) two isomers are produced if the reactant complex ion is a trans isomer
(IV) two isomers are produced if the reactant complex ion is cis isomer
The correct statements are
(A) I and II (B) III and IV
(C) I and IV (D) II and III

(27) The process in which an ideal gas undergoes change from X to Y as shown in the
following diagram is
Y

H
X
A
T 9
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(A) isothermal compression (B) adiabatic compression


(C) isothermal expansion (D) adiabatic expansion

(28) With respect to halogens, four statements are given below


(I) The bond dissociation energies for halogens are in the order: I2 < F2 < Br2 < Cl2
(II) The only oxidation state is -1
(III) The amount of energy required for the excitation of electrons to first excited state
decreases progressively as we move from F to I
(IV) They form HX2‾ species in their aqueous solutions (X = halogen)
The correct statements are
(A) I, II, IV (B) I, III, IV
(C) II, III, IV (D) I, III

(29) The order of reactivity of the following compounds in electrophilic monochlorination at


the most favorable position is

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) I < II < IV < III (B) III < IV < I < II
(C) IV < III < II < I (D) III < II < IV < I

(30) The limiting molar conductivities of KCl, KNO3 and AgNO3 are 149.9, 145.0 and 133.4 S
cm2 mol−1, respectively, at 25°C. The limiting molar conductivity of AgCl at the same
temperature in S cm2 mol−1 is
(A) 128.5 (B) 138.3
(C) 161.5 (D) 283.3

(31) Imagine that in any atom about 50% of the space is occupied by the atomic nucleus. If a
silver foil is bombarded with α-particles, majority of the α-particles would

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(A) be scattered
(B) be absorbed by the nuclei
(C) pass through the foil undeflected
(D) get converted into photons

(32) An organic compound (“X”) is a disubstituted benzene containing 77.8% carbon and
7.5% hydrogen. Heating an alkaline solution of “X” with chloroform gives a steam
volatile compound “Y”. Heating “Y” with acetic anhydride and sodium acetate gives a
sweet smelling crystalline solid “Z”. “Z” is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(33) The emf of a cell corresponding to the following reaction is 0.199 V at 298 K.

Zn (s) + 2 H+ (aq) → Zn2+ (0.1 M) + H2 (g) (E OZn / Zn + 2 = 0.76V)


The approximate pH of the solution at the electrode where hydrogen is being produced is
(pH2 = 1 atm)
(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 11

(34) The vapor pressure of two pure isomeric liquids X and Y are 200 torr and 100 torr
respectively at a given temperature. Assuming a solution of these components to obey
Raoult’s law, the mole fraction of component X in vapor phase in equilibrium with the
solution containing equal amounts of X and Y, at the same temperature, is
(A) 0.33 (B) 0.50
(C) 0.66 (D) 0.80

(35) n-Butylcyclohexane is formed through the following sequence of reactions.


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In the above scheme of reactions, “X” is -

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(36) In a first order reaction, 75% of the reactant disappears in 1.386 h, the rate constant of the
reaction is close to
(A) 7.2 × 10−3 s−1 (B) 3.6 × 10−3 s−1
(C) 1.8 × 10−3 s−1 (D) 2.8 × 10−4 s−1

(37) Four statements for Cr and Mn are given below.


(I) Cr2+ and Mn3+ have the same electronic configuration.
(II) Cr2+ is a reducing agent while Mn3+ is an oxidizing agent.
(III) Cr2+ is an oxidizing agent while Mn3+ is a reducing agent.
(IV) both Cr and Mn are oxidizing agents.
The correct statements are
(A) I, III, IV (B) I, II
(C) I, II, IV (D) I, IV

(38) Four processes are indicated below:

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(i) HBr/no peroxide (ii) alcoholic KOH,

(i) HI (ii) aqueous NaOH,

(i) Mg, ether (ii) CH 2O (iii) H + , H 2O

(i) aq KOH (ii) CH 3MgBr, ether (iii) H 3O +

The processes that do not produce 1-methylcyclohexanol are


(A) II, IV (B) I, II
(C) III, IV (D) I, III

(39) The reaction that is least feasible is


(A) Li2CO3 → Li2O + CO2
(B) 4Li + O2 → 2Li2O
(C) 6Li + N2 → 2Li3N
(D) 2C6H5C≡CH + 2Li → 2C6H5C≡CLi + H2

(40) Glucose when dissolved in water leads to cooling of the solution. Suppose you take 250
mL water at room temperature in an open container (such as a bowl) made of thermally
insulated material and dissolve a spoonful of glucose in it. If you are able to accurately
measure the heat absorbed by this solution in reaching back to room temperature
(assuming negligible changes in the composition and the amount of solution during this
process), you will be measuring
(A) the enthalpy of dissolution of the glucose in water
(B) the Gibbs free energy of dissolution of the glucose in water
(C) the work done by the atmosphere on the system during the dissolution process
(D) the heat capacity of the solution

(41) Compound “X” undergoes the following sequence of reactions to form “Y”.

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(i) ethylene glycol, H+ (ii) LiAlH 4


"Y"
"X" (iii) H 3O +, heat (iv) NH 2OH

Compound “Y” is -

(D)

(42) The complex that shows optical activity is


(A) trans-[CoCl2(en)2]+ (B) cis-[CoCl2(en)2]+
(C) trans-[PtCl2(NH3)2] (D) [CoCl2(NH3)2(en)]+

(43) 100 mL of 0.3 M acetic acid is shaken with 0.8 g wood charcoal. The final concentration
of acetic acid in the solution after adsorption is 0.125 M. The mass of acetic acid
adsorbed per gram of charcoal is
(A) 1.05 g (B) 0.0131 g
(C) 1.31 g (D) 0.131 g

(44) The reaction that does not produce nitrogen is


(A) heating (NH4)2Cr2O7 (B) NH3 + excess of Cl2
(C) heating of NaN3 (D) heating of NH4NO3

(45) The species having highest bond energy is


(A) O2 (B) O2+
(C) O2- (D) O22-

(46) The product (“X”) of the following sequence of reactions is

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(i)O 3, H 2O 2 (ii) NaOH, heat


"X"
(iii) H 3O + , warm

(D)

(47) Dicoumarol (X) is an anticoagulant. The number of possible monochloro substituted


isomeric derivatives and the volume of hydrogen liberated at STP by the reaction of 0.5
mol of dicoumarol with sodium are respectively

(X)
3
(A) 5, 22.4 dm (B) 5, 11.2 dm3
(C) 6, 11.2 dm3 (D) 4, 22.4 dm3

(48) The structure of a molecule of N(SiMe3)3 is


(A) Pyramidal with angle close to 110o
(B) T-shaped with angle 90o
(C) Bent T-shaped with angle close to 89o
(D) Trigonal planar with bond angle close to 120o

(49) For an electron whose x-positional uncertainty is 1.0 × 10−10 m, the uncertainty in the x-
component of the velocity in m s−1 will be of the order of
(A) 106 (B) 109
(C) 1012 (D) 1015

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(50) The order of pπ-dπ interaction in the compounds containing bond between Si/P/S/Cl and
oxygen is in the order
(A) P > Si > Cl > S (B) Si < P < S < Cl
(C) S < Cl < P < Si (D) Si > P > S > Cl

(51) The solubility products (Ksp) of three salts MX, MY2 and MZ3 are 1×10−8, 4×10−9 and
27×10−8, respectively. The correct order for solubilities of these salts is
(A) MX > MY2 > MZ3 (B) MZ3 > MY2 > MX
(C) MZ3 > MX > MY2 (D) MY2 > MX > MZ3

(52) Three isomeric compounds M, N, and P (C5H10O) give the following tests:
(i) M and P react with sodium bisulfite to form an adduct
(ii) N consumes 1 mol of bromine and also gives turbidity with conc. HCl/anhydrous
ZnCl2 after prolong heating
(iii) M reacts with excess of iodine in alkaline solution to give yellow crystalline
compound with a characteristic smell.
(iv) p-Rosaniline treated with sulphur dioxide develops pink colour on shaking with P

The structures of M, N, and P, respectively are

M N P
(A) O OH O

(B) OH O O

(C) O
OH
O
(D) H

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(53) The unbalanced equation for the reaction of P4S3 with nitrate in aqueous acidic medium is
given below.
P4S3 + NO3‾ → H3PO4 + SO42 − + NO
The number of mol of water required per mol of P4S3 is
(A) 18 (B) 8/3
(C) 8 (D) 28

(54) Certain combinations of cations and anions lead to the formation of colored salts in solid
state even though each of these ions with other counter ions may produce colorless salts.
This phenomenon is due to temporary charge transfer between the two ions. Out of the
following, the salt that can exhibit this behavior is
(A) SnCl2 (B) SnCl4
(C) SnBr2 (D) SnI4

(55) Desosamine has the following structure

The number of functional groups which react with hydroiodic acid, the number of chiral
centres, and the number of stereoisomers possible respectively are
(A) 4, 5, 8 (B) 3, 4, 16
(C) 3, 4, 8 (D) 4, 4, 16

(56) If k is the rate constant of the reaction and T is the absolute temperature, the correct plot
is
(A) (B)

ln k k

17
T 1/T
C 230

(C) (D)

k ln k

T 1/T
(57) 1,3-pentadiene and 1,4-pentadiene are compared with respect to their intrinsic stability
and reaction with HI. The correct statement is
(A) 1,3-pentadiene is more stable and more reactive than 1,4-pentadiene
(B) 1,3-pentadiene is less stable and less reactive than 1,4-pentadiene
(C) 1,3-pentadiene is more stable but less reactive than 1,4-pentadiene
(D) 1,3-pentadiene is less stable but more reactive than 1,4-pentadiene

(58) From the given structures, the correct structure(s) of PF3Cl2 is/are
Cl Cl
F
F
Cl F
F (III) P F
(I) P F (II) P
F Cl
Cl
F
F Cl

(A) only I (B) only II


(C) only III (D) I, II and III

(59) The ratio of the masses of methane and ethane in a gas mixture is 4:5. The ratio of
number of their molecules in the mixture is
(A) 4:5 (B) 3:2
(C) 2:3 (D) 5:4
(60) The hydrocarbon that cannot be prepared effectively by Wurtz reaction is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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(61) Glacial acetic acid dissolves in


(I) liquid H2S, as H2S is a polar covalent compound
(II) liquid NH3, as it can form hydrogen bond
(III) liquid HClO4, as it can protonate acetic acid
The correct option is
(A) only I (B) only II
(C) only III (D) I, II and III

(62) The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit is −13.6 eV. The energy of Be3+ in the
first excited state is
(A) − 30.6 eV (B) − 40.8 eV
(C) − 54.4 eV (D) + 40.8 eV

(63) Many protein-based biomaterials, such as waste hair and feathers, can absorb heavy
metal ions from wastewater. It has been observed that metal uptake by these materials
increases in alkaline condition. The enhanced uptake in alkaline conditions is due to
(A) generation of many ligand sites in the protein molecules due to removal of H+
(B) availability of a high concentration of OH− ions as ligands
(C) increased cross-linkages in the protein chains by formation of amide bonds
(D) increase in solubility of the proteins

(64) Compound “X” reacts with diborane followed by alkaline hydrogen peroxide to form
compound “Y”. “Y” on reaction with a mixture of sodium bromide in sulphuric acid
followed by bromobenzene and sodium in ether gives n-pentylbenzene. Compound “X”
is

(D)

(65) When any solution passes through a cation exchange resin that is in acidic form, H+ ion
of the resin is replaced by cations of the solution. A solution containing 0.319 g of an

19
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isomer with molecular formula CrCl3.6H2O is passed through a cation exchange resin in
acidic form. The eluted solution requires 19 cm3 of 0.125 N NaOH. The isomer is
(A) triaquatrichloro chromium(III) chloride trihydrate
(B) hexaaqua chromium(III) chloride
(C) pentaaquamonochloro chromium(III) chloride monohydrate
(D) tetraaquadichloro chromium(III) chloride dihydrate

(66) In an experiment, it was found that for a gas at constant temperature, PV = C. The value
of C depends on
(A) atmospheric pressure (B) quantity of gas
(C) molecular weight of gas (D) volume of chamber

(67) The compound that undergoes solvolysis in aq. ethanol most easily is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(68) Silver nitrate solution when added to a colorless aqueous solution E forms a white
precipitate which dissolves in excess of E. If the white precipitate is heated with water,
it turns black and the supernatant solution gives a white precipitate with acidified barium
nitrate solution. Therefore, E is
(A) Na2S (B) Na2S2O3
(C) Na2SO3 (D) Na2SO4

(69) The metal M crystallizes in a body centered lattice with cell edge 400 pm. The atomic
radius of M is
(A) 200 pm (B) 100 pm
(C) 173 pm (D) 141 pm

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(70) The reaction that does not proceed in forward direction is


(A) BeF2 + HgI2 → BeI2 + HgF2 (B) LiI + CsF → LiF + CsI
(C) CuI2 + 2CuF → CuF2 + 2CuI (D) CaS + H2O → CaO + H2S

(71) The order of basicity of the following compounds is

(A) I > II > IV > III (B) IV > II > I > II


(C) III > II > I > IV (D) I > II > III > IV

(72) The appropriate sequence of reactions for obtaining 2-phenylbutanoic acid from benzene
is
(A) (i) 1-chlorobutane/AlCl3 (ii) limited Cl2, light (iii) aq NaCN (iv) H+, H2O, heat
(B) (i) 2-chlorobutane/AlCl3 (ii) K2Cr2O7/H2SO4
(C) (i) propanoyl chloride/AlCl3 (ii) Zn-Hg/HCl (iii) limited Cl2, light (iv) aq. NaCN
(v) H+, H2O, heat
(D) (i) butanoyl chloride/AlCl3 (ii) NaBH4 (iii) CuCN (iv) H+, H2O, heat

(73) The quantity that does not change for a sample of a gas in a sealed rigid container when
it is cooled from 120oC to 90oC at constant volume is
(A) average energy of the molecule (B) pressure of the gas
(C) density of the gas (D) average speed of the molecules

(74) An ideal gas taken in an insulated chamber is released into interstellar space. The
statement that is nearly true for this process is
(A) Q = 0, W ≠ 0 (B) W = 0, Q ≠ 0
(C) ∆U = 0, Q ≠ 0 (D) Q = W = ∆U = 0

(75) 4-amino-3-methylbutanoic acid is treated with thionyl chloride followed by ammonia to


obtain compound “X”. “X” on reaction with bromine in an alkaline medium gave

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compound “Y”. For estimation, “Y” was titrated with perchloric acid. The volume of
0.1 M perchloric acid needed to react with 0.22 g of “Y” is
(A) 50 mL (B) 80 mL
(C) 120 mL (D) 200 mL

(76) For [FeF6]3− and [CoF6]3−, the statement that is correct is


(A) both are colored
(B) both are colorless
(C) [FeF6]3- is colored and [CoF6]3− is colorless
(D) [FeF6]3- is colorless and [CoF6]3− is colored

(77) Cotton fibers consist of cellulose polymers with neighboring polymers chains held
together by hydrogen bonds between −OH groups in the glucose units. Due to these
hydrogen bonds
(A) cotton is insoluble in water
(B) cotton can easily absorb ghee and oils and therefore are used to make
wicks in traditional lamps
(C) it is easier to iron cotton clothes when they are slightly wet or by applying
steam to the clothes
(D) cotton clothes have a high wear and tear than other fibers

(78) For the following reaction, formation of the product is favored by

A2(g) + 4B2(g) ≪ 2AB4(g), ∆H < 0

(A) low temperature and high pressure (B) high temperature and low pressure
(C) low temperature and low pressure (D) high temperature and high pressure

(79) Imagine a hypothetical situation in which capacity of any molecular orbital is 3 instead of
2 and the combination rules for the formation of molecular orbitals remain the same.
The number of delocalized pi-electrons stipulated by the modified Huckel’s rule of
aromaticity is (n= integer, including zero)

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C 230

(A) (3n+2) (B) (4n+3)


(C) (2n+3) (D) (6n+3)

(80) One mole crystal of a metal halide of the type MX with molecular weight 119 g having
face centered cubic structure with unit cell length 6.58 Å was recrystallized. The density
of the recrystallized crystal was found to be 2.44 g cm −3. The type of defect introduced
during the recrystalization is
(A) additional M+ and X‾ ions at interstitial sites
(B) Schottky defect
(C) F-centre
(D) Frenkel defect

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Indian Association of Physics Teachers


NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN CHEMISTRY 2016-2017
Total time: 120 minutes Marks: 240
Only one out of four options is correct

1) The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l, (i) n = 4, l = 1, (ii) n = 4, l = 0, (iii) n = 3, l = 2,


(iv) n = 3, l = 1 can be placed in order of increasing energy from lowest to highest as

a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) b) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii)
c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)

2) Spodoptol, a sex attractant, produced by a female fall armyworm moth, can be prepared as follows. The
structure of Spodoptol is (pKa: terminal alkynes ~25, alcohols ~ 17)

3) Passing H2S gas into a mixture of Mn2+, Ni2+, Cu2+ and Hg2+ in an acidified aqueous solution
precipitates
a) CuS and HgS b) MnS and CuS
c) MnS and NiS d) NiS and HgS

4) Battery acid (H2SO4) has density 1.285 g cm3. 10.0 cm3 of this acid is diluted to 1 L. 25.0 cm3 of
3
this diluted solution requires 25.0 cm of 0.1 N sodium hydroxide solution for neutralization. The
percentage of sulphuric acid by mass in the battery acid is
a) 98 b) 38
c) 19 d) 49

5) The compound that reacts fastest with methylamine is

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6) HgO is prepared by two different methods: one shows yellow colour while the other shows red colour.
The difference in colour is due to difference in

a) electronic d-d transitions b) particle size


c) Frenkel defect d) Schottkey defect

7) The pH of a 1.0  103 mol L1 solution of a weak acid HA is 3.60. The dissociation constant of the
acid is

a) 8.4  108 b) 8.4  106 c) 8.4  105 d) 8.4  102

8) The best sequence of reactions for preparation of the following compound from benzene is

a) ( i) CH3COCl/AlCl3 (ii) Oleum (iii) (CH3)2CH-Cl (1 mole)/AlCl3


b) (i) (CH3)2CH-Cl (1 mole)/AlCl3 (ii) CH3COCl/AlCl3 (iii) Oleum
c) (i) Oleum (ii) CH3COCl/AlCl3 (iii) (CH3)2CH-Cl (1 mole)/AlCl3
d) (i) (CH3)2CH-Cl (1 mole)/AlCl3 (ii) Oleum (iii) CH3COCl/AlCl3

9) Which reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures at standard pressure and concentration?


a) exothermic reaction with a decrease in entropy.
b) exothermic reaction with an increase in entropy
c) endothermic reaction with a decrease in entropy
d) endothermic reaction with an increase in entropy

10) The IUPAC name of the following compound is

a) 3-Aminocarbonylpent-1-en-4-yne b) 2-Ethenylbut-3-yn-1-amide
c) 2-Ethynylbut-3-en-1-amide d) 3-Aminocarbonylpent-4-en-1-yne

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11) NaOH solution is added dropwise to HCl solution and the


conductance of the mixture is measured after addition of

Conductance
each drop. The variation of conductance with volume of X Z
NaOH added is as shown in adjacent graph.

The statement that is not true for the above is Y


a) decrease in conductance from XY is due to decrease in
[H+]. Volume of base added
b) point Y represents the eqivalence point of titration.
c) Na+ has the higher equivalence conductance than H3O+.
d) segment YZ represents the conductance due to ions from
NaCl and NaOH in solution.

12) A colorless water-soluble compound on strong heating liberates a brown colored gas and leaves a
yellow residue that turns white on cooling. An aqueous solution of the original solid gives a white
precipitate with (NH4)2S. The original solid is
a) Zn(NO3)2 b) Ca(NO3)2
c) Al(NO3)3 d) NaNO3

13) The following compounds are heated (i) KNO3, (ii) Cu(NO3)2, (iii) Pb(NO3)2, (iv) NH4NO3 Which of
the following statement/s is/are correct?
a) (ii) and (iii) liberate NO2 b) (iv) liberates N2O
c) (i), (ii) and (iii) liberate O2 d) All statements are correct.

14) The diastereoisomer (stereoisomer that is not a mirror image) of ‘X’ is

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15) Given rH = 54.08 kJ mol1 and rS = 10.0 J mol1 at 25 C, the value of log10K for the reaction
A B is

a) 3.4 b) 10
c) 0.53 d) 113

16) Which of the complexes has the magnetic moment of 3.87 B.M.?

a) [Co(NH3)6]3+ b) [CoF6]3
c) [CoCl4]2 d) [Co(dmg)2] square planar complex (dmg = dimethyl glyoxime)

17) Compound ‘X’ in the following reaction is

18) A toxic element is to be removed from drinking water by adsorption on activated charcoal. At low
concentrations, the rate constant for adsorption is 1.8  105 s1. The time required to reduce the
concentration of the toxic element to 10 % of its initial concentration is

a) 1.28  105 s b) 5.85  103 s


c) 1.28  106 s d) cannot be calculated from the given data.

19) Assuming that Hund’s rule is violated by the diatomic molecule B2, its bond order and magnetic nature
will be respectively

a) 1, diamagnetic b) 1, paramagnetic
c) 2, diamagnetic d) 2, paramagnetic

20) In a cubic crystal structure, divalent metal-ion is located at the body-centered position, the smaller
tetravalent metal ions are located at each corner and the O 2 ions are located half way along each of
the edges of the cube. The number of nearest neighbors for oxygen is

a) 4 b) 6 c) 2 d) 8

6
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21) Organic compounds sometimes adjust their electronic as well as steric structures to attain stability.
Among the following, the compound having highest dipole moment is

22) Cyanide ion is a very good complexing agent and also functions as a reducing agent. Hence many
cyanide complexes of metals are known. Addition of an aqueous solution of KCN to a solution of
copper sulphate yields a white precipitate which is soluble in excess of aqueous KCN to form the
complex:

a) [Cu(CN)4]1 b) [Cu(CN)4]2 c) [Cu(CN)4]3 d) [Cu(CN)4]4

23) When a certain metal was irradiated with light of frequency 3.2  1016 Hz, the photoelectrons emitted
had twice the kinetic energy as did the photoelectrons emitted when the same metal was irradiated
with light of frequency 2.0  1016 Hz. The ν0 of the metal is

a) 2.4  1016 Hz b) 8.0  1016 Hz c) 8.0  1015 Hz d) 7.2  1016 Hz

24) The major product ‘S’ of the following reaction sequence is

25) 1.250 g of metal carbonate (MCO3) was treated with 500 mL of 0.1 M HCl solution. The unreacted
HCl required 50.0 mL of 0.500 M NaOH solution for neutralization. Identify the metal M

a) Mg b) Ca c) Sr d) Ba

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26) An electron beam can undergo diffraction by crystals which proves the wave nature of electrons. The
potential required for a beam of electrons to be accelerated so that its wavelength becomes equal to
0.154 nm is

a) 63.5 V b) 31.75 V
c) 635 V d) 127 V

27) A biodegradable alternating copolymer of L-alanine and glycolic acid (HO-CH2-COOH) is

28) In which of the following complexes the metal ion has the lowest ionic radius?

a) [Ti(H2O)6]2+ b) [V(H2O)6]2+ c) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ d) [Mn(H2O)6]2+

29) In cold climate, the water in a radiator of a car gets frozen causing damage to the radiator. Ethylene
glycol is used as an antifreezing agent. The amount of ethylene glycol that should be added to 5 kg
of water to prevent it from freezing at – 7 C is
(Given: Kf for water = 1.86 K mol1 kg; Molar mass of ethylene glycol = 62 g mol1)

a) 1165 g b) 46.7 g c) 116.7 g d) 93.4 g

30) The ratio of the energy of the electron in ground state of hydrogen atom to that of the electron in the
first excited state of Be3+ is

a) 1:4 b) 1:8 c) 1:16 d) 4:1

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A water insoluble, but organic solvent soluble, dye is dissolved in three organic solvents and taken in three
31)
separating funnels, a, b and c. To each solution, water is added, shaken, and kept undisturbed. The
solvents in separating funnels a, b and c from the following figures are respectively:

a) a: EtOH; b: CCl4; c: EtOAc b) a: CCl4 ; b: EtOH; c: EtOAc


c) a: EtOAc; b: CCl4 ; c: EtOH d) a: CCl4 ; b: EtOAc; c: EtOH

32) P, Q, R and S are four metals whose typical reactions are given below.

(I) Only Q and R react with dilute HCl to give H2 gas.


(II) When Q is added to a solution containing the ions of the other metals, metallic P, R and S are
formed.
(III) P reacts with concentrated HNO3 but S does not.
The correct order of their reducing character is:

a) S < P < R < Q b) S < R < P < Q c) R < Q < P < S d) Q < P < S < R

33) The kinetic energy of an electron that has a wavelength of 10 nm is

a) 2.4  1021 J b) 4.8  1021 J c) 2.4  1029 J d) 4.8  1029 J

34) Which of the following compounds contain 3centered 2electron bonding?

(i) [BeF2]n (ii) [Be(CH3)3]n (iii) [BeCl2]n (iv) [BeH2]n


a) (i) and (ii) b) (ii) and (iii) c) (ii) and (iv) d) (iii) and (iv)

35) 3-Methylpentane on monochlorination gives four possible products. The reaction follows free radical
mechanism. The relative reactivities for replacement of -H are 3⁰:2⁰:1⁰ = 6:4:1.

Relative amounts of A, B, C and D formed are


a) 6/31, 16/31, 6/31, 3/31 b) 16/31, 6/31, 6/31, 3/31
c) 6/31, 16/31, 3/31, 6/31 d) 6/31, 3/31, 6/31, 16/31

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36) White phosphorous on reaction with NaOH gives PH3 and

a) Na2HPO3 b) NaH2PO2 c) NaH2PO3 d) Na3PO4

37) Given the E0 values for the half reactions:


Sn4+ + 2 e  Sn2+, 0.15 V
2Hg2+ + 2 e  Hg , 0.92 V
PbO2 + 4 H+ + 2 e  Pb2+ + 2 H2O, 1.45 V
Which of the following statements is true?

a) Sn2+ is a stronger oxidizing agent than Pb4+.


b) Sn2+ is a stronger reducing agent than Hg 22 .
c) Hg2+ is a stronger oxidizing agent than Pb4+.
d) Pb2+ is a stronger reducing agent than Sn2+.

38) For the conversion CCl4(l)  CCl4(g) at 1 bar and 350 K, the correct set of thermodynamic parameters
is (Boiling point of CCl4 is 77 C)

a) G = 0, S = +ve b) G = 0, S =  ve
c) G = ve, S = 0 d) G = ve, S = + ve

39) How many isomers are possible for complex [Co(ox) 2Cl2]+?

a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4

40) The compound that will not react with silver perchlorate under normal conditions is

a) 3-bromocyclopropene b) tetraethyl ammonium chloride


c) tetramethylammonium hydroxide d) polyvinyl chloride

41) The conductivity of 0.10 M KCl solution at 298 K is 1.29  102 S cm1. The resistance of this solution
is found to be 28.44 . Using the same cell, the resistance of 0.10 M NH4Cl solution is found to be
28.50 . The molar conductivity of NH4Cl solution in S cm2 mol1 is

a) 0.130 b) 13 c) 130 d) 1300

42) Consider a compound CsXY2 where X and Y are halogens. Which of the following statement/s is/are
correct?
(i) X and Y have different oxidation states.
(ii) For Y with lower atomic number than X, X can assume oxidation states higher than normal.
(iii) Such compounds exist because Cs+ has a high charge to size ratio.

a) Only (i) b) (i) and (ii)


c) Only (ii) d) (i) and (iii)

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43) Match the compounds given in list I with their characteristic reactions in list II

List I (Compound) List II (Reaction)


1 Tertbutyl amine a Liberation of ammonia on heating with aq NaOH
2 2-methyl-2-pentanol b Effervescence with NaHCO3
3 2,4,6-trinitrophenol c Foul smell with chloroform in alkaline condition
4 Cyclohexane carboxamide d Formation of an water insoluble compound on
treatment with conc. HCl and ZnCl2
a) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b b) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a c) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d d) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

44) Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the galvanic cells?

a) Oxidation occurs at the anode.


b) Ions carry current inside the cell.
c) Electrons flow in the external circuit from cathode to anode.
d) When the cell potential is positive, the cell reaction is spontaneous.

45) L-Fucose with the following planar representation is a sugar component of the determinants of the A,
B, O blood group typing

The open chain structure of L-Fucose can be represented as

46) In ammonia the bond angle is 107 48’ while in SbH3 the bond angle is about 91o 18’. The correct
explanation among the followings is/ are

a) The orbitals of Sb used for the formation of Sb-H bond are almost pure p-orbitals.
b) Sb has larger size compared to N.
c) Sb has more metallic character than N.
d) All the statements are correct.
47) Equal masses of ethane and hydrogen gas are present in a container at 25 C. The fraction of the total
pressure exerted by ethane gas is

a) 1/2 b) 1/16 c) 15/16 d) 1/8

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48) The volume of nitrogen evolved on complete reaction of 9 g of ethylamine with a mixture of NaNO2
and HCl at 273 ⁰C and 1 atm pressure is

a) 11.2 dm3 b) 5.6 dm3 c) 4.48 dm3 d) 22.4 dm3

49) If a dilute solution of aqueous NH3 is saturated with H2S then the product formed is

a) (NH4)2S b) NH4HS c) (NH4)2Sx d) NH4OH + S

50) Three Faradays of electricity are passed through aqueous solutions of AgNO 3, NiSO4 and CrCl3 kept in
three vessels using inert electrodes. The ratio (in moles) in which the metals Ag, Ni and Cr are
deposited is

a) 1 : 2 : 3 b) 3 : 2 : 1 c) 6 : 3 : 2 d) 2 : 3 : 6

51) Nepetalactone (X) is isolated as an oil from Catnip.

The number of chiral carbon atoms and the amount of KOH consumed by 83 mg of Nepatalactone
are respectively

a) 3, 50 mg b) 2, 56 mg c) 3, 56 mg d) 3, 28 mg

52) Number of PS single bonds and PS double bonds (PS) in P4S10 are respectively

a) 10, 6 b) 16, 0 c)14, 2 d) 12, 4

53) If the solubility product of iron(III) hydroxide is 1.8  1037, the pH of a saturated solution of iron(III)
hydroxide in distilled water is close to

a) 4 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9

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54) An alkyl halide (X) on reaction with ethanolic sodium hydroxide forms an alkene (Y) which on further
reaction with HBr gives the same alkyl halide. The alkene (Y) on reaction with HBr /peroxide
followed by reaction with Mg metal followed by reaction with HCN produces an aldehyde (Z). Z
is

55) HClO4 is a stronger acid than HClO. The correct statement is



a) ClO 4 ion is more stabilized than ClO

b) ClO 4 ion has higher hydration energy than ClO 
c) HClO4 is better solvated in water than HClO.
d) In HClO4, H is attached to Cl, while in HClO it is attached to O.

56) For an elementary rearrangement reaction A P, the following data were recorded at 303 K,
when [P]0 = 0 :

Set No. [A]0/mol L1 Rate of conversion of A/mol L1 min1


1 0.340 0.100
2 0.170 0.050
3 0.085 0.025
If the equilibrium constant of the reaction is 1.12 at 303 K, the rate constant for the reaction P  A
is

a) 0.263 min1 b) 0.294 min1 c) 0.526 min1 d) 0.588 min1

57) Compound P on treatment with CH2N2 (diazomethane) produces compound Q. Compound Q on


reaction with HI produces two alkyl iodides R and S. Alkyl iodide S with higher number of carbon
atoms on reaction with KCN followed by hydrolysis gives 3-methylbutanoic acid. The compound P
is

a) 2-butanol b) 1-butanol c) 2-methyl-2-propanol d) 2-methyl-1-propanol

58) I2 reacts with aqueous Na2S2O3 to give Na2S4O6 and NaI. The products of reaction of Cl2 with aqueous
Na2S2O3 are

a) Na2S4O6 + NaCl b) NaHSO4 + HCl c) NaHSO3 + HCl d) NaHSO3 + NaCl

59) The standard potentials (E) of and MnO2/Mn2+ half cells in acidic medium are 1.51 V
and 1.23 V respectively at 298 K. The standard potential of MnO2 half-cell in acidic
medium at the same temperature is

a) 5.09 V b) 1.70 V c) 0.28 V d) 3.34 V

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60) Aspartame (X) is an artificial sweetening agent and is 200 times sweeter than sugar. It is an ester of the
dipeptide of

a) alanine and phenylalanine b) aspartic acid and alanine


c) phenylalanine and glycine d) aspartic acid and phenylalanine
61) Which one of the following reactions is correct?

a) [Fe(CO)5] + 2NO  [Fe(CO)2(NO)2] + 3CO


b) [Fe(CO)5] + 2NO  [Fe(CO)3(NO)2] + 2CO
c) [Fe(CO)5] + 3NO  [Fe(CO)2(NO)3] + 3CO
d) [Fe(CO)5] + 3NO  [Fe(CO)3(NO)3] + 2CO

62) Standard molar enthalpy of formation of CO2 (g) is equal to

a) Zero
b) The standard molar enthalpy of combustion of carbon (graphite)
c) The standard molar enthalpy of combustion of C(g)
d) The standard molar enthalpy of combustion of CO(g)

63) The reaction of 1-phenylpropane with limited amount of chlorine in the presence of light gives mainly

a) 4-chloropropylbenzene b) 1-chloro-1-phenylpropane
c) 3-chloro-1-phenylpropane d) 2-chloro-1-phenylpropane

64) An ionic solid LaI2 shows electrical conduction due to presence of

a) La2+ and 2I b) La3+, 2I and e c) La2+, I2 and 2e d) La3+, I2 and 3e

65) For a gaseous reaction, A + B  Products, the energy of activation was found to be 2.27 kJ mol1 at
273 K. The ratio of the rate constant (k) to the frequency factor (A) at 273 K is

a) 0.368 b) 3.68 c) 4.34 d) 0.434

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66) In the case of dibromo derivatives of the following compound, the derivative having highest energy has
the bromo substituents in positions

a) 1,2 b) 2,3 c) 4,5 d) 1,10

67) The ionization energy of a certain element is 412 kJ mol1. When the atoms of this element are in the
first excited state, however, the ionization energy is only 126 kJ mol1. The region of the
electromagnetic spectrum in which the wavelength of light emitted in a transition from the first
excited state to the ground state is

a) Visible b) UV c) IR d) X-ray

68) The reaction of an olefin with HBr can proceed by ionic as well as radical mechanism. The reaction in
the presence of light takes place by radical mechanism, as

a) the free energy of the reaction in radical mechanism is higher than in ionic mechanism
b) ionic mechanism requires a catalyst while radical mechanism does not.
c) in the presence of light the activation energy of the reaction is lower than that for ionic
mechanism.
d) a radical reaction has very low activation energy as compared to that for the corresponding
ionic reaction.
69) The correct statement/s is/are
I. Soap is excellent for cleaning, 100% broken down by bacteria in rivers and hence has no further
environmental damaging repercussions.
II. Soap forms an insoluble precipitate/scum when hard water containing calcium and magnesium
ion is used.
III. Soaps can be used for cleansing under acidic solutions.

a) Only I b) Only II c) Only III d) I and III

70) The kinetic data recorded at 278 K for the reaction


NH4+(aq) + NO2¯(aq)  N2(g) + 2H2O(l) is
Set No. [NH4+]M [NO2¯]/M Rate of reaction/ M s1
1 0.24 0.10 7.2  106
2 0.12 0.10 3.6  106
3 0.12 0.15 5.4  106
The kinetic rate expression and the unit of rate constant (k) of the above reaction are respectively

a) k [NH4+][NO2¯]and M s1 b) k [NH4+] and s1


c) k [NH4+][NO2¯]and M1 s1 d) k [NO2¯] and s1

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71) Which of the following statements is not true for Ce3+ and Yb3+?

a) Both absorb in UV region b) Both show f-f transition


c) Both show 4f to 5d transition d) Both ions are colorless

72) Complete catalytic hydrogenation of naphthalene gives decalin (C 10H18). The number of isomers of
decalin formed and the total number of isomers of decalin possible are respectively

a) 1, 2 b) 2, 2 c) 2, 4 d) 3, 4

73) The mass of argon adsorbed per unit mass of carbon surface is plotted against pressure. Which of the
following plots is correct if x and m represent the masses of argon and carbon respectively? (----
represents extrapolated data)
a) b)

x/m x/m

P P
c) d)

x/m x/m

P P

74) In a process n-propyl chloride is reacted with sodium butanoate in an aqueous medium. After the
reaction diethyl ether is added and the solution is shaken. The two layers are separated. The
incorrect statement with respect to this procedure is

a) The reaction gives a solid product which precipitates in the aqueous solution.
b) The reaction takes place in the aqueous medium.
c) The product is extracted in diethyl ether and the organic layer is the upper layer.
d) The salt formed in the reaction remains in aqueous medium.

75) Which of the following statements about ammonium cerium(IV) nitrate, (NH 4)2[Ce(NO3)6] is false?

a) NO3¯ acts as a monodentate ligand


b) The Ce atom has a coordination number of 12
c) The shape of the complex ion is icosahedron.
d) The solution is used as oxidizing agent.

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76) The correct order of the magnitude of bond energy (kJ/mol) of the central C-C bond in the following
compounds is
(i) CH2=CH-CH=CH2 (j) Me3C-CPh3 (k) MeCO-CO-Me (l) CH≡C-C≡CH

a) k > i > l > j b) j > k > l > i c) i > j > k > l d) l > i > k > j

77) Which one of the following information about the compounds is correct?

Compounds Oxidation.state No. of P—OH No. of P—H No. of


of P bonds bonds P=O bonds
[I] H3PO2 Hypophosphorous 1+ 2 1 0
acid
[II] H4P2O5 3+ 2 2 2
pyropophosphorous acid
[III] H4P2O6 4+ 2 2 2
Hypophosphoric acid
[IV] H4P2O7 5+ 3 1 4
pyrophosphoric acid
a) I b) III c) IV d) II

78) The best method of preparation of 2-benzyloxynaphthalene is a base catalysed reaction of

a) benzyl chloride and 1-naphthol b) 1-chloromethylnaphthalene and phenol


c) 1-chloronaphthalene and benzyl alcohol d) benzyl alcohol and 1-naphthol

79) The pair that is isostructural (i.e. having the same shape and hybridization) is

a) NF3 and BF3 b) BF4¯ and NH4+ c) BCl3 and BrCl3 d) NH3 and NO3¯

80) A group which departs from the substrate in a nucleophilic substitution reaction is called a leaving
group. The ease of departure is determined by the acidity of the conjugate acid of the leaving
group; higher the acidity better is the leaving group. The correct order of the reactivity of the
following compounds in a given nucleophilic reaction is-

a) R-Cl > R-OCOCH3 > R-OSO2CH3 > RI


b) R-OSO2CH3 > R-Cl > R-OCOCH3 > ROH
c) R-I > RNH2 > R-OCOCH3 > R-OSO2CH3
d) R-Br > R-OSO2CH3 > R-OCOCH3 > ROCH3

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Indian Association of Physics Teachers


NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN CHEMISTRY 2017-2018
Total time: 120 minutes Marks: 240

Only one out of four options is correct


1) At constant T and P, 5.0L of SO2 are reacted with 3.0L of O2 according to the following
equation 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)  2SO3 (g)
The volume of the reaction mixture at the completion of the reaction is
(A) 0.5L (B) 8.0L (C) 5.5L (D) 5L

2) The following disaccharide is made up of

(A) D-aldose and D-ketose


(B) L-aldose and L-ketose
(C) D-aldose and L-ketose
(D) L-aldose and D-ketose

3) One mole of 4-nitrocatechol (4-nitro-1,2-dihydroxybenzene) on treatment with an


excess of NaH followed by one mole of methyl iodide gives –
(A) 4-nitro-1,2-dimethoxybenzene
(B) 4-nitro-5-methyl-1,2-dimethoxybenzene
(C) 2-methoxy-5-nitrophenol
(D) 2-methoxy-4-nitrophenol
4) The colour changes of an indicator HIn in acid base titrations is given below

Which of the following statements is correct?


(A) In a strong alkaline solution colour Y will be observed
(B) In a strongly acidic solution colour Y will be observed
(C) Concentration of In- is higher than that of HIn at the equivalence point
(D) In a strong alkaline solution colour X is observed

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5) The table below gives the results of three titrations carried out with 0.200 M HCl to
determine the molarity of a given NaOH solution using phenolphthalein as indicator.
NaOH was taken in the burette and HCl was taken in a conical flask for the titrations.

Titration V HCl (mL) V NaOH (mL) MNaOH moldm-3


No
I 21.4 19.3 0.222
II 18.6 16.8 0.221
III 22.2 21.1 0.210

The actual molarity of the prepared NaOH solution was 0.220 moldm-3.
Which among the following could be the reason for the wrong value obtained in titration
III?
(A) Number of drops of phenolphthalein added to the titration flask was more in this
titration
(B) The concentration of HCl was wrongly used as 0.250 M for the calculation of M NaOH
(C) A few drops of NaOH solution were spilled outside the titration flask during titration
((D) A few drops of the neutralized solution from titration II were left behind in the flask

6) The solution with pH value close to 1 is


(A)10 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 90 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(B) 55 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 45 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(C) 75 mL of 0.2 M HCl + 25 mL of 0.2 M NaOH
(D) 75 mL of 0.2 M HCl + 25 mL of 0.1 M NaOH

7) The most basic nitrogen in the following compound


is

(A) I (B) II
(C) III (D) IV

8) For the reaction N2 + 3H2  2NH3, the rate expression is –d[NH3]/dt = k[H2][N2]
The correct statement is
I. The reaction is not elementary II. The reaction is of second order

III. –d[H2]/dt = -d[NH3]/dt

(A) II only (B) I and II (C) II and III (D) I , II and III

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9) Which of the following is correct?


A liquid with
(A) low vapour pressure will have a low surface tension and high boiling point
(B) high vapour pressure will have high intermolecular forces and high boiling point
(C) low vapour pressure will have high surface tension and high boiling point
(D) low vapour pressure will have low surface tension and low boiling point

10) At 250C, nitrogen exists as N2 and phosphorous exists as P4 because


(A) N2 has valence electrons only in bonding and nonbonding orbitals, while P has
valence electrons in both bonding and antibonding orbitals
(B) higher electronegativity of N favours formation of multiple bonds
(C) bigger size of P does not favour multiple bonds
(D) P has preference to adapt structures with small bond angles

11) The product of the following reaction is

12) Three samples of 100 g of water (samples I, II and III), initially kept at 1 atm
pressure and 298 K were given the following treatments.
Sample I was heated to 320 K and cooled to 298 K
Sample II was heated to 300 K, cooled to 273K and heated to 298 K
Sample III was heated to 373K and cooled to 298 K
At the end of these processes, the internal energy of
(A) III is the highest

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(B) II is the highest


(C) I and III are the same; II is lower than that of I and III
(D) I, II and III are the same

13) For the reaction


5Br- (aq) + BrO3- (aq) + 6H+ (aq)  3Br2(aq) + 3H2O (l)
the rate expression was found to be -d[BrO3-]/dt = k [Br-][H+]2 [BrO3-]
Which of the following statement/s is /are correct?
I. Doubling the initial concentration of all the reactants will increase the reaction rate
by a factor of 8
II. Unit of rate constant of the reaction in a buffer solution is min-1
III. Doubling the concentration of all the reactants at the same time will increase the
reaction rate by a factor of 16
IV. rate of conversion of BrO3- and rate of formation of Br – are the same
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) II and IV (D) III only

14) In the Lewis structure of ozone (O3), the formal charge on the central oxygen atom is
(A) +1 (B) -1 (C) 0 (D) -2

15) Which of the following on treatment with hot concentrated acidified KMnO4 will
give
2-methylhexane-1,6-dioic acid as the only organic product?

16) For the following spontaneous process


H2O(l) → H2O(s) at 268 K , which of the following is true?
(A) ΔSsys< 0 (B) ΔSsys> 0 (C) ΔSsurr< 0 (D) ΔSsys = - ΔSsurr

17) Lithium oxide (Li2O; molar mass =30 g mol -1) is used in space shuttles to remove
water vapour according to the following reaction
Li2O (s) +H2O (g) → 2LiOH (s)

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If 60 kg of water and 45 kg of Li2O are present in a shuttle


I. water will be removed completely
II. Li2O will be the limiting reagent
III. 100 kg of Li2O will be required to completely remove the water present
IV. 27 kg of water will remain in the shuttle at the end of the reaction
(A) II only (B) II and IV (C) III and IV (D) II, III

18) The order of enol content in the following molecules is

(A) a>d>c>b (B) a>c>d>b (C) a>c>b>d (D) a>b>c>d

19) The product of the following reaction is

20) At constant volume, 6.0 mol of H2 gas at 00 C and 100 kPa was heated to
250 kPa. The molar heat of H2 at constant pressure (CP) = 28.9 J mol-1.( assume that
the heat capacity values do not change with temperature).The final temperature of
the H2 gas and the change in entropy of the process are
(A) 2730 C and 113 kJ mol-1 K-1 (B) 4100 C and 158.8 J mol-1 K-1
( C) 682.50 C and 113 J mol-1 K-1 (D) 682.5 K and 113 J mol-1 K-1

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21) The cubic unit cell of an oxide of metals A and B is as given below, in which
oxygen,
A and B are represented by open circles, crossed circles and dark circles
respectively.

The formula of the oxide can be deduced as


(A) AB8O12 (B) ABO (C) ABO6 (D) ABO3
22) When a medal is electroplated with silver (Ag)
(A) the medal is the anode
(B) Ag metal is the cathode
(C) the solution contains Ag+ ions
(D) the reaction at the anode is Ag+ + e- Ag

23) The energy of an electron in Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. The total
electronic energy of a ‘hypothetical’ He atom in which there are no electron –
electron repulsions is
(A) 27.2 eV (B) -27. 2 eV (C) -108.8 eV (D) 108.8 eV

24) Iodine is a solid and sublimes at ordinary temperatures. This is because of


(A) weak I-I bonds
(B) strong I-I bonds
(C) lone pair - bond pair repulsions
(D) weak van der Waals forces between I2 molecules

25) The equilibrium constants of the following isomerisation reaction at 400 K and 298
K are 2.07 and 3.42 respectively.

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Which of the following is/are correct?


I. The reaction is exothermic
II. The reaction is endothermic
III. At 400 K 50% of cis-butene and 50% of trans-butene are present at equilibrium
IV. Both at 298 K and 400 K, k1= k-1
(A) I and IV (B) II and IV (C) I and III (D) I only
26) Which of the following will not give a straight line plot for an ideal gas?
(A) V vs T (B) T vs P (C) V vs 1/P (D) V vs 1/T

27) Levonorgestrel is a commonly used


contraceptive. The number of chiral centers
present in this molecule is

(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7

28) Which of the following ethers cannot be prepared by Williamson Synthesis?

29) IUPAC name of the complex ion [CrCl2(ox)2]3- is


(A) dichlorodioxalatochromium (III)
(B) dioxalatodichrlorochromate(III)
(C) dichlorodioxalatochromate (III)
(D) bisoxalaeodichlorochromate(III)

30) Sodium azide ( NaN3) is used in the airbag of cars. This is a safety device which
inflates on an impact according to the reaction 2NaN3 2Na + 3N2

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An air bag of a particular car can be filled with 44.8L of gas at STP. The mass (g) of
NaN3 required to fill this airbag completely at 298K and 1 atm. pressure is
(A) 87 (B) 130 (C) 84 (D) 100

31) Which of the following mixtures of water and H2SO4 would have mass percentage of
H2SO4 close to 30?
(A) 30 g H2SO4 + 100 g H2O
(B) 1 mol of H2SO4 + 2 mol of H2O
(C) 1mol of H2SO4 + 200 g of H2O
(D) 0.30 mol H2SO4 + 0.70 mol H2O
32) In chlorides, the common oxidation states of aluminium and thallium are +3 and +1
respectively because
(A) Tl-Cl bond is ionic and Al-Cl bond is covalent
(B) 6s electrons of Tl are bound more strongly than the 3s electrons of Al
(C) Tl-Cl bond is stronger than Al-Cl bond
(D) 3s electrons of Al are bound strongly than the 6s electrons of Tl
33) In the given compound the order of ease with which hydrogen atom can be
abstracted from carbons I to VI is

(A) II > VI > IV = V > I > III (B) II > I > VI > III > IV =V
(C) II > I > III > VI > IV =V (D) VI > II > I > III > IV =V

Use the table given below to answer questions 34 and 35


Reaction E0/V
Ag  Ag+ + e- -0.80
Cr3+ + 3e-  3 Cr -0.74
Zn2+ + 2e-  Zn -0.76
I2(s) + 2e-  2 I- 0.54
2+ -
Co + 2e  Co -0.28
Ni2+ + 2e-  Ni -0.26

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34) The best reducing agent among the following is


(A) Ag+ (B) Zn2+ (C) Cr3+ (D) I-

35) E0 of the given cell is

(A) +0.02 V (B) -0.02 V (C) -0.54 V (D) +0.54 V

36) Which of the following is not a pair of a Lewis acid and a Lewis base?
(A) H+, (C2H5)2O
(B) H2O, AlCl3
(C) Fe3+, CO
(D) SiF4, BF3

37) The type/s of isomerism that Co(NH3)4Br2Cl can exhibit is/are


(A) geometric and ionisation
(B) ionisation
(C) Optical and ionisation
(D) Optical, ionisation and geometric
38) Pyrethrins are produced in chrysanthemum flowers and used as insecticides.

Structure of pyrethrin I is given below.

Pyrethrin I ( molar mass = 328.0g/mol)


The volume of 0.05 mol dm-3 bromine water that would react with 500 mg sample of
Pyrethrin I is
(A) 12.2 cm3 ( B) 122 dm3 ( C) 122 cm3 (D) 1.31x103 cm3
39) Coniferyl alcohol is isolated from pine trees. The following observations were made
about this alcohol .

I. It forms methylated product with MeI in presence of a base

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II. One equivalent of coniferyl alcohol reacts with two equivalents of benzoyl
chloride
III. Upon ozonolysis , coniferyl alcohol gives a product ‘Y’ (M.F C2H4O2)
The structure of coniferyl alcohol would be

40) Which of the following represents a polymer of prop-2-en-1-ol?

41) A 500 mL glass flask is filled at 298 K and 1 atm. pressure with three diatomic gases
X, Y and Z. The initial volume ratio of the gases before mixing was 5:3:1. The
density of the heaviest gas in the mixture is not more than 25 times that of the lightest
gas. When the mixture was heated, vigorous reactions take place between X and Y
and X and Z in which all the three gases were completely used up.
The gases X, Y, Z respectively are
(A) H2, O2, N2 (B) H2, O2, Cl2 (C) H2, F2, O2 (D) O2, H2, F2

42) The reaction X +Y  Z is first order with respect to X and second order with respect
to Y. The initial rate of formation of Z = R mol- dm 3sec-1 when [ X]0 and [Y]0 are
0.40 mol dm-3 and 0. mol dm-3 respectively. If [X]0 is halved and [Y]0 is doubled, the
value of the initial rate would become
(A) 4R (B) R/4 (C) R (D) 2R

43) Which one of the following statements is not correct about glucose ?

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(molar mass of glucose =180 g mol-1)


(A) An aqueous 0.25 M solution of glucose is prepared by dissolving 45 g of glucose
in water to give 1000 cm3 of solution
(B) 1.00 mmol glucose has a mass of 180 mg
(C) 90.0 g glucose contain 1.8x1022 atoms of carbon
(D) 100 cm3 of a 0.10 M solution contains 18 g of glucose

44) The van der Waals equation for one mole of a real gas can be written as
(P + a/V2) (V - b) = RT. For the gases H2, NH3, and CH4, the value of ‘a’(bar L- 2
mol-2) are
0.2453, 4.170 and 2.253 respectively.
Which of the following can be inferred from the ‘a’ values?

(A) NH3 can be most easily liquefied


(B) H2 can be most easily liquified
(C) value of ‘a’ for CH4 is less than that of NH3 because it has the lower molar mass
(D) intermolecular forces are the strongest in hydrogen

45) Terpinen-4-ol is an active ingredient in tea tree oil has the following structure

The correct observations for terpinen-4-ol is/are


I. It rotates the plane of plane polarized light
II. It reacts with Baeyers’s reagent to form form a triol
III. On reaction with NaBr and H2SO4, it gives form a diobromo compound
IV. On ozonolysis it gives a compound with molecular formula C10H18O3
(A) I, II, III and IV (B) I, III and IV (C) II and III (D) III and IV
46) The correct order of the ability of the leaving groups is
(A) OCOC2H5 > OC2H5 > OSO2Et > OSO2CF3
(B) OC2H5 > OCOC2H5 > OSO2CF3 > OSO2Me
(C) OSO2CF3 > OSO2Me > OCOC2H5 > OC2H5

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(D) OCOC2H5 > OSO3CF3 > OC2H5 > OSO2Me

47) Metal ‘M’ forms a carbonyl compound in which it is present in its lower valance
state. Which of the following bonding is possible in this metal carbonyl ?

48) Acetic acid (CH3COOH) is partially dimerised to (CH3COOH)2 in the vapour phase.
At a total pressure of 0.200 atm, acetic acid is 92.0% dimerized at 298 K.
The value of equilibrium constant of dimerisation under these conditions is
(A) 57.5 (B) 9.7 (C) 97 (D) 194

49) Silanes are silicon hydrides of general formula SinH2n+2 and have several
applications. From the data given below, the bond dissociation enthalpy of Si-Si
bond can be deduced as

ΔH of the reaction 2Si (s) +3H2 (g)  Si2H6 (g) is 80.3kJ mol-1
Bond dissociation enthalpy for H–H = 436 kJ/mol

Bond dissociation enthalpy for Si–H = 304 kJ/mol

ΔfH [Si(g)] = 450 kJ/mol

(A) – 304 kJ mol-1 (B) 384.3 kJ mol-1 (C) 304 kJ mol-1 (D) -384.3 kJ mol-1
ΔfH [Si2H6(g)] = 80.3 kJ/mol
50) In the following reaction, three products a, b, c are obtained.

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The approximates experimental yields of the three compounds were 64%, 33% and 3%.
Which of the following is the correct with respect to yield and the corresponding product?
(A) (a)-33%; (b)-64%; (c)-3% (B) (a)-3%; (b)-64%; (c)-33%
(C) (a)-3%; (b)-33%; (c)-64 % (D) (a)-64%; (b)-3%; (c)-33%

51) Which of the following represents the correct order of dipole moment?
(A) NH3>NF3>H2O (B) NH3>H2O > NF3
(C) H2O > NH3 > NF3 (D) H2O > NF3 > NH3

52) The best reaction sequence for the synthesis of 2-pentanone would be -

CH3MgI/ ether H+, H2O


(A) CH3CH2CH2CHO -------------- X -----------
CH3MgI/ ether H+, H2O
(B) CH3CH2CH2CN ------------------ X -------------
CH3MgI/ ether H+, H2O
(C) CH3CH2CH2CHO -------------- X -----------
Ether H+, H2O
(D) CH3CH2CH2MgI + CH2O --------- X ----------

53) Haemoglobin is a Fe containing protein responsible for oxygen transport in the


blood.. The curves given below indicate the percentage saturation of haemoglobin by
O2 as a function of partial pressure of O2.

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Which of the following statement/s is/are correct for the given curves?
I. In presence of CO2, higher pO2 is needed for a given percentage saturation
II. In presence of CO2, lower pO2 is needed for a given percentage saturation
III. The maximum percentage saturation is not affected by the presence of CO2
IV. In the absence of CO2, maximum saturation of haemoglobin occurs at lower p O2
(A) I and IV (B) II and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) II and III

54) An appropriate reagent for the conversion of 1-propanol to 1-propanal is

(A) acidified potassium dichromate


(B) alkaline potassium permanganate
(C) pyridinium chlorochromate
(D) acidified CrO3

55) A student performed an experiment to determine the molecular formula of a given


sample of hydrated copper (II) sulphate by weighing the sample before and after
heating. The formula obtained experimentally was CuSO4 5.5H2O while the actual
formula of the given sample is CuSO4 .5H2O. Which experimental error would
account for the
wrongly obtained result?
(A) During heating, some of the hydrated copper(II) sulphate was lost
(B) The hydrated sample was not heated long enough to remove all the water present
(C) Weight of the hydrated sample recorded was less than the actual weight taken
(D) The balance used in the study showed all weights consistently high by 0.10 g

56) Malic acid is a dicarboxylic acid present in apples and it has the following structure

Which of the following synthetic routes will give ( )malic acid?

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(A) i and ii (B) ii (C) ii and iii (D) i and iii


57) Which of the following cannot act as an oxidising agent?
(A) S2- B.Br2 C. HSO4- D. SO3-2

58) Ellingham diagrams are plots of ΔG0 vs temperature which have applications in
metallurgy.
2H2 + O2  2H2O ΔG (J) = -247500 + 55.85 T …………... (I)

2CO + O2  2CO2 ΔG (J) = -282400 + 86.81T ……….…….(II)


The Ellingham diagrams for the oxidation of H2 (I) and CO (II) are given below.
The two lines intersect (TE) at 1125K.

Which of the following is correct?


I. ΔG for reaction (i) is more negative at T < 1125K

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II. ΔG for the reduction of CO is more negative at T < 1125K


III. H2 is a better reducing agent at T > 1125K
IV.H2 is a better reducing agent at T < 1125K
(A) I and II (B) I and III (C) III only (D) I and IV

59) Hydrazine used in rocket fuels can be obtained by the reaction of ammonia and
hydrogen peroxide according to the following equation
2NH3(g) + H2O2(l) → N2H4(l) + 2H2O(l) ( ΔH0 reaction = -241kJ/mol)
If ΔH0 (formation) of NH3, H2O2 and H2O are -46.1, - 187.8 and – 285.8kJ/mol
respectively, ∆H0 for the decomposition of hydrazine into N2 and H2 is
(A) 50.6 kJ/mol (B) 241kJ/mol (C) -50.6kJ/mol (D)120.5kJ/mol

60) Sn2+ compounds like SnO and SnCl2 are well known reducing agents, while PbO2
acts as an oxidizing agent. Which of the following statements support these
reactivities?
I. SnO is more stable than SnO2
II. Sn4+ is more stable than Sn2+
III. Pb4+ is more stable than Pb2+
IV. Pb2+ is more stable than Pb4+
(A) I and III (B) I, III and IV
(C) II and IV (D) I, II and IV
61) A fuel/oxidant system consisting of N,N-dimethylhydrazine (CH3)2NNH2 and N2O4
(both liquids) is used in space vehicle propulsion. The liquid components are mixed
stoichiometrically so that N2, CO2 and Η2Ο are the only products. If all gases are
under the same reaction conditions, number of moles of gases produced from 1mole
of (CH3)2NNH2 is
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 4.5

62) An ether (X) with molecular formula C5H10O reacts with excess of hot aq. HI to give
a product which on further reaction with hot NaOH in ethanol forms 1,3 pentadiene.
Structure of X is

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63) Compound ‘Y’ with molecular formula C8H9Br gives a precipitate on heating with
alcoholic AgNO3. Oxidation of ‘Y’ gives product ‘Z’ (C8H6O4) which gives an
anhydride upon heating.

Compound ‘Y’ is

64) The observed effective magnetic moment of two octahedral complexes,


K4[Mn(CN)6].3H2O (X) and K4[Mn(SCN)6] (Y) are 2.18 BM and 6.06 BM,
respectively. Which of the following is correct?
I. X is a low spin complex with two unpaired electrons
II. Y is a high spin complex with 5 unpaired electrons
III. X is a high spin complex with two unpaired electrons
IV. Y is a low spin complex with 5 unpaired electrons
(A) I and III (B) I, II (C) I , II and IV (D) I, II and III

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65) The increasing reactivity of the sites (a-d) in the


following compound in SN1 reaction is

(A) d > b > c > a (B) d > c > a > b


(C) d > c > b > a (D) c > d > b > a

66) Which of the following has the shortest bond length?


(A) O2 (B) O2- (C) O2+ (D) O22-

67) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about weak acids in aqueous
solutions?
I. When pH = pKa of a monoprotic acid, 50% of the acid is ionised
II. If pH = pKa2 of a diprotic acid, the average charge of all the ionised species is
0.5
III. When pH = pKa +1 , 10% of the acid is ionised
IV. When pH =7, 50% of a monobasic acid is ionised

(A) I and IV (B) I, II and IV (C) I, II and IV (D) I only


68) ‘Iodine number’ is the grams of iodine atoms (atomic mass = 127 g mol-1) that can
react completely with100 g of a vegetable oil. Iodine monochloride (ICl) is a reagent
used to determine iodine number. In an experiment, 25.00 cm3 of 0.100 mol dm-3
ICl was added to 127g of the oil. The unreacted ICl was found to be equivalent to
40.00 cm3 of 0.10 mol dm-3 of Na2S2O3 .
The iodine number of the oil can be deduced as
(A) 127 (B) 100 (C) 200 (D) 50

69) When NiO is doped with a small quantity of Li2O


(A) both cation and anion vacancies are generated
(B) Shottky defects are generated
(C) NiO becomes an n-type semiconductor
(D) NiO becomes a p-type semiconductor

70) When a sample of gas kept at 20 °C and 4.0 atm is heated to 40 °C at constant
volume

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(A) average speed of the gas molecules will decrease


(B) number of collisions between the gas molecules per second will remain the
same.
(C) average kinetic energy of the gas will increase.
(D) pressure of the gas will become 8 atm.

71) Addition of bromine to cis-3-hexene gives

(A) racemic dibromide (B) a mixture of diastereomeric dibromides


(C) optically active dibromide (D) meso dibromide

72) An organic compound “X” forms an orange–yellow precipitate with


2,4-DNP reagent. It does not react with aqueous [Ag(NH3)2]NO3. X on reduction with
NaBH4 gives a secondary alcohol and on oxidation with nitric acid yields a
dicarboxylic acid containing the same number of carbon atoms. On bromination, X
gives a monobromo product. On the basis of these reactions, it can be concluded that X
I. contains aldehydic carbonyl group II. contains ketonic carbonyl group
III. contains ester carbonyl group IV. does not contain C=C bonds
(A) I only (B) III and IV (C) III only (D) II and IV
73) The undissociated form of a weak organic acid HA can be extracted from the
aqueous phase into an organic phase using a water-immiscible organic solvent
according to the following scheme

Which of the following is/are correct for this extraction?


I. [HA]org/ [HA]aq depends on the pH of the aqueous phase
II. HA can be efficiently extracted from basic aqueous solutions
III. [HA]org/ [HA]aq depends on the initial concentration of HA
IV. [HA]org/[HA]aq+ [A-] depends on the pH of the aqueous phase

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(A) II and IV (B) IV only (C) I only (D) III and IV

74) The correct order of reactivity in nucleophilic substitution reaction of the following
compounds a, b, and c would be

(A) a > c > b (B) a > b > c (C) c > b > a (D) c > a > b

75) The complex ion that does not have d electrons in the metal atom is
(A) [MnO4]- (B) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(C) [Fe(CN)6]3─ ( D) Cr(H2O)6]3+

76) The order in which the compounds a, b and c react with CH3I would be

(A) a > c > b (B) b > c > a (C) c > b > a (D) b > a > c

77) An organic compound ‘P’ with molecular formula C9H8O2 on oxidation gives
benzoic acid as one of the products. The possible structure/s of ‘P’ is/are

-
(A) I and III (B) II and IV (C) I and II (D) II only

78) The energy of an electron in the ground state of H atom is -13.6eV.


The negative sign indicates that
(A) electrons are negatively charged

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(B) H atom is more stable than a free electron


(C) energy of the electron in the H atom is lower than that of a free electron
(D) work must be done to make a H atom from a free electron and proton

79) Radius of Ar atom is 145pm. The percentage volume occupied by an Ar atom at STP
is
(A) 0.03 (B) 3.0 (C) 0.30 (D) 0.06

80) The reduction of O2 to H2O in acidic solution has a standard reduction potential of
1.23 V. If the pH of the acid solution is increased by one unit, half cell potential will

O2 (g) + 4 H+(aq) + 4e-  2H2O (l)


(A) decrease by 59 mV
(B) increase by 59 mV
(C) decrease by 236 mV
(D) increase by 236 mV

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INDIAN ASSOCIATION OF PHYSICS TEACHERS


NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN CHEMISTRY 2018-19
Total Time: 120 minutes Marks: 240

Only one out of four options is correct

(1) Which of the energy values marked as I,II and III in the following diagram, will
change by the addition of a suitable catalyst?

(A) II only (B) I and II (C) II and III (D) III only

(2) The product ‘X’ in the following reaction is

(A) a racemic mixture of ester (B) an optically inactive ester


(C) an optically active ester (D) a meso ester

(3) At 298 K, change in internal energy for the complete combustion of fullerene, C60(s),
an allotrope of carbon, and the enthalpy of formation of CO 2 (g) are -25970 kJ mol-1
and -393 kJ mol-1 respectively. The enthalpy of formation of C60 (s) at 298 K is
(A) – 2390 kJ (B) 4.95 x104 kJ (C) 2.60 x104 kJ (D) 2390 kJ

(4) Which of the following is not paramagnetic?


(A) S2 (B) N2 (C) O2 (D) NO

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(5) Solubility product of AgCl is 1.8  1010. The minimum volume (in L) of water
required to dissolve 1 mg of AgCl is close to
(A) 0.5 (B) 7.5 (C) 50 (D) 0.75

(6) The complex [M(en)(Br)2(Cl)2] has two optical isomers. Their configurations
can be represented as

(7) A sample of water from a river was analyzed for the presence of metal ions and the
observations were recorded as given below
Reagent added Observation
dil. HCl No change
aq. Na2CO3 White precipitate
aq. Na2SO4 No change

The water sample is likely to contain


(A) Ba2+ (B) Cu 2+ (C) Li+ (D) Mg2+

(8) The lattice enthalpy and enthalpy of solution in water for solid NaCl are 753 kJ
mol1 and 5 kJ mol1 respectively(Fig above). If the solution enthalpies of Na+ and
Cl are in the ratio 6:5, the enthalpy of hydration of Na+ ion is
(A) 408 kJ mol-1 (B) -412 kJ mol-1 (C) 408 kJ mol-1 (D) – 412 kJ mol-1

(9) The gaseous product obtained on reaction of BF3 with LiH is


(A) HF (B) H2 (C) B2H6 (D) F2

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(10) The equilibrium constant K for the reversible reaction AB is 2 x103 at 350K. The
rate constants of the forward reaction in the presence and absence of a suitable
catalyst at the same temperature are 5x104 s1 and 4x106 s1 respectively. The rate
constant of the reverse reaction in the absence of the catalyst is
(A) 2 x 103 s1 (B) 2.5 x 101 s1 (C) 1.6 x107 s1 (D) 1.25 x102 s1

(11) The number of stereoisomers possible for the following compound

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 16 (D) 32

V0 bP
(12) An adsorption isotherm equation proposed by Langmuir is of the form V 
(1  bP)
where V is the volume of gas adsorbed at pressure P. For a given
adsorbate/adsorbent system, V0 and b are constants. The dependence of V on P can
be depicted as

(B)
(A)

1/V 1/V

1/P 1/P

(C) (D)

1/V
V

P
P

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(13) For the reaction 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g )  2N2O5(g), ΔHreaction = 112 kJ. If the N2O5 is
assumed to be formed in the reaction as a solid, ΔHreaction will be (ΔHsublimation of
N2O5 is 54 kJ mol1)
(A) – 220 kJ (B) – 4 kJ (C) – 166 kJ (D) –332 kJ

(14) Urea, CO(NH2)2, decomposes at 90°C as CO(NH2)2 (aq)  NH4+ (aq) + OCN– (aq)
Experimental data obtained for the reaction is given in the following plot

0.1
[CO(NH2)2] (M)

0.08
0.06
0.04
0.02
0
0 10 20 30
Time (h)

From the graph it can be inferred that


(A) Average rate of the reaction is the same for successive time intervals of 10 h
(B) unit of rate constant of the reaction is h1
(C) rate constant of the reaction is the lowest at 30 h
(D) the reaction is of zero order

(15) If for an aqueous solution of a weak acid, pH= pKa +2 at 25°C, the approximate
fraction of the acid in the dissociated form is
(A) 1.1% (B) 0.99 % (C) 99.0 % (D) 9.9%

(16) 2.0 L of N2 gas kept at 25⁰ C and 5 atm pressure were expanded isothermally against
a constant pressure of 1 atm until the pressure of the gas reaches 1 atm. Assuming
ideal behaviour, reversible work of expansion in this process ( in J) is close to
(A) 810 J (B) 194 kJ (C) – 810 kJ (D) 3390 kJ

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(17) The compound which would undergo a reaction with ammonia by SN1 mechanism
is

(18) The daily energy requirement of a teenager is 7800 kJ. As calculated from the data
given in the table below, the amount of glucose he has to consume (g) per day
assuming that the entire energy he requires comes from the combustion of glucose is

Molecule ∆Hf (kJ mol1)


C6H12O6 -1273
CO2 (g) -394
H2O -286

(A) 262 (B) 500 (C) 131 (D) 250

(19) The pressure inside two gas cylinders of volume 25 m3 and 50 m3 are 10 kPa and
20 kPa respectively. The cylinders are kept at the same temperature and sepearted by
a valve. What is the pressure in the combined system when the valve is opened?
(A) 30 kPa (B) 15 kPa (C) 16.7 kPa (D) 2.5 kPa

(20) Aluminium and copper are extracted from their oxide and sulphide ores respectively.
Which of the following is correct?
I. Copper is extracted by the auto reduction of copper oxide by copper sulphide
II. Aluminium cannot be obtained by chemical reduction due to its strong affinity for
oxygen
III. In electrometallurgy of Al, graphite is used as cathode to avoid reoxidation of Al
into Al2O3 by preventing formation of O2.
IV. Sulphide ores of copper are difficult to be reduced than the oxide ores
(A) I, II, IV (B) II and III (C) II and III (D) II and IV

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(21) Which of the following graphs describes the relationship between [H 3O+] and [OH]
in an aqueous solution at a constant temperature?

(A) (B)

[OH]
[OH]

0 [H3O+]
0 [H3O+]

(C) (D)

[OH]
[OH]

0 [H3O+] 0
[H3O+]

(22) From the given standard electrode potentials


Sn4+ (aq) + 2e–  Sn2+ (aq) E0= 0.15 V
Br2(l) + 2e–  2Br (aq) E0=1.07 V
The approximate free energy change for the process
2Br  (aq) + Sn4+(aq)  Br2 (l) + Sn2+(aq) is
(A) 177.6 kJ (B) 355 kJ (C) –177.6 kJ (D) –355 kJ

(23) Number of moles of KClO3 that have to be heated to produce 1.0 L of O2 (g) at STP
can be expressed as
(A) 1/3 (1/22.4) (B) ½ (1/22.4) (C) 2/3 (1/22.4) (D) 3/2 (22.4)

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(24) The sequence of reagents required for the following conversion is

(A) (i) B2H6/H2O2 /OH (ii) Na (iii) C2H5I (B) (i) HCl (ii) C2H5ONa
(C) (i) H3O+ (ii) Na (iii) C2H5OH (D) (i) H3O+ (ii) Na (iii) C2H5Cl

(25) Among the following, number of oxygen atoms present is the maximum in
(A) 1.0 g of O2 molecules (B) 4.0 g of O atoms
(C) 1.0 g of O3 (D) 1.7g of H2O

(26) Which of the following elements will exhibit photoelectric effect with light of the
longest wavelength?
(A) K (B) Rb (C) Mg (D) Ca

(27) Compound ‘X’ in the following reaction is


(i) O
(ii) Zn / H O
(iii) Cl / NaOH
(iv) H O+ Adipic Acid

(28) The standard molar entropies of H2 (g), N2 (g) and NH3 (g) are 130, 190 and
193 J mol1 K1 respectively. For the reaction ½ N2 (g) + 3/2H2 (g) ⇌ NH3 (g)
(ΔHreaction = 45 kJ) to be in equilibrium, the temperature must be equal to
(A) 464 K (B) 928 K (C) 737 K (D) 354 K

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(29) Density of CO2 gas at 0 °C and 2.00 atm pressure can be expressed as
(A) 2 g m3 (B) 4 g m3 (C) 4 × 103 kg m3 (D) 8 g L1

(30) The maximum number of moles of CH3I consumed by one mole of crixivan, a drug
used against AIDS is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7

(31) Concentration of K+ ions inside a biological cell was found to be 25 times higher
than that outside. The magnitude of the potential difference between the two sides of
the cell is close to (2.303 RT/F can be taken as 59 mV; difference in concentrations
of other ions can be taken as negligible.)
(A) 4.2 mV (B) 195 mV (C) 82 mV (D) -82 mV

(32) The standard redox potential for the reaction 2H2O  O2 + 4H+ + 4 e is –1.23V.
If the same reaction is carried out at 25⁰C and at pH =7, the potential will be
(A) –0.82 V (B) 3.28 V (C) 0.82 V (D) 1.18 V

(33) The order of pKa values of the following acids is

(A) IV > I > III > II (B) III > IV > I > II
(C) II > I > III > IV (D) II > III > I > IV

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(34) If the radius of the hydrogen atom is 53 pm, the radius of the He+ ion is close to
(A) 75 pm (B) 38 pm (C) 106 pm (D) 27 pm

(35) A substance X was heated at constant pressure and the temperature observed at
various times of heating was plotted as given below

Which of the following is/are correct?


I. Melting point of X is -5°C
II. Solid and liquid forms of X coexist in the region b
III. Boiling point of X is 55°C
IV. Solid and liquid forms of X coexist in the region d

(A) I and IV (B) II and III (C) III only (D) I , II and III

(36) The major product of the following reaction is

conc. HNO
conc. H SO

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(37) In which of the following, all the bond lengths are not the same?
I. IF4+ II. BF4- III. SF4 IV.TeCl4
(A) I, II , IV (B) II, III, IV (C) I, III, IV (D) I, II, III

(38) Among the following, the reaction/s that can be classified as oxidation- reduction
is /are
I. Cr2O72 (aq) + 2 OH (aq)  2 CrO42 + H2O (l)
II. SiCl4 (l) + 2Mg (s)  2MgCl2 (l) + Si (s)
III. 6Cl2 (l) + 12KOH (l)  2KClO3 (s) + 10 KCl + 6H2O (l)
IV. 2 H2O2  2H2O (l) + O2 (g)
(A) I and IV (B) I, II and III (C) II, III and IV (D) IV only

(39) Among the following pairs, the one in which both the compounds as pure liquids can
show significant auto ionization is
(A) H2O and H2S (B) BrF3 and ICl3
(C) PF5 and PCl5 (D) HF and HCl

(40) The number of quaternary and chiral carbon atoms present in elatol, isolated from an
algae are respectively

(A) 2, 3 (B) 4, 2 (C) 3, 2 (D) 1, 3

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(41) Compounds X (pKa ~ 15) and Y (pKa ~ 10), both produce H2 on treatment with
sodium metal and both yield a mixture of isomers on mononitration. X and Y
respectively are

(A) IV, I (B) III, II (C) III, I (D) I, III

(42) A crystal of KCl containing a small amount of CaCl2 will have


(A) vacant Cl sites
(B) vacant K+ sites and a higher density as compared to pure KCl
(C) vacant K+ sites and a lower density as compared to pure KCl
(D) K+ ions in the interstitial sites

(43) In the following reaction, the values of a, b and c, respectively are


a F2(g) + b OH-(aq) c F(aq) + d OF2(g) + e H2O(l)
(A) 3, 2, 4 (B) 3, 4, 2 (C) 2, 2, 4 (D) 2, 2, 2

(44) The monosaccharide present in the following disaccharide is

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(45) The IUPAC name of the complex [Pt(en)(NH3)(Cl)2(ONO)][Ag(CN)2]is


(A) monoamminedichlorido(ethane-1,2-diammine)nitritoplatinum(IV)
dicyanoargentate(I)
(B) monoaminebischlorido(ethane-1,2-diamine)nitroplatinate(IV) dicyanosilver(I)
(C) monoaminebischlorido(ethane-1,2-diammine)nitritoplatinate(IV)
dicyanoargentate(I)
(D) monoamminedichlorido(ethane-1,2-diamine)nitritoplatinum(IV)
dicyanoargentate(I)

(46) The correct order of basicity of the following species is

(A) III < IV < II < I (B) III < I < II < IV
(C) III < II < I < IV (D) IV < I < II < III

(47) Which among the following is nonlinear?

(A) N3 (B) ClF2 (C) Br3 (D) BrCl2+

(48) The compound most likely to lose water on protonation is

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(49) The Newman projection shown is the same as

(A) I and IV (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) I and II

(50) Which one of the following is not used as a monomer for the synthesis of a high
molecular weight silicone polymer?
(A) MeSiCl3 (B) Me2SiCl2 (C) Me3SiCl (D) PbSiCl3

(51) In YBa2Cu3O7-x, a superconducting oxide that got George Bednorz and Karl Muller
the Nobel prize in 1986, Cu can exist in both +2 and +3 oxidation states and their
proportion depends on the value of ‘x’. In YBa2Cu3O7-0.5.
(A) 0.5 moles of Cu are in +3 oxidation state
(B) 5% of Cu is in +3 oxidation state
(C) All the Cu is in +3 oxidation state
(D) All Cu is in +2 oxidation state

(52) Compound ‘Y’ (molar mass = 88.12 g mol1) containing 54.52 % carbon, 9.17 %
hydrogen and 36.31% oxygen gives a reddish-brown precipitate in Fehling’s test. ‘Y’
is

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(53) The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A) 1-Bromo-4-chloro-3-ethenylbutane
(B) 4-Bromo-1-chloro-3-ethenylbutane
(C) 3-(Bromomethyl)-5-chloropent-1-ene
(D) 3-(Bromomethyl)-1-chloropent-4-ene

(54) The correct order of boiling points of the following compounds is

(A) III < IV < II < I (B) I < III < IV < II
(C) I < II < III < IV (D) IV < III < I < II

(55) Which of the following is a strong oxidising agent?


(A) AlCl3 (B) TlCl3 (C) NF3 (D) PCl3

(56) The molecule in which all atoms are not coplanar is

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(57) The most stable radical among the following is

. .
.
.

(58) During World War II, soldiers posted at high altitudes experienced crumbling of the
tin buttons of their uniforms into a grey powder. This can be attributed to
(A) oxidation of tin
(B) interaction with nitrogen in the air at low pressure
(C) change in the crystal structure of tin
(D) reaction of tin with water vapour in the air

(59) The molecules that can exhibit tautomerism are

II III IV
(A) I, IV (B) II, III (C) III, IV (D) I, II

(60) A scientist attempts to replace a few carbon atoms in 1.0 g of diamond with boron
atoms or nitrogen atoms in separate experiments. Which of the following is correct?
(A) The resulting material with B doping will be an n-type semiconductor
(B) The resulting material with B doping will be a p-type semiconductor
(C) B doping is NOT possible as B cannot form multiple bonds
(D) The resulting material with N doping will be a p-type semiconductor

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(61) Compound ‘P’ that undergoes the sequence of reactions given below to give
the product Q is

(i) excess CH OH
(ii) PCC
(iii) CH MgBr
(iv) H O +

(62) The most stable Lewis structure of N2O is

: : : :

: : : .. :
..

(63) The major product ‘X’ formed in the following reaction is

(i) n-C H Cl, anhyd. AlCl

(ii) HNO , H SO

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(64) Which of the following accounts best for the fact that F- is smaller than O2?
(A) F has a larger nuclear mass than O2
(B) F has a larger nuclear charge than O2
(C) F is more polarizable than O2
(D) F is more electronegative than O

(65) The correct sequence of reagents from those listed below for the following
conversion is

I. NaNH2 II. Br2 III. H2 /Pd-C, quinoline IV. H3O+

(A) IV – I – III (B) III – IV – I (C) II – I – III (D) I – II – III

(66) An orbital among the following that has two radial nodes and two angular nodes is
(A) 3d (B) 4p (C) 4f (D) 5d

(67) The compound ‘X’ undergoing the following reaction is

(i) dil aq NaOH


(ii) H +
(iii) acid K Cr O
(iv) Heat

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(68) A dilute solution of an alkali metal in liquid ammonia is


I. blue in colour II. conducts electricity
III. paramagnetic IV. an oxidising agent
(A) I and III (B) II and IV (C) I,II and III (D) I and III

(69) The reactions from those given below that involve a carbocation intermediate are

(i) + HI

(ii) + NaNH + NaCl

(iii) + HCl +H O

(A) i, ii and iii (B) i and ii (C) i and iii (D) ii and iii

(70) The C-O bond length is the shortest in


(A) [Cr(CO)6] (B) [Mo(CO)6] (C) [Mn(CO)6]+ (D)[V(CO)6]

(71) The rate of the reaction between two reactants X and Y can be expressed as
R = k [X]2 [Y]. In an experiment, the initial rate of the reaction was found to be R1
when the initial concentrations of X and Y are [X0] and [Y0]. Another experiment
was performed in which [X0] was taken as ½ [X0]. What should be [Y0] in this
experiment to get the initial rate as 0.5R1?
(A) 4 [Y0] (B) ½ [Y0] (C) 2 [Y0] (D) [Y0]

(72) Among the following, the compound that has the highest dipole moment is
(A) CH3COOCH3 (B) CH3CONH2
(C) CH3COC2H5 (D) CH3COCl

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(73) A common method to clean acid spills is to use Na2CO3 (Molar mass 106 g). If 50.0
mL of 0.75 M HCl is spilt on a wooden surface, the amount of Na 2CO3 required is
(A) 3.75 g (B) 7.5 g (C) 2.0 g (D) 4.0 g


(74) The spin-only magnetic moments of [Fe(NH3)6]3+ and [FeF6] (in units of BM)
respectively are
(A) 1.73 and 1.73 (B) 5.92 and 1.73
(C) 1.73 and 5.92 (D) 5.92 and 5.92

(75) The major product of the following reaction is

(i) , Mg, ether


mol
(ii) H O +

(76) The standard electrode potential (E0) of the Daniel cell is 1.1 V and the overall cell
reaction can be represented as Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq)  Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s).
Under which of the following conditions will the cell potential be higher than 1.1V?
(A) 1.0M Zn2+, 1.0M Cu2+ (B) 1.2 M Zn2+, 1.2 M Cu2+
(C) 0.1 M Zn2+, 1.0M Cu2+ (D) 1.0 M Zn2+, 0.01M Cu2+

(77) Penicillamine is used in the treatment of arthritis. One molecule of penicillamine


contains a single sulphur atom and the weight percentage of sulphur in penicillamine
is 21.49%. Molecular weight of penicillamine in g mol–1 is
(A) 85.40 (B) 68.76 (C) 125.2 (D) 149.2

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(78) An ion exchange resin, RH2, can replace Ca2+ in hard water as
RH2 + Ca2+→ RCa2+ + 2 H+
When a 1.0 L hard water sample was passed through the resin, all H + ions were
replaced by Ca2+ ions and the pH of eluted water was found to be 2.0. The hardness
of water (as ppm of Ca2+) in the sample of water treated is
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 125 (D) 200

(79) The analysis of three different binary oxides of bromine (Br) and oxygen (O) gives
the following results:

Compound Mass of O combined


with 1.0 g of Br
X 0.101 g
Y 0.303 g
Z 0.503 g

Which of the following statements is not correct?


I Compound Y is Br2O3 II Compound Z is Br2O5
III Compound Z is Br2O7 IV Compound Y is Br2O5
(A) I and III (B) II and IV (C) III and IV (D) I and II

(80) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?


I. Number of significant figures in 2345.100 is three
II. 0.00787 rounded to two significant figures is written as 0.787 x 10 2
III. 340 rounded to two significant figures is written as 0.34 x 10 3
IV. The number of significant figures in 0.020 is two
(A) II and III (B) III and IV (C) I, II and IV (D) III only
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

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31

Question Paper Code: 31


Time : 60 Minutes Max. Marks: 120

Attempt All The Thirty two Questions


A–1
ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION

1. Reaction of ammonia with diborane gives an ionic product (B2H6.2NH3).


The hybridization of boron in the cation and anion of this product are respectively
(a) sp3 in both (b) sp3 and sp2 (c) sp2 and sp3 (d) sp2 in both

2. A sequence of reactions of phosphorous (P4) is given below


The correct set of products (Q, R, S and T) among the following is
O2(g)
Q(l) R (l)

Cl2(g)

H2O (l)
P4
O2(g)
323 K
H2O (l)
S (s) T (aq)

(a) Q = PCl3; R = POCl3; S = P2O3; T = H3PO3


(b) Q = PCl5; R = P2O5; S = P4O6; T = H3PO3
(c) Q = PCl3; R = POCl3; S = P4O10; T = H3PO4
(d) Q = PCl5; R = P4O10; S = P4O10; T = H3PO4
3. In the gaseous state of Fe(CO)5, the ‘d’ orbital that would participate in hybridization is
(a) †௫మ ି௬మ (b) †୸మ
(c) †୶୸ (d) any one of the ‘d’ orbitals

4. Among the following, the correct statement/s about ‘p’ block elements is/are
I. The valence shell electronic configuration of all of them is ns2 np1-6
II. Only in p block, metals, nonmetals and metalloids are present
III. Halogens have the lowest negative electron gain enthalpy in the respective periods
IV. Noble gases have no tendency to accept an electron and hence they have large
negative values of electron gain enthalpy
(a) I, IV (b) II, III (c) IV only (d) II only

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5. A chemical reaction is carried out at two different temperatures T1 and T2 (T2 > T1) and also
with and without a catalyst.
The statement that is correct among the following is
(a) Lowering in the activation energy of the reaction due to catalyst would be
higher at T2 than at T1
(b) Lowering in the activation energy of the reaction due to catalyst would be
higher at T1 than at T2
(c) The factor by which the rate of the reaction is increased by the catalyst would be
lower at T2 than at T1
(d) The factor by which the rate of the reaction is increased by the catalyst would be
higher at T 2 than at T1

6. The product ‘P’ in the following sequence of reactions is

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

7. Among the following, maximum number of resonance structures is possible for


(a) PO43 (b) SO42 (c) CO32 (d) MnO4

8. A mixture of sodium (Na) and potassium (K) metals weighing 32 g was reacted with water
and the solution obtained could be neutralized with 517.3 mL of 1.0 M H2SO4 (aq).
The mass of sodium that was present in the mixture is
(a) 20 g (b) 16 g (c) 10 g (d) 12 g

9.The mass ratio of steam and hydrogen is found to be 1:1.5 at equilibrium in the
following reaction
3Fe ሺsሻ + 4H2 O ሺgሻ ֖ Fe3 O4 ሺsሻ + 4H2 (g)
The value of the equilibrium constant (Kc) of the above reaction is
(a) 3.0 x 10-5 (b) 3.3 x 104 (c) 3.3 x 106 (d) 1.3 x 103

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10. Two students did a set of experiments on ketones ‘X’ and ‘Y’ independently and obtained the
following results.

Reaction /Experiment X Y
Optical rotation Yes Yes
Optical rotation
Zero Yes
after treatment with a base
NH2NH2, KOH, Heat Formation of an Formation of an optically inactive
optically inactive hydrocarbon C6H12
hydrocarbon
C6H12
The ketones ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are respectively
(a) 2-ethylcyclobutanone and 3-ethylcyclobutanone
(b) 2-methylcyclopentanone and 3-methylcyclopentanone
(c) 3-methylcyclopentanone and 2-methylcyclopentanone
(d) 3-methyl-4-penten-2-one and 4-methyl-1-penten-3-one

11. Glycine (C2H5O2N) is the simplest of amino acids. Molecular formula of the linear oligomer
synthesized by linking ten glycine molecules together via a condensation reaction would be
(a) C20H32O11N10 (b) C20H68O29N10 (c) C20H40O10N10 (d) C20H50O20N10

12. If Ni2+ is replaced by Pt2+ in the complex ion [NiCl2Br2]2, which of the following
would change?
I. Magnetic moment II. Geometry
III. Geometrical isomerism IV. Optical isomerism
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III (c) I, II (d) II, III, IV

13. An inorganic compound ‘X’ of an alkali metal on heating gives a reddish-brown gas ‘Y’ and
a binary solid ‘Z’. This solid is less soluble in water and its solution is basic. ‘X’ does not give
a positive silver nitrate test. ‘X’ can be identified as
(a) KIO3 (b) LiNO3 (c) NaNO3 (d) KNO2

14. The qualitative plots given represent the yield of the product,
[XY], at equilibrium in the reaction X(g) + Y(g) ֖XY(g),
as a function of temperature, at total pressures P1 and P2.
The reaction is

(a) endothermic and P1 < P2 (b) endothermic and P2 < P1


(c) exothermic and P1 > P2 (d) exothermic and P2 > P1

15. When 6.8 g of AgNO3 completely reacts with H3PO2, metallic silver produced (g) and H3PO2
consumed (mole) are respectively
(a) 4.32 and 0.1 (b) 1.08 and 0.01
(c) 4.32 and 0.01 (d) 2.16 and 0.01

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16. Lovastatin, a drug used to reduce the risk of cardio vascular diseases has the following
structure
HO O

O
O

O CH3
H
H3 C CH3

CH3
Lovastatin
The number of stereogenic centers present in lovastatin is
(a) 8 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6

17. Among the following sets, the one in which all the molecules are non polar is
(a) XeF4, XeO3, XeO4 (b) XeF2, XeO4, XeOF4
(c) XeF2, XeF4, XeO4 (d) XeF2, XeO3, XeOF4

18. Gas phase reactions (i) and (ii) are of first and second order respectively
2N2O5 Æ 4NO2 + O2 …………………. (i)
2NO + O2 Æ 2NO2……………………… (ii)
Under certain conditions, the rate constants (k1, k2) of (i) and (ii) respectively, have the same
numerical value, when the concentrations of the reactants are expressed in mol/dm3.
If the concentrations are expressed in mol/mL, the correct relationship between k1 and k2 is
(a)  ଶ šͳͲିଷ ൌ  ଵ (b)  ଶ šͳͲଷ ൌ  ଵ
(c) ଵ ൌ   ଶ (d) ଵ šͳͲ଺ ൌ   ଶ

19. The correct sequence of reactions to get ‘Q’ as the only product from ‘P’ is

(a) (i) H2 & Pt catalyst (ii) C2H5Cl & AlCl3


(b) (i) Mg in ether (ii) aqueous alcohol (iii) C2H5Cl & AlCl3
(c) (i) Mg in ether (ii) C2H5Cl & AlCl3
(d) (i) C2H5Cl & AlCl3 (ii) Mg in ether (iii) aqueous alcohol

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31
20. The Galvanic cell can be represented as Zn / Zn2+ (0.1M) // Cu2+ (0.1M)/Cu.
Among the following, the cell that can produce an EMF more than that of the
Galvanic cell is
(E0 of Zn2+/Zn and Cu2+/Cu are -0.763V and 0.337V respectively)
(a) Zn / Zn2+ (0.1M) // Cu2+ (0.01M)/Cu (b) Zn / Zn2+ (1M) // Cu2+ (0.01M)/Cu
(c) Zn / Zn2+ (0.01M) // Cu2+ (1M)/Cu (d) Zn / Zn2+ (0.01M) // Cu2+ (0.01M)/Cu

21. The correct match of the molecules in column I and reactions in column II is

Column I Column II

O (L) Coloration with FeCl3


NH2
i)
H3C

O (M) Effervescence with NaHCO3


CH3

ii) H2N

O (N) Yellow precipitate with


NaOH and I2
H
iii) H3C
N
H

H (O) Yellow oil with


NaNO2, HCl at 0 oC
NH
iv)
(P) Heating with NaOH gives out
HO
a gas that turns moist turmeric
paper brown

(a) i)-N ii)-L iii)-O iv)-M


(b) i)-O ii)-N iii)-L iv)- P
(c) i)-P ii)-O iii)-L iv)-M
(d) i)-P ii)-N iii)-O iv)-L

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31
22. While doing titration, a student recorded a burette reading of 10.0 mL for the neutralization of
10.0 mL NaHC2O4 (aq) with 0.1 M NaOH (aq). In a separate experiment, 10.0 mL of this
NaHC2O4 (aq) solution could be completely oxidized by 10.0 mL of KMnO4 in an acidic
medium.
What would be the molarity of KMnO4 used by this student?
(a) 0.02 M (b) 0.04 M (c) 0.1 M (d) 0.2 M

23. Pheromones are chemicals that animals produce for social response. The structure of
brevicomin, a pheromone, is shown below. The open chain ketodiol that would form
brevicomin is
O
CH3
O
H3C
Brevicomin

(a) 7,8-dihydroxynonan-3-one (b) 6,7-dihydroxynonan-3-one


(c) 7,8-dihydroxynonan-2-one (d) 6,7-dihydroxynonan-2-one

24. The best reagents and conditions to accomplish the following conversion is

(a) (i) LiAlH4 in ether, (ii) 3 moles of CH3I followed by heating with AgOH
(b) (i) LiAlH4 in ether; (ii) P2O5 and heat
(c) (i) 20 % H2SO4 & heat, (ii) P2O5 and heat
(d) H2 and Lindlar catalyst

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31

A2
ANY NUMBER OF OPTIONS, 4, 3, 2 or 1 MAY BE CORRECT
MARKS WILL BE AWARDED ONLY IF ALL CORRECT OPTIONS ARE BUBBLED AND NO WRONG OPTION

25. The correct statement/s among the following is/are


(a) Intermolecular forces in n-heptane are stronger than those in 2-methylheptane
(b) Boiling point of 2,2-dimethylpentane is higher than that of 2, 2-dimethylbutane
(c) Both hydrogen bonding and van der Waals forces exist between
molecules of 2-methylbutan-2-ol
(d) In 2,2-dimethylbutane, 1°, 2° and 3° types of carbon atoms are present

26. Which of the following aqueous solution/s will have a pH value between 4.0 and 5.0
at 25 ºC?
(a) 0.01 M solution of benzoic acid (Ka= 6.6 x 105 at 25 ºC)
(b) 0.02 mol benzoic acid and 0.05 mol sodium benzoate dissolved in appropriate
amount of water to make a solution of 1L
(c) A mixture of 999 mL water and 1mL 0.2 M HCl
(d) 499 mL of 0.01M NaOH and 501 mL of 0.01 M HCl mixed together

27. The energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous species ‘X’ to form ‘X+’ is known
as first ionization energy (IE) of X. The energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous
species ‘X+’ to form ‘X++’ is called the second IE of X. Similarly, the energy required to
remove an electron from a gaseous species X- to form X is called the IE of X-.
Identify the correct statement/s from the following
(a) The second IE of the He atom is four times that of the (first) IE of the H atom.
(b) The first IEs of F, Ne and Na atoms follow the order IE(Na) < IE(Ne) < IE(F)
(c) The second IE of the H- ion is much less than the (first) IE of the H atom.
(d) The IEs of Li, Na and K atoms follow the order IE(K) < IE(Na) < IE (Li)

28. The product/s formed in the following reaction is/are

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

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31

29. Which of the following option/s is /are correct?


(a) C2 is paramagnetic
(b) He2+ has the same energy as that of two isolated He atoms
(c) S2 is paramagnetic and S22 is diamagnetic
(d) N2+ and N2 have the same bond order

30. Nitromethane undergoes an aldol type reaction with a racemic mixture of


2-methylcyclohexanone in presence of aqueous NaOH in two steps (I, II) to give the product ‘P’.
The statement/s NOT correct among the following is/are

A1

(a) The equilibrium in step I will be more towards the right as water is
a stronger acid than nitromethane
(b) The carbanion formed in reaction I can be stabilized due to resonance
(c) The product formed will be a mixture of four stereoisomers in the form of
two pairs of enantiomers
(d) The mixture of products formed can be readily dehydrated to give a single product

31. The structures of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) in the solid and gaseous states are given below.
H2O2 (l) is slightly more viscous than H2O (l). The correct option/s among the
following is/are

(a) Both O atoms are near enough to cause repulsion between the electron lone
pairs thus making the O-O bond susceptible for cleavage
(b) The strong intermolecular H-bonding along with restricted rotation present in the liquid
state of H2O2 make it more viscous than H2O (l)
(c) The molecule gets twisted to minimize the repulsion between the lone pair and
bond pair of electrons
(d) The difference in the dihedral angles in the solid and gaseous states is a consequence of
hydrogen bonding between the molecules

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32. Viruses are nonliving complex chemical entities. They undergo inactivation and hence lose
the ability to infect a host, with time. Concentration (expressed as ‘median tissue culture
infectious dose’, TCID/ml, a unit used in expressing virus concentrations) vs. time plots of
a corona virus on the surfaces of a paper currency note and a plastic currency note are shown
below. Both these plots have two separate regions (shown by vertical lines in the plots),
indicating two time zones.

I. Paper currency note

II. Plastic currency note

The correct option/s among the following is/are


(a) Inactivation of the virus follows zero order kinetics in 1st zone and
first order kinetics in 2nd zone
(b) The rate of inactivation is independent of the surface material
(c) The virus reacts with different chemical entities/substances in 1st zone and 2nd zone
(d) On both the surfaces, at least 95 % of the virus is inactivated within 10 h

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CHEMISTRY 2021-22 (Part I) (NSEC 2021 – 22)


Time: 75 Minutes Max. Marks: 120
Attempt All Thirty Two Questions
A–1
ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION

1. The correct order of CFSE of the following complex ions is


[Zn(NH3)4]2+, [Co(NH3)6]2+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Ir(NH3)6]3+

(a) [Ir(NH3)6]3+ [Co(NH3)6]3+ [Co(NH3)6]2+ [Zn(NH3)4]2+


(b) [Zn(NH3)4]2+ [Co(NH3)6]2+ [Co(NH3)6]3+ [Ir(NH3)6]3+
(c) [Ir(NH3)6]3+ [Co(NH3)6]3+ [Zn(NH3)4]2+ [Co(NH3)6]2+
(d) [Co(NH3)6]3+ [Ir(NH3)6]3+ [Co(NH3)6]2+ [Zn(NH3)4]2+

2. Solvents are classified as polar and nonpolar based on their dipole moments.
Given below are some solvents.
(p)1,2-dibromobenzene (q) diisopropylether (r) trans-1,2-dichloroethene
(s) 1,2-dichloroethane (t) N-ethyl-N-methylpropan-1-amine
The set in which all solvents are polar is
(a) p, s, t (b) p, q, r (c) r, s, t (d) q, r, t

3. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?


I. Half-life is 50 % of the total time taken for the completion of a reaction
II. Collision frequency (Z), which is the number of collisions per second per unit
volume, is same as the rate constant of the reaction
III. A change in the activation energy of a reaction at a particular temperature will result in a
proportional change in the rate and rate constant of the reaction at the same temperature
IV. All first order reactions are not unimolecular
V. For a zero order reaction, slope of a plot of t 1/2 Vs. initial concentration will be zero

(a) I, IV (b) II only (c) IV only (d) II, III,V

4. The orange colour of K2Cr2O7 and yellow colour of K2CrO4 are, respectively, due to
(a) charge transfer transitions and d-d transitions
(b) d-d transitions and charge transfer transitions
(c) charge transfer transitions in both
(d) d-d transitions in both

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5. One mole of neon (atomic mass = 20 g mol-1) and one mole of argon
(atomic mass = 40 g mol-1) are stored in two separate containers I and II, at temperature T
and 2T respectively. If both the gases are assumed to behave ideally
(a) K.E. and average velocity of the gas molecules will be the same in both I and II
(b) K.E. and average velocity of the gas molecules in II will be twice that of the gas molecules
in I
(c) K.E. of the gas molecules in II will be twice that in I and average velocity of the gas
molecules in both I and II will be the same
(d) Both K.E. and average velocity of the gas molecules in I will be twice that of the gas
molecules in II

6. An aldehyde/ketone in the presence of a base forms a carbanion at the α-position which can react
with a carbonyl group in an Aldol type of reaction. It can also react with an olefinic double bond
which is activated by groups like CO, CN, NO2 attached to the double bond. The latter reaction
is an addition reaction across the double bond. Wieland-Miescher ketone is an important
synthetic intermediate used to synthesize many compounds

O
CH3

O
Wieland-Miescher Ketone
The pair of starting materials suitable for preparation of Wieland-Miescher ketone through a base
catalysed reaction is

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

7. ‘X’ in the following reaction is


CH3
HCHO (excess)
O
CH3 X
H Ca(OH)2
2-methylpropanal
(a) 2,2-Dimethyl-1,3-propanediol (b) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
(c) iso-butyric acid (d) 3-Hydroxy-2,2-dimethylpropanal

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8. When 0.805 g of the potassium salt (CH2)n(COOK)2 of a dibasic organic acid was
reduced, 0.323 g of potassium was obtained. Molar mass of the acid is
(a) 194 (b) 116 (c) 118 (d) 156

9. Among (i) HCl, (ii) HOClO, (iii) HOClO2 and (iv) HOClO3, which cannot undergo a
disproportionation reaction?
(a) Only (i) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

10. The electronic transition in He + ion that will occur at the same wavelength as that of the n = 2 to
n = 1 transition in H atom is
(a) n = 2 to n = 1 (b) n = 3 to n = 1 (c) n = 3 to n = 2 (d) n = 4 to n = 2

11. ‘P’ in the following reaction is

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

12. The number of stereoisomers is maximum for (ox = C2O42-)


(a) [Co(ox)3]3- (b) [Co(ox)2ClBr]3- (c) [Co(ox)Cl2Br2]3- (d) [CoCl3Br3]3-

13. Maximum number of electrons with ms = ½ which can be accommodated in subshells having
total three nodes is
(a) 10 (b) 16 (c) 20 (d) 32

14. The Hinsberg test of the compound X produces a solid compound Y that is insoluble in 10 % aq.
NaOH. Y dissolves in 10 % aq. sulphuric acid. The compound X is
(a) NH2CH2CH2CH2N(CH3)2 (b) (CH3)2NCH2CH2NHCH3
(c) NH2CH2C(CH3)2CH2NH2 (d) (CH3)2NCH2N(CH3)2

15. An ionic species, M3+, is isoelectronic with CuCl2 and has (Z+2) neutrons.
The molar mass of M3+ is
(a) 128 (b) 62 (c) 68 (d) 134

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16. In compound X, the number of chiral centres and the number of peptide linkages are,
respectively

(a) 2,3 (b) 3,2 (c) 2,2 (d) 3,3

17. Which of the following reactions is NOT an example of Lewis acid-Lewis base reaction?
(a) Zn + I3-  Zn2+ + 3I- (b) I2 + I3-  I5-
(c) CoCl3 + Cl-  CoCl4- (d) SO3 + H2O  H+ + HSO4-

18. A student intended to prepare 1000 mL of a 10 ppm solution of K+ from KCl. He made
appropriate calculations, weighed the salt accordingly and prepared the solution.
However, after making the solution, he realized that the salt he used was KNO3 and not KCl.
The concentration of K+ (ppm) in this prepared solution is

(a) 7.37 (b) 10.00 (c) 13.55 (d) 3.86

19. Oxide A is soluble in NaOH, oxide B in HCl and oxide C in both. The correct set of A, B and C
is
A B C
(a) CO2 SO2 PbO2
(b) CO2 Na2O ZnO
(c) SO2 ZnO SnO2
(d) SO2 BaO Na2O

20. Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C), a naturally occurring water soluble vitamin and abundantly found in
lemon, shows antioxidant properties. In ascorbic acid, the OH with the lowest pKa is

(a) 1
CH2OH 1
(b) 2
(c) 3 H OH 2

O
(d) 4
O

HO 3 OH 4

Ascorbic Acid

21. Compound ‘X’ (C7H12O2) gives - i) a positive silver mirror test and ii) a yellow precipitate on
treatment with I2/NaOH. The compound ‘X’ is
(a) 2-hydroxy-3,3-dimethylcyclopentanone (b) 2,5-heptanedione
(c) 2,2-dimethyl-3-oxopentanal (d) 2,2-dimethyl-4-oxopentanal
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22. If the ratio of the concentrations of the oxidized and reduced forms of a species in an
electrochemical reaction can be given as [Ox]/[Red] = 1.0 ×10-3, the correct expression among
the following at 25οC is
(a) E = Eο + (0.0592/n) (b) E – Eο = 3 × (0.0592/ n)

(c) E = Eο – (0.0592/n) (d) E – Eο = (0.0592/n) 1/3

23. Among the following numbers, the one in which all the zeros are significant is
(a) 0.0004 (b) 0.0400 (c) 40.000 (d) 0.0040

24. Among the following sets of compounds, the one in which a reaction between them followed by
hydrolysis that does not lead to the formation of 1-phenyl-2- butanol is
OH
(a) phenylacetaldehyde and ethylmagnesium bromide
(b) butanal and phenylmagnesium bromide
H3C
(c) propanal and benzylmagnesium bromide
(d) 1-phenyl-2-butanone and NaBH4
1-phenyl-2-butanol

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31

A-2
ANY NUMBER OF OPTIONS 4, 3, 2 or 1 MAY BE CORRECT
MARKS WILL BE AWARDED ONLY IF ALL CORRECT OPTIONS ARE BUBBLED, AND NO WRONG OPTION

25. At room temperature, NaCl(s) and KCl(s) were taken in equal masses and dissolved in equal
volumes of water in two separate closed containers I and II respectively.
Of the following, correct option/s is/are
(a) To compare molarities in (I) and (II), masses of both the solutions need to be known
(b) Molalities cannot be compared without measuring the mass of water added in each case
(c) If (I) and (II) are completely transferred into another container (III), [Cl -] in (III) will be sum
of that in (I) and (II)
(d) Information given is sufficient to compare the vapour pressures in (I) and (II)

26. In a pair of isomers of molecular formula C5H8, both the compounds undergo catalytic
hydrogenation to form compounds of molecular formula C5H10. On ozonolysis followed by
oxidative workup (H2O2), one of the isomers gives a diacid (C5H8O4) while the other isomer
gives a ketoacid (C5H8O3). The pair/s which give/s above set of reactions is/are
(a) 3-ethylcyclopropene and 1-pentyne
(b) cyclopentene and 1-methylcyclobutene
(c) 1-methylcyclobutene and 3-methylcyclobutene
(d) 1,2-dimethylcyclopropene and 3-methylcyclobutene

27. The resonance structures of SCN‾ are given below along with the S-C and C-N bond lengths

S-C (in pm) C-N (in pm)


SCN‾ 165 117
Single bond 181 147
Double bond 155 128
Triple bond ----- 116

S=C=N S C N S C N
(i) (ii) (iii)

Among the following, the incorrect statement/s is/ are


(a) The contribution from resonance structures (i) and (ii) is more important than that from
structure (iii)
(b) The formal charge on S in structure (iii) is zero
(c) The degree of contribution of these structures is in the order: i > ii > iii
(d) The formal charge on N in structure (ii) is zero

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28. The compound/s which form/s stable hydrate/s is/are

(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d

29. The formula/e which also represent/s a compound with formula X is/are

(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d

30. Following is the P vs V plot of a cyclic process 1 2, 2 3, 3 4, 4 1, denoted as I, II, III
and IV respectively for a system of one mole of an ideal gas.
Assume that there is heat exchange between the
system and surroundings only in II and IV.
Which of the following is/are correct?

(a) In II and IV ∆S is zero


(b) In I and III, ∆S is zero
(c) I and III are isothermal and reversible
(d) In II and IV, change in internal energy of
the gas (∆U) is zero

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31. For the given compound, % s character of phosphorous hybrid orbitals


which contribute to various bonds are given in the table below.

Bond % s character
P=O 40
P-Br < 20
P-O 20

This difference in % ‘s’ character of various phosphorous bonds could be due to

(a) The large size of bromine atom


(b) The large electronegativity difference between P and O
(c) Increased overlap of -orbitals of terminal P-O bond
(d) Stronger covalent character of P-O in cyclic oxygen atoms

32. β-carotene and related compounds are plant pigments that give red, orange and yellow
vegetables their vibrant colour. The structure of β-carotene is given below.

It is approved as a food additive in many countries. The correct statement/s that


describe/s β-carotene is/are

(a) It is a strong oxidizing agent


(b) It reacts with singlet oxygen, an excited form of O2, to produce an epoxide
(c) It absorbs red/yellow light of electromagnetic spectrum
(d) It comes in the oil phase when carrots are cooked in oil and water in a curry

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ASSOCIATION OF CHEMISTRY TEACHERS


NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN CHEMISTRY
(NSEC - 2023)
Time: 120 minute Max. Marks: 216
Attempt All Sixty Questions
A–1
ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.

1. The ligand with which the homoleptic octahedral complex of Co3+ will be most stable is:
(a) Ethylenediamine tetra acetate ion
(b) Dien (N-(2-aminoethyl)-1,2-ethanediamine)
(c) Ethane-1,2-diamine
(d) Ammonia

2. Which of the following properties may have positive values of ∆H?


(i) Lattice enthalpy (ii) Hydration enthalpy
(iii) Electron gain enthalpy for noble gases (iv) Ionisation enthalpy

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) Only (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

3. The correct IUPAC name of potassium permanganate is:


(a) potassium tetraoxomanganate(VI) (b) potassium tetraoxidopermanganate(VII)
(c) potassium tetraoxidomanganese(VII) (d) potassium tetraoxidomanganate(VII)

4. Which of the following statements is true with respect to sodium salts of oxoanions of phosphorus
NaH2PO2 and Na2HPO3
(a) NaH2PO2 is reducing and Na2HPO3 is oxidizing
(b) NaH2PO2 is more reducing than Na2HPO3
(c) NaH2PO2 is more oxidizing than Na2HPO3
(d) NaH2PO2 is oxidizing and Na2HPO3 is reducing

5. The fluoride/s of xenon, XeFn (n = 2 or 4 or 6), which on complete hydrolysis gives back xenon as
one of the products, is/are_______.
I. XeF2 II. XeF4 III. XeF6

(a) II only (b) I and II (c) III only (d) I, II and III

6. If an element after oganesson (Og, atomic number 118 and electronic configuration [Rn]
5f14 6d10 7s2 7p6) was discovered, in which of the following orbital, will the 119th electron be
accommodated?
(a) 7d (b) 6f (c) 8s (d) 5g

7. The number of ‘two-center-two electron’ and ‘three-center-two electron’ bonds in [Al(BH4)3] are
respectively
(a) twelve and zero (b) twelve and three (c) six and six (d) nine and three

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8. Identify the correct matching of the following oxides in column M with their property in column N:

M N
(i) Aluminium trioxide (p) Acidic oxide
(ii) Calcium oxide (q) Basic oxide
(iii) Arsenic pentoxide (r) Amphoteric oxide

(a) (i)-(p), (ii)-(q), (iii)-(r) (b) (i)-(q), (ii)-(r), (iii)-(p)


(c) (i)-(r), (ii)-(q), (iii)-(p) (d) (i)-(r), (ii)-(p), (iii)-(q)

9. In each of the following reactions, role of water is:


(i) H2O + HCl  H3O+ + Cl-
(ii) 6H2O + Mg2+  [Mg(H2O)6]2+
(iii) 2H2O + 2F2  4 HF + O2

(a) (i) oxidant; (ii) reductant; (iii) base (b) (i) reductant; (ii) oxidant; (iii) base
(c) (i) base; (ii) base; (iii) reductant (d) (i) acid; (ii) base; (iii) reductant

10. The correct order of the following oxidizing agents in basic aqueous medium is:
CrO42-/ Cr3+ E0= -0.11 V
2- 3+
FeO4 / Fe E0= +0.72 V
2- 3+
MnO4 / Mn E0= +0.46 V

(a) [CrO4]2- > [FeO4]2- > [MnO4]2- (b) [FeO4]2- > [MnO4]2- > [CrO4]2-
(c) [CrO4]2- > [MnO4]2- > [FeO4]2- (d) [MnO4]2- > [FeO4]2- > [CrO4]2-

11. The correct order of ionic radii of Rb+, Br-, Sr2+ and Se2- is
(a) Rb+ < Br- < Sr2+ < Se2- (b) Sr2+ < Rb+ < Br- < Se2-
(c) Se2- < Br- < Sr2+ < Rb+ (d) Se2- < Sr2+ < Rb+ < Br-

12. Consider the following statements:


(i) Calcination is carried out in absence of air below the melting point of the ore
(ii) Roasting and calcination are carried out in presence of flux
(iii) Calcination is carried out in limited supply of air above the melting point of the ore
(iv) Roasting is carried out in air below the melting point of ore
The correct set of statements is

(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)

13. The cobalt complexes (I) and (II) given below are examples of

H2 H2
N N
(NH3)4Co Co(NH3)2Cl2 Cl2 Cl(NH3)3Co Co(NH3)3Cl Cl2
O2 O2

(I) (II)
(a) linkage isomers (b) coordination isomers
(c) ligand isomers (d) coordination position isomers

14. The magnetic moment (in units of BM) of copper in [Cu(H2O)4]2+ and [Cu(NH3)4]2+ respectively
is:
(a) 1.73 and 0 (b) 1.73 and 1.73 (c) 2.83 and 2.83 (d) 0 and 2.83

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15. In qualitative inorganic analysis of a water-soluble salt mixture (salt AB + salt XY) both the
cations were identified as sulphides. In the tests for anions sodium carbonate extract when treated
with AgNO3 gave yellowish precipitate soluble with difficulty in NH4OH while the other anion can
be confirmed with brown ring test. (Given Ksp for AS = 1×10-44 and XS = 1.4×10-24).
Identify the INCORRECT statement about the analysis.
(a) H2S can be used under appropriate conditions of pH to separate and identify the cations.
(b) Cation A will be precipitated under acidic condition as the concentration of sulphides ions
required is low.
(c) The anions are NO3- and Cl-.
(d) Cation X will be precipitated as sulphides under alkaline condition, as the concentration of
sulphides ions required is very high.

16. The correct statement about the solubilities of Group 2 hydroxides is:
(a) The solubilities increase because lattice energy increases as we go down Group 2
(b) The solubilities increase because lattice energy decreases as we go down Group 2
(c) The solubilities decrease because atomic size increases as we go down Group 2
(d) The solubilities decrease because lattice energy decreases as we go down Group 2

17. A solution of CuSO4.5H2O in methanol has [Cu2+] = 1.00 mg per 1000 g of methanol. The molarity
of Cu2+ in this solution is Y × 10-5 mol L-1.Y is :
(Given- density of methanol = 0.792 g mL-1)
(a) 1.57 (b) 5.04 (c) 1.25 (d) 3.99

18. Following is the reaction flow chart for manganese oxidocomplexes under different alkaline pH
conditions. Compounds (S) and (T) respectively are:

MnO4
+ e-
-
+e OH
(T)

(S) + e-
(a) S=MnO(OH)2; T=Mn(OH)2 (b) S=MnO2; T=MnO(OH)
(c) S= MnO42-; T=MnO(OH) (d) S= MnO42-; T=MnO2

19. The correct order of relative strength for the following nucleophilic species is:

NH2 OCH3 CH3COO CH3OH

I II III IV

(a) IV > III > II > I (b) II > III > IV > I (c) I > II > IV > III (d) I > II > III > IV

20. The product obtained on reaction of optically pure 1-bromo-1-phenyl ethane with CH3OH, is:
(a) phenyl ethene.
(b) 1-methoxy-1-phenyl ethane with inverted configuration only.
(c) 1-methoxy-1-phenyl ethane with retention of configuration.
(d) a racemic mixture of 1-methoxy-1-phenyl ethane.

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21. An alkane [X] contains five 1º, two 2º, one 3º and one 4º carbon atoms. The IUPAC name of [X]
is:
(a) 2,4,4-trimethylhexane (b) 3,5-dimethylheptane
(c) 2,4-dimethylheptane (d) 4,4-dimethylheptane

22. The number of isomeric alkenes with molecular formula C5H10 is (taking stereoisomers into
account):
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

23. At 0º C, 1 equivalent bromine is added to 2,4-hexadiene to produce 4,5-dibromo-2-hexene and its


isomer ‘X’. ‘X’ is:
(a) 5,5-dibromo-2-hexene (b) 2,5-dibromo-3-hexene
(c) 2,2-dibromo-3-hexene (d) 2,3-dibromo-4-hexene

24. Which of the following is/are example/s of an acetal?

O O O
OCH3 CH3
O O CH3
O O O
I II III IV

(a) I and II (b) III and IV (c) Only IV (d) I, II and III

25. The compound which can be produced by double aldol condensation of 1-phenyl-1,2-
propanedione:

(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

26. 2,2-Dimethyl-1,3-propanediol is formed by heating 2-methylpropanal with an excess of


formaldehyde and Ca(OH)2. The sequence of reactions taking place in this synthesis is:
(a) dehydrogenation to 2-methyl-2-propenal followed by addition of formaldehyde.
(b) dehydrogenation to penta-2,3-diene followed by addition of formaldehyde.
(c) a crossed aldol reaction followed by a crossed Cannizzaro reaction.
(d) a crossed Cannizzaro reaction followed by a crossed aldol reaction.

27. Number of different types of dipeptides produced using a mixture of glycine and L-valine, and
number of optically active dipeptides formed in this mixture will be:
(a) Four dipeptides, all optically active (b) Two dipeptides, all optically active
(c) Four dipeptides, three optically active (d) Two dipeptides, none optically active

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28. Predict the major product in the following reaction.
PCC is pyridinium chlorochromate
1 . B2 H6, THF
2 H2O2 / HO-
R
R
3 PCC, 0 0C
O
O O R
R R
R R
(a) O (b) R (c) R H (d) O

29. Find out the product in the following reaction.


O 1. NH2NH2
Cl
2. KOH (excess)
Diethylene glycol
Heat

OH O
Cl

(a) (b) (c) (d)

30. The product/s obtained on reaction of biphenyl (Ph-Ph) with nitrating mixture (HNO3 + H2SO4)
is/are:

31. Chlorination of propane gives four dichloro products. One of them is optically active. The number
of trichloro products possible from the optically active dichloro product is (excluding
stereoisomers):
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

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32. The suitable reagent for the following transformation is:

O OH
?

(a) Na / liq. NH3 (b) H2, Pd/C


(c) LiAlH4 (d) Zn-Hg, HCl, heat

33. Column A represents a set of functional groups and Column B their respective electronic effects.
The correct match is:
Column A Column B
(a) -NH2, -COCl, -SO3H, -COOH ; m-directing, EWG, activating, o/p-directing
(b) -X, -NHCOCH3, -CHO, -CH3 ; o/p directing, EDG, m-directing, activating
(c) -COCl, -COCH3, -NH2, -CN ; EDG, EWG, deactivating, m-directing
(d) -SO3H, -NH2, -OCH3, -CONH2 ; activating, deactivating, EWG, EWG

[EDG: Electron donating group and EWG: Electron withdrawing group]

34. The correct order of reactivity of -CHO, -COR, -COOR, -CONR2 groups toward MeMgI in ether
is:
(a) -CONR2 > -COOR > -COR > -CHO (b) -CHO > -COR > -COOR > -CONR2
(c) -CONR2 > -CHO > -COR > -COOR (d) -CHO > -CONR2 > -COOR > -COR
35. The plots of energy density (energy per unit area) vs wavelength for blackbody radiation at various
temperatures is given below.
The correct option among the following is:

(i) T1 > T2 >T3 >T4 >T5


(ii) As temperature increases, the wavelength at which the intensity is maximum shifts towards
the higher energy regions of the electromagnetic spectrum.
(iii) Radiations of all wave lengths are emitted, absorbed, reflected, and refracted by the black
body.
(iv) The total energy density increases as the temperature is decreased.

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

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36. A student adds ‘x’ g of iron (Fe) powder to dil. HCl and measures the work done by the reaction
between HCl and the added Fe to be 1000 J. If the experiment was conducted at a constant
pressure of 1 atm at 27°C, mass of Fe powder added is:
(a) 22.4 g (b) 2.24 g (c) 11.2 g (d) 1.12 g

37. Antacids are medicines that temporarily neutralize the acid in the stomach and prevent heartburns.
The volume of an antacid syrup containing 2.9 g of Mg(OH) 2 per 100 mL to be given to a patient
whose stomach contains 2 L of gastric juice with HCl concentration of × is :
(Molar mass of Mg(OH)2 = 58.0 )
(a) 4.0 mL (b) 7.8 mL (c) 12.0 mL (d) 120 mL

38. A half-cell reaction represented by (i) as given below


𝐹𝑒(𝑂𝐻)2 (𝑠) + 2𝑒 ⟶ 𝐹𝑒(𝑠) + 2𝑂𝐻 (𝑎𝑞) 𝐸⊖ = − 9 𝑉 (i)

takes place in two different electrochemical cells, I and II, in which the other half cell
reactions are (ii) and (iii) respectively:

𝐴 + (𝑎𝑞) + 3𝑒 ⟶ 𝐴 (𝑠) 𝐸 ⊖ = − 7 𝑉 (ii)


𝐴 𝐵𝑟(𝑠) + 𝑒 ⟶ 𝐴 (𝑠) + 𝐵𝑟 (𝑎𝑞) 𝐸 ⊖ = − 7 𝑉 (iii)

The correct option that represents the redox reactions in cells I and II is:

(a) Fe is oxidised in cell I; Fe is oxidised in cell II


(b) Fe is oxidised in cell I; Fe is reduced in cell II
(c) Fe is reduced in cell I; Fe is reduced in cell II
(d) Fe is reduced in cell I; Fe is oxidised in cell II
39. The following are the concentration vs time plots of the reactants and products represented by the
reaction
L(g) + 2 M(g) N(g) + 3 O(g)
The curves that represent M(g) and N(g) qualitatively
are respectively

(a) X, Y
(b) Y, U
(c) V, Y
(d) U, X

40. The current produced due to photoelectric effect


(a) increases with the increase of frequency of the incident radiation.
(b) increases with the increase in intensity of the incident radiation.
(c) decreases with time of irradiation.
(d) is independent of the intensity of incident radiation.

41. The property of radiation that is not different at various regions of the electromagnetic
spectrum is:
(a) energy (b) frequency (c) velocity (d) wavelength

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42. Among the following, the correct statements about the compressibility factor (Z) of real gases are:
(i) If Z < 1, intermolecular repulsive forces are more dominant.
(ii) If Z < 1, intermolecular attractive forces are more dominant.
(iii) If Z > 1, intermolecular repulsive forces are more dominant.
(iv) If Z >1, intermolecular attractive forces are more dominant.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)

43. The figure represents the processes AB, BC and CA undertaken


C
by a certain mass of an ideal gas. Along the path AB, the gas is
isothermally compressed with release of 800 J heat to the
surroundings. It is then compressed adiabatically along the path
BC and the work done is 500 J. The gas then returns to the state P
A along path CA and absorbs 100 J heat from the surroundings.
The work done by the gas along the path CA is:
(a) – 300 J (b) – 900 J B
A
(c) – 600 J (d) – 400 J
V

44. Two flasks I and II of equal volume are evacuated and connected by a tube of negligible volume
fitted with a stopcock. They are then placed in two different constant temperature baths of 250 K
and 750 K respectively. 20 moles of an ideal gas are introduced into the system of these flasks
through the stopcock. When the system reaches equilibrium, the ratio of the moles of the gas in
flasks I and II is:
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 4 : 1

45. When a certain amount of a univalent salt AB (molar mass = 54 ) was dissolved in
0.1 of water, the relative lowering of the vapour pressure was found to be 3.55%. The
molality of the resulting solution is:
(Assume complete dissociation of the salt under given condition. Density of water = )
(a) 0.5 m (b) 1.0 m (c) 2.0 m (d) 4.0 m

46. The rate constant values for the decay of radioisotopes X and Y, used in radio-medicine are 0.05 h-1
and 0.025 h-1 respectively. In a hospital, at a time ‘t0’ the activity of a sample of X was found to be
twice that of Y. The activities of the two radioisotopes will be approximately equal when the time
elapsed is:
(a) twice the half-life of Y (b) twice the half-life of X
(c) equal to the half-life of X (d) equal to ½ the half-life of Y

47. Latimer diagrams are the compact representations of electrochemical equilibria in


substances of multiple oxidation states. The value of the potential, x, in the Latimer
diagram of gold (at pH = 1.0) is:

(a) 2.72 V (b) 3.18 V (c) -3.18 V (d) 1.36 V

48. Electrolysis of aqueous CuSO4 (0.1 M) was carried out in two cells I and II. In I, the electrodes
are of Cu and in II they were of Pt. As the electrolysis proceeds pH of the electrolyte solution will:
(a) decrease in II and remain the same in I (b) remain the same in both I and II
(c) increase in both I and II (d) increase in I and decrease in II

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A– 2
ANY NUMBER OF OPTIONS (4, 3, 2 or 1) MAY BE CORRECT
MARKS WILL BE AWARDED ONLY IF ALL THE CORRECT OPTIONS ARE BUBBLED AND NO INCORRECT.

49. Choose the correct statement(s) regarding zeolites:


(a) Silicon atoms are replaced by aluminium atoms in the zeolites.
(b) The pores and cavities of the zeolites as well as size and shape of reactant decides the
reactions taking place in the zeolites.
(c) The cracking of hydrocarbons and isomerisation reactions are catalyzed by zeolites in the
petrochemical industries.
(d) Zeolites act as molecular sieves and can separate the molecules of different sizes.

50. Crystalline iron(III) nitrate nonahydrate, Fe(NO3)3.9H2O, has a very pale violet colour. When
added to water, the crystals dissolve to form a brown solution. Treatment of this brown solution
with concentrated nitric acid yields a very pale violet solution while treatment with HCl yields a
yellow solution.
Identify the correct statements regarding the above observations.
(a) The brown colour is due to [Fe(OH)(H2O)5]2+, [Fe(OH)2(H2O)4]+
(b) Violet colour is due to [Fe(H2O)6]3+ and yellow colour due to [FeCl4]-
(c) Addition of HNO3 shifts the equilibrium [Fe(H2O)6] 3+ + H2O [Fe(OH)(H2O)5]2+ + H3O+
to left giving pale violet colour
(d) Addition of HNO3 shifts the equilibrium [Fe(H2O)6] 3+ + H2O [Fe(OH)(H2O)5]2+ + H3O+
to right giving violet colour

51. The optically active compounds from the following are:

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH Br3 Br CH3


CH3
CH3 CH3 CH CH3 CHBr 3
CH CH
Br CH3
(a)
(i) H3C (i) H3C
CH
3 (ii)
H C
CH33 Br(b)
(ii) 3
(ii) H3C Br
(i) H3C (i) H3C 3 (ii) 3
CH3 CH3 CH3HCH Br H3C Br
CH 3C 3
CH
CH CH 3 3 3
3
CH3 CH3
Br Br CH3 CH3
Br Br
Br Br H3C
Br (iv) Br H3C
(iii)
(c) H3C (iii)
CH (iv)
(d) CH
H33C
(iii) (iii) 3H3C (iv) H CH3C
3 (iv) CH3
CHH CH H3C CH3
H3C 3 3C 3 CH3 H3C
H3C H3C

52. 3-chlorotoluene is reacted with a mixture of conc. H2SO4 and HNO3. The product/s formed is/are:
Cl CH3
ClCl (i) Cl CH
(ii)CH
3 3 O2N
NO2 CH3
(i)(i) (ii)(ii) O2ON2N
(a) NO
(i)NO
2 2 (ii) (b) O2N
Cl
H3C NO2
ClCl
H3HC3C Cl
H3C
CH3
CH
CH
3 3
CH3
(iii) (iv) CH3
(c)(iii)(iii) Cl (iv)
(iv)
CH(d)
CH
3 3 O2N NO2
(iii) (iv) CH3
ClCl NO2 O2ON2N NO
NO
2 2
Cl O2N NO2
NO
NO2 2 Cl
NO2
ClCl
Cl

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53. 2,4,6-trinitrophenol is more acidic than phenol. Identify the correct statement(s)
(a) pKa for 2,4,6-trinitrophenol is less than that of phenol.
(b) phenol is stabilized by intramolecular π hydrogen bonding.
(c) The conjugate base of 2,4,6-trinitrophenol delocalizes the negative charge on the oxygen
atom to a very large extent.
(d) The conjugate base of phenol delocalizes the negative charge to a greater extent than the
conjugate base of 2,4,6-trinitrophenol.

54. The correct statements for 1,3-butadiene from following are:


(a) Molar addition of Br2 yields only 1,4-dibromo-2-butene as the major product when
the reaction is performed for longer time period
(b) Molar addition of Br2 yields only 1,2-dibromo-2-butene for longer time period
(c) C1 – C2 and C3 – C4 bonds are slightly longer than a C=C bond
(d) C2 – C3 single bond is slightly shorter than a C – C bond

55. Which of the following representations will exhibit cis-trans isomerism?

CH3 CH3
COOH H3C
(a) (b)
CH3

CH3 CH3
H3C
(c) (d)
CH3

56. For an elementary dimerization reaction of the type 2R  R2, the value of the steric factor was
found to be 2.5. This indicates that
(a) the experimentally obtained rate is 2.5 times faster than the theoretical rate.
(b) ratio of the number of collisions calculated from collision theory and that actually take place
is 1: 2.5.
(c) the activation energy of the reaction is the same for both the experimental and calculated
values.
(d) the molecules of reactant R may be of some complex structure.

57. The correct statement/s among the following is/are:


(a) The charge on the diffused layer of AgI colloidal solution by the addition of few drops of
dilute aqueous solution of KI to an aqueous solution of AgNO3 is negative.
(b) The charge on the diffused layer of AgI colloidal solution by the addition of few drops of
dilute aqueous solution of AgNO3 to an aqueous solution of KI is positive.
(c) When the ionic strength of a colloidal solution is increased, thickness of the double layer
is increased, and the colloid gets precipitated.
(d) When the ionic strength of a colloidal solution is increased, thickness of the double layer
is decreased, and the colloid gets precipitated.

58. In reverse osmosis the flow of solvent across semi permeable membrane occurs
(a) when hydrostatic pressure is greater than osmotic pressure
(b) when hydrostatic pressure is lower than osmotic pressure
(c) from higher concentrated solution to lower concentrated solution
(d) from lower concentrated solution to higher concentrated solution

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59. Given below is the plot of pH vs volume of NaOH added in an acid-base titration. The correct
statement/s among the following is/are:

(a) Before the equivalence point, a series


of buffer solutions determine the pH.
(b) The graph represents the titration of a
strong acid with NaOH.
(c) At the equivalence point, hydrolysis
of the anion of the acid determines
the pH.
(d) After the equivalence point acid/salt
buffer solution determines the pH.

60. The correct statement/s among the following is/are:


(a) The probability density (ψ2) for a hydrogen atom is zero at r = 0.
(b) In an atom, orbitals with the same quantum number have different energies.
(c) The energy of a given orbital with same principal quantum number decreases as the atomic
number ‘Z’, increases.
(d) For a given atomic number, the configuration having the maximum number of parallel spins
is of the lowest energy than any other arrangement arising from the same configuration.

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