Answer Explanations

SAT Practice Test #2

Section 1: Reading Test
QUESTION 1
Choice A is the best answer. The narrator admits that his job is
“irksome” (line 7) and reflects on the reasons for his dislike. The
narrator admits that his work is a “dry and tedious task” (line 9) and
that he has a poor relationship with his superior: “the antipathy which
had sprung up between myself and my employer striking deeper root
and spreading denser shade daily, excluded me from every glimpse of
the sunshine of life” (lines 28-31).

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the narrator does not

become increasingly competitive with his employer, publicly defend his
choice of occupation, or exhibit optimism about his job.

QUESTION 2
Choice B is the best answer. The first sentence of the passage
explains that people do not like to admit when they’ve chosen the
wrong profession and that they will continue in their profession for
a while before admitting their unhappiness. This statement mirrors
the narrator’s own situation, as the narrator admits he finds his own
occupation “irksome” (line 7) but that he might “long have borne with
the nuisance” (line 10) if not for his poor relationship with his employer.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the first sentence does

not discuss a controversy, focus on the narrator’s employer, Edward
Crimsworth, or provide any evidence of malicious conduct.

QUESTION 3
Choice C is the best answer. The first paragraph shifts from a general
discussion of how people deal with choosing an occupation they later
regret (lines 1-6) to the narrator’s description of his own dissatisfaction
with his occupation (lines 6-33).

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the first paragraph does

not focus on the narrator’s self-doubt, his expectations of life as a
tradesman, or his identification of alternatives to his current occupation.

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QUESTION 4
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 27-33, the narrator is describing
the hostile relationship between him and his superior, Edward
Crimsworth. This relationship causes the narrator to feel like he lives
in the “shade” and in “humid darkness.” These words evoke the
narrator’s feelings of dismay toward his current occupation and his
poor relationship with his superior — factors that cause him to live
without “the sunshine of life.”

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the words “shade” and

“darkness” do not reflect the narrator’s sinister thoughts, his fear of
confinement, or his longing for rest.

QUESTION 5
Choice D is the best answer. The narrator states that Crimsworth
dislikes him because the narrator may “one day make a successful
tradesman” (line 43). Crimsworth recognizes that the narrator is not
“inferior to him” but rather more intelligent, someone who keeps “the
padlock of silence on mental wealth in which [Crimsworth] was no
sharer” (lines 44-48). Crimsworth feels inferior to the narrator and is
jealous of the narrator’s intellectual and professional abilities.

Choices A and C are incorrect because the narrator is not described

as exhibiting “high spirits” or “rash actions,” but “Caution, Tact, [and]
Observation” (line 51). Choice B is incorrect because the narrator’s
“humble background” is not discussed.

QUESTION 6
Choice B is the best answer. Lines 61-62 state that the narrator “had
long ceased to regard Mr. Crimsworth as my brother.” In these lines,
the term “brother” means friend or ally, which suggests that the
narrator and Crimsworth were once friendly toward one another.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the narrator originally
viewed Crimsworth as a friend, or ally, and later as a hostile superior;
he never viewed Crimsworth as a harmless rival, perceptive judge, or
demanding mentor.

QUESTION 7
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 61-62, the narrator states that
he once regarded Mr. Crimsworth as his “brother.” This statement
provides evidence that the narrator originally viewed Crimsworth as a
sympathetic ally.

Choices A, B, and C do not provide the best evidence for the claim
that Crimsworth was a sympathetic ally. Rather, choices A, B, and
C provide evidence of the hostile relationship that currently exists
between the narrator and Crimsworth.

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QUESTION 8
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 48-53, the narrator states that he
exhibited “Caution, Tact, [and] Observation” at work and watched Mr.
Crimsworth with “lynx-eyes.” The narrator acknowledges that Crimsworth
was “prepared to steal snake-like” if he caught the narrator acting
without tact or being disrespectful toward his superiors (lines 53-56).
Thus, Crimsworth was trying to find a reason to place the narrator “in a
ridiculous or mortifying position” (lines 49-50) by accusing the narrator of
acting unprofessionally. The use of the lynx and snake serve to emphasize
the narrator and Crimsworth’s adversarial, or hostile, relationship.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the description of the lynx and
snake does not contrast two hypothetical courses of action or convey
a resolution. Choice C is incorrect because while lines 48-56 suggest
that Crimsworth is trying to find a reason to fault the narrator’s work,
they do not imply that an altercation, or heated dispute, between the
narrator and Crimsworth is likely to occur.

QUESTION 9
Choice B is the best answer. Lines 73-74 state that the narrator
noticed there was no “cheering red gleam” of fire in his sitting-room
fireplace. The lack of a “cheering,” or comforting, fire suggests that the
narrator sometimes found his lodgings to be dreary or bleak.

Choices A and D are incorrect because the narrator does not find his
living quarters to be treacherous or intolerable. Choice C is incorrect
because while the narrator is walking home he speculates about the
presence of a fire in his sitting-room’s fireplace (lines 69-74), which
suggests that he could not predict the state of his living quarters.

QUESTION 10
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 68-74, the narrator states that he
did not see the “cheering” glow of a fire in his sitting-room fireplace.
This statement provides evidence that the narrator views his lodgings
as dreary or bleak.

Choices A, B, and C do not provide the best evidence that the narrator
views his lodgings as dreary. Choices A and C are incorrect because
they do not provide the narrator’s opinion of his lodgings, and choice B
is incorrect because lines 21-23 describe the narrator’s lodgings only
as “small.”

QUESTION 11
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 11-12, the author introduces the
main purpose of the passage, which is to examine the “different views
on where ethics should apply when someone makes an economic
decision.” The passage examines what historical figures Adam Smith,
Aristotle, and John Stuart Mill believed about the relationship between
ethics and economics.

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Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they identify certain points

addressed in the passage (cost-benefit analysis, ethical economic
behavior, and the role of the free market), but do not describe the
passage’s main purpose.

QUESTION 12
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 4-5, the author suggests that
people object to criticizing ethics in free markets because they believe
free markets are inherently ethical, and therefore, the role of ethics in
free markets is unnecessary to study. In the opinion of the critics, free
markets are ethical because they allow individuals to make their own
choices about which goods to purchase and which goods to sell.

Choices A and B are incorrect because they are not objections that
criticize the ethics of free markets. Choice C is incorrect because
the author does not present the opinion that free markets depend on
devalued currency.

QUESTION 13
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 4-5, the author states that some
people believe that free markets are “already ethical” because they
“allow for personal choice.” This statement provides evidence that
some people believe criticizing the ethics of free markets is unnecessary
because free markets permit individuals to make their own choices.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the best
evidence of an objection to a critique of the ethics of free markets.

QUESTION 14
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 6-7, the author states that people
“have accepted the ethical critique and embraced corporate social
responsibility.” In this context, people “embrace,” or readily adopt,
corporate social responsibility by acting in a certain way.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in this context “embraced”

does not mean lovingly held, eagerly hugged, or reluctantly used.

QUESTION 15
Choice C is the best answer. The third and fourth paragraphs of the
passage present Adam Smith’s and Aristotle’s different approaches
to defining ethics in economics. The fifth paragraph offers a third
approach to defining ethical economics, how “instead of rooting ethics
in character or the consequences of actions, we can focus on our
actions themselves. From this perspective some things are right, some
wrong” (lines 45-48).

Choice A is incorrect because the fifth paragraph does not develop

a counterargument. Choices B and D are incorrect because although
“character” is briefly mentioned in the fifth paragraph, its relationship
to ethics is examined in the fourth paragraph.

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QUESTION 16
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 57-59, the author states that
“Many moral dilemmas arise when these three versions pull in different
directions but clashes are not inevitable.” In this context, the three
different perspectives on ethical economics may “clash,” or conflict,
with one another.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context “clashes”

does not mean mismatches, collisions, or brawls.

QUESTION 17
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 59-64, the author states,
“Take fair trade coffee . . . for example: buying it might have good
consequences, be virtuous, and also be the right way to act in a
flawed market.” The author is suggesting that in the example of fair
trade coffee, all three perspectives about ethical economics — Adam
Smith’s belief in consequences dictating action, Aristotle’s emphasis
on character, and the third approach emphasizing the virtue of good
actions — can be applied. These three approaches share “common
ground” (line 64), as they all can be applied to the example of fair trade
coffee without contradicting one another.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not show how the
three different approaches to ethical economics share common ground.
Choice A simply states that there are “different views on ethics” in
economics, choice B explains the third ethical economics approach,
and choice D suggests that people “behave like a herd” when
considering economics.

QUESTION 18
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 83-88, the author states that
psychology can help “define ethics for us,” which can help explain why
people “react in disgust at economic injustice, or accept a moral law as
universal.”

Choices A and B are incorrect because they identify topics discussed

in the final paragraph (human quirks and people’s reaction to economic
injustice) but not its main idea. Choice D is incorrect because the final
paragraph does not suggest that economists may be responsible for
reforming the free market.

QUESTION 19
Choice A is the best answer. The data in the graph show that in
Tanzania between the years 2000 and 2008, fair trade coffee profits
were around $1.30 per pound, while profits of regular coffee were in the
approximate range of 20–60 cents per pound.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not supported by

information in the graph.

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QUESTION 20
Choice B is the best answer. The data in the graph indicate that between
2002 and 2004 the difference in per-pound profits between fair trade and
regular coffee was about $1. In this time period, fair trade coffee was valued
at around $1.30 per pound and regular coffee was valued at around 20 cents
per pound. The graph also shows that regular coffee recorded the lowest
profits between the years 2002 and 2004, while fair trade coffee remained
relatively stable throughout the entire eight-year span (2000 to 2008).

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate the greatest
difference between per-pound profits for fair trade and regular coffee.

QUESTION 21
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 59-61, the author defines fair
trade coffee as “coffee that is sold with a certification that indicates
the farmers and workers who produced it were paid a fair wage.”
This definition suggests that purchasing fair trade coffee is an
ethically responsible choice, and the fact that fair trade coffee is being
produced and is profitable suggests that ethical economics is still a
consideration. The graph’s data support this claim by showing how fair
trade coffee was more than twice as profitable as regular coffee.

Choice A is incorrect because the graph suggests that people acting on

empathy (by buying fair trade coffee) is productive for fair trade coffee
farmers and workers. Choices B and D are incorrect because the graph
does not provide support for the idea that character or people’s fears
factor into economic choices.

QUESTION 22
Choice C is the best answer. The author of Passage 1 indicates that
people can benefit from using screen-based technologies as these
technologies strengthen “certain cognitive skills” (line 3) and the
“brain functions related to fast-paced problem solving” (lines 14-15).
Choice A is incorrect because the author of Passage 1 cites numerous
studies of screen-based technologies. Choice B is incorrect because it
is not supported by Passage 1, and choice D is incorrect because while
the author mentions some benefits to screen-based technologies, he
does not encourage their use.

QUESTION 23
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 3-4, the author of Passage 1
provides evidence that the use of screen-based technologies has some
positive effects: “Certain cognitive skills are strengthened by our use of
computers and the Net.”

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the best
evidence that the use of screen-based technologies has some positive
effects. Choices B, C, and D introduce and describe the author’s
reservations about screen-based technologies.

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QUESTION 24
Choice B is the best answer. The author of Passage 1 cites Patricia
Greenfield’s study, which found that people’s use of screen-based
technologies weakened their ability to acquire knowledge, perform
“inductive analysis” and “critical thinking,” and be imaginative and
reflective (lines 34-38). The author of Passage 1 concludes that the use
of screen-based technologies interferes with people’s ability to think
“deeply” (lines 47-50).

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the author of Passage 1

does not address how using the Internet affects people’s health, social
contacts, or self-confidence.

QUESTION 25
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 39-41, the author states,
“We know that the human brain is highly plastic; neurons and
synapses change as circumstances change.” In this context, the brain
is “plastic” because it is malleable, or able to change.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in this context “plastic”

does not mean creative, artificial, or sculptural.

QUESTION 26
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 60-65, the author of Passage 2
explains how speed-reading does not “revamp,” or alter, how the brain
processes information. He supports this statement by explaining how
Woody Allen’s reading of War and Peace in one sitting caused him to
describe the novel as “about Russia.” Woody Allen was not able to
comprehend the “famously long” novel by speed-reading it.

Choices A and D are incorrect because Woody Allen’s description of

War and Peace does not suggest he disliked Tolstoy’s writing style or
that he regretted reading the book. Choice C is incorrect because the
anecdote about Woody Allen is unrelated to multitasking.

QUESTION 27
Choice D is the best answer. The author of Passage 2 states that
people like novelists and scientists improve in their profession by
“immers[ing] themselves in their fields” (line 79). Both novelists and
scientists, in other words, become absorbed in their areas of expertise.

Choices A and C are incorrect because the author of Passage 2 does

not suggest that novelists and scientists both take risks when they
pursue knowledge or are curious about other subjects. Choice B is
incorrect because the author of Passage 2 states that “accomplished
people” don’t perform “intellectual calisthenics,” or exercises that
improve their minds (lines 77-78).

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QUESTION 28
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 83-90, the author of Passage 2
criticizes media critics for their alarmist writing: “Media critics
write as if the brain takes on the qualities of whatever it consumes,
the informational equivalent of ‘you are what you eat.’ ” The author
then compares media critics’ “you are what you eat” mentality to
ancient people’s belief that “eating fierce animals made them fierce.”
The author uses this analogy to discredit media critics’ belief that
consumption of electronic media alters the brain.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the final sentence of

Passage 2 does not use ornate language, employ humor, or evoke
nostalgia for the past.

QUESTION 29
Choice D is the best answer. The author of Passage 1 argues that online
and other screen-based technologies affect people’s abilities to think deeply
(lines 47-50). The author of Passage 2 argues that the effects of consuming
electronic media are less drastic than media critics suggest (lines 81-82).

Choices A and B are incorrect because they discuss points made in

the passages but not the main purpose of the passages. Choice C
is incorrect because neither passage argues in favor of increasing
financial support for certain studies.

QUESTION 30
Choice B is the best answer. The author of Passage 1 cites scientific
research that suggests online and screen-based technologies have
a negative effect on the brain (lines 25-38). The author of Passage 2
is critical of the research highlighted in Passage 1: “Critics of new
media sometimes use science itself to press their case, citing research
that shows how ‘experience can change the brain.’ But cognitive
neuroscientists roll their eyes at such talk” (lines 51-54).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately
describe the relationship between the two passages. Passage 1 does
not take a clinical approach to the topic. Passage 2 does not take a
high-level view of a finding examined in depth in Passage 1, nor does
it predict negative reactions to the findings discussed in paragraph 1.

QUESTION 31
Choice C is the best answer. In Passage 1, the author cites psychologist
Patricia Greenfield’s finding that “‘every medium develops some
cognitive skills at the expense of others’” (lines 29-31). In Passage 2,
the author states “If you train people to do one thing (recognize shapes,
solve math puzzles, find hidden words), they get better at doing that
thing, but almost nothing else” (lines 71-74). Both authors would agree
than an improvement in one cognitive area, such as visual-spatial skills,
would not result in improved skills in other areas.

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Choice A is incorrect because hand-eye coordination is not discussed

in Passage 2. Choice B is incorrect because Passage 1 does not
suggest that critics of electronic media tend to overreact. Choice D is
incorrect because neither passage discusses whether Internet users
prefer reading printed texts or digital texts.

QUESTION 32
Choice B is the best answer. In Passage 1, the author cites Michael
Merzenich’s claim that when people adapt to a new cultural
phenomenon, including the use of a new medium, we end up with
a “different brain” (lines 41-43). The author of Passage 2 somewhat
agrees with Merzenich’s claim by stating, “Yes, every time we learn a
fact or skill the wiring of the brain changes” (lines 54-56).

Choices A, C, and D do not provide the best evidence that the author
of Passage 2 would agree to some extent with Merzenich’s claim.
Choices A and D are incorrect because the claims are attributed to
critics of new media. Choice C is incorrect because it shows that the
author of Passage 2 does not completely agree with Merzenich’s claim
about brain plasticity.

QUESTION 33
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 15-30, Stanton argues that men
make all the decisions in “the church, the state, and the home.” This
absolute power has led to a disorganized society, a “fragmentary
condition of everything.” Stanton confirms this claim when she states
that society needs women to “lift man up into the higher realms of
thought and action” (lines 59-60).

Choices A and D are incorrect because Stanton does not focus on

women’s lack of equal educational opportunities or inability to hold
political positions. Choice C is incorrect because although Stanton
implies women are not allowed to vote, she never mentions that “poor
candidates” are winning elections.

QUESTION 34
Choice A is the best answer. Stanton argues that women are repressed
in society because men hold “high carnival,” or have all the power, and
make the rules in “the church, the state, and the home” (lines 15-30).
Stanton claims that men have total control over women, “overpowering
the feminine element everywhere” (line 17).

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Stanton does not use the
term “high carnival” to emphasize that the time period is freewheeling,
or unrestricted; that there has been a scandalous decline in moral
values; or that the power of women is growing.

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QUESTION 35
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 15-22, Stanton states that men’s
absolute rule in society is “crushing out all the diviner qualities in
human nature,” such that society knows very “little of true manhood
and womanhood.” Stanton argues that society knows less about
womanhood than manhood, because womanhood has “scarce been
recognized as a power until within the last century.” This statement
indicates that society’s acknowledgment of “womanhood,” or women’s
true character, is a fairly recent historical development.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Stanton describes men’s

control of society, their domination of the domestic sphere, and the
prevalence of war and injustice as long-established realities.

QUESTION 36
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 15-22, Stanton provides evidence
for the claim that society’s acknowledgment of “womanhood,” or
women’s true character, is a fairly recent historical development:
“[womanhood] has scarce been recognized as a power until within the
last century.”

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the best
evidence that society’s acknowledgment of “womanhood,” or women’s
true character, is a fairly recent historical development. Rather,
choices A, C, and D discuss men’s character, power, and influence.

QUESTION 37
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 22-25, Stanton states, “Society
is but the reflection of man himself, untempered by woman’s thought;
the hard iron rule we feel alike in the church, the state, and the home.”
In this context, man’s “rule” in “the church, the state, and the home”
means that men have a controlling force in all areas of society.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in this context “rule” does
not mean a general guideline, an established habit, or a procedural
method.

QUESTION 38
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 31-34, Stanton argues that
people use the term “the strong-minded” to refer to women who
advocate for “the right of suffrage,” or the right to vote in elections.
In this context, people use the term “the strong-minded” to criticize
female suffragists, as they believe voting will make women too
“masculine.”

Choices A and B are incorrect because Stanton does not suggest that
people use the term “the strong-minded” as a compliment. Choice C is
incorrect because Stanton suggests that “the strong-minded” is a term
used to criticize women who want to vote, not those who enter male-
dominated professions.

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QUESTION 39
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 35-38, Stanton states that society
contains hardly any women in the “best sense,” and clarifies that too
many women are “reflections, varieties, and dilutions of the masculine
gender.” Stanton is suggesting that there are few “best,” or genuine,
women who are not completely influenced or controlled by men.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in this context “best” does

not mean superior, excellent, or rarest.

QUESTION 40
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 53-55, Stanton argues that
man “mourns,” or regrets, how his power has caused “falsehood,
selfishness, and violence” to become the “law” of society. Stanton is
arguing that men are lamenting, or expressing regret about, how their
governance has created problems.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Stanton does not suggest

that men are advocating for women’s right to vote or for female
equality, nor are they requesting women’s opinions about improving
civic life.

QUESTION 41
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 53-55, Stanton provides evidence
that men are lamenting the problems they have created, as they
recognize that their actions have caused “falsehood, selfishness, and
violence [to become] the law of life.”

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the

best evidence that men are lamenting the problems they have created.
Choice A explains society’s current fragmentation. Choices C and D
present Stanton’s main argument for women’s enfranchisement.

QUESTION 42
Choice D is the best answer. In the sixth paragraph, Stanton
differentiates between men and masculine traits. Stanton argues that
masculine traits or “characteristics,” such as a “love of acquisition
and ­conquest,” serve to “subjugate one man to another” (lines 67-78).
Stanton is ­suggesting that some masculine traits position men within
certain power structures.

Choices A and B are incorrect because the sixth paragraph does not
primarily establish a contrast between men and women or between the
spiritual and material worlds. Choice C is incorrect because although
Stanton argues that not “all men are hard, selfish, and brutal,” she
does not discuss what constitutes a “good” man.

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QUESTION 43
Choice C is the best answer. In the first paragraph, the author
identifies the natural phenomenon “internal waves” (line 3), and
explains why they are important: “internal waves are fundamental
parts of ocean water dynamics, transferring heat to the ocean depths
and bringing up cold water from below” (lines 7-9).

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not identify the

main purpose of the first paragraph, as that paragraph does not focus
on a scientific device, a common misconception, or a recent study.

QUESTION 44
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 17-19, researcher Tom Peacock
argues that in order to create precise global climate models, scientists
must be able to “capture processes” such as how internal waves are
formed. In this context, to “capture” a process means to record it for
scientific study.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in this context “capture”

does not mean to control, secure, or absorb.

QUESTION 45
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 17-19, researcher Tom Peacock
argues that scientists need to “capture processes” of internal waves
to develop “more and more accurate climate models.” Peacock is
suggesting that studying internal waves will inform the development of
scientific models.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Peacock does not state that
monitoring internal waves will allow people to verify wave heights,
improve satellite image quality, or prevent coastal damage.

QUESTION 46
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 17-19, researcher Tom Peacock
provides evidence that studying internal waves will inform the development
of key scientific models, such as “more accurate climate models.”

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the best
evidence that studying internal waves will inform the development of
key scientific models; rather, they provide general information about
internal waves.

QUESTION 47
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 65-67, the author notes that Tom
Peacock and his team “were able to devise a mathematical model that
describes the movement and formation of these waves.” In this context,
the researchers devised, or created, a mathematical model.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context “devise” does

not mean to solve, imagine, or begin.

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QUESTION 48
Choice B is the best answer. Tom Peacock and his team created a
model of the “Luzon’s Strait’s underwater topography” and determined
that its “distinct double-ridge shape . . . [is] responsible for generating
the underwater [internal] waves” (lines 53-55). The author notes that
this model describes only internal waves in the Luzon Strait but that
the team’s findings may “help researchers understand how internal
waves are generated in other places around the world” (lines 67-70).
The author’s claim suggests that while internal waves in the Luzon
Strait are “some of the largest in the world” (line 25) due to the region’s
topography, internal waves occurring in other regions may be caused
by some similar factors.

Choice A is incorrect because the author notes that the internal waves
in the Luzon Strait are “some of the largest in the world” (line 25),
which suggests that internal waves reach varying heights. Choices C
and D are incorrect because they are not supported by the researchers’
findings.

QUESTION 49
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 67-70, the author provides
evidence that, while the researchers’ findings suggest the internal
waves in the Luzon Strait are influenced by the region’s topography,
the findings may “help researchers understand how internal waves are
generated in other places around the world.” This statement suggests
that all internal waves may be caused by some similar factors.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the

best evidence that internal waves are caused by similar factors but
influenced by the distinct topographies of different regions. Rather,
choices A, B, and C reference general information about internal waves
or focus solely on those that occur in the Luzon Strait.

QUESTION 50
Choice D is the best answer. During the period 19:12 to 20:24, the
graph shows the 13°C isotherm increasing in depth from about 20 to
40 meters.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because during the time period 19:12
to 20:24 the 9°C, 10°C, and 11°C isotherms all decreased in depth.

QUESTION 51
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 3-6, the author notes that
internal waves “do not ride the ocean surface” but “move underwater,
undetectable without the use of satellite imagery or sophisticated
monitoring equipment.” The graph shows that the isotherms in an
internal wave never reach the ocean’s surface, as the isotherms do not
record a depth of 0.

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Choice A is incorrect because the graph provides no information about

salinity. Choice B is incorrect because the graph shows layers of less
dense water (which, based on the passage, are warmer) riding above
layers of denser water (which, based on the passage, are cooler).
Choice C is incorrect because the graph shows that internal waves
push isotherms of warmer water above bands of colder water.

QUESTION 52
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 7-9, the author notes that internal
waves are “fundamental parts of ocean water dynamics” because
they transfer “heat to the ocean depths and brin[g] up cold water from
below.” The graph shows an internal wave forcing the warm isotherms
to depths that typically are colder. For example, at 13:12, the internal
wave transfers “heat to the ocean depths” by forcing the 10°C, 11°C,
and 13°C isotherms to depths that typically are colder.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the graph does not show
how internal waves affect the ocean’s density, surface temperature, or
tide flow.

Section 2: Writing and Language Test

QUESTION 1
Choice B is the best answer because it provides a noun, “reductions,”
yielding a grammatically complete and coherent sentence.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each provides a verb or

gerund, while the underlined portion calls for a noun.

QUESTION 2
Choice B is the best answer because it offers a transitional adverb,
“Consequently,” that communicates a cause-effect relationship
between the funding reduction identified in the previous sentence and
the staffing decrease described in this sentence.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each misidentifies the

relationship between the preceding sentence and the sentence of which
it is a part.

QUESTION 3
Choice A is the best answer because the singular verb “has” agrees
with the singular noun “trend” that appears earlier in the sentence.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the plural verb “have” does
not agree with the singular subject “trend,” and the relative pronoun
“which” unnecessarily interrupts the direct relationship between
“trend” and the verb.

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 Answer Explanations | SAT Practice Test #2

QUESTION 4
Choice A is the best answer because it states accurately why the
proposed clause should be added to the sentence. Without these
specific examples, readers have only a vague sense of what “nonprint”
formats might be.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each represents a

misinterpretation of the relationship between the proposed clause to be
added and the surrounding text in the passage.

QUESTION 5
Choice D is the best answer because it includes only the preposition
and noun that the sentence requires.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each includes an

unnecessary pronoun, either “them” or “their.” The sentence contains
no referents that would circulate e-books.

QUESTION 6
Choice D is the best answer because the verb form “cataloging”
parallels the other verbs in the series.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each interrupts the parallel

structure in the verb series, either through an incorrect verb form or
with an unnecessary subject.

QUESTION 7
Choice B is the best answer because it consolidates references to
the subject, “librarians,” by placing the relative pronoun “whose”
immediately following “librarians.” This results in a logical flow of
information within the sentence.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each fails to place

“librarians” as the main subject of the sentence without redundancy,
resulting in a convoluted sentence whose relevance to the preceding
and subsequent sentences is unclear.

QUESTION 8
Choice D is the best answer because no conjunction is necessary to
communicate the relationship between the clauses in the sentence. The
conjunction “While” at the beginning of the sentence already creates a
comparison.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each provides an

unnecessary coordinating conjunction.

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QUESTION 9
Choice B is the best answer because it mentions time periods when
the free services described later in the sentence are particularly useful
to library patrons.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each creates redundancy or

awkwardness in the remainder of the sentence.

QUESTION 10
Choice B is the best answer because it is concise; it is also consistent
with the formal language in the rest of the sentence and the passage
overall.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each is either unnecessarily

wordy or uses colloquial language that does not correspond with the
tone of the passage.

QUESTION 11
Choice C is the best answer because it restates the writer’s primary
argument, which may be found at the end of the first paragraph: “As
public libraries adapt to rapid technological advances in information
distribution, librarians’ roles are actually expanding.”

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not paraphrase the

­writer’s primary claim.

QUESTION 12
Choice B is the best answer because it clarifies that the sentence,
which mentions a specific large-scale painting at the Art Institute of
Chicago, is an example supporting the preceding claim about large-
scale paintings.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they propose transitional

words or phrases that do not accurately represent the relationship
between the preceding sentence and the sentence containing the
underlined portion.

QUESTION 13
Choice D is the best answer because no punctuation is necessary in
the underlined phrase.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each separates parts of

the noun phrase “painter Georges Seurat’s 10-foot-wide A Sunday
Afternoon on the Island of La Grande Jatte” from one another with one
or more unnecessary commas.

QUESTION 14
Choice C is the best answer because it provides the appropriate
possessive form, “its,” and a colon to introduce the identifying phrase
that follows.

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 Answer Explanations | SAT Practice Test #2

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none contains both the

appropriate possessive form of “it” and the punctuation that creates a
grammatically standard sentence.

QUESTION 15
Choice C is the best answer because an analysis of the consequences
of King Louis XV’s reign is irrelevant to the paragraph.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each represents a

misinterpretation of the relationship between the proposed sentence to
be added and the main point of the paragraph.

QUESTION 16
Choice C is the best answer because it provides a coordinating
conjunction, “and,” to connect the two verb phrases “are
characterized” and “are covered.”

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each lacks the conjunction

needed to connect the two verb phrases “are characterized” and “are
covered.”

QUESTION 17
Choice B is the best answer because it offers an example of an
additional household item, a “tea cup,” with a specific measurement
that is one-twelfth of its actual size.

Choices A, C, D are incorrect because, compared to the example

preceding the underlined portion, each is vague and fails to offer a
specific measurement of an additional household item.

QUESTION 18
Choice B is the best answer because it provides correct punctuation
and the coordinating conjunction “but,” which acknowledges the
possible contrast between being “sparsely furnished” and displaying
“just as true” period details.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each communicates an

illogical relationship between the phrases that precede and follow the
underlined portion.

QUESTION 19
Choice A is the best answer because it provides a clause that is the
most similar to the two preceding clauses, which both end with a
reference to a specific wall.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each deviates from the

stylistic pattern of the preceding two clauses.

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PART 4 | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations

QUESTION 20
Choice D is the best answer because the article “a” requires the
singular noun “visitor,” and the simple present verb “remark” is the
appropriate verb tense in this context.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each contains either a noun

or verb that does not fit the context.

QUESTION 21
Choice D is the best answer because it identifies the drawers, rather
than the visitor, as being “dotted with pin-sized knobs.”

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because all three contain dangling

modifiers that obscure the relationship between the visitor, the
drawers, and the pin-sized knobs.

QUESTION 22
Choice B is the best answer because paragraph 3 offers an overview of
the exhibit and so serves to introduce the specific aspects of particular
miniature rooms described in paragraphs 2 and 4.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each proposes a placement

of paragraph 2 that prevents the passage from developing in a logical
sequence.

QUESTION 23
Choice A is the best answer because it correctly completes the noun
phrase that begins with “sea otters,” and directly follows the noun
phrase with the verb “help.”

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each separates the noun

“otters” from the verb “help” in a way that results in a grammatically
incomplete sentence.

QUESTION 24
Choice B is the best answer because the data in the chart show lower
sea urchin density in areas where sea otters have lived for two years or
less than in areas where no otters are present.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because none accurately describes

the data in the chart.

QUESTION 25
Choice B is the best answer because the conjunctive adverb
“however” accurately communicates the contrast between an
environment shaped by the presence of sea otters, described in the
preceding sentence, and an environment shaped by the absence of sea
otters, described in this sentence.

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 Answer Explanations | SAT Practice Test #2

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each presents a conjunctive

adverb that does not accurately depict the relationship between the
preceding sentence and the sentence with the underlined word.

QUESTION 26
Choice A is the best answer because the additional information
usefully connects the carbon dioxide levels mentioned in this sentence
with the global warming mentioned in the previous sentence.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each misinterprets the

relationship between the proposed information and the main points of
the paragraph and the passage.

QUESTION 27
Choice D is the best answer because it offers the verb “suggests”
followed directly by its object, a that-clause, without interruption.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each contains punctuation

that unnecessarily separates the study from its findings — that is,
separates the verb from its object.

QUESTION 28
Choice A is the best answer because it accurately reflects the fact
that sea urchins “graze voraciously on kelp,” as stated in the first
paragraph, and it also maintains the tone of the passage.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each offers a term that does
not accurately describe the behavior of sea otters.

QUESTION 29
Choice C is the best answer because the possessive singular pronoun
“its” corresponds with the referent “kelp,” which appears later in the
sentence, and with the possessive relationship between the pronoun
and the “terrestrial plant cousins.”

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none provides a pronoun

that is both singular and possessive.

QUESTION 30
Choice C is the best answer because it provides the noun “sea otters”
to identify who or what “played a role.”

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each provides a pronoun

that makes no sense in the context of the paragraph and the passage,
which is about the role sea otters play — not the role scientists play or
the role kelp plays.

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PART 4 | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations

QUESTION 31
Choice D is the best answer because sentence 5 indicates that sea
otters’ importance in decreasing atmospheric carbon dioxide was not
known, and the sentence to be added indicates that a surprise will
follow. Sentence 6 provides that surprise: sea otters have a large impact
on the amount of carbon dioxide kelp can remove from the atmosphere.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each interrupts the logical

flow of ideas in the paragraph.

QUESTION 32
Choice B is the best answer because its clear wording and formal tone
correspond with the passage’s established style.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each contains vague language

that is inconsistent with the passage’s clear wording and formal tone.

QUESTION 33
Choice D is the best answer because it provides punctuation that
appropriately identifies “removed” as the definition of “sequestered.”

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each contains punctuation

that obscures the relationship between “sequestered,” “removed,” and
the text that follows.

QUESTION 34
Choice D is the best answer because it provides a conjunction that
correctly identifies the relationship between “a practice” and the
actions involved in the practice.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each contains a conjunction

that miscommunicates the relationship between the text that precedes
and follows the underlined portion.

QUESTION 35
Choice A is the best answer because it provides a comma to close the
appositive clause “a practice whereby products are designed to have a
limited period of usefulness,” which also begins with a comma.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each provides closing

punctuation inconsistent with the punctuation at the beginning of
the clause.

QUESTION 36
Choice D is the best answer because it provides an adjective that
accurately describes the clear “contrast” between products “designed to
have a limited period of usefulness” and those “produced to be durable.”

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none provides an adjective

that appropriately modifies “contrast” in the context of the paragraph.

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 Answer Explanations | SAT Practice Test #2

QUESTION 37
Choice A is the best answer because by mentioning the “specialized”
methods used in repair shops, it suggests that repairing goods is seen as
a specialty rather than as a common activity. This connects logically with
the “rare” repair shops introduced just before the underlined portion.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because none provides information

that supports the claim made in the sentence.

QUESTION 38
Choice B is the best answer because it provides the correct spelling of
the noun “fair,” meaning exhibition, and uses the correct word “than”
to create the comparison between a “fair” and a “café.”

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each contains a misspelling

of either “fair” or “than.”

QUESTION 39
Choice C is the best answer because it offers a relative pronoun that
properly links the noun “Martine Postma” with the appropriate verb
“wanted.”

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none contains a pronoun

that is appropriate for the referent and placement of the clause.

QUESTION 40
Choice D is the best answer because it provides the most concise
phrasing and links the sentence appropriately to the previous sentence.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each provides an

unnecessary adverb that obscures the relationship between this
sentence and the previous one.

QUESTION 41
Choice D is the best answer because the gerund “waiting”
corresponds with the preposition “for” and the present tense used in
the rest of the sentence.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each contains a verb form

not used with the preposition “for.”

QUESTION 42
Choice C is the best answer because it appropriately places sentence 5,
which describes the places Repair Cafés can be found today, between
a sentence that gives the first Repair Café’s location and purpose and a
statement about current customers and how they use Repair Cafés.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each creates a paragraph

with an inappropriate shift in verb tense and, therefore, an illogical
sequence of information.

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PART 4 | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations

QUESTION 43
Choice C is the best answer because it accurately states that the issue
of “corporate and service-based jobs” is not particularly relevant at
this point in the paragraph. The focus here is on repairing objects in a
“throwaway culture,” not jobs.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each misinterprets the

relationship between the proposed text and the information in the
paragraph.

QUESTION 44
Choice D is the best answer because the phrase “and other countries”
communicates the fact that there are additional items not being named
that could be added to the list; no other wording is required to clarify
that point.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each presents a word or

phrase that results in a redundancy with “and other countries.”

Section 3: Math Test – No Calculator

QUESTION 1
Choice C is correct. Subtracting 6 from each side of 5x + 6 = 10 yields
4
5x = 4. Dividing both sides of 5x = 4 by 5 yields x = ​ __
5 ​. The value of x can
( )
now be substituted into the expression 10x + 3, giving 10 ​ ​ __
4
5 ​  ​+ 3 = 11.
Alternatively, the expression 10x + 3 can be rewritten as 2(5x + 6) − 9,
and 10 can be substituted for 5x + 6, giving 2(10) − 9 = 11.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Each of these choices leads to

5x + 6 ≠ 10, contradicting the given equation, 5x + 6 = 10. For example,
choice A is incorrect because if the value of 10x + 3 were 4, then it
would follow that x = 0.1, and the value of 5x + 6 would be 6.5, not 10.

QUESTION 2
Choice B is correct. Multiplying each side of x + y = 0 by 2 gives
2x + 2y = 0. Then, adding the corresponding sides of 2x + 2y = 0 and
3x − 2y = 10 gives 5x = 10. Dividing each side of 5x = 10 by 5 gives
x = 2. Finally, substituting 2 for x in x + y = 0 gives 2 + y = 0, or y = −2.
Therefore, the solution to the given system of equations is (2, −2).

Alternatively, the equation x + y = 0 can be rewritten as x = −y, and

substituting x for −y in 3x − 2y = 10 gives 5x = 10, or x = 2. The value
of y can then be found in the same way as before.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because when the given values of

x and y are substituted into x + y = 0 and 3x − 2y = 10, either one or
both of the equations are not true. These answers may result from sign
errors or other computational errors.

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 Answer Explanations | SAT Practice Test #2

QUESTION 3
Choice A is correct. The price of the job, in dollars, is calculated
using the expression 60 + 12nh, where 60 is a fixed price and 12nh
depends on the number of landscapers, n, working the job and the
number of hours, h, the job takes those n landscapers. Since nh is the
total number of hours of work done when n landscapers work h hours,
the cost of the job increases by $12 for each hour each landscaper
works. Therefore, of the choices given, the best interpretation of
the number 12 is that the company charges $12 per hour for each
landscaper.

Choice B is incorrect because the number of landscapers that

will work each job is represented by n in the equation, not by the
number 12. Choice C is incorrect because the price of the job increases
by 12n dollars each hour, which will not equal 12 dollars unless
n = 1. Choice D is incorrect because the total number of hours each
landscaper works is equal to h. The number of hours each landscaper
works in a day is not provided.

QUESTION 4
Choice A is correct. If a polynomial expression is in the form
2 2 2
(x) + 2(x)(y) + (y) , then it is equivalent to (x + y) . Because
2 2
9a 4 + 12a 2b 2 + 4b 4 = (3a 2) + 2(3a 2)(2b 2) + (2b 2) , it can be rewritten
2
as (3a 2 + 2b 2) .
4
Choice B is incorrect. The expression (3a + 2b) is equivalent to
the product (3a + 2b)(3a + 2b)(3a + 2b)(3a + 2b). This product will
3
contain the term 4(3a) (2b) = 216a 3b. However, the given polynomial,
9a 4 + 12a 2b 2 + 4b 4, does not contain the term 216a 3b. Therefore,
4
9a 4 + 12a 2b 2 + 4b 4 ≠ (3a + 2b) . Choice C is incorrect. The expression
2
(9a 2 + 4b 2) is equivalent to the product (9a 2 + 4b 2)(9a 2 + 4b 2).
This product will contain the term (9a 2)(9a 2) = 81a 4. However, the
given polynomial, 9a 4 + 12a 2b 2 + 4b 4, does not contain the term
2
81a 4. Therefore, 9a 4 + 12a 2b 2 + 4b 4 ≠ (9a 2 + 4b 2) . Choice D is
4
incorrect. The expression (9a + 4b) is equivalent to the product
(9a + 4b)(9a + 4b)(9a + 4b)(9a + 4b). This product will contain the
term (9a)(9a)(9a)(9a) = 6,561a 4. However, the given polynomial,
9a 4 + 12a 2b 2 + 4b 4, does not contain the term 6,561a 4. Therefore,
4
9a 4 + 12a 2b 2 + 4b 4 ≠ (9a + 4b) .

QUESTION 5 _
Choice C is correct. Since ​√ 2k 2_ + 17 ​− x = 0, and x = 7, one can
substitute_ 7 for x, which gives √
​ 2k
_
2
+ 17 ​− 7 = 0. Adding 7 to each
side of ​√ 2k + 17 ​− 7 = 0 gives ​√ 2k + 17 ​= 7. Squaring each side of
2 2
_ _ 2
​ 2k 2 + 17 ​= 7 will remove the square root symbol: ​​( ​√2k 2 + 17 ​ )​​ ​= (7) , or
2
√
2k 2 + 17 = 49. Then subtracting 17 from each side of 2k 2 + 17 = 49 gives
2k 2 = 49 − 17 = 32, and dividing each side of 2k 2 = 32 by 2 gives k 2 = 16.
Finally, taking the square root of each side of k 2 = 16 gives k = ±4, and
since the problem states that k > 0, it follows that k = 4.

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PART 4 | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations

Since
_ the sides of an equation were squared while solving
√
​ 2k 2 + 17 ​− 7 = 0, it is possible that_ an extraneous root was produced.
However, substituting
_ 4 for k in ​√_ 2
2k + 17 ​− 7 = _ 0 confirms that 4 is a
solution for k: √​ 2(4)2 + 17 ​− 7 = ​√ 32 + 17 ​− 7 = ​√ 49 ​− 7 = 7 − 7 = 0.

Choices A, B, and _ D are incorrect because substituting any of these

values for k in ​√ 2k 2 + 17 ​− 7 = 0 does not yield a true statement.

QUESTION 6
Choice D is correct. Since lines ℓ and k are parallel, the lines have
the same slope. The slope m of a line that passes through two points
y_
2 − y1
(x1, y1) and (x2, y2) can be found as m = ​  x 2 − x1
 ​. Line ℓ passes through
0−2 2
the points (0, 2) and (−5, 0), so its slope is ​  _  ​, which is ​ _ 5 ​. The
−5 − 0
2 2
slope of line k must also be ​ _ _
5 ​. Since line k has slope ​ 5 ​and passes
−4 − 0 2 4 _ 2
through the points (p, 0) and (0, –4), it follows that ​  _ ​= ​ _ _
5 ​, or ​  p ​ = ​ 5 ​.
0−p
4 _ 2
Multiplying each side of ​ _p ​ = ​ 5 ​ by 5p gives 20 = 2p, and therefore,
p = 10.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may result from conceptual or

calculation errors.

QUESTION 7
2
​x​a ​
Choice A is correct. Since the numerator and denominator of ​ _ 2 ​
​x​b ​
have a common base, it follows by the laws of exponents that this
2
2 2 ​x​a ​
expression can be rewritten as ​x ​a − b ​. Thus, the equation ​  _ 2 ​ = x
16
can
​x​b ​
2 2
be rewritten as ​x ​a − b ​= x 16. Because the equivalent expressions have
the common base x, and x > 1, it follows that the exponents of the two
expressions must also be equivalent. Hence, the equation a 2 − b 2 = 16
must be true. The left-hand side of this new equation is a difference
of squares, and so it can be factored: (a + b)(a − b) = 16. It is given
that (a + b) = 2; substituting 2 for the factor (a + b) gives 2(a − b) = 16.
Finally, dividing both sides of 2(a − b) = 16 by 2 gives a − b = 8.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may result from errors in

applying the laws of exponents or errors in solving the equation
a 2 − b 2 = 16.

QUESTION 8
Choice C is correct. The relationship between n and A is given by the
equation nA = 360. Since n is the number of sides of a polygon, n must
360
be a positive integer, and so nA = 360 can be rewritten as A = ​  _ n ​.
360
If the value of A is greater than 50, it follows that ​  _n ​> 50 is a true
360
statement. Thus, 50n < 360, or n < ​  _ ​= 7.2. Since n must be an
50
integer, the greatest possible value of n is 7.

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 Answer Explanations | SAT Practice Test #2

Choices A and B are incorrect. These are possible values for n, the
number of sides of a regular polygon, if A > 50, but neither is the
greatest possible value of n. Choice D is incorrect. If A < 50, then
n = 8 is the least possible value of n, the number of sides of a regular
polygon. However, the question asks for the greatest possible value of
n if A > 50, which is n = 7.

QUESTION 9
Choice B is correct. Since the slope of the first line is 2, an equation of
this line can be written in the form y = 2x + c, where c is the y-intercept
of the line. Since the line contains the point (1, 8), one can substitute 1
for x and 8 for y in y = 2x + c, which gives 8 = 2(1) + c, or c = 6. Thus,
an equation of the first line is y = 2x + 6. The slope of the second line
1−2
is equal to ​ _  ​ or −1. Thus, an equation of the second line can be
2−1
written in the form y = −x + d, where d is the y-intercept of the line.
Substituting 2 for x and 1 for y gives 1 = −2 + d, or d = 3. Thus, an
equation of the second line is y = −x + 3.

Since a is the x-coordinate and b is the y-coordinate of the intersection

point of the two lines, one can substitute a for x and b for y in the
two equations, giving the system b = 2a + 6 and b = –a + 3. Thus, a
can be found by solving the equation 2a + 6 = −a + 3, which gives
a = −1. Finally, substituting −1 for a into the equation b = –a + 3 gives
b = −(−1) + 3, or b = 4. Therefore, the value of a + b is 3.

Alternatively, since the second line passes through the points (1, 2)
and (2, 1), an equation for the second line is x + y = 3. Thus, the
intersection point of the first line and the second line, (a, b) lies on the
line with equation x + y = 3. It follows that a + b = 3.

Choices A and C are incorrect and may result from finding the value of
only a or b, but not calculating the value of a + b. Choice D is incorrect
and may result from a computation error in finding equations of the
two lines or in solving the resulting system of equations.

QUESTION 10
Choice C is correct. Since the square of any real number is
nonnegative, every point on the graph of the quadratic equation
y = (x − 2)2 in the xy-plane has a nonnegative y-coordinate. Thus, y ≥ 0
for every point on the graph. Therefore, the equation y = (x − 2)2 has a
graph for which y is always greater than or equal to −1.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the graph of each of these

equations in the xy-plane has a y-intercept at (0, −2). Therefore, each of
these equations contains at least one point where y is less than −1.

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PART 4 | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations

QUESTION 11
3 − 5i
Choice C is correct. To perform the division ​  _ ​   , multiply
8 + 2i
3 − 5i
the numerator and denominator of ​  _  ​ by the conjugate of the
8 + 2i
(3
__ − 5i )(8 − 2i ) ___ 24 − 6i − 40i + (−5i )(−2i )
denominator, 8 − 2i. This gives ​     ​= ​         ​ .
(8 + 2i )(8 − 2i )   82 − (2i )2
24
__− 6i − 40i − 10 _ 14 − 46i
Since i 2 = −1, this can be simplified to ​        ​= ​   ​,
64 + 4 68
7 23i
which then simplifies to _ ​   ​− ​ _ ​.
34 34
Choices A and B are incorrect and may result from misconceptions
a+b a b a b
about fractions. For example, _ ​   ​ is equal to _​   ​ + _
​   ​  , not _
​   ​ + _
​   ​.
c+d c+d c+d c d
Choice D is incorrect and may result from a calculation error.

QUESTION 12
F
Choice B is correct. Multiplying each side of R = ​ _​ by N + F gives
N+F
R(N + F ) = F, which can be rewritten as RN + RF = F. Subtracting RF
from each side of RN + RF = F gives RN = F − RF, which can be factored
as RN = F (1 − R). Finally, dividing each side of RN = F (1 − R) by 1 − R,
RN
expresses F in terms of the other variables: F = ​  — ​.
1−R
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may result from calculation
errors when rewriting the given equation.

QUESTION 13
Choice D is correct. The problem asks for the sum of the solutions of
the quadratic equation 2m 2 − 16m + 8 = 0. Dividing each side of the
equation by 2 gives m 2 − 8m + 4 = 0. Applying the quadratic formula
__
2 __ 8 ± ​√  
(−8​)​2​− 4(1)(4) ​
to m − 8m + 4 = 0 gives m =   
​      ​, which simplifies to
2(1)
_ _ _
m = 4 ± 2​√ 3 ​. Thus the two solutions are 4 + ​√ 3 ​and 4 − ​√ 3 ​, and the
sum of the solutions is 8.

Alternatively, the structure of the equation can be used to solve the

problem. Dividing both sides of the equation 2m 2 − 16m + 8 = 0 by 2
gives m 2 − 8m + 4 = 0. If the solutions of m 2 − 8m + 4 = 0 are s1 and s2,
then the expression m 2 − 8m + 4 can be rewritten as (m − s1)(m − s2).
Multiplying the two binomials gives m 2 − (s1 + s2)m + s1 ∙ s2. Since the
expressions m 2 − 8m + 4 and m 2 − (s1 + s2)m + s1 ∙ s2 are equivalent, it
follows that s1 + s2 = 8.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may result from calculation errors
when applying the quadratic formula or a sign error when determining
the sum of the roots of a quadratic equation from its coefficients.

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 Answer Explanations | SAT Practice Test #2

QUESTION 14
Choice A is correct. Each year, the amount of the radioactive substance
is reduced by 13 percent from the prior year’s amount; that is, each
year, 87 percent of the previous year’s amount remains. Since the
initial amount of the radioactive substance was 325 grams, after 1 year,
325(0.87) grams remains; after 2 years 325(0.87)(0.87) = 325(0.87)2 grams
remains; and after t years, 325(0.87)t grams remains. Therefore, the
function f (t) = 325(0.87)t models the remaining amount of the substance,
in grams, after t years.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from confusing the amount of

the substance remaining with the decay rate. Choices C and D are
incorrect and may result from confusing the original amount of the
substance and the decay rate.

QUESTION 15
Choice D is correct. The given expression can be rewritten as

5x − 2 (5x + 15) − 15 − 2
​  _ ​= ​    
__     ​
x+3 x+3
5(x
__ + 3) − 17
=  ​      ​
x+3
5(x + 3) _ 17
= ​ _  ​− ​   ​
x+3 x+3

17
=5−_
​   ​
x+3

5x − 2 17
Therefore, the expression ​ _ ​can be rewritten as 5 − _ ​   ​.
x+3 x+3
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may result from a computation
or simplification error such as incorrectly canceling out the x in the
5x − 2
expression ​  _ ​.
x+3

QUESTION 16
The correct answer is 3, 6, or 9. Let x be the number of
$250 bonuses awarded, and let y be the number of $750 bonuses
awarded. Since $3000 in bonuses were awarded, and this included
at least one $250 bonus and one $750 bonus, it follows that
250x + 750y = 3000, where x and y are positive integers. Dividing each
side of 250x + 750y = 3000 by 250 gives x + 3y = 12, where x and y are
positive integers. Since 3y and 12 are each divisible by 3, it follows
that x = 12 − 3y must also be divisible by 3. If x = 3, then y = 3; if x = 6,
then y = 2; and if x = 9, then y = 1. If x = 12, then y = 0, but this is not
possible since there was at least one $750 bonus awarded. Therefore,
the possible numbers of $250 bonuses awarded are 3, 6, and 9. Any of
the numbers 3, 6, or 9 may be gridded as the correct answer.

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PART 4 | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations

QUESTION 17
The correct answer is 19. Since 2x(3x + 5) + 3(3x + 5) = ax 2 + bx + c for
all values of x, the two sides of the equation are equal, and the value of
b can be determined by simplifying the left-hand side of the equation
and writing it in the same form as the right-hand side. Using the
distributive property, the equation becomes (6x 2 + 10x) + (9x + 15) =
ax 2 + bx + c. Combining like terms gives 6x 2 + 19x + 15 = ax 2 + bx + c.
The value of b is the coefficient of x, which is 19.

QUESTION 18
The correct answer is 12. Angles ABE and DBC are vertical angles
and thus have the same measure. Since segment AE is parallel to
segment CD, angles A and D are of the same measure by the alternate
interior angle theorem. Thus, by the angle-angle theorem, triangle ABE
is similar to triangle DBC, with vertices A, B, and E corresponding
AB EB 10 _ 8
to vertices D, B, and C, respectively. Thus, _
​   ​ = _
​   ​ , or ​ _
5 ​= ​ CB ​. It
DB CB
follows that CB = 4, and so CE = CB + BE = 4 + 8 =12.

QUESTION 19
The correct answer is 6. By the distance formula, the length of
_ _ _
1
radius OA is ​√ ​​( ​√ 3 ​ )​​ ​+ 12 ​= ​√ 3 + 1 ​= 2. Thus, sin(∠AOB) = ​  _ ​. Therefore,
2
2
π π
the measure of ∠AOB is 30°, which is equal to 30​ ​  (
_
180 ) _
 ​  ​= ​   ​radians.
6
Hence, the value of a is 6.

QUESTION 20
2 1
The correct answer is ​ _ ​ or ​ _ ​or .25. In order for a system of two linear
8 4
equations to have infinitely many solutions, the two equations must be
equivalent. Thus, the equation ax + by = 12 must be equivalent to the
equation 2x + 8y = 60. Multiplying each side of ax + by = 12 by 5 gives
5ax + 5by = 60, which must be equivalent to 2x + 8y = 60. Since the right-
hand sides of 5ax + 5by = 60 and 2x + 8y = 60 are the same, equating
2 8
coefficients gives 5a = 2, or a = ​ _ _
5 ​, and 5b = 8, or b = ​ 5 ​. Therefore, the
a
( ) ( )
2
value of ​ _ ​ = ​ ​ _
b
_8 1
_
5 ​  ​÷ ​ ​  5 ​  ​, which is equal to ​ 4 ​. Either the fraction 1/4 or its
equivalent decimal, .25, may be gridded as the correct answer.

Alternatively, since ax + by = 12 is equivalent to 2x + 8y = 60, the

equation ax + by =12 is equal to 2x + 8y = 60 multiplied on each side
by the same constant. Since multiplying 2x + 8y = 60 by a constant
does not change the ratio of the coefficient of x to the coefficient of y, it
a 2 1
follows that ​  _ ​ = ​ _ ​= ​ _ ​​.
b 8 4

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 Answer Explanations | SAT Practice Test #2

Section 4: Math Test – Calculator

QUESTION 1
Choice C is correct. Since the musician earns $0.09 for each download,
the musician earns 0.09d dollars when the song is downloaded d times.
Similarly, since the musician earns $0.002 each time the song is
streamed, the musician earns 0.002s dollars when the song is streamed
s times. Therefore, the musician earns a total of 0.09d + 0.002s dollars
when the song is downloaded d times and streamed s times.

Choice A is incorrect because the earnings for each download and

the earnings for time streamed are interchanged in the expression.
Choices B and D are incorrect because in both answer choices,
the musician will lose money when a song is either downloaded or
streamed. However, the musician only earns money, not loses money,
when the song is downloaded or streamed.

QUESTION 2
Choice B is correct. The quality control manager selects 7 lightbulbs
at random for inspection out of every 400 lightbulbs produced.
20,000
A quantity of 20,000 lightbulbs is equal to ​  _  ​= 50 batches of
400
400 lightbulbs. Therefore, at the rate of 7 lightbulbs per 400 lightbulbs
produced, the quality control manager will inspect a total of
50 × 7 = 350 lightbulbs.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may result from calculation

errors or misunderstanding of the proportional relationship.

QUESTION 3
Choice A is correct. The value of m when ℓ is 73 can be found by
s­ ubstituting the 73 for ℓ in ℓ = 24 + 3.5m and then solving for m. The
resulting ­equation is 73 = 24 + 3.5m; subtracting 24 from each side gives
49 = 3.5m. Then, ­dividing each side of 49 = 3.5m by 3.5 gives 14 = m.
Therefore, when ℓ is 73, m is 14.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from adding 24 to 73, instead

of subtracting 24 from 73, when solving 73 = 24 + 3.5m. Choice C is
incorrect because 73 is the given value for ℓ, not for m. Choice D is
incorrect and may result from substituting 73 for m, instead of for ℓ, in
the equation ℓ = 24 + 3.5m.

QUESTION 4
Choice C is correct. The amount of money the performer earns
is directly proportional to the number of people who attend the
performance. Thus, by the definition of direct proportionality, M = kP,
where M is the amount of money the performer earns, in dollars, P is
the number of people who attend the performance, and k is a constant.

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PART 4 | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations

Since the performer earns $120 when 8 people attend the performance,
one can substitute 120 for M and 8 for P, giving 120 = 8k. Hence, k = 15,
and the relationship between the number of people who attend the
performance and the amount of money, in dollars, the performer earns
is M = 15P. Therefore, when 20 people attend the performance, the
performer earns 15(20) = 300 dollars.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may result from either

misconceptions about proportional relationships or computational errors.

QUESTION 5
Choice C is correct. If 43% of the money earned is used to pay for
costs, then the rest, 57%, is profit. A performance where 8 people attend
earns the performer $120, and 57% of $120 is $120 × 0.57 = $68.40.

Choice A is incorrect. The amount $51.60 is 43% of the money earned from
a performance where 8 people attend, which is the cost of putting on the
performance, not the profit from the performance. Choice B is incorrect.
It is given that 57% of the money earned is profit, but 57% of $120 is
not equal to $57.00. Choice D is incorrect. The profit can be found by
subtracting 43% of $120 from $120, but 43% of $120 is $51.60, not $43.00.
Thus, the profit is $120 − $51.60 = $68.40, not $120 − $43.00 = $77.00.

QUESTION 6
Choice B is correct. When 4 times the number x is added to 12, the
result is 12 + 4x. Since this result is equal to 8, the equation 12 + 4x = 8
must be true. Subtracting 12 from each side of 12 + 4x = 8 gives 4x = −4,
and then dividing both sides of 4x = −4 by 4 gives x = −1. Therefore,
2 times x added to 7, or 7 + 2x, is equal to 7 + 2(−1) = 5.

Choice A is incorrect because −1 is the value of x, not the value of 7 + 2x.

Choices C and D are incorrect and may result from calculation errors.

QUESTION 7
Choice D is correct. The x-intercepts of the parabola represented by
y = x 2 − 6x + 8 in the xy-plane are the values of x for which y is equal to 0.
The factored form of the equation, y = (x − 2)(x − 4), shows that y equals 0
if and only if x = 2 or x = 4. Thus, the factored form, y = (x − 2)(x − 4),
displays the x-intercepts of the parabola as the constants 2 and 4.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none of these forms shows

the x-intercepts 2 and 4 as constants or coefficients.

QUESTION 8
Choice D is correct. Since a player starts with k points and loses
2 points each time a task is not completed, the player’s score will be
k − 2n after n tasks are not completed (and no additional points are
gained). Since a player who fails to complete 100 tasks has a score of
200 points, the equation 200 = k − 100(2) must be true. This equation
can be solved by adding 200 to each side, giving k = 400.

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 Answer Explanations | SAT Practice Test #2

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may result from errors in setting
up or solving the equation relating the player’s score to the number of
tasks the player fails to complete. For example, choice A may result
from subtracting 200 from the left-hand side of 200 = k − 100(2) and
adding 200 to the right-hand side.

QUESTION 9
Choice A is correct. Since x is the number of 40-pound boxes, 40x
is the total weight, in pounds, of the 40-pound boxes; and since y is
the number of 65-pound boxes, 65y is the total weight, in pounds, of
the 65-pound boxes. The combined weight of the boxes is therefore
40x + 65y, and the total number of boxes is x + y. Since the forklift
can carry up to 45 boxes or up to 2,400 pounds, the inequalities that
represent these relationships are 40x + 65y ≤ 2,400 and x + y ≤ 45.

Choice B is incorrect. The second inequality correctly represents the

maximum number of boxes on the forklift, but the first inequality
divides, rather than multiplies, the number of boxes by their respective
weights. Choice C is incorrect. The combined weight of the boxes,
40x + 65y, must be less than or equal to 2,400 pounds, not 45; the total
number of boxes, x + y, must be less than or equal to 45, not 2,400.
Choice D is incorrect. The second inequality correctly represents the
maximum weight, in pounds, of the boxes on the forklift, but the total
number of boxes, x + y, must be less than or equal to 45, not 2,400.

QUESTION 10
Choice B is correct. It is given that g(3) = 2. Therefore, to find the
value of f (g(3)), substitute 2 for g(3): f (g(3)) = f (2) = 3.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may result from

misunderstandings about function notation.

QUESTION 11
Choice B is correct. Tony reads 250 words per minute, and he plans
to read for 3 hours, which is 180 minutes, each day. Thus, Tony is
planning to read 250 × 180 = 45,000 words of the novel per day. Since
349,168
the novel has 349,168 words, it will take Tony ​  _ ​≈ 7.76 days
45,000
of reading to finish the novel. That is, it will take Tony 7 full days
of reading and most of an 8th day of reading to finish the novel.
Therefore, it will take Tony 8 days to finish the novel.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from an incorrect calculation

or incorrectly using the numbers provided in the table. Choice C is
incorrect and may result from taking the total number of words in the
novel divided by the rate Tony reads per hour. Choice D is incorrect
and may result from taking the total number of words in the novel
divided by the number of pages in the novel.

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PART 4 | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations

QUESTION 12
Choice D is correct. Since there were 175,000 tons of trash in the
landfill on January 1, 2000, and the amount of trash in the landfill
increased by 7,500 tons each year after that date, the amount of trash,
in tons, in the landfill y years after January 1, 2000, can be expressed
as 175,000 + 7,500y. The landfill has a capacity of 325,000 tons.
Therefore, the set of years where the amount of trash in the landfill
is at (equal to) or above (greater than) capacity is described by the
inequality 175,000 + 7,500y ≥ 325,000.

Choice A is incorrect. This inequality does not account for the

175,000 tons of trash in the landfill on January 1, 2000, nor does it
accurately account for the 7,500 tons of trash that are added to the
landfill each year after January 1, 2000. Choice B is incorrect. This
inequality does not account for the 175,000 tons of trash in the landfill on
January 1, 2000. Choice C is incorrect. This inequality represents the set
of years where the amount of trash in the landfill is at or below capacity.

QUESTION 13
Choice D is correct. Survey research is an efficient way to estimate
the preferences of a large population. In order to reliably generalize
the results of survey research to a larger population, the participants
should be randomly selected from all people in that population. Since
this survey was conducted with a population that was not randomly
selected, the results are not reliably representative of all people in
the town. Therefore, of the given factors, where the survey was given
makes it least likely that a reliable conclusion can be drawn about the
sports-watching preferences of all people in the town.

Choice A is incorrect. In general, larger sample sizes are preferred over

smaller sample sizes. However, a sample size of 117 people would have
allowed a reliable conclusion about the population if the participants
had been selected at random. Choice B is incorrect. Whether the
population is large or small, a large enough sample taken from the
population is reliably generalizable if the participants are selected at
random from that population. Thus, a reliable conclusion could have
been drawn about the population if the 117 survey participants had
been selected at random. Choice C is incorrect. When giving a survey,
participants are not forced to respond. Even though some people
refused to respond, a reliable conclusion could have been drawn about
the population if the participants had been selected at random.

QUESTION 14
Choice C is correct. According to the graph, the horizontal line that
represents 550 billion miles traveled intersects the line of best fit at
a point whose horizontal coordinate is between 2000 and 2005, and
slightly closer to 2005 than to 2000. Therefore, of the choices given,
2003 best approximates the year in which the number of miles traveled
by air passengers in Country X was estimated to be 550 billion.

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 Answer Explanations | SAT Practice Test #2

Choice A is incorrect. According to the line of best fit, in 1997 the

estimated number of miles traveled by air passengers in Country X
was about 450 billion, not 550 billion. Choice B is incorrect. According
to the line of best fit, in 2000 the estimated number of miles traveled
by air passengers in Country X was about 500 billion, not 550 billion.
Choice D is incorrect. According to the line of best fit, in 2008 the
estimated number of miles traveled by air passengers in Country X was
about 600 billion, not 550 billion.

QUESTION 15
Choice A is correct. The number of miles Earth travels in its one-
year orbit of the Sun is 580,000,000. Because there are about
365 days per year, the number of miles Earth travels per day is
580,000,000
__
​      ​ ​ ≈ 1,589,041. There are 24 hours in one day, so Earth
365
1,589,041
travels at ​  _  ​≈ 66,210 miles per hour. Therefore, of the choices
24
given, 66,000 miles per hour is closest to the average speed of Earth as
it orbits the Sun.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may result from calculation

errors.

QUESTION 16
Choice B is correct. According to the table, there are 18 + 7 = 25
graduates who passed the bar exam, and 7 of them did not take the
review course. Therefore, if one of the surveyed graduates who passed
the bar exam is chosen at random, the probability that the person
7
chosen did not take the review course is ​ _ ​.
25
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Each of these choices represents a
different probability from the conditional probability that the question
asks for. Choice A represents the following probability. If one of the
surveyed graduates who passed the bar exam is chosen at random, the
18
probability that the person chosen did take the review course is ​ _ ​ .
25
Choice C represents the following probability. If one of the surveyed
graduates is chosen at random, the probability that the person chosen
25
passed the bar exam is ​ _  ​. Choice D represents the following
200
probability. If one of the surveyed graduates is chosen at random,
the probability that the person chosen passed the exam and took the
7
review course is ​ _  ​​.
200

QUESTION 17
Choice C is correct. To find the atomic weight of an unknown
element that is 20% less than the atomic weight of calcium, multiply
the atomic weight, in amu, of calcium by (1 − 0.20). This gives
(40)(1 − 0.20) = (40)(0.8) = 32.

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PART 4 | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations

Choice A is incorrect. This value is 20% of the atomic weight of

calcium, not an atomic weight 20% less than that atomic weight of
calcium. Choice B is incorrect. This value is 20 amu less, not 20% less,
than the atomic weight of calcium. Choice D is incorrect. This value is
20% more, not 20% less, than the atomic weight of calcium.

QUESTION 18
Choice C is correct. The mean and median values of a data set are
equal when there is a symmetrical distribution. For example, a normal
distribution is symmetrical. If the mean and the median values are not
equal, then the distribution is not symmetrical. Outliers are a small
group of values that are significantly smaller or larger than the other
values in the data. When there are outliers in the data, the mean will
be pulled in their direction (either smaller or larger) while the median
remains the same. The example in the question has a mean that is
larger than the median, and so an appropriate conjecture is that large
outliers are present in the data; that is, that there are a few homes that
are valued much more than the rest.

Choice A is incorrect because a set of home values that are close to

each other will have median and mean values that are also close to
each other. Choice B is incorrect because outliers with small values
will tend to make the mean lower than the median. Choice D is
incorrect because a set of data where many homes are valued between
$125,000 and $165,000 will likely have both a mean and a median
between $125,000 and $165,000.

QUESTION 19
Choice B is correct. The median of a data set is the middle value when
the data points are sorted in either ascending or descending order.
There are a total of 600 data points provided, so the median will be the
average of the 300th and 301st data points. When the data points are
sorted in order:

§ §Values 1 through 260 will be 0.

§ §Values 261 through 450 will be 1.
§ §Values 451 through 540 will be 2.
§ §Values 541 through 580 will be 3.
§ §Values 581 through 600 will be 4.
Therefore, both the 300th and 301st values are 1, and hence the
median is 1.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may result from either a

calculation error or a conceptual error.

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 Answer Explanations | SAT Practice Test #2

QUESTION 20
Choice C is correct. When survey participants are selected at
random from a larger population, the sample statistics calculated
from the survey can be generalized to the larger population. Since
10 of 300 students surveyed at Lincoln School have 4 siblings,
one can estimate that this same ratio holds for all 2,400 students
at Lincoln School. Also, since 10 of 300 students surveyed at
Washington School have 4 siblings, one can estimate that this
same ratio holds for all 3,300 students at Washington School.
10
Therefore, approximately ​  _  ​× 2,400 = 80 students at Lincoln School
300
10
and ​  _  ​× 3,300 = 110 students at Washington School are expected to
300
have 4 siblings. Thus, the total number of students with 4 siblings at
Washington School is expected to be 110 − 80 = 30 more than the total
number of students with 4 siblings at Lincoln School.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may result from either

conceptual or calculation errors. For example, choice A is incorrect;
even though there is the same ratio of survey participants from Lincoln
School and Washington School with 4 siblings, the two schools have a
different total number of students, and thus, a different expected total
number of students with 4 siblings.

QUESTION 21
Choice D is correct. The difference between the number of hours the
project takes, y, and the number of hours the project was estimated to
take, x, is |y − x |. If the goal is met, the difference is less than 10, which
can be represented as |y − x | < 10, or −10 < y − x < 10.

Choice A is incorrect. This inequality states that the estimated

number of hours plus the actual number of hours is less than 10,
which cannot be true because the estimate is greater than 100.
Choice B is incorrect. This inequality states that the actual number
of hours is greater than the estimated number of hours plus 10,
which could be true only if the goal of being within 10 hours of the
estimate were not met. Choice C is incorrect. This inequality states
that the actual number of hours is less than the estimated number of
hours minus 10, which could be true only if the goal of being within
10 hours of the estimate were not met.

QUESTION 22
P
Choice B is correct. To rearrange the formula I = ​  _2 ​in terms of r 2,
4π r
P
first multiply each side of the equation by r 2. This yields r 2I = ​  _ ​​ . Then
4π
P P
dividing each side of r 2I = ​  _ ​ by I gives r 2 = ​  _ ​  .
4π 4πI
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may result from algebraic errors
during the rearrangement of the formula.

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PART 4 | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations

QUESTION 23
Choice A is correct. If IA is the intensity measured by Observer A from
a distance of rA and I B is the intensity measured by Observer B from
P
a distance of rB, then IA =16I B. Using the formula I = ​  _2 ​ , the intensity
4π
P
measured by Observer A is IA = ​  _2 ​, which can also be written in
4π rA

( )
P
terms of I B as IA = 16I B = 16 ​​ ​_2 ​  ​. Setting the right-hand sides of
4π rB
P
these two equations equal to each other gives ​  _2 ​= 16 ​ ​_2 ​  ​,
4π rA ( )
P
4π rB
which relates the distance of Observer A from the radio antenna to the
distance of Observer B from the radio antenna. Canceling the common
P
factor ​  _ ​ and rearranging the equation gives rB2 = 16rA2 . Taking the
4π
square root of each side of rB2 = 16rA2 gives rB = 4rA , and then dividing
1
each side by 4 yields rA = ​ _ ​ rB. Therefore, the distance of Observer A
4
1
_
from the radio antenna is ​   ​the distance of Observer B from the radio
4
antenna.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may result from errors in

P
4π rA
P
(
deriving or using the formula ​ _2 ​= (16) ​ ​  _2 ​  ​​.
4π rB )
QUESTION 24
Choice A is correct. The equation of a circle with center (h, k ) and
radius r is (x − h )2 + (y − k )2 = r 2. To put the equation x 2 + y 2 + 4x − 2y = −1
in this form, complete the square as follows:

x 2 + y 2 + 4x − 2y = −1

(x 2 + 4x) + (y 2 − 2y) = −1

(x 2 + 4x + 4) − 4 + (y 2 − 2y + 1) − 1 = −1

(x + 2)2 + (y − 1)2 − 4 − 1 = −1

(x + 2)2 + (y − 1)2 = 4 = 22

Therefore, the radius of the circle is 2.

Choice C is incorrect because it is the square of the radius, not the

radius. Choices B and D are incorrect and may result from errors in
rewriting the given equation in standard form.

QUESTION 25
Choice A is correct. In the xy-plane, the slope m of the line that passes
through the points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) is given by the formula
y2 − y1
m = ​​ _
x2 − x1 ​ . Thus, if the graph of the linear function f has intercepts
at (a, 0) and (0, b), then the slope of the line that is the graph of
0−b b
y = f (x) is m = ​ _  ​​= − ​  _
a ​ . It is given that a + b = 0, and so a = −b.
a−0
b b
Finally, substituting −b for a in m = − ​​  _ _
a ​ gives m = − ​  −b ​ = 1, which
is positive.

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 Answer Explanations | SAT Practice Test #2

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may result from a conceptual

misunderstanding or a calculation error.

QUESTION 26
Choice D is correct. The definition of the graph of a function f in
the xy-plane is the set of all points (x, f (x)). Thus, for −4 ≤ a ≤ 4, the
value of f (a) is 1 if and only if the unique point on the graph of f with
x-coordinate a has y-coordinate equal to 1. The points on the graph of
3
( ) 3
f with x-coordinates −4, ​​ _ ​, and 3 are, respectively, (−4, 1),​ ​ _ ​, 1 ​, and
2 2
(3, 1). Therefore, all of the values of f given in I, II, and III are equal to 1.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they each omit at least one
value of x for which f (x) = 1.

QUESTION 27
Choice D is correct. According to the graph, in the interval from 0
to 10 minutes, the non-insulated sample decreased in temperature
by about 18°C, while the insulated sample decreased by about 8°C;
in the interval from 10 to 20 minutes, the non-insulated sample
decreased in temperature by about 9°C, while the insulated sample
decreased by about 5°C; in the interval from 40 to 50 minutes, the
non-insulated sample decreased in temperature by about 1°C, while
the insulated sample decreased by about 3°C; and in the interval from
50 to 60 minutes, the non-insulated sample decreased in temperature
by about 1°C, while the insulated sample decreased by about 2°C.
The description in choice D accurately summarizes these rates of
temperature change over the given intervals. (Note that since the two
samples of water have equal mass and so must lose the same amount
of heat to cool from 60°C to 25°C, the faster cooling of the non-
insulated sample at the start of the cooling process must be balanced
out by faster cooling of the insulated sample at the end of the cooling
process.)

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. None of these descriptions

accurately compares the rates of temperature change shown in the
graph for the 10-minute intervals.

QUESTION 28
Choice B is correct. In the xy-plane, the slope m of the line that passes
y2 − y1
through the points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) is m = ​​  _
x2 − x1 ​. Thus, the slope of
2−0
the line through the points E (1, 0) and C (7, 2) is ​  _  ​, which simplifies
7−1
2 _
_ 1 1
_
to ​   ​= ​   ​. Therefore, diagonal AC has a slope of ​   ​. The other diagonal
6 3 3
of the square is a segment of the line that passes through points B
and D. The diagonals of a square are perpendicular, and so the
product of the slopes of the diagonals is equal to −1. Thus, the slope
1
of the line that passes through B and D is −3 because ​ _ ​​ (−3) = −1.
3

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PART 4 | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations

Hence, an equation of the line that passes through B and D can be

written as y = −3x + b, where b is the y-intercept of the line. Since
diagonal BD will pass through the center of the square, E (1, 0), the
equation 0 = −3(1) + b holds. Solving this equation for b gives b = 3.
Therefore, an equation of the line that passes through points B and D is
y = −3x + 3, which can be rewritten as y = −3(x − 1).

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may result from a conceptual

error or a calculation error.

QUESTION 29
Choice B is correct. Substituting 3 for y in y = ax 2 + b gives
3 = ax 2 + b, which can be rewritten as 3 − b = ax 2. Since y = 3 is one
of the equations in the given system, any solution x of 3 − b = ax 2
corresponds to the solution (x, 3) of the given system. Since the square
of a real number is always nonnegative, and a positive number has two
square roots, the equation 3 − b = ax 2 will have two solutions for x if
and only if (1) a > 0 and b < 3 or (2) a < 0 and b > 3. Of the values for a
and b given in the choices, only a = −2, b = 4 satisfy one of these pairs
of conditions.

Alternatively, if a = −2 and b = 4, then the second equation would be

y = −2x 2 + 4. The graph of this quadratic equation in the xy-plane is a
parabola with y-intercept (0, 4) that opens downward. The graph of the
first equation, y = 3, is the horizontal line that contains the point (0, 3).
As shown below, these two graphs have two points of intersection,
and therefore, this system of equations has exactly two real solutions.
(Graphing shows that none of the other three choices produces a
system with exactly two real solutions.)
y
4
3
2
1
x
–2 –1 O 1 2

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may result from calculation or

conceptual errors.

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 Answer Explanations | SAT Practice Test #2

QUESTION 30
Choice A is correct. The regular hexagon can be divided into
6 equilateral triangles of side length a by drawing the six segments
from the center of the regular hexagon
_ to each of its 6 vertices. Since
the area of the hexagon is 384​√3 ​_ square inches, the area of each
384​√ 3 ​ _
equilateral triangle will be ​ _  ​= 64​√3 ​square inches.
6
Drawing any altitude of an equilateral triangle divides it into two
30°-60°-90° triangles. If the side length of the equilateral triangle
is a, then the hypotenuse of each 30°-60°-90° triangle is a, and
the altitude of the equilateral triangle will be the side opposite the
60° angle in each of the 30°-60°-90° triangles. Thus, the altitude of
_
​√3 ​
_
the equilateral triangle is ​   ​a, and the area of the equilateral triangle
_ _ 2
1
_
2
_
( ) ​√3 ​
_
2
​√3 ​ 2
_
is ​   ​(a) ​ ​   ​  a ​= ​   ​a . Since the area of each equilateral triangle is
4
_
4_
64​√3 ​square inches, it follows that a 2 = ​  _  ​(64​√3 ​) = 256 square inches.
​√3 ​
And since the area of the square with side length a is a 2, it follows that
the square has area 256 square inches.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may result from calculation or

conceptual errors.

QUESTION 31
The correct answer is 14. Since the coastal geologist estimates that
the country’s beaches are eroding at a rate of 1.5 feet every year,
they will erode by 1.5x feet in x years. Thus, if the beaches erode by
21 feet in x years, the equation 1.5x = 21 must hold. The value of x is
21
then ​  _  ​= 14. Therefore, according to the geologist’s estimate, it will
1.5
take 14 years for the country’s beaches to erode by 21 feet.

QUESTION 32
The correct answer is 7. There are 60 minutes in each hour, and so
there are 60h minutes in h hours. Since h hours and 30 minutes is
equal to 450 minutes, it follows that 60h + 30 = 450. This equation can
420
be simplified to 60h = 420, and so the value of h is ​ _ ​= 7.
60

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PART 4 | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations

QUESTION 33
The correct answer is 11. It is given that the function f (x) passes
through the point (3, 6). Thus, if x = 3, the value of f (x) is 6 (since the
graph of f in the xy-plane is the set of all points (x, f (x)). Substituting
3 for x and 6 for f (x) in f (x) = 3x 2 − bx + 12 gives 6 = 3(3)2 − b (3) + 12.
Performing the operations on the right-hand side of this equation gives
6 = 3(9) − 3b + 12 = 27 − 3b + 12 = 39 − 3b. Subtracting 39 from each
side of 6 = 39 − 3b gives −33 = −3b, and then dividing each side of
−3b = −33 by −3 gives the value of b as 11.

QUESTION 34
The correct answer is 105. Let D be the number of hours Doug spent
in the tutoring lab, and let L be the number of hours Laura spent in
the tutoring lab. Since Doug and Laura spent a combined total of
250 hours in the tutoring lab, the equation D + L = 250 holds. The
number of hours Doug spent in the lab is 40 more than the number
of hours Laura spent in the lab, and so the equation D = L + 40 holds.
Substituting L + 40 for D in D + L = 250 gives (L + 40) + L = 250, or
40 + 2L = 250. Solving this equation gives L = 105. Therefore, Laura
spent 105 hours in the tutoring lab.

QUESTION 35
The correct answer is 15. The amount, a, that Jane has deposited
after t fixed weekly deposits is equal to the initial deposit plus the total
amount of money Jane has deposited in the t fixed weekly deposits.
This amount a is given to be a = 18t + 15. The amount she deposited in
the t fixed weekly deposits is the amount of the weekly deposit times t ;
hence, this amount must be given by the term 18t in a = 18t + 15 (and
so Jane must have deposited 18 dollars each week after the initial
deposit). Therefore, the amount of Jane’s original deposit, in dollars, is
a − 18t = 15.

QUESTION 36
The correct answer is 32. Since segments LM and MN are tangent to
the circle at points L and N, respectively, angles OLM and ONM are
right angles. Thus, in quadrilateral OLMN, the measure of angle O
is 360° − (90° + 60° + 90°) = 120°. Thus, in the circle, central angle O
cuts off ​ _  ​= ​ _ ​of the circumference; that is, minor arc ​
120 1 1
LN ​​is ​ _ ​of the
360 3 3
circumference. Since the circumference is 96, the length of minor arc ​
 1
LN ​​is ​ _ ​× 96 = 32.
3

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 Answer Explanations | SAT Practice Test #2

QUESTION 37
The correct answer is 3284. According to the formula, the number of

(
3000
)
plants one year from now will be 3000 + 0.2(3000)​ 1 − ​ _  ​  ​, which
4000
is equal to 3150. Then, using the formula again, the number of plants

(
3150
)
two years from now will be 3150 + 0.2(3150)​ 1 − ​ _  ​  ​, which is
4000
3283.875. Rounding this value to the nearest whole number gives 3284.

QUESTION 38
The correct answer is 7500. If the number of plants is to be increased
from 3000 this year to 3360 next year, then the number of plants that
the environment can support, K, must satisfy the equation

(
3360 = 3000 + 0.2(3000)​ 1 − ​ _
3000
K )
 ​  ​. Dividing both sides of this equation

(
by 3000 gives 1.12 = 1 + 0.2​ 1 − ​ _ )
3000
K
 ​  ​, and therefore, it must be true

( 3000
that 0.2​ 1 − ​ _
K )
 ​  ​= 0.12, or equivalently, 1 − ​ _
3000
K
 ​= 0.6. It follows

3000 3000
that ​  _ = 0.4, and so K = ​ _ ​= 7500.
 ​
K 0.4

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