Final Exam BIOL 1121

1. Manufacturing recombinant DNA molecules involves cutting a gene from its normal location,
inserting it into a circular piece of DNA from a bacterial cell, and then transferring the circle of
DNA to cells of another species. Which of the below describe the circular piece of DNA?
a. restriction enzyme
b. plasmid
c. bacteriophage
d. transposon
2. Which of the following terms correctly describes a compound featuring more than one double
bond?
a. saturated
b. polyunsaturated
c. monounsaturated
d. disaturated
3. Which of the following statement is true
a. the two DNA strands are parallel and complementary
b. the two DNA strands are anti parallel and non-complementary
c. the two DNA strands are anti-parallel and complementary
d. none of these
4. Which of the following is a reduced compound?
a. CO
b. O
c. N2
d. NAD+
e. NADH
5. ______ are chemicals or combinations of chemicals that take up excess hydrogen ions or
hydroxide ions in order to keep the pH constant.
a. acids
b. bases
c. salts
d. buffers
e. carbohydrates
6. Which structure is found in plant cells but not animal cells? Check all that apply.
a. Cell wall
b. Chloroplast
c. Plastid
d. Central vacuole
e. Lysosomes
7. Enzymes catalyse biochemical reactions by
a. lowering the potential energy of the products
b. separating inhibitors from products
c. forming a complex with the products
d. lowering the activation energy of the reaction
e. providing energy to the reaction
8. Which of the following correctly matches an organelle with its function?
a. mitochondrion photosynthesis
b. nucleus cellular respiration
 c. ribosome manufacture of lipids
d. lysosome movement
e. central vacuole storage
9. The lipid bi-layer is
a. hydrophilic
b. hydrophobic
c. hydrophilic and hydrophobic
d. depends on the surrounding medium
10. Complete the following sentences: "__________ connect the extracellular matrix with
microfilaments. __________ connect intermediate filaments from adjacent cells."
a. Cadherins, Integrins
b. Connexins, Cadherins
c. Integrins, Cadherins
d. Integrins, Connexins
e. Connexins, Integrins
11. The process of _______________ cuts introns from the primary transcript and the Õnal
"processed" mRNA is produced.
a. RNA cleaving
b. RNA translocation
c. RNA elongation
d. RNA splicing
12. Complete the following sentences: "Replication forks from the same origin of replication extend
__________. __________ DNA strand is used as template for the leading strand at one fork and
for the lagging strand at the second fork. New DNA is synthesized from 5' to 3' on the
__________."
a. unidirectionally, A diàerent, both the leading and lagging strands
b. bidirectionally, The same, leading strand
c. bidirectionally, The same, lagging strand
d. unidirectionally, A diàerent, leading strand
e. bidirectionally, The same, both the leading and lagging strands
13. When DNA replication starts
a. the phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent nucleotides break
b. the bonds between the nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar break
c. the leading strand produces Okazaki fragments
d. the hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two strand break
14. The released energy obtained by oxidation of glucose is stored as
a. a concentration gradient across a membrane
b. ADP
c. ATP
d. NAD
15. What are epigenetic modifications?
a. the addition of reversible changes to histone proteins and DNA
b. the removal of nucleosomes from the DNA
c. mutation of the DNA sequence
d. the addition of more nucleosomes to the DNA
16. Which of the following regions of RNAs are translated?
a. 5' UTR
b. exons
 c. introns
d. 3' UTR
e. poly-A
17. Complete the following sentence: "Meiosis results in genetic variation between gametes from
the same individual due to genetic recombination in __________ and independent assortment
of homologous chromosomes in __________."
a. prophase I, metaphase II
b. metaphase I, metaphase II
c. prophase I, metaphase I
d. metaphase II, prophase I
e. prophase II, metaphase II
18. A(n)_______ is the movement of a segment of a chromosome from one chromosome to another
nonhomologous chromosome
a. inversion
b. translocation
c. deletion
d. duplication
19. Complete the following sentences: "Primary active transport is dependent on __________.
Secondary active transport is dependent on __________ created by __________.
a. channel proteins, electrochemical gradient, carrier proteins
b. electrochemical gradient, ATP, mitochondria
c. electrochemical gradient, ATP, primary active transport
d. ATP, electrochemical gradient, primary active transport
e. carrier proteins, electrochemical gradient, channel protein
20. G0 is:
a. part of interphase
b. the phase of the cell cycle where DNA replication occurs
c. the phase of the cell cycle where two identical daughter cells are created
d. a special "resting" phase in which cells are in a non cycling state
e. a special phase where the number of chromosomes in a parent cell is reduced by half
such that each daughter cell contains only one member of a pair of homologous
chromosomes
21. The function of tRNA is to
a. provide a site for polypeptide synthesis
b. transport amino acids to the ribosome
c. transcribe DNA
d. transform DNA
22. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. carbohydrates are generally hydrophilic molecules.
b. living things use carbohydrates for structure and for energy storage.
c. carbohydrates are composed principally of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
d. none of the above – they are all true
23. Control of gene expression in eukaryotic cells occurs at which level(s)?
a. only the transcriptional level
b. epigenetic and transcriptional levels
c. epigenetic, transcriptional, and translational levels
d. epigenetic, transcriptional, posttranscriptional, translational, and posttranslational
levels
24. Which of the following proteins appear in some stages of the cell cycle and are degraded at
other stages?
a. kinases
b. cyclins
c. nucleotides
d. phosphatases
e. none of the above
25. Cellular organelles containing hydrolytic enzymes are called:
a. peroxisomes
b. lysosomes
c. ribosomes
d. mesosomes
26. The energy-requiring process by which small molecules are joined to form larger molecules is
speciÕcally called
a. metabolism
b. anabolism
c. catabolism
d. enzymatic reactions
27. Which of the following enzymes has proofreading activity?
a. Ligase
b. Helicase
c. Topoisomerase
d. DNA polymerase
e. Peptidyl transferase
28. What is the sequence corresponding to the following electropherogram obtained by Sanger
sequencing (green: A; red:T; black: G; blue: C)?
a. CCGTTATGAAC
b. GGCTTATGAAG
c. CAACTATTGCC
d. GGCAATAGTTG
e. CCGTTATCAAC
29. Which enzyme is incorrectly matched to its function?
a. RNA polymerase -- transcription
b. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase -- attaches an amino acid to a tRNA
c. peptidyltransferase -- translation
d. DNA ligase -- joins Okazaki fragments
e. All of the above are paired correctly
30. Transcription is initiated when RNA polymerase binds to
a. a promoter
b. an initiator
c. a transciptor
d. a codon
31. What term is used to describe the process by which a segment of DNA is copied to produce a
molecule of messenger RNA?
a. reproduction
b. replication
c. translation
d. transcription
32. If the appropriate Õnal electron acceptor is not present, the pyruvate that was formed at the end
of glycolysis is reduced. Why?
a. to form additional NADH
b. to regenerate NAD+
c. to allow the now-reduced compound to enter the Krebs cycle
d. to regenerate glucose
33. At which pH will the concentration of hydrogen ions be equal to the concentration of hydroxide
ions?
a. pH 1
b. pH 5
c. pH 7
d. pH 9
e. pH 14
34. The methods of membrane transport that don't require protein channels or carriers are
a. osmosis
b. diàusion
c. phagocytosis
d. exocytosis
e. all of the above
35. Complete the following chemical equation to make it balanced: glycerol + ___ → triacylglycerol +
___
a. 3 fatty acid, 3 H2O
b. fatty acid, H O
c. 3 OH , 3 H
d. 3 H O, 3 fatty acid
e. fatty acid, 3 H O
36. Many of the extracellular signal molecules that regulate inÖammation are released locally at the
site of infection. What form of cell-to-cell signalling is being used?
a. endocrine
b. paracrine
c. neuronal
d. contact-dependent
37. The coding region of a gene is 102 nucleotides long, including both start and stop codons. Which of
the following would be the most likely effect of a single nucleotide deletion at position 76 in the coding
region?
a. There would be no effect on the polypeptide.
b. Only the active site would be affected.
c. The entire amino acid sequence of the polypeptide would change.
d. There would be changes in only the first 25 amino acids.
e. There would be changes in only the last 8 amino acids.
38. Which of the following can be described as a sequence that can be several thousand base pairs
upstream or downstream of a eukaryotic promoter and which increases gene expression as much as
200-fold.’?
a. CAAT box
b. enhancer
c. insulator
d. TATA box
39. Eukaryotic mRNA transcripts are protected from modiÕcation by
a. 5' caps
b. 5' poly-A caps
c. 3' caps
d. 5'-3' poly tails
40. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments according to their:
a. base sequence
b. size
c. percentage of labelled nucleotides
d. electrical charge