QB for Module 1 to 6 SRWE

1. Refer to the exhibit. A switch receives a Layer 2 frame that contains a source MAC
address of 000b.a023.c501 and a destination MAC address of 0050.0fae.75aa. Place the
switch steps in the order they occur. (Not all options are used.)
o Occurs first

-> The switch adds the source MAC address to the MAC address table

o Occurs second

-> Because the destination is not known, the switch forwards the frame out all ports
except the port through which the frame arrived

o XXX

-> the switch drops the frame

o XXX

-> the switch adds the destination MAC address to the MAC address table

o XXX

-> Because the source MAC is not known, the switch broadcasts the frame out all ports
except the port through which the frame arrived

2. Match each DHCP message type with its description

o DHCPACK

-> the DHCP server confirming that the address lease has been accepted

o DHCPREQUEST

-> the client accepting the IP address provided by the DHCP server

o DHCPDISCOVER
 -> a client initiating a message to find a DHCP server

o DHCPOFFER

-> a DHCP server responding to the initial request by a client

3. Match the DTP mode with its function

o Negotiate

-> Require manual configuration of trunking or nontrunking

o Dynamic desirable

-> Actively attemps to convert the link to a trunk

o Trunk

-> Permanent trunking mode

o Dynamic auto

-> Passively waits for the neighbor to initiate trunking

4. Match the IEEE 802.1Q standard VLAN tag field with the description. (Not all options are
used.)
o Type

-> A value for the tag protocol ID value

o VLAN ID

-> a VLAN number

o User Priority

-> a value that supports level or service implementation

o Canonical Format Identifier

-> an identifier that enables Token Ring frames to be carried across Ethernet links

o XXX

-> a value for the application protocol of the user data in the frame
5. Match the spanning-tree feature with the protocol type
o MSTP

-> IEEE standard that reduces the number of STP instances

o PVST

-> Cisco implementation of IEEE 802.1D

o MST

-> Proprietary per VLAN implementation of IEEE 802.fw

o RSTP

-> Fast converging enhancement of IEEE 802.1D

o Rapid PVST+

-> An evolution of STP that provides faster convergence

6. Match the STP protocol with the correct description.

o MSTP

-> A protocol that allows multiple VLANs to run in a single spanning-tree instance

o STP

-> the legacy standard for STP that runs all VLANS in a single spanning-tree instance

o Rapid PVST+

-> A Cisco enhancement of RSTP to provide a spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

7. The EELU uses VLAN15 for the laboratory network and VLAN30 for the faculty network.
The requirements to enable communication between these two VLANs while using the
router-on-a-stick approach are
a. A multilayer switch is needed.
b. A router with at least two LAN interfaces is needed.
c. Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports that are configured for one VLAN.
d. A switch with a port that is configured as a trunk is needed when connecting to the
router.

8. An EtherChannel link is configured with three interfaces between two switches. The
result if one of the three interfaces is down will be
 a. The remaining two interfaces continue to load balance traffic.
b. The remaining two interfaces become separate links between the two switches.
c. One interface becomes an active link for data traffic and the other becomes a backup
link.
d. The EtherChannel fails.

9. An EtherChannel has been configured between two switches that are connected via
four trunk links. If the physical interface for one of the trunk links changes to a down
state, what happens to the EtherChannel?
a. Spanning Tree Protocol will transition the failed physical interface into forwarding
mode.
b. Spanning Tree Protocol will recalculate the remaining trunk links.
c. The EtherChannel will transition to a down state.
d. The EtherChannel will remain functional.

10. An EtherChannel link is configured between switches SW1 and SW2 by using the
command SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode auto Which command must be
used on SW2 to enable this EtherChannel?
a. SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive
b. SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
c. SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode on
d. SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode active

11. A network administrator issues the show vlan brief command while troubleshooting a
user support ticket. What output will be displayed?
a. the VLAN assignment and membership for device MAC addresses
b. the VLAN assignment and membership for all switch ports
c. the VLAN assignment and trunking encapsulation
d. the VLAN assignment and native VLAN

12. A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a
device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
a. All devices in all VLANs see the frame.
b. Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
c. Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
d. Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.

13. A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority
value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?
a. 65535
b. 4096
c. 32768
 d. 61440

14. A small company network has six interconnected Layer 2 switches. Currently all
switches are using the default bridge priority value. Which value can be used to
configure the bridge priority of one of the switches to ensure that it becomes the root
bridge in this design?
a. 1
b. 28672
c. 32768
d. 34816
e. 61440

15. A switch is configured to run STP. What term describes a field that has a default value
of 32,768 and is the initial deciding factor when electing a root bridge?
a. bridge priority
b. MAC Address
c. extended system ID
d. bridge ID

16. A switch is configured to run STP. What term describes a field used to specify a VLAN
ID?
a. extended system ID
b. port ID
c. bridge priority
d. bridge ID

17. A switch is configured to run STP. What term describes a non-root port that is permitted
to forward traffic on the network?
a. root port
b. designated port
c. alternate port
d. disabled

18. A switch is configured to run STP. What term describes the reference point for all path
calculations?
a. root bridge
b. root port
c. designated port
d. alternate port
19. A switch is configured to run STP. What term describes the switch port closest, in terms
of overall cost, to the root bridge?
a. root port
b. designated port
c. alternate port
d. disabled

20. A technician is configuring a new Cisco 2960 switch. What is the effect of issuing the
BranchSw(config-if)# mdix auto command?
a. It automatically adjusts the port to allow device connections to use either a straight-
through or a crossover cable.
b. It applies an IPv4 address to the virtual interface.
c. It applies an IPv6 address to the virtual interface.
d. It permits an IPv6 address to be configured on a switch physical interface.
e. It updates the MAC address table for the associated port.

21. A technician is configuring a new Cisco 2960 switch. What is the effect of issuing the
BranchSw(config-if)# ip address 172.18.33.88 255.255.255.0 command?
a. It applies an IPv4 address to the virtual interface.
b. It applies an IPv6 address to the virtual interface.
c. It activates a virtual or physical switch interface.
d. It permits an IPv6 address to be configured on a switch physical interface.
e. It updates the MAC address table for the associated port.

22. A technician is configuring a new Cisco 2960 switch. What is the effect of issuing the
BranchSw# configure terminal command?
a. It enters the global configuration mode.
b. It enters configuration mode for a switch virtual interface.
c. It applies an IPv4 address to the virtual interface.
d. It updates the MAC address table for the associated port.
e. It permits an IPv6 address to be configured on a switch physical interface.

23. A technician is configuring a new Cisco 2960 switch. What is the effect of issuing the
BranchSw# configure terminal command?
a. It enters the global configuration mode.
b. It saves the running configuration to NVRAM.
c. It disables a virtual or physical switch interface.
d. It updates the MAC address table for the associated port.
e. It saves the startup configuration to the running configuration.

24. A technician is configuring a new Cisco 2960 switch. What is the effect of issuing the
BranchSw(config-if)# shutdown command?
 a. It disables a virtual or physical switch interface.
b. It saves the running configuration to NVRAM.
c. It activates a virtual or physical switch interface.
d. It updates the MAC address table for the associated port.
e. It saves the startup configuration to the running configuration.

25. A technician is configuring a new Cisco 2960 switch. What is the effect of issuing the
BranchSw(config-if)# shutdown command?
a. It disables a virtual or physical switch interface.
b. It applies an IPv6 address to the virtual interface.
c. It applies an IPv4 address to the virtual interface.
d. It permits an IPv6 address to be configured on a switch physical interface.
e. It updates the MAC address table for the associated port.

26. A technician is configuring a new Cisco 2960 switch. What is the effect of issuing the
BranchSw(config-if)# ipv6 address 2001:db8:a2b4:88::1/64 command?
a. It applies an IPv6 address to the virtual interface.
b. It activates a virtual or physical switch interface.
c. It applies an IPv4 address to the virtual interface.
d. It permits an IPv6 address to be configured on a switch physical interface.
e. It updates the MAC address table for the associated port.

27. A technician is configuring a new Cisco 2960 switch. What is the effect of issuing the
BranchSw(config-if)# exit command?
a. It returns to global configuration mode.
b. It returns to privileged mode.
c. It configures the default gateway for the switch.
d. It enters user mode.
e. It saves the startup configuration to the running configuration.

28. A technician is configuring a new Cisco 2960 switch. What is the effect of issuing the
BranchSw> enable command?
a. It enters privileged mode.
b. It enters the global configuration mode.
c. It enters configuration mode for a switch virtual interface.
d. It updates the MAC address table for the associated port.
e. It permits an IPv6 address to be configured on a switch physical interface.

29. A technician is configuring a new Cisco 2960 switch. What is the effect of issuing the
BranchSw(config-if)# duplex full command?
a. It allows data to flow in both directions at the same time on the interface.
b. It allows data to flow in only one direction at a time on the interface
 c. It automatically adjusts the port to allow device connections to use either a straight-
through or a crossover cable.
d. It configures the switch as the default gateway.
e. It encrypts user-mode passwords when users connect remotely.

30. After which step of the switch bootup sequence is the boot loader executed?
a. after CPU initialization
b. after IOS localization
c. after flash file system initialization
d. after POST execution

31. During the implementation of Spanning Tree Protocol, all switches are rebooted by the
network administrator. What is the first step of the spanning-tree election process?
a. Each switch with a lower root ID than its neighbor will not send BPDUs.
b. All the switches send out BPDUs advertising themselves as the root bridge.
c. Each switch determines the best path to forward traffic.
d. Each switch determines what port to block to prevent a loop from occurring.

32. How do switch buffers affect network performance?

a. They provide error checking on the data received.
b. They store frames received, thus preventing premature frame discarding when network
congestion occurs.
c. They provide extra memory for a particular port if autonegotiation of speed or duplex
fails.
d. They hold data temporarily when a collision occurs until normal data transmission
resumes.

33. If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing
the root bridge?
a. lowest MAC address
b. lowest IP address
c. highest IP address
d. highest MAC address

34. If one end of an Ethernet connection is configured for full duplex and the other end of
the connection is configured for half duplex, where would late collisions be observed?
a. on both ends of the connection
b. on the full-duplex end of the connection
c. only on serial interfaces
d. on the half-duplex end of the connection
35. In which port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs in a PVST
network?
a. disabled
b. forwarding
c. listening
d. blocking

36. In which two PVST+ port states are MAC addresses learned?
a. Learning and forwarding states
b. Disabled and listening states
c. Listening and learning states
d. Blocking and forwarding states

37. On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only
VLAN 100 from the switch?
a. Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat
b. Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
c. Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
d. Switch(config)# no vlan 100

38. Port Fa0/11 on a switch is assigned to VLAN 30. If the command no switchport access
vlan 30 is entered on the Fa0/11 interface, what will happen?
a. Port Fa0/11 will be shutdown.
b. An error message would be displayed.
c. Port Fa0/11 will be returned to VLAN 1.
d. VLAN 30 will be deleted.

39. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the
administrator checks the status of the serial interface, the interface is shown as being
administratively down. What additional command must be entered on the serial
interface of R1 to bring the interface up?
a. IPv6 enable
b. clockrate 128000
c. end
d. no shutdown

40. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured router CiscoVille with the
above commands to provide inter-VLAN routing. What command will be required on a
switch that is connected to the Gi0/0 interface on router CiscoVille to allow inter-VLAN
routing
a. switchport mode access
b. no switchport
 c. switchport mode trunk
d. switchport mode dynamic desirable

41. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured router CiscoVille with the
above commands to provide inter-VLAN routing. What type of port will be required on a
switch that is connected to Gi0/0 on router CiscoVille to allow inter-VLAN routing?
a. routed port
b. access port
c. trunk port
d. SVI

42. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link

between two switches, SW1 and SW2. However, the EtherChannel link fails to establish.
What change in configuration would correct the problem?
a. Configure SW2 EtherChannel mode to desirable
b. Configure SW2 EtherChannel mode to on
c. Configure SW1 EtherChannel mode to on
d. Configure SW2 EtherChannel mode to auto
43. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link
between two switches, SW1 and SW2. Which statement describes the effect after the
commands are issued on SW1 and SW2?
a. The EtherChannel is established after SW2 initiates the link request
b. The EtherChannel is established after SW1 initiates the link request
c. The EtherChannel is established without negotiation
d. The EtherChannel fails to establish

44. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a

network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is
the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?
a. It identifies the subinterface
 b. It identifies the VLAN number
c. It identifies the native VLAN number
d. It identifies the type of encapsulation that is used
e. It identifies the number of hosts that are allowed on the interface

45. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring RT1 for inter-VLAN routing.
The switch is configured correctly and is functional. Host1, Host2, and Host3 cannot
communicate with each other. Based on the router configuration, what is causing the
problem?
a. Interface Fa0/0 is missing IP address configuration information
b. IP addresses on the subinterfaces are incorrectly matched to the VLANs
c. Each subinterface of Fa0/0 needs separate no shutdown commands
d. Routers do not support 802.1Q encapsulation on subinterfaces
46. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing port and VLAN assignments
on switch S2 and notices that interfaces Gi0/1 and Gi0/2 are not included in the output.
Why would the interfaces be missing from the output?
a. There is a native VLAN mismatch between the switches
b. There is no media connected to the interfaces
c. They are administratively shut down
d. They are configured as trunk interfaces

47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN
routing. Users complain that PC2 cannot communicate with PC1. Based on the output,
what is the possible cause of the problem?
a. Gi0/0 is not configured as a trunk port
b. The command interface GigabitEthernet0/0.5 was entered incorrectly
c. There is no IP address configured on the interface Gi0/0
d. The no shutdown command is not entered on subinterfaces
e. The encapsulation dot1Q 5 command contains the wrong VLAN
48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN
routing. Users complain that PCs on different VLANs cannot communicate. Based on
the output, what are two configuration errors on switch interface Gi1/1?
a. Gi1/1 is in the default VLAN and Gi1/1 is configured as trunk mode
b. Voice VLAN is not assigned to Gi1/1
c. Negotiation of trunking is turned on on Gi1/1
d. The trunking encapsulation protocol is configured wrong

49. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issued the show etherchannel summary
command on the switch S1. What conclusion can be drawn?
a. The EtherChannel is suspended
b. The EtherChannel is not functional
c. The port aggregation protocol PAgP is misconfigured
 d. FastEthernet ports Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 do not join the EtherChannel

50. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to configure router-on-a-stick for the
networks that are shown. How many subinterfaces will have to be created on the router
if each VLAN that is shown is to be routed and each VLAN has its own subinterface?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

51. Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15,
30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45
that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on
 VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this
problem?
a. The wrong VLAN has been configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45
b. The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30
c. The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address
d. There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30

52. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is programming switch SW3 to manage voice and data
traffic through port Fa0/20. What, if anything, is wrong with the configuration?
a. There is nothing wrong with the configuration
b. Interface Fa0/20 can only have one VLAN assigned.
c. The mls qos trust cos command should reference VLAN 35
d. The command used to assign the voice VLAN to the switch port is incorrect

53. Refer to the exhibit. All workstations are configured correctly in VLAN 20. Workstations
that are connected to switch SW1 are not able to send traffic to workstations on SW2.
What could be done to remedy the problem?
a. Allow VLAN 20 on the trunk link
 b. Enable DTP on both ends of the trunk
c. Configure all workstations on SW1 to be part of the default VLAN
d. Configure all workstations on SW2 to be part of the native VLAN

54. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to form an EtherChannel between the two
switches by using the Port Aggregation Protocol. If switch S1 is configured to be in
auto mode, which mode should be configured on S2 to form the EtherChannel?
a. auto
b. on
c. off
d. desirable

55. Refer to the exhibit. An EtherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2, but
the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?
a. The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch
b. The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode
c. The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN
assigned
d. The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on each
interface
56. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what can be determined about
the EtherChannel bundle?
a. The EtherChannel bundle is down
b. Two Gigabit Ethernet ports are used to form the EtherChannel
c. A Cisco proprietary protocol was used to negotiate the EtherChannel link
d. The EtherChannel bundle is operating at both Layer 2 and Layer 3

57. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are displayed?
a. 1
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
e. 55
58. Refer to the exhibit. In what switch mode should port G0/1 be assigned if Cisco best
practices are being used?
a. access
b. trunk
c. native
d. auto

59. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to communicate with server 1. The network
administrator issues the show interfaces trunk command to begin troubleshooting.
What conclusion can be made based on the output of this command?
a. Interface G0/2 is not configured as a trunk
b. VLAN 20 has not been created
c. The encapsulation on interface G0/1 is incorrect
d. The DTP mode is incorrectly set to dynamic auto on interface G0/1
60. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator tried to create an EtherChannel between S1 and
the other two switches via the commands that are shown but was unsuccessful. What is
the problem?
a. Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same EtherChannel link
b. Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different devices like an
EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch
c. Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on
Gigabit Ethernet interfaces
d. Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on
Layer 3 switches

61. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH
connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator
change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?
a. Use SSH version 1
b. Reconfigure the RSA key
c. Configure SSH on a different line
d. Modify the transport input command
62. Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this
RSTP-enabled network?
a. alternate, designated, root, root
b. designated, alternate, root, root
c. alternate, root, designated, root
d. designated, root, alternate, root

63. Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the error that is displayed in the configuration
of inter-VLAN routing on router CiscoVille?
a. The gig0/0 interface does not support inter-VLAN routing
b. The no shutdown command has not been configured
c. The IP address on CiscoVille is incorrect
d. The encapsulation dot1Q 20 command has not been configured
64. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be the root bridge after the election process is
complete?
a. S1
b. S2
c. S3
d. S4

65. Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow each access layer switch
link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and the
Layer 3 switch?
a. trunking
b. HSRP
c. PortFast
d. EtherChannel
66. Under which occasion should an administrator disable DTP while managing a local area
network?
a. when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic auto
b. when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic desirable
c. on links that should not be trunking
d. on links that should dynamically attempt trunking

67. What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?
a. MAC address
b. VLAN ID
c. IP address
d. port ID

68. What are two load-balancing methods in the EtherChannel technology?

a. combination of source port and IP to destination port and IP
b. source IP to destination IP and source MAC to destination MAC
c. source port to destination port
d. combination of source MAC and IP to destination MAC and IP

69. What does a switch use to locate and load the IOS image?
a. BOOT environment variable
b. IOS image file
c. POST
d. startup-config
e. NVRAM

70. What happens to switch ports after the VLAN to which they are assigned is deleted?
a. The ports are disabled.
b. The ports are placed in trunk mode.
c. The ports are assigned to VLAN1, the default VLAN.
 d. The ports stop communicating with the attached devices.

71. What information is added to the switch table from incoming frames?
a. source MAC address and incoming port number
b. destination MAC address and incoming port number
c. source IP address and incoming port number
d. destination IP address and incoming port number

72. What is a characteristic of an IPv4 loopback interface on a Cisco IOS router?

a. The no shutdown command is required to place this interface in an UP state.
b. It is a logical interface internal to the router.
c. Only one loopback interface can be enabled on a router.
d. It is assigned to a physical port and can be connected to other devices.

73. What is a characteristic of spanning tree?

a. It is enabled by default on Cisco switches.
b. It is used to discover information about an adjacent Cisco device.
c. It has a TTL mechanism that works at Layer 2.
d. It prevents propagation of Layer 2 broadcast frames.

74. What is a requirement to configure a trunking EtherChannel between two switches?

a. The allowed range of VLANs must be the same on both switches.
b. The participating interfaces must be assigned the same VLAN number on both
switches.
c. The participating interfaces must be physically contiguous on a switch.
d. The participating interfaces must be on the same module on a switch.

75. What is the advantage of EtherChannel?

a. Spanning Tree Protocol views the physical links in an EtherChannel as one logical
connection and provides consistency in the configuration of the physical links.
b. Load balancing occurs between links configured as different EtherChannels.
c. Spanning Tree Protocol ensures redundancy by transitioning failed interfaces in an
EtherChannel to a forwarding state.
d. EtherChannel uses upgraded physical links to provide increased bandwidth.

76. What is the advantage of using LACP?

a. It allows directly connected switches to negotiate an EtherChannel link and the use of
multivendor devices.
b. It eliminates the need for configuring trunk interfaces when deploying VLANs on
multiple switches.
 c. It decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch.
d. It provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation.
e. LACP allows Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet interfaces to be mixed within a single
EtherChannel.

77. What is the drawback to turning spanning tree off and having multiple paths through
the Layer 2 switch network?
a. The switch acts like a hub.
b. Port security becomes unstable.
c. Broadcast frames are transmitted indefinitely.
d. Port security shuts down all of the ports that have attached devices.

78. What is the first action in the boot sequence when a switch is powered on?
a. load the default Cisco IOS software
b. load boot loader software
c. low-level CPU initialization
d. load a power-on self-test program

79. What is the function of STP in a scalable network?

a. It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.
b. It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.
c. It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased
bandwidth.
d. It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.

80. What is the minimum Ethernet frame size that will not be discarded by the receiver as a
runt frame?
a. 64 bytes
b. 512 bytes
c. 1024 bytes
d. 1500 bytes

81. What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?

a. Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
b. New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.
c. CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
d. ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.

82. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

a. creates smaller collision domains
 b. prevents routing loops on a router
c. prevents Layer 2 loops
d. allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates
e. creates smaller broadcast domains

83. What is the requirement to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two

switches?
a. All the interfaces need to work at the same speed and the same duplex mode.
b. All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs.
c. Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.
d. The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch.

84. What is the significant difference between a hub and a Layer 2 LAN switch?
a. A hub extends a collision domain, and a switch divides collision domains.
b. A hub divides collision domains, and a switch divides broadcast domains.
c. Each port of a hub is a collision domain, and each port of a switch is a broadcast
domain.
d. A hub forwards frames, and a switch forwards only packets.

85. What is the value used to determine which port on a non-root bridge will become a root
port in a STP network?
a. the path cost
b. the highest MAC address of all the ports in the switch
c. the lowest MAC address of all the ports in the switch
d. the VTP revision number

86. What must an administrator have to reset a lost password on a router?

a. a TFTP server
b. a crossover cable
c. access to another router
d. physical access to the router

87. What type of VLAN is configured specifically for network traffic such as SSH, Telnet,
HTTPS, HTTP, and SNMP?
a. management VLAN
b. security VLAN
c. trunk VLAN
d. voice VLAN
88. What type of VLAN is configured specifically for network traffic such as SSH, Telnet,
HTTPS, HHTP, and SNMP?
a. voice VLAN
b. management VLAN
c. native VLAN
d. security VLAN

89. What type of VLAN is designed to have a delay of less than 150 ms across the network?
a. voice VLAN
b. desirable VLAN
c. trunk VLAN
d. security VLAN

90. What type of VLAN is designed to reserve bandwidth to ensure IP Phone quality?
a. voice VLAN
b. trunk VLAN
c. security VLAN
d. management VLAN

91. What type of VLAN is initially the management VLAN?

a. default VLAN
b. native VLAN
c. data VLAN
d. management VLAN

92. What type of VLAN is used to separate the network into groups of users or devices?
a. data VLAN
b. management VLAN
c. voice VLAN
d. native VLAN

93. What type of VLAN should not carry voice and network management traffic?
a. data VLAN
b. voice VLAN
c. management VLAN
d. security VLAN

94. What type of VLAN supports untagged traffic?

a. native VLAN
b. voice VLAN
 c. security VLAN
d. management VLAN

95. What type of VLAN supports untagged traffic?

a. native VLAN
b. desirable VLAN
c. trunk VLAN
d. security VLAN

96. When configuring a switch for SSH access, what other command that is associated with
the login local command is required to be entered on the switch?
a. enable secret password
b. password password
c. username username secret secret
d. login block-for seconds attempts number within*seconds*

97. When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface into a port
channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets?
a. active
b. auto
c. on
d. desirable

98. When routing many VLANs, what are two disadvantages of using the router-on-a-stick
inter-VLAN routing method rather than the multilayer switch inter-VLAN routing
method?
a. Multiple SVIs are needed.
b. A dedicated router is required.
c. Router-on-a-stick requires subinterfaces to be configured on the same subnets.
d. Router-on-a-stick requires multiple physical interfaces on a router.

99. When the show spanning-tree vlan 33 command is issued on a switch, three ports are
shown in the forwarding state. In which port roles could these interfaces function while
in the forwarding state?
a. alternate
b. designated
c. disabled
d. blocked
100. Which channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using
PAgP?
a. On and auto
b. Desirable and auto
c. Active and On
d. Passive and desirable

101. Which characteristic describes cut-through switching?

a. Error-free fragments are forwarded, so switching occurs with lower latency.
b. Frames are forwarded without any error checking.
c. Only outgoing frames are checked for errors.
d. Buffering is used to support different Ethernet speeds.

102. Which characteristics describe the native VLAN?

a. Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as
the default VLAN.
b. The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.
c. This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.
d. High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

103. Which command displays information about the auto-MDIX setting for a specific
interface?
a. show interfaces
b. show controllers
c. show processes
d. show running-config

104. Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the
access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?
a. show vlan brief
b. show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport
c. show mac address-table interface Fa0/1
d. show interfaces trunk

105. Which command is used to set the BOOT environment variable that defines
where to find the IOS image file on a switch?
a. config-register
b. boot system
c. boot loader
d. confreg
106. Which components are combined to form a bridge ID?
a. extended system ID , bridge priority, and MAC address
b. cost and MAC address
c. IP address and system ID
d. port ID and IP address

107. Which concept relate to a switch port that is intended to have only end devices
attached and intended never to be used to connect to another switch?
a. bridge ID
b. extended system ID
c. PortFast
d. PVST+

108. Which impact does adding a Layer 2 switch have on a network?

a. an increase in the number of dropped frames
b. an increase in the size of the broadcast domain
c. an increase in the number of network collisions
d. an increase in the size of the collision domain

109. Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link
between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?
a. SW1: on SW2: on
b. SW1: desirable SW2: desirable
c. SW1: auto SW2: auto trunking enabled on both switches
d. SW1: auto SW2: auto PortFast enabled on both switches
e. SW1: passive SW2: active

110. Which network design feature require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure
correct network operation?
a. static default routes
b. implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
c. redundant links between Layer 2 switches
d. link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes

111. Which parameter must match on the ports of two switches to create a PAgP
EtherChannel between the switches?
a. port ID
b. PAgP mode
c. MAC address
d. Speed and VLAN information
112. Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach
the root bridge?
a. designated port
b. disabled port
c. root port
d. non-designated port

113. Which protocol adds security to remote connections?

a. FTP
b. HTTP
c. NetBEUI
d. POP
e. SSH

114. Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs with
the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and provides
support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop guard?
a. STP
b. Rapid PVST+
c. PVST+
d. MST

115. Which solution would help a college alleviate network congestion due to
collisions?
a. a firewall that connects to two Internet providers
b. a high port density switch
c. a router with two Ethernet ports
d. a router with three Ethernet ports

116. Which spanning tree standard supports only one root bridge so that traffic from
all VLANs flows over the same path?
a. PVST+
b. 802.1D
c. MST
d. Rapid PVST

117. Which statement describes a characteristic of EtherChannel?

a. It can combine up to a maximum of 4 physical links.
b. It can bundle mixed types of 100 Mb/s and 1Gb/s Ethernet links.
c. It consists of multiple parallel links between a switch and a router.
d. It is made by combining multiple physical links that are seen as one link between two
switches.
118. Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?
a. EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.
b. PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
c. A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.
d. EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.

119. Which statement is correct about Ethernet switch frame forwarding decisions?
a. Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM
table.
b. Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped.
c. Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch
ports.
d. Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.

120. Which statement is correct with respect to SVI inter-VLAN routing?

a. There is no need for a connection to a router.
b. Virtual interfaces support subinterfaces.
c. SVIs can be bundled into EtherChannels.
d. SVIs eliminate the need for a default gateway in the hosts.

121. Which statement is true regarding the use of PAgP to create EtherChannels?
a. It requires full duplex.
b. It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
c. It requires more physical links than LACP does.
d. It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used for aggregation.
e. It is Cisco proprietary.

122. Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if there is no other port with a
lower cost to the root bridge?
a. designated port
b. root port
c. alternate
d. disabled port

123. Which switch characteristic helps keep traffic local and alleviates network
congestion?
a. high port density
b. fast port speed
c. large frame buffers
d. fast internal switching
124. Which switch component reduces the amount of packet handling time inside the
switch?
a. ASIC
b. dual processors
c. large buffer size
Application-specific integrated circuits
d. store-and-forward RAM

125. Which switching method ensures that the incoming frame is error-free before
forwarding?
a. cut-through
b. FCS
c. fragment free
d. store-and-forward

126. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature?
a. View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
b. Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
c. Save command lines in a log file for future reference.
d. Recall previously entered commands and set the command history buffer size.

127. Which technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches to

automatically bundle physical ports into a single logical link?
a. PAgP
b. LACP
c. Multilink PPP
d. DTP

128. Which type of VLAN is used to designate which traffic is untagged when crossing
a trunk port?
a. data
b. default
c. native
d. management