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1 Mark: Important Instructions To Examiners

Diploma

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
1K views14 pages

1 Mark: Important Instructions To Examiners

Diploma

Uploaded by

Vedant Tayade
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION

(Autonomous)
(ISO/IEC - 27001 - 2013 Certified)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SUMMER – 2024 EXAMINATION
Model Answer - Only for the Use of RAC Assessors
Subject Name: Switchgear & Protection 22524: SAP
Important Instructions to examiners:
1) The answers should be examined by key words and not as word-to-word as given in the model answer scheme.
2) The model answer and the answer written by candidate may vary but the examiner may try to assess the
understanding level of the candidate.
3) The language errors such as grammatical, spelling errors should not be given more Importance (Not applicable for
subject English and Communication Skills).
4) While assessing figures, examiner may give credit for principal components indicated in the figure. The figures
drawn by candidate and model answer may vary. The examiner may give credit for any equivalent figure drawn.
5) Credits may be given step wise for numerical problems. In some cases, the assumed constant values may vary and
there may be some difference in the candidate’s answers and model answer.
6) In case of some questions credit may be given by judgement on part of examiner of relevant answer based on
candidate’s understanding.
7) For programming language papers, credit may be given to any other program based on equivalent concept.
8) As per the policy decision of Maharashtra State Government, teaching in English/Marathi and Bilingual (English +
Marathi) medium is introduced at first year of AICTE diploma Programme from academic year 2021-2022. Hence if
the students write answers in Marathi or bilingual language (English +Marathi), the Examiner shall consider the
same and assess the answer based on matching of concepts with model answer.
Sub
Q. Marking
Q. Answer
No. Scheme
N.
1. Attempt any FIVE of the following: 10 Marks
1. a) Draw diagram of:
i) Busbar reactor
ii) Generator reactor
Ans:
i) Bus Bar Reactor: 1 Mark

OR

Ring system Tie - Bar system

ii) Generator Reactor:

1 Mark

Page 1 of 14
MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION
(Autonomous)
(ISO/IEC - 27001 - 2013 Certified)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SUMMER – 2024 EXAMINATION
Model Answer - Only for the Use of RAC Assessors
Subject Name: Switchgear & Protection 22524: SAP
1. b) Give any two advantages of SF6 C.B.
Ans:
Advantages of SF6 Circuit Breaker (C.B.):
1. Due to superior arc quenching property, they have very short arcing time.
2. As SF6 gas is non-inflammable, no risk of fire. 1 Mark for
3. Noiseless operation. each of any
4. It does not pollute the atmosphere. two
5. Very much suitable in coal mines etc. advantages
6. They have minimum maintenance cost. = 2 Marks
7. The same gas is recycled and reused.
8. There are no carbon deposits on contact tips.
9. It is very much suitable for high voltage applications.
10. Because of very high dielectric strength, effective arc quenching is possible.
1. c) Draw the symbol and state function of C.B.
Ans:
Function of Circuit Breaker:
To make or break a circuit manually or remotely under normal condition and to break circuit 1 Mark
automatically under fault condition.
Symbol of Circuit Breaker:
1 Mark

OR
1. d) Define Plug setting multiplier and Time setting multiplier.
Ans:
Plug Setting Multiplier (PSM): 1 Mark
It is the ratio of fault current in relay coil to pick-up current.
PSM = (Fault current in relay coil) / (Pickup current)
Time Setting Multiplier (TSM):
The arrangement provided for setting the operating time of protective relay from zero sec to 1 Mark
maximum permissible time for a specified current setting is known as time setting multiplier.
1. e) Write any two different fault occurs in alternator.
Ans:
Faults occurring in Alternator:
1. Stator winding faults.
2. Thermal overheating. 1 Mark for
3. Rotor winding faults. each of any
4. Loss of field. two faults
5. Under / Over frequency. = 2 Marks
6. Vibration & Bearing overheating.
7. Motoring of generator.
8. Faults because of external causes.
9. Over voltages.
10. Over speed.
11. Over current.

Page 2 of 14
MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION
(Autonomous)
(ISO/IEC - 27001 - 2013 Certified)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SUMMER – 2024 EXAMINATION
Model Answer - Only for the Use of RAC Assessors
Subject Name: Switchgear & Protection 22524: SAP
1. f)
What do you mean by incipient faults.
Ans:
Incipient Faults:
Incipient faults mean slow developing faults. Incipient faults usually develop slowly, often in 2 Marks
the form of a gradual deterioration of insulation due to some cause.
OR Equivalent Answer
1. g) List any two faults occurs in 3 I. M.
Ans:
Faults occurring in 3Φ Induction Motor:
A) Electrical / magnetic sections:
1. Electrical supply failure due to single phasing, under voltage, unbalanced voltages 1 Mark for
and reversal of phases. each of any
2. Short circuit faults between turns of a stator coil due to failure of insulation. two faults
3. Short circuit faults between stator coils/phase winding due to failure of insulation. = 2 Marks
4. Short circuit faults between stator coil/s and body of motor due to failure of
insulation.
5. Open circuit in stator winding/coils or their terminal connections.
6. Loose or broken rotor bars.
7. Damaged core stampings/teeth.
B) Mechanical section:
1. Unbalanced rotor.
2. Damaged bearings.
3. End play in shaft, bent shaft.
4. Cooling/ventilation system failures, damaged fan.
5. Failure/disturbances of alignment.
6. Foundation arrangement disturbed.
7. Worn out brushes leading to abnormal operation with sparking etc.
OR
1. Prolonged overloading.
2. Single phasing.
3. Stalling.
4. Phase to phase faults / phase fault.
5. Phase to ground fault.
6. Inter- turn faults.
7. Earth faults.
8. Reversal of phases.
9. Failure of bearings / Rotor Jam.
10. Supply under-voltage.
11. Supply over voltage.
12. Unbalanced supply voltage.
13. Faults in stator and associated circuit.
14. Faults in rotor or associated circuit.
15. Open circuit fault in stator / rotor circuit.
16. Grooved slip rings.
17. Wrong positioning of slip rings.
OR Equivalent Answer
Page 3 of 14
MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION
(Autonomous)
(ISO/IEC - 27001 - 2013 Certified)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SUMMER – 2024 EXAMINATION
Model Answer - Only for the Use of RAC Assessors
Subject Name: Switchgear & Protection 22524: SAP
2. Attempt any THREE of the following: 12 Marks
2. a) Write any eight causes of fault occurrence in the power system.
Ans:
Causes of Faults occurring in Power System:
1. Over voltages due to direct lightning strokes.
2. Over voltages due to switching surges.
3. Falling of external conducting objects, tree branches etc. on conducting lines.
4. Accumulation of dust, dirt etc. on exposed components as lines, insulators etc. ½ mark for
5. Perching of birds on lines, insulators or other components. each of any
6. Ill-maintained sections of the power systems. eight causes
7. Heavy unbalanced loading on three phase lines even for short times. = 4 Marks
8. Prolonged unbalanced loading conditions leading to overheating (due to harmonics).
9. Failure of joints.
10. Open circuited line or broken conductors.
11. Mechanical damage to components of the power systems.
12. Unusually severe atmospheric conditions as storm, rains, too high humidity,
13. Defective/improper selection of components used and faulty design of the power system
sections.
14. Failure of insulation of components and equipment parts.
15. Accidents.
16. Over temperature.
17. Excessive internal and external stresses.
2. b) Explain construction of H.R.C. Fuse.
Ans:
Construction of H.R.C. Fuse:
Figure shows the essential parts of a typical H.R.C. fuse. It mainly consist of a heat resisting
ceramic body. Both the ends of the cermaic body consists of metal end caps. A silver current 2 Marks for
carrying element is welded to these metal end caps. The current carrying element is explanation
completely surrounded by the filling powder which may be plaster of parries, chalk, quartz or
marble dust and acts as an arc quenching and cooling medium when fuse element blow off.

2 Marks for
diagram

2. c) Draw neat circuit diagram of solenoid type relay.


Ans:
Solenoid Type Relay:

Page 4 of 14
MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION
(Autonomous)
(ISO/IEC - 27001 - 2013 Certified)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SUMMER – 2024 EXAMINATION
Model Answer - Only for the Use of RAC Assessors
Subject Name: Switchgear & Protection 22524: SAP
4 Marks for
labeled
diagram

2 Marks for
unlabeled
diagram

OR Equivalent Diagram

2. d) State the requirement of transmission line protection.


Ans:
Requirements of Transmission Line Protection:
1. Since transmission lines are used to transport bulk power, failure of transmission line
causes disturbance in large power flow in power system, causing system instability. So 1 Mark for
transmission line protection is required to maintain the stability of power system. each of any
2. Faults on lines should be quickly detected to initiate actions to maintain system stability. four points
3. For very long lines, protection system must be capable of identifying the fault locations. = 4 Marks
4. In the event of short circuit fault on the line, the circuit breaker nearest to it must operate
to open the line, while the other circuit breakers remain closed.
5. Adjacent circuit breakers should provide immediate backup protection in the event of
failure of circuit breaker (nearest to fault) to operate.
6. If the line is of prime importance, it should have two primary protection schemes
working on different principles.
3. Attempt any THREE of the following: 12 Marks
3. a) Write essential features of good protective system.
Ans:
Essential Features of Good Protective System:
i) Selectivity: It is the ability of protective system to select correctly that part of system in 1 Mark for
trouble and disconnect the faulty part without disturbing the rest of the system. each of any
ii) Speed: The relay system should disconnect the faulty section as fast as possible to four points
prevent the electrical apparatus from damage and for system stability. = 4 Marks
iii) Sensitivity: It is the ability of the relay system to operate with low value of actuating
quantity.
iv) Reliability: It is the ability of the relay system to operate under predetermined
conditions.
v) Simplicity: The relay system should be simple so that it can be easily maintained.
vi) Economy: The most important factor in the choice of particular protection scheme is the
economic aspect. The protective gear should not cost more than 5% of the total cost of
Page 5 of 14
MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION
(Autonomous)
(ISO/IEC - 27001 - 2013 Certified)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SUMMER – 2024 EXAMINATION
Model Answer - Only for the Use of RAC Assessors
Subject Name: Switchgear & Protection 22524: SAP
equipment to be protected.
OR
1) Detect abnormal conditions
2) Disconnect abnormally operating part so as to prevent the subsequent fault.
3) Disconnect faulty part quickly so as to improve system stability, service continuity and
system performance
4) Improve Transient stability
3. b) Distinguish between C.B. and Isolator.
Ans:
Difference between Circuit breaker & Isolator:
Sr. Circuit breaker Isolator
No.
1 Symbol Symbol

2 Operated ON load /on occurrence Operated on NO load. 1 Mark for


of fault. each of any
3 Heavy current is interrupted, arc No arcing during ON/OFF so no arc four points
is produced hence arc quenching quenching provision. = 4 Marks
facility is provided.
4 Operation is in oil or gas chamber Visible operation in open air
(not visible). (opening & closing of contacts).
5 Big sound on operation. Noise-less operation.
6 Costly/Expensive. Economical
7 Periodic maintenance is very No periodic maintenance required
much required. (only contact cleaning).
8 Occupy more space. Occupy less space.
9 Requires tripping circuit for No tripping circuit.
operation.
10 Manually operated in normal Operation may be
condition & automatically manual/mechanical/pneumatic.
operated in fault condition.
11 Types are as: Types are as:
(a) Air break C. B. (a) Vertical break type
(b) Oil C.B. (b) Horizontal break type
(c) Air blast C.B. (c) Pantograph type etc.
(d) Vacuum C.B.
(e) SF6 C.B.
(f) MCCB etc.
12 Complicated in construction. Simple in construction.

Page 6 of 14
MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION
(Autonomous)
(ISO/IEC - 27001 - 2013 Certified)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SUMMER – 2024 EXAMINATION
Model Answer - Only for the Use of RAC Assessors
Subject Name: Switchgear & Protection 22524: SAP
3. c) Draw neat sketch of Buchholz relay.
Ans:
Buchholz Relay:
4 Marks for
labeled
diagram

2 Marks for
unlabeled
diagram

3. d) Draw neat sketch of single phase preventer for 3-ϕ Induction Motor.
Ans:
Single Phase Preventer for 3-ϕ Induction Motor:
4 Marks for
labeled
diagram

2 Marks for
unlabeled
diagram

4. Attempt any THREE of the following: 12 Marks


4. a) What is reactor? Classify reactors on the basis of their location.
Ans:
Reactor:
A Reactor is a coil of number of turns designed to have large inductance with nigligible
ohmic resistance connected in series with equipment to limit the short circuit current. 2 Marks
Classification of Reactors on the basis of their Location:
1. Generator reactors
2. Feeder reactors 2 Marks
3. Bus bar reactors
(i) Ring system
(ii) Tie bar system
4. b) State the specification of CT and PT as protective transformers.
Page 7 of 14
MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION
(Autonomous)
(ISO/IEC - 27001 - 2013 Certified)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SUMMER – 2024 EXAMINATION
Model Answer - Only for the Use of RAC Assessors
Subject Name: Switchgear & Protection 22524: SAP
Ans:
Specifications of CT as a Protective Transformer:
Typical specifications of CT as a protective transformer is as below:
1. Rated primary current.
2 Marks for
2. Rated secondary current.
any four CT
3. Current (ratio) error.
specifications
4. Accuracy limit factor.
5. Phase displacement.
6. Composite error.
7. Accuracy class.
8. Rated burden.
9. Short time rating etc. 2 Marks for
Specifications of PT as a Protective Transformer: any four PT
Typical specifications of PT as a protective transformer is as below: specifications
1. Rated primary voltage.
2. Rated secondary voltage.
3. Rated burden.
4. Accuracy class.
5. Rated voltage factor.
6. Rated temperature.
7. Class of insulation etc.
4. c) Draw neat sketch of percentage differential protection of a transformer.
Ans:
Percentage Differential Protection of a Transformer:

4 Marks for
labeled
diagram

2 Marks for
unlabeled
diagram

Note: (Other types should also be considered)


If the students draw any other type then accordingly the connection of CTs will be as follows:
Three phase transformers: Delta side of protected transformer CTs to be in star, Star side
protected transformer CTs to be in delta.
Single phase transformers: Only one CT on each side.
4. d) Explain the principle of time graded protection of feeders using IDMT over current
relays.
Page 8 of 14
MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION
(Autonomous)
(ISO/IEC - 27001 - 2013 Certified)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SUMMER – 2024 EXAMINATION
Model Answer - Only for the Use of RAC Assessors
Subject Name: Switchgear & Protection 22524: SAP
Ans:
Principle of Time Graded Protection of Feeders using IDMT Over Current Relays:
Figure shows time-graded over
current protection of radial feeder 2 Marks for
using IDMT over-current relays. explanation
Here the operating time is inversely
proportional to the fault current and
finally becomes definite for particular
current. With this arrangement, the 2 Marks for
farther the circuit-breaker from the diagram
generating station, the shorter is its
relay operating time. The line or
feeder is divided into number of
sections. Over-current relays are
provided for each section. On
occurrence of fault in any section, all
the relays towards generating station
are initiated to operate but the nearest
relay operates first and trips the
respective CB. If this relay fails, the next relay towards generating station operates and so on.
The relays towards generating station are set for higher currents and they operate with time
delays according to their inverse definite minimum time characteristics.
4. e) Explain with a neat sketch pilot wire protection scheme applied to transmission line.
Ans:
Pilot Wire Protection Scheme applied to Transmission Line:
2 Marks for
diagram

Figure shows the single line diagram of Mertz price voltage balance system for pilot wire 2 Marks for
protection of three phase transmission line. The pair of CTs in each line is connected in series explanation
with a relay in such a way that under normal conditions their secondary voltages are equal
and opposite, because current entering is equal to current leaving i.e., they cancel out and no
current flowing through relay coil.
Suppose a fault occurs at point F, the current entering and leaving are different, now causing
current to flow through the relay which trips the circuit breaker for protection of transmission
line.
5 Attempt any TWO of the following: 12 Marks

Page 9 of 14
MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION
(Autonomous)
(ISO/IEC - 27001 - 2013 Certified)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SUMMER – 2024 EXAMINATION
Model Answer - Only for the Use of RAC Assessors
Subject Name: Switchgear & Protection 22524: SAP
5. a) Draw and explain a neat circuit diagram of vacuum circuit breaker. State any two
advantages of it.
Ans:
Vacuum Circuit Breaker:
2 Marks for
diagram

Explanation:
During the operation of the breaker, the moving contact separates from the fixed contact 2 Marks for
resulting in arcing between them. The production of arc is due to the ionization of metal ions explanation
and depends very much upon the materials of contacts. The arc is quickly extinguished
because the metallic vapours, electrons and ions produced during arc are diffused in a short
time and seized by the surface of moving and fixed members and shields. The arc gets
extinguished quickly as vacuum has good recovery of dielectric strength. The arc extinction
occurs at a small vacuum gap of about 0.6 to 0.7cm.
Advantages of Vacuum Circuit Breaker:
1. The vacuum circuit breaker does not require any additional filling of the oil or gas. They
do not need period refilling. 1 Mark for
2. The inertia of the movable guide rod is small and can be used frequently. each of any
3. The vacuum circuit breaker unit is compact and self-contained. It can be installed in any two
required orientations. advantages
4. It has small operating mechanism, small size and light in weight. = 2 Marks
5. They are compact, reliable and have long service life.
6. Rapid recovery of high dielectric strength in vacuum causes current interruption in only a
half cycle or less after proper contact separation.
7. The control power is small and the action noise is small during switch operations.
8. The arc extinguish time is short, arc voltage is low, the arc energy is small and the
contact loss is small.
9. The arc extinguishing medium or insulating medium does not use oil, there is no danger
of fire hazard and explosion and it is safe.
10. Extinguishing the arc is in a sealed container and the arc / hot gas are not exposed. As a
separate component, the arc extinguishing chamber is simple and convenient.
11. After the arc is broken, the medium between the fractures recovers quickly and the
medium does not need to be replaced.
12. They require very less maintenance.

Page 10 of 14
MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION
(Autonomous)
(ISO/IEC - 27001 - 2013 Certified)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SUMMER – 2024 EXAMINATION
Model Answer - Only for the Use of RAC Assessors
Subject Name: Switchgear & Protection 22524: SAP
5. b) Determine the time of operation of a 1A, 3 seconds over current relay having plug
setting of 125% and a time multiplier of 0.6. The supplying CT is rated 400: 1A and
fault current is 400A. The relay characteristics is as given below.
PSM 1˖3 2 4 8 10 20
Time of operation in seconds 30 10 5 3˖3 3 2˖2
Ans:
Plug setting = 125% = 1.25
Time Setting Multiplier (TSM) = 0.6
CT ratio = 400:1 A
Fault current = 400A (Its typo mistake, it should be 4000A)
(NOTE: Fault current is usually much higher than the rated primary current of CT)
Modified Fault current = 4000A
Rated secondary current of C.T. = 1A
Pick up current = (Relay secondary current) (Plug setting)
= 1 × 1.25 = 𝟏. 𝟐𝟓𝑨 1 Mark
1
Fault current in relay coil = 4000 × 400
= 𝟏𝟎𝑨 1 Mark
𝒇𝒂𝒖𝒍𝒕 𝒄𝒖𝒓𝒓𝒆𝒏𝒕 𝒊𝒏 𝒓𝒆𝒍𝒂𝒚 𝒄𝒐𝒊𝒍
∴ Plug setting multiplier (PSM) = 1 Mark
𝒑𝒊𝒄𝒌−𝒖𝒑 𝒄𝒖𝒓𝒓𝒆𝒏𝒕
10
= 1.25
𝑃𝑆𝑀 = 𝟖 1 Mark
Corresponding to PSM of 8 (consider given table), the time of operation is 3.3 seconds. 1 Mark
Actual relay operating time = 3.3 × 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑠𝑒𝑡𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔
= 3.3 × 0.6
= 𝟏. 𝟗𝟖 𝒔𝒆𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒅𝒔. 1 Mark
(Marks may please be awarded to student for thought process of stepwise approach to
the solution)
5. c) A - 3 phase 33/6.6 KV, star - delta transformer is protected by merz price circulating
current relay. If the CTs on the low voltage side have a ratio of 300/5, determine the
ratio of CTs on the high voltage side. Draw a neat diagram and indicate the values at
appropriate places.
Ans:
Suppose current flowing in secondary side of transformer is 300 amp. This current is primary
current for the CT’s connected to delta side of transformer. The secondary current of the CT
will be 5 amp, since CT ratio is 300/5 A.
For differential protection scheme, when operating conditions are normal, the CT secondary
currents flowing through pilot wire from both groups must be equal, then only relay current
will be zero and no operation of relay.

Page 11 of 14
MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION
(Autonomous)
(ISO/IEC - 27001 - 2013 Certified)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SUMMER – 2024 EXAMINATION
Model Answer - Only for the Use of RAC Assessors
Subject Name: Switchgear & Protection 22524: SAP

1 Mark for
diagram

1 Mark for
diagram

Refer above figure, here CT1, CT2, CT3 are connected in delta on the star-connected primary
side of transformer and CT1’ CT2’ CT3’ are connected in star on the delta-connected
secondary side of transformer.
The pilot wire current = CT secondary current (Connected on delta side secondary of
transformer)
1 Mark
= 5 amp
The CTs connected in delta on star-connected primary side should also send 5 amp in pilot
1 Mark
wire. Therefore the current to be induced in the delta-connected CT’s secondary should be 5 /
√3 amp (for delta circuit line current is √3 times phase current)
Thus, CTs connected in delta have a current of 5 / √3 amp in their secondary.
Now, Primary apparent power = Secondary apparent power
√3 V1 I1 = √3 V2 I2
1 Mark
√3 (33×1000) × I1 = √3 (6.6 × 1000) × 300
⸫ I1 = 60 amp
This is primary current of main transformer and it is the primary current of CT on H.V. side.
Primary current of HV side CT = 60 Amp
1 Mark
Secondary current of HV side CT = 5 / √3 amp
Page 12 of 14
MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION
(Autonomous)
(ISO/IEC - 27001 - 2013 Certified)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SUMMER – 2024 EXAMINATION
Model Answer - Only for the Use of RAC Assessors
Subject Name: Switchgear & Protection 22524: SAP
⸫ CT Ratio on high voltage side is 60 : 5/√3 amp

6 Attempt any TWO of the following: 12 Marks


6. a) For a 10 MVA, 132 KV / 6.6 KV power transformer with delta-star connections, obtain
CT ratio for the differential protection scheme to circulate a current of 5A in the pilot
wires. Draw schematic diagram for the given configuration.
Ans:
𝑽𝑨 𝟏𝟎×𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎
Line current on H.V. (132kV) side = =
√𝟑𝑽𝑳 √𝟑×𝟏𝟑𝟐×𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
1 Mark
= 43·738A
𝑽𝑨 𝟏𝟎×𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎
Line current on L.V. (6·6kV) side = =
√𝟑𝑽𝑳 √𝟑×𝟔·𝟔×𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
= 𝟖𝟕4·773A 1 Mark
The current through the pilot wire is 5A,
Since CTs on delta-connected H.V. (132kV) side are connected in star, the CT secondary
current i.e Phase current = Line current i.e pilot wire current = 5A
⸫ The CT ratio on H.V. (132kV) side is 43·738 : 5 1 Mark
Since CTs on star-connected L.V. (6.6kV) side are connected in delta, the CT secondary
current i.e Phase current = (Line current i.e pilot wire current)/ √𝟑 = (5/√𝟑)A
⸫ The CT ratio on L.V. (6·6kV) side is 𝟖𝟕4·773 : (5 /√3) 1 Mark

2 Marks for
diagram

6. b) Explain with a neat sketch the operation of attracted armature type relay. Also give its
two merits and demerits.
Ans:
Attracted Armature Type Relay (Sketch):

2 Marks for
diagram

Attracted Armature Type Relay (Operation):


It consists of a laminated electromagnet M carrying a coil C and a pivoted laminated

Page 13 of 14
MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION
(Autonomous)
(ISO/IEC - 27001 - 2013 Certified)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SUMMER – 2024 EXAMINATION
Model Answer - Only for the Use of RAC Assessors
Subject Name: Switchgear & Protection 22524: SAP
armature. The armature is balanced by a counterweight and carries a pair of contacts at its 2 Marks for
end. Under normal operating conditions, the current through the relay coil C, is such that operation
counterweight holds the armature in the position shown. However, when a short circuit
occurs, the current through relay coil increases sufficiently and armature is attracted upwards
which shorts the pair of contacts and completes the trip circuit.
Attracted Armature Type Relay (Merits):
1. Simple construction. ½ Mark for
2. Reliable operation. each of any
3. Unaffected by temperature changes. two merits
4. Long life. = 1 Mark
5. Robust construction.
Attracted Armature Type Relay (Demerits): ½ Mark for
1. Somewhat less accurate than static/ microprocessor-based relay. each of any
2. Require maintenance. two demerits
3. Wrongly operated sometimes because of vibrations. = 1 Mark
4. Counter weight has to be adjusted for every setting.
6. c) Draw the construction diagram of ELCB and explain how ELCB gives protection
against earth leakage fault.
Ans:
Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker (ELCB):

3 Marks for
labeled
diagram

Earth leakage circuit breaker is a safety device used in electrical installations to prevent
shocks and disconnect power under earth fault conditions. It works on principle of relaying
when the current in the earth path exceeds a set value.
ELCB is used for protection against electric leakage in the circuit of 50 Hz or 60 Hz, rated
voltage, single phase: 240 V, rated voltage, 3-ph: 440V. Rated current up to 60 Amp. 3 Marks for
When the earth fault occurs, the ELCB cuts off the power within the time of 0.1 sec. explanation
automatically to protect personnel.
Under normal conditions (IL–IN) = If is very low or nearly zero. The CT surrounding the
phase and neutral senses the differential current under earth fault and actuates the CB to
operate (open). The difference current If through fault path resistance Re is the leakage to
earth. If this value exceeds a preset value, then the CB opens. Normally it is around 35 mA
for tripping in domestic installations with tripping time being as low as 25 msec.

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