SUBJECT - SCIENCE

Chapter wise Question Bank

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 Foreword
Preparation of study material for all the major subjects of class X and
XII and presenting the same on the hands of the students well on time is not
anything new for the Kendriya Vidyalayas. However, this time the backdrop
of the Covid-19 pandemic looming large in front of all and the 9 months of
suspended physical classes have given an extra novel meaning and
significance to this endeavor. On all previous occasions, teachers sat together
on a designated place face to face to discuss, to reject, to select & modify and
thereby gather together the best material for the students. This time, they
could not do so that way because of the limitations of gatherings in light of
the pandemic. And therefore, this time, there has been the endeavor to craft
out a chapter-wise exhaustive question bank for all the major subjects. The
major chunk of the session has already played out in the most extraordinary
way during this most extraordinary time as we have all seen, with the syllabi
having been covered only through online classes with the teachers and the
students never coming face to face inside the classrooms.
Anyway, with our examination system the way it is, the role of
intelligent and rigorous study of question bank has been always enormous for
success in all examinations. Having a sound grasp of probable questions and
the most pertinent ones, leads to better negotiation of the course material on
hand especially when the examination comes near.
It is hoped that the teachers of each school will bring the materials
home to the needy students with further necessary guidance from them during
this extraordinary academic session and extraordinary time as a whole.
It has been wonderful for KVS RO Guwahati to be involved in
preparation of study material in the form of chapter wise question banks. The
enormous contribution of the Subject teachers and Principals for making the
project successful is highly praiseworthy.
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Sl No Name of the Chapter Page No
1 CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATION 7
2 ACID BASES AND SALTS 12
3 18
METAL AND NON-METAL
4 CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS 25
5 CLASSIFICATION OF PERIODIC TABLE 32
6 LIFE PROCESSES 38
7 HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE 43
8 HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION 66
9 LIGHT REFLECTION AND REFRACTION 69
10 HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD 74
11 ELECTRICITY 81
12 MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT 93
13 OUR ENVIRONMENT 100

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 CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATION

1. We need to balance a chemical equation. Give reason to justify the statement.

Answer:- To obey law of conservation of mass.
2. Giving an example list two information which make a chemical equation more useful
(informative).
Answer:- (i) Physical state of reactants must be mentioned
(ii) Condition in which reaction takes place are written on the arrow head
3. Name the reducing agent in the following reaction:
3MnO2 + 4Al → 3Mn + 2Al 2O3
Answer:- ‘Al’ is reducing agent.
4. Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air ?
Answer: To remove the layer of MgO.
5. What does one mean by exothermic and endothermic reactions ? Give examples.
Answer: Exothermic reactions : heat is evolved
Example : (i) C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + Heat
(ii) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) + Heat
Endothermic reactions : heat is absorbed
Examples :(i) C (s) + 2S (s) → CS2 (l) – Heat
(ii) N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO(g) – Heat
6. Name the type of chemical reaction represented by the following equation:
I. CaO + H 2O → Ca(OH )2
II. 3BaCl2 + Al2 (SO4 )3 → 3BaSO4 + 2 AlCl
2 FeSO4 ⎯⎯ ⎯
heat
→ Fe2O3 + SO4 + SO3
III.
Answer:- (i) Combination reaction
(ii) Double displacement reaction (Precipitation reaction)
(iii) Thermal Decomposition reaction.
7. In electrolysis of water, why is the volume of gas collected over one electrode double that of
gas collected over the other electrode?
Answer:- It is because water contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio of 2 : 1.
8. Ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube.
(i) List any two observations.
(ii) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place.
(iii) ‘Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer:-
(i)Two observations are
(a) change in colour (b) Smell of burning sulphur
(ii) Decomposition reaction
2 FeSO4 ( s) ⎯⎯ ⎯
heat
→ Fe2O3 ( s) + SO4 ( g ) + SO3 ( g )

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9. What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide solution is added to a solution of lead
nitrate? Name the type of reaction. Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the
above chemical reaction.
Answer:- Yellow precipitate is formed. It is precipitation reaction.

Pb ( NO3 )2 ( aq ) + 2KI ( aq ) → Pbl2 ( s ) + 2KNO3 ( aq ) .

10. Which products will be obtained when lead nitrate is heated simply? Write balanced chemical
equation for the reaction.
Answer:-
2Pb ( NO3 )2 ( s ) ⎯⎯ ⎯
heat
→ 2PbO ( s ) + 4 NO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g )

11. Why does the color of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Answer. It is because displacement reaction takes place.
12. Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of combination reactions? Write
equations for these reactions.
Answer. In decomposition reaction, a compound is broken down into simpler compounds or
elements, e.g.
CuCO3 ( s) ⎯⎯ ⎯
heat
→ CuO( s) + CO2 ( g )
Combination reaction is a reaction in which two or more elements or compounds combine to
form a new compound, e.g.
N2 (g) + 3H 2 → 2 NH3 ( g )
Thus, decomposition and combination reactions are opposite to each other.
13. The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe carefully and answer the
following questions

.
(a) Identify the type of chemical reaction that will take place and define it.
(b) How will the color of the salt change? Write the chemical equation of the reaction that
takes place.
(c) Mention one commercial use of this salt.
Answer. (a) Photochemical decomposition reaction.
(b) The colour of salt will change from white to grey.
(c) in photography
14. What is rancidity? Mention any two ways by which rancidity can be prevented.
Answer. Spoilage of food containing oil.
Prevention from rancidity:-
(i) Antioxidants
(ii) airtight container in refrigerator.
15. A solution of substance ‘X’ is used for white washing. What is the substance ‘X’? State the
chemical reaction of ‘X’ with water.

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 Answer.
‘X’ is calcium oxide (CaO).
CaO ( s ) + H 2O (l ) → Ca (OH )2 ( aq ) + heat
16. Define combination reaction. Give one example of a combination reaction which is also
exothermic.
Answer. A reaction in which two elements or compounds combine to form a single compound
is called combination reaction.
CaO ( s ) + H 2O ( l ) → Ca ( OH )2 ( aq ) + heat
17. (a) Why is respiration considered as an exothermic reaction?
(b) Identify the substance that is oxidized and reduced in the following reaction.
CaO( s) + Zn( s) → Cu ( s) + ZnO( s)
Answer. (a) It is because heat is evolved during respiration.
(b) Zn is getting oxidised, CuO is getting reduced.
18. Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them.
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and Sulphur dioxide.
(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminum sulphate to give aluminum chloride and a precipitate
of barium sulphate.
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Answer: (a) 3H2 (g) + N2 (g) → 2NH3 (g)
(b) H2S (g) + 3O2 (g) → SO2 (g) + 2H2O(l)
(c) 3BaCl2 (aq) + Al2(SO4)3 (aq) → 2AlCl3 (aq) + 3BaSO4 ↓(s)
(d) 2K (s) + 2H2O (l) → 2KOH (aq) + H2 (g)
19. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following and identify the type of reaction in
each case :
(a) Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq) → Potassium iodide (aq) + Barium
(b) Zinc carbonate(s) → Zinc oxide (s) + Carbon dioxide (g) bromide(s)
(c) Hydrogen (g) + Chloride (g) → Hydrogen chloride (g)
(d) Magnesium (s) + Hydrochloric acid (aq) → Magnesium chloride (aq) + Hydrogen (g)
Answer:(a) 2KBr ( aq ) + Bal2 ( aq ) → 2Kl ( aq ) + BaBr2 ( s )
Type : Double displacement reaction
(b) ZnCO3 ( s ) → ZnO ( s ) + CO2 ( g )
Type : Decomposition reaction
(c) H 2 ( g ) + Cl2 ( g ) → 2HCl ( g )
Type : Combination reaction
(d) Mg ( s ) + 2HCl ( aq ) → MgCl2 ( aq ) + H 2 ( g )
Type : Displacement reaction

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20. Complete the missing components/variables given as x and y in the following reactions :

Answer:

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 ACID BASES AND SALTS

I. MCQ’S

1. What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube?
(i) The temperature of the solution increases
(ii) The temperature of the solution decreases
(iii) The temperature of the solution remains the same
(iv) Salt formation takes place
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)

2. An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the
following solution would reverse the change?
(a) Baking powder (b) Lime
(c) Ammonium hydroxide solution (d) Hydrochloric acid

3. During the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas on a humid day, the gas is usually passed
through the guard tube containing calcium chloride. The role of calcium chloride taken in
the guard tube is to
(a) absorb the evolved gas (b) moisten the gas
(c) absorb moisture from the gas (d) absorb Cl– ions from the evolved gas

4. Which of the following salts does not contain water of crystallization?

(a) Blue vitriol (b) Baking soda
(c) Washing soda (d) Gypsum

5. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of

(a) strong acid and strong base
(b) weak acid and weak base
(c) strong acid and weak base
(d) weak acid and strong base

ANSWERS: 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d)

II. Questions to be answered in one word or one sentence

1. What is acid rain?

Answer: When the pH of the rain water is less than 5.6, it is called acid rain

2. What is brine?
Answer: Concentrated solution of sodium chloride is called brine

3. What are alkali?

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Answer: Water soluble bases are called alkali

4. Write any one use of Chlorine

Answer: In water treatment and making pesticides (any other suitable use)

5. Write the formula of a salt in which water of crystallization is present.

Answer: CuSO4. 5H2O , Na2CO3.10H2O or any other correct salt

6. Write the chemical name and chemical formula of the salt used to remove permanent
hardness of water
Answer: Sodium carbonate decahydrate Na2CO3. 10 H2O

7. Name the substance which is used to make food articles crispy, write its chemical formula
Answer: Baking powder or Baking soda, NaHCO3

8. Write the chemical name and chemical formula of washing soda?

Answer : Sodium carbonate decahydrate Na2CO3. 10 H2O

9. 9. Write the chemical name and chemical formula of a salt which is used for disinfecting
drinking water to make it germ free
Answer: : Calcium oxychloride, CaOCl2
10. Name a salt which is used as soda –fire extinguisher, write its chemical formula
Answer: Sodium Hydrogencarbonate ( NaHCO3)

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

For the following question numbers (1-5) two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and
the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b),
(c) and (d) as given below:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true

1. Assertion: After white washing the walls, a shiny white finish on walls is obtained after two
to three days.
Reason: Calcium Oxide reacts with Carbon dioxide to form Calcium Hydrogen Carbonate
which gives shiny white finish.

2. Assertion: Plaster of Paris is a is a white powder used to join fractured bones

Reason: On mixing with water plaster of paris changes to Gypsum giving a solid hard mass

3. Assertion: Sodium Hydroxide is formed during Chlor-alkali process

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 Reason: Electricity is passed through Sodium Hydroxide during chlor- alkali process.

4. Assertion: Baking soda is used for making food substances crispy during cooking.
Reason: The chemical name of baking soda is Sodium hydrogencarbonate

5. Assertion: Our stomach produces Sulphuric acid, which helps in digestion of food.
Reason: During indigestion excess acid secreted is neutralized by using bases called antacids.

Answers: 1.a 2.a 3.c 4.b 5.d

III. Short answer questions(2 marks)

1. What is a neutralization reaction? Give an examples.

Answer : A reaction in which an acid and base react with each other to give a salt and water is

termed as neutralization reaction. In this reaction, energy is evolved in the form of heat.

(i) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H 2O

( Base) (Acid) (Salt) (Water)

(ii) During indigestion (caused due to the production of excess of hydrochloric acid in the stomach),
we administer an antacid (generally milk of magnesia, which is basic in nature). The antacid
neutralizes the excess of acids and thus gives relief from indigestion.
Example- Mg ( OH )2 + 2HCl → MgCl2 + 2H 2O

2. Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.

Answer : Two important used of washing soda and baking soda are as follows:
(1) Washing soda:
(a) It is used in glass, soap, and paper industries.
(b) It is used to remove permanent hardness of water.

(2) Baking soda:

(a) It is used as baking powder. Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda and a mild
acid known as tartaric acid. When it is heated or mixed in water, it releases CO 2 that
makes bread or cake fluffy.
(b) It is used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.

3. What will be the action of the following substances on litmus paper?

Dry HCl gas, Moistened NH3 gas, Lemon juice, Carbonated soft drink, Curd, Soap solution.

Answer:

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Substance Action on Litmus paper

Dry HCl gas No change

Moistened NH3 gas Turns red to blue
Lemon juice Turns blue to red
Carbonated soft drink Turns blue to red
Curd Turns blue to red
Soap solution Turns red to blue

4. Name the acid present in ant sting and give its chemical formula. Also give the common
method to get relief from the discomfort caused by the ant sting.

Answer:. The acid present in ant sting is Methanoic acid (formic acid). The chemical formula is
HCOOH. To get relief one should apply any available basic salt e.g., baking soda (NaHCO3) on it.

5. What happens when nitric acid is added to egg shell? Write suitable chemical reaction.

Answer:. Egg shells contain calcium carbonate. When nitric acid is added to it, carbon dioxide gas is
evolved. The reaction can be given as
CaCO3 + 2HNO3 → Ca ( NO3 )2 + H2O + CO2

IV. Short answer questions(3 marks)

1. A student prepared solutions of (i) an acid and (ii) a base in two separate beakers. She
forgot to label the solutions and litmus paper is not available in the laboratory. Since both
the solutions are colourless, how will she distinguish between the two?

Answer: Using chemical indicator like phenolphthalein or natural indicators like turmeric, china rose

2. How would you distinguish between baking powder and washing soda by heating?

Answer: The chemical formula of baking powder is Sodium Hydrogencarbonate (NaHCO3). Whereas,
that of washing soda is sodium carbonate (Na2CO3.10H2O)

Sodium hydrogencarbonate on heating gives CO2 gas which will turn lime water milky whereas no
such gas is obtained from sodium carbonate.

2 NaHCO3 ⎯⎯ ⎯
heat
→ Na2CO3 + H 2O + CO2
Na2CO3 .10 H 2O ⎯⎯ ⎯
heat
→ Na2CO3 + 10 H 2O

3. Name the acid present in ant sting and give its chemical formula. Also give the common
method to get relief from the discomfort caused by the ant sting.

Answer: The acid present in ant sting is methanoic acid (formic acid).
The chemical formula is HCOOH.
To get relief one should apply any available basic salt e.g., baking soda (NaHCO3) on it.

4. What is water of crystallisation ? give two examples

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Answer: Water of crystallisation is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit
of a salt. Examples- CuSO4.5H2O, CaSO4.2H2O

5. Write the formula and give one use of each of the following compound-
a. Plaster of Paris
b. Bleaching powder
c. Baking soda

Answer:
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a. CaSO4 . H 2O , used to join fractured bones
2
b. CaOCl2 , used to disinfect water
c. NaHCO3 , making food items crispy and fluffy

LONG ANSWER QUESTION( 5MARKS)

1. Salt A commonly used in bakery products on heating gets converted into another salt B
which itself is used for removal of hardness of water and a gas C is evolved. The gas C
when passed through lime water, turns it milky due to formation of D. Identify A, B , C and
d. write equation to show formation of D from C

Answer: Baking powder (NaHCO3), salt A is commonly used in bakery products. On heating it forms
sodium carbonate (Na2CO3), B and CO2 gas, C is evolved.

When CO2 gas is passed through lime water it forms calcium carbonate (CaCO3), which is slightly
soluble in water making it milky.

A — NaHCO3 B — Na2CO3 C — CO2 gas D- CaCO3

CO2 + Ca ( OH )2 → CaCO3 + H2O

2. In one of the industrial processes used for manufacture of sodium hydroxide, a gas X is
formed as by product. The gas X reacts with lime water to give a compound Y which is used
as a bleaching agent in chemical industry. Identify X and Y giving the chemical equation of
the reactions involved.

Answer: In the manufacture of sodium hydroxide, hydrogen gas and chlorine gas (X) are formed as
by–products. When chlorine gas (X) reacts with lime water, it forms calcium oxychloride (bleaching
powder) Y. The reactions are -

2NaCl ( aq ) + 2H2O (l ) → 2 NaOH ( aq ) + Cl2 ( g ) + H 2 ( g ) X→ Cl2 (Chlorine gas)

Ca ( OH )2 ( s ) + Cl2 ( g ) →CaOCl2 ( s ) + H 2O

Y — Calcium oxychloride (bleaching powder)

3. Match the following pH values 1, 7, 10, 13 to the solutions given below:

• Milk of magnesia
• Gastric juices

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• Brine
• Aqueous Sodium hydroxide.
Amit and Rita decided to bake a cake and added baking soda to the cake batter. Explain with a
balanced reaction, the role of the baking soda. Mention any other use of baking soda.

Answer:
• Milk of magnesia 10
• Gastric juices 1
• Brine 7
• Aqueous Sodium hydroxide 13
Baking soda undergoes thermal decomposition to form Na2CO3 ,CO2 and H2O ; CO2 makes the cake
fluffy & soft
NaHCO3 ⎯⎯ ⎯
heat
→ Na2CO3 + CO2 + H 2O
Uses: Used in fire extinguishers/ antacid to neutralize excess acid in stomach / to neutralize the
effect of acid in insect sting.

4. (i) Four samples A, B, C and D change the colour of pH paper or solution to Green, Reddish-
pink, Blue and Orange. Their pH was recorded as 7, 2, 10.5 & 6 respectively. Which of the
samples has the highest amount of Hydrogen ion concentration? Arrange the four samples
in the decreasing order of their pH.

(ii) Rahul found that the Plaster of Paris, which he stored in a container, has become very hard
and lost its binding nature. What is the reason for this? Also, write a chemical equation to
represent the reaction taking place.
(iii) Give any one use of Plaster of Paris other than for plastering or smoothening of walls.

(i) a) B
b) C,A,D,B
(ii) Due to moisture in the atmosphere it converted into Gypsum
CaSO4 + 1½ H 2O → CaSO4 .2 H 2O
(iii) Making toys/dolls or statues /fixing broken limbs/making decorative materials.

5. A dry pellet of a common base B, when kept in open absorbs moisture and turns sticky.
The compound is also a by–product of Chlor alkali process. Identify B
What type of reaction occurs when B is treated with an acidic oxide? Write
a balanced chemical equation for one such solution.

Answer: B is Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a commonly used base and is hygroscopic, that is, it
absorbs moisture from the atmosphere and becomes sticky.

The acidic oxides react with base to give salt and water.

The reaction between NaOH and CO2 can be given as

2 NaOH + CO2 → Na2CO3 + H2O

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 Metal and Non metals.
1. Give an example of a metal which :
(i) is a liquid at room temperature.
(ii) can be easily cut with a knife.
(iii) is the best conductor of heat.
(iv) is a poor conductor of heat.
Answer:
(i) Mercury
(ii) Sodium
(iii) Silver
(iv) Lead
2. Explain the meanings of malleable and ductile.
Answer:-Malleable : A metal that can be beaten into thin sheets on hammering is called malleable.
Ductile : A metal which can be drawn into thin wires is called ductile
3. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil ?
Answer: Sodium is highly reactive. So it is kept immersed in kerosene oil to prevent its reaction with
oxygen, moisture and carbon dioxide of air to prevent accidental fires.
4. Write equations for the reactions of
(i) iron with steam.
(ii) calcium and potassium with water.
Answer:

5. Arun prepared a blue coloured solution of copper sulphate in beaker A and placed an iron
nail in it. Mahesh prepared a yellowish green solution of ferrous sulphate in beaker B and
placed a copper wire in it. What changes will they observe in the two beakers after an
hour?
Answer Hint: colour change to displacement reaction.
6. Which gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal ? Write
the chemical reaction when iron reacts with dilute H2SO4.
Answer:-Hydrogen gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal.
Chemical reaction when iron reacts with dilute H2SO4 :
Fe(s) + H2SO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + H2(g)
7. What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulphate ? Write the
chemical reaction that takes place.

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Answer:-Zinc is more reactive than iron. Therefore, when zinc is added to a solution of iron (II)
sulphate, then the greenish colour of iron (II) sulphate solution fades gradually due to the formation
of colourless zinc sulphate solution and iron metal is deposited on zinc.
8. A metal A, which is used in thermite process, when heated with oxygen gives an oxide B,
which is amphoteric in nature. Identify A and B. Write down the reactions of oxide B with
HCl and NaOH.
Answer: Hint : Al, Al2O3
9. A non-metal X exists in two different forms Y and Z. Y is the hardest natural substance,
whereas Z is a good conductor of electricity. Identify X, Y and Z.
Answer: X = Carbon, Y = Diamond, Z = Graphite
10. A metal that exists as a liquid at room temperature is obtained by heating its sulphide in
the presence of air. Identify the metal and its ore and give the reaction involved.
Answer Hint: Hg
11. A non-metal A is an important constituent of our food and forms two oxides B and C. Oxide
B is toxic whereas C causes global warming
(a) Identify A, B and C
(b) To which Group of Periodic Table does A belong?
Answer : Hint A = Carbon, B = CO, C = CO2
12. An element A reacts with water to form a compound B which is used in white washing. The
compound B on heating forms an oxide C which on treatment with water gives back B.
Identify A, B and C and give the reactions involved.
Answer: Hint : A = Ca, B = Ca(OH)2 C = CaO
13. An alkali metal A gives a compound B (molecular mass = 40) on reacting with water.
The compound B gives a soluble compound C on treatment with aluminium oxide.
Identify A, B and C and give the reaction involved.
Answer: Hint: A = Calcium, B = Calcium hydroxide.
14. A metal M does not liberate hydrogen from acids but reacts with oxygen to give a black
colour product. Identify M and black coloured product and also explain the reaction of M
with oxygen.
Answer Hint: Cu.
15. A non-metal A which is the largest constituent of air, when heated with H2 in 1:3 ratio in
the presence of catalyst (Fe) gives a gas B. On heating with O2 it gives an oxide C. If this
oxide is passed into water in the presence of air it gives an acid D which acts as a strong
oxidising agent.
(a) Identify A, B, C and D
(b) To which group of periodic table does this non-metal belong?
Answer Hint : A = Nitrogen and B = NH3 , Find others
16. An element A burns with golden flame in air. It reacts with another element B, atomic
number 17 to give a product C. An aqueous solution of product C on electrolysis gives a
compound D and liberates hydrogen. Identify A, B, C and D. Also write down the equations
for the reactions involved.
Answer Hint: A = Sodium (Na), B = chlorine (Cl)

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 17. An element X on reacting with O2 forms X2O. This Oxide dissolves in water and turns blue
litmus paper red. Predict the nature of element whether it is a metal or a non metal.
Answer: Hint: Na
18. An element E combines with O2 to form an oxide E2O, which is a good conductor of
electricity. i) How many electrons will be present in the outer most shell of E? ii) Write the
formula of the compound formed when it combines with Chlorine.
Answer Hint: Na
19. Saloni took a piece of burning charcoal and collected the gas evolved in a test tube. (a)
How will she find the nature of the gas ?
(b) Write down word equations of all the reactions taking place in this process.
Answer Hint: dissolve the gas in water and test with litmus paper.
20. One day Reeta went to a jeweller’s shop with her mother. Her mother gave old gold
jewellery to the goldsmith to polish. Next day when they brought the jewellery back, they
found that there was a slight loss in its weight. Can you suggest a reason for the loss in
weight?
Answer: Hint : aqua-Regia dissolves the oxides layer.
21. A brown substance X on heating in air forms a substance Y. When hydrogen gas is passed
over heated Y, it changes back into X.
i) Name the substance.
ii) Write the chemical equation.
Answer: Hint : X = Cu and Y = CuO
22. An element A which is a part of common salt and kept under kerosene reacts with another
element B of atomic number 17 to give a product C. When an aqueous solution of product
C is electrolysed then a compound D is formed and two gases are liberated.
(a) What are A and B ?
(b) Identify C and D.
(c) What will be the action of C on litmus solution ? Why ?
(d) State whether element B is a solid, liquid or gas at room temperature.
(e) Write formula of the compound formed when element B reacts with an element E
having atomic number 5.
Answer : Hint : A = Na, B =Cl and C = NaCl
23. A metal which exists as a liquid at room temperature is obtained by heating its sulphide
ore in the presence of air. (Deleted from syllabus this year)
(a) Name the metal and write its chemical symbol.
(b) Write the name and formula of the sulphide ore.
(c) Give the equations of chemical reactions involved in the production of metal from its
sulphide ore.
(d) Name a common device in which this metal is used.
(e) Can this metal displace copper from copper sulphate solution ? Why ?
Anwser Hint : Hg

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 24. No chemical reaction takes place when granules of a rusty-brown solid A are mixed with
the powder of another solid B. However, when the mixture is heated, a reaction takes
place between its components. One of the products C is a metal and settles down in the
molten state while the other product D floats over it. It was observed that the reaction is
highly exothermic.
(a) What could the solids A and B be ?
(b) What are the products C and D most likely to be ?
(c) Write the chemical equation for the reaction between A and B leading to the formation
of C and D. Mention the physical states of all the reactants and products in this equation
and indicate the heat change which takes place.
(d) What is the special name of such a reaction ? State one use of such a reaction.
(e) Name any two types of chemical reactions under which the above reaction can be
classified.
Answer: Hint : Iron oxide.
25. A metal X which is resistant to corrosion is produced by the electrolysis of its molten oxide
whereas another metal Y which is also resistant to corrosion is produced by the reduction
of its oxide with carbon. Metal X can be used in powder form in thermite welding whereas
metal Y is used in making cathodes of ordinary dry cells. (Deleted from syllabus this year)
(a) Name the metals X and Y.
(b) Which of the two metals is more reactive : X or Y ?
(c) Name one ore or metal X. Also write its chemical formula.
(d) Name one ore of metal Y. Also write its chemical formula.
(e) Name one alloy of metal X and one alloy of metal Y.
Answer Hint: X = Al and Y = Zn
26. When an object made of metal A is kept in air for a considerable time, it loses its shine and
becomes almost black due to the formation of a layer of substance B. When an object
made of another metal C is kept in damp air for a considerable time, it gets covered with a
green layer of substance D. Metal A is the best conductor of electricity whereas metal C is
the next best conductor of electricity.
(a) What is metal A ?
(b) What is metal C ?
(c) Name the substance B.
(d) Name the substance D.
(e) What type of chemical can be used to remove the green layer from metal C and clean it
? Why ?
Answer Hint: A = Al, C = Cu
27. Four metals P, Q, R and S are all obtained by the reduction of their oxides with carbon.
Metal P is used to form a thin layer over the sheets of metal S to prevent its corrosion.
Metal Q is used for electroplating tiffin boxes made of metal S whereas metal R is used in
making car batteries. Metals Q and R form an alloy called solder. What are metals P, Q, R
and S ? How have you arrived at this conclusion ? (Deleted from syllabus this year)
Hint P= Zn , Q = Al

20
 28. A black metal oxide XO2 is used as a catalyst in the preparation of oxygen gas from
potassium chlorate. The oxide XO2 is also used in ordinary dry cells. The metal oxide XO2
cannot be reduced satisfactorily with carbon to form metal X.
(a) Name the metal X.
(b) Name the metal oxide XO2
(c) Which reducing agent can be used to reduce XO2 to obtain metal X ?
(d) Name another metal which can also be extracted by the reduction of its oxide with the
above reducing agent.
Answer Hint: X= Zn and ZnO2

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) [1 Mark each]

1. What is the colour of aqueous solution of CuSO4 and FeSO4 as observed in the laboratory?
(a) CuSO4 – blue; FeSO4 – light green
(b) CuSO4 – blue; FeSO4 – dark green
(c) CuSO4 – green; FeSO4 – blue
(d) CuSO4 – green; FeSO4 – colourless
Answer:
(a) Colour of CuSO4 solution is blue and FeSO4 solution is light green.
2. A student took four test tubes I, II, III and IV containing aluminium sulphate, copper
sulphate? ferrous sulphate and zinc sulphate solutions respectively. He placed an iron strip
in each of them.

In which test tube, he found a brown deposit?

(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(b) In test tube II, because Fe is more reactive than copper but less reactive than Al arid Zn.
3. Aqueous solutions of zinc sulphate and iron sulphate were taken in test tubes I and II by
four students A, B, C and D. Metal pieces of iron and zinc were dropped in the two

21
 solutions and observations made after several hours were recorded in the form of table as
given below:
Which student has given the correct report?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) A
(d) C
Answer:
(d) Student C
(i) Fe is less reactive than zinc. So,

(ii) Zn is more reactive than Fe, so it displaces iron as follows:

4. 2 mL each of cone. HCl, cone. HNO3 and a mixture of cone. HCl and cone. HNO3 in the ratio
of 3 : 1 were taken in test tubes labelled as A, B and C. A small piece of metal was put in
each test tube. No change occurred in test tubes A and B ,but the metal got dissolved in
test tube C.
(a) Al
(b) Au
(c) Cu
(d) Pt
Answer:
(b, d) A mixture of cone. HCl and cone. HNO3 in the ratio of 3 : 1 is known as aqua-regia. Gold
(Au) and platinum (Pt) dissolve only in aqua-regia as these metals are very less reactive.
5. When an aluminium strip is kept (a) Green solution of FeSO 4 slowly turns brown
(b) Green solution of FeSO4 rapidly turns brown
(c) No change in colour of FeSO4
(d) Green solution of FeSO4 slowly turns colourless
Answer:
(a) The green solution of ferrous sulphate slowly turns brown. As aluminium is more reactive
than iron, it displaces iron from ferrous sulphate solution.

6. Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of
aluminium are responsible for the same?
(i) Good thermal conductivity
(ii) Good electrical conductivity
(iii) Ductility
(iv) High melting point
22
 (a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(d) Good thermal conductivity, malleability, light weight and high melting point are the
properties/of aluminium due to which it is used for making cooking utensils.
7. If copper is kept open in air, it slowly loses its shining brown surface and gains a green
coating. It is due to the formation of
(a) CuSO4
(b) CuCO3
(c) Cu(NO3)2
(d) CuO
Answer:
(b) Copper reacts with CO2 present in air and forms a green coating on its surface due to the
formation of basic copper carbonate [CuCO3.Cu(OH)2] as:

23
 Carbon and Its Compound

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not the use of graphite?

(a) It is used as lubricant
(b) It is used in manufacturing of lead-pencils
(c) It is used in manufacturing of artificial diamond
(d) It is used for making insulated plates

Ans: (d) It is used for making insulated plates

Graphite cannot be used for making insulated plates, as it is a good conductor of electricity.

2. Methane, ethane and propane are said to form a homologous series because all are-
(a) Hydrocarbons
(b) saturated compounds
(c) aliphatic compounds
(d) differ from each other by a CH2 group

Ans: (d) differ from each other by a CH2 group

3. Why does carbon form compounds mainly by covalent bonding?

(a) There are four electrons in the outermost shell of carbon.
(b) It requires large amount of energy to form C4+ or C4-
(c) It shares its valence electrons to complete its octet.
(d) All the above.

Ans: (d) All the above

4. Which of the following belongs to homologous series of alkynes?

C6H6, C2H6, C2H4, C3H4

(a) C6H6
(b) C2H4
(C) C2H6
(d) C3H4

Ans: C3H4

5. In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms to form
(a) a hexagonal array
(b) a rigid three-dimensional tetrahedral structure
(c) a structure in the shape of a football
(d) a structure of a ring

24
Ans: (b) a rigid three-dimensional tetrahedral structure.

6.

(a) 2-ethyl-2-methyl propane

(b) 2, 2-demethyl butane
(c) 1,1,1-trimethyl propane
(d) 2, 2-methyl butane

Ans: (b) 2, 2-demethyl butane

7. Which of the following is the molecular formula of cyclobutane?

a) C4H10
b) C4H6
c) C4H8
d) C4H4

Ans: (c) C4H8

Explanation: Cyclobutane is a cyclic hydrocarbon consisting of four carbon atoms where each
carbon atom is attached to the two other carbon atoms and two hydrogen atoms, as shown below:

. Choose the correct statement:

8. (a) The ethene molecule is made up of 2 carbon atoms and 4 hydrogen atoms.

(b) Each carbon atom shares three electrons with three hydrogen atoms to form three carbon-
hydrogen single covalent bonds.

(c) In ethane, the two carbon atoms share one pair of electrons among themselves to form
one carbon-carbon single covalent bond.

(d) All the above.

Ans: (d) All the above

25
9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of fullerenes?

(a) Of all the fullerene, C60 allotrope is the most stable.

(b) Its shape is similar to that of a soccer ball.

(c) It contains only fused six-membered carbon-carbon rings.

(d) Its hardness is lower than that of diamond.

Ans: (c) It contains only fused six-membered carbon-carbon rings.

10. Which of the following statements about carbon is incorrect?

(a) It has four electrons in the valence shell.

(b) The four valencies of carbon do not lie in plane.

(c) The angle between any two adjacent valencies is 109.50.

(d) Three valencies of carbon are inclined to one another at an angle of 120 0 while fourth is
perpendicular to the plane containing the remaining three valencies.

Ans: (d) Three valencies of carbon are inclined to one another at an angle of 120 0 while fourth is
perpendicular to the plane containing the remaining three valencies.

ASSERTION AND REASON

DIRECTION: In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion: Cyclopropane is heterocyclic compound.

Reason: Cyclopropane comes into category of those compounds in which complete ring is
formed by carbon atoms only.

Ans: (d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

2. Assertion: Branched-chain alkanes have lower boiling points.

26
 Reason: As molecular size decreases, boiling point increases.

Ans: (c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

Boiling point increases with increase in molecular mass and surface area of the compound. With
the increase of branching surface area decreases and hence the boiling point.

3. Assertion: Olefins have the general formula CnH2n

Reason: There is one triple bond between two carbon atoms in their molecules.

Ans: (c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

4. Assertion: Ionic compounds are solid in nature.

Reason: Ions are closely packed in 3-D crystal lattice structure.

Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).

5. Assertion: Carbon shows maximum catenation property in the periodic table.

Reason: Carbon has small size and thus, forms strong C - C bond.

Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUSTIONS (1 MARK)

1. Name the product formed when a mixture of ammonium chloride and potassium cyanate
is heated? Is the product, an ionic or a covalent compound?

Ans: Urea. It is a covalent compound.

2. A boy sharpens a pencil at both the ends and connects them to the poles of the battery.
Will the current flow through the circuit? Give reasons for your answer.
3. An organic compound burns with sooty flame. Is it saturated or unsaturated compound?
4. Draw the structure of 3,3-Dimethyl pentane.
5. What is the valency of carbon in CH3-CH3 and CH2=CH2?

Ans: The valency of carbon in all its compounds whether saturated or unsaturated is 4.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. An alkane has molecular weight 86. Write its molecular formula. What will be its physical
state?
2. Compare the ability of catenation of carbon and silicon. Give reasons.

Ans: Hints: Strength of C-C bond > Si-Si bond

27
 3. Explain the following:

(a) Diamond does not conduct electricity.

(b) Diamond is used for making tools for cutting and drilling.

Ans: Hints: (a) No free electrons

(b) Diamond has the highest thermal conductivity of any known substance.

4. (a) How can diamonds be made artificially? How do synthetic diamonds differ from
natural ones?

(b) Give any two differences between the properties of diamond and graphite. What
causes these differences?

Ans: (a) Diamonds can be made artificially by subjecting pure carbon to very high pressure and
temperature. The synthetic diamonds are small whereas natural diamonds are big.

(b)(i) Diamond is hard whereas graphite is soft.

(ii) Diamond is a non-conductor of electricity whereas graphite is a good conductor of electricity.

The difference in the physical properties of diamond and graphite arises because of the different
arrangements of carbon atoms in them.

5. NaCl conducts electricity in its molten as well as in aqueous state but not in its solid state.
Why?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

1. (a) Write two points of difference in the structures of diamond and graphite.

(b) Explain why, graphite can be used as a lubricant but diamond cannot.

(c) Explain why, diamond can be used in rock drilling equipment but graphite cannot.

2. A solid element X has four electrons in the outermost shell of its atom. An allotrope Y of
this element is used as a dry lubricant in machinery and also in making pencil leads.

(a) What is element X?

(b) Name the allotrope Y.

(c) State whether allotrope Y is a good conductor or non-conductor of electricity.

(d) Name one use of allotrope Y (other than lubrication and pencil leads)

(e) Name two other allotropes of element X.

3. Two organic compounds A and B have the same molecular formula C 6H12. Write the names
and structural formulae:

28
 (a) If A is a cyclic compound

(b) If B is an open chain compound

(c) Which compound contains single bonds as well as a double bond?

(d) Which compound contains only single bonds?

4. The solid element A exhibits the property of catenation. It is also present in the form of a
gas B in the air which is utilised by plants in photosynthesis. An allotrope C of this element
is used in glass cutters.

(a) What is element A?

(b) What is the gas B?

(c) Name the allotrope C.

(d) State another use of allotrope C (other than in glass cutters).

(e) Name another allotrope of element A which exists as spherical molecules.

(f) Name a yet another allotrope of element A which conducts electricity.

5. An element E exists in three allotropic forms A, B and C. In allotrope A, the atoms of

element E are joined to form spherical molecules. In allotrope B, each atom of element E is
surrounded by three other E atoms to form a sheet like structure. In allotrope C, each atom
of element E is surrounded by four other E atoms to form a rigid structure.

(a) Name the element E.

(b) What is allotrope A?

(c) What is allotrope B?

(d) What is allotrope C?

(e) Which allotrope is used in making jewellery?

PARAGRAPH BASED MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Question numbers 1 to 4 are based on the following paragraph

Carbon is a versatile element. It has three important allotropic forms: diamond, graphite and
Buckminster fullerene, which have quite different physical properties. Diamond is hard, graphite is
soft while fullerene is neither very hard nor very soft.

Now answer the following questions choosing the correct option in each case:

1. Which of the following characteristics of diamond is correct?

(a) It has three dimensional rigid structure.

29
 (b) Its thermal conductivity is lower than that of copper.

(c) It is good conductor of electricity.

(d) It contains both carbon-carbon single and double bond.

2. Which one of the following statement is not correct about graphite?

(a) It has two-dimensional layered structure made up of fused benzene rings.

(b) It contains only carbon-carbon double bonds.

(c) It is good conductor of heat and electricity.

(d) It is used as a solid lubricant for heavy machinery.

3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of fullerenes?

(a) Of all the fullerene, C60 allotrope is the most stable.

(b) Its shape is similar to that of a soccer ball.

(c) It contains only fused six-membered carbon-carbon rings.

(d) Its hardness is lower than that of diamond.

4. Choose the incorrect statement about allotropes of carbon.

(a) Fullerenes are soluble in organic solvent.

(b) Lead in lead pencils is made up of graphite.

(c) The weight of diamond is expressed in carats.

(d) The complete oxidation product of diamond, graphite and fullerenes are different.

30
 PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
1. Account for the following :
(a) Elements C, N, O and F are placed in the second period of the periodic table.
(b) Elements of group 17 are monovalent.
Answer:
(a) All these elements have two electron shells. Therefore, these are placed in the second period.
C (Z=6) 2, 4 ;
N (Z = 7) 2, 5 ;
O (Z = 8) 2, 6 ;
F (Z = 9) 2, 7
(b) All the elements included in the group 17 have 7 valence electrons in their atoms. These atoms
need only one electron to acquire the electronic configuration of nearest noble gas atom. Therefore,
these are monovalent
2. Chlorine (atomic number 17) is more electronegative than sulphur (atomic number 16).
Explain.
Answer:
Chlorine (Z = 17) is placed after sulphur (Z = 16) in the same period i.e. third period. The size of
chlorine is smaller than that of sulphur and its atom needs only one electron to have noble gas
electronic configuration while sulphur atom needs two electrons. Therefore, chlorine has greater
attraction for electrons than sulphur. It is more electronegative than sulphur.
3. The atomic numbers of three elements X, Y and Z are 9, 11 and 17 respectively. Which of
these two elements will show similar characteristics and why ?
Answer:
The elements X and Z will show similar characteristics because they differ in their atomic numbers
by 8 (9, 17). Both these are halogens and belong to group 17 (halogen family). These are fluorine (Z=
9) and chlorine (Z = 17) .

4.

Element (symbol) A B C

Atomic no. 5 7 10

The atomic number of three elements are given below :

Write the symbol of the element which belongs to
(i) group 13,
(ii) group 15, of the periodic table. State the period of the periodic table to which these elements
belong. Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
Electronic configuration of the elements A, B and C are as given :
Element (symbol) A B C

31
 Atomic no. 5 (2, 3) 7 (2, 5) 10(2, 8)

Element (Symbol) A B C
Atomic number 5 (2, 3) 7 (2, 5) 10(2, 8)
(i) Element A belongs to group 13 (Group No. = 10 + 3 = 13). It is boron (B)
(ii) Element B belongs to group 15 (Group No. = 10 + 5 = 15). It is nitrogen (N)
Both these elements belong to second period since they have two shells.
5. Write two reasons responsible for the late discovery of noble gases.
Answer:
(i) Noble gas elements were not present in earth crust as minerals like other elements and were
present in air to a very small extent.
(ii) Their atoms have stable electronic configuration of their outermost shells also called valence
shells. (2 in case of He and 8 for other elements). They do not combine with atoms of other
elements.
That is why noble gas elements were discovered at a later stage.
6. Three elements A, B and C have atomic numbers 7, 8 and 9 respectively.
(a) What would be their positions in the modern periodic table ? (Mention group and period both)
(b) Arrange A, B and C in decreasing order of their size.
(c) Which one of the three elements is most reactive and why ?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of these elements are :
(a) A ( Z = 7) 2, 5;
B (Z = 8) 2, 6;
C (Z = 9) 2, 7
Position of element A = 15th group and 2nd period
Position of element B = 16th group and 2nd period ‘
Position of element C = 17th group and 2nd period.
(b) In general, atomic size decreases along a period. Therefore, decreasing order of size is A > B > C
(c) The element C (Z = 9) is fluorine. It is the most reactive element since it needs only one electron
to acquire a noble gas configuration.
7. The elements with atomic number 3 to 10 belong to the second period. Taking into
account the trends in the general periodic properties, predict.
(a) The most electronegative element
(b) The most electropositive element
(c) The element belonging to noble gas family
(d) The element which constitutes large number of organic compounds.
Answer:
(a) The most electronegative element has atomic number (Z) = 9. It is fluorine (F).
(b) The most electropositive element has atomic number (Z) = 3. It is lithium (Li)
(c) The element belonging to noble gas family has atomic number (Z) = 10. It is neon (Ne)
(d) The element which constitutes large number of organic compounds has atomic number (Z) = 6. It
is carbon (C).

32
 8. “Elements in Periodic Table show periodicity of properties”. List any four properties.
Answer:
Periodicity i.e., repetition of similar properties is shown by the elements present in a group and
separated by definite gaps of atomic number. For example,
1. Elements in a group have same number of valence electrons and same valency.
2. Elements present in a group show similar chemical properties.
3. The atomic sizes of the elements in a group increase regularly.
4. The m.p. and b.p. of the elements in a group increase regularly.
9. The electronic configuration of three elements X, Y and Z are given below ;
X = 2 ; Y = 2, 6 ; Z = 2, 8, 2.
1. Which element belongs to the second period ?
2. Which element belongs to the eighteenth group ?
3. Which element belongs to the second group ?
4. What is the valency of Y ?
5. Are Y and Z metals or non-metals ?
Answer:
1. The element ‘Y’ belongs to second period.
2. The element ‘X’ belongs to eighteenth group also called zero group.
3. The element ‘Z’ belongs to second group.
4. Element ‘Y’ has valency equal to 2(8 -6 = 2).
5. The element ‘Y’ is a non-metal while element ‘Z’ is a metal.

10.
Element (symbol) A B C D E

Atomic no. 7 10 12 4 19

The atomic numbers of elements A, B, C, D and E are given below :

From the above table, answer the following questions
(a) Which two elements are chemically similar ?
(b) Which is an inert gas ?
(c) Which element belongs to 3rd period of periodic table ?
(d) Which element among these is a non-metal ?
Answer:
Element (symbol) A B C D E

Atomic no. 7 (2,5) 10 (2,8) 12 (2,8,2) 4 (2,2) 19 (2,8,8,1)

The electronic configuration of the elements are as follows :

Element A B C D E
Atomic no. 7(2, 5) 10 (2, 8) 12 (2, 8, 2) 4 (2, 2) 19 (2, 8, 8, 1)

33
 (a) Elements C and D are chemically similar since they have same number of valence electrons.
(b) Element B is an inert gas element since it has complete octet.
(c) Element C belongs to third period since it has three shells.
(d) Element A is a non-metal since it has five valence electrons.

11. Using the part of the periodic table given below, answer the questions that follow.
Group ⇒ I II III IV V VI VII Zero
Period ⇓
1 H He
2 Li Be B C N O F Ne
3 Na Mg Al Si O S Cl Ar
4 K Ca
(i) Na has physical properties similar to which elements and why ?
(ii) Write the electronic configuration of N and P.
(iii) State one property common to fluorine and chlorine.
Answer:
(i) Na has physical properties similar to Li and K. All the three elements have one electron each in the
valence shell of their atoms. These are known as alkali metals. However, the element hydrogen has
different physical properties.
(ii) Electronic configuration of N (Z = 7) = 2, 5
Electronic configuration of P (Z = 15) = 2, 8, 5
(iii) Both the elements have seven electrons in the valence shells as their atoms and have valency equal
to one.
Fluorine (Z = 19) 2, 7 ;
Chlorine (Z = 17) 2, 8, 7.
12. Atomic radii of the elements present in second period are given :

1. Arrange them in decreasing order of their atomic radii.

2. Are these elements arranged in the pattern of a period in the periodic table ?
3. Which elements have the largest and the smallest atoms ?
4. How does the atomic radius change as you move from left to right in a period ?
Answer:
1. The decreasing order of atomic radii is :
Li(152) > Be (111) > B (88) > C(77) > N(74) > O(66)
2. No, the arrangement of the elements is not systematic. The correct arrangement is as given
above.
3. The element Li has the largest atoms while the element O has the smallest atoms.
4. The atomic radii of the elements decrease in moving from left to the right.
13. “The atomic number of Cl is 17. On the basis of this information, answer the questions that

34
 follow :
(a) Write the electronic configuration of Cl.
(b) Find its valency.
(c) To which group does it belong ?
(d) Identify the type of ion it will form.
(e) Write down the formula of the compound it forms with other elements.
Answer:
(a) Electronic configuration of Cl (Z = 17) = 2, 8, 7.
(b) Valency of Cl = 8 – 7 = 1
(c) Group to which Cl belongs =17 id) Type of ion formed by Cl = Anion (Cl–).
(e) Formula of compound with other elements (M) = MClx
∴ Here x is the valency of the element.
14. The list of the elements present in the same period but in different groups is given :
1 2 13 14 15 16 17 18
(a) Do these groups represent modern periodic table ?
(b) Which element will belong to oxygen family ?
(c) Which element will not take part in chemical combination ?
(d) The elements belonging to which groups will form ionic bonds most readily ?
Answer:
(a) Yes, these groups of elements represent modern periodic table.
(b) The element present in group 16 belongs to oxygen family.
(c) The element included in group 18 (noble gas elements) will not take part in chemical combination.
(d) The elements belonging to group 1 and group 17 will form ionic bonds most readily.

15. An element E has following electronic configuration :

(a) To which group of the periodic table does element E belong ?

(b) To which period of the periodic table does element E belong ?
(c) State the number of valence electrons present in element E.
(d) State the valency of the element E.
Answer:
The element with atomic no. (Z) = 16 is sulphur (S).
(a) It belongs to group 16 of the periodic table,
(b) It belongs to third period since it has three shells.
(c) The element has six valence electrons.
(d) The valency of the element is 2 (8 – 6 = 2).
16.
1 2 13 14 15 16 17 108
Lithium carbon Oxygen Neon

X S P Q
Y R

35
 Z T

From the part of the periodic table given, answer the following questions.
(a) Which is the most reactive metal ?
(b) Name the family of L, Q, R, T.
(c) Name one element of group 2 and 15,
(d) Name one member of group 18 other than neon.
(e) Give the name of the element S placed below carbon in group 14.
Answer:
(a) The element Z is the most reactive metal.
(b) The elements are present in group 17. The family is that of halogens.
(c) One element belonging to group 2 is calcium (Ca) while one present in to group 15 is nitrogen (N).
(d) The element argon (Ar) is also present in group 18.
(e) The element is silicon (Si)

36
 LIFE PROCESSES
1. (a) How does carbon dioxide from the air enter the leaves of a plant to be used in
photosynthesis?
(b) How does water from the soil reach the leaves of a plant to be used in photosynthesis?

Ans: (a) The carbon dioxide gas enters the leaves of the plants through the stomata present on their
surface.
(b) The water required by the plants for photosynthesis is absorbed by the roots of the plants from
the soil through the process of osmosis. The absorbed water is then transported upward through
the xylem vessels to the leaves where it reaches the photosynthetic cells and utilized in
photosynthesis.

2. (a) What is the common for cuscuta, ticks and leeches?

(b) Name the substances on which the following enzymes act in the human digestive system:
(i) Trypsin (ii) Amylase (iii) Pepsin (iv) Lipase
(c) Why does absorption of digested food occur mainly in the small intestine?

Ans (a) Parasitic mode of nutrition.

(b) (i) Proteins (ii) Starch (iii) Proteins (iv) Fats.
(c) Absorption of digested foods occurs mainly in the small intestine due to the presence of a large
number of finger like projections called villi.

3. How do guard cells regulate opening and closing of stomatal pores?

(b) Two similar green plants are kept separately in oxygen free containers, one in dark and
the other in continuous light. Which one will live longer? Give reasons.

Ans (a) The opening and closing of stomatal pores is controlled by the guard cells, when water flows
into the guard cells, they swell, become curved and cause the pore to open whereas when the guard
cells lose water, they shrink, become straight and close the stomatal pore.
(b) Plant kept in continuous light will live longer because it will be able to produce oxygen required
for its respiration by the process of photosynthesis.

4. (a) Leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with vaseline. Will this plant remain
healthy for long? Give reasons for your answer.
(b) What will happen to the rate of photosynthesis in a plant under the following
circumstances?
(i) cloudy day in morning but bright sunshine in the afternoon.
(ii) no rainfall in the area for a considerable time.
(iii) gathering of dust on the leaves.
Ans:-
(a) This plant will not remain healthy for long because vaseline coating closes the stomatal pores on
the leaves due to which (i) plant will not get oxygen for respiration (ii) plant will not get carbon

37
dioxide for photosynthesis, and (iii) plant will not get water (and minerals) due to stoppage of
transpiration.
(b) (i) Decreases in morning but increases in the afternoon
(ii) Decreases.
(iii) Decreases.

5. (a) Describe the parts of our tooth with the help of a labelled diagram.

(b) What is meant by dental caries? How are they caused?

(c)What is dental plaque? What harm can it do? How can the formation of plaque be
prevented?
Ans (a) The tooth has hard outer covering called enamel. The part of tooth below enamel is called
dentine inside which is the pulp cavity. The pulp cavity contains nerves and blood vessels.

(b) The formation of small cavities (or holes) in the teeth due to the action of acid forming bacteria
and improper dental care is called dental caries.
This happens as follows: When we eat sugary food, the bacteria in our mouth act on sugar to
produce acids. These acids dissolve the calcium salts from the tooth enamel and then from dentine
forming small cavities in the tooth over a period of time in our mouth act on sugar to produce acids.
These acids dissolve the calcium salts from the tooth enamel and then from dentine forming small
cavities in the tooth over a period of time.

(c) If the teeth are not cleaned regularly, they become covered with the sticky, yellowish layer of
food particles and bacteria cells called dental plaque. It causes tooth decay. It can be prevented by
brushing the teeth regularly as it neutralises the acids.

38
 6. (a) Name the main organs of the human digestive system. Also name the associated glands.

(b) How do carbohydrates, fats and proteins get digested in human beings?
a. The various organs of the human digestive system are mouth, oesophagus, stomach, small
intestine and large intestine. The glands associated with the human digestive system are
salivary glands, liver and pancreas.
b. (i) Carbohydrates - The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth. The human saliva
contains an enzyme called salivary amylase which digests the starch present in the food into
maltose sugar. Pancreatic amylase present in the pancreatic juice breaks down the starch.
The intestinal juice of the small intestine completes the digestion of carbohydrates and
finally coverts it into glucose.

(ii) Fats - The process of digestion of fats begins in the stomach. The glands of stomach
secrete a small amount of gastric lipase that breaks down the fats present in the food. From
the stomach the partially digested food goes into small intestine where the pancreatic lipase
breaks down the emulsified fats. The walls of small intestine secrete intestinal juice which
converts the fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

(iii) Proteins - The digestion of proteins begins in the stomach. The glands of the stomach
secrete gastric juice which contains an enzyme called pepsin. Pepsin converts the proteins
into peptones. Pancreatic juice contains trypsin which digests the proteins into peptides and
the intestinal juice completes the process of digestion of proteins thus converting it into
amino acids.

7. Explain how, the air we breathe in gets cleaned while passing through the nasal passage.

(b) Why do the walls of trachea not collapse when there is less air in it?

(c)How are oxygen and carbon dioxide exchanged in our body during respiration?

(d) How are lungs designed in human beings to maximise the exchange of gases?

Ans (a) When air passes through the nasal passage, the dust particles and other impurities present
in it are trapped by nasal hair and mucus so that clean air goes into the lungs.

c. Trachea does not collapse even when there is no air in it because it is supported by rings of
soft bones called cartilage.

d. During the process of 'breathing in' the air sacs or alveoli of the lungs get filled with air
containing oxygen. The alveoli are surrounded by capillaries carrying blood so the oxygen of
air diffuses from the alveoli walls into the blood from where it is carried to all the parts of
the body.
As the blood passes through the tissues of the body, the oxygen present in it diffuses into

39
 the cells. This oxygen combines with the digested food to release energy. Carbon dioxide gas
is produced as a waste product during respiration in the cells of the body tissues which
diffuses into the blood. Blood carries the carbon dioxide back to the lungs where it diffuses
into the alveoli.

e. The human lungs have been designed to maximise the exchange of gases as there are
millions of alveoli in the lungs which provides a large surface area for the exchange of gases.

8. Differentiate between translocation and transpiration

Ans Transpiration: loss of water from the leaves of plant
Translocation: Transport of food from leaves to all parts of plants

9. Describe the working of human blood circulatory system with the help of a suitable diagram
which shows all steps involved.
Ans Pulmonary and systemic circulation

10. (a) Describe the mechanism of urine formation in human excretory system. Draw a labelled
diagram to illustrate your answer.
(b) Where is urine carried through ureters?
(c) What is urethra?

Ans (a) Refer to NCERT page 111

(b) Urinary bladder.

(c) Urethra is a tube which passes out the urine from the body collected in the urinary bladder.

11. (a) “The breathing cycle is rhythmic whereas exchange of gases is a continuous process”.
Justify this statement.
(b) What happens if conducting tubes of circulatory system develops a leak? State in brief,
how could this be avoided?
(c) How opening and closing of stomata takes place?

Ans (a) The breathing cycle involves inhalation and exhalation of air due to alternate expansion and
contraction of thoracic cavity. Thus it is a rhythmic process. But exchange of gases is a continuous
process as it takes place between the blood and each and every cell, by diffusion.
(b) The circulatory system will become inefficient if it develops a leak. This could be avoided by
maintaining a normal blood pressure.
(c) When water flows into the guard cells, the guard cells swell and the stomatal pore opens up.
When water moves out the guard cells shrinks and the stomatal pore closes.

12. Draw a schematic representation of transport and exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
during transportation of blood in human beings and label on it:

40
 Lung capillaries, Pulmonary artery to lungs, Aorta to body, Pulmonary veins from lungs.
(b) What is the advantage of separate channels in mammals and birds for oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood?
Ans (a) A schematic representation of transportation and exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
during transportation of blood in human beings

(b) It is necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds because
they need high energy and large amount of oxygen. The separation of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood provides high oxygen supply to the organs.

13. Explain the process of breakdown of glucose in a cell.

Ans refer to fig 6.8 NCERT page 102

14. Explain the role of stomata in this process.

(b) Describe an experiment to show that “sunlight is essential for photosynthesis.”

Ans (a) Exchange of gases, transpiration

(c) Refer to activity 6.1

41
 HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE

1 Marks Questions
1. Write the full expansion of HIV.
Answer: Human immuno-deficiency virus.
2. Write the full form of IUCD.
Answer: Intra-uterine contraceptive device.
3. Name the type of fission carried out by Amoeba.
Answer: Binary fission.
4. What is vegetative propagation?
Answer: It is the formation of new plants from vegetative parts (e.g., stem, leaf, root, bud) of
a parent plant.
5. List two functions performed by ovaries in a human female.
Answer:

1. Formation of ova
2. Secretion of hormones, estrogen and progesterone.
6. What is the effect of DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate in the reproductive
process?.
Answer: It produces mutations which give rise to useful, harmful and neutral variations in
the progeny.
7. Name the hormone, secretion of which is, responsible for dramatic changes in appearance in
girls when they approach 10-12 years of age.
Answer: Estrogen (= oestrogen) produced by growing follicles inside the ovary.
8. Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction?
Answer: Cell multiplication is essential for reproduction either as a means of multiplication in
unicellular organisms or as a means of development of multicellular body from a single
celled zygote. Cell multiplication cannot occur without DNA replication or DNA copying
because each new cell must carry the full DNA complement.
9. Mention the common mode of reproduction found in

1. Amoeba
2. Planaria.
Amoeba Binary fission in any plane.

Answer: Planaria: Transverse binary fission.

10. Name any two types of asexual reproduction.

Answer: Fission, Spore formation.
11. State the method used for growing rose plants.
Answer: Artificial method of vegetative propagation by stem cuttings and bud grafting.
12. State what type of method is used for growing jasmine plant.
Answer: Layering, a type of artificial method of vegetative propagation.
13. No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population. Why?
Answer: Due to presence of variations.

42
14. “Cell division is a type of reproduction in unicellular organisms”. Justify.
Answer: In unicellular organisms cell division is a mode of reproduction as it produces two
individuals or daughters by division of the parent cell.
15. Name the type of reproduction which
(a) involves gametes
(b) Does not involve gametes.
Answer:
(a) Sexual reproduction
(b) Asexual reproduction.
16. Define puberty.
Answer: It is the beginning of development for sexual maturity which occurs at the age of
10-14 years in girls and 13—15 years in boys. Fully formed primary sex organs start secreting
hormones for slow development of secondary sex organs and secondary sex characters.
17. Name the life process of an organism that helps in the growth of its population.
Answer: Reproduction.
18. Name two simple organisms having the ability of regeneration.
Answer: Hydra, Planaria.
19. Where is DNA found in the cell?
Answer: Nucleus, plastids and mitochondria.
20. Name the type of reproduction mostly seen in unicellular organisms.
Answer: Asexual reproduction through cell division as binary fission, multiple fission,
sporulation, budding.
21. Define sexual reproduction.
Answer: It is a mode of reproduction in which offspring are formed by the process of
formation and fusion of gametes.
22. In human female reproductive system where does fertilization occur?
Answer: In fallopian tube at ampulla—isthmus junction.
23. Name the parts where germ cells of a flower are located.
Answer: Male — in anther of stamen.
Female — in ovule of carpel.
24. Name the part of Bryophyllum where buds are produced for propagation.
Answer: Leaf notches.
25. What is DNA?
Answer: DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid is a self replicating biochemical that is carrier of
genetic informationfor expression of hereditary traits and transfer to the next generation.
26. What happens when a Planaria gets cut into two pieces?
Answer: Each piece grows (regenerates the missing parts) to form a complete animal.
27. Name the method by which Hydra reproduces commonly. Is this method sexual or asexual?
Answer: Hydra reproduces commonly by budding (also regeneration). It is a method of
asexual reproduction.
28. List two unisexual flowers.
Answer: Water Melon, Papaya.

43
29. Why is fertilization not possible without pollination?
Answer: Fertilization requires bringing of male gametes to the female gamete which is
possible only when pollen grain is brought from the anther to the stigma in the process of
pollination.
30. What happens when a mature Spirogyra filament attains considerable length?
Answer: The elongated mature filament of Spirogyra breaks to form smaller pieces or
fragments. The fragments grow to form mature filaments. .
31. What are those organisms called which bear both the sex organs in the same individual? Give
one example of such organism.
Answer: Bisexual or hermaphrodite, eg. Mustard, Hydra.
32. List two functions of ovary of human female reproductive system.
Answer:

1. Formation of ova
2. Secretion of hormones estrogen and progesterone.
33. Name the method by which Spirogyra reproduces under favourable conditions. Is this
method sexual or asexual?
Answer:

1. Fragmentation
2. Asexual method.
34. Flow does Planaria reproduce? Is this method sexual or asexual?
Answer:

1. Transverse binary fission and regeneration

2. Asexual method.
35. How does Plasmodium reproduce? Is this method sexual or asexual?
Answer:

1. Multiple fission,
2. Asexual method.
36. When a cell reproduces, what happens to its DNA?
Answer: DNA replicates and forms its copy at the time of cell reproduction.
37. Newly formed DNA copies may not be identical at times. Give one reason.
Answer: Error in DNA copying due to incorporation of wrong nucleotide.
38. Why is variation important for a species?
Answer: Variation provides adaptability to changing environment and increased fitness in
the struggle for existence.
39. Name the organs producing
(i) male germ cells / sperms and
(ii) female germ cells / ova respectively in humans.
Answer:
(i) Testis
(ii) Ovary.

44
 40. What is fertilisation? Where does it occur in a human female?
Answer: Fertilisation is the fusion of male and female gametes to form diploid zygote. In
human female, it occurs in ampulla part of fallopian tube.

2 MARKS QUESTIONS

1. What is placenta? State its two roles during pregnancy.

Answer: Placenta is a spongy vascular structure formed by the joint activity of maternal and
foetal tissues in the wall of uterus that connects foetus with uterus.
Roles:

1. Providing nutrition to the foetus.

2. Taking away wastes of the foetus.
2. Compare the vegetative propagation of Bryophyllum and Money plant.
Answer: In Bryophyllum, vegetative propagation occurs through the agency of leaves that
fall on moist soil. In Money Plant, vegetative propagation occurs with the help of stem
cuttings bearing at least one leaf and its axillary bud. A single leaf of Bryophyllum can
produce several plants. A leafy stem cutting of Money Plant forms only a single plant.
3. (a) Where are the male germ cell and female gamete produced in a flower ?
(b) State the significance of variation in reproduction.
(c) Mention the principle of regeneration.
Answer:
(a) Male Germ Cell (Male Gamete). Formed inside the pollen tube or pollen grain from
generative cell.
Female Gamete (Oosphere). Inside embryo sac part of ovule.
(b) Significance of Variation in Reproduction

1. It provides individuality to each living organism,

2. It helps individuals in the struggle for existence,
3. Variation is a source of preadaptation.
(c) Principle of Regeneration: It is the ability of an individual to form lost or broken part,
sometimes the entire individual from a piece of the parent body through dedifferentiation of
mature cells and activity of reserve cells. The ability to form a new individual from a part of the body
is well developed in simple animals like Hydra and Planaria. It is restricted to the formation of only
broken parts in complex organisms.

4. (a) Name two bacterial STD infections.

(b) How do oral pills prevent pregnancy?
Answer:
(a)
i. Gonorrhoea caused by bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae
ii. Syphilis caused by bacterium Treponema pallidum.
(b) Oral pills contain progestin (= progesterone) alone or in combination with estrogen. They
prevent pregnancy by inhibition of ovulation, making uterine wall unsuitable for implantation
alongwith unsuitable changes in cervical mucus and activity of fallopian tubes.

45
5. Explain how ovary functions both as reproductive organ as well as endocrine gland.
Answer: Reproductive Organ. Ovary produces ova, one every lunar month for possible
fertilization and formation of foetus.
Endocrine Gland. Maturing ova or follicles present in ovary secrete oestrogen (= estrogen)
while empty follicle develops into corpus luteum that secretes progesterone.
6. What is the information source in the cell nucleus for making proteins. State the basic events
in reproduction.
Answer:

1. Information Source. DNA

2. Basic Events in Reproduction. DNA replication, growth of cellular machinery and cell
division.
7. (a) Why are budding, fragmentation and regeneration considered as asexual type of
reproduction?
(b) Which among the following reproduces by spore formation: Bryophyllum, Rhizopus,
Hydra ?
Answer:
(a) Asexual Reproduction: Budding, fragmentation and regeneration are all considered to be
modes of asexual reproduction as they involve formation of new individuals from single
parents without fertilization or fusion of gametes.
(b) Rhizopus.
8. Draw labelled diagram of
(a) Spore formation in Rhizopus
(b) Regeneration in Planaria.
Answer:
(a)

46
 (b)

9. “Multicellular organisms cannot divide cell by cell”. List two reasons to justify this
statement.
Answer:

1. In multicellular organisms, cell by cell division is a method of growth and not a method
of multiplication as in unicellular organisms.
2. Multicellular organisms have developed complex and specialised reproductive
structures which are not possible in single celled organisms.
10. (a) Name the process by which pollen grains are transferred from anther to stigma. Mention
any one external agent which performs this process in some flowers. .
(b) Differentiate between its two types. Give one example of each.
Answer:
(a)

1. Pollination
2. Air/Insects.
(b) Two types, self pollination and cross pollination. Self pollination is transfer of pollen
grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower (e.g., Commeliria, Wheat) while cross
pollination is transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower
of the same species (e.g., Salvia).

11. (a) Name the organ which helps in providing nutrition to embryo. Where is it located?
(b) What causes the delivery of child from mother’s uterus?
Answer :( a) Placenta is the organ which provides nourishment to the embryo. It is formed
jointly by embryo and uterus. Placenta is located in the uterus of the mother.

47
 (b) Foetal ejection reflex is produced in response to signals from fully formed foetus and its
supporting placenta.
12. List the modes of pollination and define each of them.
Answer: Pollination is of two types, self pollination and cross pollination.
Self Pollination. It is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same
flower, e.g., Commelina, Wheat.
Cross Pollination. It is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another
flower of the same species, e.g., Salvia.
13. (a) Differentiate between unisexual and bisexual flowers.
(b) Which of the following plants produce unisexual flowers: Watermelon, Hibiscus, Mustard,
Papaya?
Answer :( a) Unisexual flowers are those flowers which possess only one type of
reproductive organs, either stamens or carpels. Bisexual flowers are those flowers which
have both the types of reproductive organs, i.e., stamens and carpels.
(b) Watermelon, Papaya.
14. (a) List two events during binary fission in Amoeba.
(b) In which two of the following organisms, regeneration takes place: Lion, Planaria, Hydra,
Lotus.
Answer:
(a)
1. Elongation of nucleus followed by division into two.
2. Cleavage of cytoplasm in between the two daughter nuclei to form two daughter cells.
(b) Regeneration. Planaria, Hydra.

15. (a) Which organ is responsible for implantation of zygote?

(b) State the function of fallopian tubes.
Answer:
(a) Zygote (in the form of blastocyst) gets implanted in uterus with the help of villi.
(b)
i. Fallopian Tubes,
ii. Conduct ovum from ovary to uterus,
iii. Fertilization occurs inside fallopian tube.
16.
(a) Name the structure in human male reproductive system that delivers the sperms from
the testes to the urethra.
(b) Name the structure in human female reproductive system which delivers the egg from
the ovary to the uterus.
Answer:
(a) Vas deferens
(b) Fallopian tube.
17.
(a) Write the advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction.
(b) Name the male and female parts of a flower.

48
 Answer:
(a) Advantage of Sexual Reproduction. Sexual reproduction introduces variations and
maintains the vigour and vitality of the individuals.
(b) Male—Stamens.
Female—Carpels.
18.
(a) Differentiate between reproduction and regeneration.
(b) Name any two organisms which grow by regeneration.
Answer:
(a) Reproduction is the formation of new individuals by the grown up organisms with the
help of propagules or germ cells. Regeneration is growth of injured parts of the individuals
for repair and replacement of lost parts.
(b) Planaria and Hydra can grow by regeneration.
19. What is pollination? How does it take place?
Answer: Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from an anther to a stigma. Pollination
between anther to the stigma of the same flower is called self pollination. It occurs through
contact between the two.
Pollination between anther of one flower and stigma of another flower is cross pollination. It
requires an external agency which may be abiotic (wind, water) or biotic (insects, birds, bats,
worms, etc.).
20. How is the process of binary fission in Amoeba different from that of Leishmania?
Answer: In Amoeba, binary fission can occur in any plane. In Leishmania the plane of division
is vertical.

3 MARKS QUESTION

1. Prevention. Sexually transmitted diseases can be prevented by use of mechanical barriers,

especially condoms.
(a) Name the following:

1. Thread like non-reproductive structures present in Rhizopus.

2. Blobs, that develop at the tip of the non-reproductive threads in Rhizopus.
(b) Explain the structure and function of structures released from the blobs in Rhizopus.
Answer:
(a)

1. Hyphae (singular hypha).

2. Sporangia (singular sporangium).
(b) The structures released by blobs or sporangia are spores. Spores of Rhizopus are thick
walled dark coloured and multinucleate. They are dispersed by air. After falling on a suitable
substratum, each spore gives rise to a new mycelium.

2. (a) Define pollination. Why is it necessary for reproduction in flower bearing plants?
(b) Write one reason to explain why cross pollination is preferred over self pollination?
Answer:

49
 (a) Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma. It is essential
because the male gametes of flower bearing plants are nonmotile. On stigma a pollen grain
germinates and sends male gametes to embryo sac by means of a pollen tube.
(b) Cross pollination produces variations and maintains vigour of the plants.
3. What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
Answer: “significance of Sexual Reproduction”
a. Due to reshuffling of chromosomes and crossing over, sexual reproduction brings about
variations in almost all characters so that no two individuals are similar. Variations are
essential for recognition, individuality and competitiveness. They may not protect
individuals under adverse conditions but survival of species depends upon pre-adaptive
variations.
b. Better Adaptability. Increased variability due to sexual reproduction is helpful to
organisms in better adaptability to changes in environment.
c. Vigour and Vitality. It maintains the vigour and vitality of the individuals.
d. Harmful Traits. Harmful traits are often kept suppressed because of reshuffling of gene
pairs that occurs during gamete formation and fusion.
e. Near Uniformity of Population. Due to the flow of genes amongst individuals during
sexual reproduction, the uniformity of population is maintained where there is a broad
resemblance of all the individuals with one another.
f. Genetic changes brought about by sexual reproduction play an important part in
evolution of new forms.
4. Draw diagrams to explain the regeneration that takes place in each of the body parts of
Planaria when its body is cut into three pieces. Name any other organism in which a similar
process can be observed.
Answer:
(a)

(b) Hydra.
5. On cutting the body of an organism into many pieces, it was observed that many of these
pieces developed as new individuals. Name the process and list two organisms in which this
process may be observed. Draw a schematic diagram to illustrate the changes that are likely
to be observed during the development of new individuals in any one of the organisms
named.

50
 Answer:
(i) Regeneration,
(ii) Planaria, Hydra.

6. Write one difference between asexual and sexual modes of reproduction. Which species is
likely to have better chances of survival, the one reproducing asexually or the one
reproducing sexually? Justify your answer.
Answer :( a) Difference: Asexual reproduction is mono parental, with no gametes, no meiosis
and very little variations. Sexual reproduction is generally biparental involving fusion of
gametes, meiosis and lot of variations.
(b) Better Chances of Survival. Sexually reproducing.
Reason:

1. Due to reshuffling of chromosomes and crossing over, sexual reproduction produces

variations in almost all characters,
2. Sexual reproduction maintains as well as improves vigour and vitality of the
individuals,
3. Variability and vitality are helpful to organisms in better adaptability to environment.
7. What is the effect of DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate on the reproductive
process? How does the amount of DNA remain constant though each new generation is a
combination of DNA copies of two individuals?
Answer:
(a) Inaccuracy in DNA Copying . Even small errors of DNA copying produce variations or
mutations. Some of these mutations may be drastic as to kill the cells and stop the
reproductive process. Others are minor and form the basis of varied traits.
(b) DNA Amount: The parents are diploid (2n) as each of them has two sets of chromosomes
(DNAs). They form haploid (n) male and female gametes through the process of meiosis. The
haploid gametes have one set of chromosomes (DNAs). During fertilization, one male
gamete fuses with one female gamete. It restores the diploid (2n) chromosome/DNA
number in the offspring that is formed from fusion product or zygote (2n).
8. (a) How would you relate the following methods to asexual reproduction?

1. Binary fission
2. Spore formation?
(b) State any advantage of using sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction.
Answer:
(a) Asexual reproduction is the formation of new individuals from a part of a single parent without
formation and fusion of gametes.

1. In binary fission a fully grown unicellular individual divides into two similar individuals
or daughters directly.

51
 2. In spore formation a single cell or sac of the parent produces a number of reproductive
bodies which get dispersed and form new individuals on germination. There is no
meiosis or gamete formation in both the cases.
(b) Advantage of Sexual Reproduction. Sexual reproduction introduces variations and maintains the
vigour and vitality of the individuals.

9. Name the type of asexual reproduction demonstrated by the following organisms:

(a) Amoeba
(b) Rhizopus
(c) Planaria
(d) Plasmodium
(e) Spirogyra
(f) Bryophyllum.
Answer:
(a) Amoeba. Binary fission.
(b) Rhizopus. Spore formation or sporulation
(c) Planaria. Regeneration
(d) Plasmodium. Multiple fission,
(e) Spirogyra. Fragmentation
(f) Bryophyllum. Vegetative reproduction by foliar buds.
10. .List six specific characteristics of sexual reproduction.
Answer:
a. Biparental
b. Meiosis
c. Haploid gametes
d. Fertilization
e. Diploid zygote
f. Variations.
11. What are chromosomes? Explain how in sexually reproducing organisms the number of
chromosomes in the progeny is maintained.
Chromosomes are linear strands of DNA and associated proteins that occur in nucleus of
eukaryotic cells, carry genes and function in transmission of hereditary information.
Answer: The parents are diploid (2n) as each of them has two sets of chromosomes (DNAs).
They form haploid (n) male and female gametes through the process of meiosis. The haploid
gametes have one set of chromosomes (DNAs). During fertilization, one male gamete fuses
with one female gamete. It restores the diploid (2n) chromosome/DNA number in the
offspring that is formed from fusion product or zygote (2n).
12. List four points of significance of reproductive health in a society. Name any two areas
related to reproductive health which have improved over past 50 years in our country.
Answer:

1. People can lead a safe, responsible and satisfying reproductive life.

2. Provides protection from catching STDs.

52
 3. Advantage of small family, care of the children as well as their proper upbringing
4. Less mortality among the new borns.
5. Maintenance of proper health of the mother and lesser chances of maternal mortality.
Improvement:

1. Reduction in the rate of population growth.

2. Decrease in the spread of STDs.
3. Adoption of small family norm.
13. Explain how surgical methods used for men and women respectively help in contraception.
Answer:
Reversible Sterilisation: It is surgical technique that prevents passage of sperms in males and
ova in females. The technique is called reversible because by another surgical procedure the
passage-way can be restored. Reversible sterilisation is otherwise permanent method of
contraception. It is of two types, vasectomy in males and tubectomy in females.

1. Vasectomy: The two vasa deferentia of the male are blocked by cutting a small piece
and tying the rest. This prevents passage of sperms from testes into semen.
2. Tubectomy: A portion of both the fallopian tubes is excised or ligated to block the
passage of ovum.
14. (a) Define germination.

(b) From the given diagram identify the incorrectly labelled parts.
Answer:
(a) Germination. Beginning of growth or sprouting of a propagule like spore, seed or bud is
called germination. It requires a particular set of external and internal conditions.
(b) Incorrectly Labelled Parts:

1. Male germ cell

2. Pollen grain
3. Pollen tube
4. Ovule.

53
 15. Give reason as to why the following processes are different from each other,
(a) Fission in Amoeba and Plasmodium.
(b) Regeneration and fragmentation.
(c) Binary fission and fragmentation.
Answer:
(a) Under favourable conditions Amoeba multiplies by binary fission while Plasmodium
multiplies by multiple fission.
(b)

Regeneration Fragmentation

It is breaking up the body of an organism into

1. Process. It is the ability to repair injured parts and two or more functional parts.
grow lost parts.
The cells of the fragments possess the ability
2. Cells. Ability of regeneration depends upon the to divide and bring about growth of the
occurrence of stem cells and dedifferentiated cells. fragments.

3. Occurrence. It occurs in more advanced organisms. It occurs in organisms having simple

structure.

(c)

Fission Fragmentation

Fragmentation is found in multicellular

1. Organisms. It occurs in unicellular organisms. organisms.

2. Nucleocytoplasmic Division. It occurs prior to fission. Cells grow and divide after fragmentation.

3. Multiplication. It gives rise to new individuals. Pieces of the parent individual grow to form
daughter individuals.
4. Products. The daughters formed after fission are
equal. The products of fragmentation are generally
unequal anc dissimilar.
Ex. Amoeba
Ex. Spirogyra.

16. Budding is type of asexual reproduction used by Hydra.

(a) What is meant by asexual reproduction? How is it different from sexual reproduction?
(b) Name any other type of asexual reproduction used by Hydra. Define it.
Answer: Budding is a mode of asexual reproduction in Hydra as the propagules is a bud or
outgrowth of somatic body of the animal.
(a) Asexual reproduction is the formation of new individuals from specialized or
unspecialized somatic parts of a single parent.
Difference: Asexual reproduction is monoparental, with no gametes, no meiosis and very
little variations. Sexual reproduction is generally biparental involving fusion of gametes,
meiosis and lot of variations.

54
 (b) Regeneration: It is the ability of an individual to form lost or broken part, sometimes the
entire individual from a piece of the parent body through dedifferentiation of mature cells
and activity of reserve cells. The ability to form a new individual from a part of the body is
well developed in simple animals like Hydra and Planaria. It is restricted to the formation of
only broken parts in complex organisms.
17. What is the importance of DNA copying during reproduction? Why are offspring formed by
asexual reproduction genetically similar to their parents?
Answer: Importance of DNA Copying: DNA carries hereditary information not only for
controlling cellular functions but also all the structural and functional traits of organism. It is
because of the latter that single celled zygote is able to form the whole multicellular
organism. During reproduction there is formation of new cells which must carry the same
amount and type of hereditary information as present in the parent cell. This is accomplished
by DNA copying, which occurs prior to each cell division. DNA copying is not error proof.
Errors give rise to variations.
Offspring formed by Asexual Reproduction. Asexual reproduction is uniparental. The genetic
material present in the offspring is unaltered copy of DNA present in the parent. Therefore,
they are genetically similar to the parents.
18. (a) A women had undergone surgical method for preventing unwanted pregnancies. Does
this protect her from getting sexually transmitted diseases?
(b) How can AIDS be prevented?
Answer:
(a) No, it does not prevent the coming together of body fluids during sex.
(b) Prevention of AIDS,
i. Use of barrier method of contraception like condom,
ii. Protection from getting infected, by blood contact like infected needles, syringes or
transfusion,
iii. Proper sterilisation of dental equipment,
iv. Prevention of sexual contact with AIDS positive persons,
v. Prevention of pregnancy by AIDS positive patients.
19. Rhizopus is an organism which reproduces by spore formation.
(a) What is meant by spore formation?
(b) What does the reproductive part or blob of Rhizopus contain?
(c) Why are these structures protected by thick walls?
Answer :( a) Spore Formation. It is the formation of minute unicellular asexual reproductive
disseminules which on germination give rise to new individuals.
(b) Blob or reproductive part of Rhizopus is sporangium. It contains spores.
(c) Thick Walls of Spores. Spores are dispersed by air currents. They have to face dry, hot,
cold and other hostile conditions. Thick wall protects the spores from unfavourable
environment.
20. How does the uterus prepare itself and nurture the growing embryo? What happens when
the egg is not fertilized?
Answer: Preparation: Under the influence of hormones from pituitary and growing Graafian

55
 follicle, the endometrium of uterus thickens, develops blood vessels and glands for
nourishing the future embryo.
Nutrition for Growing Embryo. The contact region between embryo and endometrium grows
into placenta. Placenta helps the embryo in obtaining nourishment (and oxygen) from blood
sinuses of the uterus.
When Egg is not Fertilized: Glands present in the mucosa of uterine endometrium begin to
degenerate. This sloughs off the endometrial lining, releasing a lot of mucus and blood. It is
called menstruation. Menstruation lasts for 3-5 days.

5 MARKS QUESTION

1.
(a) Identify A, B and C in given diagram and write their functions,

(b) Mention the role of gametes and zygote in sexually reproducing organisms.
Answer :( a) A-stigma: Reception of pollen grains and providing nutrients to pollen grains for
their germination
B-pollen tube: Carrying of male gametes to inside the ovule for fertilization.
C-egg: Forms zygote and then embryo after fertilization.
(b) Gamete: It is haploid sex cell that brings traits in pure form from its parent for
incorporation in the offspring. Zygote. Forms embryo.
2. (a) Draw a sectional view of human female reproductive system and label the following
parts:
(b)

1. Where development of egg occurs

2. Where fertilization takes place.

56
Answer:(a)

Label

1. Ovary
2. Fallopian tube.
(b)

1. Endometrium thickens, becomes glandular and highly vascular. The contact region
between embryo and uterine wall grows into placenta. Placenta helps the embryo in
obtaining nourishment and oxygen from blood sinuses of the uterus. It also helps in
transfer of wastes from embryo to the blood of the mother.

57
 2. Glands present in the mucosa of uterine endometrium begin to degenerate. This
sloughs off the endometrial lining, releasing a lot of mucus and blood. It is called
menstruation. Menstruation lasts for 3-5 days.
3. (a) Write the function of placenta in human females,
(b) List four ways of preventing pregnancy. State two advantages of using such preventive
methods.
Answer :(a) Placenta: It is a special double layered, spongy tissue connection between the
foetus and uterine wall found in pregnant females. It has finger-like outgrowths or villi which
are in contact with blood sinuses present in the uterine wall.
Role:

1. Attachment: Placenta attaches the foetus to uterine wall.

2. Villi: Placenta has finger-like outgrowths or villi which develop a large surface area for
fixation and absorption.
3. Nutrients: Placenta picks up nutrients from mother’s blood and passes it to the blood
of the foetus.
4. Waste Products: Waste products produced by the foetus passes out through the
placenta into mother’s blood.
5. Gases: Foetus obtains oxygen supply from mother’s blood and eliminates carbon
dioxide through placenta.
(b) Methods of Contraception:

1. Mechanical Barriers like condoms, cervical cap, diaphragm.

2. Oral Contraceptives or oral pills like Mala D, Saheli
3. Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices (IUCD) like loop, bow, Cu-T.
4. Surgical Methods like vasectomy in males and tubectomy in females.
4.
(a) Name the respective part of human female reproductive system

1. that produces eggs

2. where fusion of egg and sperm takes place and
3. where zygote gets implanted.
(b) Describe in brief what happens to the zygote after it gets implanted.
Answer :( a)

1. Ovary
2. Fallopian tube (isthmus)
3. Uterus.
(b) Zygote/blastocyst after implantation grows to form embryo/foetus. The region of
implantation forms placenta. The foetus remains attached to placenta by means of umbilical cord.
Through placenta, embryo is in contact with blood sinuses of the uterus for obtaining nutrients and
elimination of wastes. The fully formed foetus undergoes parturition.

5. (a) Give an example each of a unisexual and a bisexual flower.

(b) Mention the changes a flower undergoes after fertilization.

58
 How does the amount of DNA remain constant though each new generation is a combination
of DNA copies of two individuals?
Answer:
(a) Unisexual Flowers: Papaya.
Bisexual Flower: Mustard.
(b) DNA Amount: The parents are diploid (2n) as each of them has two sets of chromosomes
(DNAs). They form haploid (n) male and female gametes through the process of meiosis. The
haploid gametes have one set of chromosomes (DNAs). During fertilization, one male
gamete fuses with one female gamete. It restores the diploid (2n) chromosome/DNA
number in the offspring that is formed from fusion product or zygote (2n).
6. (a) Write the name of the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and
secretes a hormone.
Describe the changes the uterus undergoes

1. to receive the zygote

2. If zygote is not formed.
3. Name the hormone secreted and state its function.
(b) Write the site of fertilization and the part where the zygote gets implanted in the human female.
(c) State, in brief, how an embryo gets its nourishment inside the mother’s body.
Answer:
(a) Testis. Hormone. Testosterone.
Function of Testosterone

1. Regulates sperm formation

2. Brings about puberty changes in males.
3. Maintains male secondary organs and traits.
(b) Site of Fertilization. Isthmus part of fallopian tube. Site of Implantation. Uterus.
(c) Nourishment of Embryo: Embryo gets nourishment from mother’s body with the help of placenta
through a cord called umbilical cord. Placenta contains many finger-like villi from the chorion
covering of the embryo. They occur in contact with blood sinuses of the mother present in the
endometrial lining of uterus. All nutrients (glucose, amino acids, vitamins, etc.) diffuse from
mother’s blood into villi and from there to embryo through the umbilical cord.

7.
(a) Define fragmentation and regeneration,
(b) Can these two methods equated to be the same ? Answer with reason
(c) Give an example each of the organisms using the above methods.
Answer:
(a) Fragmentation. It is breaking of an individual into two or more pieces with each piece
growing to form the mature individual.
Regeneration. It is the ability of an individual to form lost or broken part, sometimes the whole
individual.
(b) The two are not similar. Regeneration involves dedifferentiation, proliferation and
differentiation to form lost parts. Fragmentation produces pieces where cells continue to divide

59
resulting in growth of new individual. A repair is not involved.
(c) Regeneration. Hydra, Planaria. Fragmentation. Spirogyra, Marchantia.
8.
Define the following processes:
(a) Fertilization
(b) Vegetative propagation
(c) Menstruation
(d) Regeneration
(e) Binary fission.
Answer:
(a) Fertilization: The union of male gamete (sperm) with the female gamete (ovum) to form
a diploid zygote is called fertilization.
(b) Vegetative Propagation: It is the formation of new plants from vegetative parts (e.g.,
stem, leaf, root, bud) of a parent plant.
(c) Menstruation: It is discharge of blood, mucus and broken pieces of endometrial lining in
reproductively active females which occurs for 3-5 days at regular intervals of 28 days (lunar
month). It occurs in response to non-fertilization of ovum and non-availability of
progesterone hormone.
(d) Regeneration: It is ability of an individual to form lost or broken parts, sometimes the
entire individual I from a piece of the parent body. The ability to form the whole individual
from a piece of parent body is found only in simple animals like Hydra and Planaria. It does
not occur in complex organisms like humans, birds, lizards etc. Here regeneration is limited
to repair or regeneration of minor parts. It is because the tissues and organs are highly
differentiated in complex animals.
9.
(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram.

(b) What is pollination? State its significance.

(c) How does fertilization occur in flowers? Name the parts of the flower that develop into

60
 1. seed and
2. Fruit after fertilization.
Answer:
(a) A—Pollen grain.
B—Pollen tube.
C—ovary.
D—Egg/oosphere.
(b) Pollination. The transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a flower is called
pollination.
Significance- It carries the immobile pollen grains to the stigma for formation of male gametophyte
and fertilization.
(c) After falling on a suitable stigma the pollen absorbs water and nutrients. It produces a pollen
tube that grows through the style and reaches the ovary. Its tip contains a tube nucleus and two
male gametes. The pollen tube enters an ovule, strikes against one synergid of the embryo sac and
bursts open to release its contents. One male gamete fuses with the egg to form zygote while the
other fuses with secondary nucleus to produce primary endosperm nucleus.

1. Seed—ovule,
2. Fruit—ovary.
10.
(a) Identify the leaf shown.

(b) Name the method used by the above leaf for reproduction.
(c) Give three advantages for the method used.
(d) Give two examples of plants which can be grown by this method.
Answer:
(a) Bryophyllum
(b) Vegetative propagation
(c)

1. It is quicker method of propagation.

2. It gives rise to a genetically uniform propagation.
3. Good qualities of a variety can be maintained indefinitely.
(d) Sugarcane, Bougainvillea.

61
 11. Justify the following statements :
(a) Variation is beneficial for the species over a period of time.
(b) New offspring produced are similar to their parents, but not identical
(c) Binary fission is different in Amoeba and Leishmania.
Answer:
a) Many of the variations are pre-adaptations which have no immediate benefit to the
individuals. However, they remain in the population. Whenever, environment undergoes a
drastic change, the pre-adaptations present in some members of the population allow the
latter to survive, grow and regain its former size. Therefore, it is not necessary that variations
are beneficial to individuals developing them but can prove useful to the species.
(b) New offspring are similar to their parents because they have obtained the genetic traits
from the same. They are, however, not identical because of chance separation, chance
combination of chromosomes and recombination of genes due to crossing over.
(c) In Amoeba, binary fission can occur in any plane. In Leishmania the plane of division is
vertical.
12. Explain what happens when :
(a) Testosterone is released in males
(b) Pollen grain falls on the stigma of the flower,
(e) Egg fuses with sperm cell,
(d) Planaria is cut into many pieces,
(e) Buds are formed at the notches of Bryophyllum leaf.
Answer:
(a) Testosterone,

1. Regulates formation of sperms,

2. Puberty changes in boys.
3. Maintenance of secondary sexual characters in males.
(b) Pollen Grain. If pollen grain and stigma are compatible, the pollen grain absorbs water and
nutrients from the stigma. It germinates and forms a pollen tube. Pollen tube passes into stigma and
then style for reaching the ovary.
(c) Egg Fuses with Sperm Cell. The act is called fertilization. It produces a diploid zygote which later
on grows into embryo.
(d) Cutting of Planaria. Each piece begins to regenerate, anterior end forms the anterior body parts,
while posterior end gives rise to posterior body parts. Regeneration occurs with the help of stem
cells and dedifferentiated cells (from differentiated ones).
(e) Bryophyllum Leaf. Buds present in the marginal notches of Bryophyllum leaf sprout and produce
plantlets under suitable conditions. They help in vegetative multiplication.

13. Differentiate between the following:

(a) Pollen tube and style,
(b) Fission in Amoeba and Plasmodium,
(c) Fragmentation and Regeneration,
(d) Bud of Hydra and Bryophyllum.

62
 (e) Vegetative propagation and spore formation
Answer:
(a) Pollen Tube and Style: Pollen tube is an outgrowth of pollen grain meant for carrying the
male gametes to ovule. Style is a stalk-like structure of carpel (= pistil) that is meant for
lifting the stigma above the level of ovary.
(b) Fission in Amoeba and Plasmodium: Under favourable conditions Amoeba multiplies by
binary fission while Plasmodium multiplies by multiple fission.
(c) Fragmentation and Regeneration:
Fragmentation: It is breaking of an individual into two or more pieces with each piece
growing to form the mature individual.
Regeneration: It is the ability of an individual to form lost or broken part, sometimes the
whole individual.(d) Bud of Hydra and Bud of Bryophyllum. In Hydra, bud is an outgrowth of
the body which gets transformed into new animal that separates to lead an independent life.
In Bryophyllum buds develop from the notches of the leaf. After falling on ground, the buds
sprout and from plantlets.
(e) Vegetative Propagation and Spore Formation: In vegetative propagation new plants
develop from specialised or unspecialised multicellular parts of the parent plant that
function as propagules, e.g., Bryophyllum. Sugarcane. In spore formation, the individual
parent produces unicellular reproductive bodies that get dispersed and form new individuals
on germination, e.g., Rhizopus.
14. (a) Write the functions of the following parts in human female reproductive system:

1. Ovary
2. Oviduct
3. Uterus.
(b) Describe the structure and function of placenta.
Answer:
(a)

1. Ovary. Formation of ova and secretion of hormones, estrogen and progesterone.

2. Fallopian Tube. Passage of ovum, site for fertilization.
3. Uterus. Implantation and nourishment of embryo.
(b) Placenta: It is a special double layered, spongy tissue connection between the foetus and
uternine wall found in pregnant females. It has finger-like outgrowths or villi which are in
contact with blood sinuses present in the uterine wall.
Role:

1. Attachment: Placenta attaches the foetus to uterine wall.

2. Villi: Placenta has finger-like outgrowths or villi which develop a large surface area for
fixation and absorption.
3. Nutrients: Placenta picks up nutrients from mother’s blood and passes it to the blood
of the foetus.
4. Waste Products: Waste products produced by the foetus passes out through the
placenta into mother’s blood.

63
 5. Gases: Foetus obtains oxygen supply from mother’s blood and eliminates carbon
dioxide through placenta.
15. (a) What is vegetative propagation ? List with brief explanation three advantages of
practising this process for growing some types of plants.
(b) Select two plants from the following which are grown by this process: Banana, Wheat,
Mustard, Jasmine,
Gram.
Answer:(a) Vegetative propagation is the formation of new plants by using vegetative parts
of a parent plant as propagules e.g., stem (Sugarcane, Bougainvillea, Potato), root (Sweet
Potato, Dahlia), leaf (Bryophyllum), bud (Agave).
Advantages:

1. It is the only known method of multiplication of seedless plants like Banana and
Sugarcane.
2. It is a quicker method as vegetatively reproduced plants bear flowers and fruits earlier
than plants raised through seeds.
3. All the individual plants are clones of one another and their parent so that the crop is
genetically uniform.
4. Good quality of a variety can be maintained indefinitely.
(b) Banana, Jasmine.

16. (a) State in brief the function of the following organs in the human female reproductive
system: Ovary, Fallopian tube, Uterus.
(i) What is menstruation? Why does it occur?
Answer :( a)
i. Ovary: Formation of ova and secretion of hormones, estrogen and
progesterone.
ii. Fallopian Tube: Passage of ovum, site for fertilization.
iii. Uterus: Implantation and nourishment of embryo.
(b) Menstruation:
It is discharge of blood, mucus and broken pieces of endometrial lining in reproductively
active females which occurs for 3-5 days at regular intervals of 28 days (lunar month). It
occurs in response to non-fertilization of ovum and non-availability of progesterone
hormone.

64
 HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION.

1. What is a clone?

Ans. Genetically uniform population got from a single organism by asexual method.

2. What are variations?

Ans. Structural, functional or behavioural changes from the normal characters

3. Do genetic combination of mothers play a significant role in determining the sex of a newborn?

Ans. No, Contribute same gametes XX.

4. Give reasons why acquired characters are not inherited?

Ans. Take place in somatic cells and not in germ cells.

5. What is a gene?

Ans. Segment of a DNA.

6. Assertion: The experience of an individual during its lifetime cannot be passed on to its progeny

Reason: Change in non-reproductive tissues cannot be passed on to DNA of germ cells.

a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

d) Both assertion and reason are false.

Ans. b)

7. What is Test cross? Explain it.

Ans. Definition

Explanation

8. State law of Independent Assortment.

Ans. The genes of different characters located in different pairs of chromosomes are independent of
one another in their segregation during gamete formation.

9. In the following dihybrid crosses, write the characteristics of the progeny.

a) RrYy x RrYy

b) RRYY x rryy

Ans. a) Round yellow, Round green, Wrinkled yellow, Wrinkled green.

65
 b) Round yellow

10. In human beings, the statistical probability of getting either a male or female child is 50:50. Give
a suitable explanation.

Ans. Human cell-46 chromosomes, 22 pairs autosomes + 1 pair sex chromosome

01 pair sex chromosome:-

Male- X Y – Gametes X, Y

Female- X X – Gametes X, X

Fertilization - XX, XX/ 50 %, XY, XY/ 50%

11. In an experiment, Mendel obtained 1064 plants, out of which 787 were having round seeds and
Plants had wrinkled seeds in F2 generation

a) What was the approximate ratio obtained in F2 generation?

b) Under which law do you find this ratio?

c) Why is this law so called?

Ans. a) 3:1

b) Monohybrid cross, and law of segregation operates.

c) State law of segregation

12. Given below is the experiment carried out by Mendel to study inheritance of two traits in garden
pea

Parent

RRyy rrYY

Round green Wrinkled yellow

Gamete 1 2

Round yellow

F1 X F1

66
 Ratio
315 Round yellow = 4
108 Round green = 5
101 Wrinkled yellow = 6
32 Wrinkled green = 7

a) Fill in the boxes 1-7 with appropriate answer

Ans. 1- Ry ; 2- rY ; 3- RrYy ; 4- ? ; 5- ? ; 6- ? ; 7- ?

b) What ratio did you obtain in F2 generation

Ans. ?

c) Name this law?

Ans- ?

VALUE BASED QUESTION

13. In our country, mother is blamed for producing female child. Also, cases of illegal abortion of
female foetuses are on the rise. To curb such social evils in the society, state government has
launched adult literacy programme, particularly in the villages to educate people. In this regard,
answer the following questions:

a) How many types of chromosomes are present in each human diploid cell? Which of these
types is responsible for sex determination?

Ans. Two types- Autosomes and sex chromosomes; sex chromosomes

b) On the basis of sex chromosomes, who (male or female) is responsible for the determination
of the sex of the baby and how?

Ans. Male

c) What is meant by the term ‘Female foeticide’?

Ans. Illegal medical termination of pregnancy.

d) Should government totally ban the techniques that help to determine the sex of the foetus?
Give your comments.

Ans. Comment.

67
 Light: Reflection and refraction

1. How is the refractive index of a medium related to the speed of light? Obtain an expression
for refractive index of a medium with respect to another in terms of speed of light in these
two media?
𝐜
𝐒𝐩𝐞𝐞𝐝 𝐨𝐟 𝐥𝐢𝐠𝐡𝐭 𝐢𝐧 𝐯𝐚𝐜𝐮𝐮𝐦 𝐯𝟏
Ans. RI = 𝐒𝐩𝐞𝐞𝐝 𝐨𝐟 𝐋𝐢𝐠𝐡𝐭 𝐢𝐧 𝐦𝐞𝐝𝐢𝐮𝐦 µ ( 𝐑𝐈) = = 𝐯𝟐 /𝐯𝟏
𝐜/𝐯𝟐

2. Refractive index of diamond with respect to glass is 1.6 and absolute refractive index of glass
is 1.5. Find out the absolute refractive index of diamond.
Ans.

3. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm can produce a magnified virtual as well as real image. Is
this a correct statement? If yes, where shall the object be placed in each case for obtaining
these images?
Ans. Yes, it is correct. If the object is placed within 20 cm from the lens in the first case and
between 20 cm and 40 cm in the second case.
4. Sudha finds out that the sharp image of the window pane of her science laboratory is formed
at a distance of 15 cm from the lens. She now tries to focus the building visible to her outside
the window instead of the window pane without disturbing the lens. In which direction will
she move the screen to obtain a sharp image of the building? What is the approximate focal
length of this lens?

Ans. Sudha should move the screen towards the lens so as to obtain a clear image of the building.
The approximate focal length of this lens will be 15 cm.

5. Draw a ray diagram showing the path of rays of light when it enters with oblique incidence (i)
from air into water; (ii) from water into air.

Ans.

6. Draw ray diagrams showing the image formation by a concave mirror when an object is
placed (a) between pole and focus of the mirror (b) between focus and centre of curvature
of the mirror (c) at centre of curvature of the mirror (d) a little beyond centre of curvature of
the mirror (e) at infinity
Ans.
68
7. Draw ray diagrams showing the image formation by a convex lens when an object is placed
(a) between optical centre and focus of the lens (b) between focus and twice the focal length
of the lens (c) at twice the focal length of the lens (d) at infinity (e) at the focus of the lens
Ans.
a. Ray Diagram

b. Ray Diagram

69
 c. Ray Diagram

d. Ray Diagram

e. Ray Diagram

8. Write laws of refraction. Explain the same with the help of ray diagram, when a ray of light
passes through a rectangular glass slab.
Ans.

Explanation:-1. Incident ray, Refracted ray and normal live in the same plane.
𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝒊
2. 𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝒓 = constant ( refractive index =µ)

70
 When ray goes from rare to denser medium it bends towards the normal and when denser
to rarer, it does from away from the normal.
Incident ray and emergent ray are parallel to each other.

9. Draw ray diagrams showing the image formation by a concave lens when an object is placed
(a) at the focus of the lens (b) between focus and twice the focal length of the lens (c)
beyond twice the focal length of the lens.
Ans. a).

b).

c).

10. Draw ray diagrams showing the image formation by a convex mirror when an object is
placed (a) at infinity (b) at finite distance from the mirror.
Ans.

71
11. The image of a candle flame formed by a lens is obtained on a screen placed on the other
side of the lens. If the image is three times the size of the flame and the distance between
lens and image is 80 cm, at what distance should the candle be placed from the lens? What is
the nature of the image at a distance of 80 cm and the lens?
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
Ans. − = & m = -v/u = -3, so v = -3u, v = 80 cm; so u = -80/3 cm.
𝐯 𝐮 𝐟
Image is real and inverted. The lens is convex
12. Size of image of an object by a mirror having a focal length of 20 cm is observed to be
reduced to 1/3rd of its size. At what distance the object has been placed from the mirror?
What is the nature of the image and the mirror?
𝐯 𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 −𝟑 𝟏 𝟏
Ans. m = 1/3 . 𝐮 = −𝐦 ; Using 𝐯 + = ; v = -(1/3)u; − =
𝐮 𝐟 𝐮 𝐮 𝟐𝟎
calculate u; u = – 80 cm. Image is real and inverted. Mirror is concave.
13. Define power of a lens. What is its unit? One student uses a lens of focal length 50 cm and
another of –50 cm. What is the nature of the lens and its power used by each of them?
Ans. P = 1/f where f is in metre. Its unit is Dioptre. Lens is convex in the first case and
concave in the second case. Power is equal to 2 dioptre in the first case and –2 dioptre in
the second case.
14. A student focussed the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex lens. He
noted down the position of the candle screen and the lens as under Position of candle = 12.0
cm Position of convex lens = 50.0 cm Position of the screen = 88.0 cm
(i) What is the focal length of the convex lens?
(ii) Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle towards the lens at a position of
31.0 cm?
(iii) What will be the nature of the image formed if he further shifts the candle towards the
lens? (iv) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image in case (iii) as said above.
Ans. (i) Focal length = 38/2 = 19 cm
(ii) The image will be formed at infinity
(iii) Virtual and erect
(iv)

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 HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD
1. A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different orientations. A narrow beam of white light is
incident on the prism as shown in figure. In which of the following cases, after dispersion, the
third colour from the top corresponds to the colour of the sky?

2. A person with myopic eye cannot see objects beyond 1.2 metre distinctly. What should be the
nature of corrective lenses to restore proper vision?
3. A beam of white light falling on a glass prism gets split up into seven colours marked 1 to 7 as
shown in the diagram. A student makes the following statements about the spectrum observed
on the screen:
(a) The colours at positions marked 3 and 5 are similar to the colour of the sky and the colour of
gold metal respectively. Is the above statement made by the student correct or incorrect?
Justify.
(b) Which two positions correspond closely to the colour of:
(i) Brinjal (ii) ‘danger’ or stop signal lights?

4. A glass prism is able to produce a spectrum when white light passes through it but a glass slab
does not produce any spectrum. Explain. Why is it so?
5. The far point of a myopic the person is 80 cm in front of the eye. What is the nature and power
of the lens required to correct the problem?
6. Why does the Sun appear reddish early in the morning?

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7. Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut?
8. When a monochromic light having only one wavelength, passes through a prism, will it show
dispersion?
9. The sun can be seen about two minutes before actual sunrise and two minutes after actual
sunset. Why?
10. Name the component of white light that deviates the least and the component that deviates
the most while passing through a glass prism.
11. Why there is no dispersion of light refracted through a rectangular glass slab?
12. How will you use two identical prisms so that a narrow beam of white light incident on one
prism emerges out of the second prism as white light?
13. Is the position of a star as seen by us in its true position? Justify your answer.
14. Draw a neat diagram to show the refraction of a light ray through a glass prism, and label it.
15. Why does the Sun appear white at noon?

16. Read the following and answer any four questions from 16 (i) to 16 (v)
And when light rays pass through the atmosphere having air layers of different optical densities,
then refraction of light takes place. The refraction of light caused by the
earth's atmosphere (having air layers of varying optical densities) is called atmospheric refraction.
When light from any source passed through a glass prism gets refracted and scattered in
constitute colours (VIBGYOR). Blue colour has least wavelength and red colour has highest
wavelength. Bending of red colour is least while of blue colour is highest.

i) Which of the following is correct decreasing order of wavelength

a) Red>blue>orange>indigo
b) Blue>green>yellow>orange
c) Red>orange>yellow>blue
d) Blue>indigo>violet>red

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 ii) Why red colour light is used in train during fog?
a) It has low wavelength and least scattered
b) It has high wavelength and highly scattered
c) It has high wavelength and least scattered
d) It has low wavelength and highly scattered
iii) In the above figure, angle of prism, incident angle, angle of deviation, and angle of
emergence are represented respectively as:
a) 1,3,5,4
b) 2,6,5,3
c) 5,4,1,3
d) 3,1,4,5
iv) Out of red, green, blue and violet, which colour deviates the most in glass prism
a) Red
b) Green
c) Blue
d) Violet
v) A white light falls on a surface of a glass prism. Four students A, B, C, D recorded the
sequence of colours from top to bottom of screen. Which of the student recorded the
correct sequence?
a) Student A: violet, blue, green, yellow, red
b) Student B: red, blue, green, yellow, violet
c) Student C: red, yellow, green, blue, violet
d) Student D: red, green, yellow, blue, violet

17. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be easily seen
from a distance because among all other colours, the red light

(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog

(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog

(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog

(d) moves fastest in air

18. When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the

(a) crystalline lens

(b) outer surface of the cornea

(c) iris

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(d) pupil

19. Draw a ray diagram showing the dispersion through a prism when a narrow beam of white
light is incident on one of its refracting surfaces. Also, indicate the order of the colours of the
spectrum obtained.
20. How does refraction take place in the atmosphere? Why do stars twinkle but not the planets?
21. i) Demonstrate an activity with a well labelled diagram to prove that white light is made up of
seven colours.

ii)Which colour of light bends least and which one the most while passing out from the prism?
Also, state the reason for the same.

ANSWERS

A1. (ii) Explanation: Inverted position of prism (II) gives the same colour (blue) at third top as
that of sky.
A2. To correct, the object at infinity has to be brought to image at 1.2 m or
v = - 120 cm, u=-∞
1 1 1
=v−u
f
1 1 1
= −∞
f −120
∴ f = - 120 cm
100 100
P= = −120 = -0.83 D
f

A3. The position marked on number 3rd is YELLOW. Yellow is not the colour of the sky. Similarly,
the position marked on number 5th is BLUE. Blue is not the colour of the core of the hard-
boiled egg. Hence, the statement made by the student of no 3rd as the colour of sky and no.
5th as the colour of the core of the hard-boiled egg is incorrect.
A4. A glass prism is able to produce a spectrum, which is a patch of light obtained due to
dispersion. This is because the opposite refracting faces of a glass prism are not parallel.
Thus, the incident ray is not parallel to the emergent ray and is deviated by the angle of
deviation.
A glass slab is a rectangular structure in which the opposite refracting faces are parallel to
each other. The result is that, the emergent is parallel to the incident ray but is literally
displaced from it.
Thus, a rectangular glass slab is unable to produce a spectrum due to the refracting faces
being parallel to each other.
A5. To correct the myopia the person concerned should use concave lens (diverging lens) of
suitable focal length.
For myopic eye: Far point of normal eye = u = at infinity  u = -  The virtual image is
formed at the far point of myopic person  v = - 80 cm
From lens formula,
1 1 1
=v−u
f

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 1 1 1
= −
f −80 ∞
∴ f = - 80 cm
100 100
P= = −80 = -1.25 D
f

A6. In the early morning, the sun is situated near the horizon. Light from the Sun passes through
thicker layers of air and cover larger distance before reaching our eyes. Therefore, blue light
scattered the most and red light least. This is why the sun appears reddish early in the
morning.

A7. The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut because there is no atmosphere containing
air in the outer space to scatter sunlight. As there is no scattered light to reach our eyes in outer
space, so the sky appears dark.

A8. No, it will not show dispersion. It will only show deviation.

A9. The sun can be seen about two minutes before actual sunrise and two minutes after actual
sunset because atmospheric refraction.

A10. Least deviated component: Red

Most deviated component: Blue

A11. After refraction at two parallel faces of a glass slab, a ray of light emerges in a direction parallel
to the direction of incidence of white light. As rays of all colours emerge in same direction, i.e., the
direction of the incidence of white light, there is no dispersion. However, there is a lateral
displacement.

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A12. By using two identical prisms, one placed inverted with respect to other, we get a narrow beam
of white light incident on one prism emerges out the second as white light.

White light

V White light

A3. No, light from stars undergoes atmospheric refraction which occurs in medium of gradually
changing refractive index. So, we see the apparent position of the star after refraction by
atmosphere.

A14.

A15. The light is least scattered at noon.

A16. i) c
ii) c
iii) d
iv) d
v) c

A17. (b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog

A18. (b) outer surface of the cornea

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A19.

A20. Atmosphere is made up of several layers. The layer at the top is optically rare, while the layer
at the bottom is optically denser. Due to this, when light travels through different layers of the
atmosphere, refraction takes place. Since light passes through denser and denser layer as it moves
through atmosphere, it tends to bend towards the normal.
Stars are very far from us; compared to planet. Due to this, stars serve as point source of light. As a
result, even a slightest change in their apparent position in the sky is clearly perceived by us. Hence,
stars appear to twinkle.
Planets on the other hand, are near to us. Hence, they do not serve as point source of light. Hence,
minor changes in their apparent position are not perceived by us. Hence, planets do not appear to
twinkle.

A21. i) The phenomenon of splitting of a beam of white light into its seven constituent colours when
passed through a transparent medium is known as dispersion, which was first discovered by Issac
Newton in 1666. To understand this phenomenon, let us take a thick sheet of cardboard and make a
small hole or narrow slit in its middle allow sunlight to fall on the slit. This gives a narrow beam of
white light. Now, take a glass prism and allow this white light to fall one of its faces as shown in
figure. Turn the prism slowly until the light that comes out of it appears on a nearby screen.
We see a beautiful band of seven colours on the screen called visible spectrum. The sequence of
colours seen from the lower part of the screen is violet (V), indigo (I), blue (B), green (G), yellow (Y),
orange (O) and red (R). The acronym for this is VIBGYOR.

ii)
Red light has the maximum wavelength and violet light has the minimum wavelength, so in a
transparent medium except air and vacuum, red light having the largest wavelength suffers the least
deviation while violet light having the least wavelength bends the most.

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 ELECTRICITY
1. A wire of length l, made of material resistivity r is cut into two equal parts. The resistivity of
the two parts is equal to,

Ans:(a) Resistivity of the material depends only on the nature of material not dimensions.
2. The temperature of a conductor is increased. The graph best showing the variation of its
resistance is

Ans:(a) Resistance is directly proportional to temperature of the conductor.

3. A battery of 10 volt carries 20,000 C of charge through a resistance of 20 Ω. The work done in
10 seconds is
(a) 2 × 103 joule (b) 2 × 105 joule
(c) 2 × 104 joule (d) 2 × 10 2 joule
Ans:(b) W = qV = 20000 × 10 = 2,00, 000 = 2 × 105 J

4. A boy records that 4000 joule of work is required to transfer 10 coulomb of charge between
two points of a resistor of 50 Ω. The current passing through it is

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 (a) 2 A (b) 4 A
(c) 8 A (d) 16 A
Ans:(c) Work done in transferring the charge W = qV = qIR ….. (V = IR)

5. The resistance whose V – I graph is given below is

Ans:(b) Resistance = slope line of V-I graph =

6. To get 2 Ω resistance using only 6 Ω resistors, the number of them required is

(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 6
Ans:(b) Three resistors of 2 Ω is required to get 6 Ω because resultant is more than individual so they
all must be connected in series.

7. Two wires of same length and area made of two materials of resistivity 1 and  2 are
connected in series to a source of potential V. The equivalent resistivity for the same area
is

Ans: a
8. Two devices are connected between two points say A and B in parallel. The physical
quantity that will remain the same between the two points is

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 (a) current (b) voltage
(c) resistance (d) None of these
Ans:(b) In parallel combination voltage remains same across two points.

9. The least resistance obtained by using 2 Ω, 4 Ω, 1 Ω and 100 Ω is

(a) < 100 Ω (b) < 4 Ω
(c) < 1 Ω (d) > 2 Ω
Ans:(c) In parallel combination, the equivalent resistance is smaller than the least resistance used in
the circuit.

10. Two wires of same length and area, made of two materials of resistivity and are connected
in parallel V to a source of potential. The equivalent resistivity for the same length and
area is

Ans:(b) Equivalent resistance in parallel combination is

11. Calculate the current flows through the 10 Ω resistor in the following circuit.

(a) 1.2 A (b) 0.6 A

(c) 0.2 A (d) 2.0 A

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Ans:(b) In parallel, potential difference across each resistor will remain same. So, current through 10
Ω resistor

12. Two resistors are connected in series gives an equivalent resistance of 10 Ω. When
connected in parallel, gives 2.4 Ω. Then the individual resistance are
(a) each of 5 Ω (b) 6 Ω and 4 Ω
(c) 7 Ω and 4 Ω (d) 8 Ω and 2 Ω
Ans:

13. If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of 40 W and 60 W respectively operating 220
V, then

(a) R1 < R2 (b) R2 < R1

(c) R1 = R2 (d) R1 ≥ R2

Ans:

14. The resistance of hot filament of the bulb is about 10 times the cold resistance. What will
be the resistance of 100 W-220 V lamp, when not in use?
(a) 48 Ω (b) 400 Ω
(c) 484 Ω (d) 48.4 Ω
Ans:

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 15. If P and V are the power and potential of device, the power consumed with a supply
potential V1 is

Ans:

16. A coil in the heater consume power P on passing current. If it is cut into halves and joined
in parallel, it will consume power

(a) P (b) (c) 2 P (d) 4 P

Ans:

17. A fuse wire repeatedly gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is advised to use a fuse
wire of
(a) more length (b) less radius
(c) less length (d) more radius
Ans:(d) In order to get the working of heater properly, fused wire of higher rating must be used.

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 18. A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volt and a fan of 500 W, 200 volt are to be used from a household
supply. The rating of fuse to be used is
(a) 2.5 A (b) 5.0 A
(c) 7.5 A (d) 10 A
Ans:(d) Total power used, P = P1 + P2 = 1500 + 500 = 2000 W. Current drawn from the supply,

19. The effective resistance between A and B is

Ans:(a) 6 Ω is shorted so effective resistance is 4 Ω.

20. A cell, a resistor, a key and an ammeter are arranged as shown in the circuit diagrams. The
current recorded in the ammeter will be
(a) maximum in (i) (b) maximum in (ii)
(c) maximum in (iii) (d) same in all the cases

Ans:(d) Ammeter is always connected in series with in the circuit. The reading is independent from
its location.

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 21. In the following questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the
statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation
of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

Assertion: In an open circuit, the current passes from one terminal of the electric cell to
another.
Reason: Generally, the metal disc of a cell acts as a positive terminal.

Ans:(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

22. In the following questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the
statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation
of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

Assertion: The statement of Ohm's law is V = IR

Reason: V = IR is the equation which defines resistance.

Ans:(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

23. Presence of argon prolongs the life of __________.
Ans: Filament of electric bulb

24. Work done on unit charge is called as __________.

Ans: Potential difference

25. Two resistors are in parallel when they have ___________ common points.
Ans: One

26. 746 watts make ______________ horse power.

Ans: One

27. Rheostat used in series in a circuit can make a bulb to glow with varying brightness.
[True/False]
Ans: True

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 28. One common point and no sharing devices for that point are the conditions to be satisfied
for two resistors to be in series. [True/False]
Ans: True

29. When bulbs are connected in series, the lower power bulb glows brighter. [True/False]
Ans: True

30. Nichrome is used for making standard resistances as it readily varies its resistance with
temperature. [True/False]
Ans: False

31. The equivalent resistance between two diametrically opposite points as a wire of 10 Ω
resistance is made a circle is 2.5 Ω. [True/False]
Ans: True

32. Devices of higher power used at home have lower resistance. [True/False]
Ans: True

33. 12 V means the work done to carry a unit charge from one point to another is 12 joule.
[True/False]
Ans: True
34. A lamp draws a current of 0.5 A when it is connected to a 60 V source. What is the
resistance of the lamp?
Ans: From Ohm’s law, I = V / R we get,
R = V / I = 60/ 0.5 = 120 Ω

35. A torch bulb is rated at 1.5 V, 500 mA. Find its resistance.
Ans: From Ohm’s law, I = V / R we get,
R = V / I = 1.5/ 500 × 10–3 = 3 Ω
36. Resistance of an incandescent filament of a lamp is comparatively much more than that
when it is at room temperature. Why?
Ans: When bulb is switched on (i.e., incandescent state), the temperature of filament rises. As the
temperature increases, the resistance of conductor also increases.
37. Why closed path is required for the flow of current?
Ans: It makes possible to move the electrons in a particular direction, so closed path is necessary for
the flow of current.
38. Why is magnanin used for making standard resistors?
Ans: Magnanin being an alloy has a low temperature coefficient of resistance.
39. How will the resistivity of a conductor change when its length is tripled by stretching it?
Ans: The resistivity of a metallic conductor does not depend on the length of the wire, so it will
remain same.

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 40. The radius of conducting wire is doubled. What will be the ratio of its new specific
resistance to the old one?
Ans: 1:1, as it depends on the nature of material only.
41. Write S.I. unit of resistivity.
Ans: Ohm-metre.
42. Why is a series arrangement not used for connecting domestic electrical appliances in a
circuit?
Ans: If any one stops working due to some reason, other will also stop working.
43. Which combination is used for connecting the device in the circuit to measure the
potential difference across two points?
Ans: Parallel combination.
44. Why the bulb gets fused, if it is operated at a higher potential than its power rating?
Ans: More heat will be produced when bulb is operated at higher potential than its power rating
as H = . So, bulb gets fused.
45. How are bulbs connected in a fairy light circuit used for decoration of buildings in festivals?
Ans: Series combination.
46. (a) Identify the various elements of the circuit shown below:
(b) What does the bigger line of element 1 represent?
Ans:(a) Various element of the circuit are

1 An electric cell
2 A battery or a combination of cells
3 Plug key or switch (open)

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4 Plug key or switch (closed)
5 A wire joint
6 Wires crossing without joining
7 Electric bulb or
8 A resistor of resistance R
9 Variable resistance or rheostat or
10 Ammeter
11 Voltmeter
(b) Bigger line of element 1 represents positive terminal of the cell.
47. Series arrangements are not used for domestic circuits. List any three reasons.
Ans: Series arrangements are not used for domestic circuit because
(i) The electrical appliances need current of widely different values to operate properly.
(ii) In series arrangement, when one component fails, the circuit is broken and none of the
components works.
(iii) All electrical appliances work at a constant voltage. But in series circuit, the current is constant
throughout the electric circuit and potential is different across the different components. So, series
arrangement is not suitable for domestic circuits.
48. Two resistors 3 Ω and unknown resistor are connected in a series across a 12 V battery. If
the voltage drop across the unknown resistor is 6 V, find
(a) potential across 3 Ω resistance (b) the current through unknown resistor ‘R’
(c) equivalent resistance of the circuit.
Ans:(a) Same current will flow through each resistor of series combination, the potential drop across
both 3 Ω resistor will be same (V1 = V2). In series, applied potential,

(b) Current through 3 Ω resistance

So, current through unknown resistance R is 1 A. (c) Unknown resistance 3

49. An electric geyser rated 1500 W, 250 V is connected to a 250 V line mains.
Calculate:
(i) the electric current drawn by it.
(ii) energy consumed by it in 50 hours.
(iii) cost of energy consumed if each unit costs 6.00.

Ans: Given: P = 1500 W, V = 250 V

(i) Current drawn, I =

(ii) Electric energy consumed by geyser in 50 hours = Power × time

= 1500 × 50 = 75000 Wh = 75 kWh
Since
1 kWh = 1 unit
So, energy consumed = 75 units.

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 (iii) Cost of one unit = 6.00
∴ Cost of 75 units = 75 × 6.00 = 450.00

50. State Ohm’s law. Write the necessary conditions for its validity. How is this law verified
experimentally? What will be the nature of graph between potential difference and
current for a conductor? Name the physical quantity that can be obtained from this graph.

Ans:

Ohm’s law: When the physical conditions such as temperature etc. remain same, the
current flowing through the conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference
applied across the ends of the conductor, i.e.,
I ∝ V or V ∝ I

where R is constant of proportionality and is called resistance of the wire.

Necessary condition for validity of Ohm’s law: Physical condition such as temperature of
the conductor remains same.
Experimental verification: Refer to NCERT Activity-1 of this chapter.
Nature of V – I graph is a straight line passing through the origin of the graph and inclined
to x-axis as shown.
The slope of V – I graph gives the value of resistance of the conductor at the given
temperature.

51. (a) Though same current flows through the electric line wires and the filament of bulb, yet
only the filament glows. Why?
(b) The temperature of the filament of bulb is 2700 °C when it glows. Why does it not get
burnt up at such high temperature?
(c) The filament of an electric lamp, which draws a current of 0.25 A is used for four hours.
Calculate the amount of charge flowing through the circuit.
(d) An electric iron is rated 2 kW at 220 V. Calculate the capacity of the fuse that should be
used for the electric iron.

Ans:(a) Electric line wires offer extremely low resistance to the flow of current, so they do not glow
because negligible heat is produced in it.
The filament of bulb glows because it becomes red hot due to large amount of heat produced, as it
offers high resistance to the flow of current through it.
(b) The filament of bulb when it glows at 2700 °C does not gets burnt because the tungsten metal of
filament has
(i) a very high melting point (of 3380 °C) and
(ii) a high resistivity.
(c) Given: I = 0.25 A, t = 4 h = 4 × 60 × 60 sec.
So, amount of charge flowing the filament of electric lamp

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q = It = 0.25 × 4 × 60 × 60 = 3600 C
(d) Given P = 2 kW = 2000 W
V = 220 V
Using, P = VI
2000 = 220 × I

So, the capacity of the fuse that should be used for the electric iron is 10

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 MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
Very Short Answer Type Questions:
1. A strong bar magnet is placed vertically above a horizontal wooden board. The magnetic lines
of force will be:
(a) only in horizontal plane around the magnet
(b) only in vertical plane around the magnet
(c) in horizontal as well as in vertical planes around the magnet
(d) in all the planes around the magnet
Answer: (d) in all the planes around the magnet
2. Which of the following is not attracted by a magnet?
(a) steel
(b) cobalt
(c) brass
(d) nickel
Answer: (c) brass
3. A plotting compass is placed near the south pole of a bar magnet. The pointer of plotting
compass will:
(a) point away from the south pole (b) point parallel to the south pole
(c) point towards the south pole (d) point at right angles to the south pole
Answer: (c) point towards the south pole
4. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding magnetic field lines?
(a) The direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the north pole of a
magnetic compass needle points.
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves.
(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength.
(d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines.
Answer: (c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength.
5. Name the technique by which doctors can produce pictures showing insides of the human
body. What is the full form of MRI?
Answer: A technique called Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) which is used to obtain images (or
pictures) of the internal parts of our body.
6. Assertion (A): As the speed of the coil in the motor increases, there is reduction in the current
flowing through it.
Reason (R): During rotation in electric motor, some induced current is produced.
(a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Short Answer Type Questions:

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 7. When an electric current is passed through any wire, a magnetic field is produced around it.
Then why an electric iron connecting cable does not attract nearby iron objects when electric
current is switched on through it?
Answer: When an electric current is passed through a wire, it is true that a magnetic field is
produced around it. However, such magnetic fields are very weak.
The magnetic field produced by an electric iron connecting cable is very weak and is not enough to
attract nearby objects. Moreover, metallic wires of cables are shielded with a cover that prevents
magnetic field to show its effect outside the cable.
8. Fill in the following blanks with suitable words:
(a) The magnetic effect of a coil can be increased by increasing the number of..............,
increasing the ............., or inserting an..............core.
(b) If a coil is viewed from one end and the current flows in an anticlockwise direction, then this
end is a.........pole.
(c) If a coil is viewed from one end, and the current flows in a clockwise direction, then this end
is a .............pole.
(d) The two main organs of the human body where the magnetic field produced is quite
significant are the………. and the………….
Answer:
(a) Turns in the coil, current flow, soft iron.
(b) North
(c) South
(d) Heart, brain
9. You are given the magnetic field pattern of a magnet. How will you find out from it where the
magnetic field is the strongest?
Answer: Magnetic field is the strongest at the place where the magnetic field lines are closest together.
10. How is the strength of magnetic field near a straight current-conductor
(i) related to the strength of current in the conductor?
(ii) is affected by changing the direction of flow of current in the conductor?
Answer:
(i) The strength of magnetic field around a straight current conductor increases
on increasing the strength of current in the conductor or vice versa.
(ii)The direction of magnetic field around a straight current carrying conductor gets reversed
if the direction of current through that conductor is reversed.
Long Answer Type Question:
11. Define magnetic field lines. Describe an activity to draw a magnetic field line outside a bar
magnet from one pole to another pole.
Answer: The path traced by a north magnetic pole free to move under the influence of a magnetic
field is called a magnetic field line.
The bar magnet M whose magnetic field pattern is to be traced is placed on a sheet of paper and its
boundary is marked with a pencil (see Figure 7). A plotting compass is now brought near the N-pole
of the bar magnet (see position X in Figure 7). In this position, the N-pole of magnet repels the n-
pole of compass needle due to which the tip of the compass needle moves away from the N-pole of

93
the magnet. On the other hand, the N-pole of magnet attracts the s-pole of compass needle due to
which the tail of compass needle comes near the N-pole of the magnet (see position X in Figure 7).
We mark the positions of the tip and the tail of compass needle by pencil dots B and A. That is, we
mark the positions of the two poles of the compass needle by pencil dots B and A (tip representing
north pole and tail representing south pole).

We now move the compass to position Y so that the tail of compass needle (or south pole) points at
dot B (previously occupied by n-pole of compass needle). We mark a dot C at the tip of the compass
needle to show the position of its north pole. In this manner we go on step by step till we reach the
south pole of the magnet. By doing this we get the various dots A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L, all
denoting the path in which the north pole of the compass needle moves. By joining the various dots,
we get a smooth curve representing a magnetic field line, which begins on the north pole of the bar
magnet and ends on its south pole (see Figure 7). We can draw a large number of lines of force in
the same way by starting from different points near the magnet. Every line is labelled with an arrow
to indicate its direction. In this way we will get the complete pattern of the magnetic field around a
bar magnet.
12. (a) Draw the magnetic lines of force due to a circular wire carrying current.
(b) What are the various ways in which the strength of magnetic field produced by a current-
carrying circular coil can be increased?
Answer:

(b) The magnitude of magnetic field produced by a current carrying coil at a given point is:
(i) directly proportional to the current passing through the circular loop (or circular wire), and
(ii) inversely proportional to the radius of circular loop (or circular wire).

94
13. (a) The diagram shows a bar magnet surrounded by four plotting compasses. Copy the diagram
and mark in it the direction of the compass needle for each of the cases B, C and D.

(b) Which is the north pole, X or Y?

Answer: (a) In B and D, needle points towards right. In C, needle points towards left.
(b) North -X
14. Two coils of insulated copper wire are wound over a non-conducting cylinder as shown. Coil 1
has comparative large number of turns. State your observations,

when
(i) Key K is closed.
(ii) Key K is opened.
Give reason for each of your observations.
Answer: (i) When key K is closed, a momentary deflection is shown by the galvanometer.
(ii) When key is opened, a momentary deflection in shown by the galvanometer but in the opposite
direction.
Reason: When key is closed or opened, the current in the coil I changes and hence the magnetic
field associated with it also changes. Thus, the magnetic field lines around the coil II also change.
Hence the change in magnetic field lines associated with the coil II is the cause of induced electric
current in it.
15. State and explain the Clock face rule for determining the polarities of a circular wire carrying
current.
Answer: According to Clock face rule, look at one face of a circular wire (or coil) through which a
current is passing:
(i) if the current around the face of circular wire (or coil) flows in the Clockwise direction,
then that face of the circular wire (or coil) will be South pole (S-pole).
(ii) if the current around the face of circular wire (or coil) flows in the Anticlockwise direction,
then that face of circular wire (or coil) will be a North pole (N-pole)

95
 16. On what factors does the strength of magnetic field depends for a current carrying solenoid?
Answer: The strength of magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid depends on:
(i) The number of turns in the solenoid. Larger the number of turns in the solenoid, greater will
be the magnetism produced.
(ii) The strength of current in the solenoid. Larger the current passed through solenoid, stronger
will be the magnetic field produced.
(iii) The nature of “core material” used in making solenoid. The use of soft iron rod as core in a
solenoid produces the strongest magnetism.
17. Two coils C1 and C2are wrapped around a non-conducting cylinder. Coil C1is connected to a
battery and key and C2 with galvanometer G. On pressing the key (K), current starts flowing in
the coil C1State your observation in the galvanometer:

(i) When key K is pressed on

(ii) When current in the coil C1 is switched off.
(iii) When the current is passed continuously through coil C1
(iv) Name and state the phenomenon responsible for the above observation. Write the name
of the rule that is used to determine the direction of current produced in the phenomena.
Answer: (i) When key is pressed on, the galvanometer needle deflects momentarily in one
direction.
(ii) When the current in the coil C1 is switched off, the galvanometer needle deflects again
momentarily but in opposite direction to that in the previous case.
(iii) When current is passed continuously through coil C1 , no deflection is observed in the
galvanometer.
(iv) The phenomenon responsible for the above observations is electromagnetic induction.
Electromagnetic Induction: The process, by which a changing magnetic field in a conductor induces
a current in another conductor placed nearby, is called electromagnetic induction.
• Fleming’s right hand rule is used to determine the direction of current produced in the
phenomena of electromagnetic induction.
18. (i)With the help of an activity, explain the method of inducing electric current in a coil with a
moving magnet. State the rule used to find the direction of electric current thus generated in
the coil.

96
 (ii) Two circular coils P and Q are kept close to each other, of which coil P carries a current.
What will you observe in Q
(a) if current in the coil P is changed?
(b) if both the coils are moved in the same direction with the same speed? Give reason.
Answer:
(i) Take a coil AB of wire having a large number of turns.
Connect the ends of coil to a sensitive galvanometer as shown in figure.

Take a strong bar magnet and move its north pole towards the end ‘A’ of coil. The deflection
in the needle of galvanometer indicates that the induced current flows in the circuit in
anticlockwise direction. The end A of the coil behaves as a north pole.
When north pole of the magnet moves away from the coil, the deflection in the galvanometer
occurs but in opposite direction.
Similar observations can be made when south pole of the magnet is moved towards the coil
or away from it.
When magnet is kept at rest with respect to the coil, the deflection in the needle of
galvanometer drops to zero.
Thus, the motion of a magnet, with respect to the coil, produces an induced potential
difference which sets up an induced electric current in the circuit.
The direction of electric current thus generated in the coil can be found by using the Fleming’s
right-hand rule.
(ii)Fleming’s right-hand rule: Stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle finger of right hand in
such a way that they are mutually perpendicular to each other. If the forefinger indicates the
direction of magnetic field and thumb shows the direction of motion of the conductor, then
the middle finger will indicate the direction of induced current.
(a) If current in the coil P is changed, the magnetic field lines of forces linked with coil Q also
change. So, induced potential difference is set up in the coil Q. This results in induced electric
current in coil Q which opposes the change in current in coil P.
(b) If both the coils are moved in the same direction with the same speed, there will be no
relative motion between them and hence, there will be no change in magnetic field lines of
force associated with the secondary coil. Hence, no current will be induced in the coil.
19. Distinguish between a solenoid and a bar magnet. Draw the magnetic lines for both
Answer:

97
 The solenoid is a long coil containing a large number of close turns of insulated copper wire.
The magnetic field produced by the current carrying solenoid is similar to the magnetic field
produced by a bar magnet. A solenoid is used for making electromagnets.
Differences between a bar magnet and solenoid:
Bar magnet
It is a permanent magnet.
The strength of a bar magnet cannot be changed.
The polarity (North – South) of a bar magnet cannot be changed.
Solenoid
It is a temporary magnet. It acts as a magnet only as long as the current passes through it.
The strength of a solenoid can be changed by changing the number of turns in its coil or by
changing the current passing through it.
The polarity of a solenoid can be changed by changing the direction of current in its coil.
20. Arun while studying the force experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic Field
records the following observation
The force experienced by the conductor is increases as the current in the conductor is
1
decreased
The force experienced by the conductor is decreases as the strength of magnetic field is
2
decreased
Direction of the force on the current carrying conductor is determined suing Fleming
3
Left hand rule
Which of these observations is correct? Explain.
Answer:
F=iLB
(a) So as current is decreased, Force also decreases. Observation is Incorrect
(b) Again, Force experience is decreased as strength of magnetic field is decreased. Observation is
correct
(c) Observation is correct

98
 OUR ENVIRONMENT

One-mark questions
1. Which of the following belong to the same trophic level: grasshopper, spider, grass, hawk, and
lizard?
Ans. Refer NCERT textbook page no.259

2. Name the process that is a direct outcome of excessive burning of fossil fuels?
Ans. Hint – temperature of earth rises which lead to-

3. Why is plastic not degraded by bacteria?

Ans. Refer NCERT textbook page no.257

4. Construct a food chain composing the following Snake, Hawk, Rats, Plants.
Ans. Refer NCERT textbook page no.259

5. In the following food chain, 20,000 J of energy was available to the plants. How much energy
would be available to man in this chain?
Plants Sheep Man
Ans. Refer to 10 percent law in the food chain.

6. Why is there a need to ban the use of polythene bags?

Ans. Refer to page number-257

7. Human body is made up of five important components, of which water is the main component.
Food as well as potable water are essential for every human being. The food is obtained from
plants through agriculture. Pesticides are being used extensively for a high yield in the fields.
These pesticides are absorbed by the plants from the soil along with water and minerals and
from the water bodies these pesticides are taken up by the aquatic animals and plants. As these
chemicals are not biodegradable, they get accumulated progressively at each trophic level. The
maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in our bodies and greatly affects
the health of our mind and body.
(A) Why is the maximum concentration of pesticides found in human beings?
(B) Give one method which could be applied to reduce our intake of pesticides through food to
some extent.
(C) Various steps in a food chain represent:
(a) Food web (b) Trophic level (c) Ecosystem (d) Bio magnification

Ans.(A) Refer to page number 261

(B) Consult your teacher
(C) Refer to food chain subtopic in NCERT text book page number 259

99
 One-mark Questions (Multiple choice questions)

1. The following are examples of terrestrial ecosystem except

(a) Forest (b) Wetland (c) Grassland (d) Desert

2. Which of these are examples of aquatic ecosystem?

(a) Pond
(b) River
(c) Estuary
(d) All of these

3. Which of these are examples of man-made ecosystem?

(a) Crop field
(b) Aquarium
(c) Wetland
(d) Both (a) and (b)

4. Which of the following are environment-friendly practices?

(a) Carrying cloth-bag to put purchases in while shopping.
(b) Switching off unnecessary lights and fans.
(c) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to drop you on her scooter.
(d) All of the above.

5. What will happen if deer is missing in the given food chain?

Grass Deer Tiger
(a) The population of tiger decreases and the population of grass increases
(b) The population of grass decreases
(c) Tiger will start eating grass
(d) The population of tiger increases

6. The decomposers in an ecosystem-

(a) Convert organic material to inorganic forms
(b) Convert inorganic material to simpler forms
(c) Convert inorganic material into organic compound
(d) Do not break down organic compound

7. In stratosphere, UV rays act on CFCs (Chlorofluoro Carbons) and release which atom leading to
ozone depletion?
(a) ‘F’ atoms (b) ‘Cl’ atoms (c) ‘H’ atoms (d) ‘C’ atoms

8. Which of these is incorrect about ozone depletion?

(a) CFCs releases ‘Cl’ atom causes degradation of O3.

100
(b) ‘Cl’ atoms act as catalyst.
(c) ‘Cl’ atom is not consumed in the reaction. (d) It is minimum over Antarctica region

9. Antarctic region has a large area of thinned ozone layer, commonly known as
(a) Dobson unit
(b) Ozone hole
(c) Black hole
(d) All of these

10. In an area where DDT had been used extensively the population of birds declined significantly
because
(a) Birds stopped laying eggs.
(b) Earthworms in the area got eradicated.
(c) Cobras were feeding exclusively on birds.
(d) Many of the bird’s eggs laid, did not hatch.

One-mark questions (Assertion & reasoning)

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.

1. Assertion: Ozone in stratosphere is called good ozone.

Reason: This ozone absorbs UV-radiation coming from sun, thus act as shield.

2. Assertion: Pyramid of energy is always upright.

Reason: Energy flow is unidirectional and some energy is always lost as heat at each step.

3. Assertion: Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called

stratification.
Reason: Tree occupy top vertical strata of forest.

4. Assertion: The energy pyramid is always upright.

Reason: Some energy is always lost as heat at each step when energy flows from a particular
trophic level to the next trophic level.

5. Assertion: Integrated organic farming is cyclical zero waste procedure.

101
 Reason: In integrated organic farming waste product from one process is cycled as nutrients for
other process.

Two-mark questions
1. State with reason any two possible consequences of elimination of decomposers from the Earth.
Ans. Discuss with your teacher
2. Give scientific terms for the following-
(a) The process of eating and being eaten
(b) The relationship between abiotic and biotic component
Ans. Discuss with your teacher
3. What is 10% law? Give an example.
Ans. Refer NCERT text book page no.259 and 260
4. How would you dispose the following wastes?
(a) Domestic wastes like vegetables peels
(b) Industrial waste
Ans. By consulting your parents
5. Name any two sources of CFC’s
Ans. Refer NCERT text book page no.262
6. Give two reason: “Life on earth depends on the sun.
Ans. Discuss with your teacher
7. Will the impact of removing all the organisms in a trophic level be different for different trophic
levels? Can the organisms of any trophic level be removed without causing any damage to the
ecosystem?
Ans. Discuss with your teacher.
8. What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem?
Ans. Refer text book or consult teacher.
9. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
Ans. Discuss with your teacher
10. How food chain and food web are interlinked?
Ans. Refer page number 260.
11. The number of malarial patients in a village increase tremendously, when a large number of
frogs were exported from the village. What could be the cause for it?
Ans. Discuss with your teacher
12. Why vegetarian food habit help us in getting more energy?
Ans. Discuss with your teacher

THREE-MARKS QUESTIONS

1. "Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional" Justify this statement. Explain how the
pesticides enter a food chain and subsequently get into our body.
Ans. Discuss with your teacher
2. Describe how ozone layer is formed in three steps.

102
 Ans. Discuss with your teacher
Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances with the help of one
example each. List two changes in habit that people must adopt to dispose non-biodegradable
waste, for saving the environment.
Ans. Discuss with your teacher
3. What is the difference between food chain and food web?
Ans. Discuss with your teacher
4. What are the measures to protect ozone depletion?
Ans. Discuss with your teacher
5. Describe three biotic components of ecosystem. Also give examples.
Ans. Discuss with your teacher
6. Give difference between produces and consumers. Mention one example of each.
Ans. Refer NCERT page number 259 and 260
7. It is the responsibility of the government to arrange for the management and Disposal of
waste. As an individual you have no role to play. Do you agree?
Support, your answers with three reasons.
Ans. Discuss with your teacher

FIVE-MARK QUESTIONS

1. What is Ozone? How does it affect any ecosystem? Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause for
concern? What steps are being taken to limit this damage?
2. Write any three activities which are eco-friendly and Give any two ways in which biodegradable
substances would affect the environment.
3. How Garbage pollution can be controlled?

103
 As Per Revised
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Subject Wise Secondary and Senior Secondary Groups (IX & X)

Secondary Groups (IX & X)

SST Mathematics English

Science

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Accountancy Business Studies Economics Mathematics

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IP Physical Education App. Mathematics IIT/NEET

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