5.c.science & Tech

UPSC CSE EXAM
9 Year TOPIC - Wise PDF

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Prelims PYQs Content
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(SUBJECT-WISE & TOPIC-WISE)

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Science & Technology

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[Part of our Prelims PYQ Content]

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PRELIMS PYQs Content- (Science & Technology)
INDEX
CHAPTER 1: GENERAL SCIENCE ............................................................................................. 3
CHAPTER 2: SPACE TECHNOLOGY ...................................................................................... 14
CHAPTER 3: INFORMATION & COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY ........................... 24
CHAPTER 4: BIOTECHNOLOGY ............................................................................................. 44
CHAPTER 5: NANOTECHNOLOGY......................................................................................... 53
CHAPTER 6: HEALTH ................................................................................................................ 55
CHAPTER 7: DEFENCE .............................................................................................................. 64
CHAPTER 8: MISCELLANEOUS .............................................................................................. 66
Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595
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CHAPTER 1: GENERAL SCIENCE
1. Microorganisms [UPSC 2023] 1. Consider the following statements:
• Thermophiles 1. Some microorganisms can grow
o “Thermophiles” are microorganisms with optimal in environments with temperature
growth temperatures between 60 and 108 degrees above the boiling point of water.
Celsius. 2. Some microorganisms can grow
o They are isolated from a number of marine and in environments with temperature
terrestrial geothermally-heated habitats including below the freezing point of water.
shallow terrestrial hot springs, hydrothermal vent 3. Some microorganisms can grow
systems, sediment from volcanic islands, and in a highly acidic environment
deep-sea hydrothermal vents. with a pH below 3.
o Some thermophiles can grow in temperatures How many of the above statements
as high as 113°C (Boiling Point of water is are correct?
100°C). (a) Only one
o Eg. Pyrococcus furiosus. Archaebacteria (b) Only two
(Thermophiles) are ancient forms of bacteria (c) All three
found in hot water springs and deep-sea (d) None
hydrothermal vents.
o They are able to survive in high temperatures
(which far exceed 100°C) because their bodies
have adapted to such environmental conditions.
• Freezing point
o Microbial growth or metabolic activity has been
reported in permafrost bacteria at −10°C (11) and
in the antarcticcryptoendolithic microbial
community at temperatures between −5 and
−10°C (7, 28), and the temperature limit of
bacterial growth in frozen food is generally
considered to be −8°C (9).
• Acidophiles
o Microorganisms that grow optimally at pH less
than 5.55 are called acidophiles. Acidophiles are
microorganisms that show optimal growth in
highly acidic environments.
o These are of two types. The extreme
acidophiles dwell in environments with a pH
value <3, and moderate acidophiles grow
optimally in conditions having pH values
ranging between 3 and 5.
o Species of the archaean genus Ferroplasma live in
acid mine drainage at pH values of 0–2.9.
o Example: Sulfuroxidizing Sulfolobus spp.
isolated from sulfur mud fields and hot springs in
Yellowstone National Park are extreme
acidophiles. These archaea survive at pH values
of 2.5–3.5.
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2. Probiotics [UPSC 2022] 2. Consider the following statements in
• Probiotics are live microorganisms -> Bacteria and respect of probiotics:
yeasts can form an important part of the human 1. Probiotics are made of both
mycobiome as probiotics. bacteria and yeast.
• These microbes are a combination of: Bacteria; Fungi 2. The organisms in probiotics are
(including yeasts); Viruses and Protozoa. found in foods we ingest but they
• They can be found in yogurt and other fermented do not naturally occur in our gut.
foods, dietary supplements, and beauty products. 3. Probiotics help in the digestion of
• Probiotics live naturally in your body. L. acidophilus milk sugars.
is a probiotic bacteria that naturally occurs in the Which of the statements given above
human gut. is/are correct?
• The most common place linked to beneficial microbes (a) 1 only
is your gut (mostly large intestines), but there are (b) 2 only
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other places like mouth, urinary tract, skin and lungs. (c) 1 and 3
• Benefits of Probiotics: Help the digestive system of (d) 2 and 3
the body + Keeping bad bacteria from getting out of
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control and making one ill + Create vitamins in the
body + Breakdown and absorption of medications.
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3. Viruses [UPSC 2016, UPSC 2021 ] 13. Which of the following statements
• Viruses are nonliving organisms that get active when is/are correct? Viruses can infect
they come in contact with host cell. No virus can be 1. bacteria
grown on an artificial culture medium as there is no 2. fungi
living cell present. [UPSC 2021] 3. plants
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• They act as living organisms when they are present in Select the correct answer using the
a host organism (cell). code given below.
• Some viruses partially contain DNA or RNA with (a) 1 and 2 only
single or double strands; it can get into the DNA of (b) 3 only
the host organism. (c) 1 and 3 only
• Viruses are classified on the basis of genetic material (d) 1, 2 and 3
– dsDNA, dsRNA, ssDNA, ssRNA
(orthomyxoviruses) 7. Consider the following:
• They are known to infect almost any kind of host that 1. Bacteria
has living cells. Animals, plants, fungi, and bacteria 2. Fungi
are all subject to viral infection.
3. Virus
• A bacteriophage is a virus that infects and replicates Which of the above can be cultured in
within a bacterium. Mycoviruses are viruses that an artificial/ synthetic medium?
infect fungi. A host of other Viruses affect plants.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Bacteria versus Virus

Bacteria do not need a host Viruses replicate only inside
organism for reproduction the host
Considered ns living Not considered us living
organisms organisms
Larger and visible under Smaller and visible under
light microscope the electron microscope
Contain a Peptidoglycan/ Contain a protein coat
Lipopolysaccharide cell instead of a cell wall
wall
Unicellar Don't have cells
A single, circular DNA/RNA strand is present
chromosome is present
Can be either beneficial or Usually harmful, though
harmful useful in genetic
engineering
Cause localized infections Cause systemic infection
Food poisoning, gastritis, AIDS, common cold,
ulcers, meningitis, influenza, chickenpox, etc.
pneumonia, etc. arc caused are caused
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Infections can be prevented Spread can be prevented by
by Antibiotics vaccines
4. Artificial medium: It is an environment used for the
growth of different types of microorganisms. It contains
agarose and nutrients required for the growth of the
microorganism. [UPSC 2021]
• Bacteria and Fungi: Microbes like bacteria and
many fungi can be grown on nutritive media to form
colonies that can be seen with the naked eyes.
Bacteria, yeast, protozoans, fungi, and algae are
grown in the medium and not the viruses.
5. Role of T cells in human body [UPSC 2022] 3. Which one of the following
• T cells protect us from infection. In our daily lives, statements best describes the role of B
we’re constantly exposed to pathogens, such as cells and T cells in the human body?
bacteria, viruses and fungi. (a) They protect the environmental
• Without T lymphocytes, also called T cells, every allergens. body
exposure could be life-threatening. T cells can wipe (b) They alleviate the body’s pain
out infected or cancerous cells. and inflammation.
• They also direct the immune response by helping B (c) They act as immunosuppressants
lymphocytes to eliminate invading pathogens. in the body.
6. Role of B cells in human body [UPSC 2022] (d) They protect the body from the
• B cells create antibodies. B lymphocytes, also called diseases caused by pathogens.
B cells, create a type of protein called an antibody.
• These antibodies bind to pathogens or to foreign
substances, such as toxins, to neutralize them.
7. Biofilms [UPSC 2022] 4. Consider the following statements:
• Biofilm is an association of micro-organisms in which 1. Biofilms can form on medical
microbial cells adhere to each other on living or non- implants within human tissues.
living surfaces within a self-produced matrix of 2. Biofilms can form on food and
extracellular polymeric substance. food processing surfaces.
• They are ubiquitous which form on virtually all 3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic
surfaces immersed in natural aqueous environment, resistance.
e.g., water pipes, living tissue, tooth Which of the statements given above
surface, implanted medical devices, dental implants, are correct?
etc. (a) 1 and 2 only
• Biofilms can be present on the teeth of most animals (b) 2 and 3 only
as dental plaque, where they may cause tooth decay (c) 1 and 3 only
and gum disease. (d) 1, 2 and 3
• They can form on food and food processing surfaces. For
example, escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica etc.
• Bacterial biofilm is less accessible to antiabiotics and
the human immune system and thus poses a big threat
to public health.
8. Solvent properties of Water: Water is called the 5. Water can dissolve more substances
universal solvent since it is capable of dissolving a variety than any other liquid because.
of different substances more than any other liquid. (a) It is dipolar in nature.
Because of its polarity and ability to form hydrogen (b) It is a good conductor of heat
bonds, water makes an excellent solvent, meaning that it (c) It has high value of specific heat
can dissolve many different kinds of molecules. [UPSC
(d) It is an oxide of hydrogen
2021]
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9. Conductors of heat: Materials that allow heat to pass
through them easily are called good conductors of heat.
Metals like copper and aluminium have the highest
thermal conductivity while steel and bronze have the
lowest. Gold, Silver, Iron etc are other important
examples of good heat conductors as well as electrical
conductors.
10. Measurement of Astronomical distances: Astronomical 6. Which one of the following is a
distances are measures in light-years as the speed of light reason why astronomical distances are
is constant. A light-year is how astronomers measure measured in light-years?
distance in space; defined by how far a beam of light (a) Distance among stellar bodies do
travels in one year. Light travels at the speed of about not change
300,000 km per second and it is always same throughout (b) Gravity of stellar bodies does not
the universe. [UPSC 2021] change
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11. Gravity is one of the basic forces in the universe. The (c) Light always travels in straight
gravity of the sun keeps all the planets in orbit in our solar line
system. However, each planet, moon and asteroid have (d) Speed of light is always same
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their own gravitational pull defined by their density, size,
mass, and proximity to other celestial bodies.
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12. Light travels in a straight line, but not everytime. It is
curved when passes by a heavy object having gravity like
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sun.
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8. Which of the following statements are

correct regarding the general
difference between plant and animal
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cells ?
1. Plant cells have cellulose cell
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walls whilst animal cells do not.

2. Plant cells do not have plasma
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membranes unlike animal cells

which do.
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3. Mature plant cell has one large

vacuole whilst an animal cell has
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many small vacuoles.

Select the correct answer using the
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code given below:

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[UPSC 2020]
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
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(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of 10. Consider the following phenomena
Relativity [UPSC 2018] 1. Light is affected by gravity.
• It proposed that gravity was the result of a warping of 2. The Universe is constantly
space time by massive objects like stars and planets. expanding.
• It indicates that all objects fall the same way 3. Matter warps its surrounding
regardless of mass or composition. space-time.
• As light gets closer to the sun, it bends towards the Which of the above is/are the
sun twice as much as classical physics predicts. prediction/predictions of Albert
• The perihelion of the planet Mercury rotates along its Einstein’s General Theory of
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orbit more than is expected under Newtonian physics. Relativity, often discussed in media?
• Redshift from gravity -> when light moves away from (a) 1 and 2 only
an object with gravity, it is stretched into longer (b) 3 only
wavelengths. This was confirmed by the Pound- (c) 1 and 3 only
Rebka experiment. (d) 1, 2 and 3
• Shapiro delay -> Light appears to slow down when it
passes close to a massive object.
• It predicted the existence of black holes and
gravitational waves.
• It showed that space and time are malleable or
flexible, and ever expanding.
• Gravity is caused by warping of space and time
or space-time.
14. Einstein’s Eclipse
• Albert Einstein’s prediction of the bending of light by
the gravity of the Sun can be tested during a solar
eclipse.
• Eclipse presented a chance to verify the bending of
light by gravity.
• In the case of a ray of light originating from a distant
star and passing near the edge of the Sun, Einstein
calculated a deflection of about 1.75 arc seconds.
15. Earth’s Magnetic Field [UPSC 2018] 11. Consider the following statements:
• A change in the Earth’s magnetic field resulting in the 1. The Earth’s magnetic field has
magnetic north being aligned with the geographic reversed every few hundred
south, and the magnetic south being aligned with the thousand years.
geographic north is called as geomagnetic reversal. 2. When the Earth was created more
• Complete magnetic reversals have happened every than 4000 million years ago, there
200,000 to 300,000 years over the past 20 million was 54% oxygen and no carbon
years. dioxide.
• The strength of the earth's magnetic field varies across 3. When living organisms
the earth; both poles have a stronger magnetic field originated, they modified the
than the equator. early atmosphere of the Earth.
• At the north magnetic poles, a magnetic field line Which of the statements given above
enters the earth and emerges at the south magnetic is/are correct?
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poles. (a) 1 only
• The earth has a reverse dipole, which means the north (b) 2 and 3 only
magnetic poles act like the south magnetic poles of a (c) 1 and 3 only
bar placed inside the earth. (d) 1, 2 and 3
• The Earth's magnetic field protects Earth from the
solar wind, which is a stream of intensely charged
particles emerging from the Sun.
16. Earliest atmosphere of Earth

• Between 4.5 and 2.5 billion years (the Archaean and
Proterozoic time), the earliest atmosphere contained
carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), water vapour
(H2O), carbon monoxide (CO), a little nitrogen (N),
and hydrogen (H).
• When living organisms originated, they did not affect
the early atmosphere because they lacked the ability
to do so; early atmosphere of earth was modified by
solar winds.
• Oxygen was first produced somewhere around 2.7
billion to 2.8 billion years ago.
17. Lead [UPSC 2017] 12. Consider the following pairs:
• It is a naturally occurring toxic metal found in the Commonly Unwanted or
Earth’s crust. /Used controversial
consumed chemicals
• It is distributed to the brain, liver, kidney and
materials likely to be
bones. It is stored in the teeth and bones, where it found in them
accumulates over time.
1. Lipstick : Lead
• Human exposure is usually assessed through 2. Softdrinks : Brominated
the measurement of lead in blood. Vegetable Oils
• Lead in bone is released into blood during 3. Chinese : Monosodium
pregnancy and becomes a source of exposure to the Fast Food Glutamate
developing foetus.
• Lead exposure is preventable Which of the pairs given above is/are
• Causes behind lead poisoning: Wide spread use of correctly matched?
lead acid batteries, lead paints, Lead in its organic (a) 1 only
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form could be absorbed through the skin upon (b) 2 and 3 only
application of cosmetics. (c) 1 and 3 only
18. Brominated vegetable oils [UPSC 2017] (d) 1, 2 and 3
• It is used primarily to help emulsify citrus-flavored
soft drinks, preventing them from separating during
distribution.
• Brominated vegetable oil is a synthetic chemical that
is created when vegetable oil is bonded to the element
bromine.
19. Monosodium glutamate [UPSC 2017]
• It is an amino acid found in your body and most
foods. It is a flavour enhancer commonly added to
Chinese food, canned vegetables, soups, and
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processed meats.
• When consumed in excess, it can cause several health
issues, including a headache, nausea, sweating,
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weakness, chest pain, tingling or burning in the face
as well as neck and other areas.
• MSG may cause adverse symptoms in some people,
including a condition called Chinese restaurant
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syndrome or MSG symptom complex.
14. With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which
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20. Fuel Cells [UPSC 2015]

• Fuel cells are electrochemical devices that convert hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are
chemical energy in fuels into electrical energy used to generate electricity, consider
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directly, promising power generation with high the following statements :

efficiency and low environmental impact. 1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel,
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• A fuel cell produces electricity, water, and heat using the fuel cell emits heat and water
fuel and oxygen in the air. as by-products.
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• If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits 2. Fuel cells can be used for
heat and water as by-products. powering buildings and not for
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small devices like laptop

• Fuel cells produce direct current and smaller versions
computers.
are being patented regularly.
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3. Fuel cells produce electricity in

• A single fuel cell generates a tiny amount of direct
the form of Alternating Current
current (DC) electricity.
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(AC).
• If alternating current (AC) is needed, the DC output
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Which of the statements given above

of the fuel cell must be routed through a conversion is / are correct?
device called an inverter.
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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
21. Examples of Chemical change [UPSC 2014] 15. Which of the following is/are the
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example/examples of chemical
change? (2014)
1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
2. Melting of ice
3. Souring of milk
code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
22. Examples of Physical Change (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
23. Vegetative propagation [UPSC 2014] 16. Which of the following statements is /
• Vegetative Propagation is a type of asexual are correct regarding vegetative
reproduction in which new plants are produced from propagation of plants?
roots, stems, leaves and buds. 1. Vegetative propagation produces
• This method is used in layering and grafting to grow clonal population.
many plants. Examples include sugarcane, rose, 2. Vegetative propagation helps in
grapes etc. eliminating the virus.
• It produces clonal population and can be practiced 3. Vegetative propagation can be
most of the year. practiced most of the year.
code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
24. Transgenic crops/GM crops: Cytoplasmic male sterility 17. Consider the following techniques/
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and Gene silencing are the techniques used to create phenomena:
transgenic crops. [UPSC 2014] 1. Budding and grafting in fruit
plants
2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
3. Gene silencing
Which of the above is/are used to
create transgenic crops?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
25. Cytoplasmic Male Sterility (d) None
26. Budding and Grafting
27. Gene Silencing
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• It refers to a mechanism by which cells shut down
large sections of chromosomal DNA.
• It is generally used to describe the “switching off” a
gene by a mechanism other than genetic modification.
• Methods used to silence genes are being increasingly
used to produce therapeutics to combat cancer and
diseases such as infectious diseases and
neurodegenerative disorders.
28. Maize [UPSC 2014] 18. Consider the following statements:
• Maize is a rainfed kharif crop mostly grown in 1. Maize can be used for the
regions with semi-arid conditions (25 – 75 cm production of starch.
rainfall) where rice and wheat production is not 2. Oil extracted from maize can be a
possible. feedstock for biodiesel.
• Temperature: Between 21-27°C 3. Alcoholic beverages can be
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• Rainfall: It cannot be grown in areas of more than produced by using maize.
100 cm rainfall. Which of the statements given above
• Predominant maize growing states: Andhra Pradesh is/are correct?
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(20.9 %), Karnataka (16.5 %), Rajasthan (9.9 %), (a) 1 only.
Maharashtra (9.1 %), Bihar (8.9 %), Uttar Pradesh (6.1 (b) 1 and 2 only
%), Madhya Pradesh (5.7 %), Himachal Pradesh (4.4 %).
• Soil Type: Old alluvial soil.
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
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• USA is the largest producer of maize contributes
nearly 36% of the total production in the world.
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• India is the seventh largest producer of Maize

representing around 4% of world maize area and 2%
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of total production.
• It is cultivated throughout the year in all states of the
country.
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• Uses: Staple food for human being and quality feed for
animals, basic raw material to industrial products such as
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starch, oil, protein, alcoholic beverages, food sweeteners,

pharmaceutical, cosmetic, film, textile, gum, package,
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feedstock for biodiesel and paper industries etc.

29. Functional chromosomes can be created by joining 9. With reference to the recent
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segments of DNA taken from cells of different species. developments in science, which one
[UPSC 2019] of the following statements is not
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correct?
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(a) Functional chromosomes can be

created by joining segments of
DNA taken from cells of
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different species.
(b) Pieces of artificial functional
DNA can be created in
Iaboratories.
(c) A piece of DNA taken out from
an animal cell can be made to
replicate outside a living cell in a
laboratory.
(d) Cells taken out from plants and
animals can be made to undergo
cell division in laboratory petri
dishes.
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CHAPTER 2: SPACE TECHNOLOGY
1. Cepheids [UPSC 2023] 1. Consider the following pairs:
• It is a type of variable star which brighten and dim Objects Description
periodically. in space
• Variable stars are essentially stars that experience 1. Cepheids Giant clouds of
fluctuations in their brightness dust and gas in
• Cepheids stars are special type of variable star in space
that they are hot and massive – five to twenty times 2. Nebulae Stars which
as much mass as our Sun – and are known for their brighten and dim
tendency to pulsate radially and vary in both periodically
diameter and temperature. 3. Pulsars Neutron stars that
• They have luminosities 500-30,000 times greater are formed when
than that of the Sun. massive stars run
• They are used as cosmic yardsticks out to distances out of fuel and
of a few tens of millions of light-years. collapse
2. Nebulae How many of the above pairs are
• A nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space. correctly matched?
Some nebulae (more than one nebula) come from (a) Only one
the gas and dust thrown out by the explosion of a (b) Only two
dying star, such as a supernova. (c) All three
• Other nebulae are regions where new stars are (d) None
beginning to form. For this reason, some nebulae
are called “star nurseries.”
3. Pulsars
• Pulsars are neutron stars. Pulsars are rotating
neutron stars observed to have pulses of radiation
at very regular intervals that typically range from
milliseconds to seconds.
• A pulsar is the crushed core of a massive star that
ran out of fuel, collapsed under its own weight and
exploded as a supernova.
4. Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) [UPSC 2018] 4. With reference to India’s satellite
• PSLV is third generation launch vehicle launch vehicles, consider the following
indigenously designed and developed by ISRO. statements:
• It is one of world’s most reliable and versatile 1. PSLVs launch satellites useful for
workhorse (launch vehicles) with over 50 Earth resources monitoring
consecutively successful missions. whereas GSLVs are designed
• It is a four stage launch vehicle and first Indian mainly to launch communication
rocket to be equipped with liquid stages. satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear
• It can take up to 1,750 kg of payload to Sun-
to remain permanently fixed in the
Synchronous Polar Orbits (SSPO) of 600 km
same position in the sky, as viewed
altitude and payload of 1,425 kg to
from a particular location on Earth.
Geosynchronous and Geostationary orbits.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged
• Four Stages: The fourth stage of PSLV comprises
launch vehicle with the first and
of two Earth storable liquid engines + The third
third stages using solid rocket
stage is solid rocket motor that provides upper
motors; and the second and fourth
stages high thrust after the atmospheric phase of
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the launch + Second stage of PSLV uses an Earth stages using liquid rocket engines.
storable liquid rocket engine, known as Vikas Which of the statements given above
engine, developed by Liquid Propulsion Systems is/are correct.?
Centre + The first stage uses the S139 solid rocket (a) 1 only
motor that is augmented by 6 solid strap-on (b) 2 and 3
booster.
(c) 1 and 2
• It is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” (d) 3 only
or “remote-sensing” satellites with lift-off mass of up
to about 1750 Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular polar
orbits of 600-900 Km altitude.
5. GSLV [UPSC 2018]
• GSLV MKIII is ISRO’s fifth generation three
stage heavy lift launch vehicle.
• The launch vehicle is capable of placing satellites
weighing 4000 kg in GTO.
• The first stage constitutes two massive boosters
with solid propellants.
• The core with liquid propellant and the cryogenic
engine constitutes the second and third stages
respectively.
• The weight of GSLV Mark III is 641 tons roughly
equals the weight of five fully loaded passenger
aircrafts.
• GSLV MarkIII, which took 15 years to make, is
the heaviest among India’s operational launch
vehicles. Also, with only 43 meters tall, it is also
the shortest launch vehicles.
• GSLV MKIII will be used to launch
Chandrayaan-2 and Gaganyaan missions.
• The GSLV is designed mainly to deliver the
communication-satellites to the highly elliptical
(typically 250 x 3.6000 Km) Geosynchronous
Transfer Orbit (GTO).
6. Evolved LISA (e-LISA): Laser Interferometer Space 2. The experiment will employ a trio of
Antenna (LISA) is a mission led by the European spacecraft flying in formation in the
Space Agency to detect and accurately measure shape of an equilateral triangle that has
gravitational waves - tiny ripples in the fabric of space- sides one million kilometres long, with
time - from astronomical sources + It aims to measure lasers shining between the craft.” The
gravitational waves directly by using laser experiment in question refers to
interferometry + It involves scientists from eight (a) Voyager-2
European countries ‒ Denmark, France, Germany, (b) New Horizons
Italy, The Netherlands, Spain, Switzerland, and the UK (c) LISA Pathfinder
‒ as well as the support of several US-based ones +
(d) Evolved LISA
LISA concept has a constellation of three spacecraft
arranged in an equilateral triangle with sides 2.5
million km long, flying along an Earth-like heliocentric 6. What is the purpose of the ‘evolved
orbit + It consists of a “Mother” and two “Daughter” Laser Interferometer Space Antenna
spacecrafts which will orbit the Sun in a triangular (eLISA)’ project?
configuration + The interferometer will be capable of (a) To detect neutrinos
detecting gravitational waves at frequencies in the (b) To detect gravitational waves
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range of 0.1 mHz to 1 Hz. [UPSC 2020, UPSC 2017] (c) To detect the effectiveness of
7. LISA Pathfinder: Formerly called Small Missions for missile defence system
Advanced Research in Technology-2 (SMART-2), it is (d) To study the effect of solar flares
an ESA spacecraft launched in 2015. It has begun on our communication systems
orbiting a point called Earth-sun L1, roughly 930,000
miles from Earth in the sun’s direction + It involves
14. Which of the following pair(s) is/are
European space companies and research institutes from
correctly matched?
France, Germany, Italy, The Netherlands, Spain,
Switzerland, UK, and the US space agency NASA + Spacecraft Purpose
Primary goal is to test current technology by flying 1. Cassini- Orbiting the
around an identical pair of 1.8-inch (46 millimeter) Huygens Venus and
cubes made of a gold-platinum alloy + It also carries a transmitting
NASA experiment called the ST-7 Disturbance data to the
Reduction System which combines novel Earth
“electrospray” thrusters with drag-free control software
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2. Messenger Mapping and
provided by Goddard on a dedicated computer + It has investigating
tested technologies needed for the Laser Interferometer the Mercury
Space Antenna (LISA), an ESA gravitational wave
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observatory planned to be launched in 2034. 3. Voyager Exploring the
outer solar
8. Voyager-2: It is a space probe launched by NASA in ai
1977 to study the outer planets and interstellar space system
beyond the Sun's heliosphere + It is the only spacecraft Select the correct answer using the code
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to have visited all four gas giant planets, Jupiter, given below.
Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune + It was the fourth of five
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(a) 1 only
spacecraft to achieve the solar escape velocity, which (b) 2 and 3 only
allowed it to leave the Solar System + It fulfilled its (c) 1 and 3 only
02
primary mission of visiting the Jovian system in 1979,

(d) 1, 2 and 3
the Saturnian system in 1981, Uranian system in 1986,
and the Neptunian system in 1989 + It remains in
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contact with Earth through the NASA Deep Space

Network + Their five-year lifespans have stretched to
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41 years, making Voyager 2 NASA’s longest running

mission + It is the only probe ever to study Neptune
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and Uranus during planetary flybys + It discovered 16

moons and various phenomena like Neptune’s
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mysteriously transient Great Dark Spot, the cracks in

Europa’s ice shell, and ring features at every planet.
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[UPSC 2020, UPSC 2014]

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9. New horizons: It is an interplanetary space probe that

was launched by NASA in 2006 as a part of NASA's
New Frontiers program + It is the first spacecraft which
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successfully fly by the dwarf planet Pluto, for its

exploration in the Kuiper Belt + The goal of the
mission is to understand the formation of the Plutonian
system, the Kuiper belt, and the transformation of the
early Solar System + In 2015, it flew above the surface
of Pluto, making it the first spacecraft to explore the
dwarf planet + The spacecraft collected data on the
atmospheres, surfaces, interiors of Pluto and its moon
(Charon) + It became the first explorer to fly past the
mysterious object called Ultima Thule which is located
4 billion miles from Earth + The mission first close-up
image of the surface revealed that surface is youngest
Page. 16
ever found in the solar system, falsifying previous
theories that Pluto made up of ice and rock.
10. Cassini-Huygens [UPSC 2014]

• It was the fourth space probe to visit Saturn.
• It was launched with two elements- Cassini orbiter
and Huygens probe.
• Cassini is a probe developed by NASA, and
Huygens is a lander developed by ESA.
• Cassini-Huygens was launched onboard the launch
vehicle Titan IVB/Centaur.
• It was launched from Cape Canaveral, Florida,
USA.
• Objective: Determine dynamic behavior of rings
of Saturn and atmosphere of Saturn at cloud level.
11. Messenger [UPSC 2014]
• MESSENGER is a NASA’s robotic spacecraft that
orbited the planet Mercury between 2011 and
2015.
• Aim: Study the geology, magnetic field and
chemical composition of the mercury.
• The MESSENGER mission has shared more than
10 terabytes of Mercury science data. It includes
nearly 300,000 images, millions of spectra and
numerous map products.
12. Gravitational Waves [UPSC 2019] 3. Recently, scientists observed the
• These are oscillations in the fabric of space-time, merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of
moving at the speed of light and caused by the light-years away from the earth. What
acceleration of massive objects. is the significance of this observation?
• They can be generated by supernovas, neutron star (a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were
binaries spiralling around each other, and pairs of detected.
merging black holes. (b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were
• They are useful for studying black holes and other detected.
dark objects, because they will give scientists a (c) Possibility of intergalactic space
bright beacon to search for even when objects travel through ‘wormhole’ was
don’t emit actual light. confirmed.
• They could also improve methods for estimating (d) It enabled the scientists to
the distances to other galaxies. understand ‘singularity’.
Page. 17
• They are detected recently during merger of giant
blackholes billions of light-years away from the
Earth.
13. Singularity
• A gravitational singularity is a location where the
quantities that are used to measure the gravitational
field become infinite in a way that does not depend
on the coordinate system.
• It is a point in which all physical laws are
indistinguishable from one another, where space
and time are no longer interrelated realities, but
merge indistinguishably and cease to have any
independent meaning.
14. Worm hole/ Einstein Rosen Bridge
• A wormhole is an intergalactic structure
connecting distant points in space-time.
• Physicist John Archibald Wheeler introduced the
name “wormhole” in 1957.
• It can be picturised as a tunnel or bridge with two
ends at different points in space-time.
• They are fundamentally based on the general
theory of relativity. However, physical existence is
not yet confirmed.
• There is a possibility that wormholes are just
complex projections of a 4d space-time fabric.
• It could bridge extremely long distances like
millions of light-years.
• The wormhole concept is one of the many path-
breaking predictions of Einstein’s general
relativity.
15. Event Horizon: There is a region of space beyond the 7. The terms ‘Event Horizon’,
black hole called the event horizon. This is a "point of ‘Singularity’, `String Theory’ and
no return", beyond which it is impossible to escape the ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen
gravitational effects of the black hole. [UPSC 2017] in the news in the context of
16. Event Horizon Telescope (a) Observation and understanding
• It is a large telescope array consisting of a global of the Universe
network of radio telescopes. (b) Study of the solar and the lunar
• It is a group of 8 radio telescopes used to detect radio eclipses
waves from space located in different parts of the (c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the
world. Earth
• The collaboration draws on a wide range of expertise (d) Origin and evolution of living
and includes over 200 scientists and engineers working organisms on the Earth
with telescopes around the world.
17. Gravitational Singularity [UPSC 2017]
• It is a condition in which gravity is so intense that
spacetime itself breaks down catastrophically.
• Singularities were first predicated as a result of
Einstein’s Theory of General Relativity, which
resulted in the theoretical existence of black holes.
Page. 18
18. String theory [UPSC 2017]
• It is an attempt to combine the quantum mechanics
and Albert Einstein's theory of relativity with an
overarching framework that can explain all of
physical reality.
• It tries to do so by positing that particles are
actually one-dimensional, string-like entities whose
vibrations determine the particles' properties, such
as their mass and charge.
19. Astrosat [UPSC 2016] 8. With reference to `Astrosat’, the
• It is the first dedicated Indian astronomy mission astronomical observatory launched by
aimed at studying celestial sources in X-ray, India, which of the following
optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously. statements is/are correct?
• It is India’s first multi-wavelength space 1. Other than the USA and Russia,
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telescope which has five telescopes. India is the only country to have
• It was launched in 2015 by ISRO into a near-Earth launched a similar observatory into
equatorial orbit. space.
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2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite
• It is a multi-institute collaborative
placed in an orbit at 1650 km above
project, involving IUCAA, ISRO, Tata
ai the surface of the Earth.
Institute of Fundamental Research (Mumbai),
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Indian Institute of Astrophysics (Bengaluru),
and Physical Research Laboratory code given below.
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(Ahmedabad), among others. (a) 1 only

• The payloads cover the energy bands of Ultraviolet (b) 2 only
02
(Near and Far), limited optical and X-ray regime (c) Both 1 and 2
(0.3 keV to 100keV). (d) Neither 1 nor 2
• It has a lift-off mass of about 1513 kg was
a2
launched into a 650 km orbit inclined at an angle of

6 degrees to the equator by PSLV-C30
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• Objectives: To understand high energy processes

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in binary star systems containing neutron stars and

black holes + Estimate magnetic fields of neutron
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stars + Study star birth regions and high energy

processes in star systems lying beyond our galaxy
+ Detect new briefly bright X-ray sources in sky.
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20. International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor 9. India is an important member of the

us
• It is an international nuclear fusion research ‘International Thermonuclear

megaproject, which is the world’s largest magnetic Experimental Reactor’. If this
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confinement plasma physics experiment. experiment succeeds, what is the

• It is an experimental tokamak nuclear fusion immediate advantage for India?
reactor being built in southern France. (a) It can use thorium in place of
• Goal: Demonstrate the scientific and uranium for power generation
technological feasibility of fusion energy for (b) It can attain a global role in satellite
peaceful use. navigation
• Importance: ITER will be the first fusion (c) It can drastically improve the
device to produce net energy + It will be the efficiency of its fission reactors in
first fusion device to maintain fusion for long power generation
periods of time. (d) It can build fusion reactors for
• Funding: It is funded and run by seven member power generation
Page. 19
entities - EU, China, India, Japan, Russia, South
Korea and the United States.
• European Union is responsible for the largest
portion of construction costs (45.6%); the
remainder is shared equally by China, Japan, South
Korea, Russia, USA including India (9.1% each).
• India’s Contribution: Cryostat is manufactured
by India (Larsen and Tourbo). It is a chamber that
can maintain very low temperatures.
• The project is based on fusion which is also
an energy source for the Sun and stars.
• It will allow the study of fusion reaction which
governs the Sun and other Stars.
• The construction period is ten years, which will be
followed by operation in two phases. The third is
the decommissioning phase. [UPSC 2016]
21. Mangalyaan [UPSC 2016] 10. Consider the following statements: The
• India is the only country to be successful in making Mangalyaan launched by ISRO
its spacecraft orbit Mars in its very first attempt. 1. Is also called Mars Orbiter Mission
• India is the first Asian country and ISRO is the 2. Made India 2nd country to have a
fourth space agency to send a satellite to Mars. spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA
• First interplanetary mission realized by India and 3. Made India the only country to be
first Indian spacecraft to incorporate full scale successful in making its spacecraft
onboard autonomy to overcome long distances & orbit Mars in its very first attempt
communication gaps due to non-visibility periods. Which of the statements given above
• First Indian spacecraft to successfully survive Van is/are correct?
Allen belt crossing 39 times. (a) 1 only
• First Indian spacecraft to escape the Sphere of (b) 2 and 3 only
Influence of Earth and orbit Sun. (c) 1 and 3 only
• Most economical interplanetary mission in the (d) 1, 2 and 3
world -> realised with a budget of Rs 450 crores.
Page. 20
22. Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) Satellites 12. In which of the following activities are
• IRS series of satellites provide data in a variety of Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites
spatial, spectral and temporal resolutions. used?
• The National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) 1. Assessment of crop productivity
located at Hyderabad is the focal point for 2. Locating ground water resources
distribution of remote sensing satellite data 3. Mineral exploration
products in India and its neighboring countries. 4. Telecommunications
• IRS-1A, the first of the series of indigenous state- 5. Traffic studies
of-art operating remote sensing satellites, was Select the correct answer using the
successfully launched into a polar sun-synchronous code given below
orbit on March 17, 1988 from the Soviet (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Cosmodrome at Baikonur. (b) 4 and 5 only
• Land/water resources applications (c) 1 and 2 only
(RESOURCESAT series and RISAT series);
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
• Ocean/atmospheric studies (OCEANSAT series,
INSAT-VHRR, INSAT-3D, Megha-Tropiques and
SARAL); and
• Large scale mapping applications (CARTOSAT
series).
• It is used for monitoring and management of
natural resources (e.g. locating ground water
resources, mineral exploration etc.) and Disaster
Management Support.
23. Usage of Remote sensing data [UPSC 2015]
• The Sentinel satellite of the European Space
Agency is used to measure the chlorophyll content
in the vegetation of a specific location.
• Greenhouse gas emission from rice paddies of a
specific location.
• Land surface temperature measurement of a
specific location
• Analyzing the condition of rural roads
• Creating a base map for visual reference
• Computing snow pack
• Controlling forest fires
• Detecting land use and land cover
• Locating construction and building alteration
• Observing climate changes
• Identifying crop conditions
• Determining the soil moisture content
• Crop Identification
• Crop condition analysis and stress detection
• Drought Monitoring
• Water content determination of the field crop
• Crop health analysis etc.
Page. 21
24. Features of Indian Regional Navigation Satellite 5. With reference to the Indian Regional
System (IRNSS) [UPSC 2018] Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS),
• It provides accurate position information service to consider the following statements:
users in India as well as the region extending up to 1. IRNSS has three Satellites in
1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary geostationary and four satellites the
service area. geosynchronous orbits.
• It provides accuracy up to 20m as claimed by 2. IRNSS covers entire India and
ISRO. about 5500 sq. km beyond its
• Its apogee (farthest point) is 20,657km and Perigee borders.
is 284 km 3. India will have its own satellite
• The satellite weighs average 1330 kg approx. and navigation system with full global
each have solar panels to generate 1400wt. coverage by the middle of 2019.
• It provides Standard Positioning Services available Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
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to all users and restricted Services provided to
authorized users. (Encrypted) (a) 1 only
25. India became one of the 5 countries having their own (b) 1 and 2 only
l.c
navigation system like GPS of USA, GLONASS of (c) 2 and 3 only
Russia, Galileo of Europe and BeiDu of China. (d) None
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02
a2
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Page. 22
26. Goldilocks Zone[UPSC 2015] 13. The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often
• It refers to a habitable zone in the area around a seen in the news in the context of
star where it is not too hot and not too cold for (a) the limits of habitable zone above
liquid water to exist on the surface of surrounding the surface of the Earth
planets. (b) regions inside the Earth-like planets
• Such conditions could allow for the presence on in outer space
the planet’s surface of liquid water – a key (c) search for the Earth-like planets
ingredient for life. in outer space
• Our Earth is in the Sun’s Goldilocks zone. (d) search for meteorites containing
27. Meteorites: A meteorite is a solid piece of debris from precious metals
an object, such as a comet, asteroid, or meteoroid, that
originates in outer space and survives its passage
through the atmosphere to reach the surface of a planet
or moon.
28. Project Loon: It consists of a network of stratospheric 11. ‘Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the
balloons designed to bring Internet connectivity to rural news, is related to
and remote communities worldwide. [UPSC 2016] (a) waste management technology
(b) wireless communication
technology
(c) solar power production technology
(d) water conservation technology
Page. 23
CHAPTER 3: INFORMATION & COMMUNICATION
TECHNOLOGY
1. Accelerometer and its functions 1. Consider the following actions:
• An accelerometer is an electronic sensor that measures the 1. Detection of car crash/
acceleration forces acting on an object, in order to collision which results in the
determine the object’s position in space and monitor the deployment of airbags almost
object’s movement. instantaneously.
• In the case of a car crash/collision, the accelerometer is 2. Detection of accidental free
used to detect the sudden deceleration of the vehicle and fall of a laptop towards the
trigger the deployment of the airbags. ground which results in the
• In the case of a laptop falling, the accelerometer is used to immediate turning off of the
detect the sudden change in motion and trigger the hard drive
immediate turning off of the hard drive to prevent damage 3. Detection of the tilt of
to the data. smartphone which results in
• An accelerometer is also required for the detection of the rotation of display between
tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the portrait and landscape mode
display between portrait and landscape mode. [UPSC In how many of above action is
2023] function of accelerometer
required
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
2. Artificial Intelligence (AI): It refers to the ability of 13. With present state of
machines to perform cognitive tasks like thinking, perceiving, development, Artificial
learning, problem solving and decision making + It includes Intelligence can effectively do
technologies like machine learning, pattern recognition, big which of the following?
data, neural networks, self-algorithms etc + Major applications 1. Bring down electricity
of AI are disease diagnosis, Text to speech conversation, consumption in industrial
Wireless transmission of electrical energy, Create meaningful units
short stories and songs, Online shopping and advertising, 2. Create meaningful short
digital personal assistants, machine translations, smart homes stories and songs
and cities, self-driving vehicles, fighting cyber threats, analyse 3. Disease diagnosis
large quantities of health data and discover patterns that could
4. Text-to-speech conversion
lead to new discoveries in medicine and ways to improve
5. Wireless transmission of
individual diagnostics. [UPSC 2020]
electrical energy
Select the correct answer using
the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2, 4, and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. Open source digital platforms [UPSC 2022] 3. Consider the following:
• An open source platform is any platform that allows 1. Aarogya Setu
access to its source code to any other users or developers. 2. COWIN
Informally founded by Richard Stallman. 3. DigiLocker
• Underlying principles: Open exchange, Collaborative
Page. 24
participation, Rapid prototyping, Transparency, 4. DIKSHA
Meritocracy, and Community-oriented development. Which of the above are built on
• Aarogya Setu, India’s coronavirus (COVID-19) contact- top of open-source digital
tracing and self-assessment app is an open source digital platforms?
platform. (a) 1 and 2 only
• DigiLocker -> offer Indian citizens a free platform to store (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
and access important documents. The platform uses (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
several open source technologies to deliver a mass (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
solution and contributes back to the ever-growing
community.
• DIKSHA is built using Sunbird ED, a fully functional solution
building block available as open-source software under MIT
license and is part of Sunbird, a “Made in India, Made for the
World” digital public good (DPG).
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• Co-WIN, which is owned by the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare, was developed using open source
l.c
software. Others: Aadhaar and GSTN.
• Government initiatives: Policy on Adoption of Open
ai
Source Software (2015); GovTech 3.0 -> focused on Open
Digital Ecosystems (ODEs).
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02
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4. Aarogya Setu
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• It is the first touch tracing application available in India.

• It allows users who have come into contact with Covid-19
h
patients to be notified, traced and backed up.

us
• It has been developed by the National Informatics Centre

that comes under the Ministry of Electronics and
Sr
Information Technology (MeitY).

• The software needs ongoing access to location information
through GPS and Bluetooth technologies to alert people to
the Covid-19 hotspots.
5. COWIN
• It is a web portal to register for COVID-19 vaccination.
• It is a cloud-based IT solution for planning,
implementation, monitoring, and evaluation of Covid-19
vaccination in India.
• This allows the system to monitor the utilisation, wastage,
coverage of Covid-19 vaccination at national, state,
Page. 25
district and sub-district level.
• CoWIN system tracks on a real time basis the vaccination
drive in India.
• It is essentially an extension of eVIN (Electronic Vaccine
Intelligence Network).
6. Digi Locker
• It is a flagship initiative of Union Ministry of Electronics
and Information Technology (MeitY) under the Digital
India Programme.
• DigiLocker is a secure cloud based platform for storage,
sharing and verification of documents & certificates.
• The users can store their documents such as insurance,
medical reports, PAN card, passport, marriage certificate,
school certificate and other documents in the digital
format.
• The locker can be accessed by individuals, using their
mobile number.
• Technology companies such as Google and Dropbox offer
storage space for users to store documents.
• It can also store a Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) link of e-
documents issued by various issuer departments.
• The e-Sign facility provided as part of DigiLocker system
can be used to digitally sign e-documents.
7. Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA)

• It is a National Teacher Platform used by teachers and
students across the nation to provide school education
through distance mode.
• The motto of DIKSHA is ‘our teachers are our heroes’.
• National Digital Infrastructure for Teachers and students
can be accessed after scanning the QR code provided in
their NCERT books.
• The mobile app is available for not just teachers but also
for the students and parents.
8. Web 3.0 [UPSC 2022] 4. With reference to Web 3.0,
• Web 3.0 is the next version of the internet, where services consider the following
will run on blockchain. statements:
• It will be permission less and democratic -> people will 1. Web 3.0 technology enables
control their own data and will be able to move around people to control their own
from social media to email using a single personalized data.
account. 2. In Web 3.0 world, there can
• All data will be interconnected in a decentralized way. be blockchain based social
networks.
• It is operated by users collectively rather than a
Page. 26
corporation. 3. Web 3.0 is operated by users
• Features: Ubiquity, Semantic Web, Artificial Intelligence collectively rather than a
and 3D Graphics. corporation
Which of the following given
THREE STATES OF INTERNET CONSUMPTION
above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) [UPSC 2022] 5. With reference to “Software as a

• It is a software licensing model which allows access to Service (SaaS)”, consider the
software on a subscription basis using external servers. following statements:
• It allows users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the 1. SaaS buyers can customise
Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring and office the user interface and can
tools such as Microsoft Office 365. change data fields.
• Buyers can customize the user interface (UI) and modify 2. SaaS users can access their
specific areas, such as data fields, to alter what data data through their mobile
appears. devices.
• The user need not install the software on his/her computer. 3. Outlook, Hotmail and
Thus users can access data through their mobile devices. Yahoo! Mail are forms of
SaaS.
• Outlook, Hotmail or Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.
Which of the statements given
• Benefits: SaaS has many business applications-> file
above are correct?
sharing, email, calendars, customer retention management,
(a) 1 and 2 only
and human resources. SaaS allows users to access the
software through a web browser from multiple locations. (b) 2 and 3 only
• Major disadvantages -> security risks, slower speed, lack (c) 1 and 3 only
of control and lack of customization. (d) 1, 2 and 3
10. Quantum Supremacy 6. Which one of the following is the
Page. 27
• It was coined in the year 2011 by John Preskill, Professor context in which the term “qubit”
of Theoretical Physics at the California Institute of is mentioned?
Technology. (a) Cloud Services
• Quantum supremacy refers to a problem-solving process (b) Quantum Computing
by the quantum computer that cannot be solved by a (c) Visible Light
classical computer in its normal lifetime. Communication
• Quantum computation uses quantum bits (qubits). Technologies
• Quantum bit (Qubit): A quantum bit (qubit) is the (d) Wireless Communication
smallest unit of quantum information, which is the Technologies
quantum analog of the regular computer bit, used in the
field of quantum computing. Superposition means that
each qubit can represent both a ‘1’ and a ‘0’ at the same
time. [UPSC 2022]
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11. Visible Light Communication technology
• It is a data communications variant which uses visible
light between 400 and 800 THz (780–375 nm).
l.c
• VLC is a subset of optical wireless communications
technologies which is a short-range communication.
ai
• The technology uses fluorescent lamps to transmit signals
at 10 kbit/s, or LEDs for up to 500 Mbit/s over short
m
distances.
• It is a preferred communication technique because of its
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high bandwidth and immunity to interference from

electromagnetic sources.
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• It can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth

and has no electromagnetic interference.
a2
12. Cloud Services: It is the delivery of computing services

including servers, storage, databases, networking, software,
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analytics, and intelligence over the Internet (“the cloud”) to

offer faster innovation, flexible resources, and economies of
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scale.
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13. Wireless communication technologies
Page. 28
14. Short range communication devices/technologies 7. Consider the following

• Short Range Devices (SRD) are radio devices that offer a communication technologies:
low risk of interference with other radio services, usually 1. Closed-circuit Television
because their transmitted power, and their range is low. 2. Radio Frequency
• Examples: Access control (including door and gate Identification
openers); Alarms and movement detectors; CCTVs; 3. Wireless Local Area
Cordless audio devices, including wireless microphones; Network
Local Area Networks; Metering devices; Remote control; Which of the above are considered
Radio frequency identification (RFID); Road Transport of the Short-Range devices/
Telematics and Telemetry. [UPSC 2022] technologies?
(a) 1 and 2 only.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15. Sodium lamps: High-pressure sodium (HPS) lamps are part 8. With reference to street lighting,
of the family of high intensity light bulbs that put out large how do sodium lamps differ from
amounts of light generally needed for street lighting and LED lamps?
security lighting. The combination of metals and gasses within 1. Sodium lamps produce light
inside the glass tube produces an orange-white light at 360 degrees but it is not so
commonly found in street lights. High pressure sodium lights in the case of LED lamps.
contain a small amount of toxic mercury-> hazardous material 2. As street lights, sodium
that can present a waste disposal issue at the end of light’s life. lamps have a longer life span
They produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of than LED lamps.
LED lamps. Sodium vapor lights are omnidirectional -> 3. The spectrum of visible light
Omnidirectional lights produce light in 360 degrees. Whereas, from sodium lamps is almost
LEDs are extremely energy efficient and have 180-degree bulb monochromatic while LED
angle to preserve light efficiency and allow for target lighting lamps offer significant colour
over areas. Sodium lamps have on an average shorter lifespan advantages in street lighting.
than LED lamps. High Pressure Sodium lamps tend to have a
lifespan averaging 24,000 hours. Whereas, new LEDs can last
the code given below.
50,000 to 100,000 hours or more The spectrum of visible light
Page. 29
from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic (yellow-orange). (a) 3 only
Whereas, LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in (b) 2 only
street-lighting. Whereas LEDs offer variety of colour options (c) 1 and 3 only
providing better lighting solutions and a very broad spectrum (d) 1, 2 and 3
of color rendering index (CRI) is available with LEDs ranging
generally from 65 -95. [UPSC 2021]
16. Differences between Sodium vapor bulbs and LEDs:
Sodium vapor bulbs contain metals that are evaporated into
inert gas within the glass casing while LEDs are a solid state
technology. Both LEDs and sodium vapor lights emit
electromagnetic radiation across a small portion of the visible
light spectrum, however, LEDs waste much less energy
producing waste heat and they also provide an incredibly
better variety of high color rendering index options to the user.
17. LEDs: LEDs are extremely energy efficient relative to every
other commercially available lighting technology. Reasons:
They waste very little energy in the form of infrared radiation,
and they emit light directionally (over 180 degrees versus 360
degrees which means there are far fewer losses from the need
to redirect or reflect light) + Advantages include very high
light quality and very low maintenance costs and hassle. The
up-front costs of an LED lighting project are typically greater
than most of the alternatives.
18. Visible Light Communication technology: It is a data 10. With reference to visible light
communications variant which uses visible light between 400 communication (VLC)
and 800 THz (780–375 nm). VLC is a subset of optical technology, which of the
wireless communications technologies which is a short-range following statements are correct?
communication + The technology uses fluorescent lamps to 1. VLC uses electromagnetic
transmit signals at 10 kbit/s, or LEDs for up to 500 Mbit/s spectrum wavelengths 375 to
over short distances + It is a preferred communication 780nm
technique because of its high bandwidth and immunity to 2. VLC is known as long-range
interference from electromagnetic sources + It can transmit optical wireless
large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth and has no communication
electromagnetic interference. [UPSC 2020] 3. VLC can transmit large
Issue LiFi VLC amounts of data faster than
Standardization IEEE 802.15.11 LC SG Matured (IEEE Bluetooth
802.15.7-2011)
4. VLC has no electromagnetic
Transmitter LED/LD LED/LD
interference
Receiver PD PD/camera
Communication 10 m 20 m
distance
the code given below
Interference level Low Low (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Noise Sun plus ambient light Sun plus ambient (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
sources. light sources. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Data rate 10 Gbps with LED and 10 Gbps with LED (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
100 Gbps with Laser and 100 Gbps with
Diode (LD). LD.
Security High High
Spectrum IR/VL/UV VL
Environmental Indoor:No Outdoor: Yes. Indoor:No Outdoor:
effect Yes.
Page. 30
Path loss Medium (very high for Medium (very high
NLOS) for NLOS)
Main purpose Illumination and Communication,
Communication. illumination, and
localization.
Main limitations Short distance com- Short distance
munication and not communication, no
suitable in outdoor. guaranteed of
mobility support,
and not suitable in
outdoor.
19. Public Key Infrastructure: It is a technology for 11. In India, the term “Public Key
authenticating devices and users in the digital world + The Infrastructure” is used in the
basic idea is to have one or more trusted parties digitally sign context of
documents certifying that a particular cryptographic key (a) Digital security
om
belongs to a particular user or device + The users can infrastructure
exchange data or money in a secured way through the Internet (b) Food security infrastructure
by using a pair of cryptographic keys + PKI govern encryption (c) Health care and education
l.c
keys through the issuance of digital certificates and their infrastructure
management therefore verifying the owner of the private key +
(d) Telecommunication and
The Reserve Bank of India has been promoting Public Key
ai transportation infrastructure
Infrastructure (PKI)-based mode of transactions + SSL
m
certificates on websites are one of the most common examples
of PKI. [UPSC 2020]
3g
02
a2
kl
hu
tis
20. Drones: A drone, also known as an unmanned aerial vehicle 12. Consider the following activities:
or UAV, is basically a flying robot that can be controlled 1. Spraying pesticides on a crop
h
remotely or it may have the technology to fly on its own field

us
using software-controlled flight plans which are embedded 2. Inspecting the craters of
in their systems. active volcanoes
• Applications of Drones: Spraying pesticides on crop
Sr
3. Collecting breath samples

field, Used to collect whale mucus from humpback from spouting whales for
whales at sea in a technique which help monitor the DNA analysis
health of whales and DNA analysis, Inspection of the At the present level of
craters of an active volcano, Mapping of Landslide technology, which of the above
Affected Area, Infested Crop Damage Assessment, 3- activities can be successfully
Dimensioinal Terrain Model Construction, Aerial carried out by using drones ?
photography for journalism and film, Gathering (a) 1 and 2 only
information or supplying essentials for disaster
(b) 2 and 3 only
management, Precision crop monitoring, Unmanned
cargo transport, Law enforcement and border control (c) 1 and 3 only
surveillance, Storm tracking and forecasting hurricanes (d) 1, 2 and 3
Page. 31
and tornadoes. [UPSC 2020]
21. LTE Vs VoLTE [UPSC 2019] 14. With reference to communication
• VoLTE: It is a technology update to the LTE protocol technologies, what is/are the
used by mobile phone networks. It allows voice calls to be difference/differences between
‘packaged’ and carried through LTE networks -> This LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and
would mean 4G data accessibility even during calls. VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term
• LTE: Infrastructure of telecom players only allows Evolution)?
transmission of data while voice calls are routed to their 1. LTE is commonly marketed
older 2G or 3G networks. LTE is commonly marketed as as 3G and VoLTE is
4G LTE. commonly marketed as
advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology
and VoLTE is voice-only
technology.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. Augmented Reality Vs Virtual Reality [UPSC 2019] 15. In The context of digital
technologies for entertainment,
consider the following statements
1. In Augmented Reality (AR),
a simulated environment is
created and the physical
world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR),
images generated from the
computer are projected onto
real life objects or
surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be
present in the world and
improves the experience
using the camera of a smart-
phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and
transposes an individual,
providing a complete
immersion experience.
above is/are correct?
Page. 32
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
23. Digital Signature [UPSC 2019] 16. Consider the following
• It is a type of electronic signature which ensures that an statements about a digital
electronic document is authentic. signature:
• It gives the information about the creator of the document 1. An electronic record that
and ensures that the document has not been altered or identifies the certifying
tampered after its creation by that person. authority issuing it.
• Digital Signatures provide Authentication, Privacy, 2. Used to serve as a proof of
Non repudiation and Integrity in the virtual world. identity of an individual to
access information of server
• IT Act 2000 in India gives legal validity to electronic
on the Internet.
transactions that are digitally signed.
3. an electronic method of
• Applications: Secure messaging, online banking
signing an electronic
applications, online workflow applications, e-
document and ensuring that
tendering, supply chain management etc. the original content is
unchanged.
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Page. 33
24. Wearable Devices: Wearable technology is a category of 17. In the context of wearable
electronic devices that can be worn as accessories, embedded technology, which of the
in clothing, implanted in the user's body, or even tattooed on following tasks is/are
the skin + Apart from commercial uses, wearable technology accomplished by wearable
is being incorporated into navigation systems, advanced devices?
textiles, and healthcare. [UPSC 2019] 1. Location identification of a
person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing
impaired person
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
om
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
l.c
ai
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02
a2
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hu
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25. Broader Gateway Protocol 18. When the alarm of your

• It is a standardized exterior gateway protocol designed to smartphone rings in the morning,
us
exchange routing and reachability information between you wake up and tap it to stop the
autonomous systems (AS) on the Internet. alarm which causes your geyser
Sr
• It is classified as a path-vector routing protocol, and it to be switched on automatically.

makes routing decisions based on paths, network policies, The smart min-or in your
or rule-sets configured by a network administrator. bathroom shows the day’s
weather and also indicates the
• BGP used for routing within an autonomous system is
level of water in your overhead
called Interior Border Gateway Protocol, Internal BGP;
tank. After you take some
Internet application of the protocol is called Exterior
groceries from your refrigerator
Border Gateway Protocol, External BGP (eBGP).
for making breakfast, it
26. Internet Protocol: It specifies the technical format of packets recognises the shortage of stock
and the addressing scheme for computers to communicate over in it and places an order for the
a network. supply of fresh grocery items.
When you step out of your house
Page. 34
and lock the door, all lights, fans,
geysers and AC machines get
switched off automatically. On
your way to office, your car
warns you about traffic
congestion ahead and suggests an
alternative route, and if you are
late for a meeting, it sends a-
message to your office
accordingly.
In the context of emerging
communication technologies,
which one of the following terms
best applies to the above
scenario?
27. Virtual Private Network (a) Border Gateway Protocol
• It is an internet tool that masks a person’s actual Internet (b) Internet of Things
Protocol (IP) address, so the online actions are virtually (c) Internet Protocol
untraceable. (d) Virtual Private Network
• It provides online privacy and anonymity by creating a
private network from a public internet connection.
• Establish secure and encrypted connections to provide
greater privacy than even a secured Wi-Fi hotspot.
• A parliamentary standing committee on Home Affairs has
urged the central government to block Virtual Private
Networks (VPNs) in India.
• Protocols of VPN: IPsec (IP security), PPTP (Point to
Point Tunneling Protocol), L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling
Protocol), SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) and TLS
(Transport Layer Security)
28. Internet of Things (IOT) [UPSC 2018]

• It is an integrated system in which devices are connected
in a network of information in such a way that they can
communicate with each other without any human
intervention.
• It requires data to work -> data is turned into meaningful
information for processing.
• Used to create smart infrastructure in Power, Automotive,
Safety & Surveillance, Remote Health Management,
Page. 35
Agriculture etc. using connected devices.
• “Code of Practice for Securing Consumer Internet of
Things(IoT)” report is released by Department of
Telecommunications, Ministry of Communications.
29. GPS Technology [UPSC 2018] 19. In which of the following areas
• It is a satellite navigation system, used to determine the can GPS technology be used?
ground position of an object. It is a U.S.-owned utility that 1. Mobile phone operations
provides users with positioning, navigation, and timing 2. Banking operations
(PNT) services. 3. Controlling the power grids
• It is a network 24 satellite which provides service to Select the correct answer using
civilian and military users. the code given below:
• The civilian service is freely available to all users on a (a) 1 only
continuous, worldwide basis. (b) 2 and 3 only
• GPS satellite orbits are nearly circular (an elliptical shape (c) 1 and 3 only
with a maximum eccentricity is about 0.01), with an (d) 1, 2 and 3
inclination of about 55° to the equator.
Page. 36
om
l.c
ai
m
3g
02
a2
30. 3D Printing/Additive Manufacturing [UPSC 2018] 20. “3D printing” has applications in
• It is a process of making three dimensional solid objects which of the following?
kl
from a digital file which is achieved by laying down 1. Preparation of confectionery

hu
successive layers of material until the object is created. items

• 3-D printed food restaurant was set up in Netherlands. 2. Manufacture of bionic ears
tis
• In USA, 3D printed bionic ear was generated via 3D 3. Automotive industry

printing of a cell-seeded hydrogel matrix in the anatomic 4. Reconstructive surgeries
h
geometry of a human ear. 5. Data processing technologies

us
• Industrial 3D printers have opened new paths at each stage Select the correct answer using
of production of motor vehicles -> functional prototyping the code given below :
Sr
phases, design, and tooling production to parts (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

manufacturing. (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
• Also used in reconstructive surgery to help repair (c) 1 and 4 only
damaged tissue for example in cases of birth defects or (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
traumatic injuries to severe burns or disease.
• Process of 3D Printing
Page. 37
31. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) [UPSC 2017] 21. Organic Light Emitting Diodes
• A major advantage of OLED over LCD is that it is (OLEDs) are used to create
lightweight and has flexible plastic substrates. digital displays in many devices.
• Flexible Organic Light Emitting Diodes (FOLED) What are the advantages of
fabricated on flexible plastic substates can be bent or OLED displays over Liquid
rolled while operating. Crystal displays?
• OLEDs can be printed onto almost any substrate with 1. OLED displays can be
inkjet printer technology. fabricated on flexible plastic
substrates.
• OLED has no backlighting function -> can be used for
2. Roll-up displays embedded
making transparent displays.
in clothing can be made
• If a substrate like polyethylene terephthalate (PET) can be using OLEDs.
used, the displays may be produced inexpensively.
3. Transparent displays are
possible using OLEDs.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above statement
is correct
Page. 38
32. Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology [UPSC 25. With reference to ‘Near Field
2015] Communication (NFC)
• Near field communication (NFC) is the set of protocols Technology’, which of the
that enables electronic devices to establish radio following statements is/are
communication with each other by touching the devices correct?
together or bringing them into proximity to a distance of 1. It is a contactless
typically 10cm or less. communication technology
that uses electromagnetic
radio fields
2. NFC is designed for use by
devices which can be at a
distance of even a metre from
each other
3. NFC can use encryption
when sending sensitive
information.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Page. 39
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
33. Biometrics [UPSC 2014] 26. In addition to fingerprint
om
• Biometrics are physical or biological characteristics that scanning, which of the following
identify a specific human being. can be used in the biometric
• Examples include fingerprints, face and voice recognition, identification of a person?
l.c
and retina scans. These biometric identifiers are replacing 1. Iris scanning
the need for passwords in many digital capacities.ai 2. Retinal scanning
3. Voice recognition
m
3g
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
02
(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
a2
34. Working of LiFi [UPSC 2016] 23. With reference to ‘Li-Fi’,

recently in the news, which of the
kl
following statements is/are

correct?
hu
1. It uses light as the medium

for high-speed data
tis
transmission.
2. It is a wireless technology
h
and is several times faster

us
than ‘WiFi’.
Sr

(a) 1 only
Features Li Fi WiFi (b) 2 only
Full name Light Fidelity IEEE (Institute of (c) Both 1 and 2
Electrical and
Electronic (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Engineering)
802.llx
Work of Transmission of data Transmission of
operation using light via LED bulbs data using radio
waves via Wi Fi
router
Technology Present IrDA (Infrared WLAN (Wireless
Data Association) Local Area
Page. 40
compliant devices Network)
802.a/b/g/n/ac/ad
standard compliant
devices
Practical Underwater Security, Hospital,
Applications communications, Vehicles, Industrial
Security, Hospital, automation,
Industrial automation, Military, Retail,
Airplanes, Military, Museums, Trains,
Retail, Museums, Trains, GPS, Augmented
Car to Car Reality, Virtual
communications, GPS, Reality
Augmented Reality,
Virtual Reality
Interference No interference issues Interference issues
from nearby access
points
Transmission Light cannot go through RF can go through
Security walls and therefore will walls and therefore
provide a more secure need to employ
data transfer techniques for
secure data transfer
Data Transfer Can reach transfer speed 150Mpbs with
Speed between IGpbs to 20Gpbs WLAN lln, lGbps
to 2Gpbs with
WiGig/Giga-IR
Frequency of 10,000 times frequency 2.4GHz, 4.9GHz
operation spectrum of radio waves and 5GHz
Data Density Work in High dense Work in Less dense
environments environments
Distance 10 meters Can reach 32
coverage meters
System Lamp driver, LED bulb Installation of
components and photo detector routers
35. Bitcoins [UPSC 2016] 24. With reference to ‘Bitcoins’,
• It is a form of digital currency or virtual currency created sometimes seen in the news,
and held electronically; not regulated by any central bank which of the following
or government. statements is/are correct?
• It is decentralized and uses cryptography to prevent 1. Bitcoins are tracked by the
double-spending. Central Banks of the
• Bitcoin is a distributed peer-to-peer digital currency which countries.
functions without inter-mediation of any central authority. 2. Anyone with a Bitcoin
address can send and receive
• It can be traded on an open market and its exchange rate
Bitcoins from anyone else
fluctuates much like a stock market.
with a Bitcoin address.
3. Online payments can be sent
without either side knowing
the identity of the other.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Page. 41
9. With reference to the Blockchain

Technology, consider the
following statements:
1. It is a public ledger that
everyone can inspect, which no
single user controls
2. The structure and design of
blockchain is such that all the
data in it are about
cryptocurrency only
3. Applications that depend on the
basic features of blockchain can
36. Blockchain technology: It is a decentralized, distributed, and be developed without
oftentimes public, digital ledger consisting of records called anybody’s permission
blocks that is used to record transactions across many Which of the statements given
computers so that any involved block cannot be altered above is/are correct?
retroactively, without the alteration of all subsequent blocks + (a) 1 only
It allows the participants to verify and audit transactions (b) 1 and 2 only
independently + It is open, permissionless, or public->
(c) 2 only
applications can be added to the network without the approval
(d) 1 and 3 only
or trust of others, using the blockchain as a transport layer.
[UPSC 2020]
37. CERT: Indian Computer Emergency Response Team shall 22. In India, it is legally mandatory
serve as the national agency for performing the following for which of the following to
functions in the area of cyber security – [UPSC 2017] report on cyber security
• collection, analysis and dissemination of information on incidents?
cyber incidents. 1. Service providers
• forecast and alerts of cyber security incidents; 2. Data centres
• emergency measures for handling cyber security incidents; 3. Body corporate
• coordination of cyber incidents response activities; Select the correct answer using
• issue guidelines, advisories, vulnerability notes and white the code given below:
papers relating to information security practices, (a) 1 only
procedures, prevention, response and reporting of cyber (b) 1 and 2 only
incidents; (c) 3 only
• such other functions relating to cyber security as may be (d) 1, 2 and 3
prescribed.
• The CERT Rules impose an obligation on service
providers, intermediaries, data centres and body
corporates to report cyber incidents within a reasonable
time so that CERT-In may have scope for timely action;
failing to provide shall be punishable with imprisonment
for a term which may extend to one year or with fine
which may extend to one lakh rupees or with both.
38. Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) [UPSC 2022] 2. With reference to Non-Fungible
• Non–fungible tokens (NFTs) are cryptographic assets on a Tokens (NFTs), consider the
blockchain with unique identification codes and metadata that following statements:
distinguish them from each other. 1. They enable the digital
• It is a unique digital asset that represents ownership of real- representation of physical
Page. 42
world items like art, video clips, music, and more. assets.
• Anything that can be converted into a digital form can be 2. They are unique
an NFT. Everything from your drawings, photos, videos, cryptographic tokens that
GIF, music, in-game items, selfies, and even a tweet can exist on a blockchain.
be turned into an NFT, which can then be traded online 3. They can be traded or
using cryptocurrency. exchanged at equivalency
• Unlike cryptocurrencies, they cannot be traded or and therefore can be used as
exchanged at equivalency. a medium transactions. of
commercial
above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only.
om
(d) 1, 2 and 3
l.c
ai
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02
a2
kl
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us
Sr
Page. 43
CHAPTER 4: BIOTECHNOLOGY
1. Biofilters [UPSC 2023] 1. With reference to the role of biofilters
• Biofilters are a key component in the filtration in Recirculating Aquaculture System,
portion of a recirculating aquaculture system (RAS). consider the following statements:
They house the nitrifying bacteria and are the 1. Biofilters provide waste treatment
primary site where biological nitrification occurs by removing uneaten fish feed.
• They use microorganisms, which are capable of 2. Biofilters convert ammonia present
degrading many compounds, fixed to an in fish waste to nitrate.
inorganic/organic medium (carrier) to break down 3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as a
pollutants present in a fluid stream. They also nutrient for fish in water.
provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish How many of the statements given
feed. above are correct?
• A properly designed biofilter will keep ammonia (a) Only one
and nitrite concentrations at levels that are not (b) Only two
harmful to the fish. Biofilters convert ammonia (c) All three
nitrogen to nitrite nitrogen and then to the less toxic (d) None
nitrate nitrogen for the fish.
• The biofilter system reduces the concentration of
nitrite, nitrate, phosphorus, and ammonium ions
from the synthetic water.
2. Aerial Metagenomics 2. ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to

• Aerial metagenomics typically refers to the study of which one of the following situations?
genetic material collected from the air, usually in (a) Collecting DNA samples from
the form of airborne particles or aerosols. air in a habitat at one go
• It involves analysing the microbial communities (b) Understanding the genetic makeup
present in the air and characterising their genetic of avian species of a habitat
diversity. [UPSC 2023] (c) Using air-bome devices to collect
blood samples from moving
animals
(d) Sending drones to inaccessible
areas to collect plant and animal
samples from land surfaces and
water bodies
Page. 44
3. Microsatellite DNA 3. ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the
• Microsatellite, as related to genomics, refers to a case of which one of the following?
short segment of DNA, usually one to six or (a) Studying the evolutionary
more base pairs in length, that is repeated relationships among various
multiple times in succession at a particular species of fauna
genomic location. (b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to
• These DNA sequences are typically non-coding. transform into diverse functional
The number of repeated segments within a tissues
microsatellite sequence often varies among (c) Promoting clonal propagation of
people, which makes them useful as polymorphic horticultural plants
markers for studying inheritance patterns in (d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by
families or for creating a DNA fingerprint from conducting series of drug trials in a
crime scene samples. population
• They are useful in providing valuable insights into
disease prevalence, the discovery of new genes
related to rare diseases, improved diagnostic
methods, and the development of novel drugs for
these diseases.
• Researchers can analyse the genetic structure,
population dynamics, and evolutionary
relationships among various species of animals
by analysing microsatellite DNA. [UPSC 2023]
4. Gene Editing: 9. Consider the following statements :
Also called Genome editing, or genome engineering, it 1. Genetic changes can be introduced
is a type of genetic engineering in which DNA is in the cells that produce eggs or
inserted, deleted, modified or replaced in the genome of sperms of a prospective parent.
a living organism + Technologies used in Gene Editing 2. A person’s genome can be edited
are: Clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic before birth at the early embryonic
repeats (CRISPR)- associated protein 9 (Cas9), stage.
Transcription activator-like effector nucleases 3. Human induced pluripotent stem
(TALENs), Zinc-finger nucleases (ZFNs) and Homing cells can be injected into the
endonucleases + Significance of Gene editing: embryo of a pig.
Exploration in research of single-gene disorders such Which of the statements given above
as cystic fibrosis, haemophilia, and sickle cell disease + is/are correct ?
It can also be used for increasing yield, introducing
(a) 1 only
resistance to disease and pests, tolerance of different
(b) 2 and 3 only
environmental conditions + It is also beneficial for
pharmaceutical development, xenotransplantation, gene (c) 2 only
and cell-based therapies + Germline gene therapy is (d) 1, 2 and 3
when DNA is transferred into the cells that produce
reproductive cells, eggs or sperm, in the body + Genome
of a person can be edited before birth at the early
embryonic stage + Researchers have experimented by
injecting several different forms of human stem cells
into pig embryos to see which cell -type would survive
best. The cells that survived longest and showed the
most potential to continue to develop were intermediate
human pluripotent stem cells. [UPSC 2020]
Page. 45
5. Recombinant Vector vaccines [UPSC 2021] 5. With reference to recent developments
• Genetic Engineering is applied in the development of regarding ‘Recombinant vector
Recombinant vector vaccines. The techniques of Vaccines’, consider the following
genetic engineering used include creation of statements:
recombinant DNA, use of gene cloning and gene 1. Genetic engineering is applied in
transfer. the development of these vaccines.
• Recombinant vaccines are made of a viral or 2. Bacteria and viruses are used as
bacterial vector. They are used as channels for entry vectors.
into host organisms. Which of the statements given above
• These vaccines are similar to DNA vaccines except the is/are correct?
weakened or attenuated germ is used to carry DNA to (a) 1 only
the cells to stimulate immunity. Similar to live, (b) 2 only
attenuated vaccines, recombinant vector vaccines are (c) Both 1 and 2
similar to the actual disease. Currently, scientists are
om
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
working on HIV, rabies, and measles vaccines using this
technology.
6. Different Types of Vaccines
l.c
Live, attenuated vaccines • The whole germ is
attenuated (weakened) so ai
that it cannot cause
m
disease, but can cause an
immune response. Since
3g
these types of vaccines are

most similar to the actual
disease, they are more
02
effective and often only

require one or two doses
for lifetime immunity.
a2
• They should not be given

to individuals with
kl
weakened or damaged
immune systems.
hu
Examples include MMR

vaccine.
tis
Inactivated vaccines • The whole germ is killed

using heat or chemicals.
h
The immune system

response is not as strong as
us
with live attenuated

vaccines, therefore several
Sr
doses and boosters may be

required to achieve
immunity.
• An inactivated vaccine
cannot cause disease and is
generally safe for those
with weakened or damaged
immune systems.
DNA vaccines • It involves the direct
introduction into
appropriate tissues of a
plasmid containing the
DNA sequence encoding
Page. 46
the antigen(s) against
which an immune response
is sought, and relies on the
in situ production of the
target antigen.
• Advantages include
improved vaccine stability,
the absence of any
infectious agent and the
relative ease of large-scale
manufacture.
mRNA vaccines • They carry the molecular
information to make the
protein in the host using the
synthetic RNA of the virus.
The host body produces the
viral protein that is
recognised by the immune
system, thereby enabling the
body to fight against the
disease.
• These are considered safe
as mRNA is non-
infectious, non-integrating
in nature, and degraded by
standard cellular
mechanisms.
• They are highly efficacious
because of their inherent
capability of being translated
into proteins in the cell.
• Promising alternative to
conventional vaccine
approaches because of
their high potency,
capacity for rapid
development, and potential
for low-cost manufacture
and safe administration.
• mRNA vaccines have
elicited potent immunity
against infectious disease
targets in animal models of
influenza virus, Zika virus,
rabies virus and others.
7. DNA Barcoding [UPSC 2022] 4. Consider the following statements:
• It is a system for fast and accurate species DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:
identification that makes the ecological systems 1. assess the age of a plant or animal.
more accessible by using short DNA sequences 2. distinguish among species that
instead of whole-genome and is used for eukaryotes. look alike.
• DNA barcodes allow non-experts to objectively 3. identify undesirable animal or
identify species – even from small, damaged, or plant materials in processed foods.
industrially processed material. Which of the statements given above
Page. 47
• DNA barcoding helps to identify undesirable animal is/are correct?
or plant materials in processed foods. (a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
8. Bollgard I and Bollgard II: Bollgard I Bt cotton 6. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies
(single-gene technology) is India’s first biotech crop are mentioned in the context of
technology approved for commercialization in India in (a) Clonal propagation of crop plants
2002, followed by Bollgard II – double-gene technology (b) Developing genetically modified
in mid-2006, by the Genetic Engineering Approval crop plants
Committee (GEAC). [UPSC 2021] (c) Production of plant growth
9. Bollgard II technology: It contains a superior double- substances
gene technology - Cry1Ac and Cry 2Ab which provides (d) Production of biofertilizers
protection against bollworms and Spodoptera caterpillar,
leading to better boll retention, maximum yield, lower
pesticides costs, and protection against insect resistance.
10. Clonal propagation of crop plants: Production of
genetically identical copies of a plant without
interference of sex organ is called Clonal Propagation.
The most widely used ‘in vivo’ methods of cloning
agricultural crops include cuttings of vegetative parts,
layering, grafting and budding.
11. Plant Harmones: Auxin is a group of plant hormones
that induce plant growth, phototropic response through
the stimulation of cell elongation (photopropism),
stimulation of secondary growth and the development of
leaf traces and fruit + Gibberellins include a large range
of chemicals that are produced naturally within plants
and by fungi; important in seed germination, affecting
enzyme production that mobilizes food production used
for growth of new cells.
12. Pro nuclear transfer technology: Pronucleus is the 7. In the context of recent advances in
nucleus of a sperm or an egg cell during the process of human reproductive technology,
fertilization + Pro nuclear transfer technology involves ‘Pronuclear Transfer” is used for
the transfer of pronuclei from one zygote to another + (a) Fertilization of egg in vitro by the
Under this technique, first the healthy donated egg/s donor sperm
(provided by the mitochondrial donor) is fertilised with (b) Genetic modification of sperm
the intending male parent sperm + It can prevent producing cells
mitochondrial disease in the offspring as Mitochondrial (c) Development of stem cells into
DNA is transmitted maternally. [UPSC 2020] functional embryos
(d) Prevention of mitochondrial
diseases in offspring
13. RNA interference (RNAi) technology [UPSC 2019] 10. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’
• RNAi is a gene silencing technology that inhibits technology has gained popularity in
protein synthesis in target cells using double- the last few years.why?
stranded RNA. 1. It is used in developing gene
• It is a biological process in which RNA molecules silencing therapies.
inhibit gene expression or translation. 2. It can be used in developing
Page. 48
• It functions specifically to silence, or deactivate, therapies for the treatment of
genes. cancer.
• It is being explored as a form of treatment for a 3. It can be used to develop hormone
variety of diseases, including macular degeneration, replacement therapies.
hepatitis, AIDS, Huntington disease, and cancer. 4. It can be used to produce crop
• It is used as a natural defense mechanism against plants that are resistant to virtual
molecular parasites such as jumping genes and viral pathogens.
genetic elements. Select the correct answer using the
• It led to invention of novel crops such as nicotine- code given below.
free tobacco, decaffeinated coffee, nutrient fortified (a) 1, 2 and 4
vegetation, and hypoallergenic crops. (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4 only
om
l.c
ai
m
3g
02
a2
14. Anti-Microbial resistance [UPSC 2019] 11. Which of the following are the reasons
• It is the resistance acquired by any microorganism for the occurrence of multi-drug
kl
(bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasite, etc.) against resistance in microbial pathogens in

antimicrobial drugs (such as antibiotics, antifungals, India?
hu
antivirals, antimalarials, and anthelmintics) which 1. Genetic predisposition of some

are used to treat infections. people.
tis
• AMR is regarded as a major threat to public health 2. Taking incorrect doses of

across the globe. antibiotics to cure diseases.
h
• It can lead to a situation where advanced techniques 3. Using antibiotics in livestock

us
and procedures in the field of surgery and medicine farming.

become redundant and ineffective. 4. Multiple chronic diseases in some
Sr
• WHO has declared that AMR is one of the top 10 people.

global public health threats facing humanity. Select the correct answer using the
• Reasons for AMR: Misuse of antimicrobials in code given below.
medicine due to self-medication, using antibiotics in (a) 1 and 2
livestock farming, multiple chronic diseases, (b) 2 and 3 only
contamination around pharmaceutical (c) 1, 3 and 4
manufacturing sites and inadequate wastewater (d) 2, 3 and 4
treatment facilities, easy availability of
antimicrobials as ‘over the counter drugs’.
Page. 49
15. GM Mustard DMH-11 [UPSC 2018] 12. With reference to the Genetically
• DMH (Dhara Mustard Hybrid)-11 is genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard)
modified variety of mustard developed by Centre developed in India, consider the
for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants at Delhi following statements : (Pre18 Set-D)
University. It was part-funded by Department of 1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil
Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and bacterium that give the plant the
Technology. property of pest-resistance to a
• It is Herbicide Tolerant (HT) crop. wide variety of pests.
• It is developed by using three genes viz., barnase, 2. GM mustard has the genes that
barstar and bar from Bacillus amyloliquefaciens; allow the plant cross-pollination
Barnase and Barstar allow for cross-pollination and and hybridization.
hybridization in mustard, which is largely a self- 3. GM mustard has been developed
pollinating plant because of its individual flowers jointly by the IARI and Punjab
containing both female and male reproductive Agricultural University.
organs. Which of the statements given above
o Barnase-> It confers male sterility to a plant is/are correct ?
in which it is inserted. (a) 1 and 3 only
o Barstar -> restore the fertility to produce (b) 2 only
fertile hybrid plants and seeds. (c) 2 and 3 only
o The third gene bar synthesize an enzyme (d) 1, 2 and 3
called PAT, which is responsible for
Page. 50
tolerance to glufosinate in the plant.
• Advantages
o Local crop developers can easily develop
different varieties of hybrid mustard, like
GM cotton, and confer traits like pest
resistance and potentially improving yield.
o India’s dependence on edible oil
imports makes it necessary to harness GM-
mustard.
16. Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology [UPSC 13. What is the application of Somatic Cell
2017] Nuclear Transfer Technology?
• It involves removing the nucleus, which contains (a) Production of biolarvicides
the DNA, and implanting it into an unfertilised egg, (b) Manufacture of biodegradable
whose nucleus has been removed. It is used in plastics
reproductive cloning of organisms. (c) Reproductive cloning of animals
• It was used for the first time by Ian Wilmut and his (d) Production of organisms free of
colleagues at Roslin institute for cloning the sheep diseases
“Dolly” (first mammal to be cloned).
17. Genome Sequencing [UPSC 2017] 14. With reference to agriculture in India,
• Genome sequencing is figuring out the order of how can the technique of `genome
DNA nucleotides, or bases, in a genome - the order sequencing’, often seen in the news, be
of Adenine, Cytosine, Guanines, and Thymine that used in the immediate future?
make up an organism's DNA. 1. Genome sequencing can be used to
• Genome sequencing of wild varieties of plants can identify genetic markers for
be used to identify disease resistance and drought disease resistance and drought
tolerance genes in various plants and develop new tolerance in various crop plants.
varieties of crop plants in lesser time. 2. This technique helps in reducing
• Genome sequencing of cop plants can be helpful in the time required to develop new
deciphering and understanding the host-pathogen varieties of crop plants.
Page. 51
realationship in crops. 3. It can be used to decipher the host-
pathogen relationships in crops.
code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
om
l.c
18. Transcriptome [UPSC 2016] 15. In the context of the developments in
• It is the full range of messenger RNA, or mRNA, ai Bioinformatics, the term
molecules expressed by an organism. ‘transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the
m
• The term “transcriptome” used to describe the array news, refers to
of mRNA transcripts produced in a particular cell or (a) a range of enzymes used in
3g
tissue type. genome editing

• An organism’s transcriptome varies depending on (b) the full range of mRNA
02
many factors, including stage of development and molecules expressed by an

environmental conditions. organism
(c) the description of the mechanism
a2
of gene expression
(d) a mechanism of genetic mutations
kl
taking place in cells

hu
h tis
us
Sr
Page. 52
CHAPTER 5: NANOTECHNOLOGY
1. Nanoparticles 1. Consider the following statements:
• These are a particle of matter that is between 1 1. Other than those made by humans,
and 100 nanometres (nm) in diameter. nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
• Formed through breaking down of larger particles 2. Nanoparticles of some metallic
or by controlled assembly processes. oxides are used in the manufacture of
• Naturally occurring nanoparticles can be found in some cosmetics.
volcanic ash, ocean spray, fine sand and dust, and 3. Nanoparticles of some commercial
even biological matter. products which enter the
• Uses: Manufacture pf scratchproof eyeglasses, environment are unsafe for humans.
crack-resistant paints, transparent sunscreens, Which of the statements given above
self-cleaning windows and ceramic coatings for is/are correct?
solar cells. [UPSC 2022] (a) 1 only
• They can accumulate in environment and (b) 3 only
contaminate water and soil. [UPSC 2014] (c) 1 and 2
• They can enter food chains; reach the blood and (d) 2 and 3
may reach other target sites such as liver, heart
and blood cells. 3. There is some concern regarding the
nanoparticles of some chemical elements
• They can also trigger the production of free
radicals. that are used by the industry in the
manufacture of various products. Why?
• The cosmetics are formulated by using different
1. They can accumulate in the
types of metal and metal oxide nanoparticles such
environment, and contaminate water
as silver nanoparticles (AgNPs), gold
and soil.
nanoparticles (AuNPs) and titanium dioxide
2. They can enter the food chains.
nanoparticles (TiO2 NPs), iron oxide
3. They can trigger the production of
nanoparticles, (Fe2O3 NPs).
free radicals.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Carbon Nanotubes: CNTs are cylindrical molecules 2. With reference to the carbon nanotubes,
which consist of rolled-up sheets of single-layer consider the following statement :
carbon atoms (graphene); they can be single-walled 1. They can be used as the carriers of
(diameter of less than 1nm) or multi-walled, drugs and antigens in the human
consisting of several concentrically interlinked body.
nanotubes, with diameters reaching more than 100 2. They can be made into artificial
nm + They are well-suited for any application blood capillaries for an injured part
requiring high strength, durability, electrical of the human body.
conductivity, thermal conductivity and lightweight 3. They can be used in biochemical
properties compared to conventional materials + sensors.
Applications of Carbon nanotubes include production
4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
of electric wires to reduce losses, replace silicon
Code:
made transistors, carriers of drugs and antigens in
human body, used as additives to synthetics, can be (a) 1 & 2 only
spun into fibres - specialty textiles + NASA has (b) 2, 3 & 4 only
demonstrated the use of carbon nanotube arrays as (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
biosensor + They are biodegradable (Bacteria, fungi (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
and other microbes have ability to degrade carbon
nanotubes (CNTs) and their derivatives). [UPSC
2020]
Page. 53
3. Nanotechnology in Health sector [UPSC 2015] 4. With reference to the use of

nanotechnology in the health sector,
which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. Targeted drug delivery is made
possible by nanotechnology
2. Nanotechnology can largely
contribute to gene therapy
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Page. 54
CHAPTER 6: HEALTH
1. Wolbachia 1. ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked
• Wolbachia are safe, natural bacteria present in up to about with reference to which one of the
60% of insect species, including some mosquitoes. following?
• It is a technique used to control the spread of viral (a) Controlling the viral diseases
diseases transmitted by mosquitoes, such as dengue, spread by mosquitoes
Zika, and chikungunya. (b) Converting crop residues into
• It is a type of bacterium that can be introduced into packing material
mosquitoes to reduce their ability to transmit these (c) Producing biodegradable plastics
diseases. (d) Producing biochar from thermo-
• When mosquitoes carrying Wolbachia mate with chemical conversion of biomass
mosquitoes without Wolbachia, the resulting eggs do
not hatch or produce offspring, thus reducing the
om
population of disease-carrying mosquitoes.
• Wolbachia is safe for humans, animals and the
environment. [UPSC 2023]
l.c
2. Covishield [UPSC 2022] 2. In the context of vaccines manufactured
• It is an Oxford-AstraZeneca Covid-19 vaccine ai to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider
candidate technically referred to as AZD1222 or the following statements:
m
ChAdOx 1 nCoV19. 1. The Serum Institute of India
• It is developed by the University of Oxford in produced COVID-19 vaccine named
3g
collaboration with Swedish-British drugmaker Covishield using mRNA platform.

AstraZeneca; Serum Institute of India (SII) is the 2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured
02
manufacturing partner in India. using vector based platform.

• It is made by weakened version of a common cold 3. COVAXIN is an inactivated
virus or the adenovirus that is found in chimpanzees.
a2
pathogen based vaccine.

3. Sputnik V vaccine [UPSC 2022] Which of the statements given above are
• It is the world's first registered vaccine based on a well- correct?
kl
studied human adenovirus vector platform. The vaccine (a) 1 and 2 only
hu
is named after the first Soviet space satellite.

(b) 2 and 3 only
• The gene from adenovirus, which causes the
(c) 1 and 3 only
infection, is removed while a gene with the code of a
tis
protein from another virus spike is inserted. (d) 1, 2 and 3

• Sputnik V is to be stored at -18°C in its liquid form.
h
However, in its freeze-dried form, it can be stored at

us
2-8°C, in a conventional refrigerator.

4. Covaxin [UPSC 2022]
Sr
• Covaxin is the country’s first indigenous, whole-

virion, inactivated vaccine developed by Bharat
Biotech in collaboration with the Indian Medical
Research Council (ICMR) and the National Institute
of Virology (NIV).
• It is developed with Whole-Virion Inactivated Vero
Cell-derived technology.
• They contain inactivated viruses, which cannot
infect a person but still can teach the immune system
to prepare a defence mechanism against the active
virus.
•
Page. 55
5. ACE 2: Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 is an enzyme 3. The term “ACE2” is talked about in the
attached to the membrane of cells in the intestines, context of
kidney, testis, gallbladder; it has been identified as the (a) genes introduced in the genetically
receptor for the SARS-CoV-2 viral + Research has modified plants
found that human enzyme ACE2 may be offering (b) development of India’s own satellite
protection against COVID-19 + It is of importance in navigation system
protecting against cardiovascular, lung and kidney (c) radio collars for wildlife tracking
diseases + It is linked to X chromosome, thus women
(d) spread of viral diseases
have twice as many active genetic instructions to make
ACE2 + Because of their chromosomes, women (XX
Chromosome) have two copies of the ACE2 gene and
men (XY Chromosome) have only one copy + This
makes female COVID-19 patients face less severe
disease complications and a lower risk of dying than
male patients. [UPSC 2021]
6. Hereditary diseases: Common genetic disorders in 4. In the context of hereditary diseases,
India are Beta-Thalassemia (blood disorder), Cystic consider the following statements:
Fibrosis (damages lungs), Sickle Cell Anaemia (Affects 1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases
RBCs), Spinal Muscular Atrophy (wasting in muscles) from parent to child can be prevented
and Haemophilia. The genetic and congenital disorder is by mitochondrial replacement
the second most common cause of infant and childhood therapy either before or after in vitro
mortality with a prevalence of 25-60 per 1,000 births. fertilization of the egg.
The sperm contains very low number of mitochondria 2. A child inherits mitochondrial
and mitochondrial gene. So, in the offspring the diseases entirely from the mother and
mitochondrial genes are entirely inherited from the not from the father.
mother. [UPSC 2021] Which of the statements given above
is’/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Common cold: Adenoviruses can cause cold-like 5. Consider the following statements:
symptoms, fever, sore throat, bronchitis, pneumonia, 1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded
diarrhea, and pink eye (conjunctivitis) whereas AIDS is DNA genomes whereas retroviruses
caused by retrovirus. [UPSC 2021] have double-stranded DNA genomes.
2. Common cold is sometimes caused
by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is
caused by a retrovirus.
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Page. 56
8. PCV (Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine): It is a 6. What is the importance of using

pneumococcal vaccine which gives prevention against Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in
pneumococcal diseases, caused by bacteria India?
Streptococcus pneumoniae, or pneumococcus + It can 1. These vaccines are effective against
also prevent septicaemia (a kind of blood poisoning) and pneumonia as well as meningitis and
meningitis + They can reduce AMR by preventing sepsis.
(resistant) bacterial diseases and their transmission, and 2. Dependence on antibiotics that are
by reducing antibiotic use and misuse + It can have side not effective against drug-resistant
effects ranging from fever, loss of appetite to headache, bacteria can be reduced.
fussiness + It was introduced in India’s Universal 3. These vaccines have no side effects
Immunisation Programme (UIP) in a phased manner and cause no allergic reactions.
from June 2017 onwards + India’s first fully
indigenously developed pneumococcal conjugate
given below:
vaccine “Pneumosil” was launched in 2020 (Developed
(a) 1 only
by the Serum Institute of India Private Limited (SIIPL)
in collaboration with partners like the Bill and Melinda (b) 1 and 2 only
Gates Foundation) + Advantages of the conjugate (c) 3 only
vaccine include improved immune and memory response (d) 1, 2 and 3
and longer lasting protection. [UPSC 2020]
9. Pneumonia: It is an acute respiratory infection of the
Page. 57
lungs caused by bacteria called Streptococcus
pneumoniae + It doesn’t have one single cause -> can
develop from either bacteria, viruses or fungi in the air +
It can spread through coughing or sneezing + Easily
preventable with vaccines-> three doses of
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) is
recommended to prevent it.
10. Cas9: Cas9 (CRISPR associated protein 9) is a protein 7. What is cas9 protein that is often
which plays a vital role in the immunological defense of mentioned in the news ?
certain bacteria against DNA viruses, and which is (a) A molecular scissors used in
heavily utilized in genetic engineering applications. Its targeted gene editing.
main function is to cut DNA and therefore it can alter a (b) A biosensor used in the accurate
cell’s genome. [UPSC 2019] detection of pathogens in patients.
(c) A gene that makes plants pest-
om
resistant
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in
generally modified crops
l.c
ai
m
3g
02
a2
11. Hepatitis [UPSC 2019] 8. Which of the following statements is not

• It is an inflammatory condition of liver. correct?
• It is commonly caused by viral infections but there
kl
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much

can be other causes too. like HIV.
hu
• Hepatitis A and E are self-limiting diseases (i.e. go (b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C,
away on their own) and require no specific antiviral does not have a vaccine.
tis
medications. (c) Globally, the number of people

• For Hepatitis B and C, effective medications are infected with Hepatitis B and C
h
available. viruses are several times more than

us
12. Hepatitis B [UPSC 2019] those infected with HIV.

• It is a viral infection that attacks the liver and can (d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis
cause both acute and chronic disease.
Sr
B and C viruses do not show the

• It is transmitted through contact with the blood or symptoms for many years.
other body fluids of an infected person.
• Hepatitis B vaccine is a safe and effective vaccine
that is recommended for all infants at birth and for
children up to 18 years. Known as the first “anti-
cancer” vaccine as it prevents hepatitis B, which is
leading cause of liver cancer worldwide.
• It is up to 100 times more infectious than the
HIV/AIDS virus.
• In those people who develop symptoms from acute
infection, the average time from exposure to
Page. 58
symptoms ranges from 2 to 12 weeks.
13. Hepatitis C [UPSC 2019]
• It is an infectious disease caused by blood-borne
virus hepatitis C virus (HCV) that primarily affects
the liver.
• Significant number of people infected with Hepatitis
C develop cirrhosis of liver or liver cancer.
• About 1.2 crore people in India are reported to be
suffering from Hepatitis C— six times the number
of HIV/AIDS patients.
• It can spread through use of injectable drugs, unsafe
health care, unsafe injection practices and
transfusion of unscreened blood and blood products.
(Note: It is not sexually transmitted).
• Most people who are infected with the hepatitis C
virus do not develop symptoms.
14. Spread of Plant Diseases [UPSC 2018] 9. Consider the following:

• Nematodes, snails, birds, and wild and domestic 1. Birds
animals often help dissemination of plant diseases. 2. Dust blowing
• The spores of many parasitic fungi are disseminated 3. Rain
by air currents from diseased to disease-free host 4. Wind blowing.
Pathogens like, bacteria are often disseminated by
Which of the above spread plant
splashing of raindrops, as in case of Citrus canker
diseases? (Pre18 Set-D)
disease.
(a) 1 and 3 only
• Soil and field operation also disseminate the diseases
as they result in dust blowing. (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
15. H1N1 Virus [UPSC 2015] 12. H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in
• It is a highly contagious respiratory disease in the news with reference to which one of
pigs caused by one of several swine influenza A the following diseases?
viruses. (a) AIDS
Page. 59
• Symptoms are cough, fever, soar throat , stuffy or (b) Bird flu
runny nose, headache, body ache etc. (c) Dengue
• Antiviral drugs are the mainstay of clinical treatment (d) Swine flu
of swine influenza and can make the illness milder
and enable the patient to feel better faster.
16. Human Immunodeficiency virus/AIDS

• It targets the immune system and weakens people’s
surveillance and defense systems against infections
and some types of cancers.
• Attacks CD4, a type of White Blood Cell (T cells) in
the body’s immune system; after entering the body,
HIV multiplies itself and destroys CD4 cells, thus
severely damaging the human immune system.
• The most advanced of HIV infection is Acquired
Immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) which can take
from 2-15 years to develop depending on the
individual.
• Transmitted via exchange of body fluids such as
blood, breast milk, semen from the infected
individuals.
• It can be suppressed by combination ART consisting
of 3 or more ARV drugs-> It does not cure HIV
infection but controls viral replication and allow
individual immune system to strengthen and regain
capacity to fight off infection.
17. Influenza/Flu
• It is an acute viral infection of the respiratory
tract considered to be one of the life-threatening
infectious diseases.
• It can be transmitted by direct contact with infected
individuals, via contaminated objects and by
inhalation of virus-laden aerosols.
• Infectivity of influenza virus particles depends on
the pH, temperature and salinity of the water, as well
as the UV irradiation.
• Influenza type A viruses are known to infect people,
Page. 60
birds, pigs, horses, whales, seals and other animals,
but wild birds represent the natural hosts for these
viruses.
• Influenza B viruses are responsible the same
spectrum of disease as influenza A and, influenza B
viruses do not cause pandemics.
• Influenza C viruses cause a mild respiratory illness
and are not thought to cause epidemics.
18. Dengue
• Also known as break bone fever; it is a mosquito
borne tropical disease caused by dengue virus
(flavivirus).
• Dengue hemorrhagic fever is a specific syndrome
which affect children under 10 years of age.
om
• Symptoms include severe joint and muscle pain,
swollen lymph nodes, headache and rash.
• It is contracted by bite of a striped Aedes aeqgypti
l.c
mosquito.
• It cannot spread from person to person directly.ai
• There is no specific medicine or antibiotic to treat
m
dengue.
• Paracetamol is recommended instead of nonsteroidal
3g
anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for fever

reduction and pain relief in dengue due to an
increased risk of bleeding from NSAID use.
02
• It is classified as a neglected tropical disease.

• Insectivorous fishes like Gambusia and Guppies can
a2
check spread of mosquito-borne diseases like

malaria and dengue.
kl
• World Mosquito program has used mosquitoes

infected with wolbachia bacteria to successfully
hu
control dengue.
19. Diptheria: It is a bacterial infection which affects the 13. Consider the following diseases (2014)
tis
respiratory tube + It spreads through person to person 1. Diphtheria

contacts or through objects that have bacteria on them + 2. Chickenpox
h
Bacteria called Corynebacterium diphteriae + Symptoms 3. Smallpox

us
include suffocation, sneeze, cough etc. [UPSC 2014]

Which of the above diseases has/have
20. Chickenpox: This is an infectious disease caused by the been eradicated in India?
Sr
Varicella-zoster virus. It is very contagious and spreads

(a) 1 and 2 only
by inhaling infected droplets + Symptoms include
(b) 3 only
Lesions then blister, fill with pus, itching and fever.
[UPSC 2014] (c) 1, 2 and 3
21. Smallpox: It is a contagious disease, caused by the (d) None
Variola Virus (VARV) + It transmits through the
droplets released from coughing, sneezing, and face to
face contact with an infected person + The first effective
vaccine was discovered by Edward Jenner in 1796 + It
has been eradicated from India. [UPSC 2014]
Page. 61
22. Diseases due to Nutritional Deficiencies [UPSC 2014] 14. Consider the following pairs
Disease Deficiency of Sources Vitamin Deficiency
Rickets Vitamin D Dairy products, fish Disease
and sunlight etc. 1. Vitamin C Scurvy
Pellagra Vitamin B3 Tuna, peanuts, 2. Vitamin D Ricket
mushrooms, chicken 3. Vitamin E Night Blindness
etc. Which of the pairs given above is/are
Scurvy Vitamin C Citrus fruits like correctly matched?
oranges, Broccoli (a) 1 and 2 only
etc.
(b) 3 only
Beri-Beri Vitamin B1 Meat, eggs, dried
or Thiamin beans etc. (c) 1, 2 and 3
Night Blindness Vitamin A Natural food (d) None
(Xerophthalmia) sources like carrots,
green and leafy
vegetables.
Goitre Iodine Iodised salt and
saltwater fish are
rich sources.
Anaemia Iron Squashes, nuts, tofu,
bran etc are the rich
sources of iron for
the body.
Reduced tendon Vitamin E Wheat germ oil is
flexes, the richest source.
cerebrospinal
symptoms
23. Ebola virus[UPSC 2015] 11. Among the following which were
• It is transmitted to people from wild animals and frequently mentioned in the news for the
spreads in the human population through human to outbreak of Ebola virus recently?
human transmission. (a) Syria and Jordan
• It first appeared in 1976 in Nzara, Sudan and (b) Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia
Yambuku, Democratic republic of Congo. (c) Philippines and Papua New Guinea
• The virus family Filoviridae includes the Ebola (d) Jamaica, Haiti and Surinam
genus.
• Fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family are natural
Ebola virus hosts.
• It is introduced into the human population through
close contact with the blood, secretions, organs or
other bodily fluids of infected animals such as fruit
bats, chimpanzees, gorillas, monkeys, forest
antelope or porcupines found ill or dead or in the
rainforest.
• It spreads via direct contact (through broken skin or
mucous membranes) with Blood or body fluids of a
person who is sick with or has died from Ebola.
• Symptoms include Fever, Fatigue, Muscle pain,
Headache, Sore throat, Vomiting, Diarrhoea,
Symptoms of impaired kidney and liver function, in
some cases, both internal and external bleeding.
• Diagnosis methods-> ELISA (antibody-capture
enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) and RT-PCR
Page. 62
assay, etc.
• The Ervebo vaccine has been shown to be effective
in protecting people from the species Zaire
ebolavirus.
• No licensed vaccines are available yet, several
vaccines tested are showing the potential.
24. Zika Virus [UPSC 2017] 10. Consider the following statements:
• It is a member of Flaviviridae virus family and 1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease
Flavivirus genus, transmitted by daytime-active is transmitted by the same mosquito
Aedes mosquitoes such as A. aegypti, A. Africanus that transmits dengue.
etc. These are the same mosquitoes that spread 2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus
dengue and chikungunya viruses. disease is possible.
• It is transmitted by day-time active mosquitoes in Which of the statements given above
genus Aedes. is/are correct?
• It is transmitted among humans via sexual contacts (a) 1 only
and can cross placenta, affecting an unborn foetus.
(b) 2 only
• Zika can be passed through sex, even if the infected
(c) Both 1 and 2
person does not have symptoms at the time.
• Common symptoms include mild headaches, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
maculopapular rash, malaise and conjunctivitis.
Page. 63
CHAPTER 7: DEFENCE
1. Missiles [UPSC 2023] 1. Consider the following statements:
• Tactical guided missiles are generally categorized 1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at
according to the location of the launch platform subsonic speeds throughout their
and target. There are five types, air-to-air, air-to- flights, while cruise missiles are
surface, surface-to-air, anti-ship, and antitank, or rocketpowered only in the initial
assault. phase of flight.
• Missiles as per to location of launch & target 2. Agni-V is a medium-range
o Surface to Surface Missiles(S2S): A surface- supersonic cruise missile, while
to-surface missile or ground-to-ground missile BrahMos is a solid-fuelled
is a missile designed to be launched from the intercontinental ballistic missile.
ground or the sea and strike targets on land or Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
om
at sea.
o Surface to Air Missiles(S2A): It also known (a) 1 only
as a ground- to-air missile (GTAM) or (b) 2 only
l.c
surface-to-air guided weapon (SAGW), is a (c) Both 1 and 2
missile designed tobe launched from the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ground to destroy aircraft or other missiles.
o Air to Air(A2A): It is a missile fired from an
ai
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aircraft for the purpose of destroying another
aircraft. AAMs are typically powered by one
3g
or more rocketmotors, usually solid fueled but

sometimes liquid-fueled.
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• Classification based on technology and assault

o Ballistic Missiles: Ballistic missile, is a
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rocket-propelled self-guided strategic-

weapons system that follows a ballistic
trajectory to deliver a payload from its launch
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site to a predetermined target. Ballistic

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missiles can carry conventional high

explosives as well as chemical, biological, or
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nuclear munitions. Examples include Trishul,

Akash, Prahaar etc.
o Agni V is India’s long-range surface-to-
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surface ballistic missile, which can hit a target

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with a precision that is 5,000 km away.

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• Cruise Missiles: A cruise missile is a guided

missile used against terrestrial or naval targetsthat
Page. 64
remains in the atmosphere and flies the major
portion of its flight path at an approximately
constant speed. Cruise missiles are designed to
deliver a largewarhead overlong distances with
high precision. Cruise missiles are jet-propelled at
subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while
ballistic missiles are rocket-powered only in the
initial (boost) phase of flight, after which they
follow an arcing trajectory to the target. Examples
include Brahmos and Nirbhay. The BrahMos is a
supersonic cruise missile, developed by the joint
Russian-Indian BrahMos Aerospace company.
2. Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS) 2. Which one of the following statements
• It was developed by Soviet Union in 1960s. It is best reflects the idea behind the
used to launch nuclear warheads from space. “Fractional Orbital Bombardment
• This technique allows it to propel an extremely System” often talked about in media?
maneuverable, nuclear-capable glider into orbit, (a) A hypersonic missile is launched
allowing it to speed towards its target at into space to counter the asteroid
hypersonic speed. approaching the Earth and explode it
• Warhead is put into a stable orbit and it deorbits in space.
over the target. If the target and the launch (b) A spacecraft lands on another planet
position is lined up and the warhead keeps going after making several orbital motions.
round, it will complete a circle. (c) A missile is put into a stable orbit
• The system had no range limit i.e. it can be around the Earth and deorbits
targeted at any point on the earth. over a target on the Earth.
• In 2021, Frank Kendal III (the US Secretary of (d) A spacecraft moves along a comet
Air Force) stated that the Chinese Government is with the same surface. speed and
developing and testing FOBS. places a probe on its
• Recently, China deployed this technique in
launching long March rocket. [UPSC 2022]
3. Agni IV missile [UPSC 2014] 3. Which reference to Agni-IV Missile,
• It is a nuclear capable intercontinental ballistic which of the following statements is/are
missile developed by DRDO. correct? (2014)
• The strategic surface-to-surface missile has a 1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.
strike range of 4,000 km. 2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
• It is a two-stage missile and is 20 meters long 3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear
with a weight of 17 tonnes. warheads about 7500 km away.
• Its re-entry heat shield can withstand temperatures Select the correct answer using the code
in the range of over 4,000 Degree given below.
• It is equipped with state-of-the-art technologies, (a) 1 only
which include indigenously developed ring laser (b) 2 and 3 only
gyro and composite rocket motor. (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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CHAPTER 8: MISCELLANEOUS
1. Carbon Fibres 1. Consider the following statements:
• Carbon fibres can be defined as fibres with a 1. Carbon fibres are used in the
carbon content of 90% or above. manufacture of components used
• They are produced by the thermal conversion of in automobiles and aircrafts.
organic fibres with a lower carbon content such as 2. Carbon fibres once used cannot
polyacrylonitrile (PAN) containing several be recycled.
thousand filaments with diameters between 5 and Which of the statements given above
10 μm. is/are correct?
• It is a very strong material that is also very (a) 1 only
lightweight. (b) 2 only
• Itis five-times stronger than steel and twice as (c) Both 1 and 2
stiff. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
• Though carbon fiber is stronger and stiffer
than steel, it is lighter than steel; making it the
ideal manufacturing material for many parts.
• Carbon fiber-reinforced composite materials
are used to make aircraft and spacecraft parts,
racing car bodies, golf club shafts, bicycle
frames, fishing rods, automobile springs,
sailboat masts, and many other components
where light weight and high strength are
needed.
• Currently, the most common recycling process
used to recover carbon fiber from composite
waste is pyrolysis, where high heat basically
burns off the resin. Solvolysis, which uses a
solvent to dissolve the resin, has long been
claimed to offer superior properties. So far,
commercialization of both pyrolysis and
solvolysis has been through batch processes.
But inline processing is finally in the works.
[UPSC 2023]
2. Types of Hydrogen 2. With reference to green hydrogen,
• Brown Hydrogen: Produced through coal or consider the following statements:
lignite gasification, brown hydrogen is widely 1. It can be used directly as a fuel
used in the industrial chemical sector, but its for internal combustion.
production emits greenhouse gases. 2. It can be blended with natural
• Grey Hydrogen: Produced through steam gas and used as fuel for heat or
methane reforming using natural gas as a power generation.
feedstock, grey hydrogen is another commonly 3. It can be used in the hydrogen
used industrial hydrogen source with fuel cell to run vehicles.
associated carbon emissions. How many of the above statements
• Blue Hydrogen: This type of hydrogen is are correct?
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produced through steam methane reforming (a) Only one
with carbon capture and storage, reducing its (b) Only two
greenhouse gas emissions. (c) All three
• Green Hydrogen: Considered the most eco- (d) None
friendly option, green hydrogen is produced
using renewable energy sources like solar or
wind power, and its production does not emit
greenhouse gases.
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3. Green Hydrogen
• Green hydrogen is generated through the ai
process of electrolysis, wherein water is split
m
into hydrogen and oxygen using renewable
energy sources such as solar or wind power.
3g
• The hydrogen produced is clean and does not

emit greenhouse gases when burned, making it
02
an environmentally friendly alternative to

traditional hydrogen production methods.
a2
• It finds application in various industries,

including the chemical industry for ammonia
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and fertilizer manufacturing, the petrochemical

industry for petroleum product production, and
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even in the steel industry.

• Hydrogen engines (HCE) burn hydrogen in
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an internal combustion engine, in just the

same way gasoline is used in an engine. In
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general, getting an internal combustion

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engine to run on hydrogen is not difficult.

• Hydrogen and CNG blends (HCNG) may be
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considered as an automotive fuel without

any major modification in the existing CNG
engine and infrastructure.
• Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs)
are powered by hydrogen. They are more
efficient than conventional internal
combustion engine vehicles and produce no
harmful tailpipe emissions—they only emit
water vapor and warm air. [UPSC 2023]
4. Bisphenol A (BPA): It is a chemical produced in 4. Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of
Page. 67
large quantities for use primarily in production of concern, is a structural/key
polycarbonate plastics and epoxy resins. BPA is an component in the manufacture of
endocrine system disruptor and also contributes to which of the following kinds of
high blood pressure. Rice University researchers plastics?
enhanced micron-sized titanium dioxide particles (a) Low-density polyethylene
to trap and destroy bisphenol A (BPA). [UPSC (b) Polycarbonate
2021] (c) Polyethylene terephthalate
5. Low density polyethylene: It is a soft, flexible, (d) Polyvinyl Chloride
lightweight plastic material. LDPE is noted for its
low temperature flexibility, toughness, and
corrosion resistance. It is not suited for
applications where stiffness, high temperature
resistance and structural strength are required. It is
often used for orthotics and prosthetics. LDPE has
good chemical and impact resistance and is easy to
fabricate and form.
6. Polyethylene terephthalate: PET is a clear,
strong, and lightweight plastic that is widely used
for packaging foods and beverages, especially
convenience-sized soft drinks, juices and water. It
is also popular for packaging salad dressings,
peanut butter, cooking oils, mouthwash, shampoo,
liquid hand soap, window cleaner, even tennis
balls.
7. Polyvinyl chloride: It is an economical and
versatile thermoplastic polymer widely used in the
building and construction industry to produce door
and window profiles, pipes (drinking and
wastewater), wire and cable insulation, medical
devices, etc. It is the world’s third-largest
thermoplastic material by volume after
polyethylene and polypropylene. It is a white,
brittle solid material available in powder form or
granules. Due to its versatile properties, such as
lightweight, durable, low cost and easy
processability, PVC is now replacing traditional
building materials like wood, metal, concrete,
rubber, ceramics, etc.
Page. 68
8. Triclosan: It is a preservative and antibacterial 5. “Triclosan” considered harmful

agent found in personal care products such as when exposed to high levels for a
antiperspirant, soap, hand wash and tooth paste. long time, is most likely present in
Tests on mammals and other animals have shown which of the following?
endocrine disruptor effects. [UPSC 2021] (a) Food preservatives
9. Food preservatives: High Fructose Corn Syrup (b) Fruit ripening substances
(HFCS): Cheap, sweet and produced in (c) reused plastic containers
abundance as compared to regular sugar, HFCS (d) Toiletries
has crept into food supplies over the past few
decades. HFCS can increase your bad cholesterol
(LDL) levels, leads to obesity and contribute to the
development of diabetes + Aspartame: Problems
attributed to these sweeteners include severe
headaches, nausea, vertigo, slurred speech,
memory loss, blindness, ringing in the ears, loss or
change of taste + Monosodium Glutamate
(MSG): It is a salt form of a non-essential amino
acid, is a flavour enhancer and common food
additive. An excitotoxin, MSG works by
triggering the brain to produce excess quantities of
the feel-good drug dopamine + Potassium
Bromate (E924): Potassium Bromate is added to
bread as a flour enhancer – to make it rise better
and give it a uniform consistency. A study by the
Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) found
that nearly 84 % of commonly available brands of
packaged breads in India tested positive for
potassium bromate; this additive was banned by
FSSAI.
10. Fruit ripening substances: Ripening agents
speed up the process of ripening of fruits after they
are picked prior to full ripening + These agents are
particularly Unsaturated hydrocarbons; acetylene,
ethylene, etc + Calcium Carbide (CaC2) is most
commonly used for artificial ripening of fruits +
Other fruit ripening substances are ethylene and
ethephon + Ripening of fruits with Ethylene and
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Ethephon is permissible if used in a limited
concentration. Many countries including India has
allowed the use of Ethylene and Ethephon for
ripening of fruits as it is less harmful if compared
with Calcium carbide.
11. Solar flares [UPSC 2022] 3. If a major solar storm (solar flare)
• Solar flares are intense bursts of radiation from reaches the Earth, which of the
the sun that can directly influence electronics following are the possible effects on
on Earth. They are often associated with the Earth?
coronal mass ejections (CMEs). 1. GPS and navigation systems
• They occur in a power-law spectrum of could fail.
magnitudes; an energy release of typically 2. Tsunamis could occur at
1020 joules of energy suffices to produce a equatorial regions.
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clearly observable event, while a major event 3. Power grids could be damaged.
can emit up to 1025 joules. 4. Intense auroras could occur over
l.c
• It affect all layers of the solar atmosphere -> much of the Earth.
photosphere, chromosphere, and corona. 5. Forest fires could take place over
• Flares produce electromagnetic radiation
ai much of the planet.
m
across the electromagnetic spectrum at all 6. Orbits of the satellites could be
wavelengths, from radio waves to gamma rays. disturbed.
3g
• It affects GPS navigation, mobile phone 7. Shortwave radio communication

transmissions, and satellite TV. The flares of the aircraft flying over polar
02
might potentially disrupt power grids and regions could be interrupted.

electrical networks in various regions of the Select the correct answer using the
a2
planet. code given below:

• The high-energy particles emitted by the flare (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
kl
could also cause certain atoms in the Earth’s (b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
atmosphere to glow, leading to auroras in
hu
(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only

Central Europe as well as North America. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
• There is no causal link between the coronal
tis
mass ejections (CMEs) and the deadly forest

fires.
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• Solar flares allow interference with the short

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wave radios that are being used, emitting

more rays allowing people to get more of a sun
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burn during this time frame.
Page. 70
12. Lemongrass: The plant is known to be an 6. Which one of the following is used
excellent mosquito repellant. According to a study in preparing a natural mosquito
conducted in 2011, around 95% mosquitos from a repellent?
specific range of species were either killed or (a) Congress grass
completely repelled due to the intense odor of (b) Elephant grass
lemongrass oil. [UPSC 2021] (c) Lemon grass
13. Congress grass: Congress grass or parthenium, a (d) Nut grass
native of tropical America, came to India
accidentally in 1955 + It is an invasive species
which competes for nutrients and space and
reproduces fast + Many methods, ranging from
manual uprooting, chemical herbicides to
biological control agents, are proposed to limit the
spread of this uncontrollable variety of grass.
14. Elephant Grass: The elephant grass is tall grasses
that came to Africa in 1913 and it grows in dense
clumps which a height up to 10 feet tall. It grows
in the savanna in Africa along the lake beds and
Page. 71
rivers where the soil is rich.
15. Nut Grass: A perennial sedge (Cyperus rotundus)
of wide distribution that has slender rootstocks
bearing small edible tubers resembling nuts.
16. Belle 2 Experiment [UPSC 2018] 16. Consider the following pairs of
• High Energy Accelerator Research Terms sometimes seen in news vs
Organization (KEK) in Tsukuba, Ibaraki Context /Topic:
Prefecture, Japan, completed the Belle-II 1. Belle II experiment: Artificial
experiment. Intelligence
• It is designed to study violations of the 2. Blockchain technology: Digital/
Standard Model and dark matter. Cryptocurrency
• It is a collaboration of 26 countries; India 3. CRISPR — Cas9: Particle
participated both in experimental and theoretical Physics
sides. Which of the pairs given above
• It is designed to record data at Super KEKB, a is/are correctly matched ?
3 km circumference asymmetric electron- (a) 1 and 3 only
positron collider with a performance similar or (b) 2 only
better than Belle, the B factory detectors, in a (c) 2 and 3 only
much more severe beam background (d) 1, 2 and 3
environment.
17. Super KEKB
• It is a particle collider located at KEK (High
Energy Accelerator Research Organisation) in
Tsukuba, Japan.
• It collides electrons with positrons at the
centre-of-momentum energy close to the mass
of the Υ(4S) resonance making it a second-
generation B-factory for the Belle II
experiment.
• In 2020, it achieved the world’s highest
instantaneous luminosity for a colliding-beam
accelerator.
18. Block chain Technology
Page. 72
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ai
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19. Cas9: Cas9 (CRISPR associated protein 9) is a

protein which plays a vital role in the
a2
immunological defense of certain bacteria against

DNA viruses, and which is heavily utilized in
kl
genetic engineering applications. Its main function

is to cut DNA and therefore it can alter a cell’s
hu
genome.
h tis
us
Sr
20. Leaf Modifications in Desert areas to inhabit 17. Which of the following leaf
water loss [UPSC 2018] modifications occur(s) in the desert
• Wax coatings on leaves prevent water loss areas to inhibit water loss?
through evaporation. 1. Hard and waxy leaves
• Leaves few or absent or represented by spines 2. Tiny leaves
only. 3. Thorns instead of leaves
• Petiole modified into leaf like structure. Select the correct answer using the
Page. 73
• Thorns instead of leaves E.g: Cacti have spines code given below :
in place of leaves, which conduct (a) 2 and 3 only
photosynthesis. (b) 2 only
• Stem reduced and branching is sparse. (c) 3 only
• Prevention of loss of water by transpiration (d) 1, 2 and 3
modifications: Intercellular spaces reduced,
Spongy parenchyma is present, Stomata on
lower surface and sunken in stomatal pits.
• Prevention of excessive heat Modifications:
Leaves covered with dense hairs; leaf surfaces
shiny or glaborous, leaf blade remains rolled
during the day.
21. Aadhar – Application Programming Interfaces 18. The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’
(APIs) [UPSC 2018] provides open “Application
• Aadhaar Authentication is the process wherein Programming Interfaces (APIs)”.
Aadhaar number, along with other attributes, What does it imply?
including biometrics, are submitted online to 1. It can be integrated into any
the Central Identities Data Repository for its electronic device.
verification. 2. Online authentication using iris
• An authentication request is entertained by the is possible.
UIDAI only upon a request sent by a Which of the statements given above
requesting entity electronically in accordance is/are correct ?
with its regulations. (a) 1 only
• Modes of authentication: Demographic (b) 2 only
Authentication, one-time pin based (c) Both 1 and 2
authentication, Bio-metric based (d) Neither 1 nor 2
authentication, Multi-factor authentication.
• Aadhaar provides open Application
Programming Interfaces or APIs, which can be
integrated easily into any electronic device.
• These APIs enable online authentication using
a fingerprint or iris.
22. Photovoltaics [UPSC 2014] 23. With reference to technologies for
• 'Photovoltaics' is a technology that generates solar power production, consider the
electricity by direct conversion of light into following statements:
electricity, while 'Solar Thermal' is a 1. 'Photovoltaics' is a technology
technology that utilizes the Sun's rays to that generates electricity by
generate heat which is further used in direct conversion of light into
electricity generation process. electricity, while 'Solar Thermal'
• Photovoltaics convert optional radiation into is a technology that utilizes the
electricity. Sun's rays to generate heat which
• Photovoltaic technique produces Direct is further used in electricity
Current (DC) and India has a manufacturing generation process.
base for manufacturing photovoltaics. 2. Photovoltaics generates
Alternating Current (AC), while
Solar Thermal generates Direct
Page. 74
Current (DC).
3. India has manufacturing base for
Solar Thermal technology, but
not for Photovoltaics.
is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
23. Brominated Flame retardants [UPSC 2014] 24. Brominated flame retardants are
• These are mixtures of man-made chemicals used in many household products
that are added to a wide variety of products, like mattresses and upholstery. Why
including for industrial use, to make them less is there some concern about their
flammable. use?
• They are used commonly in plastics, textiles 1. They are highly resistant to
and electrical/electronic equipment. degradation in the environment.
• There are five main classes of BFRs, listed 2. They are able to accumulate in
here with their common uses: humans and animals.
o Polybrominated diphenyl ethers (PBDEs) – Select the correct answer using the
plastics, textiles, electronic castings, code given below.
circuitry. (a) 1 only
o Hexabromocyclododecanes (HBCDDs) – (b) 2 only
thermal insulation in the building industry. (c) Both 1 and 2
o Tetrabromobisphenol A (TBBPA) and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
other phenols – printed circuit boards,
thermoplastics (mainly in TVs).
o Polybrominated biphenyls (PBBs) –
consumer appliances, textiles, plastic
foams.
o Other brominated flame retardants.
• They are highly resistant to degradation in
environment and accumulate in humans and
animals.
Page. 75
24. Steel Production: The basic raw materials 20. In India the steel production industry
required for steel production are Iron Ore, Coking requires the import of
coal, limestone, refractory coal and scrap metal. It (a) saltpeter
requires 0.8 tonnes coking coal to produce one (b) rock phosphate
tonne of steel. [UPSC 2015] (c) coking coal
(d) All of the above
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3g
02
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Fig: Process of Steel Production

25. Saltpeter: It is instead used in fertilizers, tree
kl
stump removal, rocket propellants and fireworks.

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It is one of the major constituents of gunpowder

(blackpowder) and has been used since the Middle
tis
Ages as a food preservative. [UPSC 2015]

26. Rock Phospate: Rock phosphate, or phosphorite,
h
is mined from clay deposits that contain

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phosphorus and is used to make organic phosphate

fertilizers. It is the key raw material for DAP and
Sr
NPK fertilisers and India is 90% dependent on

imports.
27. Bio-Toilets [UPSC 2015] 21. With reference to bio-toilets used by
• These are developed for passenger coaches the Indian Railways, consider the
jointly by Indian Railways and DRDO. following statements:
• In this, human waste is collected in bio 1. The decomposition of human
digester tanks below the toilets and is waste in the bio-toilets is
decomposed by anaerobic microbial inoculum. initiated by a fungal inoculum.
• By the process of hydrolysis, acetogenesis, 2. Ammonia and water vapour are
acidogenesis and methanogenesis, the the only end products in this
decomposition which are
Page. 76
anaerobic bacteria convert human faecal released into the atmosphere.
matter into water and small amount of gases Which of the statements given above
(including methane). is/are correct?
• Bio Digester disposes human waste in 100% (a) 1 only
eco-friendly manner and generates color less, (b) 2 only
odorless water and inflammable Methane- Gas (c) Both 1 and 2
for cooking, water heating & room heating etc. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
as a by-product.
28. Fuel Cells[UPSC 2015] 22.With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in

• Fuel cells are electrochemical devices that which hydrogen-rich fuel and
Page. 77
convert chemical energy in fuels into electrical oxygen are used to generate
energy directly, promising power generation electricity, consider the following
with high efficiency and low environmental statements :
impact. 1. If pure hydrogen is used as a
• A fuel cell produces electricity, water, and heat fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and
using fuel and oxygen in the air. water as by-products.
• If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell 2. Fuel cells can be used for
emits heat and water as by-products. powering buildings and not for
• Fuel cells produce direct current and smaller small devices like laptop
versions are being patented regularly. computers.
• A single fuel cell generates a tiny amount of 3. Fuel cells produce electricity in
direct current (DC) electricity. the form of Alternating Current
(AC).
• If alternating current (AC) is needed, the DC
output of the fuel cell must be routed through a Which of the statements given above
conversion device called an inverter. is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
29. Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10): It is the electric 19. What is ‘Greased Lightning-10 (GL-
plane with 10 engines tested by NASA that can 10)’, recently in the news?
take off and land like a helicopter and fly (a) Electric plane tested by NASA
efficiently like an aircraft. [UPSC 2016] (b) Solar-powered two-seater
aircraft designed by Japan
(c) Space observatory launched by
China
(d) Reusable rocket designed by
ISRO
30. Treatment and disposal of solid waste [UPSC 2019] 14. In the context of which one of the
• Open dumps: Uncovered areas used to dump following are the terms ‘pyrolysis
solid waste of all kinds + It act as breeding and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
ground for flies, rats + Rainwater run-off from (a) Extraction of rare earth
these dumps contaminates nearby land and elements
water spreading disease. (b) Natural gas extraction
• Landfills: Garbage is dumped and pit is technologies
covered with soil, preventing breeding of flies (c) Hydrogen fuel-based
and rats. automobiles
Page. 78
• Sanitary landfills: More hygienic, lined with (d) Waste-to-energy technologies
materials that are impermeable such as plastics
and clay and built over impermeable clay.
• Incineration plants: Process of burning waste
in large furnaces at high temperature is known
as incineration + Recyclable material is
segregated and rest of material is burnt and ash
is produced.
• Pyrolysis: Process of combustion in absence of
oxygen or material burnt under controlled
atmosphere of oxygen + It is alternative to
incineration. The gas and liquid obtained can be
used as fuels.
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• Composting: Biological process in which
microorganisms decompose degradable
organic waste into humus in presence of
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oxygen + It increases the soil’s ability to hold
water and makes the soil easier to cultivate. ai
• Vermiculture: Also known as earthworm
m
farming + Earth worms added to compost
which break the waste and add excreta, making
3g
the compost very rich in nutrients.

• Plasma arc gasification: It is a waste-
02
treatment technology that uses a combination

of electricity and high temperatures to turn
a2
municipal waste into usable by-products

without combusting. It converts the organic
waste into a gas and converts the inorganic
kl
waste into an inert vitrified glass called slag.

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31. Indian Patents Act, 1970 15. Consider the following statements:
• It came into force in the year 1972. 1. According to the Indian Patents
tis
• It replaced the Indian Patents and Designs Act Act, a biological process to
1911. create a seed can be patented in
h
• It was amended by the Patents (Amendment) India.

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Act, 2005-> product patent was extended to all 2. In India, there is no Intellectual
fields of technology including food, drugs, Property Appellate Board.
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chemicals and microorganisms. 3. Plant varieties are not eligible to

• It allowed making process patents for making be patented in India.
pharma compounds, Which of the statements given above
• Provision for enabling grant of compulsory is/are correct?
license has been introduced. (a) 1 and 3 only
• Article 3(J) of Indian Patent Act -> It excludes (b) 2 and 3 only
from patentability “plants and animals in (c) 3 only
whole or in any part thereof other than (d) 1, 2 and 3
microorganisms, including seeds, varieties,
and species, and essentially biological
processes for production or propagation of
Page. 79
plants and animals”.
32. Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB):
It was established in 2003 by the Government of
India to hear and resolve the appeals against the
decisions of the registrar under the Indian
Trademarks Act, 1999 and the Geographical
Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection)
Act, 1999 + It aimed to specifically deal with
matters of intellectual property including
copyright, trademarks, patents, and geographical
indications.
33. Protection of Plant varieties and Farmer’s right
act, 2001
• Introduction: It was enacted by India in 2001
to grant IPRs to plant breeders, researchers and
farmers who developed any new or extant
plant species. It is in conformity with
International Union for the Protection of New
Varieties of Plants (UPOV), 1978.
• Rights under the Act
o Breeders Rights: They will have
exclusive rights to produce, sell, market,
distribute, import or export the protected
variety. Breeder can appoint licensee and
may exercise for civil remedy in case of
infringement of rights.
o Researchers Rights: Researcher can use
any of the registered variety under the Act
for conducting experiment or research. It
includes the use as an initial source of
variety for the purpose of developing
another variety but repeated use needs
prior permission of the registered breeder.
o Farmers Rights
▪ A farmer who has evolved or
developed a new variety is entitled for
registration and protection in like
manner as a breeder of a variety.
Farmers variety can also be registered
as an extant variety.
▪ Right to save, use, sow, re-sow,
exchange, share or sell his farm
produce including seed of a variety
protected under the act in the same
manner as he was entitled before the
coming into force of this Act provided
farmer shall not be entitled to sell
branded seed of a variety protected
Page. 80
under the PPV&FR Act, 2001.
▪ Farmers are eligible for recognition and
rewards for the conservation of Plant
Genetic Resources of land races and
wild relatives of economic plants.
▪ Compensation: There is also a provision for
compensation to the farmers for non-
performance of variety under Section 39 (2) of
the Act, 2001.
▪ Farmer shall not be liable to pay any fee in
any proceeding before the Authority or
Registrar or the Tribunal or the High Court
under the Act. [UPSC 2019]
34. Cyber Insurance: It covers business's liability for 11. In India, under cyber insurances for
a data breach involving sensitive customer individuals, which of the following
information, such as social security numbers, benefits are generally covered, in
credit card numbers, account numbers etc.+ It is addition to payment for the loss of
designed to cover expenses and legal costs funds and other benefits ?
associated with cyber breaches that occur after an 1. Cost of restoration of computer
organization has been hacked. [UPSC 2020] system in case of malware
• Coverage: In India, it generally covers E-theft disrupting access.
loss, E-vandalism loss, E-threat loss, Identity
2. Cost of new computer if some
theft Cyber -bullying and cyber –stalking,
miscreant wilfully damages it, if
Cyber extortion, Malware intrusion, Legal
proved so.
expenses arising out of any covered risk such
as Social Media Cover, Phishing Cover, E- 3. Cost of hiring a specialized
mail Spoofing, Cyber Extortion Cover, Privacy consultant to minimize the loss
Breach by third Party. in case of cyber extortion.
4. Cost of defence in the court of
law if any third party files a suit.
code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
35. Steel Slag [UPSC 2020] 12. Steel slag can be the material for
• It is a by-product of the steel making process which of the following?
produced during the separation of the molten 1. Construction of base road
steel from impurities in steel-making 2. Improvement of agriculture soil
furnaces. 3. Production of cement
• It is used as a base course material -> under Select the correct answer using the
the surface layer of an asphalt road. given code below
• It can be used in the agricultural sector due to (a) 1 and 2 only
its ability to correct soil acidity. (b) 2 and 3 only
• It can be used to produce cement; slag (c) 1 and 3 only
cement used in concrete, either as a separate (d) 1, 2 and 3
Page. 81
cementitious component or as part of a
blended cement.
• Surat has become the first city in the country
to get a processed steel slag (industrial waste)
road built as part of a joint-venture project by
the Council of Scientific and Industrial
Research (CSIR), Central Road Research
Institute (CRRI), Union Ministry of Steel,
government think-tank NITI Ayog, and
ArcelorMtttal-Nippon Steel.
36. Bio-char [UPSC 2020] 13. What is the use of Biochar in
• It is a high-carbon, fine-grained residue which farming?
is produced by modern pyrolysis processes. 1. Biochar can be used as a part of
om
• It produces a mixture of solids like bio-char the growing medium in the
proper, liquid and gas such as syngas products vertical farming
+ Use in vertical farming increase output 2. When biochar is a part of the
l.c
significantly. growing medium, it promotes
• It supports growth of nitrogen fixing the growth of nitrogen fixing
microorganisms; helps in decreasing soil
ai microorganisms.
nitrogen emission and increasing nitrogen use 3. When biochar is a part of the
m
efficiency. growing medium, it enables the
3g
• The porous nature of bio-char enables medium medium to retain water for a
to retain water for a longer time + It is a longer time.
Which of the above given statements
02
desirable soil material in many locations due to

its ability to attract and retain water. is/are correct?
• Composition: Approximately 70% of its (a) 1 and 2 only
a2
composition is carbon. Remaining percentage (b) 2 only

consists of nitrogen, hydrogen and oxygen (c) 1 and 3 only
kl
among other elements. Its chemical (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

hu
composition varies depending on feedstocks

used to make it and methods used to heat it.
• Ideal temperature: The ideal temperature of
tis
biochar creation is at 400 – 500 °C.

h
• Benefits: Enhancing soil structure, increasing

us
water retention and aggregation, decreasing

acidity, reducing nitrous oxide emissions,
improving porosity, regulating nitrogen
Sr
leaching, improving electrical conductivity,

improving microbial properties and increased
abundance of mycorrhizal fungi -> assists in
nutrient uptake by plants.
37. Copper Smelting [UPSC 2021] 7. Why is there a concern about copper
• Process through which the copper ore is smelting plants?
purified through intense heating and melting to 1. They may release lethal
derive high quality copper or copper products. quantities of carbon monoxide
• Carbon Monoxide is used in copper smelters to into environment.
reduce copper oxide. But it is unlikely that a 2. The copper slag can cause the
smelter will release lethal quantities of carbon leaching of some heavy metal
Page. 82
monoxide in to the environment. into environment
• Smelting produces by-products such as slag 3. They may release sulphur
which may leach heavy metals such as arsenic, dioxide as a pollutant.
lead and mercury into groundwater. Select the correct answer using the
• The smelting process releases sulphur dioxide code given below.
as most of copper ores are Sulphur based. (a) 1 and 2 only
38. Copper: It is a good conductor of electricity and is (b) 2 and 3 only
ductile in nature. It is used by the automobile and (c) 1 and 3 only
defense industries, and in the electrical industry for (d) 1, 2 and 3
making wires, electric motors, transformers, and
generators. India does not have rich reserves of
copper; also lag in production of copper. India has
low grade copper ore (less than 1% metal content).
The major supply comes from the USA, Canada,
Zimbabwe and Japan. Major copper ore deposits are
located in the Singhbhum district (Jharkhand),
Balaghat district (Madhya Pradesh), and Jhunjhunu
and Alwar districts (Rajasthan).
39. Copper Mining: The common ore used in the
extraction of copper is Chalcopyrite (CuFeS2) also
known as Copper Pyrites and other such sulphides.
The percentage of copper in the actual ore is too
low for direct extraction of copper to be viable.
The concentration of ore is required and it is done
by the Froth Flotation method.
40. Furnace oil [UPSC 2021] 8. With reference to furnace oil,
• It is one of the cheapest fuels available for consider the following statements:
industrial use. It is a by-product of petroleum 1. It is a product of oil refineries.
refineries. While processing the Crude oil, it is 2. Some industries use it to
one of the products along with other petroleum generate power.
fuels like HSD, Petrol etc. 3. Its use causes sulphur emissions
• Uses of Furnace oil: As fuel for Power into environment.
Generation in Diesel Generator sets, As fuel Which of the statements given above
for Boilers/ Furnaces/ Air preheater/ Any other are correct?
Heaters, Fuel for Bunkering and Fuel/ (a) 1 and 2 only
Feedstock in Fertilizer Plants. (b) 2 and 3 only
• Emission of Sulphur: The oxides of sulphur (c) 1 and 3 only
emissions are a direct result of the sulphur (d) 1, 2 and 3
content of the fuel oil + During the combustion
process this fuel-bound sulphur is rapidly
oxidised to sulphur dioxide (SO2) + It also
contributes to the formation of secondary
particulate matter (PM).
• Benefits of Furnace oil: Cheapest petroleum
fuel available - gives most heat per litre at
lowest cost; Readily stored - occupies half the
space of coal for equivalent heat content;
Easily handled, regulated and controlled; Less
Page. 83
maintenance than coal-fired equipment; Less
labor required than coal, no stoking, ash
removal or conveyors required; Less capital
expenditure than equivalent coal plant; Clean
operation - no fly ash or dust problems, easy
smoke control.
41. Magnetite particles: Highly magnetic mineral 9. Magnetite particles, suspected to
form of iron and key constituent of air pollution cause neurodegenerative problems,
and have potentially large impacts on the brain due are generated as environmental
to its unique combination of redox activity, surface pollutants from which of the
charge and strongly magnetic behaviour. following?
• Sources: Brakes of motor vehicles, Engines of 1. Brakes of motor vehicles
motor vehicles, Microwave stoves within 2. Engines of motor vehicles
homes, Power plants, telephone lines, forest 3. Microwave stoves within homes
fires, wood -burning stoves and many high - 4. Power plants
temperature industrial processes. 5. Telephone lines
42. ITMO Researchers Develop New Method of Select the correct answer using the
Magnetite Nanoparticle Synthesis[UPSC 2021] code given below.
• Magnetite nanoparticles: These are (a) 1,2, 3 and 5 only
extremely miniscule particles consisting of (b) 1,2 and 4 only
iron and oxygen + Their properties differ from
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
that of bigger pieces of the same material.
(d) 1,2, 3, 4 and 5
• Applications: Used to manufacture prototypes
of memristor devices. They imitate synapses –
connections between neurons of human brain +
Production of healing-accelerating bindings +
Treatment of neurocognitive diseases such as
Alzheimer’s by restoring brain function.
43. Pressure cooker: It works on a principle of Steam 10. In a pressure cooker, the temperature
pressure. A sealed pot, with a lot of steam inside, at which the food is cooked depends
builds up high pressure, which helps food cook mainly upon which of the
faster. When cooking stew or steamed vegetables, following?
the heat of cooking is limited to the boiling point 1. Area of the hole in the lid
of water (100°C). But with the steam's pressure the 2. Temperature of the flame
boiling point can get as high as 138°C. This higher 3. Weight of the lid
heat helps the food to cook faster. [UPSC 2021] Select the correct answer using the
• Area of hole in the lid: The larger hole will code given below.
lead to increase in the steam going out which (a) 1 and 2 only
leads to greater reduction in temperature.
(b) 2 and 3 only
• Temperature of the flame: As temperature of (c) 1 and 3 only
flame increases the temperature inside at
(d) 1, 2 and 3
which food is cooked also increases.
• Weight of Lid: By increasing surface pressure
on the liquid inside the closed cooker cooking
temperature can be raised. This pressure can be
adjusted by changing weight of the cooker lid.
Page. 84

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UPSC CSE EXAM

9 Year TOPIC - Wise PDF

(SUBJECT-WISE & TOPIC-WISE)

Science & Technology

[Part of our Prelims PYQ Content]

CHAPTER 2: SPACE TECHNOLOGY ...................................................................................... 14

CHAPTER 3: INFORMATION & COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY ........................... 24

CHAPTER 4: BIOTECHNOLOGY ............................................................................................. 44

CHAPTER 6: HEALTH ................................................................................................................ 55

CHAPTER 7: DEFENCE .............................................................................................................. 64

CHAPTER 8: MISCELLANEOUS .............................................................................................. 66

Bacteria versus Virus

8. Which of the following statements are

walls whilst animal cells do not.

membranes unlike animal cells

3. Mature plant cell has one large

many small vacuoles.

code given below:

(c) 1 and 3 only

16. Earliest atmosphere of Earth

20. Fuel Cells [UPSC 2015]

directly, promising power generation with high the following statements :

small devices like laptop

3. Fuel cells produce electricity in

Which of the statements given above

26. Budding and Grafting

27. Gene Silencing

• India is the seventh largest producer of Maize

starch, oil, protein, alcoholic beverages, food sweeteners,

feedstock for biodiesel and paper industries etc.

(a) Functional chromosomes can be

primary mission of visiting the Jovian system in 1979,

contact with Earth through the NASA Deep Space

41 years, making Voyager 2 NASA’s longest running

and Uranus during planetary flybys + It discovered 16

mysteriously transient Great Dark Spot, the cracks in

[UPSC 2020, UPSC 2014]

9. New horizons: It is an interplanetary space probe that

successfully fly by the dwarf planet Pluto, for its

10. Cassini-Huygens [UPSC 2014]

(Ahmedabad), among others. (a) 1 only

launched into a 650 km orbit inclined at an angle of

• Objectives: To understand high energy processes

in binary star systems containing neutron stars and

stars + Study star birth regions and high energy

20. International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor 9. India is an important member of the

• It is an international nuclear fusion research ‘International Thermonuclear

confinement plasma physics experiment. experiment succeeds, what is the

• It is the first touch tracing application available in India.

patients to be notified, traced and backed up.

• It has been developed by the National Informatics Centre

Information Technology (MeitY).

7. Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA)

9. Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) [UPSC 2022] 5. With reference to “Software as a

10. Quantum Supremacy 6. Which one of the following is the

high bandwidth and immunity to interference from

• It can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth

12. Cloud Services: It is the delivery of computing services

analytics, and intelligence over the Internet (“the cloud”) to

13. Wireless communication technologies