Compendium Moot Court Clinical
Compendium Moot Court Clinical
Compendium Moot Court Clinical
IN THE MATTER OF
Vs.
1
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Serial Page
No. AUTHORITIES No.
1 Indian Medical Council (Professional Conduct, Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations, 2002 03
2 Indian Contract Act 1872 23
National Medical commission registered medical practitioners ( Professional conduct)
3 regulations 2002 35
4 Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa vs State of Maharashtra (1996) 2 SCC 634 55
Bombay Hospital & Medical Research Centre v. Asha Jaiswal & Ors. 2021 SCC Online SC
5 1149 66
Central Public Information Officer, Supreme Court of India vs. Subhash Chandra Agarwal 2019
6 SCC OnLine 1459 101
Consumer Protection Council and Others vs. Dr. M. Sundaram and Another 2019 SCC OnLine
7 SC 1459 105
8 Hunter vs Hanley 1955 SLT 213 111
9 Jacob Mathew vs state of Punjab AIR 2005 SUPREME COURT 3180 120
10 Kimmell v. Skelly 130 Cal. 555 141
11 Knox v. Modern Garage & Repair Shop 68 Cal. App. 583 145
12 L’Estrange v F Graucob Ltd [1934] 2 KB 394 148
13 Martin F D’Souza Vs. Mohd. Ishfaq AIR 2009 SUPREME COURT 2049 162
14 Moni vs State Of Kerala 2006(2)KLT313 194
15 Roe and Woolley v. Minister of Health (1954) 2 QB 66 242
16 Sethuraman Subramaniam Iyer v Triveni Nursing Home 1998 CCJ 1532 (NC 270
17 State Of Haryana & Ors vs Raj Rani AIR 2005 SUPREME COURT 3279 274
18 STATEMENT OF VERIFICATION 276
2
INDIAN MEDICAL COUNCIL
Regulations, 2002
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Indian Medical Council
(Professional Conduct, Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations, 2002
(Published in Part III, Section 4 of the Gazette of India, dated 6th April, 2002)
NOTIFICATION
No. MCI-211(2)/2001/Registration. In exercise of the powers conferred under section 20A read
with section 33(m) of the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956 (102 of 1956), the Medical Council of
India, with the previous approval of the Central Government, hereby makes the following
regulations relating to the Professional Conduct, Etiquette and Ethics for registered medical
practitioners, namely:-
Short Title and Commencement: (1) These Regulations may be called the Indian Medical
Council (Professional conduct, Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations, 2002. (2)They shall come into
force on the date of their publication in the Official Gazette.
CHAPTER I
A. Declaration: Each applicant, at the time of making an application for registration under the
provisions of the Act, shall be provided a copy of the declaration and shall submit a duly signed
Declaration as provided in Appendix 1. The applicant shall also certify that he/she had read and
agreed to abide by the same.
1.1 Character of Physician (Doctors with qualification of MBBS or MBBS with post graduate
degree/ diploma or with equivalent qualification in any medical discipline):
1.1.1 A physician shall uphold the dignity and honour of his profession.
1.1.2 The prime object of the medical profession is to render service to humanity; reward or
financial gain is a subordinate consideration. Who- so-ever chooses his profession, assumes the
obligation to conduct himself in accordance with its ideals. A physician should be an upright
man, instructed in the art of healings. He shall keep himself pure in character and be diligent in
caring for the sick; he should be modest, sober, patient, prompt in discharging his duty without
anxiety; conducting himself with propriety in his profession and in all the actions of his life.
1.1.3 No person other than a doctor having qualification recognised by Medical Council of India
and registered with Medical Council of India/State Medical Council (s) is allowed to practice
Modern system of Medicine or Surgery. A person obtaining qualification in any other system of
Medicine is not allowed to practice Modern system of Medicine in any form.
1.2.1 The Principal objective of the medical profession is to render service to humanity with full
respect for the dignity of profession and man. Physicians should merit the confidence of patients
entrusted to their care, rendering to each a full measure of service and devotion. Physicians should
try continuously to improve medical knowledge and skills and should make available to their
patients and colleagues the benefits of their professional attainments. The physician should
practice methods of healing founded on scientific basis and should not associate professionally
with anyone who violates this principle. The honoured ideals of the medical profession imply that
the responsibilities of the physician extend not only to individuals but also to society.
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1.2.2 Membership in Medical Society: For the advancement of his profession, a physician should
affiliate with associations and societies of allopathic medical professions and involve actively in
the functioning of such bodies.
1.3.1 Every physician shall maintain the medical records pertaining to his / her indoor patients
for a period of 3 years from the date of commencement of the treatment in a standard proforma
laid down by the Medical Council of India and attached as Appendix 3.
1.3.2. If any request is made for medical records either by the patients / authorised attendant or
legal authorities involved, the same may be duly acknowledged and documents shall be issued
within the period of 72 hours.
1.3.3 A Registered medical practitioner shall maintain a Register of Medical Certificates giving full
details of certificates issued. When issuing a medical certificate he / she shall always enter the
identification marks of the patient and keep a copy of the certificate. He / She shall not omitto
record the signature and/or thumb mark, address and at least one identification mark of the patient
on the medical certificates or report. The medical certificate shall be prepared as in Appendix 2.
1.3.4 Efforts shall be made to computerize medical records for quick retrieval.
1.4.1 Every physician shall display the registration number accorded to him by the State Medical
Council / Medical Council of India in his clinic and in all his prescriptions, certificates, money
receipts given to his patients.
1.4.2 Physicians shall display as suffix to their names only recognized medical degrees or such
certificates/diplomas and memberships/honours which confer professional knowledge or
recognizes any exemplary qualification/achievements.
1.5 Use of Generic names of drugs: Every physician should, as far as possible, prescribe drugs
with generic names and he / she shall ensure that there is a rational prescription and useof drugs.
“Every physician should prescribe drugs with generic names legibly and
preferably in capital letters and he/she shall ensure that there is a rational
prescription and use of drugs”
1.6 Highest Quality Assurance in patient care: Every physician should aid in safeguarding the
profession against admission to it of those who are deficient in moral character or education.
Physician shall not employ in connection with his professional practice any attendant who is neither
registered nor enlisted under the Medical Acts in force and shall not permit such persons to attend,
treat or perform operations upon patients wherever professional discretion or skill is required.
1.7 Exposure of Unethical Conduct: A Physician should expose, without fear or favour,
incompetent or corrupt, dishonest or unethical conduct on the part of members of the profession.
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1.8 Payment of Professional Services: The physician, engaged in the practice of medicine shall
give priority to the interests of patients. The personal financial interests of a physician should not
conflict with the medical interests of patients. A physician should announce his fees before
rendering service and not after the operation or treatment is under way. Remuneration received
for such services should be in the form and amount specifically announced to the patient at the
time the service is rendered. It is unethical to enter into a contract of "no cure no payment".
Physician rendering service on behalf of the state shall refrain from anticipating or accepting any
consideration.
1.9 Evasion of Legal Restrictions: The physician shall observe the laws of the country in
regulating the practice of medicine and shall also not assist others to evade such laws. He should
be cooperative in observance and enforcement of sanitary laws and regulations in the interest of
public health. A physician should observe the provisions of the State Acts like Drugs and
Cosmetics Act, 1940; Pharmacy Act, 1948; Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic substancesAct,
1985; Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971; Transplantation of Human Organ Act, 1994;
Mental Health Act, 1987; Environmental Protection Act, 1986; Pre–natal Sex Determination Test
Act, 1994; Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisement) Act, 1954; Persons with
Disabilities (Equal Opportunities and Full Participation) Act, 1995 and Bio- Medical Waste
(Management and Handling) Rules, 1998 and such other Acts, Rules, Regulations made by the
Central/State Governments or local Administrative Bodies or any other relevant Act relating to the
protection and promotion of public health.
CHAPTER 2
2.1.1 Though a physician is not bound to treat each and every person asking his services, he
should not only be ever ready to respond to the calls of the sick and the injured, but should be
mindful of the high character of his mission and the responsibility he discharges in the course of
his professional duties. In his treatment, he should never forget that the health and the lives of
those entrusted to his care depend on his skill and attention. A physician should endeavour to add
to the comfort of the sick by making his visits at the hour indicated to the patients. A physician
advising a patient to seek service of another physician is acceptable, however, in case of
emergency a physician must treat the patient. No physician shall arbitrarily refuse treatment to a
patient. However for good reason, when a patient is suffering from an ailment which is not within
the range of experience of the treating physician, the physician may refuse treatment and refer the
patient to another physician.
2.1.2 Medical practitioner having any incapacity detrimental to the patient or which can affect his
performance vis-à-vis the patient is not permitted to practice his profession
2.2 Patience, Delicacy and Secrecy : Patience and delicacy should characterize the physician.
Confidences concerning individual or domestic life entrusted by patients to a physician and defects
in the disposition or character of patients observed during medical attendance should never be
revealed unless their revelation is required by the laws of the State. Sometimes, however, a
physician must determine whether his duty to society requires him to employ knowledge, obtained
through confidence as a physician, to protect a healthy person against a communicable disease
to which he is about to be exposed. In such instance, the physician should act as he would wish
another to act toward one of his own family in like circumstances.
2.3 Prognosis: The physician should neither exaggerate nor minimize the gravity of a patient’s
condition. He should ensure himself that the patient, his relatives or his responsible friends have
such knowledge of the patient’s condition as will serve the best interests of the patient and the
family.
2.4 The Patient must not be neglected: A physician is free to choose whom he will serve. He
should, however, respond to any request for his assistance in an emergency. Once having
undertaken a case, the physician should not neglect the patient, nor should he withdraw from
the case without giving adequate notice to the patient and his family. Provisionally or fully
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registered medical practitioner shall not willfully commit an act of negligence that may deprive
his patient or patients from necessary medical care.
2.5 Engagement for an Obstetric case: When a physician who has been engaged to attend an
obstetric case is absent and another is sent for and delivery accomplished, the acting physician
is entitled to his professional fees, but should secure the patient’s consent to resign on the arrival
of the physician engaged.
CHAPTER 3
3.1.1 However in case of serious illness and in doubtful or difficult conditions, the physician should
request consultation, but under any circumstances such consultation should be justifiable and in
the interest of the patient only and not for any other consideration.
3.1.2 Consulting pathologists /radiologists or asking for any other diagnostic Lab investigation
should be done judiciously and not in a routine manner.
3.2 Consultation for Patient’s Benefit: In every consultation, the benefit to the patient is of
foremost importance. All physicians engaged in the case should be frank with the patient and his
attendants.
3.4.1 All statements to the patient or his representatives should take place in the presence of the
consulting physicians, except as otherwise agreed. The disclosure of the opinion to the patient
or his relatives or friends shall rest with the medical attendant.
3.4.2 Differences of opinion should not be divulged unnecessarily but when there is irreconcilable
difference of opinion the circumstances should be frankly and impartially explained to the patient
or his relatives or friends. It would be opened to them to seek further advice as they so desire.
3.5 Treatment after Consultation: No decision should restrain the attending physician from
making such subsequent variations in the treatment if any unexpected change occurs, but at the
next consultation, reasons for the variations should be discussed/ explained. The same privilege,
with its obligations, belongs to the consultant when sent for in an emergency duringthe absence
of attending physician. The attending physician may prescribe medicine at any time for the patient,
whereas the consultant may prescribe only in case of emergency or as an expert when called for.
3.6 Patients Referred to Specialists: When a patient is referred to a specialist by the attending
physician, a case summary of the patient should be given to the specialist, who should
communicate his opinion in writing to the attending physician.
3.7.1 A physician shall clearly display his fees and other charges on the board of his chamber
and/or the hospitals he is visiting. Prescription should also make clear if the Physician himself
dispensed any medicine.
3.7.2 A physician shall write his name and designation in full along with registration particulars in
his prescription letter head.
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Note: In Government hospital where the patient–load is heavy, the name of the prescribing
doctor must be written below his/her signature.
CHAPTER 4
4.1 Dependence of Physicians on each other : A physician should consider it as a pleasure and
privilege to render gratuitous service to all physicians and their immediate family dependants.
4.3 Consultant not to take charge of the case: When a physician has been called for
consultation, the Consultant should normally not take charge of the case, especially on the
solicitation of the patient or friends. The Consultant shall not criticize the referring physician. He /
she shall discuss the diagnosis treatment plan with the referring physician.
4.4 Appointment of Substitute: Whenever a physician requests another physician to attend his
patients during his temporary absence from his practice, professional courtesy requires the
acceptance of such appointment only when he has the capacity to discharge the additional
responsibility along with his / her other duties. The physician acting under such an appointment
should give the utmost consideration to the interests and reputation of the absent physician and
all such patients should be restored to the care of the latter upon his/her return.
4.5 Visiting another Physician’s Case: When it becomes the duty of a physician occupying an
official position to see and report upon an illness or injury, he should communicate to the physician
in attendance so as to give him an option of being present. The medical officer / physician
occupying an official position should avoid remarks upon the diagnosis or the treatment that has
been adopted.
CHAPTER 5
5.1 Physicians as Citizens: Physicians, as good citizens, possessed of special training should
disseminate advice on public health issues. They should play their part in enforcing the laws of the
community and in sustaining the institutions that advance the interests of humanity. They should
particularly co-operate with the authorities in the administration of sanitary/public health laws and
regulations.
5.2 Public and Community Health: Physicians, especially those engaged in public health work,
should enlighten the public concerning quarantine regulations and measures for the prevention
of epidemic and communicable diseases. At all times the physician should notify the constituted
public health authorities of every case of communicable disease under his care, in accordance
with the laws, rules and regulations of the health authorities. When an epidemic occurs a physician
should not abandon his duty for fear of contracting the disease himself.
5.3 Pharmacists / Nurses: Physicians should recognize and promote the practice of different
paramedical services such as, pharmacy and nursing as professions and should seek their
cooperation wherever required.
CHAPTER 6
6. UNETHICAL ACTS : A physician shall not aid or abet or commit any of the following acts
which shall be construed as unethical -
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6.1 Advertising:
6.1.2 Printing of self photograph, or any such material of publicity in the letter head or on sign
board of the consulting room or any such clinical establishment shall be regarded as acts of self
advertisement and unethical conduct on the part of the physician. However, printing of sketches,
diagrams, picture of human system shall not be treated as unethical.
6.2 Patent and Copy rights: A physician may patent surgical instruments, appliances and
medicine or Copyright applications, methods and procedures. However, it shall be unethical if
the benefits of such patents or copyrights are not made available in situations where the interest
of large population is involved.
6.4.1 A physician shall not give, solicit, or receive nor shall he offer to give solicit or receive, any
gift, gratuity, commission or bonus in consideration of or return for the referring, recommending
or procuring of any patient for medical, surgical or other treatment. A physician shall not directly or
indirectly, participate in or be a party to act of division, transference, assignment, subordination,
rebating, splitting or refunding of any fee for medical, surgical or other treatment.
6.4.2 Provisions of para 6.4.1 shall apply with equal force to the referring, recommending or
procuring by a physician or any person, specimen or material for diagnostic purposes or other
study / work. Nothing in this section, however, shall prohibit payment of salaries by a qualified
physician to other duly qualified person rendering medical care under his supervision.
6.5 Secret Remedies: The prescribing or dispensing by a physician of secret remedial agents of
which he does not know the composition, or the manufacture or promotion of their use is unethical
and as such prohibited. All the drugs prescribed by a physician should always carry a proprietary
formula and clear name.
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6.6 Human Rights: The physician shall not aid or abet torture nor shall he be a party to either
infliction of mental or physical trauma or concealment of torture inflicted by some other person or
agency in clear violation of human rights.
6.7 Euthanasia: Practicing euthanasia shall constitute unethical conduct. However on specific
occasion, the question of withdrawing supporting devices to sustain cardio-pulmonary function
even after brain death, shall be decided only by a team of doctors and not merely by the treating
physician alone. A team of doctors shall declare withdrawal of support system. Such team shall
consist of the doctor in charge of the patient, Chief Medical Officer / Medical Officer in charge of
the hospital and a doctor nominated by the in-charge of the hospital from the hospital staff or in
accordance with the provisions of the Transplantation of Human Organ Act, 1994.
“6.8 Code of conduct for doctors and professional association of doctors in their
relationship with pharmaceutical and allied health sector industry.
6.8.1 In dealing with Pharmaceutical and allied health sector industry, a medical
practitioner shall follow and adhere to the stipulations given below:-
a) Gifts: A medical practitioner shall not receive any gift from any pharmaceutical
or allied health care industry and their sales people or representatives.
b) Travel facilities: A medical practitioner shall not accept any travel facility inside
the country or outside, including rail, air, ship , cruise tickets, paid vacations etc.
from any pharmaceutical or allied healthcare industry or their representatives for self
and family members for vacation or for attending conferences, seminars, workshops,
CME programme etc as a delegate.
d) Cash or monetary grants: A medical practitioner shall not receive any cash or
monetary grants from any pharmaceutical and allied healthcare industry for
individual purpose in individual capacity under any pretext. Funding for medical
research, study etc. can only be received through approved institutions by
modalities laid down by law / rules / guidelines adopted by such approved
institutions, in a transparent manner. It shall always be fully disclosed.
e) Medical Research: A medical practitioner may carry out, participate in, work in
research projects funded by pharmaceutical and allied healthcare industries. A
medical practitioner is obliged to know that the fulfillment of the following items (i)
to (vii) will be an imperative for undertaking any research assignment / project funded
by industry – for being proper and ethical. Thus, in accepting such a position a
medical practitioner shall:-
(i) Ensure that the particular research proposal(s) has the due permission from the
competent concerned authorities.
(ii) Ensure that such a research project(s) has the clearance of national/ state /
institutional ethics committees / bodies.
(iii) Ensure that it fulfils all the legal requirements prescribed for medical research.
(iv) Ensure that the source and amount of funding is publicly disclosed at the
beginning itself.
(v) Ensure that proper care and facilities are provided to human volunteers, if they
are necessary for the research project(s).
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(vi) Ensure that undue animal experimentations are not done and when these are
necessary they are done in a scientific and a humane way.
(vii) Ensure that while accepting such an assignment a medical practitioner shall
have the freedom to publish the results of the research in the greater interest of the
society by inserting such a clause in the MoU or any other document / agreement for
any such assignment.
(i) Ensure that his professional integrity and freedom are maintained.
(ii) Ensure that patients interest are not compromised in any way.
(iii) Ensure that such affiliations are within the law.
(iv) Ensure that such affiliations / employments are fully transparent and disclosed.
h) Endorsement: A medical practitioner shall not endorse any drug or product of the
industry publically. Any study conducted on the efficacy or otherwise of such
products shall be presented to and / or through appropriate scientific bodies or
published in appropriate scientific journals in a proper way”.
The title of Section 6.8 shall be further amended by deleting the words "and
professional association of doctors" in terms of Notification published on 01.02.2016 in
Gazette of India as under:-
“6.8 Code of conduct for doctors in their relationship with pharmaceutical and allied
health sector industry"
(b) Travel Facilities : A medical practitioner shall not accept any travel Facility inside the
country or outside, including rail, road, air, ship, cruise tickets, paid vacation, etc. from any
pharmaceutical or allied healthcare industry or their representatives for self and family
members for vacation or for attending conferences, seminars, workshops, CME Programme,
etc. as a delegate.
(iii) Action to be taken by the Council for violation of Section 6.8, as amended vide notification
dated 10/12/2009, shall be prescribed by further amending the Section 6.8.1 as under:-
SECTION ACTION
a) Gifts: A medical practitioner shall not Gifts more than Rs. 1,000/- upto Rs. 5,000/-
receive any gift from any pharmaceutical : Censure
or allied health care industry and their
sales people or representatives. Gifts more than Rs. 5,000/- upto Rs.
10,000/-: Removal from Indian Medical
Register or State Medical Register for 3
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(three) months.
b) Travel facilities: A medical practitioner Expenses for travel facilities more than Rs.
shall not accept any travel facility inside 1,000/- upto Rs. 5,000/-: Censure
the country or outside, including rail,
road, air, ship, cruise tickets, paid Expenses for travel facilities more than Rs.
vacations etc. from any pharmaceutical 5,000/- upto Rs. 10,000/-: Removal from
or allied healthcare industry or their Indian Medical Register or State Medical
representatives for self and family
Register for 3 (three) months.
members for vacation or for attending
conferences, seminars, workshops, Expenses for travel facilities more than Rs.
CME programme etc. as a delegate.
10,000/- to Rs. 50,000/-: Removal fromIndian
Medical Register or State medical Register for
6 (six) months.
c) Hospitality: A medical practitioner shall Expenses for Hospitality more than Rs.
not accept individually any hospitality 1,000/- upto Rs. 5,000/-: Censure
like hotel accommodation for self and
family members under any pretext. Expenses for Hospitality more than Rs.
5,000/- upto Rs. 10,000/-: Removal from
Indian Medical Register or State Medical
Register for 3 (three) months.
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than 1 (one) year from Indian Medical
Register or State Medical Register.
d) Cash or monetary grants:- A medical Cash or monetary grants more than Rs.
practitioner shall not receive any cash 1,000/- upto Rs. 5,000/-: Censure
or monetary grants from any
pharmaceutical and allied healthcare Cash or monetary grants more than Rs.
industry for individual purpose in 5,000/- upto Rs. 10,000/-: Removal from
individual capacity under any pretext. Indian Medical Register or State Medical
Funding for medical research, study etc.
Register for 3 (three) months.
can only be received through approved
institutions by modalities laid down by Cash or monetary grants more than Rs.
law / rules / guidelines adopted by such
10,000/- to Rs. 50,000/-: Removal fromIndian
approved institutions, in a transparent
manner. It shall always be fully Medical Register or State Medical Register for
disclosed. 6 (six) months.
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(vi) Ensure that undue animal
experimentations are not done and
when these are necessary they are
done in a scientific and a humane
way.
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CHAPTER 7
7. MISCONDUCT : The following acts of commission or omission on the part of a physician shall
constitute professional misconduct rendering him/her liable for disciplinary action
7.1 Violation of the Regulations: If he/she commits any violation of these Regulations.
7.2 If he/she does not maintain the medical records of his/her indoor patients for a period of
three years as per regulation 1.3 and refuses to provide the same within 72 hours when the patient
or his/her authorised representative makes a request for it as per the regulation 1.3.2.
7.3 If he/she does not display the registration number accorded to him/her by the State Medical
Council or the Medical Council of India in his clinic, prescriptions and certificates etc. issued by
him or violates the provisions of regulation 1.4.2.
7.5 Conviction by Court of Law: Conviction by a Court of Law for offences involving moral
turpitude / Criminal acts.
7.6 Sex Determination Tests: On no account sex determination test shall be undertaken with
the intent to terminate the life of a female foetus developing in her mother’s womb, unless there
are other absolute indications for termination of pregnancy as specified in the Medical Termination
of Pregnancy Act, 1971. Any act of termination of pregnancy of normal female foetus amounting
to female foeticide shall be regarded as professional misconduct on the part of the physician
leading to penal erasure besides rendering him liable to criminal proceedings as per the provisions
of this Act.
7.7 Signing Professional Certificates, Reports and other Documents: Registered medical
practitioners are in certain cases bound by law to give, or may from time to time be called upon
or requested to give certificates, notification, reports and other documents of similar character
signed by them in their professional capacity for subsequent use in the courts or for administrative
purposes etc. Such documents, among others, include the ones given at Appendix –4. Any
registered practitioner who is shown to have signed or given under his name and authority any
such certificate, notification, report or document of a similar character which is untrue, misleading
or improper, is liable to have his name deleted from the Register.
7.8 A registered medical practitioner shall not contravene the provisions of the Drugs and
Cosmetics Act and regulations made there under. Accordingly,
7.9 Performing or enabling unqualified person to perform an abortion or any illegal operation for
which there is no medical, surgical or psychological indication.
7.10 A registered medical practitioner shall not issue certificates of efficiency in modern medicine
to unqualified or non-medical person.
(Note: The foregoing does not restrict the proper training and instruction of bonafide
students, midwives, dispensers, surgical attendants, or skilled mechanical and technical
assistants and therapy assistants under the personal supervision of physicians.)
7.11 A physician should not contribute to the lay press articles and give interviews regarding
diseases and treatments which may have the effect of advertising himself or soliciting practices;
but is open to write to the lay press under his own name on matters of public health, hygienic
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living or to deliver public lectures, give talks on the radio/TV/internet chat for the same purpose
and send announcement of the same to lay press.
7.12 An institution run by a physician for a particular purpose such as a maternity home, nursing
home, private hospital, rehabilitation centre or any type of training institution etc. may be advertised
in the lay press, but such advertisements should not contain anything more than the name of the
institution, type of patients admitted, type of training and other facilities offered and the fees.
7.13 It is improper for a physician to use an unusually large sign board and write on it anything
other than his name, qualifications obtained from a University or a statutory body, titles and name
of his speciality, registration number including the name of the State Medical Councilunder
which registered. The same should be the contents of his prescription papers. It is improper to
affix a sign-board on a chemist’s shop or in places where he does not reside orwork.
7.14 The registered medical practitioner shall not disclose the secrets of a patient that have
been learnt in the exercise of his / her profession except –
i) in a court of law under orders of the Presiding Judge;
ii) in circumstances where there is a serious and identified risk to a specific person
and / or community; and
iii) notifiable diseases.
7.15 The registered medical practitioner shall not refuse on religious grounds alone to give
assistance in or conduct of sterility, birth control, circumcision and medical termination of
Pregnancy when there is medical indication, unless the medical practitioner feels himself/herself
incompetent to do so.
7.16 Before performing an operation the physician should obtain in writing the consent from the
husband or wife, parent or guardian in the case of minor, or the patient himself as the case may
be. In an operation which may result in sterility the consent of both husband and wife is needed.
7.17 A registered medical practitioner shall not publish photographs or case reports of his / her
patients without their permission, in any medical or other journal in a manner by which their identity
could be made out. If the identity is not to be disclosed, the consent is not needed.
7.18 In the case of running of a nursing home by a physician and employing assistants to help
him / her, the ultimate responsibility rests on the physician.
7.19 A Physician shall not use touts or agents for procuring patients.
7.20 A Physician shall not claim to be specialist unless he has a special qualification in that
branch.
7.21 No act of invitro fertilization or artificial insemination shall be undertaken without theinformed
consent of the female patient and her spouse as well as the donor. Such consent shall be obtained
in writing only after the patient is provided, at her own level of comprehension, with sufficient
information about the purpose, methods, risks, inconveniences, disappointments of the procedure
and possible risks and hazards.
7.22 Research: Clinical drug trials or other research involving patients or volunteers as per the
guidelines of ICMR can be undertaken, provided ethical considerations are borne in mind. Violation
of existing ICMR guidelines in this regard shall constitute misconduct. Consent taken from the
patient for trial of drug or therapy which is not as per the guidelines shall also be construed as
misconduct.
The following Clause No. 7.23 & 7.24 are deleted in terms of Notification published
on 22.02.2003 in Gazette of India.
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7.23 If a physician posted in rural area is found absent on more than two occasions during
inspection by the Head of the District Health Authority or the Chairman, Zila Parishad, the same
shall be construed as a misconduct if it is recommended to the Medical Council of India/State
Medical Council by the State Government for action under these Regulations.
CHAPTER 8
8.1 It must be clearly understood that the instances of offences and of Professional misconduct
which are given above do not constitute and are not intended to constitute a complete list of the
infamous acts which calls for disciplinary action, and that by issuing this notice the Medical Council
of India and or State Medical Councils are in no way precluded from considering and dealing with
any other form of professional misconduct on the part of a registered practitioner. Circumstances
may and do arise from time to time in relation to which there may occur questions of professional
misconduct which do not come within any of these categories. Every care should be taken that the
code is not violated in letter or spirit. In such instances as in all others, the Medical Council of India
and/or State Medical Councils have to consider and decide upon the facts brought before the
Medical Council of India and/or State Medical Councils.
8.2 It is made clear that any complaint with regard to professional misconduct can be brought
before the appropriate Medical Council for Disciplinary action. Upon receipt of any complaint of
professional misconduct, the appropriate Medical Council would hold an enquiry and give
opportunity to the registered medical practitioner to be heard in person or by pleader. If the medical
practitioner is found to be guilty of committing professional misconduct, the appropriate Medical
Council may award such punishment as deemed necessary or may direct the removal altogether
or for a specified period, from the register of the name of the delinquent registered practitioner.
Deletion from the Register shall be widely publicized in local press as well as in the publications
of different Medical Associations/ Societies/Bodies.
8.3 In case the punishment of removal from the register is for a limited period, the appropriate
Council may also direct that the name so removed shall be restored in the register after the expiry
of the period for which the name was ordered to be removed.
8.4 Decision on complaint against delinquent physician shall be taken within a time limit of 6
months.
8.5 During the pendency of the complaint the appropriate Council may restrain the physician from
performing the procedure or practice which is under scrutiny.
8.6 Professional incompetence shall be judged by peer group as per guidelines prescribed by
Medical Council of India.
8.7 The following Clause No. 8.7 & 8.8 are included in terms of Notification published on
27.05.2004 in Gazette of India.
“8.7 Where either on a request or otherwise the Medical Council of India is informed that
any complaint against a delinquent physician has not been decided by a State Medical
Council within a period of six months from the date of receipt of complaint by it and further
the MCI has reason to believe that there is no justified reason for not deciding the complaint
within the said prescribed period, the Medical Council of India may-
(i) Impress upon the concerned State Medical council to conclude and decide the
complaint within a time bound schedule;
(ii) May decide to withdraw the said complaint pending with the concerned State Medical
Council straightaway or after the expiry of the period which had been stipulated by the
17
MCI in accordance with para(i) above, to itself and refer the same to the Ethical Committee
of the Council for its expeditious disposal in a period of not more than six months from the
receipt of the complaint in the office of the Medical Council of India.”
“8.8 Any person aggrieved by the decision of the State Medical Council on any complaint
against a delinquent physician, shall have the right to file an appeal to the MCI within a
period of 60 days from the date of receipt of the order passed by the said Medical Council:
Provided that the MCI may, if it is satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient
cause from presenting the appeal within the aforesaid period of 60 days, allow it to be
presented within a further period of 60 days.
18
APPENDIX - 1
A. DECLARATION
At the time of registration, each applicant shall be given a copy of the following declaration by
the Registrar concerned and the applicant shall read and agree to abide by the same:
2) Even under threat, I will not use my medical knowledge contrary to the laws of
Humanity.
3) I will maintain the utmost respect for human life from the time of conception.
4) I will not permit considerations of religion, nationality, race, party politics or social
standing to intervene between my duty and my patient.
8) I will give to my teachers the respect and gratitude which is their due.
9) I will maintain by all means in my power, the honour and noble traditions of
medical profession.
11) I shall abide by the code of medical ethics as enunciated in the Indian Medical
Council (Professional Conduct, Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations 2002.
Signature ………………………………………………
Name ………………………………………………………
Place ………………………………………………………
Address………………………………………………
……………………… ………………………
……………………… ………………………
Date …………………
19
APPENDIX – 2
Signature of patient
or thumb impression
To be filled in by the applicant in the presence of the Government Medical Attendant, or Medical
Practitioner.
Identification marks:-
1.
2.
Note:- The nature and probable duration of the illness should also be specified . This certificate
must be accompanied by a brief resume of the case giving the nature of the illness, its symptoms,
causes and duration.
20
APPENDIX-3
Age :
Sex :
Address :
Occupation :
Prov. : Diagnosis :
Advice :
Follow up :
Date: Observations:
21
APPENDIX –4
b) Under the Acts relating to Lunacy and Mental Deficiency and under the Mental illness Act
and the rules made thereunder.
f) Under the Public Health Acts and the orders made thereunder.
g) Under the Workmen’s Compensation Act and Persons with Disability Act.
h) Under the Acts and orders relating to the notification of infectious diseases.
*************************************************
Foot Note: The Principal Regulations namely, “Indian Medical Council (Professional Conduct,
Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations, 2002” were published in Part – III, Section (4) of
the Gazette of India on the 6th April, 2002, and amended vide MCI notifications
dated 22/02/2003, 26/05/2004 & 14.12.2009.
22
THE INDIAN CONTRACT ACT, 1872
ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS
SECTIONS
PREAMBLE
PRELIMINARY
1. Short title.
Extent.
Commencement.
Saving.
2. Interpretation-clause.
CHAPTER I
OF THE COMMUNICATION, ACCEPTANCE AND
REVOCATION OF PROPOSALS
3. Communication, acceptance and revocation of proposals.
4. Communication when complete.
5. Revocation of proposals and acceptances.
6. Revocation how made.
7. Acceptance must be absolute.
8. Acceptance by performing conditions, or receiving consideration.
9. Promises, express and implied.
CHAPTER II
OF CONTRACTS, VOIDABLE CONTRACTS AND VOID
AGREEMENTS
10. What agreements are contracts.
11. Who are competent to contract.
12. What is a sound mind for the purposes of contracting.
13. “Consent” defined.
14. “Free consent” defined.
15. “Coercion” defined.
16. “Undue influence” defined.
17. “Fraud” defined.
18. “Misrepresentation” defined.
19. Voidability of agreements without free consent.
19A. Power to set aside contract induced by undue influence.
20. Agreement void where both parties are under mistake as to matter of fact.
21. Effect of mistakes as to law.
22. Contract caused by mistake of one party as to matter of fact.
1
SECTIONS
23. What considerations and objects are lawful, and what not.
Void agreements
24. Agreement void, if considerations and objects unlawful in part.
25. Agreement without consideration, void, unless it is in writing and registered, or is a promise to
compensate for something done, or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law.
26. Agreement in restraint of marriage, void.
27. Agreement in restraint of trade, void.
Saving of agreement not to carry on business of which good-will is sold.
28. Agreements in restraint of legal proceeding void.
Saving of contract to refer to arbitration dispute that may arise.
Saving of contract to refer questions that have already arisen.
Saving of a guarantee agreement of a bank or a financial institution.
29. Agreements void for uncertainty.
30. Agreements by way of wager, void.
Exception in favour of certain prizes for horse-racing.
Section 294A of the Indian Penal Code not affected.
CHAPTER III
OF CONTINGENT CONTRACTS
31. “Contingent contract” defined.
32. Enforcement of contracts contingent on an event happening.
33. Enforcement of contracts contingent on an event not happening.
34. When event on which contract is contingent to be deemed impossible, if it is the future conduct of
a living person.
35. When contracts become void which are contingent on happening of specified event within fixed
time.
When contracts may be enforced, which are contingent on specified event not happening within
fixed time.
36. Agreement contingent on impossible events void.
CHAPTER IV
OF THE PERFORMANCE OF CONTRACTS
2
SECTIONS
42. Devolution of joint liabilities.
43. Any one of joint promisors may be compelled to perform.
Each promisor may compel contribution.
Sharing of loss by default in contribution.
44. Effect of release of one joint promisor.
45. Devolution of joint rights.
Time and place for performance
46. Time for performance of promise, when no application is to be made and no time is specified.
47. Time and place for performance of promise, where time is specified and no application to be
made.
48. Application for performance on certain day to be at proper time and place.
49. Place for performance of promise, where no application to be made and no place fixed for
performance.
50. Performance in manner or at time prescribed or sanctioned by promisee.
Appropriation of payments
3
CHAPTER V
OF CERTAIN RELATIONS RESEMBLING THOSE CREATED BY CONTRACT
SECTIONS
68. Claim for necessaries supplied to person incapable of contracting, or on his account.
69. Reimbursement of person paying money due by another, in payment of which he is interested.
70. Obligation of person enjoying benefit of non-gratuitous act.
71. Responsibility of finder of goods.
72. Liability of person to whom money is paid, or thing delivered, by mistake or under coercion.
CHAPTER VI
OF THE CONSEQUENCES OF BREACH OF CONTRACT
73. Compensation for loss or damage caused by breach of contract.
Compensation for failure to discharge obligation resembling those created by contract.
74. Compensation for breach of contract where penalty stipulated for.
75. Party rightfully rescinding contract, entitled to compensation.
[CHAPTER VII SALE OF GOODS.][Repealed.].
76. [Repealed.].
77. [Repealed.].
78. [Repealed.].
79. [Repealed.].
80. [Repealed.].
81. [Repealed.].
82. [Repealed.].
83. [Repealed.].
84. [Repealed.].
85. [Repealed.].
86. [Repealed.].
87. [Repealed.].
88. [Repealed.].
89. [Repealed.].
[DELIVERY.][Repealed.].
90. Repealed.].
91. [Repealed.].
92. [Repealed.].
93. [Repealed.].
94. [Repealed.]
[SELLER’S LIEN.][Repealed.].
95. [Repealed.].
96. [Repealed.].
97. [Repealed.].
98. [Repealed.]
[STOPPAGE IN TRANSIT.][Repealed.].
99. [Repealed.].
100. [Repealed.].
101. [Repealed.].
4
SECTIONS
102.[Repealed.].
103.[Repealed.].
104.[Repealed.].
105.[Repealed.].
106.[Repealed.].
[RESALE.][Repealed.].
107. [Repealed.].
[TITLE.][Repealed.].
108.[Repealed.].
[WARRANTY.]Repealed.].
109. [Repealed.].
110. [Repealed.].
111. [Repealed.].
112. [Repealed.].
113. [Repealed.].
114. [Repealed.].
115. [Repealed.].
116. [Repealed.].
117. [Repealed.].
118. [Repealed.].
[MISCELLANEOUS.][Repealed.].
119.[Repealed.].
120.[Repealed.].
121.[Repealed.].
122.[Repealed.].
123.[Repealed.].
CHAPTERVIII
OF INDEMNITY AND GUARANTEE
124. “Contract of indemnity” defined.
5
SECTIONS
139. Discharge of surety of creditor’s act or omission impairing surety’s eventual remedy.
140. Rights of surety on payment or performance.
141. Surety’s right to benefit of creditor’s securities.
142. Guarantee obtained by misrepresentation invalid.
143. Guarantee obtained by concealment invalid.
144. Guarantee on contract that creditor shall not act on it until co-surety joins.
145. Implied promise to indemnify surety.
146. Co-sureties liable to contribute equally.
147. Liability of co-sureties bound in different sums.
CHAPTER IX
OF BAILMENT
Bailments of pledges
172. “Pledge”, “Pawnor” and “Pawnee” defined.
173. Pawnee’s right of retainer.
6
SECTIONS
174. Pawnee not to retain for debt or promise other than that for which goods pledged.
Presumption in case of subsequent advances.
175. Pawnee’s right as to extraordinary expenses incurred.
176. Pawnee’s right where pawnor makes default.
177. Defaulting pawnor’s right to redeem.
178. Pledge by mercantile agent.
178A. Pledge by person in possession under voidable contract.
179. Pledge where pawnor has only a limited interest.
CHAPTER X
AGENCY
Appointment and authority of agents
182. “Agent” and “principal” defined.
183. Who may employ agent.
184. Who may be an agent.
185. Consideration not necessary.
186. Agent’s authority may be expressed or implied.
187. Definitions of express and implied authority.
188. Extent of agent’s authority.
189. Agent’s authority in an emergency.
Sub-agents
190. When agent cannot delegate.
191. “Sub-agent” defined.
192. Representation of principal by sub-agent properly appointed.
Agent’s responsibility for sub-agent.
Sub-agent’s responsibility.
193. Agent’s responsibility for sub-agent appointed without authority.
194. Relation between principal and person duly appointed by agent to act in business of agency.
195. Agent’s duty in naming such person.
Ratification
196. Right of person as to acts done for him without his authority.
Effect of ratification.
197. Ratification may be expressed or implied.
198. Knowledge requisite for valid ratification.
199. Effect of ratifying unauthorized act forming part of a transaction.
200. Ratification of unauthorized act cannot injure third person.
7
Revocation of authority
SECTIONS
201. Termination of agency.
202. Termination of agency, where agent has an interest in subject-matter.
203. When principal may revoke agent’s authority.
204. Revocation where authority has been partly exercised.
205. Compensation for revocation by principal, or renunciation by agent.
206. Notice of revocation or renunciation.
207. Revocation and renunciation may be expressed or implied.
208. When termination of agent’s authority takes effect as to agent, and as to third persons.
209. Agent’s duty on termination of agency by principal’s death or insanity.
210. Termination of sub-agent’s authority.
8
SECTIONS
234. Consequence of inducing agent or principal to act on belief that principal or agent will be held
exclusively liable.
235. Liability of pretended agent.
236. Person falsely contracting as agent not entitled to performance.
237. Liability of principal inducing belief that agent’s unauthorized acts were authorized.
238. Effect, on agreement, of misrepresentation or fraud by agent.
CHAPTER XI
OF PARTNERSHIP
239. [Repealed.].
240. [Repealed.].
241. [Repealed.].
242. [Repealed.].
243. [Repealed.].
244. [Repealed.].
245. [Repealed.].
246. [Repealed.].
247. [Repealed.].
248. [Repealed.].
249. [Repealed.].
250. [Repealed.].
251. [Repealed.].
252. [Repealed.].
253. [Repealed.].
254. [Repealed.].
255. [Repealed.].
256. [Repealed.].
257. [Repealed.].
258. [Repealed.].
259. [Repealed.].
260. [Repealed.].
261. [Repealed.].
262. [Repealed.].
263. [Repealed.].
264. [Repealed.].
265. [Repealed.].
266. [Repealed.].
SCHEDULE—[Repealed.]
9
THE INDIAN CONTRACT ACT, 1872
ACT NO. 9 OF 18721
[25th April, 1872.]
Preamble—WHEREAS it is expedient to define and amend certain parts of the law relating to
contracts;
It is hereby enacted as follows:—
PRELIMINARY
1. Short title.—This Act may be called the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
Extent, Commencement.—It extends to the whole of India 2[ 3***]; and it shall come into force onthe
first day of September, 1872.
Saving—4*** Nothing herein contained shall affect the provisions of any Statute, Act or Regulation
not hereby expressly repealed, nor any usage or custom of trade, nor any incident of any contract, not
inconsistent with the provisions of this Act.
2. Interpretation-clause.—In this Act the following words and expressions are used in the following
senses, unless a contrary intention appears from the context:—
(a) When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything,
with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal;
1. For the Statement of Objects and Reasons for the Bill which was based on a a report of Her Majesty’s Commissioners
appointed to prepare a body of substantive law for India, dated 6th July, 1866, see Gazette of India, 1867 Extraordinary, p. 34; for
the Report of the Select Committee, see ibid., Extraordinary, dated 28th March, 1872; for discussions in Council, see ibid., 1867,
Supplement, p. 1064; ibid., 1871, p. 313, and ibid., 1872, p. 527. It has been amended in C.P. by C.P. Act 1 of 1915 and in C.P.
and Berar by C.P. and Berar Act 15 of 1938.
The Chapters and sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (4 of 1882), which relate to contracts are, in places in whic h
that Act is in force, to be taken as part of this Act—see Act 4 of 1882, s. 4.
This Act has been extended to Berar by the Berar Laws Act, 1941 (4 of 1941) to Dadra and Nagar Haveli by Reg. 6 of 1963,
s. 2 and Sch. I to Goa, Daman and Diu by Reg. 11 of 1963, s. 3 and Sch., (w.e.f. 1-10-1965) to Laccadive, Minicoy and
Amindivi Islands by
Reg. 8 of 1965, s. 3 and Sch., to Pondicherry by Act 26 of 1968, s. 3 and Sch. and has been declared to be in force in—
the Sonthal Parganas—see Sonthal Parganas Settlement Regulation, 1872 (3 of 1872), s. 3, as amended by the Sonthal
Parganas Justice and Laws Regulation, 1899 (3 of 1899), s. 3.
It has been declared, by notification under s. 3(a) of the Scheduled Districts Act, 1874 (14 of 1874), to be in force in—
The Tarai of the Province of Agra—see Gazette of India, 1876, Pt. I, p. 505;
the Districts of Hazari bagh, Lohardaga and Manbhum, and Pargana Dhalbhum and the Kolhan in the District of Singhbhum—
see Gazette of India, 1881, pt. I, p. 504.—The District of Lohardaga included at this time the present District of Palamau which
was separated in 1894. The District of Lohardaga is now called the Ranchi District—see Calcutta Gazette, 1899, pt. I, p. 44.
2. Subs. by Act 3 of 1951, s. 3 and Sch., for “except Part B States.”
3. The words “except the State of Jammu and Kashmir” omitted by Act 34 of 2019, s. 95 and the Fifth Schedule (w.e.f.
31-10- 2019).
4. The words “The enactments mentioned in the Schedule hereto are repealed to the extent specified in the third column thereof,
but” rep. by Act 10 of 1914, s. 3 and the Second Schedule.
10
(3) it is a promise, made in writing and signed by the person to be charged therewith, or by his
agent generally or specially authorized in that behalf, to pay wholly or in part a debt of which the creditor
might have enforced payment but for the law for the limitation of suits.
In any of these cases, such an agreement is a contract.
Explanation 1.—Nothing in this section shall affect the validity, as between the donor and donee, of
any gift actually made.
Explanation 2.—An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is freely given is not void merely
because the consideration is inadequate; but the inadequacy of the consideration may be taken into account
by the Court in determining the question whether the consent of the promisor was freely given.
Illustrations
(a) A promises, for no consideration, to give to B Rs. 1,000. This is a void agreement.
(b) A, for natural love and affection, promises to give his son, B, Rs. 1,000. A puts his promise to B into writing and registers it. This is a
contract.
(c) A finds B’s purse and gives it to him. B promises to give A Rs. 50. This is a contract.
(d) A supports B’s infant son. B promises to pay A’s expenses in so doing. This is a contract.
(e) A owes B Rs. 1,000, but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. A signs a written promise to pay B Rs. 500 on account of the debt.
This is a contract.
(f) A agrees to sell a horse worth Rs. 1,000 for Rs. 10. A’s consent to the agreement was freely given. The agreement is a contract
notwithstanding the inadequacy of the consideration.
(g) A agrees to sell a horse worth Rs. 1,000 for Rs. 10. A denies that his consent to the agreement was freely given.
The inadequacy of the consideration is a fact which the Court should take into account in considering whether or not A’s consent was freely
given.
26. Agreement in restraint of marriage, void.—Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any
person, other than a minor, is void.
27. Agreement in restraint of trade, void.—Every agreement by which any one is restrained from
exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is to that extent void.
Exception 1.—Saving of agreement not to carry on business of which good-will is sold.—One who
sells the good-will of a business may agree with the buyer to refrain from carrying on a similar business,
within specified local limits, so long as the buyer, or any person deriving title to the good-will from him,
carries on a like business therein, provided that such limits appear to the Court reasonable,regard being
had to the nature of the business.
1*
* * * *.
28.Agreements in restraint of legal proceedings, void.—2[Every agreement,—
(a) by which any party thereto is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under or inrespect
of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary tribunals, or which limits the time within
which he may thus enforce his rights; or
(b) which extinguishes the rights of any party thereto, or discharges any party thereto, from any
liability, under or in respect of any contract on the expiry of a specified period so as to restrict any
party from enforcing his rights,
is void to the extent.]
Exception 1.—Saving of contract to refer to arbitration dispute that may arise.—This section
shall not render illegal a contract, by which two or more persons agree that any dispute which may arise
between them in respect of any subject or class of subjects shall be referred to arbitration, and that only
the amount awarded in such arbitration shall be recoverable in respect of the dispute so referred.
3*****
Exception 2.—Saving of contract to refer questions that have already arisen.—Nor shall this section
render illegal any contract in writing, by which two or more persons agree to refer to arbitrationany question
between them which has already arisen, or affect any provision of any law in force for the time being as
to references to arbitration4.
18
[Exception 3.—Saving of a guarantee agreement of a bank or a financial institution.—This section
1
shall not render illegal a contract in writing by which any bank or financial institution stipulate a term in a
guarantee or any agreement making a provision for guarantee for extinguishment of the rights or discharge of
any party thereto from any liability under or in respect of such guarantee or agreement on the expiry of a
specified period which is not less than one year from the date of occurring or non-occurring ofa specified
event for extinguishment or discharge of such party from the said liability.
Explanation.—(i) In Exception 3, the expression “bank” means—
(a) a “banking company” as defined in clause (c) of section 5 of the Banking Regulation
Act, 1949(10 of 1949);
(b) “a corresponding new bank” as defined in clause (da) of section 5 of the Banking Regulation
Act, 1949(10 of 1949);
(c) “State Bank of India” constituted under section 3 of the State Bank of India Act, 1955
(23 of 1955);
(d) “a subsidiary bank” as defined in clause (k) of section 2 of the State Bank of India (Subsidiary
Banks) Act, 1959(38 of 1959);
(e) “a Regional Rural Bank” established under section 3 of the Regional Rural Banks
Act, 1976(21 of 1976);
(f) “a Co-operative Bank” as defined in clause (cci) of section 5 of the Banking Regulation
Act, 1949(10 of 1949);
(g) “a multi-State co-operative bank” as defined in clause (cciiia) of section 5 of the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949(10 of 1949); and
(ii) In Exception 3, the expression “a financial institution” means any public financial institution
within the meaning of section 4A of the Companies Act, 1956(1 of 1956).]
29. Agreements void for uncertainty.—Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable
of being made certain, are void.
Illustrations
(a) A agrees to sell to B “a hundred tons of oil”. There is nothing whatever to show what kind of oil was intended. The
agreement is void for uncertainty.
(b) A agrees to sell to B one hundred tons of oil of a specified description, known as an article of commerce. There is no
uncertainty here to make the agreement void.
(c) A, who is a dealer in cocoanut-oil only, agrees to sell to B “one hundred tons of oil”. The nature of A’s trade affords an
indication of the meaning of the words, and A has entered into a contract for the sale of one hundred tons of cocoanut-oil.
(d) A agrees to sell to B “all the grain in my granary at Ramnagar”. There is no uncertainty here to make the agreement void.
(e) A agrees to sell B “one thousand maunds of rice at a price to be fixed by C”. As the price is capable of being made
certain, there is no uncertainty here to make the agreement void.
(f) A agrees to sell to B “my white horse for rupees five hundred or rupees one thousand”. There is nothing to show which of
the two prices was to be given. The agreement is void.
30. Agreements by way of wager void.—Agreements by way of wager are void; and no suit shall be
brought for recovering anything alleged to be won on any wager, or entrusted to any person to abide the result
of any game or other uncertain event on which any wager is made.
19
NATIONAL MEDICAL COMMISSION
NEW DELHI, DATED
Chapter-1
Preliminary
(B) They shall come into force on the date of their publication in the Official
Gazette.
2. Definitions:
(A) In these regulations, unless the context otherwise requires, -
a) “Act” means the National Medical Commission Act, 2019 (No.30 of 2019);
b) "Commission" or NMC means the National Medical Commission constituted
under section 3
c) " Ethics and Medical Registration Board" or EMRB means the Board
constituted under section 16;
i) "State Medical Council" means a medical council constituted under any law
for the time being in force in any State or Union territory for regulating the
practice and registration of practitioners of medicine in that State or Union
territory.
j) "State Register" means a register maintained under any law for the time
being in force in any State or Union territory for registration of practitioners of
medicine.
(B) The words and expressions used herein and not defined but defined in the Act
shall have the same meanings as assigned to them in the Act.
Chapter 2
(A) Only those RMPs who are registered under NMC Act, 2019, can use
2
Medical Doctor (Med Dr.) as a prefix before their names. Every self-
employed RMP shall display the unique registration ID assigned to her/him
by EMRB in his/her prescription, certificate, and money receipts given to
patients. Employed RMP shall get a seal made by the employer for displaying
the unique registration number below the RMP’s signatures. (L1).
(B) The RMP shall display as suffix to his/her name only NMC recognized
and accredited medical degrees/diplomas as provided in the nomenclature
of the regulations and listed on the NMC website. (List of such Degrees and
Diplomas will be on the website and updated regularly)RMPs qualified
abroad and seeking registration to practice after clearing FMGE/NEXT must
use NMC-approved equivalent Medical prefixes and suffixes to provide
clarity to patients and the public at large. (L1).
(C) A RMP shall not claim to be a clinical specialist unless he/she has NMC
recognized training and qualification in that specific branch of modern
medicine (The list of recognized post-graduation and super-specialization
degrees/diplomas will be available on the NMC website) (L1, L2)
(D) Every RMP shall practice the system of medicine in which he/she has
trained and certified (for this purpose referred to as modern medicine* or
allopathic medicine) and shall not associate professionally with any
unqualified person to perform any treatment, procedure, or operation.(L2)
(E) A RMP shall not employ in connection with his/her professional practice
any healthcare professional who is neither registered nor trained under the
relevant Medical Acts in force related to the practice of modern medicine.
Provided that having employed any other assistants in the practice, the
ultimate responsibility rests on the self-employed RMP or the RMP
responsible for administration and recruitment in case of hospital
practice.(L2)
(F) A person qualified in more than one system of medicine should decide
which system he wants to practice. Once licensed to practice Modern
medicine under NMC Act, he shall not practice another system of medicine
3
simultaneously. Short courses in other systems of medicine do not qualify a
practitioner to practice and prescribe in that system of medicine.(L2)
8. Prescribing Generic Medicine: Every RMP is expected to prescribe drugs using generic
names written legibly and prescribe drugs rationally, avoiding unnecessary medications and
4
irrational fixed-dose combination tablets. (L1, L2) (Generic Drugs and Prescription
guidelines)
5
address (4) On temporary absence from duty (5) On resumption of
practice (6) On succeeding to another practice (7) Public declaration of
charges. (L2).
B. A RMP or any other person including corporate hospitals, running a
maternity home, nursing home, private hospital, rehabilitation center, or
any type of medical training institution, etc. may place announcements in
the lay press, but these should not contain anything more than the name
of the institution, type of patients admitted, kind of training and other
facilities offered and the fees. (Guidelines on social media conduct)(L1,
L2)
C. A RMP is allowed to do public education through media without soliciting
patients for himself or the institution (L2)
A. A RMP shall not run an open shop to sell medicine prescribed by RMPs other than himself
or for the sale of medical or surgical appliances. They are allowed to sell medication to
his/her own patients. (L2)
B. RMP can prescribe or supply drugs, remedies, or appliances as long as there is no
exploitation of the patients. Drugs prescribed by a RMP or bought from the pharmacy for
a patient should explicitly state the generic name of the drug. (L2)
C. A RMP shall not dispense or prescribe secret remedial agents of which he does not know
the composition or action in the body. The manufacture or promotion or use of these
remedies is prohibited. (L3)
13. Responsibility of RMP regarding the Medical Records:
A. Every self-employed RMP shall maintain medical records of patients (outpatients or
inpatients) for 3 years from the date of the last contact with the patient for treatment, in a
standard proforma laid down by the NMC. (Guideline) (L2)
B. If any request is made for medical records to a RMP responsible for patient records in a
hospital or healthcare institution either by the patients / authorized attendant or legal
authorities involved, the same may be duly acknowledged and documents shall besupplied
within 5 working days. (L2)
C. In case of medical emergencies, the medical records should be made available on the
same day. (L2)
D. Efforts shall be made to computerize patient’s medical records for quick retrieval and
6
security. Within 3 years from the date of publication of these regulations, the RMP shall
fully digitize records, abiding by the provisions of the IT Act, Data protection and privacy
laws, or any other applicable laws, rules, and regulations notified from time to time for
protecting the privacy of patient data. (L1, L2)
E. RMPs are in certain cases bound by law to give or may from time to time be called upon
to give certificates, notifications, reports, and other documents of similar character, signed
by them in their professional capacity for subsequent use in the courts or administrative or
other purposes. Such reports, certificates, or documents should not be untrue, misleading,
or improper. A self-employed RMP shall maintain a Register giving full details of such
certificates issued by him/her. (L3)
15. The RMP shall not aid or abet torture, nor shall he be a party to either infliction of
mental or physical trauma or concealment of torture inflicted by another person or
agency in clear violation of human rights. (L3)
17. The RMP should respect the boundaries of the doctor-patient relationship and not
exploit the patient for personal, social, and business reasons (L2) and in particular,
avoid sexual boundary violations. (L4)
18. RMP shall not refuse on religious grounds alone to assist in or conduct of sterility,
birth control, circumcision, and medical termination of Pregnancy when there is a
medical indication. (L3)
7
family member must be taken. The name of the operating surgeon must be mentioned in
the medical records. In an operation that may result in sterility, the consent of both
husband and wife is required. In case of an emergency, the doctor should try to
obtain consent, but if this is not possible, he must act in the best interest of the
patient. The medical records should describe the basis of decisions taken in an
emergency No act of in-vitro fertilization or artificial insemination shall be
undertaken without the informed written consent of the female patient and her
spouse as well as the donor. (Consent Guidelines) (L4)
(B). A RMP shall not publish photographs or case reports of patients without their
permission in any medical or another journal in a manner by which their identity
could be revealed. (L1)
(C). Clinical drug trials or other research involving patients or volunteers must
comply with ICMR guidelines and the New Drugs and Clinical Trials Rules, 2018.
Consent taken from the patient or participants for the trial of drug or therapy which
is not as per the guidelines shall also be construed as misconduct. (Research
Guidelines) (L2 - L4)
20. Conduct of RMP on Social/Electronic and Print Media shall follow the prescribed
guidelines (Social Media Guidelines) (L1)
21. RMP should take due care in practice and exercise reasonable skills as expected,
to preserve the life and health of the patient and follow the guidelines (Guidelines
on Reasonable Care and Skill) (L4)
CHAPTER 3
DUTIES OF RMPS TOWARDS THEIR PATIENT
8
(B) A RMP may also advise referral when necessary to another RMP who is
specialized in the treatment of the patient’s ailment. (L1)
(C) In case of emergency (life and limb saving procedure) an RMP shall provide
first aid and other services to the patient according to his expertise and the
available resources before referral. (L3)
24. Confidentiality: Every communication between RMP and patients shall be kept
confidential. Such communication, whether personal, or related to health and
treatment, shall not be revealed unless required by the laws of the state, or if non-
disclosure may itself be detrimental to the health of the patient or another human
being. (L2, L3)
25. Truth-telling: The RMP should neither exaggerate nor minimize the gravity of a
patient’s condition. He/ She shall ensure that the patient or legally appointed
representative has such knowledge of the patient’s condition that can assist in
making decisions that will best serve the interests of the patient. (L1)
26. Patient care: A RMP is free to choose whom he will serve, except in case of a life-
threatening emergency. Having accepted a case, the RMP should neither neglect
the patient nor withdraw from the case without giving adequate notice to the patient
and his family. If a change of RMP is needed (for example, the patient needs a
procedure done by another RMP), consent should be obtained from the patient
himself or the guardian. The RMP who attends to the patient will be fully
accountable for his actions and entitled to the appropriate fees. In case of abusive,
unruly, and violent patients or relatives, the RMP can document and report the
behavior and refuse to treat the patient. Such patients should be referred for further
treatment elsewhere. (L2-L4)
9
27. Referral: Only such Follow up consultation should be planned as required by the
patient. Likewise, laboratory investigations ordered for the patient should be
justified. An update/summary of the clinical condition and reasons for referral must
be documented and provided at the referral. Specialist referral must be sought to
benefit only the patient and duly justified in medical documents (L2)
28. Signatures: All signatures in the notes, prescriptions, certificates, orders, referral
summaries etc, should carry the RMP’s Name and NMC Registration number.
Electronic generation of orders/prescriptions may help automation of this
information. (L1, L2)
CHAPTER-4
RESPONSIBILITIES OF RMPS TO EACH OTHER
31. RMP as Locum: Whenever a RMP requests another RMP to attend to his patients
during his temporary absence from his practice, professional courtesy requires the
acceptance of such appointment only when the RMP can discharge the additional
10
responsibility along with his /her other duties. The RMP acting under such an
appointment should give the utmost consideration to the interests and reputation of
the absent RMP and all such patients should be restored to the care of the latter
upon his/her return. (L1, L2)
32. Reporting and Inspection: When it becomes the duty of a RMP occupying an
official position to inspect and report on an illness or injury, he should communicate
this to the RMP in attendance to give him the option of being present. The RMP
occupying an official position should avoid making any derogatory remarks
regarding the diagnosis or the treatment plan adopted. (L1, L2)
CHAPTER 5
(B). RMP should enlighten the public concerning quarantine regulations and
measures for the prevention of epidemics and communicable diseases. At all times
the RMP should notify the constituted public health authorities of every case of
notifiable disease under his care, following the laws, rules, and regulations of the
health authorities. RMP needs to involve in public education and awareness
activities without involving in the advertisement. When an epidemic occurs, a RMP
provided with all the necessary medical protection and his own health permitting
should not abandon his duty for fear of contracting the disease himself. (L1, L2)
34. RMP as a team leader, should recognize the importance of teamwork and respect
the practice of different paramedical services. (L1)
11
35. RMPs and their families must not receive any gifts, travel facilities, hospitality, cash
or monetary grants, consultancy fee or honorariums, or access to entertainment or
recreation from pharmaceutical companies, commercial healthcare establishments,
medical device companies, or corporate hospitals. However, this does not include
salaries and benefits that RMPs may receive as employees of these organizations.
Also, RMPs should not be involved in any third-party educational activity like CPD,
seminar, workshop, symposia, conference, etc., which involves direct or indirect
sponsorships from pharmaceutical companies or the allied health sector.RMP
should be aware of the conflict of interest situations that may arise. The nature of
these relationships should be in the public domain and should not be in
contravention of any law, rule, or regulation in force. An RMP himself or as part of
any society, organization, association, trust, etc. should be transparent regarding
the relationship with the pharmaceutical and allied health sector industry. (L3)
36. RMPs may be required to file an affidavit regarding their financial earnings and or
benefits received in the past 5 past years from any pharmaceutical companies or
allied health sector. (L3)
37. Power to Draft guidelines: EMRB will draft the guidelines/codes etc on Generic
Drugs and Prescription, CPD guidelines and accreditation of organizations,
Telemedicine Guidelines, Code of Ethics, Guidelines on Penalties for Misconduct
including the monetary penalty, Advertisement Guidelines, End of Life guidelines,
Consent in Medical Practice, Guidelines on Research by RMPs, Guidelines on
Social Media Conduct of RMPs, Guidelines on Reasonable care, skill and
Guidelines on Interaction with Pharmaceuticals, as and when required and
amended from time to time by EMRB.
CHAPTER 6
PROFESSIONAL MISCONDUCT
38. Professional Misconduct: Any violation of these regulations, or other applicable Acts
related to medical practice which are in force, shall constitute professional
misconduct. By issuing these regulations, the EMRB, NMC, and the State Medical
Councils are in no way precluded from considering and dealing with any other form
12
of professional misconduct by registered medical practitioners which do not fall
under any of the categories mentioned in the regulations or guidelines or codes
appended. RMPs bound by these regulations will not engage in any activities which
violate these regulations and should not enter into any employment or other contract
that engages in activities in violation of any of these regulations. Convictionof RMP
in cases of a cognizable offence involving moral turpitude may result in the
suspension of license to practice.
A. The aggrieved person will file the complaint to the State Medical council through the website
portal/offline, ordinarily within 2 years of the cause of action. (The complaint will belodged in
the SMC where RMP is located at the time of cause of action, both in teleconsultation or in
person consultation)
B. Where the aggrieved person is unable to make a complaint on account of physical or mental
incapacity, a complaint may be filed by —
C. The EMRB or state medical council can initiate a suo-moto case against any RMP
taking cognizance of gross misconduct. The suo-moto complaint will be taken upif
a simple majority of the EMRB or State medical council members agrees to proceed
against the RMP
(A) At the time of filing the complaint, the complainant shall submit to the EMRB or state
medical council five copies or for offline applications (till the whole process is made online)
of the complaint along with supporting documents and the names and addresses of the
witnesses.
13
(B) On receipt of the complaint, the council shall send one of the copies received to the
respondent within 15 working days. For online complaints, the State Medical
Council/EMRB/NMC will send an e-copy/physical copy of the complaint to the respondent.
(C) The respondent shall file his reply to the complaint along with his list of documents,
and names and addresses of witnesses, within a period not exceeding 15 working days
from the date of receipt of the documented complaint
(D). The state medical council or EMRB/NMC shall conduct an inquiry into the complaint
following the principles of natural justice.
(E) On receipt of the complaint, the State Medical Council shall refer the case for review
to the designated committee, with assistance from a panel of experts, if required,
specifically formed for this purpose in the stipulated time.
(F) If more than one hearing is required, The /State Medical Councilor EMRB/NMC shall
have the right to terminate the inquiry proceedings or to give an ex-parte decision on the
complaint if the complainant or respondent fails, without sufficient cause, to present herself
or himself for two consecutive hearings or three hearings in total convened by the /SMC
or EMRB/NMC. In such situations, the termination or ex-parte order may not be passed
without giving a notice fifteen days in advance to the party concerned.
(G) The parties shall not be allowed to bring in any lawyer to represent them in their case
at any stage of the proceedings before the state medical council or EMRB/NMC.
(I). No new documents or certificates or evidence or witness will be entertained from either
of the parties once the proceedings are initiated (meaning -after the parties have been
called for a hearing) unless its admission is cleared by the majority of the members. The
complaint cannot be withdrawn after it is admitted by the SMC or EMRB/NMC.
(J). The State Medical Council or EMRB/NMC may either of its motion or on an application
made by either of the parties have the power to change the subject matter experts, if
appointed, by providing a valid reason.
41. Disposal of the complaints: The State Medical Council or EMRB/NMCafter giving the parties
concerned an opportunity of being heard, may make any of the following recommendations:
14
1) dismiss the complaint
(Guidelines for alternative penalties can be given by EMRB as and when required)
5) may restrain the RMP from performing the clinical procedure(s) or examination as
deemed fit. Holding Suspension i.e. restraining RMP from practice until the case is
decided- only with full consensus
6) Suspend the RMP from practice for a temporary period as it may deem fit by
removing the name of the RMP temporarily from the National Medical Register
7) Award monetary penalty to aggrieved party as it deems fit as per Section 30 of the
NMC Act, 2017 can be given by EMRB only as and when required.
8) SMC can charge monetary penalty up to 10 times of the license fee in case it is
found during misconduct complaint case that the RMP has not taken license to
practice in that state.
9) May direct the RMP to undertake specific training courses related to the
misconduct/some certificate course/ethics sensitization etc.
42. Prohibition of review of the order: SMC or EMRB/NMC will not have the power to review
its order, and the order will be executed only after the expiry of the period of appeal.
15
43. Power of the SMC/EMRB. The SMC and EMRB/NMC shall have the same powers as are
vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 while trying a complaint against an
RMP in respect of the following matters, namely: —
1) the summoning and enforcing the attendance of any defendant or witness and
examining the witness on oath.
2) requiring the discovery and production of any document or other material object as
evidence.
4) the requisitioning of the report of the concerned analysis or test from the appropriate
laboratory or any other relevant source.
5) issuing of commissions for the examination of any witness, or document; and any
other matter which may be prescribed by the Central Government.
44. Delay in decision: Where the EMRB is informed that any complaint against a RMP has not
been decided by a State Medical Council within six months from the date of the complaint, and the
EMRB has reason to believe that there is no justified reason for not deciding the complaint within
the said prescribed period, then EMRB can direct the SMC to hear the case daily until the case is
closed. The reasons for not deciding the case within the stipulated time shall be mentioned in the
order of the SMC or withdraw the complaint pending with the concerned State Medical Council
immediately.
45. Appeal
1) A RMP who is aggrieved by the decision of the State Medical Council shall have
the right to file an appeal to the Ethics and Medical Registration Board (EMRB)
16
within 60 days from the date of receipt of the order passed by the said State Medical
Council: Provided that the Ethics and Medical Registration Board may if it is
satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from presenting the
appeal within the aforesaid period of 60 days, allow it to be presented within a
further period of 60 days.
2) A RMP who is aggrieved by the decision of the Ethics and Medical Registration
Board may prefer an appeal before the National Medical Commission within 60 days
from the date of passing of an order by the EMRB.
3) Order of SMC will become operational after the expiry of the period of appeal
(60days+60days). Once in appeal, the order of SMC will be deemed stayed unless
decided otherwise by EMRB/NMC.
17
Guidelines - 1
GENERIC MEDICINE AND PRESCRIPTION GUIDELINES
Preamble:
India’s out-of-pocket spending on medications accounts for a major proportion of public
spending on health care. Further, generic medicines are 30 to 80 % cheaper than branded
drugs. Hence, prescribing generic medicines may overtly bring down health care cost and
improve access to quality care.
Generic Name:
Non-Proprietary or approved name of a drug is also known as the generic name of the
drug.
Non-proprietary name is the name accepted by a competent scientific body/ regulatory authority.
Generic drug/medicine:
A generic drug is defined as a “drug product that is comparable to brand/reference
listed product in dosage in dosage form, strength, route of administration, quality and performance
characteristics, and intended use”
Guidance to RMPs:
1. Prescribe drugs with “generic”/“non-proprietary”/“pharmacological” names only
1.1. In the case of drugs with a narrow therapeutic index, biosimilars, and similar other
exceptional cases, this practice can be relaxed.
2.1. Both overprescribing and under prescribing are to be avoided keeping in mind
possible drug interactions
4. Advocate for hospitals and local pharmacies to stock generic drugs. Prescribe only
those generic medicines that are available in the market and accessible to the patient
6. Encourage patients to purchase drugs from Jan Aushadhi kendras and other generic
pharmacy outlets
18
7. Educate medical students, patients, and the public regarding the equivalence of generic
medicine with their branded counterparts
9. MBBS & PG students will be trained in the value of prescribing generic medicine
10. Written Prescriptions should be legible and preferably in full CAPITALS to avoid
misinterpretation. As far as possible prescriptions should be typed and printed to avoid
errors.
19
http://JUDIS.NIC.IN SUPREME COURT OF INDIA Page 1 of 11
PETITIONER:
ACHUTRAO HARIBHAU KHODWA
Vs.
RESPONDENT:
STATE OF MAHARASHTRA AND ORS.
BENCH:
KIRPAL B.N. (J)
BENCH:
KIRPAL B.N. (J)
BHARUCHA S.P. (J)
CITATION:
1996 SCC (2) 634 JT 1996 (2) 624
1996 SCALE (2)328
ACT:
HEADNOTE:
JUDGMENT:
J U D G M E N T
Kirpal, J.
VERSUS
WITH
JUDGMENT
HEMANT GUPTA, J.
2
2. The complaint was filed before the Commission by the legal heirs4 of
on the part of the Hospital and the Doctor in treating the patient.
4,08,800/- for the treatment of the patient during the period of his
herein.
3. The patient was taking treatment since 1990 for having difficulties
in walking due to the pain and discomfort in legs. For his complaint
3
patient on 15.04.1998 and Dr. Deshpande diagnosed the following:
6*3*5.1cm
Adv- Urgent Surgical repair of the aneurysum”
“A 42 years old male with aorta pain left lower limb and right
leg below knee. Gradual Claudication
BP – 100/80
Ischaemic changes both lower limbs. Seen with impending
Gangrene
Both legs left muscles are tested.
………………………………….”
6. The Doctor after examining the patient recorded that there were
4
Partha and Dr. Bindra, led by the appellant-Doctor. The operation
On the left side, the side of the graft was sutured the end of the
common iliac. The limb of the graft further brought down
through a tunnel to the femoral artery and the end of the
graft sutured to the side of the femoral artery.
that is the night after surgery, the nurse who was attending the
5
patient observed that the pulsation of the patient had become
feeble and body temperature was low and the lower limbs had gone
cold. The relatives were informed at about 7 a.m. that the patient
further alleged that the nurse had informed the Doctor at 4 am but
Doctor was directed to get second DSA test but DSA machine was out
made to wait for both DSA test as well as for angiography. One Dr.
B.K. Goyal examined the patient and reported that the patient had
(clot) at the graft due to which the blood supply to the lower limbs had
the same. A decision was taken to re- explore the earlier surgery done
at about 3:30 pm but since all the four operation theatres were
grafting at 5.30 p.m. As there was no pulsation in the graft and there
was clot in the graft extending into both limbs of the graft, a fresh
graft was sutured and the patientwas shifted to recovery room and
put on ventilator.
6
9. It was contended by the Hospital that the patient was in the care of
qualified doctors such as Dr. Nemish Shah, Dr. J. A. Pachore, Dr. A.L.
Kripalani, Dr. Partha, Dr. H.S. Bindra and many others throughout his
complications and treat the same. Various specialist doctors were treating
the best efforts of the qualified doctors, thepatient did not respond to the
7
not examined by any doctor. The the situation because lack of blood is certain
attending nurse observed at 4.30 to rupture and deaden themuscles. I say and
a.m. on 24.4.98 that lower limbs had submit that even while treating the said
become cold and did inform the deceased,utmost care was taken by the opp.
doctors. The doctors were called in party in post operative period. In this
writing at 8 a.m. but Dr. Somaya connection I say and submit that patient was
came at 9.30 a.m. This time gap was kept in Cardio Vascular Incentive Care Unit
enough to rupture the muscles. The CVICU which is considered to be finest in
process is irreversible. It cannot be India. The patient was continuously monitored
corrected. Timely medical care could by efficient and trained nursing staff and was
have saved the life of the also monitored for 24 hours by resident
complainant. doctor. With further reference to thesaid para
I deny that at about 4.30
a.m. on 24-4-1998 the attendingnurse observed
that lower limbs had become cold as alleged or
at all. I deny that, doctors were summoned and
that I came to the said unit, only at 9.30 a.m.
as alleged or at all.I deny that, because of the
so called delay on my part further
complications took place in the case of the said
deceased as alleged orat all. I say and submit
that immediately after I received message from
the resident doctor attached to the opp. party
no.1 attended the said patient at about
9.00 a.m. and not at 9.30 a.m. as sought to be
suggested by the complainant.
35. That in spite of the critical 17. With reference to paras 35 and
condition of the complainant on 36 of the complaint under reply, I deny that in
24.4.98, he was made to stand in spite of critical condition of the complainant
queue for DSA test for more than 3 on 24.4.1998 he was deliberately made to
hours. This delay further worsened stand in queue for DSA test for more than 3
the condition of the complaint it hours. I deny that the said delay was
appears that Bombay Hospital hadno deliberate and dueto the said delay the
medical ethics. condition of
8
36. The situation turned darker the said patient, further worsened
because after waiting for 3 hours the as alleged or at all. I say and submit
complainant was informed that the that to the best to my knowledge
machine was dis-functional. immediately I suggested DSA teston
24.4.1998, the staff of the opp.
party no.1 took the said deceased
for DSA test but unfortunately during
the relevant time the equipment
was not functioning properly and as
soon as the defects were located the
said test was conducted to enable
the opp parties to give further
treatment to the saiddeceased. I say
and submit that on perusal of the
case papers on record, it is crystal
clear that the best possible
treatment and due care was given to
the said deceased under
circumstances. I say andsubmit that
during the relevant time the
condition of the said deceased was
critical and therefore it was not
possible to shift the said patient to
any other hospital in nearby vicinity
for any test including DSA. It is also
significant, to note here that during
the relevant time DSA test
machinery was available only in
Jaslok Hospital, Hinduja Hospital and
Breach Candy Hospital. However, it
was not possible to shift the said
patient for the said test considering
the patient condition. In any event I
dispute the allegations made by the
complainant as the complainant’s
failed to substantiate the said
allegations by producing any
independent material on that behalf.
Besides this the said allegations are
not based or supported on the basis
of the independent expert’s opinion.
37. That on the same day at 12.30 18. With reference to para 37 of the
p.m. (8 hours after it was discovered complaint under reply, it is
9
that blood supply has stopped) substantially correct to state that on
angiography was performed. But the same day at about 12.30 p.m.
again the report was given at 3.30 angiography was performed.
p.m. a further delay of 3 hours which However, I deny that report was made
were crucial to the life of the available only at 3.30 p.m. as alleged
complainant. or at all. I deny that further delay of 3
hours which were crucial to the life
of the deceased,contributed towards
furthercomplications as alleged or at
all.
38. That on receipt of the report the 19. With reference to paras 38 and
surgeon decided to reopen the 39 of the complaint under reply, it is
abdomen to make correctness. Again substantially correct to state that
the operation could not be done the surgeon decided to reopen
immediately because thehospital did abdomen to make correctness after
not have a vacantoperation theatre. perusing the angiography report.
The hospital did not have emergency However, I deny that operation was
operation theatre. The hospital did postponed or delayed as theatre
not even try to operate the patient was not available. I say and submit
in an outside operation theatre. This that the said delay was not at all
caused another delay of 3 hours. deliberate. During the relevant time,
the operation theatres of opp. party
no.1 were occupied as other
39. The sequence of event shows that patients were under treatment.
for various causes wholly attributable 20. With further reference to the
to the Bombay Hospital that treatment said para the allegations made
was delayed by 12 hours while the therein are not only baseless butthe
muscles cannot survive lack of blood same are made with ulteriormotive
supply for more than two hours. and malafide intention. I say and
submit that to my personal
knowledge and the opp. party no.1
is one of the most well equipped
hospital in Asia. I say and submit that
there are 4 operation theatres
available for CU surgery only which
is a rear phenomenon in city of
Mumbai and therefore the
allegations made by the
complainants that the hospital did
not have emergency operation is
totally baseless.
10
impending gangrene in the DSAreport 41 of the complaint under reply, I
dated 22.4.98 by Dr. Somaya himself deny the allegation made therein as
but no heed was paid to it. false. I say and submit that on
perusal of the case papers
41. That Dr. Somaya being the Senior maintained by the opp. party no.1 it
most surgeon of the team was duty is abundantly clear that I was
bound to keep the patient in constantly monitoring the said
constant observation, but after the deceased therefore allegations that
patient was shifted to recovery I examined the said patient nearly
room, he came to examine the after 16 hours from the surgery is
patient after nearly 16 hours. Had he totally false, frivolous and vexatious
seen the patient one or two hours and the said allegations appears to
after he was shifted, he could have have been made with ulterior motive
observed that no blood was flowing and malafide intention tosome how
through the graft. The surgeons make out case of medicalnegligence
negligence caused the patient his against me with an intention to
life. knock out hand sum ransom from me
and opp. party no.1. I say and submit
that I treated the said patient with
best of myability and with due and
diligent care and therefore, I am
pained to hear such allegations from
thefamily members of the deceased,
that too, after 18 months from the
said treatment. It is significant to
note here that if the complainants
were really convinced about the so
called negligence on the part of the
opp. parties, surely the
complainants or other relatives of
the said deceased would have lodged
complaint with local police station
or insisted for post-mortem of the
said deceased and/or would have
approached the Court against the
hospital as well as against me. The
very fact that present complainthas
been filed on 10.7.1999 without
sending any proper notice thereby
railing upon the opp. parties to
explain the so called negligence also
supports my case that present
complaint is filed with ulterior
11
motive with an intention to knock out
hand sum ransom from the opp.
parties.
42. That leaving the patient fighting 22. With reference to para 42 of the
for his life in the care of complaint under reply, I deny that
inexperienced junior doctors viz. Dr. during the relevant time I went abroad
Partha and Bindra, Dr. Somaya went for vacation thereby leaving the
abroad for vacationing. He was not patient fighting for his life in the care
available even for advice for more of inexperienced junior doctors viz.
than 30 days. Dr. Partha and Dr. Bindra as alleged or
at all. I say and submit that
aforementioned allegations are not
only false but the said allegations are
made with an intention to cause
prejudice in the mind of the Hon’ble
Members of National Commission. In
this connection, I say and submit that
during the relevant time i.e.
between 9th May 1998 to 7.6.1998,
I had to China, England and USA to
attend medical conferences and both
the said conferences were fixed well
in advance. Similarly the allegations
of the complainants that Dr. Partha
and Dr. Bindra are inexperienced
junior doctors is also baseless for the
simple reasons that both the
aforementioned doctors are
postgraduate and experienced in
their respective field and both are
having adequate experience in the
aforementioned field. Besides this
the said deceased was being treated
by senior specialist at the opp. party
no.1 hospital and in case of any
emergency opp. party no.1 could have
arranged senior expertsand therefore
merely because I was away from India
that too in connection with my
professional activities, the
complainants should
not be permitted to make capital
12
out of it.
43. That Dr. Kripalani a neurologist 23. With reference to para 43 of the
when called to examine the patient complaint under reply, I say and
remarked that “both the legs are gone submit that Dr. Kripalani is a
and it is a gone case. Your doctor Nephrologists. I deny that Dr.
should tell each and everything”. But Kripalani remarked that both thelegs
Dr. Somaya continued to conceal the are gone and it is a gone case. Ideny
health prognosis from the complainant that Dr. Kripalani further observed
and his relatives and continued to that doctors deliberately suppressed
delayin taking vital decisions. Had he the said fact from youas alleged or
taken a decision to amputate the legs at all. I say and submit that though
at the right time he could have saved the said allegations are made by the
the life of the complainant. complainant in the name of Dr.
Kripalani, the complainants have
miserably failed to substantiate the
said allegation by filing affidavit of
Dr. Kripalani. I say and submit that
after perusing the aforementioned
allegations I have consulted Dr.
Kripalani and Dr. Kripalani has
confirmed that he had no such
occasion to make any such
observations to the relatives of the
said complainant. I am filing the
affidavit of Dr. Kripalani to
substantiate my contention.
44. It is clear to even a novice 24. With reference to paras 44 and
medical student that dead muscles 45 of the complaint under reply, I
invite septicemia and gangrene. So deny the allegations made therein
what was required was a timely as false save and except the factual
action to prevent further damage. position that the said deceased died
But Dr. Somaya refrained from on 12.6.1998 at 9.30 p.m. I say and
adopting the requisite procedure. submit that though it is unfortunate
The patient’s legs were amputated that the said deceased died
only when all the consultants opined prematurely at the age of 43, even
that it was the only procedure for then the complainants have no right
saving life. Yet his negligence in of whatsoever nature to make
taking timely action killed the only allegations against the opp. parties.
chance which the patient had. I say and submit that my sympathies
are with thecomplainant and other
45. That it is apparent from the family members and relatives of the
series of events that there has been said deceased. I say and submit that
lack of diligence and an established the said deceased died due to
case of negligence on the part of medical,
13
opposite party in providing services mishap and not due to any
to the complainants as a result of negligence either on my part or on
which the complainant died on the part of the staff of the opp.
12.6.1998 at 9.30 p.m.” party no.1.”
11. The affidavit of the complainant is on the same lines as the averments
(a) The Doctor had not examined the patient after surgery;
(b) The patient was made to stand in queue for DSA test despite
dysfunctional;
of inexperienced doctors;
(f) Doctor failed to amputate legs on time on account of
13. Learned Commission while analyzing the evidence observed that the
Doctor, though have filed their written versions, but have not
14
filed evidence by way of affidavits except an affidavit of Dr.
observation is itself erroneous. The Hospital and the Doctor had filed
their written version by way of affidavit dated 7.1.2000 i.e., the same
14. The Commission had commented adversely against the Doctor that
he had not seen or attended the patient for several days before his
departure for his tour to U.S.A and U.K for about a month and had
not even indicated the name of any super specialist in his field who
gangrene and that Dr. Partha and Dr. Bindra did not take timely
decision for amputation of legs and by the time Dr. Pachore was
consulted, it was too late. Moreover, it was also noted that Dr.
Pachore had scolded Dr. Partha for the delay in consulting him as
15
could be said about the survival of the patient.
of res ipsa loquitor. It was mentioned that though the Doctor was
16. Learned counsel for the appellants herein argued that the Hospital
16
had DSA machines at the relevant time. The Hospital in its affidavit
had inter alia mentioned that the DSA test is not a bed side test. The
test. But when the patient was taken for DSA test, the machine
and was thus conducted. The Hospital had specialized staff in all
but two factors have been taken against the Doctor for holding him
negligent; first, that he did not visit the patient soon after the
surgery till 9/9.30 a.m. on the next day to verify the bloodflow after
the surgery, and second, he did not visit the patient from29.4.1998
17. We do not find that the basis of finding the Doctor negligent in
17
providing medical care is sustainable as there are both legal and
18. Dr. K.G. Deshpande had referred the patient to the Doctor on
patient had taken another six days to consult Doctor at Mumbai and
19. Further, the non-working of the DSA machine and consequent delay
18
process to determine the blood flow was carried out by angiography
and the decision for re-exploration was taken at 12.30 p.m. No fault
when the patient was taken for surgery. Operation theatres cannot
fresh graft was sutured in place after establishing the flow. Thepatient
a note by Dr. Bindra indicated that the patient was seenby Dr. Shruti.
It was noted that there was no movement in both the legs but had pin
lower limbs. Further, legs were warm till the ankles and the feet were
cold. On 27.4.1998, Dr. H.S. Bindra had sought consultation from Dr.
Khadilkar giving case history that limbs were warm and that the
patient had pain in the lumber region and wasalso feeling tightness
in both the lower limbs. Dr. Khadilkar noted his impressions that it
advised MRI of the lower cervical spineand till then to continue with
the medicine pentosiflin and lomodex and for muscle ischemia – high
19
suggested the same treatment to continue on 28.4.98. On 29.4.1998,
Dr. Khadilkar had reported the sensory level dropped to upper 1/3rd
of the thigh and that there was no power in limbs. No changes were
however seen in the MRI report. It was also reported that probably
21. The patient was examined by Dr. Kripalani or his unit from 1.5.1998
and thereafter for many days till 23.5.1998. The dialysis was being
16.5.1998.
22. It was further noted on 18.05.1998 from Colour Flow Imaging of limb
arteries were patent. The flow in both posterior tibial arteries was of
low velocity and of venous type, suggesting refilled flow. Dr. Pachore
had wet gangrene below knee and was thus advised amputation. On
29.5.1998, the patient was operated for amputation below the knee at
20
gangrene and the Bilateral Guillatine Amputation was carried out.
Doctor was not possessed of requisite skill in carrying out the operation.
Doctor.
the latest development in his field which may require him to attend
conferences held both in and outside the country. Mere fact that the
21
specialists in multi-faculties. Two doctors from the unit of the Doctor
namely Dr. Bindra and Dr. Partha, both post graduates, were present
to attend to the patient. Moreover, as per the stand of the Hospital and
treatment given to the patient. The experts in the other fields have
been consulted from time to time and the treatment was modulated
25. The blood was flowing properly soon after the surgery but later the
22
legs on time, efforts were being made to save the limbs as amputation
is considered as the last resort. The amputation was done as per the
gangrene even before admission to the Hospital but even after surgery
and re-exploration, if the patient does not survive, the fault cannot be
much to expect from a doctor to remain on the bed side ofthe patient
throughout his stay in the hospital which was being expected by the
27. The sole basis of finding of negligence against the Hospital is of res
23
State of Karnataka7 explained the principle in a criminal trial as
under:
20. Thus, for the application of the maxim res ipsa loquitur
“no less important a requirement is that the res must not only
bespeak negligence, but pin it on the defendant”.
26. From the above conspectus, two lines of approach in re- gard
to the application and effect of the maxim res ipsa lo- quitur are
discernible. According to the first, where the maxim applies,
it operates as an exception to the general
7 (1980) 1 SCC 30
24
rule that the burden of proof of the alleged negligence is, in
the first instance, on the plaintiff. In this view, if the nature of
an accident is such that the mere happening of it is evidence
of negligence, such as, where a motor vehicle without appar-
ent cause leaves the highway, or overturns or in fair visibility
runs into an obstacle; or brushes the branches of an over-
hanging tree, resulting in injury, or where there is a duty on
the defendant to exercise care, and the circumstances in
which the injury complained of happened are such that with
the exercise of the requisite care no risk would in the ordinary
course ensue, the burden shifts or is in the first instance on
the defendant to disprove his liability. Such shifting or casting
of the burden on the defendant is on account of a presump-
tion of law and fact arising against the defendant from the
constituent circumstances of the accident itself, which be-
speak negligence of the defendant. This is the view taken in
several decisions of English courts. [For instance,see
Burke v. Manchester, Sheffield & Lincolnshire Rail Co.
[(1870) 22 LJ 442] ; Moore v.R. Fox & Sons [(1956) 1 QB
596 : (1956) 1 All ER 182] . Also see paras 70, 79 and 80
of Halsbury's Laws of England, Third Edn., Vol. 28, and the
rulings mentioned in the footnotes thereunder.]
25
so to speak, eloquent of the negligence of somebody who
brought about the state of things which is complained of.”
“86. Thus, it is used in cases of tort and where the facts with-
out anything more clearly and unerringly point to negligence. The
principle of res ipsa loquitur, as such, appears to be inap- posite,
when, what is in question, is whether driver was under the
influence of alcohol. It may be another matter that though the
principle as such is inapplicable, the manner in which the
accident occurred may along with other circum-stances point to
the driver being under the influence of alco- hol.”
the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur for the reason that a patient has not
family members to not accept the death in such cases. The in-
day and night without their comfort has been very well seen in this
26
“40. Simply because a patient has not favourably
responded to a treatment given by a doctor or a surgery
has failed, the doctor cannot be held straightaway liable
for medical negligence by applying the doctrine of res ipsa
loquitur. No sensible professional would intentionally
commit an act or omission which would result in harm or
injury to the patient since the professional reputation of
the professional would be at stake. A single failure may
cost him dear in his lapse.
as under:
10 (2005) 6 SCC 1
27
ing from the act or omission amounting to negligence at-
tributable to the person sued. The essential components of
negligence are three: “duty”, “breach” and “resulting dam-
age”.
28
(8) Res ipsa loquitur is only a rule of evidence and operates
in the domain of civil law, specially in cases of torts and
helps in determining the onus of proof in actions relating to
negligence. It cannot be pressed in service for determin- ing
per se the liability for negligence within the domain of criminal
law. Res ipsa loquitur has, if at all, a limited applica-tion in
trial on a charge of criminal negligence.”
Health and Medicare Private Limited and Anr .11, this Court held
due regard to the risks associated with medical treatment and the
held as under:
29
32. In C.P. Sreekumar (Dr.), MS (Ortho) v. S. Ramanujam12, thisCourt
held that the Commission ought not to presume that the alle- gations
in the complaint are inviolable truth even though they re- mained
performed the surgery but while performing surgery, the tumour was
30
72. The ratio of Bolam case [(1957) 1 WLR 582 : (1957) 2 All
ER 118] is that it is enough for the defendant to show that the
standard of care and the skill attained was that of the ordinary
competent medical practitioner exercising anordinary degree
of professional skill. The fact that the respondent charged
with negligence acted in accordance with the general and
approved practice is enough to clear him of the charge. Two
things are pertinent to be noted. Firstly, thestandard of care,
when assessing the practice as adopted, is judged in the light
of knowledge available at the time (of theincident), and not
at the date of trial. Secondly, when the charge of negligence
arises out of failure to use some particular equipment, the
charge would fail if the equipmentwas not generally available
at that point of time on which it issuggested as should have
been used.
Khurana v. Joginder Singh & Others14 held that hospital and the
31
at the conclusion that death is due to medical negligence. Everydeath
35. It may be mentioned here that the complainant had led no evidence
32
of experts to prove the alleged medical negligence except their own
affidavits. The experts could have proved if any of the doctors in the
in service. A perusal of the medical record produced does not show any
and guide the course of treatment of the patient. The doctors are
assure that the patient would overcome the surgical procedures. Dr.
the patient’s legs were not workingbut Dr. Kripalani denied all the
was res ipsa loquitor which would not be applicable herein keeping in
Doctor. There was never a stage when the patient was left
the Hospital and the Doctor who provided all possible treatment
within their means and capacity. The DSA test was conducted by the
33
is only a matter of chance that all the four operation theatres of the
nature had the last word and the patient breathed his last. The family
may not have coped with the loss oftheir loved one, but the Hospital
and the Doctor cannot be blamedas they provided the requisite care
at all given times. No doctor can assure life to his patient but can only
attempt to treat his patient to the best of his ability which was being
holding the Hospital and the Doctor guilty of medical negligence are
allowed. The order passed by the Commission is set aside and the
complaint is dismissed.
34
amount is ordered to be treated as ex gratia payment to the
Doctor.
.............................................J.
(HEMANT GUPTA)
.............................................J.
(V. RAMASUBRAMANIAN)
NEW DELHI;
NOVEMBER 30, 2021.
35
REPORTABLE
VERSUS
WITH
AND
JUDGMENT
SANJIV KHANNA, J.
about one’s private life and the rightto the esteem and respect of
22 (2001) QB 967
23 (2016) UKSC 26
of the said right. The right to privacy gets the benefit of both the
The present judgment does not seek to define what the standards for judicial
substantive standards which are borne in mind must be formulated and placed
formulated and are applied would foster a degree of transparency and promote
accountability in decision making at all levels within the judiciary and the
government. The norms may also spell out the criteria followed for assessing
the judges of the district judiciary for higher judicial office. There isa vital
regard to merit, integrity and judicial performance. Placing the criteria followed
in making judicial appointments in the public domain will fulfil the purpose and
mandate of Section 4 of the RTI Act, engender public confidence in the process
process.
.……......................................................J
[Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud]
New Delhi;
November 13, 2019.
113
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1997 2 CLT(NC) 540 ; 1997 2 CPC(NC) 247 ; 1998 2 CPJ(NC) 3 ; 1997 2 CPR(NC) 164
Act Referred :
CONSUMER PROTECTION ACT : S.12, S.17
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For the Respondents : Mr. M.N. Krishnamani, Sr. Adv. with Mr. T. Raja & Mr. Parveen
Kumar, Advocates.
ORDER
Mr. Justice V. Balakrishna Eradi, President — The complainants in O.P. No. 206 of 1992
on the file of the State Commission, Tamil Nadu are the appellants in this appeal. This
appeal is directed against the order dated February 15,1993 passed by the State
Commission whereby the complaint petition filed by the appellants was dismissed on
the ground that neither the first opposite party nor the second opposite party (two
medical doctors against whom the complainants had madeallegations of negligence
and deficiency in service and had sought recovery of compensation) was guilty of any
negligence or deficiency in service.
3. Mrs. Rajalakshmi was admitted in Nursing Home that is being run by opposite party
No.1-Dr Sundaram on August 1,1991 win in complaint of vomitting. It is the plea of
the complainants that the first opposite party negligently suspected cancer and hence
had a bone marrow sample of the patient taken and sent to the second opposite
party-Dr. S. Anuradha for pathological examination. According to the
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complainants the second opposite party acting negligently gave a report on 2.8.1991
stating that the sample showed a deposit of Hodgkin's Lymphoma in many areas. The
complainants have gone on the state that without referring the case tothe Cancer
Specialist or taking a second opinion, opposite party No.1 started administering
Endoxan injections to the patient and five doses of the said drugwere given to
her during the period of five days from 6.8.1991 to 10.8.1991. Thereafter Mrs.
Rajalakshmi is said to have been referred by the first opposite party to one Dr.
Navaneetha Krishnan an E.N.T. Specialist, who after examining her on 6.8.1991 opined
that no lymph gland was seen. Allegedly becoming unsure of diagnosis and treatment
the first opposite party is said to have sent a slide of the bone marrow sample to one
Dr. Subramaniam an Oncologist during his visit toTrichy. Dr. Subramaniam after
seeing the slides is said to have given his reportstating that the clinical picture
does not fit with Hodgkin's disease but the patienthad Myclopthylic anaemia in the
marrow. Mrs. Rajalakshmi was thereafter discharged from the Nursing Home of the
first opposite party on 14.8.1991. Subsequently, she again came to the first opposite
party on 26.8.1991 and though she was admitted as in-patient, she was discharged on
27.8.1991. The first opposite party had advised the patient to go to the Christian
Medical College Hospital, Vellore for further treatment of the Cancer ailment and
had given a letter of introduction to the concerned Head of Department of that
Institution. However, the patient did not follow the advice as given by Dr. Sundaram.
Instead, she is said have consulted one Dr. Bosco of City Hospital, Trichy on 5.9.1991
whose diagnosis was that she had renal failure. Subsequently, Mrs. Rajalakshmi
underwent surgical transplantation of her kidney on 29.9.1991 at the Kidney Medical
Centre, Trichy. In connection with her treatment at that Centre, her bone marrow
samples had been sent for being examined by Pathologists on three occasions in
September, 1991 and all the reports were to the effect that the samples did not show
any Hodgkin's deposit.
The complainants have put forward the case that the opposite party No.1 had wrongly
diagnosed the ailment of Mrs. Rajalakshmi as Hodgkin's Lymphoma which was a type
of cancer and had unnecessarily administered to her injections of Endoxan and it was
because of the toxicity of that drug that her kidney cells got destroyed resulting in
renal failure for which she had to undergo kidney transplantation, which led to her
death.
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4. The complainants have also put forward the case that the second opposite party-
Dr.S. Anuradha, Consulting Pathologist had acted with gross negligence in the matter
of examining the bone marrow samples sent to her for pathological examination and
had forwarded a report to Dr. Sundaram containing the wrong statement that the
samples showed a deposit of Hodgkin's Lymphoma in manyareas.
5. Both the opposite parties filed detailed written statements denying theallegations
of negligence, wrong diagnosis, etc. and also refuting strongly the complainants
allegations that the administration of Endoxan injection had led to renal failure.
6. The State Commission has discussed threadbare the entire evidence in the case
with a view to determine the main issue arising in the case as to whether the
charge of medical negligence levelled against the two opposite parties have been
substantiated by the complainants. It found after careful review of all the materials
on record pertaining to the pathological investigations, diagnosis and the treatment
given to Mrs. Rajalakshmi in the Nursing Home of Dr. Sundaram (opposite party
No.1) that instead of hastily acting on the basis of first pathology report received from
opposite party No.2, Dr. Sundaram met the pathologist namely the second opposite
party and discussed the case with her and in the light of those discussions some more
slides with bone marrow specimens of the patient were sent to her andit was only
after study of all those slides also revealed the same finding namely existence of
deposit of Hodgkin's Lymphoma in many areas that Dr. Sundaram proceeded to
administer to the patient injections of Endoxan of 500 mg. intravenous. We are in
complete agreement with the said finding entered by the State Commission as it is
fully supported by the evidence on record. Any prudent Consultant Physician of the
standing of Dr. Sundaram will not delay the commencement of the chemotherapy
treatment when repeated examinations ofthe bone marrow slides had yielded the
report that Hodgkin's deposits were present. It has clearly emerged from the expert
evidence available on record that Endoxan is the drug of choice in the treatment of
Hodgkin's Lymphoma. No negligence or deficiency in service can therefore, be
attributed to the first opposite party on the ground of his having given injections of
Endoxan to Mrs. Rajalakshmi during the 5 days from 6.8.1991 to 10.8.1991.
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8. We are also in total agreement with the finding of the State Commission that no
negligence of any kind has been established as against the second opposite party-
Dr.Anuradha who had conducted the pathological examination of the bone marrow
samples which were sent to her for pathological examination by Dr. Sundaram. It
has come out in the evidence that Dr. Anuradha (opposite party No. 2) is a highly
qualified Pathologist who holds a M.D. Degree in that speciality and she has also
undergone training in Cytology, Immunology and Cyto- genetics from reputed
institutions. She has published Articles in National and International journals and is
recepient of Gold and Silver Medal for her papers. A mere assertion by the
complainants that the findings incorporated in the reports forwarded by her to Dr.
Sundaram were wrong is totally insufficient to hold her guilty of negligence. It is
worthy of note that those very slides were still available in her possession and she was
willing to part with them for re- examination by any other Pathologist when the case
was pending before the State Commission. Inspite of it, the complainants did not take
any steps to get those slides re-examined by any other Pathologist. Inthese
circumstances, we have no hesitation to confirm the finding of the State
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Commission that the complainants have miserably failed in establishing their charge
for negligence as against the second opposite party also.
9. In the light of the foregoing discussion, we hold that there is absolutely no merit
in this appeal and is only to be dismissed. We accordingly dismiss this appeal but, in
the circumstances, we do not make any order as to costs.
Appeal dismissed.
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200 CASES DECIDED I N TH E 1955 S. C.
Feb. 4,1955. jury as follows: ' There must be such a departure from the
„ ~~ normal and usual practice of general practitioners as can reason-
Hanley. ably be described as gross negligence. I could use from cases
of high authority in the House of Lords, Scots cases, much
stronger adjectives than that, but all that I will say to you in conclusion
on the general topic is that there must be a serious departure from a
normal practice, if that normal practice has been proved, and the
serious departure must involve a sub• stantial and serious fault' ;
and requested his Lordship to direct the jury that there must be a
departure from normal and proper practice which involves fault [and
which is not justified by the circumstances of the case] which
direction his Lordship refused to give ; whereupon counsel for the
pursuer respectfully excepted.
(Sgd.) GORDON STOTT.
" I have no note and no recollection of being asked to direct the
jury in terms of the passage within square brackets.
(Sgd.) W. D. PATRICK."
The jury having returned a verdict for the defender, the pursuer
enrolled a motion for a new trial on the ground of mis• direction by
the presiding Judge.
The case was heard before the First Division, with Lord Patrick,
on 20th January 1955.
Argued for the pursuer (reclaimer);—The presiding Judge had
erred in directing the jury that the standard of care required from a
medical practitioner differed from the ordinary common law
standard. If a duty of care was owed, any breach of that duty
involving fault or negligence gave rise to liability, the standard by
which the existence of fault was determined being that of the
reasonable man. 1 Equally, if the pursuer's evidence sufficed to
establish facts from which such negligence was capable of being
inferred, it was for the jury to decide whether it should reasonably be
inferred and to determine what degree of care was requisite in the
circumstances. 2 There were no degrees of negligence, as the Lord
Ordinary had implied, 3 and there was no different liability in the case
of a professional man. The concept of gross negligence as a criterion
for the liability of professional men derived from the old cases dealing
with liability of law agents and referred to the contract between agent
and client. 4 In an action of reparation such as the present the basis
was negligence and the standard that of reasonable care in the
circumstances. 5 The only reported case in Scotland dealing with
the liability of a
1
Donoghue v. Stevenson, 1932 S. C. (H. L.) 31, [1932] A. C. 562.
2
Hendry v. Clan Line Steamers, 1949 S. C. 320 ; Caswell v. Powell
Duffryn Associated Collieries, [1940] A. C. 152, Lord Wright at p. 176 ;
Winfield on Tort, (6th ed.) p. 498.
3
Mackintosh v. Mackintosh, (1864) 2 Macph. 1357.
4
Hart v. Frame & Co., (1839) M'L. & Rob. 595 ; Purves v. Landell, (1845)
4 Bell's App. 46 ; Cooke v. Falconer's Representatives, (1850) 13 D. 157
; Hamilton v. Emslie, (1868) 7 Macph. 173 ; Blair v. Assets Co., (1896) 23
R. (H. L.) 36, [1896] A. C. 409.
5
Glegg on Reparation, (3rd ed.) pp. 508-509.
1955 S. C. COURT OF SESSION, &c. 203
medical practitioner had applied the ordinary standard of negli- Feb. 4, 1955.
gence, 1 and this was the standard applied in England. 2 Crassa ~~.—
negligentia or gross negligence related only to criminal liability Hantey.V*
and should not be applied as a standard in civil cases.3The
direction excepted to had been mistaken in law, and, but for that
direction, the jury might have arrived at a different result. For these
reasons the motion should be granted.
Argued for the defender (respondent) ;—The charge given to the
jury had correctly stated their responsibilities by saying that
they would have to be satisfied that the defender had so far
departed from normal and usual practice as to be guilty of
gross negligence. In using the phrase gross negligence in this context
the Lord Ordinary had followed the test applied in earlier cases *
and stated by the leading text-writer in Scotland. 5 I t did not mean
that a doctor or a professional man had a greater immunity from his civil
responsibility than a layman, but that, where there was a normal or
usual practice, he was not at fault unless he departed greatly from it. 6
No medical man could guarantee that a particular operation or
treatment would have a successful result, and the fact that something
went wrong was not indicative in any way of negligence.7 For this
reason the ordinary test of whether negligence was reasonably
inferred would have been inappropriate in the present case without
explanation of the special circumstances of medical practice. 8 In any
event the pursuer had perilled her case on the allegation of gross
negligence, since this was the basis of her first case on record against
the defender. The Lord Ordinary had correctly charged the jury
in the light of the pursuer's own case, and she was now barred from
presenting her present argument. The motion should be refused, and
the verdict allowed to stand.
At advising on 4th February 1955,—
Feb. 4, 1955. breaking of a hypodermic needle when the defender was giving the
Hunter v pursuer the twelfth of a series of injections of penicillin. One of the
Hanley. grounds of fault alleged against the defender was that the type of
Lord needle employed on the occasion in question was not strong enough,
President. and that " any doctor possessing a fair and average knowledge of his
profession would have known this." A question therefore arose at the
trial regarding what was the normal and usual practice in regard to the
type of needle required. I n the course of his charge to the jury Lord
Patrick directed them as follows on this matter : " There must be such
a departure from the normal and usual practice of general practitioners as
can reasonably be described as gross negligence. I could use from cases of
high authority in the House of Lords, Scots cases, much stronger
adjectives than that, but all that I will say to you in conclusion on the
general topic is that there must be a serious departure from a normal practice,
if that normal practice has been proved, and the serious departure must
involve a substantial and serious fault." Counsel for the pursuer excepted
to this direction, and requested the Judge to direct the jury that there
must be a departure from normal practice which involves fault. This
direction his Lordship refused to give. I am clearly of opinion that he was
right in so refusing, as the direction asked for is plainly too vague to assist
the jury at all.
The question still remains, however, as to whether the direction actually
given is sound in law. The reference to " gross negligence " in the
direction given no doubt springs partly from the fact that the words are
employed throughout her pleadings by the pursuer in regard to the
allegations she makes of deviation from the alleged practice, and, from
that point of view, her pleadings certainly leave much to be desired in the
way of fair notice of the case she now makes. For her real contention
before us was that " gross negligence " was not the test of liability. But,
although I have considerable sympathy with the technical argument on the
pleadings—to the effect that the contention now presented by the pursuer is
not open to her—I have come to the conclusion that it cannot absolve
us from determining the soundness or otherwise of the direction given.
For the averments of the pursuer are general enough to cover the case
developed before us in argument.
To succeed in an action based on negligence, whether against a doctor
or against anyone else, it is of course necessary to establish a breach
of that duty to take care which the law requires, and the degree of want
of care which constitutes negligence must vary with the circumstances—
^-Caswell v. Poivell Duffryn Associated Collieries,1 per Lord Wright at
pp. 175-176. But where the conduct of a doctor, or indeed of any
professional man, is concerned, the circumstances are not so precise
and clear cut as in the normal case. In the realm of diagnosis and
treatment there is ample scope for genuine difference of opinion and one
man clearly is not negligent merely because his
1
[1940] A. C. 152.
1955 S. C. COURT OF SESSION, &c. 205
conclusion differs from that of other professional men, nor because Feb. 4, 1955.
he has displayed less skill or knowledge than others would have shown. „ t~
The true test for establishing negligence in diagnosis or treatment onHanley.
the part of a doctor is whether he has been proved to be guilty of-r ,
such failure as no doctor of ordinary skill would be guilty of if acting President,
with ordinary care—Glegg, Reparation, (3rd ed.) p. 509. The standard
seems to be the same in England—Salmond, Torts, (11th ed.) p. 511.
It is a tribute to the high standard in general of the medical profession
in Scotland that there are practically no decisions on this question
in the reported cases. Farquhar v. Murray 1 sheds little light on the general
question, as it turned wholly on the facts. An analogy, however, is
afforded by a series of decisions, mostly pronounced many years ago, in
regard to allegations of professional negligence on the part of law agents
advising their clients—Hart v. Frame & Co2 ; Purves v. Landell 3 ;
Cooke v. Falconer's Representatives 4 ; Hamilton
v. Emslie 5 ; Blair v. Assets Co.8 In all these cases mere errors in interpreting
the law or lack of knowledge of the law are not treated as constituting
negligence. As the Lord Chancellor put it in Hart v. Frame,2 (at p. 614) : "
Professional men, possessed of a reasonable portion of information and
skill, according to the duties they under• take to perform, and exercising
what they so possess with reasonable care and diligence in the affairs of
their employers, certainly ought not to be liable for errors in judgment,
whether in matters of law or of discretion. Every case, therefore, must
depend on its own peculiar circumstances ; and when an injury has been
sustained, which could not have arisen except from the want of such
reasonable information and skill, or the absence of such reasonable skill and
diligence, the law holds the attorney liable."
In several of the opinions in these cases the words " gross negli• gence
" are used. The use of such a criterion as the test of liability has been
more than once criticised. Eor instance, Baron Rolfe in Wilson v. Brett7
says (at p. 115) : " I said I could see no difference between negligence and
gross negligence—that it was the same thing, with the addition of a
vituperative epithet." But the compendious description " gross
negligence," " culpa lata," " crassa negligentia " has frequently been
adopted, in deciding Scottish appeals in the House of Lords, as the test of
liability of trustees claiming protection under an immunity clause in the
trust deed, e.g., Lord Watson in Knox v. Mac- Icinnon,8 Lord Herschell,
Lord Watson and Lord Fitzgerald in Raes
v. Meek,9 Lord Herschell and Lord Watson in Carruthers v. Carruthers,10
Lord Halsbury, Lord Morris, Lord Shand, Lord Davey and Lord
Macnaghten in Wyman v. Paterson.11 I am not therefore prepared to
I 2
3 F. 859. M'L. and Rob. 595.
3 4
4 BeU's App. 46. 13 D. 157.
5 6
7 Macph. 173. 23 R. (H. L.) 36.
7 8
(1843) 11 M. & W. 113. (1888) 15 R. (H. L.) 83.
9 10
(1889) 16 R. (H. L.) 31. (1896) 23 R. (H. L.) 55.
II
(1900) 2 F. (H. L.) 37.
206 CASES DECIDED I N THE 1955 S. C.
Feb. 4, 1955. say that the concept of gross negligence forms no part of the law of
HunteTT. Scotland to-day.
Hartley. In relation, however, to professional negligence, I regard the phrase
Lord " g 1088 negligence " only as indicating so marked a departure from the
President. normal standard of conduct of a professional man as to infer a lack of
that ordinary care which a man of ordinary skill would display. So
interpreted, the words aptly describe what I consider the sound criterion
in the matter, although, strictly viewed, they might give the impression
that there are degrees of negligence.
It follows from what I have said that in regard to allegations of deviation
from ordinary professional practice—and this is the matter with which
the present note is concerned—such a deviation is not necessarily evidence
of negligence. Indeed it would be disastrous if this were so, for all
inducement to progress in medical science would then be destroyed. Even
a substantial deviation from normal practice may be warranted by the
particular circumstances. To establish liability by a doctor where deviation
from normal practice is alleged, three facts require to be established.
First of all it must be proved that there is a usual and normal practice ;
secondly it must be proved that the defender has not adopted that
practice ; and thirdly (and this is of crucial importance) it must be
established that the course the doctor adopted is one which no
professional man of ordinary skill would have taken if he had been acting
with ordinary care. There is clearly a heavy onus on a pursuer to establish
these three facts, and without all three his case will fail. If this is the test,
then it matters nothing how far or how little he deviates from the
ordinary practice. For the extent of deviation is not the test. The
deviation must be of a kind which satisfies the third of the requirements
just stated.
In these circumstances the direction given in the present case does not,
in my view, accurately set out the legal criterion for liability, and the
jury's verdict therefore cannot stand.
LORD RUSSELL.—I agree with the opinion of your Lordship in the chair.
I desire to add a few words in relation to the question whether the phrase
objected to in the direction under review, when consideredin its context,
could possibly have misled the jury in respect of the burden of proof
resting on the pursuer. In the direction of the presiding Judge, as set out in
the note of exceptions, reference is made to Scots cases of high authority
in the House of Lords in which in civil actions the words " gross negligence
" had been used by a number of their Lordships. Apart from the very old
decisions mentioned by your Lordship it is true that, in a series of cases
decided in the closing years of last century, the term " gross negligence
" was so applied in the House of Lords to acts or omissions of trustees,
who were held personally liable for loss of trust funds through neglect
of ordinary
1955 S. C. COURT OF SESSION, &c. 207
14 | P a g e
208 CASES DECIDED IN THE 1955 S. C.
Feb. 4, 1955. described simply as negligence. It may be noted that in the con•
temporary case of Hart v. Frame & Co.1 Lord Chancellor Cottenham (at
Hunter v.
Hanley. p. 615) does not use the expression " gross negligence " and makes liability
depend upon the presence or absence of " that reasonable degree of
Lord Sorn.
information, skill, care and diligence which is required to protect
professional men from the liability to indemnify their em• ployers
against the consequences of any error they may commit." In a series
of cases relating to solicitors, extending at least to Blair v. Assets Co.,2 we
find references by Judges of the Court of Session to the requirement of
gross negligence or gross ignorance. We are dealing here with the liability
of a doctor and, whatever may be the effect of these decisions upon the
case of a solicitor, I think we must consider the question before us in the
light of more recent authoritative decisions upon the subject of
negligence and liability, and I refer in particular to Stevenson v.
Donoghue3 ; Caswell v. Powell Duffryn Associated Collieries 4 ; and
Akerele v. The King,5 approving Rex v. Bateman.6I think that these
and other cases have resulted in a development which makes it doubtful
whether, in a question of civil liability such as we have here, there remains
any room for the conception of " gross negligence" as distinctfrom
"negligence." Liability follows negligence, and negligence consists in the
failure to fulfil a duty of care. Of course it must be seen to that the
proper test for negligence is applied. Whether it is lack of skill that is
alleged, or lack of diligence, or both, the defender must not be judged by
too high a standard and I endorse what your Lordship has said on this
matter.
CASE NO.:
Appeal (crl.) 144-145 of 2004
PETITIONER:
Jacob Mathew
RESPONDENT:
State of Punjab & Anr.
BENCH:
CJI R.C. LAHOTI,G.P. MATHUR & P.K.BALASUBRAMANYAN
JUDGMENT:
J U D G M E N T
Negligence as a tort
The jurisprudential concept of negligence defies any precise
definition. Eminent jurists and leading judgments have assigned
various meanings to negligence. The concept as has been acceptable
to Indian jurisprudential thought is well-stated in the Law of Torts,
Ratanlal & Dhirajlal (Twenty-fourth Edition 2002, edited by Justice G.P.
Singh). It is stated (at p.441-442) "Negligence is the breach of a
duty caused by the omission to do something which a reasonable man,
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guided by those considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of
human affairs would do, or doing something which a prudent and
reasonable man would not do. Actionable negligence consists in the
neglect of the use of ordinary care or skill towards a person to whom
the defendant owes the duty of observing ordinary care and skill, by
which neglect the plaintiff has suffered injury to his person or
property. \005\005\005\005\005\005\005 The definition involves three constituents of
negligence: (1) A legal duty to exercise due care on the part of the
party complained of towards the party complaining the former’s
conduct within the scope of the duty; (2) breach of the said duty; and
(3) consequential damage. Cause of action for negligence arises only
when damage occurs; for, damage is a necessary ingredient of this
tort."
If the claimant satisfies the court on the evidence that these three
ingredients are made out, the defendant should be held liable in
negligence. (Para 1.24)
Negligence by professionals
In the law of negligence, professionals such as lawyers, doctors,
architects and others are included in the category of persons
professing some special skill or skilled persons generally. Any task
which is required to be performed with a special skill would generally
be admitted or undertaken to be performed only if the person
possesses the requisite skill for performing that task. Any reasonable
man entering into a profession which requires a particular level of
learning to be called a professional of that branch, impliedly assures
the person dealing with him that the skill which he professes to
possess shall be exercised and exercised with reasonable degree of
care and caution. He does not assure his client of the result. A lawyer
does not tell his client that the client shall win the case in all
circumstances. A physician would not assure the patient of full
recovery in every case. A surgeon cannot and does not guarantee that
the result of surgery would invariably be beneficial, much less to the
extent of 100% for the person operated on. The only assurance which
such a professional can give or can be understood to have given by
implication is that he is possessed of the requisite skill in that branch
of profession which he is practising and while undertaking the
performance of the task entrusted to him he would be exercising his
skill with reasonable competence. This is all what the person
approaching the professional can expect. Judged by this standard, a
professional may be held liable for negligence on one of two findings:
either he was not possessed of the requisite skill which he professed to
have possessed, or, he did not exercise, with reasonable competence
in the given case, the skill which he did possess. The standard to be
applied for judging, whether the person charged has been negligent or
not, would be that of an ordinary competent person exercising
ordinary skill in that profession. It is not necessary for every
professional to possess the highest level of expertise in that branch
which he practices. In Michael Hyde and Associates v. J.D.
Williams & Co. Ltd., [2001] P.N.L.R. 233, CA, Sedley L.J. said that
where a profession embraces a range of views as to what is an
acceptable standard of conduct, the competence of the defendant is to
be judged by the lowest standard that would be regarded as
acceptable. (Charlesworth & Percy, ibid, Para 8.03)
The water of Bolam test has ever since flown and passed under
several bridges, having been cited and dealt with in several judicial
pronouncements, one after the other and has continued to be well
received by every shore it has touched as neat, clean and well-
condensed one. After a review of various authorities Bingham L.J. in
his speech in Eckersley v. Binnie, [1988] 18 Con.L.R. 1, 79
summarised the Bolam test in the following words:-
"From these general statements it follows that a
professional man should command the corpus of
knowledge which forms part of the professional
equipment of the ordinary member of his
profession. He should not lag behind other
ordinary assiduous and intelligent members of his
profession in knowledge of new advances,
discoveries and developments in his field. He
should have such an awareness as an ordinarily
competent practitioner would have of the
deficiencies in his knowledge and the limitations on
his skill. He should be alert to the hazards and
risks in any professional task he undertakes to the
extent that other ordinarily competent members of
the profession would be alert. He must bring to
any professional task he undertakes no less
expertise, skill and care than other ordinarily
competent members of his profession would bring,
but need bring no more. The standard is that of
the reasonable average. The law does not require
of a professional man that he be a paragon
combining the qualities of polymath and prophet."
(Charlesworth & Percy, ibid, Para 8.04)
Section 88
A, a surgeon, knowing that a particular operation
is likely to cause the death of Z, who suffers under
a painful complaint, but not intending to cause Z’s
death and intending in good faith, Z’s benefit,
performs that operation on Z, with Z’s consent. A
has committed no offence.
Section 92
Z is thrown from his horse, and is insensible. A, a
surgeon, finds that Z requires to be trepanned. A,
not intending Z’s death, but in good faith, for Z’s
benefit, performs the trepan before Z recovers his
power of judging for himself. A has committed no
offence.
Section 93
A, a surgeon, in good faith, communicates to a
patient his opinion that he cannot live. The patient
dies in consequence of the shock. A has committed
no offence, though he knew it to be likely that the
communication might cause the patient’s death.
(iii) Before the court faced with deciding the cases of professional
negligence there are two sets of interests which are at stake :
the interests of the plaintiff and the interests of the defendant.
A correct balance of these two sets of interests should ensure
that tort liability is restricted to those cases where there is a
real failure to behave as a reasonably competent practitioner
would have behaved. An inappropriate raising of the standard of
care threatens this balance. (ibid, p.246). A consequence of
encouraging litigation for loss is to persuade the public that all
loss encountered in a medical context is the result of the failure
of somebody in the system to provide the level of care to which
the patient is entitled. The effect of this on the doctor-patient
relationship is distorting and will not be to the benefit of the
patient in the long run. It is also unjustified to impose on those
engaged in medical treatment an undue degree of additional
stress and anxiety in the conduct of their profession. Equally, it
would be wrong to impose such stress and anxiety on any other
person performing a demanding function in society. (ibid,
p.247). While expectations from the professionals must be
realistic and the expected standards attainable, this implies
recognition of the nature of ordinary human error and human
limitations in the performance of complex tasks. (ibid, p. 247).
(iv) Conviction for any substantial criminal offence requires that the
accused person should have acted with a morally blameworthy
state of mind. Recklessness and deliberate wrongdoing, are
morally blameworthy, but any conduct falling short of that
should not be the subject of criminal liability. Common-law
systems have traditionally only made negligence the subject of
criminal sanction when the level of negligence has been high \026 a
standard traditionally described as gross negligence. In fact,
negligence at that level is likely to be indistinguishable from
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recklessness. (ibid, p.248).
Conclusions summed up
We sum up our conclusions as under:-
(6) The word ’gross’ has not been used in Section 304A of IPC, yet it
is settled that in criminal law negligence or recklessness, to be
so held, must be of such a high degree as to be ’gross’. The
expression ’rash or negligent act’ as occurring in Section 304A
of the IPC has to be read as qualified by the word ’grossly’.
(8) Res ipsa loquitur is only a rule of evidence and operates in the
domain of civil law specially in cases of torts and helps in
determining the onus of proof in actions relating to negligence. It
cannot be pressed in service for determining per se the liability
for negligence within the domain of criminal law. Res ipsa loquitur
has, if at all, a limited application in trial on a charge of criminal
negligence.
Case at hand
Reverting back to the facts of the case before us, we are
satisfied that all the averments made in the complaint, even if held to
be proved, do not make out a case of criminal rashness or negligence
on the part of the accused appellant. It is not the case of the
complainant that the accused-appellant was not a doctor qualified to
treat the patient whom he agreed to treat. It is a case of non-
availability of oxygen cylinder either because of the hospital having
failed to keep available a gas cylinder or because of the gas cylinder
being found empty. Then, probably the hospital may be liable in civil
law (or may not be \027 we express no opinion thereon) but the accused
appellant cannot be proceeded against under Section 304A IPC on the
parameters of Bolam’s test.
Result
21
S.F. No. 1726
Supreme Court of California,Department One
Kimmell v. Skelly
•
130 Cal. 555 (Cal. 1900) 62 P. 1067
Decided Nov 28, 1900
1
Kimmell v. Skelly 130 Cal. 555 (Cal. 1900)
2
Kimmell v. Skelly 130 Cal. 555 (Cal. 1900)
find a purchaser for her real estate, and, in entirely upon his contract with the owner of the
consideration of the services to be performed, she land." In Maze v. Gordon, 96 Cal. 61, the court
agreed to pay them two thousand two hundred and said: "It was not essential to make out plaintiff's
fifty dollars when they found a purchaser. She also case that he should have found a purchaser. By the
further agreed to pay them the same amount in terms of the employment commissions become
consideration of their services if she herself sold due `in the event of withdrawing the sale of said
the property. The consideration for her promise to property during the time.' The claim to
pay the money if the sale was made by her, was compensation under this provision of the contract
the performance of services by the brokers in is not, as respondent suggests, damages for a
seeking a purchaser. Their compensation for these breach of the contract in withdrawing the land
services was the amount of money made payable from sale. This Hamilton had a right to do, and in
560 by the instrument, and payable *560 when the land such event he became indebted to plaintiff for his
was sold by her, or some one other than the commissions." The same question arose in Rucker
brokers. This is a fair reading of its terms, and the v. Hall, 105 Cal. 426, and the court again
only reasonable construction which can be given 561 reiterated *561 the rule laid down in the two cases
it. It was proven by the evidence, and found as a cited. The question here presented is purely one of
fact by the court, that services by the brokers were construction of this particular contract, and it is
performed, and hence a consideration for her immaterial what may be the judicial construction
promise was established. given the ordinary broker's contract. The brokers
here did not agree to find a purchaser, but being
The authorities in this state hold contracts similar
employed to find one, they were agents of
to the one at bar legally enforceable. In Crane v.
defendant to that end, and were legally bound to
McCormick, 92 Cal. 176, the contract provided:
use their time and labor for the benefit of their
"And in consideration of your expenses and efforts
principal; and it is the use of this time and labor
in attracting settlers to the county, it is agreed that
which forms the consideration to support her
in event of the withdrawal of said property from
promise to pay them the compensation mentioned
sale, or in event of sale through any means during
in the agreement.
the continuance of this power, the same
commission will thus be paid as though sale had If this contract had provided in terms that, "in
been made by you." This provision was held valid, consideration of the brokers' efforts to secure a
the court saying: "Plaintiff's right of action isbased purchaser, whether or not those efforts were
solely upon the provision of the contract that if the successful, defendant would pay the amount
defendants withdrew the property from sale, or agreed upon as commissions in case she herself
effected a sale in any manner during the year, the sold the property during the life of the contract," I
same commissions would be paid as if the sale had see no possible legal objection to the validity of
been made by De Jarnett Crane. . . . . that kind of a provision and in substance that is
Defendants agreed for a valuable consideration to this contract.
pay the commissions if a sale should be effected in
There is some claim made that fraud was practiced
any way during the year; their agents, acting upon
upon defendant in securing her signature to the
the agreement, at their own expense, caused a
instrument. But we find nothing in the evidence
large number of pamphlets and circulars to be
tending to show either fraud or mistake. It may be
printed and sent to various parts of the world,
conceded that she signed the document without
advertising and offering for sale certain tracts of
reading it in its entirety, or it may be conceded
land, including the land described in the contract.
even that the brokers made misstatements to her
A real estate agent's right of recovery depends
regarding its contents; yet these things are not
3
Kimmell v. Skelly 130 Cal. 555 (Cal. 1900)
4
Civ. No. 4503
Court of Appeal of California, First District, Division One
1
Knox v. Modern Garage and Repair Shop 68 Cal.App. 583 (Cal. Ct. App. 1924)
assignment by said company of all its rights under under the impression that the duration of the same
the contract to plaintiff, and a prayer for the was limited to ten days. There is also evidence on
amount of the commission. the part of the owner who signed the contract that
he did not read it and knew nothing of its provision
Defendants, answering, admit entering into a
relating to the manner provided therein for the
contract for the sale of said business, but allege
termination thereof. On this subject, however,
that the same was limited to a period of ten days,
there is a sharp conflict in the testimony. There is
and that plaintiff's assignor failed within said time
also evidence to show that plaintiff's assignor did
to produce a purchaser able, ready, and willing to
make efforts with defendants' knowledge to sell
purchase, and that such contract was thereafter
the business after the ten-day period. As already
terminated and canceled by consent, and that
pointed out, there is no evidence to show that there
586 plaintiff's *586 assignor thereafter made no further
was ever any mutual agreement to terminate the
attempt to carry out the contract, whereupon
contract. Defendants themselves testified that
defendants sold the business themselves.
plaintiff's assignor never
The trial court found that defendants orally 587 said anything indicating any such intention. *587
canceled and rescinded the contract, and that
Respondents' contention in support of the
plaintiff's assignor abandoned said contract within
judgment that a contract may be mutually
two or three days after March 13, 1922 (being ten
abandoned by the parties at any stage of its
days after the making of the contract), and made
performance, and each of the parties released from
no further attempt to sell said business, but agreed
any further obligation on account thereof, and that
to said cancellation. Judgment was accordingly
this result may be accomplished by parol, is not
rendered in favor of the defendants. A motion for
therefore available to them, it being without
a new trial was made and denied, and plaintiff
foundation in the record. No such question can
appeals.
here arise. There never was any consent to the
It is appellant's contention that there is no termination of the agreement so far as the record
evidence in the record to sustain the finding that shows.
the contract was rescinded by the consent of the
This is an action upon the contract. [2] In such an
parties, and that respondents, having failed to
action a party cannot be heard to say that he had
revoke the contract by writing in the manner
not read the same and did not know the contents
provided for therein, the same was still in force
thereof. [3] Where a party to a written contract
and effect when the sale was made by
wishes to avoid liability thereon on the ground that
respondents, and hence plaintiff as assignee is
he did not know its contents, the question, in the
entitled to receive the commission therein agreed
absence of misrepresentation, fraud, undue
to be paid.
influence, and the like, turns on whether he was
The appeal is taken by the alternative method. [1] guilty of negligence in signing without such
Respondents have not referred us to any testimony knowledge. When he is negligent in not informing
in the record to sustain the finding that the parties himself of the contents, and signs or accepts the
by oral agreement rescinded the contract. agreement with full opportunity of knowing the
However, we have read the record carefully and true facts, he cannot avoid liability on the ground
we find no evidence to support such a finding. On that he was mistaken concerning such terms in the
the contrary, the evidence shows conclusively that absence of fraud or misrepresentation.
plaintiff's assignor did nothing of the sort. There is
evidence to show that the owners of the garage did
not have a copy of the contract, and that they were
2
Knox v. Modern Garage and Repair Shop 68 Cal.App. 583 (Cal. Ct. App. 1924)
[4] The action being upon the contract, so far as 130 Cal. 555 [ 62 P. 1067].) Defendants made
the merits are concerned, it is not material that their contract and are bound by the terms thereof,
plaintiff's assignor failed to make a sale. The which they should have known; and there is no
contract by its provisions was to remain in full evidence in the record to show there was any fraud
force and effect for the period of ten days and or mistake in entering into the same.
thereafter until revoked by a ten days' notice in
Judgment reversed.
writing. No notice of termination was ever given.
The contract, therefore, was in full force and effect 588 Knight, J., and St. Sure, J., concurred. *588
at the time the sale was made. ( Kimmel v. Skelly,
3
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
-versus-
JUDGMENT
MARKANDEY KATJU, J.
Normal Range
10. On 30.5.1991, the respondent was investigated for typhoid fever, which
was negative. He was also investigated for ESR, which was expectedly high in view
of renal failure and anemia infection. Urine analysis was also carried out which
showed the presence of bacteria.
11. On 3.6.1991, the reports of the urine culture and sensitivity were
received. The report showed severe urinary tract infection due to Klebsiella species
(1 lac/ml.). The report also showed that the infection could be treated by Amikacin
and Methenamine Mandelate and that the infection was resistant to other
antibiotics. Methnamine Mandelate cannot be used in patients suffering from renal
failure.
12. On 4.6.1991, the blood culture report of the respondent was received,
which showed a serious infection of the blood stream (staphylococcus species).
13. On 5.6.1991, Amikacin injection was administered to the respondent for
three days (from 5 th to 7th June, 1991), since the urinary infection of the respondent was
sensitive to Amikacin. Cap. Augmentin (375 mg.) was administered three timesa day
for the blood infection and the respondent was transfused one unit of blood during
dialysis. Consequent upon the treatment, the temperature of the respondentrapidly
subsided.
14. From 5.6.1991 to 8.6.1991, the respondent insisted on immediate kidney
transplant even though the respondent had advised him that in view of his blood
and urine infection no transplant could take place for six weeks.
15. On 8.6.1991, the respondent, despite the appellant’s advice, got himself
discharged from Nanavati Hospital. Since the respondent was suffering from blood
and urinary infection and had refused to come for haemodialysis on alternate days,
the appellant suggested Injection Amikacin (500 mg.) twice a day. Certain other
drugs were also specified to be taken under the supervision of the appellant when
he visited the Dialysis Unit.
16. On 11.6.1991, the respondent attended the Haemodialysis Unit and
complained to the appellant that he had slight tinnitus (ringing in the ear). The
appellant has alleged that he immediately told the respondent to stop taking the
Amikacin and Augmentin and scored out the treatment on the discharge card.
However, despite express instructions from the appellant, the respondent continued
to take Amikacin till 17.6.1991. Thereafter, the appellant was not under the
treatment of the appellant.
17. On 14.6.1991, 18.6.1991 and 20.6.1991 the respondent received
haemodialysis at Nanavati Hospital and allegedly did not complain of deafness
during this period.
18. On 25.6.1991, the respondent, on his own accord, was admitted toPrince
Aly Khan Hospital, where he was also treated with antibiotics. The complainant
allegedly did not complain of deafness during this period and conversed with
doctors normally, as is evident from their evidence.
19. On 30.7.1991, the respondent was operated upon for transplant after he
had ceased to be under the treatment of the appellant. On 13.8.1991, the respondent
was discharged from Prince Aly Khan Hospital after his transplant. The respondent
returned to Delhi on 14.8.1991, after discharge.
20. On 7.7.1992, the respondent filed a complaint before the National
Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, New Delhi (being Original Petition
No.178 of 1992) claiming compensation of an amount of Rs.12,00,000/- as his
hearing had been affected. The appellant filed his reply stating, inter alia, that there
was no material brought on record by the respondent to show any co- relationship
between the drugs prescribed and the state of his health. Rejoinder was filed by the
respondent.
21. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (hereinafter
referred to as `the Commission’) passed an order on 6.10.1993 directing the
nomination of an expert from the All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi
(AIIMS) to examine the complaint and give an opinion. This was done in order to
get an unbiased and neutral opinion.
22. AIIMS nominated Dr. P. Ghosh, and the report of Dr. P. Ghosh of the
All India Institute of Medical Sciences was submitted before the Commission, after
examining the respondent. Dr. Ghosh was of the opinion that the drug Amikacin
was administered by the appellant as a life saving measure and was rightly used. It
is submitted by the appellant that the said report further makes it clear that there
has been no negligence on the part of the appellant.
23. Evidence was thereupon led before the Commission. Two affidavits by
way of evidence were filed on behalf of the respondent, being that of his wife and
himself. The witnesses for the respondent were :-
24. On behalf of the appellant, six affidavits by way of evidence were filed.
These were of the appellant himself, Dr. Danbar (a doctor attached to the
Haemodialysis Department of Nanavati Hospital), Dr. Abhijit Joshi (a Resident
Senior Houseman of Nanavati Hospital), Mrs. Mukta Kalekar (a Senior sister at
Nanavati Hospital), Dr. Sonawala (the Urologist who referred the respondent to the
appellant) and Dr. Ashique Ali Rawal (a Urologist attached to Prince Aly Khan
Hospital). The witnesses for the appellant were:-
Bolam’s test has been approved by the Supreme Court in Jacob Mathew’s case.
39. In Halsbury’s Laws of England the degree of skill and care required by a
medical practitioner is stated as follows :
(emphasis supplied)
40. Eckersley vs. Binnie (1988) 18 Con LR 1 summarized the Bolam test in
the following words :
“In the realm of diagnosis and treatment there is ample scope for
genuine difference of opinion and one man clearly is not negligent
merely because his conclusion differs from that of other
professional men…. The true test for establishing negligence in
diagnosis or treatment on the part of a doctor is whether he has
been proved to be guilty of such failure as no doctor of ordinary
skill would be guilty of if acting with ordinary care….”
(emphasis supplied)
44. The standard of care has to be judged in the light of knowledge available
at the time of the incident and not at the date of the trial. Also, where the charge of
negligence is of failure to use some particular equipment, the charge would fail if the
equipment was not generally available at that point of time.
45. The higher the acuteness in an emergency and the higher the
complication, the more are the chances of error of judgment. At times, the
professional is confronted with making a choice between the devil and the deep sea
and has to choose the lesser evil. The doctor is often called upon to adopt a procedure
which involves higher element of risk, but which he honestly believes as providing
greater chances of success for the patient rather than a procedure involving lesser
risk but higher chances of failure. Which course is more appropriate to follow,
would depend on the facts and circumstances of a given case but a doctor cannot be
penalized if he adopts the former procedure, even if it results in a failure. The usual
practice prevalent nowadays is to obtain the consent of the patient or of the person
in-charge of the patient if the patient is not in a position to give consent before
adopting a given procedure.
46. There may be a few cases where an exceptionally brilliant doctor
performs an operation or prescribes a treatment which has never been tried before
to save the life of a patient when no known method of treatment is available. If the
patient dies or suffers some serious harm, should the doctor be held liable? In our
opinion he should not. Science advances by experimentation, but experiments
sometime end in failure e.g. the operation on the Iranian twin sisters who were joined
at the head since birth, or the first heart transplant by Dr. Barnard in South Africa.
However, in such cases it is advisable for the doctor to explain the situation to the
patient and take his written consent.
47. Simply because a patient has not favourably responded to a treatment
given by a doctor or a surgery has failed, the doctor cannot be held straightway
liable for medical negligence by applying the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur. No sensible
professional would intentionally commit an act or omission which would result in
harm or injury to the patient since the professional reputation of the professional
would be at stake. A single failure may cost him dear in his lapse.
48. As observed by the Supreme Court in Jacob Mathew’s case :
49. When a patient dies or suffers some mishap, there is a tendency to blame
the doctor for this. Things have gone wrong and, therefore, somebody must be
punished for it. However, it is well known that even the best professionals, what to
say of the average professional, sometimes have failures. A lawyer cannot win every
case in his professional career but surely he cannot be penalized for losing a case
provided he appeared in it and made his submissions.
50. To fasten liability in criminal proceedings e.g. under Section 304A IPC
the degree of negligence has to be higher than the negligence which is enough to
fasten liability in civil proceedings. Thus for civil liability it may be enough for the
complainant to prove that the doctor did not exercise reasonable care in accordance
with the principles mentioned above, but for convicting a doctor in a criminal case,
it must also be proved that this negligence was gross amounting to recklessness.
51. The difference between simple negligence and gross negligence has
broadly been explained in paragraphs 12 to 16 of Jacob Mathew’s case, though
difficulties may arise in the application of the principle in particular cases. For
instance, if a mop is left behind in the stomach of a patient while doing an operation,
would it be simple negligence or gross negligence? If a scissors or sharp edged
medical instrument is left in the patient’s body while doing the operation would that
make a difference from merely leaving a mop?
52. The professional is one who professes to have some special skill. A
professional impliedly assures the person dealing with him (i) that he has the skill
which he professes to possess, (ii) that skill shall be exercised with reasonable care
and caution.
53. Judged by this standard, the professional may be held liable for
negligence on the ground that he was not possessed of the requisite skill which he
professes to have. Thus a doctor who has a qualification in Ayurvedic or
Homeopathic medicine will be liable if he prescribes Allopathic treatment which
causes some harm vide Poonam Verma vs. Ashwin Patel & Ors. (1996) 4 SCC 332.
In Dr. Shiv Kumar Gautam vs. Alima, Revision Petition No.586 of 1999 decided on
10.10.2006, the National Consumer Commission held a homeopath liable for
negligence for prescribing allopathic medicines and administering glucose drip and
giving injections.
Protection to Doctors in Criminal Cases
54. In para 52 of Jacob Mathew’s case the Supreme Court realizing that
doctors have to be protected from frivolous complaints of medical negligence, has
laid down certain rules in this connection :
55. In Pt. Parmanand Katara vs. Union of India & Others AIR 1989 SC 2039,
the petitioner referred to a report published in the newspaper “The Hindustan
Times” in which it was mentioned that a scooterist was knocked down bya speeding
car. Seeing the profusely bleeding scooterist, a person who was on the road, picked
up the injured and took him to the nearest hospital. The doctors refused to attend
and told the man that he should take the patient to another
hospital located 20 kilometers away authorized to handle medico-legal cases. The
injured was then taken to that hospital but by the time he could reach, the victim
succumbed to his injuries.
56. The Supreme Court referred to the Code of Medical Ethics drawn up
with the approval of the Central Government under Section 33 of the Indian Council
Medical Act and observed “Every doctor whether at a Government Hospital or
otherwise has the professional obligation to extend his services for protecting life.
The obligation being total, absolute and paramount, laws of procedure whether in
statutes or otherwise cannot be sustained and, therefore, must give way.”
57. The Supreme Court held that it is the duty of the doctor in an emergency
to begin treatment of the patient and he should not await the arrival of the police or
to complete the legal formalities. The life of a person is far more important than
legal formalities. This view is in accordance with the Hippocratic oath of doctors.
58. Although this decision has laid down that it is the duty of a doctor to
attend to a patient who is brought to him in an emergency, it does not state what
penalty will be imposed on a doctor who refuses to attend the said patient.
Consequently it will depend on the fact and circumstances of the case. However, this
case is important because nowadays health care has often become a business, asis
mentioned in George Bernard Shaw’s play “The Doctor’s Dilemma”. The medical
profession is a noble profession and it should not be brought down to the level of a
simple business or commerce. The truth of the matter, sadly, is that today in India
many doctors (though not all) have become totally money-minded, and haveforgotten
their Hippocratic oath. Since most people in India are poor the consequence is that
for them proper medical treatment is next to impossible, and hence they have to rely
on quacks. This is a disgrace to a noble profession.
59. In Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity and others vs. State of West
Bengal and Another AIR 1996 SC 2426, the Supreme Court held that the denial of
emergency aid to the petitioner due to the non availability of bed in the Government
Hospital amounts to the violation of the right to life under Article 21 of the
Constitution. The Court went on to say that the Constitutional obligation imposed
on the State by Article 21 cannot be abdicated on the ground of financial constraint.
60. In Md. Suleman Ansari (D.M.S.) vs. Shankar Bhandari (2005) 12 SCC
430 the respondent suffered a fracture of his hand. He went to the appellant who
held himself out to be a qualified medical practitioner. The appellant bandaged the
respondent’s hand and prescribed certain medicines. He was ultimately taken to
another doctor but by this time the damage to his hand was permanent. It was found
that the appellant was not a qualified doctor to give treatment to the respondent.
The Supreme Court had directed him to pay Rs.80,000 as compensation to the
respondent.
61. In Surendra Chauhan vs. State of M.P. (2000) 4 SCC 110, the appellant
was having a degree of Bachelor of Medicine in Electrohomoeopathy from the Board
of Electrohomoeopathy Systems of Medicines, Jabalpur (M.P.). He did not possess
any recognized medical qualification as defined in the Indian Medical Council Act,
1956. Yet he performed an operation to terminate the three month pregnancy in a
woman, who died in the clinic due to shock due to non application ofanesthesia. The
Supreme Court confirmed his sentence but reduced it to one and a half years
rigorous imprisonment under Section 314/34 IPC and a fine of Rs.25000 payable to
the mother of the deceased.
62. In State of Haryana and others vs. Raj Rani (2005) 7 SCC 22 it was held
that if a child is born to a woman even after she had undergone a sterilization
operation by a surgeon, the doctor was not liable because there cannot be a 100%
certainty that no child will be born after a sterilization operation. The Court
followed the earlier view of another three Judge Bench in State of Punjab vs. Shiv
Ram & others (2005) 7 SCC 1. These decisions will be deemed to have overruled the
two Judge Bench decision in State of Haryana and Others vs. Smt. Santra AIR
2000 SC 1888 in which it was held that if a child is born after the sterilization
operation the surgeon will be liable for negligence.
63. In P.N. Rao vs. G. Jayaprakasu AIR 1990 AP 207, the plaintiff was a
brilliant young boy who had passed the pre-University course securing 100% marks
in Mathematics and 93.5% in physical sciences. He was also getting a monthly
scholarship. He was offered a seat in B.E. Degree course in four Engineering
Colleges. He had a minor ailment - chronic nasal discharge – for which his mother
took him to a doctor for consultation who diagnosed the disease as Nasal Allergy
and suggested operation for removal of tonsils. He was admitted in the Government
General Hospital, Guntur and the operation was performed. He did not regain
consciousness even after three days and thereafter for another 15 days he was not
able to speak coherently. When he was discharged from hospital, he could only
utter a few words and could not read or write and lost all his knowledge and
learning. His father took him to Vellore where he was examined by a Professor of
Neuro Surgery and it was found that his brain had suffered due to cerebral anoxia,
which was a result of improper induction of anaesthetics and failure to take
immediate steps to reduce anaesthesia. The court after examining the witnesses
including the Professor of Anaesthesiology held that defendants were clearly
negligent in discharging their duties and the State Government was vicariously
liable.
64. In Dr. Laxman Balkrishna Joshi vs. Dr. Trimbak Bapu Godbole and
Another AIR 1969 SC 128, a patient had suffered from fracture of the femur. The
accused doctor while putting the leg in plaster used manual traction and used
excessive force for this purpose, with the help of three men, although such traction
is never done under morphia alone but done under proper general anaesthesia. This
gave a tremendous shock causing the death of the boy. On these facts the Supreme
Court held that the doctor was liable to pay damages to the parents of the boy.
65. In Dr. Suresh Gupta vs. Government of N.C.T. of Delhi and another AIR
2004 SC 4091, the appellant was a doctor accused under Section 304A IPC for
causing death of his patient. The operation performed by him was for removing his
nasal deformity. The Magistrate who charged the appellant stated in his judgment
that the appellant while conducting the operation for removal of the nasal deformity
gave incision in a wrong part and due to that blood seeped into the respiratory
passage and because of that the patient collapsed and died. The High Court upheld
the order of the Magistrate observing that adequate care was not taken to prevent
seepage of blood resulting in asphyxia. The Supreme Court held that from the
medical opinions adduced by the prosecution the cause of death was stated to be
`not introducing a cuffed endotracheal tube of proper size as to prevent aspiration
of blood from the wound in the respiratory passage.’ The Supreme Court held that
this act attributed to the doctor, even if accepted to be true, can be described as a
negligent act as there was a lack of care and precaution. For this act of negligence
he was held liable in a civil case but it cannot be described to be so reckless or grossly
negligent as to make him liable in a criminal case. For conviction in a criminal case
the negligence and rashness should be of such a high degree which canbe described
as totally apathetic towards the patient.
66. In Dr. Sr. Louie and Anr. vs. Smt. Kannolil Pathumma & Anr. the
National Consumer Commission held that Dr. Louie showed herself as an M.D.
although she was only M.D. Freiburg, a German Degree which is equivalent to an
M.B.B.S. degree in India. She was guilty of negligence in treating a woman and her
baby which died. There was vacuum slip, and the baby was delivered in an
asphyxiated condition.
67. In Nihal Kaur vs. Director, P.G.I.M.S.R. (1996) CPJ 112 a patient died
a day after surgery and the relatives found a pair of scissors utilized by the surgeon
while collecting the last remains. The doctor was held liable and a compensation of
Rs.1.20 lakhs was awarded by the State Consumer Forum, Chandigarh.
68. In Spring Medows Hospital & Another vs. Harjol Ahluwalia thr’ K.S.
Ahluwalia & Another (1998) CPJ 1, a minor child was admitted by his parents to a
nursing home as he was suffering fever. The patient was admitted and the doctor
diagnosed typhoid and gave medicines for typhoid fever. A nurse asked the father
of the patient to get an injection Lariago which was administered by the nurse to the
patient who immediately collapsed. The doctor was examined and testified that the
child suffered a cardiac arrest on account of the medicine having being injected
which led to brain damage. The National Commission held that the cause of cardiac
arrest was intravenous injection of Lariago of such a high dose. The doctor was
negligent in performing his duty because instead of administering the injection
himself he permitted the nurse to give the injection. There was clear dereliction of
duty on the part of the nurse who was not even a qualified nurse and was not
registered with any nursing council of any State. Both the doctor and nurse and the
hospital were found liable and Rs.12.5 lakhs was awarded as compensation to the
parents.
69. In Consumer Protection Council and Others vs. Dr. M. Sundaram and
Another (1998) CPJ 3, the facts were that one Mrs. Rajalaxmi was admitted to a
nursing home which diagnosed the ailment as Hodgkin’s Lymphoma. She was
administered Endoxan injection five doses in five days. She was referred to another
doctor who was an ENT specialist, who after examination opined that no lymph
glands were seen. A sample of her bone marrow was sent to an Oncologist who
opined that the picture does not fit with Hodgkin’s disease but the patient had
megaloblastic anemia in the bone marrow. Subsequently she was discharged from
the nursing home and was advised to visit CMC Vellore for treatment. The patient
consulted another doctor who diagnosed the same as renal failure. The complainant
alleged that the first doctor failed and neglected to refer the matter to a Cancer
Specialist but wrongly diagnosed the ailment of the patient as Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
and had unnecessarily administered injection of Endoxan and because of the toxicity
of that drug the kidney cells of the patient got destroyed resulting in renal failure for
which she had to undergo kidney transplantation which led to her death. The
National Commission, upholding the State Commission decision, held that there was
no negligence on the part of the doctor who had consulted a pathologist, and in the
light of discussion with him and on inspection of some more slides of bone marrow
specimens which also revealed the same finding, namely, existence of deposits of
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma, proceeded to administer the patient injections of Endoxan.
It was held on the basis of medical opinion that any prudent consultant physician
would not delay the commencement of chemotherapy where repeated examination
of the bone marrow slides had yielded the report that the Hodgkin’s deposits were
present. Endoxan is a drug of choice in the treatment of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma and
there was no negligence on the part of the doctor.
70. In Sethuraman Subramaniam Iyer vs. Triveni Nursing Home and
Another (1998) CPJ 110, the complainant’s wife suffered from Sinusitis and was
advised surgery by the doctor. She had suffered a massive heart attack while in the
operation theatre. The State Commission found that necessary precautions and
effective measures were taken to save the deceased and dismissed the complaint. The
State Commission relied on the affidavits of four doctors who opined that therewas
no negligence. The complainant had not given any expert evidence to support his
allegation and in these circumstances it was held that no case was made out against
the doctor.
71. In A. S. Mittal & Anr. vs. State of U.P. & Ors. JT 1989 (2) SC 419, 1989
(3) SCC 223 a free eye camp was organized for ophthalmic surgical treatment to
patients. However, the eyes of several patients after operation were irreversibly
damaged, owing to post-operative infection of the intra ocular cavities of the eyes,
caused by normal saline used at the time of surgery. The Supreme Court directed
the State Government to pay Rs.12,500/- as compensation to each victim as there
was a clear negligence.
72. In Indian Medical Association vs. V.P. Shantha 1995(6) SCC 651 (vide
para 37) it has been held that the following acts are clearly due to negligence :
(i) Removal of the wrong limb;
(ii) Performance of an operation on
the wrong patient;
(iii) Giving injection of a drug
to which the patient is
allergic without looking
into the out-patient card
containing the warning;
88. It appears that the respondent attended the Haemodyalsis unit where he
met the appellant on 11th, 14th, 18th and 20th June, 1991. Thereafter the respondent
did not come to the hospital.
89. On 11.6.1991 the respondent complained to the appellant of slight
tinnitus or ringing in the ear. The appellant immediately reviewed the treatment on
the discharge card in possession of the respondent and asked the said respondent
and also asked his attendant i.e. his wife to stop Injection Amikacin and Cap.
Augmantine verbally, and also marked ‘X’ on the discharge card in his own hand
writing on 11.6.1991 i.e. 3 days after discharge. Hence, as per direction of the
appellant the respondent should have stopped receiving Injection Amikacin after
10.6.1991, but on his own he kept on taking Amikacin Injections. The Discharge
Card as per the respondent’s complaint clearly shows that the said injection had
been ‘X’ crossed, and he was directed not to take the said injection from 11.6.1991
i.e. on his very first complaint when he made mention of ringing in the ears or
tinnitus.
90. On perusal of the Xerox copies of the papers of the Cash Memo supplied
by the respondent as per annexure ‘4’ it is in our opinion evident that the respondent
continued to take the medicine against the advice of the appellant, and had
unilaterally been getting injected as late as 17.6.1991, i.e. 7 days after he had been
instructed verbally and in writing in the presence of his attendant i.e. his wife and
staff members of the said hospital to stop Injection Amikacin/Cap. Augmantine
because of tinnitus as early as on 11.6.1991.
91. On 19.6.1991 a relative of the respondent who identified himself on the
phone as one Mr. Khan from Byculla rang up and stated that the said respondent
was once again running high fever. The appellant once again immediately advised
him urgent admission to the said hospital which the respondent refused to comply
and said that he would go elsewhere.
92. From the above facts it is evident that the appellant was not to blame in
any way and it was the non-cooperative attitude of the respondent, and his
continuing with the Amikacin injection even after 11.6.1991 which was the cause of
his ailment, i.e. the impairment of his hearing. A patient who does not listen to his
doctor’s advice often has to face the adverse consequences.
93. It is evident from the fact that the respondent was already seriously ill
before he met the appellant. There is nothing to show from the evidence that the
appellant was in any way negligent, rather it appears that the appellant did his best
to give good treatment to the respondent to save his life but the respondent himself
did not cooperate.
94. Several doctors have been examined by the National Commission and we
have read their evidence which is on record. Apart from that, there is also the
opinion of Prof. P. Ghosh of All India Institute of Medical Sciences who had been
nominated by AIIMS as requested by the Commission, which is also on record. It
has been stated by Dr. Ghosh that many factors in the case of renal diseases may
cause hearing loss. Prof. Ghosh has stated that it is impossible to foretell about the
sensitivity of a patient to a drug, thereby making it difficult to assess the
contributions towards toxicity by the other factors involved. Hearing loss in renal
patients is a complex problem which is a result of many adverse and unrelated
factors. Generally, the state of hearing of a renal patient at any time is more likely to
be the result of a multifactorial effect than the response to a single agent.
95. Prof Ghosh has no doubt mentioned that concomitant use of
Aminoglycoside antibiotics (e.g. Amikacin) and loop diuretic may lead to summation
and potentiation of ototoxic effect, and the patient has a higher risk factor of hearing
impairment if there is a higher dose of Amikacin. However, he has stated that such
gross impairment of the balancing function has perhaps been wrought by a
combination of factors.
96. Prof Ghosh has also opined that the Amikacin dose of 500 mg twice a day
for 14 days prescribed by the doctor was a life saving measure and the appellant did
not have any option but to take this step. Life is more important than saving the
function of the ear. Prof Ghosh was of the view that antibiotics was rightly given on
the report of the sensitivity test which showed that the organisms were sensitive to
Amikacin. Hence the antibiotic, was not blindly used on a speculation or as a clinical
experiment.
97. Prof Ghosh mentioned that in the literature on Amikacin it has been
mentioned that in a life threatening infection adult dosage may be increased to 500
mg every eight hours but should not be administered for longer than 10 days.
98. In view of the opinion of Prof Ghosh, who is an expert of the All India
Institute of Medical Sciences, we are clearly of the view that the appellant was not
guilty of medical negligence and rather wanted to save the life of the respondent.
The appellant was faced with a situation where not only was there kidney failure of
the patient, but also urinary tract infection and blood infection. In this grave
situation threatening the life of the patient the appellant had to take drastic steps.
Even if he prescribed Amikacin for a longer period than is normally done, he
obviously did it to save the life of the respondent.
99. We have also seen the evidence of other doctors as well as the affidavits
filed before the National Commission. No doubt some of the doctors who have
deposed in this case have given different opinions, but in cases relating to allegations
of medical negligence this Court has to exercise great caution.
100. Dr. Ashok Sareen who is MD in medicine and trained in Nephrology has
in his evidence stated that for Kidney failure patients one has to be very careful with
the drug Amikacin. He stated that he uses the drug only when other antibiotics have
failed or cannot be used. It should be used with wide intervals and only when
absolutely necessary and when no other drug is available. When asked whether
Amikacin should be given to a patient with 10 days stretch, as was prescribed by the
appellant in this case, Dr. Sareen replied that it was difficult to give an answer to
that question because it depends entirely on the treating physician. Dr. Sareen has
admitted that giving Amikacin injection twice a day for 14 days can cause nerve
deafness which means losing one’s hearing. No doubt, Dr. Sareen in his cross-
examination stated that he would have prescribed the dose given to the respondent
differently but he has not stated what would be the dose he would have prescribed.
101. We have also perused the evidence of Dr. Vindu Amitabh, who is a MD
in medicine in Safdarjung hospital and looking after Nephrology also. He has stated
that normally Amikacin is given for 5 to 7 days twice daily. However, he hasalso
stated that in severe circumstances it can be given for a longer period but if the
patient is developing complications then the doses should be stopped immediately.
If there is no substitute for it then Amikacin should be given in a very guarded dose.
He has admitted that Amikacin can lead to deafness.
102. In the affidavit of Dr. Raval of the Bombay Indian Inhabitant, who has
been practicing in Urology for several years it is stated that the respondent had
undergone a kidney transplant operation under Dr. Raval’s supervision on 30th July
1991 at the Prince Alikhan Hospital, Bombay and he was discharged on 13th August,
1991. Dr. Raval has stated in his affidavit that during the time the respondent was
under his care he had a free conversation in English and Urdu without the aid of
interpreter and he did not complain of suffering any hearing problem until he was
discharged in the middle of August 1991. An affidavit to the same effect has been
given by Dr. Kirti L. Upadhyaya, of Bombay Indian Inhabitant, who is also a
Nephrologist. He stated that the respondent did not complain of any hearing
problem to him also.
103. An affidavit has also been filed by Dr. Sharad M. Sheth, of Bombay
Indian Inhabitant who is also MD qualified in Nephrology. He also stated in
paragraph 3 of his affidavit as follows:-
104. The appellant has also filed his own affidavit before the National
Consumer Commission which we have perused. We have also seen the affidavit of
Dr. Ashok L. Kirpalani of Lady Ratan Tata Medical Centre, Bombay, who is MD in
Nephrology. He stated that the medicine prescribed by the appellant was absolutely
right in the circumstances in view of the fact, that the patient was suffering serious
life threatening infection.
105 We may also refer to the affidavit of Mrs. Mukta Kolekar of Bombay
Indian Inhabitant, who is a Senior Sister attached to the hospital. She has stated in
her affidavit as follows :-
I say that after 11th June, 1991, the said Mohd. Ishaq came to the
hospital as an outdoor patient on 14th June, 17th June and 20th June,
1991 and did not make any complaint of any nature whatsoever
with regard to his hearing faculties. On the contrary, he used to
have conversation and used to respond to the same as anordinary
man. The said Mohd. Ishaq used to come to hospital on his own
without the assistance or help of anybody and after the dialysis also
he used to go on his own. Thus, until 20th June, 1991, the said Mohd.
Ishaq had no problems either in hearing or in movement of the
limbs or parts of his body or in lifting parts of his body or in
walking.”
106. From these deposition and affidavits it cannot be said that the appellant
was negligent. In fact most of the doctors who have deposed or given their affidavits
before the Commission have stated that the appellant was not negligent.
107. In his written statement filed before the National Commission the appellant
has stated in paragraph 9 (q-r) as follows :
“(q) On the 11th June,1991 the Complainant
complained to Opposite Party of slight tinnitus or ringing in the
ear. Opposite Party immediately reviewed the treatment on the
discharge card in possession of the Complainant and asked the
said Complainant and also made his attendant i.e. his wife to
understand and asked her also to stop Injection Amikacin and
Cap. Augmentin verbally as well as marked ‘X’ on the discharge
card in his own hand writing i.e. on 11th June, 1991
i.e. 3 days after discharge. Therefore, as per direction Opposite
Party Complainant could have taken or received Injection
Amikacin only upto 10th June, 1991 when he showed the very
first and Preliminary side effect of Injection Amikacin.
Discharge Card as per the Complainant’s Complaint Annexure
‘3’speaks clearly that the said Injection has been ‘X’ crossed and
he was directed not to take the said Injection from 11th June,
1991 i.e. on his very first complaint he made of ringing in the
ears, or tinnitus.
.....................J.
[R.M. LODHA]
New Delhi,
February 17, 2009.
2011:KER:5303
PRESENT :
DR. AJAYAN,
ASST.SURGEON, GOVT. HOSPITAL,
PEROORKADA, TRIVANDRUM.
Kss
2011:KER:5303
DISMISSED
/TRUE COPY/
P.S.TO JUDGE
Kss
2011:KER:5303
P. BHAVADASAN, J.
---------------------------
S.A. No. 832 of 2000
-----------------------------
Dated this the 4th day of February, 2011.
JUDGMENT
On the said day, at about 8.30 a.m. the first defendant is said
to have examined her and according to the plaintiff she and her
S.A.832/2000. 2
the Minister for Health happened to visit the hospital and the
her on 11.7.1995 when she had not recovered from her illness.
which the plaintiff was placed and he had never told either
2011:KER:5303
S.A.832/2000. 3
of the suit.
S.A.832/2000. 4
S.A.832/2000. 5
S.A.832/2000. 6
pointed out that both the courts below had not properly
would show that the first defendant had resorted to the normal
S.A.832/2000. 7
the mere fact that a better method could have been chosen
claim of the plaintiff that the first defendant had told her
and her husband that surgery was the only option cannot be
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S.A.832/2000. 8
clear that surgery is the last option. It was also pointed out
that except for the ipsi dixit of the plaintiff, there is nothing
to show that she was not relieved of her illness atthe time
S.A.832/2000. 9
discharge, the plaintiff was still suffering from her illness and
that surgery was the only remedy for the illness of the plaintiff,
S.A.832/2000. 10
the finding of the courts below that the first defendant was
correct.
S.A.832/2000. 11
S.A.832/2000. 12
while.
S.A.832/2000. 13
fairly large lump in the intestine. When they found it, they
S.A.832/2000. 14
P.W.7 would say that the patient is kept under observation for
a few days.
the patient should at once come and meet him. He would say
S.A.832/2000. 15
to a surgery.
Hospital.
S.A.832/2000. 16
follows:
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S.A.832/2000. 17
It is further stated:
S.A.832/2000. 18
S.A.832/2000. 19
S.A.832/2000. 20
S.A.832/2000. 21
S.A.832/2000. 22
S.A.832/2000. 23
S.A.832/2000. 24
follows:
S.A.832/2000. 25
S.A.832/2000. 26
S.A.832/2000. 27
stated:
"6. Very recently, this Court has dealth with
the issues ofmedical negligence and laid down
principles on which the liability of a medical
professional is determined generally and in thefield
of criminal law in particular. Reference may be had
to Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab. The Court has
approved the test as laid downin Bolam
v. Friern Hospital Management committee popularly
known as Bolam test, in its applicability to India."
S.A.832/2000. 28
S.A.832/2000. 29
S.A.832/2000. 30
S.A.832/2000. 31
held as follows:
S.A.832/2000. 32
S.A.832/2000. 33
S.A.832/2000. 34
1 SCC 53)).
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S.A.832/2000. 35
has not been cured or something has gone wrong, the medical
S.A.832/2000. 36
S.A.832/2000. 37
increases.
S.A.832/2000. 38
and also that she had taken oral food few days after the
S.A.832/2000. 39
witnesses from the side of the plaintiff. Before going into that
seems that the plaintiff had gone to the Clinic run by P.W.5.
She would say that she had advised the plaintiff to go to a well
S.A.832/2000. 40
says that she gave an injunction to the patient and the patient
have a case that for two reasons the first defendant was
who had visited the hospital, about the nature of the building
P.Ws. 1 and 3 do say that they had paid amounts to the first
However, P.Ws.1 and 3 are gracious enough to say that the first
S.A.832/2000. 41
though he says that the condition of her wife did not improve,
he does say that his wife was able to attend to her routine
affiars during the time while she was in the hospital. It is also
seen from his evidence that oral food was taken after a few
his wife was suffering from the same illness. One may here also
gone to the Clinic run by P.W.5. She would say that on the
S.A.832/2000. 42
the evidence of P.W.5, who says that as per her diagnosis and
including water. The doctor says that, that may bring about
S.A.832/2000. 43
treatment. Only when they found that she did not respond to
in the stomach, but only when they opened and probed into it,
S.A.832/2000. 44
is the last option and not the first one as contendedby the
S.A.832/2000. 45
in all such case. The evidence is clear to the effect that option
of surgery is the last resort when thepatient does not show any
S.A.832/2000. 46
and decrees of the courts below are set aside and the suit
P. BHAVADASAN,
JUDGE
sb.
66 QUEEN' S BENC H DIVISION . [ 1 9 5 4 ]
C. A. but was entitled to refer as a " d i s p u t e , " and which the tribunal
195 4 can properly hear and determine as such.
I am accordingly in agreement with my brethren, though for
E IN A
° somewhat different reasons, in thinking that this appeal should be
INDUSTRIAL allowed.
T Z I Appeal allowed.
Ex parte Leave to appeal to House of Lords refused.
TBCHNALOY
LD .
Solicitors: W. H. Thompson; Hardman, Phillips & Mann;
Solicitor, Ministry of Labour.
A. W. G.
.and held that the hospital was not responsible for the acts of the 1953
anaesthetist, and that the plaintiffs' claims failed against both ~
defendants. On appeal:— „
Held, that the anaesthetist was the servant or agent of the MINISTER
hospital and the hospital were liable for his acts on the principle ° F HEALTH.
of respondeat superior.
Gold v. Essex County Council [1942] 2 KB . 293; 58 T.L.R.
357; [1942] 2 All E.R. 237 and Cassidy v. Ministry'of Health
[1951] 2 K.B. 343; [1951] 1 T.L.R. 539; [1951] 1 All E.R. 574
applied.
Held, further, that applying the test of what was the standard
of medical knowledge in 1947 in respect to the detection of the presence
of the phenol in the ampoules, at the time of the operations, neither the
anaesthetist nor any member of the hospital.staff had been guilty of
negligence, and the appeals failed.
Decision of McNair J. affirmed.
ACTIONS.
In consolidated actions the plaintiffs', Cecil Henry Eoe, a farm
labourer, aged 46, and Albert Woolley, a labourer, aged 51, claimed
damages for personal injuries which, they suffered as the result of the
administration to them of a spinal anaesthetic on October 13, 1947, at
the Chesterfield and North Derbyshire Eoyal Hospital. I n each case the
surgical operation for which they were anaesthetized was of a minor
character, but in each case, owing, as the trial judge found, to the
contamination of the anaesthetic by phenol, the patient developed a
condition of spastic paraplegia, which resulted in permanent paralysis
from the waist down. The contamination was found by the judge to
have been caused by the percolation of phenol (in which the glass
ampoules containing the anaesthetic were stored) through invisible
cracks or molecular flaws in the ampoules. In those circumstances
the plaintiffs claimed damages against the Minister of Health as
successor in title, under the National Health Service Act, 1946, and
the National Health Service (Appointed Day) Order, 1948, to the
trustees of the hospital, and also against Dr. J . Malcolm Graham, who
was responsible for the administration of the anaesthetic in each case.
The manufacturers of the anaesthetic, Ciba Labora- tories, Ld., were
joined as third defendants, but during the hearing were dismissed from
the case.
Both actions came before McNair J., who on November 12, 1953,
dismissed them and delivered the following judgment.
♦
1953 between the lumbar vertebrae. This method, at any rate in 1947
j{0B before the general development of the use of other relaxant drugs,
»• was widely used and had the advantage of securing by a simple
OF HEALTH, technique normally involving little distress to the patient a
complete relaxation in the field of the intended operation.
McNair J. ^
I desire to emphasize at the outset that no charge of negligence was
made based upon the adoption of this method of anaesthesis for the
two operations in question. At the hearing before me, which lasted
for eleven days, I had the advantage of hearing the evidence given by a
number of surgeons, neurologists, anaesthe- tists and pathologists of
the highest professional standing, who, while each desiring to assist
the court without any reservation, differed widely in many respects in
their views of the cause of the condition which developed in both
plaintiffs following upon the administration of the anaesthetic. I have
had accordingly a more than usually anxious task in attempting to
reach a solution.
[His lordship described the anatomy of the spinal column, stated
the facts as to the development of the disease in each case, reviewed the
evidence and continued: ] In these circumstances Mr Elwes as
counsel for the plaintiffs, emphasizing the close parallelism between the
two medical histories and the fact that injuries of this nature do not
normally follow from spinal anaes- thetics properly administered,
submits that the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur applies (a) as against
the hospital on the basis that in law the hospital is responsible for
the actions of Dr. Graham as well as for the actions of the theatre'
staff; (b) as against Dr. Graham on the ground that he administered
the anaesthetic and had control of the theatre staff in all revelant
respects.
The validity of this submission in my judgment depends on
determining (1) the extent of the obligation assumed by the hospital
towards patients received by the hospital; (2) the positionof Dr.
Graham in relation to the hospital; and (3) the extent, if any, of the
application of the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur where the offending
object or operation is under the control of two persons not in law
responsible for the acts of each other. [His Lordship then stated the
facts with regard to the qualifications and position of Dr. Graham *
and continued : ]
I now turn to (1), the problem of the obligation assumed by the
hospital towards patients received for treatment. The two most
relevant authorities, both of which are binding upon me, are the
decisions of the Court of Appeal in Gold v. Essex„County
1953 the control of two persons not in law responsible for each other—
Eo B I am unable to understand how it can be said that the maxim can
»• apply to either of such persons, since the res, if it speaks of
OP HEALTH negligence, does not speak of negligence against either indi-
—- vidually: see the passage in Lord Murray's speech in Garruthers
TWpN*ifr T
infer that the percolation could have taken place through visible
cracks, and accordingly, if on proof of damage by phenol the
burden shifted to Dr. Graham to displace the implication of
negligence he had successfully discharged the burden by showing
that phenol in a significant quantity could . percolate into an ampoule
otherwise than by visible cracks, and remain undetected without
negligence on his part; and (4) Dr. Graham was not negligent on the
standard of a reasonably competent anaesthetist in 1947 in failing
i to adopt a colour technique which might have disclosed the
presence of a risk which he did not, in common with many other
competent anaesthetists, appreciate as a possibility.]
As regards the hospital his Lordship held that the cracks in the
ampoules, if any, could not reasonably be attributed to negligence on
the part of the theatre staff. In the result he dismissed both actions.
The plaintiffs appealed.
c A
Richard Elwes Q.C. and John Hobson for the plaintiffs. - -
The obligation assumed by the hospital authority towards its 1954
patients is to provide the necessary treatment: Gold v. ■ Essex T
1
County Council. In this case the hospital authority was under o.
a duty to provide both surgical and ancillary treatment. On the MINISTER
basis of Denning L.J.'s judgment in Cassidy v. Ministry of Health
2
it is no defence for a hospital to allege that its failure to carry
but its obligations was due to the act of a person for whom the
hospital was not answerable in law on the basis of respondeat superior.
If that is putting it too high, then it is submitted that this is a case of
vicarious liability, the hospital authority being responsible for negligent
acts proved to have been committed by its servants. On the basis of
Somervell and Singleton L.JJ.' s judgments in Cassidy's case,2
Dr. Graham was a servant of the hospital authority. It is clear from
the facts
C. A. in the court below that Dr. Graham was following rather blindly
3354 in the footsteps of Dr. Pooler, the senior anaesthetist. That is
the precise opposite to the truth. It is abundantly clear that
„ Dr. ■ Graham was throughout, in regard to tinting, and the way
MINISTER in which the system was earned out, exercising his own
OF HEALTH. . ,
judgment.
The hospital authority has carried out its obligations to the plaintiff
by providing the necessary treatment. • It is not respon- sible for the
negligent acts of the anaesthetist. He is a con: suiting anaesthetist
and in exactly the same position in relation to the hospital as a
visiting surgeon or physician for whose negli- gent acts the hospital
authority is not in law responsible: see Gold v. Essex County
Council, per Lord Greene M.E., 6 and Cassidy v. Ministry of Health,
per Somervell and Singleton L.JJ. 7 In Cassidy's case 7 a hospital
authority was held to be liable for the negligent acts of a full-time
medical officer and a house surgeon, but the basis of the judgments of
Somervell and Singleton L.JJ. was that both doctors were employed
under contracts of service and were servants of the hospital authority.
Somervell L.X. pointed the distinction between a contract of service
and a contract for services. He referred in terms to con- sulting
surgeons and physicians and took theosanie view as that taken by
Lord Greene M.E. in Gold's case.8 Denning L.J. con- sidered that the
distinction between a contract of service and a contract for services was
irrelevant for the purposes of deter- mining the hospital authority's
liability, holding that control over the work was not the determining
factor. He said that the hospital was liable if the doctor or surgeon
was employed and paid by the hospital as the hospital had in its hands
the ultimate sanction for good conduct, the power of dismissal. It
is sub- mitted that Denning L.J. based his judgment on Lord Simond's
speech in Mersey Docks and Harbour Board (Liverpool) Ld. v. Coggins
and Griffiths," where the House of Lords considered the liability of the
board for the negligent acts of .a crane driver and held that the
board, the employer, was liable even though the crane driver, a
skilled man, in carrying out his work, could say" I take no orders
from anybody." " Yet," said Lord Simonds, " ultimately he would
decline to carry it out in the appellants' "way at his peril, for in
their hands lay the only sanction, the " power of dismissal." 10
e [1942] 2 K.B. 293, 302. » [1947] A.C. 1; 62 T.L.B. 533;
7 [1951] 2 K.B. 343. [1940] 2 All E.E. 345.
8 [1942] 2 K.B. 293, 302. i° [1947] A.C. 1, 20.
75
2 Q.B. QUEEN'S BENCH DIVISION.
tinted light blue and the weaker was tinted pale red. This was C. A.
so as to distinguish it from water. Following Dr. Pooler, the 1954
junior anaesthetist, Dr. Graham, thought that it was a good T
thing to disinfect the ampoules in this way and he adopted the „.
same system. By a great misfortune this new system of disinfect- MINISTEB
ing had in it a danger of which Dr. Pooler and Dr. Graham were
Denl ng LJ
quite unaware. The danger was this: the ampoules in the jar " -
might become cracked; the cracks might be so fine or so placed
that they could.not be detected by ordinary inspection, and the carbolic
disinfectant would then seep through the cracks into the
nupercaine, and no one would realize that it had taken place. Thus the
anaesthetist, who thought he was inserting pure nuper- caine into the
spine of the patient, was in fact inserting nupercaine mixed with
carbolic acid. . That is the very thing which happened in the case of
these two men. Carbolic acid was inserted into their spines and corroded
all the nerves which con- trolled the lower half of their bodies
That is the explanation of the disaster, and the question is: were
any of the staff negligent? I pause to say that once the accident is
explained, no question of res ipsa loquitur arises. The only question
is whether on the facts as now ascertained any- one was negligent.
Mr. Elwes said that the staff were negligent in two respects: (1)
in not colouring the phenol with a deep dye;
(2) in cracking the ampoules. I will taken them in order: (1) The
deep tinting. If the anaesthetists had foreseen that the ampoules
might get cracked with cracks that could not be detected on
inspection they would no doubt have dyed the phenol a deep blue;
and this would have exposed the contamination. But I do not think
that their failure to foresee this was negligence. It is so easy to be
wise after the event and to condemn as negligence that which was
only a misadventure. We ought always to be on our guard against it,
especially in cases against hospitals and doctors. Medical science
has conferred great benefits on man- kind, but these benefits are
attended by considerable risks. Every surgical operation is attended
by risks. We cannot take the benefits without taking the risks.
Every advance in technique is also attended by risks. Doctors, like
the rest of us, have to learn by experience; and experience often
teaches in a hard way. Something goes wrong and shows up a
weakness, and then it is put right. That is just what happened here.
Dr. Graham sought to escape the danger of infection by disinfecting
the ampoule. In escaping that known danger he unfortunately
ran
2 Q.B. 1954. 6 (2)
84 QUEEN'S BENCH DIVISION. [1954]
O. A. into another danger. He did not know that there could be un-
1954 detectable cracks, but it was not negligent for Kim not to know
it at that time. We must not look at the 1947 accident with
„ 1954 spectacles. The judge acquitted Dr. Graham of negligence
MINISTER and we should uphold his decision.
on1 TTPAT TTT
(2) The cracks. In cracking the ampoules, there must, I
Penning L.J. feaTj n a v e been some carelessness by someone in the hospital.
The ampoules were quite strong and the sisters said that they should
not get cracked if proper care was used in handling them. They must
have been jolted in some way by someone. This raises an interesting
point of law. This carelessness was, in a sense, one of the causes
of the disaster; but the person who jolted the ampoule cannot
possibly have foreseen what dire eon- sequences would follow. There
were so many intervening opportunities of inspection that she might
reasonably think that if the jolting caused a crack, it would be
discovered long before any harm came of it. As Somervell L.J. has
pointed out, she herself would probably'examine the ampoule for a
crack, and see- ing none, would return it to the jar. The anaesthetist
himself didin fact examine it for cracks, and finding none, used it.
The trouble was that nobody realized that there might be a crack
which could not be detected on ordinary examination. What, then,
is the legal position?
It may be said that, by reason of the decision of this court
in In re Polemis l l the hospital authorities are liable for all the
consequences of the initial carelessness of the nurse; even though the
consequences could not reasonably have been foreseen. But the
decision in In re Polemis'11 is of very limited application. The reason is
because there are two preliminary questions to be answered before it
can come into play. The first question in every case is whether there
was a duty of care owed to the plaintiff; and .the test of duty
depends, without doubt, on what you should foresee. There is no duty
of care owed to a person when you could not reasonably foresee
that he might be injured by your conduct: see Hay or Bourhill v.
Young,12 Woods v. Duncan,13 per Lord Eussell and per Lord Porter.
The second question is whether the neglect of duty was a
cause '' of the injury in the proper sense of that term; and
causation, as well as duty, often depends on what you should
11
[1921] 3 K.B. 560; 37 T.L.E. « [1946] A.C. 401, 437; 62 T.L.B.
940. 283; [1946] 1 All E.E. 420n.
12 [1943] A.C. 92; [1942] 2 All
E.B. 396.
2 Q.B. QUEEN'S BENCH DIVISION. 85
" [1939] 2 K.B. 14, 38. " [1942] 2 K.B. 293, 301.
2 Q.B. QUEEN'S BENCH DIVISION. 89
But these facts do not negative the view, to which all the circum- C. A. stances
point, that the hospital was assuming the obligation of i g5 4 anaesthetizing the
plaintiffs for their operations. . I consider
B
that the anaesthetists were members of the "organization" of 0°
the hospital: they were members of the staff engaged by the MINISTER
0F EAIiTH
hospital to do what the hospital itself was undertaking to do. '
The work which Dr. Graham was employed by the hospital to do Morris L.J.
was work of a highly skilled and specialized nature, but this fact
does not avoid the application of the rule of " respondeat
'' superior.'' If Dr. Graham was negligent in doing his work I consider
that the hospital would be just as responsible as were the defendants
in Gold v. Essex County Council2S for the negli- gence of the
radiographer or as were the defendants in Cassidy
v. Ministry of Health.29 I have approached the present case, therefore,
on the basis that the defendants would be liable if the plaintiffs' injuries
were caused by the negligence either of Dr. Graham or by the
negligence of someone on the staff who was concerned with the
operation or the preparation for it. On this basis, if negligence could
be established against one or more of those for whom the hospital
was responsible, it would not matter if the plaintiffs could not point
to the exact person or persons who had been negligent. a
It was not suggested that Dr. Graham was negligent in using
nupercaine, nor that there was anything faulty in the manner of his
injecting. But it was said that the evidence pointed to the fact
that the quantity of phenol which must have found its way into the
nupercaine "had passed through cracks of dimensions which would
not have eluded a careful examiner. This view depended in part upon
an estimate as to the percentage of phenol admixture which would be
damaging and in part upon the evid- ence as to the results of
experiments to ascertain the rate at which phenol might percolate
through cracks. But it seems unlikely that Dr. Graham in two
successive operations would fail to detect cracks which could be
observed or felt. The judge, having seen and heard Dr. Graham,
whose evidence he said was given "i n a very careful and forthright
manner," rejected the suggestion that Dr. Graham had failed to detect
cracks which could have been seen. I do not think that this finding can
be disturbed, and, accordingly, the matter must be considered on
the footing that phenol had found its way into the ampoules through
cracks not ordinarily detectable. On this basis it is clear
28 29
[1942] 2 K.B. 293. [1951] 2 K.B. 343.
92 QUEEN'S BENCH DIVISION. [1954 ]
C. A. that if the phenol solution had been tinted with some vivid colour-
ig5 4 ing any escape of the solution into the ampoules would have been
readily apparent. This was at all times frankly conceded by
°B Mr. Hylton-Foster. The question arises whether Dr. Graham
MINISTER was negligent in not arranging for the deep-tinting of the phenol
OP ^EALTH. so i u tii orl i^g ph e n o i solution as used in the hospital was in
Morris L.J. fact coloured, though not vividly. This colouring was part of the
routine adopted in the hospital to denote and to identify phenol.
It was Dr." Pooler who first introduced in the hospital the
system of immersing the ampoules in phenol solution. Dr.
Graham considered the matter for some time before he followed
the lead given him by his senior and more experienced colleague,
upon whose opinion he greatly relied. "When Dr. Graham
adopted the new method he realized full well, as he unhesitatingly
admitted, that if a glass ampoule became cracked there could
be resultant percolation of phenol solution which would be a
" terribly serious danger." It was for that reason that he felt
it necessary, after changing over to the new method, to examine
carefully for cracks. But Dr. Graham was most emphatic in his
evidence that in 1947 he had no knowledge at all that there
might be in an ampoule some kind of a crack which was not
visible but wh\ch yet permitted percolation. He firmly believed
that there was no danger provided that there was no crack that
could be seen on proper inspection: he never conceived the idea
of a crack that he could not see. I read his evidence, when taken
in its entirety, as showing that he was not relying upon seeing
some discolouration as a warning that there had been percola-
tion', but that he was convinced that danger could only arise if
there was a crack that could be seen and that such danger could
be fully averted by careful inspection.
It is now known that there could be cracks not ordinarily detectable.
But care has to be exercised to ensure that conduct in 1947 is only
judged in the light of knowledge which then was or ought
reasonably to have been possessed. In this connexion the then-
existing state of medical literature must be had in mind. The question
arises whether Dr. Graham was negligent in not adopting some
different technique. I cannot think that he was. I think that a
consideration of the evidence in the case negatives the view that Dr.
Graham was negligent and I see no reason to differ from the
conclusions which were reached on this part of the case by the judge.
But it is further said that there must have been negligent
mishandling of the ampoules on the part of some member or
members of the staff of the hospital. On behalf
2 Q.B. QUEEN'S BENCH DIVISION. 93
c
of the plaintiffs it was urged that the ampoules must have - A-
arrived intact and in good order at the hospital and must have 1954
been carelessly handled at a later stage when they were being
made ready and available for operative use. There was much •v
evidence which supported the contention that ampoules could MINISTEB
only have been damaged if they were mishandled. Even so, it
is problematical as to when and where and under what circum- Morris L.J.
stances these two ampoules became damaged. But as the case
now stands an acceptance of the finding of fact of the judge
that Dr. Graham carefully examined the ampoules used and that
there were no cracks which would by such examination have been
revealed, involves that the offending cracks were not detectable ones.
If the view is correct that an anaesthetist in 1947 was not negligent
in not knowing of the risk of seepage through what have been called "
invisible cracks " it follows, I think, that members of the theatre
staff could not be expected to know of any such risk. In his speech
in Bolton v. Stone 30 Lord Porter said: " It " is not enough that
the event should be such as can reasonably" be foreseen: the
further result that injury is likely to follow " must also be such
as a reasonable man would contemplate," before he can be convicted
of actionable negligence." If some member of the staff had in fact
mishandled the ampoules in question then the position was either
that damage was not seen after an actual inspection or that an
inspection would have been unavailing: since no detectable damage to
them was caused there was no reason to foresee that there was any risk
in leaving such ampoules amongst those from which an anaesthetist
would select and no reason to contemplate that any injury would be
likely to follow. Though there must be abiding sympathy with the two
plaintiffs in their grievous and distressing misfortunes, I consider that
the judgment of the judge was correct
Appeals dismissed.
Leave to appeal to House of Lords refused.
A. W. G.
so [1951] A.C. 850, 858; [1951] 1T.L.R. 977; [1951] 1 All E.E. 1078.
2 Q.B. 1954. 7
MANU/CF/0136/1997
Equivalent/Neutral Citation: 1997(2)C.P.C.405, I(1998)CPJ110(NC), 1997 (2) CPR 144
CASE NO.:
Appeal (civil) 2743 of 2002
PETITIONER:
State of Haryana & Ors.
RESPONDENT:
Raj Rani
BENCH:
CJI R.C. Lahoti,G.P. Mathur & P.K. Balasubramanyan
JUDGMENT:
J U D G M E N T
With
Humble Defendant
Through Counsel