TARGET : PRE - MEDICAL : 2024

CLASS : NURTURE (XI) (PHASE – I&II)

INTERNAL TEST - 01 DATE : 29 - 06 - 2022

SYLLABUS
Physics : Basic Mathematics used in Physics & Vectors (upto Geometry)

Chemistry : Atomic Structure (upto de-Broglie concept)

Botany : Living World

Zoology : Animal Kingdom (upto Phylum Platyhelminthes)

 CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2022- 2023)

TARGET : PRE - MEDICAL : 2024

CLASS : NURTURE (XI) (PHASE – I&II)
TEST TYPE: MINOR TEST DATE : 29.06.2022 TEST PATTERN: NEET
Time : 3 Hours 20 minutes INTERNAL TEST - 01 Maximum Marks : 720

HINTS & SOLUTION

SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) dy
3. If y x 5 3x 2 1, then find .
� This section contains 35 questions. dx
� For each question, darken the bubble
(1) 5x 4 6x (2) x 5 6x
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
� For each question, marks will be awarded in one (3) 5x 4 6x (4) 6x 5 2
of the following categories : Ans. 1
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble Sol. Conceptual
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
1 1 1 1
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is 4. Sum of the series 1 ..... up to
2 4 8 16
darkened.
terms is
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
5
2 2 2 (1) (2)
1. Find S 2 ...... 2
3 9 27
7
3 (3) 2 (4)
(1) 3 (2) 4
2
Ans. 3
3 Sol. Sum of infinite series of
(3) (4) 2
4
a
Ans. 2 G.P where r < 1
1 r
1 1 1
Sol. S 2 1 .......
sum
1
2
3 9 27
1
1
2
1 3 3 5. As increases from 0° to 90°, the value of cos .
2 2
1 4 2 (1) Increases
1
3 (2) Decreases
2. What is the approximate value of (1.001)3 ? (3) First decreases and then decreases
(1) 1.0003 (2) 1.003 (4) First increases and then decreases
(3) 1.002 (4) 3.001 Ans. 2
Ans. 2 Sol. Conceptual
Sol. (1 + x)n = 1 + nx 6. The value of log2 16 is
(1) 1/8 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 16

(1)
Ans. 2 Ans. 4
Sol. 2x 16 2x 24 x 4 24
Sol. sin106 2sin 53 cos53
7. cos 2° is approximately equal to 25
12. The value of 6° in radian is
(1) 1 (2)
180
(1) (2)
1 30 60
(3) (4)
2 90
Ans. 1 (3) (4)
180 120
Sol. For small angles cos 1
Ans. 1
8. In a quadratic equation ax 2 bx c 0, if Sol. radian 180
2
discriminant is D b 4ac, then roots of the 13. Which angle lies in 3rd quadrant
quadratic equation are :
(1) Real and distinct, if D > 0 7
(1) (2)
3 5
(2) Real and equal, if D = 0
(3) Non real (i.e. imaginary), if D < 0 5 5
(3) (4)
(4) All of the above are correct 6 3
Ans. 4 Ans. 2
Sol. Conceptual Sol. Conceptual
9. Find the maximum value of 3sin 4 cos 14. Equation of straight line passing from point (1, 2)
(1) 5 (2) 25 & (2, 3) is
(1) y = x–l (2) y = 2x + 2
(3) 5 (4) 7
(3) y = x + l (4) y = x–3
Ans. 1 Ans. 3
Sol. Maximum value of expressions
y2 y1
a sin b cos a2 b2 Sol. y y1 x x1
x2 x1
10. Value of sin (225°) is
y 2 3 2
1 1 y x 1
(1) (2) x 1 2 1
2 2
15. Graph of equation 2x 3y 6 0
1 1
(3) (4) y
2 2 y
Ans. 2
Sol. sin 225 sin 180 45 (1) (2) x
x
1
sin 45
2 y y
11. The value of sin 106° is : x x
12 25 (3) (4)
(1) (2)
25 12

25 24 Ans. 1
(3) (4)
24 25

[2]
 20. For the shown graph the magnitude of slope of
Sol. 3y 2x 6
graph from point A to point B :
2x 2
y 2 m ,c 2 y
3 3
16. The slope of the graph as shown in figure at points C
1, 2 and 3 is m1, m2 and m3 respectively, then B
A
y

x
3
2
1 (1) Continuously decreases
(2) Continuously increases
x (3) First increases then decreases
(4) First decreases then increases
(1) m1 > m2 > m3 (2) m1 < m2 < m3 Ans. 4
(3) m1 = m2 = m3 (4) m1 = m2 > m3
Sol. tan first decreases from A to C then increases
Ans. 2
from C to B
Sol. Slope of tangent at 3 > slope of tangent at 2 >
slope at tangent at 1 dy
21. If y cos 2t , then find ,
17. Equation of straight line having slope 2 and having dt
intercept 3 on y axis is
sin 2t
(1) y 2x (2) y 2x 3 (1) sin 2t (2)
2
(3) y 2x 3 (4) y 2x (3) 2sin 2t (4) 2cos 2t
Ans. 2 Ans. 3
Sol. y mx c y 2x 3 d
Sol. cos 2t 2sin 2t
18. If sin 2
sin 2
sin 2
2, then dt
1 2 3

cos 2
cos 2
cos 2
is equal to 1 dy
1 2 3 22. If y , find
(1) 0 (2) 1
x dx
(3) 2 (4) 3 1 1
(1) (2)
Ans. 2 x2 x
Sol. 1 cos 2 1 1 cos 2 2 1 cos 2 3 2 1 1
(3) (4)
x x2
cos 2 1 cos2 2 cos2 3 1
Ans. 4
19. The approximate value of 0.99 will be (Use
1
binomial approximation) dy d x 1
Sol.
(1) 9.95 (2) 0.099 dx dx x2
(3) 9.98 (4) 0.995
23. 6e x dx is
Ans. 4
1
1 (1) 6e x c (2) e x c
Sol. 1 0.01 2 1 0.01 0.995
2 ex
(3) c (4) e 6x c
6

[3]
Ans. 1 27. Find the slope of the curve y x 3 2x 2 x 1 at
x=1
Sol. 6e x dx 6 e x dx 6e x c
(1) 0 (2) 1
dy (3) 1/2 (4) 2
24. y x 4 2sin 30 3cos 45 , then will be
Ans. 1
dx

4x 5 dy 2
(1) Sol. 31 4x1 1
5 dx

(2) 3x 2 2cos30 3sin 45 dy 2

31 4 1 1 0 at x 1
dx
(3) 4x 3 2cos 30 3sin 45
28. The derivative of cos3 x is
(4) 4x 3
Ans. 4 (1) sin 3 x (2) sin 2 x cos x

d 4 (3) 3sin x cos 2 x (4) sin 2 x cos x

Sol. x 2cos30 3sin 45
dx Ans. 3

4x 3 0 0 y cos3 x
dy
3sin x.cos 2 x
Sol.
1
dx
25. x xdx equal to 29. The equation of a curve is given as
0
y x2 2 3x . The curve intersect the x-axis at
(1) 1 (2) 2/5
(1) (1, 0) (2) (2, 0)
(3) 3/5 (4) 4/5
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) No where
Ans. 2
Ans. 3
1 3 5 1

x dx2
2 2
x
2 Sol. y x2 2 3x x 2 3x 2 0
Sol.
0
5 0
5
x2 2x x 2 0 x x 2 1 x 2 0
1 x 2 x 1 0 x 1, 2
26. The minimum value of the function y x for
x
x 0 is 30. sin 4x dx is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 4cos 4x c (2) 4sin 4x c
(3) 4 (4) 8
Ans. 2 cos 4x tan 4x
(3) c (4) c
4 4
dy 1
Sol. 1 2 0 x 1 Ans. 3
dx x
for x 0, x 1 cos 4x
Sol. sin 4x dx c
4
d2 y 2
ve, minimum value 31. If f x sin 3 x cos 2x , then the value of
dx 2 x3

1 f is
Hence y 1 2 2
1
(1) 0 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) –2
Ans. 2

[4]
 dy
Sol. f sin 3 cos 35. If y x 2 ln x find
2 2 dx

13 1 2 x
(1) ln x (2) 2 ln x
2
dy
32. If y sin 2x e2 x x 3 , then will be 1
dx (3) 2x (4) x 2x ln x
x
(1) sin 2x 2e 2x 3x Ans. 4
2x
(2) cos 2x 2e 3x dy d 2 d
Sol. ln x x x2 ln x
dx dx dx
(3) 2cos 2x 2e 2x 3x 2
2x ln x x
(4) cos 2x e 2x 3x 2
Ans. 3 SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
� This section contains 15 questions.
Sol. y sin 2x e2 x x3
� Attempt any 10 questions.
dy � For each question, darken the bubble
2cos 2x 2e2x 3x 2 corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
dx
� For each question, marks will be awarded in one
33. The height in meters of an object varies with time
of the following categories :
't' in seconds as h 10t 5t 2 . Then maximum
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
height attained by the object is
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
(1) 2 m (2) 10 m
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
(3) 5 m (4) 8 m
darkened.
Ans. 3 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
dh
Sol. 10 10.t 0 t 1sec
dt d2y
36. If y cos x, then will be
h max 10. 1 51
2
5m dx 2
(1) – sin x (2) cos x
5 (3) – cos x (4) sin x
34. dx is
x Ans. 3
5
(1) 5 ln x c (2) c d cos x d2y
x2 Sol. sin x cos x
dx dx 2
ln x 37. An edge of variable cube is increasing at the rate
(3) c (4) 5x 2 c
5 of 3 cm/s . How fast is the volume of cube
increasing when the edge is 10 cm long ?
Ans. 1
(1) 100 cm3/s (2) 300 cm3/s
adx (3) 600 cm3/s (4) 900 cm3/s
Sol. a�nx c
x Ans. 4
dv dx
Sol. 3x 2 900 cm3 /s
dt dt

[5]
38. Find area of the region between the curve y 3x 2 41. x sin x 2 .dx is equal to
and the x – axis on the interval [0, 3].
(1) 9 (2) 27 sin x 2 cos x 2
(1) C (2) C
(3) 81 (4) 3 2 2
Ans. 2 tan x 2 C
(3) (4) sin x C
3
3x 2 dx 27 Ans. 2
Sol. Area
0
2 dt dt
39. Determine the average value of y = 2x + 3 in the Sol. Let x t 2x dx
dx 2x
interval 0 x 1.
dt
x sin x 2 .dx x sin t.
y.dx 2x
where yavg
dx cos t cos x 2
C C
2 2
(1) 1 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 4 42. y 5x 2 2x 1, the value of y will be minimum
Ans. 4 at:

1
1 2
(1) x (2) x
y.dx 1
5 5
0
yavg 2x 3 .dx
Sol. 1 2 4
dx 0 (3) x (4) x
5 5
0
Ans. 1
1
x2 Sol. y 5x 2 2x 1
2 3x 4
2 0
dy dy 1
10x 2; 0 10x 2 x
dx dx dx 5
40. is equal to: d2 y 1
x 3/2 10 0 at x ; y is minimum
dx 2 5
3 2
(1) C (2) C 1 sin x
2 x 3 x 43. dx equal to
cos 2 x
2 (1) sin x cos x c (2) tan x cos x c
(3) C (4) 2 x C
x (3) tan x sec x c (4) sin x tan x c
Ans. 3 Ans. 3
3 1
3 1 1 sin x
2
x 2 x 2
Sol. dx
x dx C C cos 2 x
Sol. 3 1
1
2 2
sec2 x tan x.sec x dx
2 tan x sec x c
C
x 44. Find positive value of 'a' if distance between the
point (-9cm,acm) and (3cm,3cm) is 13 cm
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 8
Ans. 4
[6]
 4 3
Sol. d x2 x1
2
y2 y1
2 Sol. Volume of the spherical bubble V R
3
2 2
Differentiating both sides w.r.t. time
13 3 9 3 a a 2,8
dV d 4 3 4 dR dR
R ,3R 2 . 4 R2
a b dt dt 3 3 dt dt
45. If ln x a & ln y b then ?
a b
dV 2 1
at R 1cm, 4 1 2 cm3 / sec
ln x y ln x y dt 2
(1) ln x y (2) ln x y
dR 1
[Give cm / sec ]
dt 2
x ln xy
ln
y dy
(3) (4) ln x 48. If x a cos t, y bsin t then equals:
ln xy y dx

Ans. 4 b b
(1) cot t (2) cot t
a a
Sol. Use ln x ln y ln xy &
a a
(3) tan t (4) tan t
ln x ln y ln x / y b b
a b ln xy Ans. 2
a b ln x / y dx dy
Sol. a sin t bcos t
dt dt
d ln esin x
46. ? dy b
dx cot t
dx a
(1) cos x (2) sin x
49. A circular arc of length cm as shown in figure.
(3) –sin x (4) – cos x Angle subtended by it at the centre in degree is:
Ans. 1

d ln e
sin x
sin x 6cm
de d sin x
Sol.
d esin x d sin x dx
cm

1
sin x
esin x cos x cos x 6cm
e
47. The radius of a spherical air bubble is increasing (1) 30° (2) 60°
1 (3) 45° (4) 90°
at the rate of cm/ sec . Determine the rate of
2 Ans. 1
increase in its volume when the radius is 1 cm. (In
cm3/sec) arc length
Sol. rad. 30
radius 6
(1) (2) 50. The co-ordinates of a point are changing with time
2
t as x a sin 2t , y b cos 2t . Here a and b
(3) 2 (4) 2
are constants. The path of this point is:
Ans. 3
(1) Straight line (2) Circle
(3) Ellipse (4) Parabola
Ans. 3

[7]
 53. Which of the following statement about the electron
x y is incorrect?
Sol. sin 2t; cos 2t
a b (1) It is a negatively charged particle
2 2 (2) The mass of electron is equal to the mass of
x y neutron
sin 2 2t cos 2 2t
a b (3) It is a basic constituent of all atoms.
x2 y2 (4) It is a constituent of cathode rays.
1 Ellipse
a2 b2 Ans. 2
Sol. Fact
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) 54. Which of the following properties of atom could
� This section contains 35 questions. be explained correctly by Thomson Model of atom?
� For each question, darken the bubble (1) Overall neutrality of atom
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. (2) Spectra of hydrogen atom
� For each question, marks will be awarded in one (3) Position of electrons, protons and neutrons
of the following categories : in atom
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble (4) Stability of atom
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Ans. 1
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
Sol. Fact
darkened.
55. Two atoms are said to be isobars if
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(1) they have same atomic number but different
51. Which of the following conclusions could not be
mass number.
derived from Rutherford’s particle scattering
experiement? (2) they have same number of electrons but
different number of neutrons.
(1) Most of the space in the atom is empty.
(3) they have same number neutrons but
(2) The radius of the atom is about 10–10m while
different number of electrons
that of nucleus is 10–15m.
(4) sum of the number of protons and neutrons
(3) Electrons move in a circular path of fixed
is same but the number of protons is
energy called orbits
different.
(4) Electrons and the nucleus are held together
Ans. 4
by eletrostatic forces of attraction
Sol. Definition
Ans. 3
56. Chlorine exists in two isotopic forms, Cl-37 and
Sol. Fact
Cl-35 but its atomic mass is 35.5. This indicates
52. Which of the following statement is not correct the ratio of Cl-37 and Cl-35 is approximately
about the characteristics of cathode rays?
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1
(1) They start from the cathode and move
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
towards the anode
Ans. 3
(2) They travel in straight line in the absence of
an external electrical or magnetic field x 35 100 x 37
(3) Characteristics of cathode rays do not depend Sol. 35.5
100
upon the material of electrodes in cathode
ray tube 57. Which of the following statement is / are incorrect?
(4) Characteristics of cathode rays depend upon (1) Lyman series of hydrogen atom lies in the
the nature of gas present in the cathode ray UV region of electromagnetic radiation
tube (2) Balmer series of hydrogen atom lies in the
Ans. 4 visible region of electromagnetic radiation
Sol. Fact (3) Paschen series of hydrogen atom lies in the
visible region of electromagnetic radiation
(4) All of the above
[8]
Ans. 3 62. The energy of a photon of light is _________
Sol. Fact proportional to its frequency and _________
proportional to its wavelength.
58. Which of the following pairs have identical values
of e/m? (1) directly, directly (2) inversely, inversely
(1) A proton and a neutron (3) inversely, directly (4) directly, inversely
(2) A proton and deuterium Ans. 4
(3) Deuterium and an particles Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 49, Q.No. 2
(4) An electron and rays Fact
63. What would be the radius of 2nd excited state in
Ans. 3
Li+2 ion ?
Sol. e/m of deuterium = 1/2
(1) 0.529 Å (2) 1.58 Å
e/m of particle = 2/4 = 1/2
(3) 0.2645 Å (4) 0.5299 Å
59. Particle A moving with a certain velocity has the
Ans. 2
debroglie wavelength of 1A0. For particle B with
mass 25% of A and velocity 75% of A. Calculate Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 55, Q.No. 6
the de Broglie wavelength
32
(1) 3A0 (2) 5.33A0 r 0.529 1.58A 0
3
(3) 6.88A0 (4) 0.48A0
64. 2nd separation energy of an electron in H atom
Ans. 2
(1) 27.2 eV (2) 1.51 eV
h (3) 3.4 eV (4) 13.6 eV
Sol. A
m A VA Ans. 2
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 45, Q.No. 7
h
B
0.25 m A 0.75 VA 2nd S.E Energy of 3rd orbit 1.51eV

1 65. In which of the following transition, wavelength

B
will be minimum
A 0.25 0.75
(1) n = 6 to n = 4 (2) n = 4 to n = 2
16 (3) n = 3 to n = 1 (4) n = 2 to n =1
B 1 5.33A 0 Ans. 3
3
60. The energy of electron is maximum at Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 60, Q.No. 2
(1) Nucleus 1
E
(2) Ground state
(3) First excited state
E3 E1 12.09eV Highest
(4) Infinite distance from the nucleus
Ans. 4 66. When the electron of a hydrogen atom jumps from
n = 4 to n = 1 state, the number of spectral lines
Sol. Fact
emitted is
27
61. The radius of nucleus of 13 Al will be (1) 15 (2) 6
15 15 (3) 3 (4) 4
(1) 1.2 10 m (2) 2.7 10 m
Ans. 2
(3) 10.8 10 15 m (4) 4 10 15 m Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 60, Q.No. 4
Ans. 4
4 4 1
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 45, Q.No. 4 Number 6
2
R R 0 A1/3

[9]
67. If the kinetic energy of an electron is increased 4 Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 75, Q.No. 13
times, the wavelength of the de-Broglie wave
associated with it would become :- O16
(1) Four times (2) Two times Mass before = 16amu
(3) Half times (4) One fourth times 3
New Mass 8 2 8
Ans. 3 4
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 64, Q.No. 3
16 6 22
1
0.5 times 22 16 6
K.E increase 100 37.5%
16 16
68. Select iso electronic set 71. Naturally occurring boron has two isotopes whose
(a) Na , H 2 O, NH 4 atomic weights are 10.00 (I) and 11.00 (II). Atomic
weight of natural boron is 10.80. The percentage
(b) CO 3 2 , NO3 , HCO3 of isotopes (I) and (II) respectively is :-
(1) 20 and 80 (2) 10 and 20
(c) P 3 , HCl, C2 H 6 , PH 3 (3) 15 and 75 (4) 30 and 70
(d) N 3 , O 2 , F Ans. 1
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 75, Q.No. 14
(1) a, b, d (2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c x 10 100 x 11
10.8
Ans. 4 100
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 75, Q.No. 2
1080 10x 1100 11x
Fact
x 20
69. If the table of atomic masses were established with
the oxygen atom and assigned value of 200, then 100 x 80
the mass of carbon atom would be, approximately:- 72. The ionisation potential of a singly ionised helium
(1) 24 (2) 150 ion is equivalent to :-
(3) 50 (4) 112 (1) Kinetic Energy of first orbit
Ans. 2 (2) Energy of last orbit
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 75, Q.No. 3 (3) Average energy in orbits
16 200 (4) Maximum energy in orbits
x 150 Ans. 1
12 x
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 76, Q.No. 28
70. Let mass of electron is half, mass of proton is two
times and mass of neutron is three fourth of orignal. I.E = K.E of first orbit
The find out new atomic wt. of O16 atom 73. The ratio of minimum frequency of Lyman &
(1) Increases by 37.5% Balmer series will be
(2) Remain constant (1) 1.25 (2) 0.25
(3) Increases by 12.5% (3) 5.4 (4) 10
(4) Decreases by 25% Ans. 3
Ans. 1

[ 10 ]
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 77, Q.No. 41 76. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to
Minimum frequency means first lines light of wavelength 45 nm : (Planck's constant
h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js; speed of light c = 3 × 108
1 ms–1)
u
(1) 6.67 1015 J (2) 6.67 1011 J
1 1 3 (3) 4.42 10 15 J (4) 4.42 10 18 J
u Lyman 12 22 4 Ans. 4
u Balmer 1 1 1 1
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 83, Q.No. 16
22 32 4 9
2 10 25 2 16 18
3
E 10 4.42 10 J
45 10 9 45
4 27
5.4 77. In hydrogen atom, the de Broglie wavelength of
5 5 an electron in the second Bohr orbit is :-
36 [Given that Bohr radius, a0 = 52.9 pm]
74. No. of wave in fourth orbit :. (1) 211.6 pm (2) 211.6 pm
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 52.9 pm (4) 105.8 pm
(3) 0 (4) 1 Ans. 2
Ans. 1 Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 84, Q.No. 29
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 79, Q.No. 61 2 r n
Fact
n2
18 Z2 2 0.529 n
75. Based on equation E 2.178 10 J 1
n2
certain conclusions are written. Which of them is 4 52.9 Pm
not correct ?
211.6 Pm
(1) For n = 1, the electron has a more negative
energy than it does for n = 6 which means 78. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi,
that the electron is more loosely bound in broadcasts on frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
the smallest allowed orbit. The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
(2) The negative sign in equation simply means emitted by the transmitter is
that the energy of electron bound to the [speed of light c 3.0 108 ms 1 ]
nucleus is lower than it would be if the
electrons were at the infinite distance from (1) 219.3 m (2) 219.2 m
the nucleus (3) 2192 m (4) 21.92 cm
(3) Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit Ans. 1
radius Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 84, Q.No. 32
(4) Equation can be used to calculate the change
in energy when the electron change orbit c
Ans. 1
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 83, Q.No. 13 3 108 300
more ‘–’ ve energy = high I.E 219.3m
1.368 106 1.368
79. Maximum frequency of emission is obtained for
the transition
(1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 6 to n = 2
(3) n = 1 to n = 2 (4) n = 2 to n = 6

[ 11 ]
Ans. 1 84. Which series have highest energy in hydrogen
spectrum
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 85, Q.No. 2
(1) Balmer (2) Bracket
E, E 2 E1 E 10.2eV for 2 1 (3) Pfund (4) Lyman
80. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen Ans. 4
atom is –328 KJ/mol. Hence the energy of fourth Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 87, Q.No. 34
Bohr orbit should be
Fact
(1) –41 KJ/mol (2) –1312 KJ/mol
85. If the de-Broglie wavelength of the fourth Bohr
(3) –164 KJ/mol (4) –82 KJ/mol orbit of hydrogen atom is 4Å, the circumference
Ans. 4 of the orbit will be :-
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 85, Q.No. 7 (1) 4Å (2) 4 nm
(3) 16 Å (4) 16 nm
1
E Ans. 3
n2
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 87, Q.No. 37
E4 22 1 2 r n
E2 42 4
2 r 4 4 16A 0
1
E4 E2 82 kJ / mol SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
4
� This section contains 15 questions.
81. Energy required to remove an e– from M shell of
H-atom is 1.51 eV, then energy of Ist excited state � Attempt any 10 questions.
will be � For each question, darken the bubble
(1) –1.51 eV (2) +1.51 eV corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
(3) –3.4 eV (4) –13.6 eV � For each question, marks will be awarded in one
of the following categories :
Ans. 3
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 85, Q.No. 8
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
1st excited state = 2nd orbit
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
82. The radius of first Bohr's orbit for hydrogen is 0.53
darkened.
Å. The radius of third Bohr's orbit would be.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(1) 0.79Å (2) 1.59Å
86. In an atom two electrons move around the nucleus
(3) 3.18Å (4) 4.77Å in circular orbits of radii R & 4R. The ratio of the
Ans. 4 time taken by them to complete one revolution is
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 86, Q.No. 23 (1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1
2 (3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 7
3
r 0.529 9 0.529 4.77A 0 Ans. 3
1
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 45, Q.No. 4
83. The charge of an electron is –1.6 × 10–19 C. The
value of free charge on Li+ ion will be z2
Frequency
(1) 3.6 10 19 (2) 1 10 19 n3
C C
(3) 1.6 10 19 C (4) 2.6 10 19 C n3
Time period
Ans. 3 z2
Sol. Allen Module – Pg.No 86, Q.No. 26
n12 R
+1 unit charge 1.602 10 19
C Given, 2
n2 4R

[ 12 ]
 Sol. For Hydrogen,
n1 1
n2 2 E3 E2 1.51 3.4

3 1.89eV
T1 n1 1
T2 n2 8 Z2 1.89 47.2

87. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom corresponds 47.2

Z2 25
to increasing values of energy, i.e., E A EB EC . 1.89
Z=5
If 1 , 2 and 3 are the wavelength of radiations
90. The wavelength of first line of Lyman series is
corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to A and 1216A0. What is the wave length of last line?
C to A respectively, which of the following statement
is correct (1) 3648A0 (2) 608A0
C (3) 912A0 (4) 2432A0
1
B Ans. 3
1 1 1
Sol.
2 3 n1 2 n 22
A
1 2
(1) (2) 3 1 1
3 1 2
1 2
Last
n12 n22 first
2 2 2
(3) 1 2 3 0 (4) 3 1 2 first 1 1
Ans. 2 n12 n 22 Last

Sol. E3 E1 E 2
1 1 3
1 1 1 Last 12 22 4
3 1 2 1216 1 1 1
88. The ratio of the energy of a photon of 2000A0
12 2

wavelength radiation to that of 4000A0 radiation is

3
(1) 1/4 (2) 4 Last 1216
4
(3) 1/2 (4) 2
Ans. 4 304 3

1 912A 0
Sol. E
91. Identify the incorrectly matched set from the
following
E1 2 4000 SET–A SET–B
2
E2 1 2000 (1) Wavelength ( ) Nanometre
89. The excitation energy of an electron from second (2) Frequency ( ) Hertz
orbit to third orbit of an atom with +Ze nuclear
(3) Wave number ( ) metre–1
charge is 47.2 eV. If the energy of H-atom in lowest
energy state is –13.6eV. What will be the value of (4) Velocity (C) ergs
Z? Ans. 4
(1) 4 (2) 5 Sol. Fact
(3) 6 (4) 7
Ans. 2

[ 13 ]
92. When electron jumps from 5th energy level to 1st 97. A 100 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of
energy level, to which series the spectral line wavelength 400nm. Calculate the number of
belongs? photons emitted per second by the bulb
(1) Balmer (2) Lyman (1) 2.012 1020 S 1 (2) 0.012 102 S 1

(3) Paschen (4) Pfund

(3) 2.012 1010 S 1 (4) 0.12 1018 S 1
Ans. 2
Sol. Fact Ans. 1
93. Bohr’s theory is applicable to Sol. 100watt 100 J / s
(1) Li+2 (2) Li+
(3) He + (4) Both (1) and (3)
2 10 25
100 n
Ans. 4 400 10 9
200
Sol. Fact
94. The angular momentum of an electron present in 2 10 5
the orbit of hydrogen is 1.5 h / . The electron is n 2 1020 S 1

10 25
present in
98. What possibly can the ratio be of the de Broglie
(1) Third orbit (2) Second orbit wavelengths for two electrons having the same
(3) Fourth orbit (4) Fifth orbit initial energy and accelerated through 50 volts and
Ans. 1 200 volts?
(1) 3 : 10 (2) 10 : 3
Sol. 1.5h / 3h / 2 ; n 3
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
95. According to Bohr’s theory, whenever the electron
drops from a higher energy level to a lower energy Ans. 4
level, the frequency of radiation emitted is related
to the energy change as
1 1 v2 200 2
Sol.
v 2 v1 50 1
(Where E En2 E n1 )
99. An oil drop has 6.39 10 19 C charge. What will
E mv be the number of electrons in this drop?
(1) (2)
mv E (1) 2 (2) 4
E h (3) 8 (4) 16
(3) (4) Ans. 2
h E
Ans. 3 6.39 10 19
Sol. 4
E 1.6 10 19
Sol. E h
h 100. Among the following which is not isoelectronic with
96. The de Broglie wave length of a riffle bullet of others
mass 2 grams moving with a velocity of 2m/sec is (1) HF (2) H2O
34
(3) NH3 (4) CO
6.6 10 6.6 10 27
(1) m (2) m Ans. 4
2 2 2 10 3 2
Sol. CO 6 8 14e
34 27
6.6 10 6.6 10
(3) m (4) m
2 10 3 2 2 2
Ans. 3
h
Sol. where mass is in kg
mv

[ 14 ]
 SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) 105. The sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring
� This section contains 35 questions. in our body is known as
� For each question, darken the bubble (1) Metabolism (2) Growth
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. (3) Regeneration (4) Reproduction
� For each question, marks will be awarded in one Ans. 1
of the following categories : Sol. NCERT Page No.: 4
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble 106. ICBN stands for
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. (1) International Code of Botanical
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is Nomenclature
darkened. (2) International Congress of Biological Names
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (3) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
101. Growth occurs _______ in plants and _______ (4) Indian Congress of Biological Names
in animals.
Ans. 1
(1) Continuously, only upto a certain age
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 6
(2) Only upto a certain age, continuously
107. Binomial nomenclature means
(3) Continuously, never
(1) One name given by two scientists.
(4) Once, twice
(2) One scientific name consisting of a generic
Ans. 1 and specific epithet.
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 4 (3) Two names, one latinized, other of a person.
102. In majority of higher animals and plants, _____ (4) Two names of same plant
and _____are mutually exclusive events.
Ans. 2
(1) Growth; nutrition
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 6
(2) Nutrition; consciousness
108. In printed scientific names, only the ______ is
(3) Growth; reproduction capitalized.
(4) Reproduction; consciousness (1) Class (2) Species
Ans. 3 (3) Genus (4) Family
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 4 Ans. 3
103. In multicellular organisms, _____ refers to the Sol. NCERT Page No.: 7
production of progeny possessing features more
109. The keys are based on contrasting characters
or less similar to those of parents.
generally in a pair called _______.
(1) Growth (2) Reproduction
(1) Flora (2) Couplet
(3) Metabolism (4) Consciousness
(3) Monograph (4) Manuals
Ans. 2
Ans. 2
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 4
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 13
104. The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of
110. Which of the following taxonomic categories is
mosses, all easily multiply by _____.
being described by the given statements (i-iii)?
(1) Budding (2) Fission
(i) It is the basic unit of classification.
(3) Regeneration (4) Fragmentation
(ii) It is defined as the group of individuals which
Ans. 4 resemble in their morphological and
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 4 reproductive characters and interbreed among
themselves and produce fertile offsprings.
(iii) Human beings belong to the species sapiens
which is grouped in the genus Homo.
(1) Species (2) Genus
(3) Order (4) Family

[ 15 ]
Ans. 1 115. Match column-I (Biological name) with column-II
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 9 (Class) and choose the correct option.
111. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
the various steps of Herbarium formation? Column-I Column-II
(i) Drying (ii) Poisoning (Biological name) (Class)
A Homo sapiens I Dicotyledonae
(iii) Collection (iv) Mounting
B Musca domestica II Mammalia
(v) Deposition
C Mangifera indica III Monocotyledonae
(1) iii, i, ii, iv, v (2) iii, ii, iv, v, i
D Triticum aestivum IV Insects
(3) iii, i, ii, v, iv (4) v, iv, iii, ii, i
Ans. 1 (1) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
Sol. Allen Study package (2) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
112. Which taxonomic aid provides information of one (3) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
taxon? (4) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(1) Manuals (2) Monograph Ans. 3
(3) Catalogue (4) Key Sol. NCERT Page No.: 11
Ans. 2 116. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic
113. Dicotyledons like mango, brinjal and categories.
monocotyledons like Wheat and Rice are placed (1) Species - Genus - Order - Class - Family -
under a taxonomic category known as Phylum/Division - Kingdom
(1) Phylum – Angiospermae (2) Species -Genus -Family -Class - Phylum/
(2) Division – Angiospermae Division - Order -Kingdom
(3) Class – Angiospermae (3) Species- Genus -Family - Order -Class -
(4) Family – Polypetalae Phylum/Division -kingdom
Ans. 2 (4) Species -Genus - Family - Class - Order -
Phylum/Division – Kingdom
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 11
Ans. 3
114. Match the common name given in column I with
their taxonomic category order given in column II Sol. NCERT Page No.: 10
and choose the correct combination from the 117. As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic
options given below. hierarchy, the number of common characteristics
(1) Will decrease
Column-I Column-II (2) Will increase.
(Common (Taxonomic category (3) Remain same
name) – Order) (4) May increase or decrease
A Wheat I Primata Ans. 1
B Mango II Diptera Sol. NCERT Page No.: 10
C Housefly III Sapindales 118. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to
D Man IV Poales (1) Step-wise arrangement of all categories for
classification of plants and animals.
(1) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(2) A group of senior taxonomists who decide
(2) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I the nomenclature of plants and animals.
(3) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (3) A list of botanists or zoologists who have
(4) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I worked on taxonomy of a species or group.
Ans. 2 (4) Classification of a species based on fossil
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 11 record.
Ans. 1

[ 16 ]
 124. One of the first acts in taxonomy is
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 8
(1) Identification (2) Description
119. In angiosperm, characters of flowers are used in
classification because (3) Naming (4) Classification
(1) Flowers are attractive Ans. 1
(2) Flowers are large Sol. Allen Study package
(3) Character of flowers are conserved 125. The order generally ends with
(4) None of the above (1) - ales (2) - aceae
Ans. 3 (3) - eae (4) None of these
Sol. Allen Study package Ans. 1
120. Genus represents Sol. Allen study package
(1) An individual plant or animal 126. Each statement in the key is called _______.
(2) A collection of plants or animals (1) Lead (2) Catalogues
(3) Group of closely related species of plants or (3) Manuals (4) Monographs
animals Ans. 1
(4) Group of individuals who reproduce to Sol. NCERT Page No.: 13
produce sterile progeny only 127. Linnaeus is credited with .....
Ans. 3 (1) Binomial nomenclature
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 9 (2) Theory of biogenesis
121. Compared to genus, which of the following is more (3) Discovery of microscope
common in characters?
(4) Discovery of blood circulation
(1) Family (2) Species
Ans. 1
(3) Division (4) Class
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 6
Ans. 2
128. The generic name of Mango is .. ..
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 9
(1) Mangifera indica
122. For wheat, which of the following combinations is
(2) Indica
correct?
(3) Mangifera
(1) Genus - Triticum, family - Poaceae,
(4) Indica Mangifera
order - Poales, Class - Monocotyledonae
Ans. 3
(2) Genus - Triticum, family - Poaceae,
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 9
order - Poales, Class - Dicotyledonae
129. National Botanical Research Institute located in:
(3) Genus - Triticum, family - Poaceae,
(1) Chennai (2) Lucknow
order - Sapindales, Class - Monocotyledonae
(3) Kolkata (4) Darjeeling
(4) Genus - Triticum, family - Anacardiaceae,
order - Poales, Class - Monocotyledonae Ans. 2
Ans. 1 Sol. NCERT Page No.: 12
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 11 130. The defining characteristic of living beings is
123. Which one of these categories has real existence? (1) They reproduce
(1) Species (2) Genus (2) They grow
(3) Kingdom (4) Phylum (3) They respond to external stimuli
Ans. 1 (4) They regenerate
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 9 Ans. 3
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 5
131. The famous botanical garden ‘Kew’ is located in
(1) England (2) Lucknow
(3) Berlin (4) Australia
[ 17 ]
Ans. 1 137. Which of the following statements regarding
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 12 nomenclature is correct:
132. Growth in living organisms occurs by (1) Generic name always begins with capital
(1) Division of cells letter whereas specific epithet with small
(2) Increase in biomass letter
(3) Accumulation of material by external agency (2) Scientific name should be printed in italics
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Scientific name when handwritten should be
separately underlined
Ans. 4
(4) All the above
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 4
Ans. 4
133. Which of the following taxonomic category of
house fly is incorrectly matched? Sol. NCERT Page No.: 9
(1) Genus – Musca (2) Family – Muscidae 138. Which statement is true?
(3) Order – Primata (4) Class – Insecta (1) Tautonyms are not allowed in plants
Ans. 3 (2) Tautonyms are not allowed in animals
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 11 (3) Tautonyms are normally allowed in animals
and some times allowed in plants
134. The word taxonomy was given by
(4) Tautonyms are allowed only in bacteria
(1) Mendel (2) R. Brown
Ans. 1
(3) Darwin (4) A.P. De Candolle
Sol. Allen study package
Ans. 4
139. In the names Mangifera indica, Solanum
Sol. Allen study package
tuberosum and Panthera leo, the words indica,
135. Number of obligatory categories in taxonomy are tuberosum and leo represent:
(1) 7 (2) 8
(1) Generic name (2) Generic epithet
(3) 9 (4) 10
(3) Family (4) Specific epithet
Ans. 1
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 9 & 10
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 9
140. Which of the following is not used as taxonomic
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40) aid?
� This section contains 15 questions.
(1) Zoological park (2) Soil
� Attempt any 10 questions.
(3) Herbarium (4) Museum
� For each question, darken the bubble
Ans. 2
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
� For each question, marks will be awarded in one Sol. NCERT Page No.: 12 & 13
of the following categories : 141. In Yeast asexual mode of reproduction is
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble (1) Budding (2) Regeneration
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. (3) Syngamy (4) Spores
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is Ans. 1
darkened. Sol. NCERT Page No.: 4
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases 142. Which of the following is/are non defining property
136. Which of the following is standard size of of Living Organisms
Herbarium- (1) Growth (2) Reproduction
(1) 11.5 × 16.5 (2) 10 × 10 (3) Metabolism (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) 15.5 × 16.5 (4) 29.5 × 49.5 Ans. 4
Ans. 1 Sol. NCERT Page No.: 4
Sol. Allen study package

[ 18 ]
143. In Herbarium technique for poisoning which of the 150. A Phylogenetic classification is also known as
following is used? (1) Cladistic Classification
(1) CaCO3 (2) MgCl2 (2) Genera plantarum
(3) HgCl2 (4) H2SO4 (3) Species plantarum
Ans. 3 (4) None of these
Sol. Allen study package: 3 Ans. 1
144. Year of publication of “ Species Plantarum” is Sol. Allen study package
(1) 1853 (2) 1857
(3) 1753 (4) 1960 SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140)
Ans. 3 � This section contains 35 questions.
Sol. Allen study package: 3 � For each question, darken the bubble
145. The places where wild animals are kept in protected corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
environments are called � For each question, marks will be awarded in one
(1) Museum (2) Zoological parks of the following categories :
(3) Botanical garden (4) Biosphere Reserve Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
Ans. 2 corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 13
darkened.
146. Which of the following is a correct name?
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(1) Solanum tuberosum
(2) Solanum Tuberosum
151. Pseudocoelomate among the following is
(3) Solanum tuberosum Linn
(1) Sycon (2) Physalia
(4) All the above
(3) Pila (4) Ascaris
Ans. 3
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 7
Sol. NCERT pg no. 48
147. Term taxon refers to 152. Phylum that exhibit radial symmetry is
(1) Name of species (1) Mollusca (2) Cnidaria
(2) Name of genus (3) Annelida (4) Porifera
(3) Name of family Ans. 2
(4) A taxonomic group of any rank Sol. NCERT pg no. 49
Ans. 4 153. Cells that are characteristic to the phylum porifera
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 8 (1) Chondrocytes (2) Choanocytes
148. Defining characters of all livings is/are (3) Dendrocytes (4) Osteocytes
(1) Metabolism Ans. 2
(2) Consciousness Sol. NCERT pg no. 47
(3) Cellular organization 154. Locomotory structure are hairy cilia in
(4) All the above (1) Paramaecium (2) Plasmodium
Ans. 4 (3) Tryanosoma (4) Amoeba
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 4 & 5 Ans. 1
149. Binomial system of nomenclature was given by
(1) A. P. de Candolle (2) Linnaeus
(3) E. Mayr (4) Whittaker
Ans. 2
Sol. NCERT Page No.: 6

[ 19 ]
155. Blind sac body plan is 163. “Comb Jellies” or “Sea walnuts” belong to the
(1) Single opening that serves as both mouth and phylum
anus (1) Coelenterata (2) Ctenophora
(2) Two openings, one as mouth and other as anus (3) Mollusca (4) Echinodermata
(3) Single opening that acts as mouth only Ans. 2
(4) No opening 164. Digestion in porifera is
Ans. 1 (1) Intracellular
156. Which of the following pair is correctly matched ? (2) Extracellular
(1) Leishmania - kala azar (3) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Giardia - sleeping sickness (4) First extracellular then is trace
(3) Entamoeba - Malaria Ans. 1
(4) Plasmodium - Dysentery 165. Identity the types of animals w.r.t. the presence or
Ans. 1 absence of body cavities :
157. Osculum occurs in
(1) Star fish (2) Taenia solium
(3) Hydra (4) Sycon
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT pg no. 49
158. The skeleton of corals is composed of
A B C
(1) Siliceous spicules (2) Calcium carbonate 1 Coelomate Pseudocoelomate Acoelomate
(3) Potassium sulphate (4) Calcium sulphate 2 Acoelomate Coelomate Pseudocoelomate
3 Acoelomate Pseudocoelomate Coelomate
Ans. 2
4 Pseudococlomate Coelomate Acoelomate
Sol. NCERT pg no. 50
159. In porifera canal system is not connected with Ans. 1
(1) Removal of waste (2) Food gathering Sol. NCERT pg no. 48
(3) Respiration (4) Locomotion 166. Which group of organisms belongs to class
Ans. 4 sporozoa ?
Sol. NCERT pg no. 49 (1) Plasmodium & Babesia
160. Which of the following groups of animals reproduces (2) Entamoeba & Paramoecium
only by sexual means? (3) Euglena & Trypanosoma
(1) Protozoa (2) Porifera (4) Plasmodium & Vorticella
(3) Cnidaria (4) Ctenophora Ans. 1
Ans. 4 167. Nerve cells tissue level organisation first appeared
Sol. NCERT pg no. 51 in:
161. True coelom has evolved for the first time in (1) Coelenterata (2) Ctenophora
(1) Arthropoda (2) Mollusca (3) Chordata (4) Porifera
(3) Annelida (4) Platyhelminthes Ans. 1
Ans. 3 168. Fresh water sponge among these is
Sol. NCERT pg no. 48 (1) Euspongia (2) Cliona
162. Hooks and suckers are seen in (3) Sycon (4) Spongilla
(1) Physalia (2) Ascaris Ans. 4
(3) Planaria (4) Tapeworm Sol. NCERT pg no. 50
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT pg no. 51
[ 20 ]
169. Which one of the following statement is incorrect? (1) (i) – b, (ii) – c, (iii) – d, (iv) – a
(1) Mesoglea is present in between ectoderm (2) (i) – b, (ii) – d, (iii) – c, (iv) – a
and endoderm is an undifferentiated layer (3) (i) – d, (ii) – a, (iii) – b, (iv) – c
(2) Radial symmetry is found in coelenterata (4) (i) – a, (ii) – d, (iii) – c, (iv) – b
(3) Fasciola is a pseudocoelomate animal.
Ans. 3
(4) Taenia is a triploblastic animal
Sol. NCERT pg no. 50
Ans. 3
174. Body cavity is the cavity where mesoderm is present
Sol. NCERT pg no. 47,48 in scattered pouches between ectoderm and
170. Metagenesis can be seen in endoderm. In some animals the body cavity is not
(1) Obelia (2) Hydra lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called
(3) Adamsia (4) Ctenoplana (1) Acoelomate (2) Pseudocoelomate
Ans. 1 (3) Coelomate (4) Haemocoelomate
171. Triploblastic,organ system grade body, coelomate Ans. 2
and segmented body both externally and internally Sol. NCERT pg no. 48
with serial repetition of at some organs 175. Match the following
(1) Annelida (2) Arthropoda
(3) Ctenophora (4) Aschelminthes Column I Column II
Ans. 1 a. Physalia i Brain coral
Sol. NCERT pg no. 48 b. Adamsia ii Sea fan
172. Choose the correct type of symmetry for the animals, c. Pennatula iii Sea pen
A and B. d. Gorgonia iv Sea anemone
Portuguese
e. Meandrina v
man-of-war
f. Aurelia vi Jellyfish

(1) a – v, b – iv, c – ii, d – iii, e – i, f – vi

(2) a – v, b – iv, c – iii, d – ii, e – i, f – vi
(3) a – v, b – iv, c – ii, d – i, e – iii, f – vi
(4) a – v, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii, e – i, f – vi
(1) Bilateral, Asymmetrical, respectively Ans. 2
(2) Bilateral, Radial, respectively Sol. NCERT pg no. 50
(3) Radial, Bilateral, respectively 176. Ctenophores are commonly known as
(4) Radial, Radial, respectively (1) Sea walnut (2) Comb jellies
Ans. 2 (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
Sol. NCERT pg no. 47 Ans. 3
173. Match the following list of animals with their level Sol. NCERT pg no. 51
of organization 177. Identify the characteristics of acoelomates
(1) Absence of mesoderm
Division of Labour Animal
(2) Absence of brain
a. Organ level i Pheretima
b. Cellular level ii Fasciola (3) Coelom that is incompletely lined with a
mesoderm
c. Tissue level iii Spongilla
(4) Solid body without a cavity surrounding
d. Organ system level iv Obelia
internal organs
Choose the correct match showing the division of Ans. 4
labour with animal example Sol. NCERT pg no. 48

[ 21 ]
178. Flame cells are the excretory structures for 184. Identify the given figure A, B and C and select the
(1) Annelida (2) Coelenterates correct option.
(3) Platyhelminthcs (4) Echinodermata
Ans. 3
Sol. NCERT pg no. 51
179. The function of nematoblast in coelenterate is
(1) Locomotion
(2) Offence & defence
(3) Reproduction A B C
(4) Nutrition (1) Sycon Euspongia Spongilla
Ans. 2
(2) Euspongia Spongilla Sycon
Sol. NCERT pg no. 50
180. "Corals" belong to the phylum : (3) Spongilla Sycon Euspongia
(1) Porifera (2) Coelenterata (4) Euspongia Sycon Spongilla
(3) Mollusca (4) Echinodermata
Ans. 2 Ans. 1
Sol. NCERT pg no.50 Sol. NCERT pg no. 49
181. Read the given statements and select the correct 185. In most simple type of canal system of Porifera
option. which of the following ways exhibit water flow?
Statement 1 : All triploblastic animals are (1) Ostia Spongocoel Osculum Exterior
eucoelomates. (2) Spongocoel Ostia Osculum Exterior
Statement 2 : They have a false coelom. (3) Osculum Spongocoel Ostia Exterior
(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct, (4) Osculum Ostia Spongocoel Exterior
(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is Ans. 1
incorrect
Sol. NCERT pg no.49
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is
correct.
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
Ans. 4 � This section contains 15 questions.
Sol. NCERT pg no. 48 � Attempt any 10 questions.
182. Which of the following is correctly matched? � For each question, darken the bubble
(1) Radial symmetry – Coelenterates corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
(2) Coelomates – Aschelminthes � For each question, marks will be awarded in one
(3) Metamerism – Molluscs of the following categories :
(4) Triploblastic – Sponges Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
Ans. 1 corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Sol. NCERT pg no.47 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
darkened.
183. The characteristic which is not common to all animals
is : Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(1) Multicellularity 186. Which of the following have porous body and are
diploblastic?
(2) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(1) Aurelia and Obelia
(3) Presence of nerve cells
(2) Adamsia and Euplectella
(4) Absence of cell wall
(3) Sycon and Spongilla
Ans. 3
(4) Sycon and Hydra
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Ans. 3 190. In which animal nerve cell is present but brain is
Sol. NCERT pg no. 50 absent ?
187. Identify the figures A, B, C and D and select the (1) Sponge (2) Earthworm
correct option. (3) Cockroach (4) Hydra
Ans. 4
191. The statements given below shows some
characteristics of a phylum. Identify it.
(i) Tissue absent
(ii) Internal fertilisation
(iii) Development is indirect
(iv) Spongocoel are with ostia (many) and single
A B C D osculum and canal system
(1) Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast Aurelia Adamsia (v) Sexes are hermaphrodite
(2) Aurelia Adamsia Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia (1) Cnidaria (2) Porifera
(3) Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia Adamsia Aurelia (3) Platyhelminthes (4) Ctenophora
(4) Adamsia Aurelia Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast Ans. 2
Sol. NCERT pg no. 49
Ans. 2
192. Which of the following statements is correct for
188. Match column I with column II and select the correct
sponges without exception?
option from the given codes.
(1) They all have calcareous spicules
Column I Column II (2) They have high regenerative power.
(3) They are found only in marine water.
a Choanocytes (i) Platyhelminthes
(4) They are all asymmetrical
b Cnidoblasts (ii) Ctenophora Ans. 2
c Flame cells (iii) Porifera 193. Match the following :
d Comb plates (iv) Coelenterata
Column I Column II
(1) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iv), d – (iii) a Sycon (i) Bath sponge
(2) a – (ii), b – (iv), c – (i), d – (iii) b Spongilla (ii) Scypha
(3) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv) Fresh water
(4) a – (iii), b – (iv), c – (i), d – (ii) c Euspongia (iii)
sponge
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT pg no. 50, 51 (1) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (i)
189. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature (2) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii)
of sponges? (3) a – (iii), b – (ii), c – (i)
(1) Cellular level of organisation (4) a – (iii), b – (i), c – (ii)
(2) Presence of ostia Ans. 1
(3) Intracellular digestion Sol. NCERT pg no. 50
(4) Body supported by chitin
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT pg no. 49

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194. Which of the following are correct 197. Which of the following group is Deuterostome
(i) Diploblastic : Ctenophora, Coelenterates (1) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca
(ii) Triploblastic : Platyhelminthes to Chordates (2) Echinodermata, Hemichordata, Chordata
(iii) Acoelomata : Poriferans, Coelenterates (3) Annelida, Mollusca, Chordata
Platyhelminthes (4) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinodermata
(iv) Pseudocoelomata : Aschelminthes/ Ans. 2
Roundworms Sol. Package
(v) Eucoelomata : Annelids to Chordates 198. Incomplete digestive tract found in
(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (1) Platyhelminthes and Aschelminthes
(2) (iii) and (v) (2) Platyhelminthes and Ctenophora
(3) (i), (ii) and (v) (3) Aschelminthes and Annelida
(4) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv) and (v) (4) Coelenterates and Aschelminthes
Ans. 4 Ans. 2
Sol. NCERT pg no. 48 Sol. NCERT pg no.47
195. Which of the following is correct about 199. Which of the following unicellular organism has a
reproduction in sponges ? macronucleus for trophic function and one or more
(1) The mode of asexual reproduction is micronuclei for reproduction ?
gemmule formation, budding and (1) Trypanosoma (2) Paramecium
fragmentation
(3) Euglena (4) Amoeba
(2) Fertilization is internal
Ans. 2
(3) Development is indirect
200. Bioluminescence is present in :
(4) All of these
(1) Coelenterata (2) Ctenophora
Ans. 4
(3) Porifera (4) Protozoa
Sol. NCERT pg no. 49
Ans. 2
196. The characters given below are shown by
Sol. NCERT pg no. 51
(i) Extracellular and intracellular digestion
(ii) Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical,
diploblastic, tissue level of organisation
(iii) Bisexual, fertilisation external and indirect
development
(iv) No asexual reproduction
(v) Presence of comb plates
(1) Cnidaria (2) Porifera
(3) Ctenophora (4) None of these.
Ans. 3
Sol. NCERT pg no. 51

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