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Cluster 5 RadSci

Bachelor of Science Radiologic Technology (Medical Colleges of Northern Philippines)

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CLUSTER 5

RADIOLOGICAL SCIENCES

1. The measure of signal processing electronics, transducer integrity and frequency dependent matching
layers is an evaluation of ________.
A. Lateral resolution C. Axial resolution
B. Time gain compensation D. Display characteristics
2. Determine the condition that shows a radiographic appearance of the gastrointestinal tract as having
numerous thicker folds of the stomach above diaphragm.
A. Hiatal hernia C. Esophageal achalasia
B. Gastric ulcer D. Esophageal varices
3. Survey meters can be used to _______.
A. Measure radioactivity
B. Measure absorbed dose
C. Measure equivalent dose of radiation workers
D. Locate source of radiation
4. Which fast pulse sequence is often used with three-dimensional imaging a generate T1-weighted
images?
A. Spin echo C. Gradient
B. Echo time D. Echo planar imaging
5. Choose what is referred to as a spinal fusion.
A. Osteoplasty C. Spondylosyndesis
B. Myoplasty D. Orthosis
6. Point out the reason why, in radiation therapy, mutileaf collimators are different from custom-shaped
blocks.
A. Multileaf collimators produce scalloped isodose distributions in penumbra, extremely heavy, can
produce any field shape or size
B. Multileaf collimators are easy to remove and replace between patients, produce sharper field edges,
can be used with any field size.
C. Multileaf collimators are easy to set-up, produce sharper penumbra, can be used with any field size
D. Multileaf collimators produce step-like filed edges, leakage can occur between leaves, can only be
used with limited field sizes
7. Identify the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the elbow it.
A. Spondylitis C. Spondylolysis
B. Spondylolisthesis D. Spondylosis
8. Identify which is an example of a radiosensitizer.
A. Thymine C. Hydroxyurea
B. Cysteamine D. Cycteine
9. MOST magnetic resonance image are formed by _______.
A. A 2-dimensional Fourier transformation
B. A resonance induction
C. An equilibrium relaxation
D. A back projection reconstruction

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10. In computed tomography, the Hounsfield unit is a measure of _______ density.

A. Tissue C. Proton
B. Bone D. Spin
11. Point out a condition that is manifested by painful urination.
A. Anuria C. Micturition
B. Dysuria D. Exacerbation
12. The ring-shaped part of a computed tomography scanner is the _______.
A. Aperture C. Gantry
B. Transformer D. Couch
13. Identify the type of fracture that usually affects the 2nd and 3rd cervical vertebrae resulting from acute
hyperextension of the head on the neck.
A. Monteggia C. Boxer’s
B. Jefferson D. Hangman’s
14. Which of the following is a type of RF sequence that uses a single RF pulse of less than 90 degrees
allowing for shorter repetition time (TR) and more rapid imaging.
A. Spin-echo C. Partial saturation
B. Inverse recovery D. Gradient echo
15. Determine the half-life of cobalt-60 beam.
A. 1600 years C. 30.3 years
B. 74 days D. 5.25 years
16. In magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), smooth objects are represented by ______ frequencies.
A. Low C. Narrow range of
B. Zero D. Wide range of
17. Which of the following conditions shows presence of large amounts of gas and fluid in the small and
large intestines as the main radiographic appearance?
A. Regional Enteritis C. Adynamic ileus
B. Chrons disease D. Dynamic
18. Point out the condition that would manifest aspiration pneumonia.
A. Drug reaction
B. Vomiting
C. Invasion of microorganism
D. Rib fracture
19. Choose the meaning of the term gross tumor volume as defined by the International Commission on
Radiological Units (ICRU).
A. Tissues that are to be irradiated to a specified dose according to a specified time-dose pattern
B. Gross palpable or visible/demonstrable tumor extent and location of malignant growth
C. The tissues that are to be irradiated
D. Gross palpable or visible/demonstrable tumor extent to be irradiated to a specified dose
20. Choose the isotopes that are suitable for performing radionuclide therapy.
I. I-131
II. P-32
III. Sm-153
A. II and III C. I and II
B. I, II and III D. I and III

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21. To form an axial image, the gathered data in computed tomography scan is assembled into a ______.
A. Voxel C. Pixel
B. Raw data D. Matrix
22. The attenuation of ultrasound in soft tissue is ______db/cm-MHz.
A. 15 C. 0.1
B. 10 D. 1.0
23. Select the crystal that have been used in scintillation detectors in computed tomography.
I. Ultrafast ceramic
II. Calcium tungstate
III. Gadolinium oxysulfide
A. I and III C. I and II
B. I, II and III D. II and III
24. Which of the following are controls affecting the amplification of echoes?
I. Time gain curse
II. Compression
III. Output
A. I, II and III C. II and III
B. I and II D. I and III
25. Select the conditions in which the percentage depth dose is dependent on.
A. Source skin distance, distance, treatment time
B. Field size, distance, energy
C. Energy, tissue density, treatment time
D. Distance, field size, cGy/MU
26. Select the thyroid carcinoma that can be evaluated using In-111 pentetreotide (OctreoScan).
A. Anaplastic C. Follicular
B. Papillary D. Medullary
27. Point out what would likely result to the near field length if a transducer element diameter is doubled.
A. Unaffected C. Quadrupled
B. Tripled D. Doubled
28. What is the typical energy window used for Imaging Technitium-99m(Tc99m) on gamma cameras?
A. 30% C. 20%
B. 10% D. 5%
29. What is the half-life of cobalt-60 beam?
A. 1600 years C. 5.26 years
B. 30.3 years D. 74 days
30. Determine the dose that is the result of electron contamination of the incident beam as well as the
backscattered radiation (both electron and photons) from the medium.
A. Surface C. Depth
B. Percent D. Electron
31. Identify the type of coil that is directly placed on the patient and is used in the imaging of superficial
structures.
A. Surface C. Saddle
B. Gradient D. Magnetic

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32. Identify the principal reconstruction algorithm used in computed tomography scan.
A. Filtered back projection C. Kernel
B. 2D Fourier D. 3D Fourier
33. Determine the indications for computed tomography imaging of the musculoskeletal system in children.
I. Tumors
II. Infections
III. Complex fractures and deformities
A. I, II and III C. I and III
B. I and II D. II and III
34. Determine what would BEST describe a magnetic resonance (MR) image.
A. Static C. Dynamic
B. Characteristics D. Representational
35. Adjusting the compression on some ultrasound equipment will affect the ______ process?
A. Output C. Slope position
B. Dynamic D. Balance
36. Point out the purpose of Computed Tomography imaging system.
I. To detect and measure radiation transmitted through the patient
II. To produce, shape and filter the x-ray beam
III. To convert x-rays to digital data
A. I and II C. II and III
B. I and III D. I, II and III
37. Select the main potential for biological response from radiofrequency.
A. Carcinogenesis C. Tissue heating
B. Induction of currents D. Polarization
38. Identify the condition indicating inflammation of the small fluid-filled sacs that are located around joints
causing reduced friction.
A. Bursitis C. Arthritis
B. Tendinitis D. Osteoporosis
39. What are the advantages of neonatal cranial sonography versus computed tomography?
I. Can be done with a portable unit
II. No partial volume effect
III. No bone interference
A. I and II C. I and III
B. II and III D. I, II and III
40. Which of the following would describe the measured x-ray transmissions in computed tomography
scan?
I. Ray sum
II. Raw data
III. Scan profile
A. I and II C. I, II and III
B. I and III D. II and III
41. Which of the following radionuclide generator equilibrium relationship where the parent t1/2 is a factor
of 100-1000 times greater than the daughter t1/2?
A. Eluate C. Transient
B. Secular D. Permanent

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42. Identify what is referred to when later echoes are electronically amplified more than earlier echoes.
I. Time gain compensation (TGC)
II. Depth gain compensation (DGC)
III. Time varied gain (TVG)
A. I and II C. II and III
B. I and III D. I, II and III
43. Choose an example of a non malignant tumor.
A. Carcinoma C. Adenoma
B. Adenocarcinoma D. Sarcoma
44. Which gallbladder’s segment is ultrasonographically observable at its neck closest to the cystic duct?
A. Hartmann’s pouch C. Wursung duct
B. Sphincter D. Common bile duct
45. The strength of the echo is related to the height of deflection on the oscilloscope for the ____ display.
A. A-mode C. B-mode
B. B-scan D. M-mode
46. Determine what affects the dose to the patient in computed tomography.
I. Slice thickness and pixel size
II. Kilovoltage peak and milliampere per second
III. Linear attenuation coefficient and noise
A. II and III C. I and II
B. I, II and III D. I and III
47. Select the factor that determines the amount of reflection at the interface of two dissimilar material’s.
A. Specific acoustic impedance
B. Young’s modulus
C. Ultrasonic wave frequency
D. Index of refraction
48. Identify the source from where Fourier transformation converts magnetic resonance (MR) signals.
A. Spatial frequency domain to spatial location domain
B. Cartesian coordinate to polar coordinate
C. Spatial location domain to space
D. Frequency data to phase data
49. Choose the BEST modality considered for staging the extent of tumor in the breast.
A. Computed tomography
B. Ultrasound
C. Radiography
D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
50. Determine the thyroid carcinoma that can be effectively detected and staged through a whole-body
radioiodine scintigraphy.
A. Medullary C. Hurthle cell
B. Anaplastic D. Papillary
51. Point out the size of pituitary tumor that can be considered as a macroadenoma.
A. Size is not a consideration
B. More than 1 cm
C. Less than 1 cm
D. More than 3 cm

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52. Identify the type of detectors usually used as dose calibrators.

A. Sodium Iodine(NaI) C. Geiger counters
B. Solid state D. Ionization chambers
53. The attenuation of cerrobend is approximately _____ lead.
A. 15 percent less than C. The same as
B. 15 percent more than D. 10 percent less than
54. Identify the factor that influences the character of a magnetic resonance imaging pixel.
A. Electron density C. Slice thickness
B. Proton density D. Optical density
55. Determine the system that aims to plan and deliver a uniform dose (±10% from the prescribed or stated
dose) throughout the volume to be treated.
A. Quimby C. Patterson-Parker
B. Paris D. Manchester
56. Point out the type of stroke that does NOT belong to the group.
A. Ischemic C. Hemorrhagic
B. Thrombotic D. Embolic
57. Which organ should the sonographer scan if uterine malformations are seen?
A. Kidneys C. Gallbladder
B. Liver D. Spleen
58. The profile of the ultrasound beam is primarily controlled by the ________.
A. Type of transducer
B. Diameter of piezo electric crystals
C. Shape of piezo electric crystals
D. Component of crystals
59. Determine the ratio of pressure to particle velocity at a given point within the ultrasonic field.
A. Insonation C. Noise
B. Interference D. Impedance
60. Point out where Tc-99m MDP (methylendiphosphonate) localize within the body.
A. Osteoid matrix C. Calcium hydroxyapatite
B. Osteoclast D. Osteoblast
61. In an isocentric treatment technique, it is routine to normalize the dose at _____.
A. Dmax of each beam
B. Dmax of each beam and then find the average
C. Isocentric
D. Dmax of the beam with the largest depth
62. Which of the following refers to a treatment-planning computerized tomography scan?
A. Patient must be in treatment position on a flat surface
B. Patients must be supine on flat surface
C. Patient is never given contrast
D. Position must always be with arms above the head
63. The desired effect of Iodine-131 administration for thyroid cancer is ______.
A. To block thyroid function
B. To inhibit iodine oxidation
C. To reduce chance for hyperthyroidism
D. Ablation of thyroid tissue

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64. Determine which of the following statements refers to isocenter.

A. Unnecessary dose on the skin surface
B. Point on the central axis where maximum dose occurs
C. Imaginary point in the beam where dose is normalized
D. Point around which the source of beam rotates.
65. Which modality will BEST demonstrate rupture of the spleen as a result of blunt abdominal trauma?
A. Computed Tomography
B. Ultrasound
C. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
D. Radiography
66. Which type of fracture can occur from falling on an outstretched hand involving the distal portion of the
radius?
A. Stress C. Pathologic
B. Colles D. Pott’s
67. Which of the following is a description of a well-defined structure with increased echogenicity?
A. Multiple cysts C. Solid tumor
B. Liver cyst D. Abscess
68. What is the gold standard in evaluating and diagnosing renal abscess?
A. Computed Tomography
B. Ultrasound
C. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
D. Radiography
69. Determine what is referred to as the “colloid shift” in a nuclear medicine liver scanning.
A. Increased uptake of colloid in spleen and bone marrow relative to liver
B. Small colloid particles clumped together to form large particles and localizes in lungs
C. Tc-99m sulfur colloid changing to albumin colloid
D. Redistribution of colloid within the liver over time
70. Presence of filling defect within the pulmonary artery or as an abrupt cutoff indicating complete
obstruction of a pulmonary vessel is a manifestation of _____.
A. Asbestosis C. Pulmonary Embolism
B. Emphysema D. Bronchiectasis
71. Identify the system that is PRIMARILY used for single and double plane implants in brachytherapy.
A. Patterson-Parker C. Paris
B. Manchester D. Quimby
72. Point out what is referred to as range of computed tomography numbers.
A. Field of view C. Dynamic range
B. Window Width D. Window level
73. A clay-shoveler’s fracture involved which area of the spine?
A. Lower cervical and upper thoracic
B. Lumbar only
C. Cervical only
D. Lower thoracic and upper lumbar
74. Select the ultrasound display sign that is in bowel intussusceptions.
A. Horseshoe C. Robert’s
B. Spalding D. Trident

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75. Determine the maximal allowed exposure to other members of the public from a patient who has
received an outpatient I-131 therapy.
A. 5 mSv C. 1 mSv
B. 15 mSv D. 10 mSv
76. Select the conditions/organs for scintigraphy that will use Tc99m labeled RBC’s.
I. Hemangioma
II. Meckel’s diverticulum
III. Gastrointestinal bleeding
A. II and III C. I and II
B. I and III D. I, II and III
77. The following may cause echogenic bile within the gallbladder lumen:
I. Prolonged fasting
II. Emyema
III. Hemobilia
A. I and III C. I and II
B. I, II and III D. II and III
78. Which term is defined as the interruption of blood flow to vital organs or lack of the ability of body
tissues to use oxygen and nutrients needed?
A. Necrosis C. Ischemia
B. Sepsis D. Shock
79. Determine the period in which a spin echo appears.
A. Immediately after a 90 º radiofrequency pulse
B. Immediately after a 60 º radiofrequency pulse
C. Sometime after a 180 º radiofrequency pulse
D. Sometime after a 90 º radiofrequency pulse
80. Determine the gyromagnetic ratio of fluorine-19 in MHz/T.
A. 42.6 C. 40.1
B. 34.3 D. 26.2
81. The MOST sensitive and specific noninvasive method of diagnosing mitral stenosis is ____.
A. Ultrasonography C. Computed tomography
B. Cardiac arteriography D. Echocardiography
82. Determine the modality of choice in the demonstration of intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts in
jaundiced patients.
A. Nuclear medicine C. Computed Tomography
B. Digital radiography D. Diagnostic Sonography
83. The presence of fibropurulent fluid in the pleural space indicates which of the following conditions?
A. Pneumothorax C. Hydrothorax
B. Empyema D. Hemothorax
84. Point out how image reconstruction time is defined.
A. From patient positioning to patient dismissal
B. From start of scanning to end of scanning
C. From patient positioning to start of scanning
D. From end of scanning to image appearance

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85. Identify the component in a computed tomography that permits the gantry frame to rotate continuously
allowing helical scanning.
A. Generator C. Power generator
B. Slip ring D. Klystron
86. Identify the system that is PRIMARILY used for single and double plane implants in brachytherapy.
A. Manchester C. Quimby
B. Paris D. Patterson-Parker
87. Select the fixed source-skin-distance (SSD) technique wherein the dose is routinely normalized.
A. At dmax C. At the tumor depth
B. At the isocentric D. On the surface
88. In computed tomography, a decrease in motion artifacts is caused by ______.
A. Increase in repetition time
B. Increase in matrix
C. Decrease in repetition time
D. Decrease in matrix
89. Determine the periodic linearity check with respect to the dose calibrator quality control.
A. Daily C. Annually
B. Weekly D. Quarterly
90. Which of the following radiograph projections is employed if the patient is too ill to stand cases of
pneumoperitoneum?
A. Right lateral decubitus, patient on right side
B. Left lateral decubitus, patient on right side
C. Right lateral decubitus, patient on left side
D. Left lateral decubitus, patient on left side
91. Which of the following refers to the relative comparison of x-ray attenuation of a voxel tissue to an
equal volume of water?
A. Hounsfield unit
B. Linear attenuation coefficient
C. Transmission factor
D. Slice sensitivity profile
92. In computed tomography, poor sampling of the signal to be digitized by the analog to digital converted
will result in a/an ______ artifact.
A. Aliasing C. Partial volume
B. Beam hardening D. Streaking
93. An epithelial tumor that grows as a projecting mass on the skin or from an inner mucous membrane is _.
A. An squamous cell carcinoma C. An adenocarcinoma
B. A papilloma D. A lipomas
94. Choose the medium that has the LOWEST velocity of sound.
A. Air C. Fat
B. Tissue D. Bone
95. Select which is referred to in a reduction of available space in the spinal column causing compression of
the neural elements.
A. Spondylosis C. Bulging disk
B. Spinal stenosis D. Spondylolisthesis

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96. Point out the least obstacle to the transmission of ultrasound.

A. Blood C. Bone
B. Muscle D. Fat
97. Determine the coincidence resulting from two photons detected at the same time but originate from two
independent events in a positron emission tomography (PET)
A. Recoiled C. Scatter
B. Multiple D. Random
98. In computed tomography, slice thickness can be measures by _____.
A. Uniform water phantom
B. Cone phantom technique
C. Shallow angled slice ramp
D. Uniform oval phantom
99. Which of the following is the proper sequence for producing a computed tomography image?
A. Data acquisition, image reconstruction, image postprocessing
B. Date acquisition, image postprocessing, image reconstruction
C. Image reconstruction, data acquisition, image postprocessing
D. Image postprocessing, data acquisition, image reconstruction
100. Point out the mechanism of uptake of Tc-99m HMPAO (hexamethylpropylamineoxime).
A. Active transport C. Reverse osmosis
B. Passive diffusion D. Na-K pump

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