1- Compared to sporadic paragangliomas, familial paragangliomas have a higher

propensity for which statement?

A. Malignancy
B. Multicentricity
C. Epinephrine production
D. Cranial nerve deficits
E. Larger tumor size at presentation

2- The main blood supply of the inferior turbinate enters from above near the posterior
border and derives from the:
A. Sphenopalatine artery, while the anterior blood supply originates from the
angular artery
B. Greater palatine artery, while the anterior blood supply originates from the
sphenopalatine artery
C. Angular artery, while the anterior blood supply originates from the greater
palatine artery
D. Lesser palatine artery, while the anterior blood supply originates from the
angular artery
E. The posterior blood supply of the inferior turbinate can also originate from the
posterior ethmoidal artery, a branch of the ophthalmic artery.
3- The most frequently encountered pathology in Primary Hyperparathyroidism is:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Double adenoma
C. Parathyroid carcinoma
D. Single adenoma
E. Metastatic disease
4- Which of the following intrinsic laryngeal muscles is not derived from branchial arch
VI:
A. Cricoarytenoid muscle
B. lnterarytenoid muscle
C. Thyroarytenoid muscle
D. Cricothyroid muscle
E. Lateral cricoarytenoid
5- The maxillary sinus opens into middle meatus at the level of:
A. Bulla ethmoidalis
B. Lnfundibulum
C. Hiatus semilunaris
D. Frontal recess
E. None of the above

6- Chorda tympani syndrome is characterized by:

A. Sweating behind the ears after eating
B. Sweating in the submental region after eating
C. Loss of taste sensation in the anterior two-third of the tongue
D. All of the above
E. None of the above.

7- Trismus in parapharyngeal abscess is due to spasm of:

A. Masseter muscle
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Lateral pterygoid
D. Temporalis
E. TMJ abscess

8- Stridor is caused by all except Final Results

A. Vocal cord palsy
B. Stenosis after tracheostomy
C. Retropharyngeal abscess
D. Ludwig's angina
E. Right bronchus foreign body

9- The site exit of chorda tympani from middle ear is called as:
A. Glaserian fissure
B. Fissure of Santorini
C. Foramen of Huskar
D. Canal of Huguier
E. Vidian Canal
10- In tonsillar fossa pulsatile swelling can be due to:
A. Aneurysm of external carotid artery
B. Aneurysm of internal carotid artery
C. Carotid body tumour
D. Normal external carotid artery
E. Peritonsillar abscess

11- Most common site for carcinoma of oral tongue is:

A. Base
B. Dorsum
C. Lateral border
D. Tip
E. Ventral surface

12- A 3 year child was brought to ENT OPD by his parents with complaint of
swelling in front of her neck. On examination there was a single, non-tender swelling
which was moving on swallowing and tongue protrusion what is your diagnosis?
A. Branchial cyst
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Thyroglossal cyst
D. Thyroid nodule
E. Cystic hygroma

13- A 50yrs old male presented to ent opd with swelling of Rt parotid region, facial
nerve is intact, Most common tumor of this gland at this age is
A. Monomorphic adenoma
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Mucoepidermoid Ca
D. Squamous cell Ca
E. Adeno Ca
14- A 25years old female talkative in nature develop permanent hoarseness of voice
on IDL there was nodular swelling on vocal cords at junction of anterior 1/3, the
treatment is
A. Total laryngectomy
B. Steam inhalation & antibiotics
C. Steam inhalation & speech therapy
D. Speech therapy & use of laser
E. Microlaryngeal surgery & speech therapy
15- In electrocochleography:
A. It measures middle ear latency
B. Outer hair cells are mainly responsible for cochlear microphonics and summation
potential
C. Summation potential is a compound of synchronus auditory nerve potential
D. Total AP represents endocochlear receptor potential to an external auditory
stimulus
E. None of the above

16- Your patient is a man, not a talkative one, with abrupt onset of hoarseness after
singing in a noisy party. Laryngeal examination demonstrates a largely unilateral
lesion in the node position. Diagnosis?
A. Vocal cord nodules
B. Capillary ectasia
C. Hemorrhagic polyp
D. Reinke’s edema
E. Epidermoid cyst

17- Which benign tumor occurs only in the parotid gland?

A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Warthin tumor
C. Basal cell adenoma
D. Myoepithelioma
E. Oncocytoma

18- Which of the following would not be an expected location for a labyrinthine
fistula in a patient with chronic ear disease and recurrent cholesteatoma?
A. Protympanum.
B. Oval window.
C. Cochlear promontory
D. Lateral semicircular canal.
E. B & C
19- What portion of the facial nerve is involved in the pathophysiology of Bell's
palsy?
A. Meatal segment.
B. Labyrinthine segment.
C. Tympanic segment.
D. Mastoid segment.
E. 2nd genue area

20- What segment of the facial nerve is most commonly damaged as a result of
temporal bone trauma?
A. Intracranial
B. Meatal
C. Labyrinthine/perigeniculate
D. Tympanic
E. Mastoid

21- Which of the following is considered to be an absolute contraindication to

cochlear implantation?
a. Duration of deafness greater than 30 years
b. Auditory neuropathy
c. Enlarged vestibular aqueduct
d. Michel aplasia
e. All of the above

22- Gradenigo’s syndrome usually includes all of the following except

A. Retro-orbital pain
B. Fourth cranial nerve palsy
C. Otorrhea
D. Hearing loss
E. Sixth nerve palsy

23- Thornwaldt's cyst is :

A. A pharyngeal bursa,midline cyst in the nasopharynx.
B. Remnant of rathke's pouch in the nasopharynx.
C. Remnant of thyroid tissue in the oropharynx.
D. Cyst forming within the tubal tonsil.
E. Cyst attached to the soft palate.
24- The most persistent symptom of chronic otitis media is:
a. Tinnitus
b. Hearing loss
c. Otorrhea
d. Otalgia
e. Dizziness

25- Gold standard for diagnosis for acute invasive fungal sinusitis is:
A. Endoscopy.
B. Ct scan
C. Histology
D. MRI
E. Lab result

26- Which of the following conditions causes the maximum hearing loss?
A. Partial fixation of the stapes footplate
B. Otitis media with effusion
C. Ossicular disruption with intact tympanic membrane
D. Disruption of malleus and incus as well tympanic membrane
E. Large Perforation of TM

27- Patient feels giddiness in presence of loud sound.This is known as:

A. Paracusis willisii
B. Schwartz sign
C. Tullio phenomenon
D. Hennebert's sign
E. lemierre's sign

28- The triad of ear discharge, retro-orbital pain % 6th nerve paralysis is due to:
A. Mastoiditis.
B. Labyrinthitis.
C. Apical petrositis.
D. Lateral sinus thrombosis
E. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
 29- Bryce's sign is seen in ?
A. Laryngocele
B. Post cricoid carcinoma
C. Angiofibroma
D. Chronic tonsillitis
E. None of the above

30- Acoustic neuroma commonly arise from –

A. Superior - vestibular nerve
B. Inferior - vestibular nerve
C. Cochlear nerve
D. Facial nerve
E. None of the above
31- Which congenital deformity typically results in 1.5 turns of the cochlea?
(a) Michel aplasia
(b) Schiebe deformity
(c) Alexander dysplasia
(d) Mondini dysplasia
(e) Enlarged vestibular aqueduct

32- What is the most appropriate investigation for diagnosing cervical cystic
hygroma in a child?
(a) USS
(b) FNAC
(c) MRI
(d) CT
(e) MRA

33- The pharyngeal opening of auditory tube is opened by contraction of

A. tensor tympani muscle
B. levator palati muscle
C. tensor palati muscle
D. Salpingopharyngeus muscle
E. Both A AND B

34- In Paracusis Welesii

A. The patient hears better in quiet places.
B. The patient hears better in noisy places.
C. The patient has sensori-neural hearing loss.
D. The patient cannot tolerate loud sound.
E. The patient had vertigo on lifting heavy weight

35- A 19 years old female presented with anosmia and crusty nose. Her mother
described bad odor of her daughter’s nose. The most likely diagnosis is
A. rhinoscleroma
B. foreign body in the nose
C. chronic sinusitis.
D. Ulcerated mass
E. atrophic rhinitis

36- The diagnostic value of ABR ( auditory brain stem response ) is best shown
with :
A. Otosclerosis
B. Post meningitis hearing loss
C. Vestibular schwannoma
D. meniere's disease
E. non is true

37- Pott’s puffy tumor is:

A. Osteomyelitis of the outer table of the frontal sinus with a subperiosteal abscess
B. Osteomyelitis of the inner table of the frontal sinus with a subperiosteal abscess
C. Osteomyelitis of the outer table of the frontal sinus with a periosteal abscess
D. Osteomyelitis of the inner table of the frontal sinus with a periosteal abscess
E. Osteomyelitis of the orbital plate of frontal bone with a subperiosteal abscess

38- Warthin's tumour of the parotid all true except

A. is seldom bilateral
B. is primarily a tumour of men
C. is usually located in the tail of the parotid
D. usually makes up 10% of benign parotid tumours
E. seldom recurs after surgery

39- Which of the following is NOT a boundary of the pre-epiglottic space?

A. Thyroid cartilage
B. Aryepiglottic fold
C. Hyoepiglottic ligament
D. Thyroepiglottic ligament
E. Hyoid bone

40- Frey's syndrome is secondary to injury of which of the following?

A. Jacobsen's nerve
B. Pre-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers from CN IX via the auriculotemporal nerve of
CN V
C. Post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers from CN IX via the auriculotemporal nerve of
CN V
D. Pre-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers from CN VII via the auriculotemporal nerve of
CN V
E. Post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers from CN VII via the auriculotemporal nerve
of CN V

41- Facial recess is:

A. Space between the incus and malleus.
B. Space between the facial nerve and the chorda tympani.
C. Junction of the middle fossa dura and the sigmoid sinus.
D. Space between the facial nerve and posterior semicircular canal.
E. Space between pyramidal process and subiculum

42- How many times louder is 60 dB than 0 dB?

A. 100 times
B. 1000times
C. 10000times
D. 100000 times
E. 1000000times

43- The origin of the summating potential is the

A. hair cells
B. stria vascularis
C. auditory nerve
D. supporting cells
E. cochlear nucleus

44- The utricle is primarily sensitive to

a. vertical movement
b. angular movement
c. circular movement
d. linear movement
e. spatial movement

45- Which ganglion lies in the Meckel cave

a. Scarpa ganglion
b. trigeminal ganglion
c. nodose ganglion
d. otic ganglion
e. olfactory ganglion

46- Endolymph of the cochlea is produced by:

a. Scala media.
b. Scala tympani.
c. Stria vascularis.
d. Organ of Corti.
e. Basilar membrane.

47- Frontal sinusitis in a 2 year old child can be caused by:

A. Repeated colds
B. Large adenoids
C. Measles
D. Dental sac infection
E. None of the above.
48- The most common site within the hypopharynx for cancer to develop is the:
A. Posterior wall
B. Aryepiglottic fold
C. Postcricoid area
D. pyriform fossa
E. Vallecula

49- The most common type of malignancy of the palatine tonsils is:
A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
B. Hodgkin's lymphoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
E. Lymphoepithelioma

50- A patient has bilateral conductive deafness, tinnitus with positive family history.
The diagnosis is
A. Otospongiosis
B. Tympanosclerosis
C. Meniere’s disease
D. B/L otitis media
E. SCCC dehiscence

51- Which of the semicircular canals are paired synergistically?

A. Right horizontal with left superior
B. Right posterior with left posterior
C. Right posterior with left anterior
D. Left posterior with right horizontal
E. A & D are true
52- Virus responsible for juvenile papillomatosis of larynx is
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Ebstein-Barr virus
C. Adenovirus
D. Papovavirus
E. None of the above

53- Vasomotor rhinitis all true except

A. It is a type of allergic reaction
B. Clinically simulate nasal allergy
C. Nasal mucosa generally congested & hypertrophic
D. Hypertrophy of inferior turbinate is commonly present
E. Anti-histaminics & oral nasal decongestant are used in treatment

54- Secondary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy develops:

A. Within 12 hrs
B. Within 1 day
C. Within 7 days
D. Within 15 days
E. Within 1 month
55- Which of the following statements about Microtia is false?
a. Microtia occurs in approximately 1 in 10.000 live births
b. The right ear is most commonly affected
c. Girls are more often affected than boys
d. Unilateral occurrence is more common than bilateral
e. Microtia is often associated with other congenital abnormalities

56- Cochlea is connected to saccule via:

A. Crus communis.
B. Endolymphatic duct.
C. Ductus reunis.
 D. Lateral semicircular canal.
E. Helicotrema

57- The following lesions may cause referred otalgia except

A. Fibrositis of the upper portion of the sternomastoid muscle via the fibers of
C1
B. A high septal deviation causing pressure on the middle turbinate.
C. Parotid and submandibular calculi.
D. Acute sphenoidal and maxillary sinusitis.
E. eagle's syndrome
F.
58- Maxillary sinusitis of dental inflammatory conditions represents
A. 1-3%
B. 10%
C. 30%
D. 50%
E. 70%

59- What is the name of the area where the septum articulates with the nasal bones
A. Bridge
B. Keystone
C. Fixter
D. Crest
E. Glabella

60- The most common cause of pulsatile tinnitus is

A. Glomus jugulare
B. Carotid body tumor
C. Benign intracranial hypertension
D. Atherosclerosis of the carotid artery
E. Glomus tympanicum

61- 52. Which of the following is the most common complication after pediatric
tonsillectomy?
A. VPI
B. Oropharyngeal stenosis
C. Bleeding
D. Dehydration
E. Infection of site of surgery

62- In the evaluation of patients with maxillary sinus carcinoma, Ohngren's line can
be drawn between?
A. The lateral and medial vault of the maxillary sinus
B. The angle of the mandible and the medial canthus
C. The infraorbital foramen and the nasal spine
D. The maxillary tuberosity and the condyle of the mandible
E. The inferior turbinate and the lateral canthus

63- Which of the following are contraindications to skin prick allergy testing?
A. Patient taking antihistamines
B. Patient with severe eczema
C. Patient with dermatographism
D. Patient with severe anaphylaxis
E. All of the above

64- The rare complication of atlantoaxial subluxation seen after adenotonsillectomy

is known as which of the following?
A. Grisel syndrome
B. Gaucher disease
C. Gilbert syndrome
D. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome
E. trottman syndrome

65- Which of the following is not true about antro-choanal polyp?

A. More common in children and adolescents.
B. Usually associated with maxillary sinusitis
C. Usually it is single.
D. Usually has high recurrence rate after removal.
E. The exact cause still obscure.

66- The main factor that is responsible for diffuse otitis externa is:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hot climate
C. Local trauma
D. High humidity
E. Wax accumulation
67- The rate and direction of mucociliary transport in the nasal airway is:
A. 3-35 mm/min posteriorly.
B. 3-35 mm/min anteriorly.
C. 50-80 mm/min posteriorly.
D. 50-80 mm/min anteriorly.
E. 3-15 cm mm/min posteriorly.

68- What sign is associated with temporal bone fractures?

A. Bocca's sign
B. Battle's sign
C. Stankiewick's sign
D. Hitselberger's sign
E. Aquino's sign

69- Lyre sign may be detected in contrast pictures of:

A. Glomus tumor
B. Warthin' s tumor
C. Verrucous tumor
D. Carotid body tumor
E. Supraglottic tumor

70- A patient with anosmia should respond to inhalation of:

A. Oil of lemon
B. Ammonia
C. Coffee
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

71- Symptoms of septal perforation may not include:

A. Whistiling
B. Crusting
C. Nasal discharge
D. Obstruction
E. All are symptoms of septal perforaton
72- CHARGE association in choanalatresia includes all except:
A. Ear deformities
B. Genital hypopalsia
C. Colobomatous blindness
D. Radial dysplasia
E. Retarded growth and development

73- Osteomeatal complex is formed of all except:

A. Concha bullosa.
B. Fovea ethmoidalis.
C. Hiatus semilunaris.
D. Bulla ethmoidalis
E. Uncinate plate

74- The following symptoms are true of primary atrophic rhinitis except:
A. bad odor felt by the patient
B. bad odor felt by others
C. epistaxis
D. sense of nasal obstruction
E. crustation

75- Following a left carotid endarterectomy a 74-year-old patient is noted to have

developed speech problems. He seems able to understand what is said but unable to
get the words out. Which area of the brain is most likely to be affected?
A. Basal ganglia
B. Broca’s area
C. Occipital cortex
D. Olfactory cortex
E. Wernicke’s area

76- the most common symptom of isolated sphenoid disease:

A. Post nasal drip
B. Diplopia
C. Headache
D. Facial numbness
E. Cough
77- The inheritance pattern of otosclerosis is
A. AR with incomplete penetrance
B. AD with complete penetrance
C. AD with incomplete penetrance
D. X- linked
E. No one of the above

78- The following is disruption of the nerve trunk

A.neurotmesis
B.axonotmesis
C.neuropraxia
D.synkinesia
E.neurotrauma

79- Bezold abscess is a collection of pus :

A. above and in front of the auricle
B. behind the auricle
C. in the upper part of the neck deep to the sternomastoid
D. in the peritonsillar space
E. Infratemporal region

80- Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis best answer :

A. This commonly involves the supraglottis .
B. It is primarily a disease of young adults.
C. It should be treated with radiotherapy to prevent recurrence.
D. Laryngectomy may be required.
E. It is caused by a HBV 3,6 .

81- Laryngocoeles all true except :

A. These are caused by dilatation of the ventricle and saccule.
B. The external variety project through the thyrohyoid membrane.
C. They can easily be demonstrated with plain X-rays.
 D. Early excision is advisable.
E. They may be caused by tumor

82- Episodes of stridor all true except:

A. Expiratory stridor usually indicates supraglottic obstruction.
B. An inhaled foreign body should be excluded.
C. A vocal cord paralysis may be present.
D. If due to laryngomalacia, the prognosis is good.
E. In an infant with a normal appearance of the larynx, an enlarged thymus
may exist.

83- A 52-year-old patient with a right Bell palsy cannot close her right eye, thus the
House-Brackmann score is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

84- The most common imaging abnormality in a child with sensorineural hearing
loss is:
A. Semicircular canal anomaly
B. Cochlear anomaly
C. Vestibular anomaly
D. Enlarged vestibular aqueduct
E. Enlarged cochlear aqueduct

85- Imaging characteristics of venous malformations in the face and neck include:
A. Hyperintensity on T2-weighted images
B. No enhancement with contrast material
C. Foci of low signal on T2-weighted images and high density on CT
D. a and c
E. a, b, and c
86- The most common location for a thyroglossal duct cyst is:
A. Infrahyoid
B. Suprahyoid, excluding intralingual
C. At the level of the hyoid
D. In the hyoid
E. In the tongue base

87- The most common organisms found to infect cholesteatomas are which of the
following?
A. Gram-negative cocci
B. Gram-positive rods
C. Acid-fast bacilli
D. Gram-negative rods
E. Yeast exhibiting septate hyphae branching at 45-degree angles

88- Which of the following are NOT features of NF2?

A. Vestibular schwannomas
B. Posterior subcapsular lenticular opacities
C. Meningioma
D. Lisch nodules
E. Cataract

89- Which of the following would cause a characteristic “washing machine” type of
stridor?
A. Laryngomalacia, tracheomalacia, foreign bodyaspiration
B. Tracheomalacia, tracheal stenosis, vascular ring
C. Vascular ring, bilateral VFP, vallecular cyst
D. Bilateral VFP, LTEC, subglottic cysts
E. Subglottic cysts, bilateral VFP, saccular cyst

90- Which of the following can lead to aphonia?

A. Laryngeal web
B. Paradoxical vocal fold motion
C. Saccular cyst
D. Choanal atresia
E. Subglottic hemangioma
91- Which of the following cause stertor ?
A. VFP
B. Nasolacrimal duct cyst
C. Posterior glottis stenosis
D. Subglottic stenosis
E. Tracheomalacia

92- The commonest benign intramural tumour of the esophagus is

A. Fibroma
B. Leiomyoma
C. Lipoma
D. Neuroma
E. Angioma

93- The key to surgical removal of a branchial cleft cyst is .

A. Aspiration of cyst prior to surgery ·
B. Transection of sternocloidomastoid muscle
C. Removal of the medial portion of hyoid bone
D. Dissection of the duct to its pharyngeal origin
E. Cautery of the base.

94- The cardinal symptoms of CRS include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Thick nasal discharge
B. Nasal obstruction
C. Facial pain/pressure
D. Decreased sense of smell
E. Fever

95- Which of the following immunoglobulins is the most efficient complement-

fixing antibody?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
 96- Keratoacanthomas require removal with adequate margin and depth for
histopathologic review because
A. Not all keratoacanthomas will involute.
B. They consist of keratinocytes with follicular features.
C. Frequent mitoses at the base of the lesion and a rapid growth phase are suggestive of
squamous cell carcinoma.
D. Involution may result in scarring.
E. All of the above

97- In which Le Fort fracture is CSF rhinorrhoea most common?

(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
(e) V

98- What is the most appropriate genetic description for one of the alternative
versions of a gene that can occupy a specific locus?
A. Genotype
B. Phenotype
C. Mosaicism
D. Allele
E. Meiosis

99- Which syndrome is characterised by incomplete development of one ear?

(a) Down syndrome
(b) Goldenhar syndrome
(c) Promin auris
(d) Treacher-collins
(e) Cri-du-chat syndrome

100- Nystagmus produced by pressure applied to a sealed EAC in a patient with

syphilic involvement of the otic capsule is known as which sign?
(a) Griesinger
(b) Brown
(c) Hitselberger
(d) Boyce
(e) Hennebert