12th Preboard

Download as docx, pdf, or txt
Download as docx, pdf, or txt
You are on page 1of 8

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan, Jammu Region

Pre-Board II Question Paper (2024-25)


Biology (Subject Code-044)
Class XII
Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :


(i) This question paper contains 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into five sections Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A questions number 1 to 16 are multiple choice type questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B questions number 17 to 21 are very short answer type questions. Each question carries 2
marks.
(v) Section C questions number 22 to 28 are short answer type questions. Each question carries 3 marks.
(vi) Section D questions number 29 and 30 are case-based questions. Each question carries 4 marks. Each
question has subparts with internal choice in one of the subparts.
(vii) Section E questions number 31 to 33 are long answer type questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in Sections B, C and D of
the question paper. A candidate has to write answer for only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(ix) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

Section A
1. Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of parts in an ovule are
(a) egg, nucellus, embryo sac, integument (b) egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument
(c) embryo sac, nucellus, integument, egg (d) egg, integument, embryo sac, nucellus
2. In angiosperms, a functional megaspore develops into
(a) embryo sac (b) endosperm
(c) ovule (d) pollen grain
3. DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked to each other by 3′→ 5′ phosphodiester bond. To
prevent polymerisation of nucleotides, which of the following modifications would you choose?
(a) Replace purine with pyrimidines
(b) Remove/replace 3' OH group in deoxyribose
(c) Remove/replace 2' OH group with some other group in deoxyribose
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
4. In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea, round seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr),
yellow cotyledon (YY) was dominant over green cotyledon (yy). What are the expected phenotypes in the
F2 generation of the cross RRYY × rryy?
(a) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, and wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons.
(b) Only round seeds with green cotyledons.
(c) Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons.
(d) Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons.
5. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are examples of
(a) vestigial organs (b) retrogressive evolution
(c) analogous organs (d) homologous organs
6. Which is correct formula of Hardy-Weinberg’s law?
(a) p2 + pq + q2 = 0 (b) p2 + pq + q2 = 1
(c) p2 + pq + q2 = infinity (d) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
7. What is the smallest part of a DNA molecule that can be changed by a point mutation
(a) Oligonucleotide (b) Codon
(c) Gene (d) Nucleotide
8. Study the pedigree chart given below. What does it show?

(a) An autosomal recessive trait (b) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible
(c) Inheritance of a recessive X-linked disease (d) Inheritance of a dominant X-linked disease
9. A patient was advised to have a kidney transplant. To suppress the immune reaction, the doctor would
administer him:
a) statins produced from Monascus purpureus
b) statins produced from Streptococcus thermophilus
c) cyclosporin A produced from Trichoderma polysporum
d) cyclosporin A produced from Clostridium butylicum
10. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands.
What is so special shown in it?
5′_____GAATTC_____3′
3′_____CTTAAG_____5′
(a) Replication completed (b) Deletion mutation
(c) Start codon at the 5′ level (d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
11. During the processing of ‘proinsulin’ into mature ‘insulin’
(a) A – chain is removed (b) C – chain is removed
(c) B – chain is removed (d) No peptide chain is removed
12. What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid?

(a) Vanishing population (b) Stable population


(c) Declining population (d) Expanding population
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

13. Assertion : Dictogamy refers to maturation of male and female sex organs at different times.
Reason : This is a safeguard against cross fertilisation.
14. Assertion : Eukaryotic mRNA requires post-transcriptional modifications to form functional mRNA.
Reason : Eukaryotic transcripts possess extra non-functional gene segments called introns.
15. Assertion : Second infection of the same pathogen is quickly eliminated.
Reason : Preformed memory B and T-cells elicit a quick and vigorous attack on pathogens.
16. Assertion : ‘Cry’ proteins are named so because they are crystal proteins.
Reason : ‘Cry’ proteins solubilise in alkaline pH of the insect’s gut and activate Bt toxin.
Section B
17. Males in whom testes fail to descend to the scrotum are generally infertile. Why?
OR
(i) Draw a diagram of the structure of a human ovum surrounded by corona radiata. Label the following
parts:
(a) Ovum (b) Plasma membrane (c) Zona pellucida
18. The map distance in certain organisms between gene A and B is 4 units, B and C is 2 units and between
C and D is 8 units which one of these gene pairs will show more recombination frequency? Give reasons in
support of your answer.
19. Name the blank spaces a, b, c and d in the table given below:
S. No. Name of the drug Plant source Organ system affected
(i) a Poppy plant b
(ii) Marijuana c d
20. Rearrange the following in the correct sequence to accomplish an important biotechnological reaction:
(a) In vitro synthesis of copies of DNA of interest
(b) Chemically synthesised oligonucleotides
(c) Enzyme DNA-polymerase
(d) Complementary region of DNA
(e) Genomic DNA template
(f) Nucleotides provided
(g) Primers
(h) Thermostable DNA-polymerase (from Thermus aquaticus)
(i) Denaturation of dsDNA
21. Compare the two ecological pyramids of biomass given below and explain the situations in which this is
possible. Also, construct an ideal pyramid of energy, if 200,000 joules of sunlight is available.

Section C
22.
Read the graph given above showing the levels of ovarian hormones during menstruation and correlate the
uterine events that take place according to the hormonal levels on:
(i) 6–15 days
(ii) 16–25 days
(iii) 26–28 days (if the ovum is not fertilised)
23. Study the figures given below and answer the questions that follow.

(i) In a dihybrid cross, when would the proportion of parental gene combinations be much higher than non-
parental types, as experimentally shown by Morgan and his group?
(ii) If two genes are located far apart from each other on a chromosome, how the frequency of
recombination will get affected?
(iii) What are ‘true breeding lines’ that are used to study inheritance pattern of traits in plants?
24. If implementation of better techniques and new strategies are required to provide more efficient care and
assistance to people, then why is there a statutory ban on amniocentesis? Write the use of this technique and
give reason to justify the ban.
25. How does industrial melanism support Darwin’s theory of Natural Selection? Explain.
26. Cow dung and water is mixed and this slurry is fed into the biogas plant for digestion by microbes. The
person performing the process shares that there is no need to provide inoculum for it, why? What is the role
of microbes at the source? Under which condition will they be most active and effective?
27. Refer to the diagram of maturation of proinsulin into insulin to answer the following questions.
(i) How are two short polypeptide chains of insulin linked together?
(ii) State the role of C-peptide in human insulin.
(iii) Mention the chemical change that proinsulin undergoes, to be
able to act as mature insulin.

OR
A farmer grew 2 varieties of corn crop in field A and B. He grew normal corn crops in field A and GM corn
crops in field B. He observed corn borers attacked only in field A. To control it, spores of Bt were sprayed in
field A.
a) Name the gene in the spores responsible for the control of this pest.
b) What effect will the spores of Bt have on the insect pest?
c) How has field B developed resistance against this pest?
28. Observe the global biodiversity distribution of major
plant taxa in the diagram alongside and answer the questions
that follow.
(i) Which group of plants are most endangered?
(ii) Why are mosses/ferns so few? Give reason.
(iii) Which group of plants is most advanced and which one
is most primitive?

Section D
29. Rajesh was doing gel electrophoresis to purify DNA fragments. Given below is the sketch of the
observations of the experiment performed by him.

(i) At which end he would have loaded the samples and where? (1)
(ii) Analyse the reason for different positions taken up by the DNA bands. (2)
OR
How can he elute the DNA band of a particular size?
(iii) Elaborate the step he would have followed to visualise DNA bands. (1)
30. Explain co-evolution with reference to parasites and their hosts. Mention any four special adaptive
features evolved in parasites for their parasitic mode of life.
OR
(i) Predation is usually referred to as a detrimental association. State any three positive roles that a predator
plays in an ecosystem. (3)
(ii) State the interaction of two species A and B in the form of symbols if they show commensalism. (1)
Section E
31. Given below is the diagram of CuT, a commonly used contraceptive method. Based on the information
answer the following questions:
(i) A mother of one year old daughter wanted to space her second child. Her
doctor suggested CuT. Explain its contraceptive actions. (2)
(ii) Bring out one main difference between CuT and LNG-20. (2)
(iii) A newly married couple does not want to produce children at least for
one year and also not to use any contraceptives. Suggest a method to prevent
pregnancy. (1)

OR
Given below are certain situations. Analyse the situation and suggest the name of suitable contraceptive
device along with mode of action.

Situation Requirement of contraceptive for - Name of contraceptive Mode of action


device
1. blocking the entry of sperms through
cervix
2. spacing between children
3. effective emergency contraceptive
4. terminal method to prevent any more
pregnancy in female
5. sterilization in male

32. Study the figure given below and answer the questions:

(i) How does the repressor molecule get inactivated? (1.5)


(ii) When does the transcription of lac mRNA stop? (2)
(iii) Name the enzyme transcribed by the genes ‘z’, ‘y’ and ‘a’. (1.5)
OR
Identify ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’, ‘d’, ‘e’ and ‘f’ in the table given below:
33. Under polio prevention programme, infants in India were given polio vaccines on a large scale at regular
intervals to eradicate polio from the country.
(a) What is a vaccine? Explain how does it impart immunity to the child against the disease. (2.5)
(b) With the help of an example each, differentiate between active and passive immunity. (2.5)
OR
(a) How does a Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) replicate in a host? (2)
(b) How does a HIV-infected patient lose immunity? (2)
(c) List any two symptoms of this disease. (1)

You might also like