02-06-2024

9610WMD801016240005 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1)

The torque acting on dipole and potential energy are respectively –

(1)
in outward direction and + PE Joule

(2)
in outward direction and + PE Joule

(3)
in outward direction and – PE Joule
(4) none

2)

Three conducting plates are given 3Q, –2Q and Q charge as shown in figure. After distribution of
charge find value of q1, q2, q3, q4, q5 and q6.

(1) Q, 2Q, –2Q, +4Q, –4Q, Q

(2) Q, 2Q, –2Q, 0, 0, Q
(3) –Q, 4Q, –4Q, –2Q, +2Q, –Q
(4) 0, 3Q, –3Q, Q, –Q, 2Q

3) A hollow spherical conducting shell of inner radius r1 and outer radius r2 has a charge Q. A charge
–q is placed at the centre of the sphere. The surface charge densities on the inner and outer surfaces
of the sphere will be respectively :-
(1)
and

(2)
and

(3)
and
0 and
(4)

4) In the shown figure, the charge appears on the grounded conducting sphere is:

(1) q

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Two isolated metallic solid spheres of radii R and 2R are charged such that both have same
charge density σ. The spheres are then connected by a thin conducting wire. If the new charge

density of the bigger sphere is σ'. The ratio is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Point P lies on the axis of a dipole. If the dipole is rotated by 90° anticlock wise, the electric field
vector at P will rotate by

(1) 90° clockwise

(2) 180° clockwise
(3) 90° anticlock wise
(4) None

7) A dipole of dipole moment p is placed at origin with dipole moment directed along +x direction.
The potential at far point (a, a) is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Electric field at a distance "r" on the axis of dipole is . What is the electric field at a distance
"2r" on perpendicular bisector :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Two concentric spheres of radii R and r have similar charges with equal surface charge densities
(σ). What is the electric potential at their common centre ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

10) In which of the following states is the potential energy of an electric dipole maximum –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
11) In given figure charge given to outer sphere is Q. Inner sphere is grounded. What will be charge

on inner sphere after earthing :-

(1)

(2) Q

(3)

(4)

12)

An electric dipole of length 2 cm is placed with its axis making an angle of 30º to a uniform electric
5
field 10 N/C. If it experiences a torque of 10 Nm, then potential energy of dipole –

(1) –10 J
(2) –20 J
(3) –30 J
(4) – 40 J

13) The magnitude of the electric field that is set up at P is minimum in :

(1) (i)
(2) (ii)
(3) (iii)
(4) equal in all cases

14) A small sphere with mass 1.2 g hangs by a thread between two parallel vertical plates held 5 cm
apart. The plates are insulating and have uniform surface charge densities + σ and – σ on inner
faces. The charge on the sphere is q = 9 × 10–6 C.
What potential difference between the plates will cause the thread to assume an angle of 37º with
the vertical as shown in fig. :-

(Take g = 10 m/sec2)
(1) 30 V
(2) 12 V
(3) 50 V
(4) 25 V

15) Eight mercury droplets having a radius of 1 mm and a charge of 0.066 pC each merge to form
one droplet. Its potential is :

(1) 2.4 V
(2) 1.2 V
(3) 3.6 V
(4) 4.8 V

16) Figure shows three circular arcs, each of radius R and total charge as indicated. The net elecric

potential at the centre of curvature is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A proton moves a distance d in a uniform electric field as shown in the figure. Does the electric
field do a positive or negative work on the proton? Does the electric potential energy of the proton
increase or decrease?

(1) Negative, increase

(2) Positive, decrease
(3) Negative, decrease
(4) Positive, increase
18) The variation of potential with distance 'r' from a fixed point is shown in figure. The electric field
at r = 5 cm is :-

(1) 2.5 V/cm

(2) – 2.5 V/cm

(3)

(4)

19) Potential in x-y plane is given as V = 5 (x2+ xy) volts. The electric field at point (1, –2) will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A rectangular solid made of carbon has sides of lengths 1.0 cm, 2.0 cm, and 4.0 cm, lying along
the x, y, and z axes, respectively. Determine the resistance for current that passes through the solid

in the x-direction. ρ = 3 × 10–3 Ωm.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21)
A wire is connected to a battery and drift velocity of electrons in the conductor is v0. If wire is
stretched to quadruple its length and connected to same battery, the new drift velocity is

(1)

(2) 4v0
(3) v0

(4)

22)

A current of 5 amp exists in a 10 ohm resistance for 4 min. How many coulombs pass through any
cross-section of the resistor in this time ?

(1) 12
(2) 120
(3) 1200
(4) 12000

23) A wire has a non-uniform cross-sectional area as shown in figure. A steady current i flows

through it. Which one of the following statement is correct.

(1) The drift speed of electron is constant

(2) The drift speed increases on moving from A to B
(3) The drift speed decreases on moving from A to B
(4) The drift speed varies randomly

24) Charge Q passing through a cross-section of a conductor at any instant is given by Q = (t2 + 2t)C
where t is in second. Current through the conductor at t = 2 s is

(1) 4A
(2) 2A
(3) 6A
(4) 1A

25) A straight conductor of uniform cross-section carries a current I. Let s = specific charge of an
electron. The momentum of all the free electrons per unit length of the conductor, due to their drift
velocity only, is

(1) Is

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. Due to the consequent decrease in
diameter the change in the resistance of the wire will be :–

(1) 300%
(2) 200%
(3) 100%
(4) 50%

27) Two wires that are made up of two different materials whose specific resistance are in the ratio
2 : 3, length 3 : 4 and area 4 : 5. The ratio of their resistances is :-

(1) 6 : 5
(2) 6 : 8
(3) 5 : 8
(4) 1 : 2

28) Two conductors made of same material have length L and 2L but have equal resistance the two
are connected in series in a circuit then what will be ratio of drift velocity of free electron in two
conductors :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1

29) The drift velocity of the electrons in a copper wire of length 2m under the application of a
potential difference of 200V is 0.5 ms–1. Their mobility is (in m2V–1S–1)

(1) 2.5 × 10–3

(2) 2.5 × 10–2
(3) 5 × 102
(4) 5 × 10–3

30) A current of 5 A is passing through a metallic wire of cross-section area 4 × 10–6 m2. If the
density of the charge carriers in the wire is 5 × 1026/m3, the drift velocity of the electrons is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
31) In a region of space, the electric field is . The charge inside an imaginary cubical
volume of edge (a), such that its edges are parallel to the axes of coordinates :-

3
(1) ∈0E0a

(2)

(3)
4
(4) ∈0E0a

32) A charge q is enclosed by an imagenary Gaussian surface. If radius of surface is increasing at the

rate then :

(1)
Flux linked with surface is increasing at a rate

(2)
Flux linked with surface is decreasing at the rate
Flux linked with surface is increasing at the rate
(3)

(4)
Flux linked with surface is .

33) I-t curve is shown in figure. Calculate total charge flown in circuit from t = 0 to t = 8 sec.

(1) 35 µC
(2) 40 µC
(3) 45 µC
(4) None of these

34) The V-I graph for a conductor makes an angle θ with the V-axis, where V denotes voltage and I

denotes current. The resistance of the conductor is given by :-

(1) sin θ
(2) cos θ
(3) tan θ
(4) cot θ

35) For a conductor, product of resistivity and conductivity is :-

(1) length dependent

(2) Area of cross section dependent
(3) Temperature dependent
(4) None of these

SECTION-B

1) Find out work done by electric field in shifting a point charge μC from point P to S which are

shown in the figure :

(1)

(2)
J

(3)

(4) Zero

2) Three identical short dipoles are arranged as shown below. What will be the net electric field at
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Assertion :- An electric dipole experiences maximum force in a uniform electric field when it is
placed with its axis at right angles to the field direction.
Reason :- When the axis of a dipole is perpendicular to a uniform external electric field, then torque
acting on it will be zero.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4) A cavity is made inside a negatively charged dielectric sphere of volume charge density –ρ. Which

of the following field pattern is correct in the cavity?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A solid metal sphere of radius R having charge q is enclosed inside the concentric spherical shell
of inner radius a and outer radius b as shown in figure. The approximate variation electric field as

a function of distance r from centre O is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The figure shows two large, closely placed, parallel, nonconducting sheets with identical (positive)
uniform surface charge densities, and a sphere with a uniform (positive) volume charge density.
Four points marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 are shown in the space in between. If E1, E2, E3 and E4 are

magnitude of net electric fields at these points respectively then:

(1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4

(2) E1 > E2 > E3 = E4
(3) E3 = E4 > E2 > E1
(4) E1 = E2 = E3 = E4

7) The particle of mass m and charge q will touch the infinitely large plate of uniform charge density
σ if its velocity v is more than: {Given that σ, q > 0}

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

8) A charged particle of charge q and mass m is released from rest in an uniform electric field E.
Neglecting the effect of gravity, the kinetic energy of the charged particle after time ‘t’ seconds is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) If n, e, τ and m respectively represent the density, charge relaxation time and mass of the
electron, then the resistance of a wire of length l and area of cross-section A will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Charge passing through a conductor of cross-section area A = 0.3 m2 is given by q = 3t2 + 5t + 2
in coulomb, where t is in second. What is the value of drift velocity at t = 2s?
(Take, n = 2 × 1025 /m3)

(1) 0.77 × 10–5 m/s

(2) 1.77 × 10–5 m/s
(3) 2.08 × 105 m/s
(4) 0.57 × 105 m/s

11) Two charges q and 2q are placed at heights a/2 and a respectively from plane of the square

surface ABCD.Then flux through the square surface is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

12) Choose the wrong statement

(1) Work done in moving a charge on equipotential surface is zero.

(2) Electric lines of force are always normal to an equipotential surface
When two like charges are brought nearer, then electrostatic potential energy of the system
(3)
gets decreased.
(4) Electric lines of force diverge from positive charge and converge towards negative charge.

13) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Drift velocity of electron in a metallic wire will decrease if temperature of wire is
increased
Reason (R) : On increasing temperature, conductivity of metallic wire decreases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

14) Which part of the curve represents the negative resistance ?

(1) AB
(2) BC
(3) CD
(4) EF

15) Two small spheres each carrying a charge q are placed r meter apart. If one of the sphere is
taken around the other one in a circular path of radius r, the work done will be equal to :-

(1) Force between them × r

(2) Force between them × 2πr
(3) Force between them/2πr
(4) Zero

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Assertion : Molality of solution increases with increase in temperature.

Reason : Molality expression does not involve any volume term.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct

2) Identity the correct statement ?

(1) At high altitude, people generally suffer from anoxia.

(2) To increases solubility of CO2 in soft drinks, bottle is sealed under high pressure.
Concentration of dissolved gases in blood in underwater is higher than when people at surface
(3)
of water.
(4) All of these

3) A solution with negative deviation among the following is :-

(1) Ethanol – Acetone

(2) Chlorobenzene – Bromobenzene
(3) Chloroform – Acetone
(4) Benzene – Toluene

4) Van’t Hoff factor of Hg2Cl2 in its aqueous solution will be : (Hg2Cl2 is 80% ionized in the solution)

(1) 1.6
(2) 2.6
(3) 3.6
(4) 4.6
5) Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of :

(1) free electrons

(2) free ions
(3) free molecules
(4) free atoms of Na and Cl

6) One Faraday of electricity will liberate one mole of the metal from the solution of

(1) Auric chloride

(2) Silver nitrate
(3) Calcium chloride
(4) Copper sulphate

7) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : The cell potential becomes half if the cell reaction is divided by 2 throughout.
Statement-II : Cell voltage is an extensive quantity.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement I and II are correct.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

8) When a lead storage battery is charged it acts as (during charging)

(1) A fuel cell

(2) An electrolytic cell
(3) A galvanic cell
(4) A concentration cell

9) Equivalent conductance of NaCl is maximum for which of following concentration of solution :-

(1) 0.001 N
(2) 0.01 N
(3) 0.1 N
(4) 1 N

10) When Mg(NO3)2 in water is electrolysed, then the products at cathode and anode respectively
are :-

(1) O2, H2
(2) H2, O2
(3) O2, Mg
(4) H2, Mg
11) For a zero order reaction. Which of the following statement is false :

(1) the rate of reaction is independent of the temperature

(2) the rate is independent of the concentration of the reactants.
(3) the half life depends upon the concentration of the reactants.
(4) the rate constant has the unit mole L–1 s–1.

12) Which of the following solutions of KCl has the lowest value of equivalent conductance ?

(1) 1 M
(2) 0.1 M
(3) .01 M
(4) .001 M

13) The specific conductance of a salt of 0.01 M concentration is 1.061 × 10–4 S cm–1. Molar
conductance of the same solution will be :

(1) 1.061 × 10–4 S cm2 mol–1

(2) 1.061 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 10.61 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 106.1 S cm2 mol–1

14) Which of the follownig gas does not obey Henry's law ?

(1) NH3
(2) H2
(3) O2
(4) He

15) Which of the following complex is an outer orbital complex ?

2+
(1) [Ni(NH3)6]
4–
(2) [Mn(CN)6]
3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6]
4–
(4) [Fe(CN6)]

16) Select correct statement for Cr.6NH3.Cl3 and Cr.5NH3.Cl3

(1) In both complex compounds secondary valency is satisfied by only NH3

(2) In both complex compounds Cl– are satisfying only primary valency
(3) In both complex compounds primary valency is satisfied by only Cl–
(4) In both complex compounds all Cl– are ionizable

17) Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?

Complex Number of unpaired electrons
(A) [FeF6]3– 5
(B) [Cr(en)3]2+ 2
(C) [Co(NH3)6]3+ 4
(D) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ 5

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

18) For the complexes showing the square planar structure, the d-orbital involved in the
hybridisation is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) Pair of symmetrical bidentate ligand is :-

(1) en, ox
(2) gly, en
(3) ox, gly
(4) None of these

20) The Effective atomic number of Cr in Cr(CO)6 is

(1) 36
(2) 38
(3) 28
(4) 54

21) Choose only σ-donar ligand out of following.

(1) NH3
(2) Benzene
(3) H2O
(4) Both (1) and (3)

22) Which is an ambidentate ligand ?

(1) SCN– & CN–

(2) NH3
(3) H2O
(4) Both (1) and (3)
23) Choose the correct pair of Homoleptic complex :

3+
(1) [Co(NH3)6] & [Fe(CO)5]
3+ +
(2) [Co(NH3)6] & [Co(NH3)4H2]
2–
(3) [Cu(CN)4] & [Fe(CO)5]
(4) Both (1) and (3)

24) IUPAC name of [Cr(NH3)6]3+ is :-

(1) Hexaammine chromium (III) ion.

(2) Triammino chromium (II) ion.
(3) Hexaammino chromium (I) ion.
(4) None of these.

25) Select the compound having maximum conductivity in aqueous medium.

(1) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
(2) [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(3) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(4) [Cr(NH3)3Cl3]

26) In the complex [CO(NH3)4(SO4)]Cl coordination number, oxidation number and number of d e¯ on
the metal are respectively:-

(1) 6, 3, 6
(2) 6, 2, 7
(3) 5, 3, 6
(4) 5, 3, 7

27) Choose the correct option for double salt.

(1) Potash alum

(2) Mohr's salt
(3) Carnalite
(4) All

28) Which of the following is/are chelating ligand ?

(1) gly¯
(2) acac¯
(3) dien
(4) All of these

29) Number of chelating rings in K4[Fe(CN)6]

(1) 0
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 4

30) The strongest CO bond is present in

+
(1) [Cr(CO)6]
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
–
(3) [V(CO)6]
(4) all have equal strength

31) Match the following and choose correct option.

Ligand Property

(A) ethylenediamine (P) bidentate ligand

(B) hydrazene (Q) tridentate ligand

(C) dimethylglyoximato(dmg–) (R) Monodentate ligand

(D) dien (S) can form hydrogen bond

A B C D
(1) P Q R S
(2) P R Q S
(3) P R S Q
(4) P S Q R
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Which of the following does not follow EAN rule ?

(1) Fe(CO)5
(2) [Cr(CO)6]
(3) Mn(CO)5
(4) Ni(CO)4

33) What is the oxidation state of iron I and II respectively in the complex mentioned –
Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(I) (II)

(1) +2, +3
(2) +1, +2
(3) +3, +2
(4) +2, +2
34) Which of the following gives only 50% moles of AgCl, when reacts with AgNO3 :-

(1) PtCl2 · 4NH3

(2) PtCl4 · 5NH3
(3) PtCl4 · 4NH3
(4) PtCl4 · 3NH3

35) Which ligand is non-Classical ligand

(1) Cl¯
(2) CO
(3) OH¯
(4) NH3

SECTION-B

1) The ratio of depression in freezing point for the solution 0.01 M urea, common salt and
Na2SO4 would be :

(1) 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 3
(4) 2 : 2 : 3

2) The molar conductivities and at infinite dilution in water at 25°C are 91.0
2 –1
and 426.2 S cm mol respectively. To calculate the additional value required is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

3) A cell reaction would be spontaneous if the cell potential and are respectively

(1) Positive and negative

(2) Negative, Negative
(3) Zero, zero
(4) Positive, zero

4) For a reaction A(s) + 2B+(aq.) → A+2(aq.) + 2B(s)

Kc has been found to be 106. Then E°cell is :

(1) 0.36 V
(2) 0.18 V
(3) 0.708 V
(4) 0.0098 V

5) What would be the ratio of moles of Ag, Cu, Fe that would be deposited by passage of same
quantity of electricity through solution of salts containing Ag+,Cu+2, Fe+3

(1) 1 : 1 : 1

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 : 2 : 3

6) Which of the following statement is true :-

(a) Molarity is the no. of moles of solute dissolved per litre of solvent.
(b) The molarity and normality of a solution of sodium carbonate are same.
(c) Molality (m) of a solution is defined as the number of moles of solute dissolved is 1000 gm of
solution
(d) The ratio of mole fraction of solute and solvent is in the ratio of there respective moles.

(1) a & c
(2) a & d
(3) b & c
(4) Only d

7) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ and [Fe(CN)6]4– differ in :

(1) Geometry
(2) Coordination number
(3) Magnetic moment
(4) All of the above

8) In an octahedral crystal field, the t2g orbitals are :

(1) Raised in energy by 0.4 Δ0

(2) Lowered in energy by 0.4 Δ0
(3) Raised in energy by 0.6 Δ0
(4) Lowered in energy by 0.6 Δ0

9) Geometry & Magnetic nature of [PtCl4]2– & [PdCl4]2– are:-

(1) Both square planar and diamagnetic

(2) Both square planar and paramagnetic
(3) Both tetrahedral and diamagnetic
(4) None of these

10) Choose, the correct order according to spectro –chemical series.

 2–
(1) OH¯ < C2O4 < H2O
–2
(2) H2O < C2O4 < OH¯
2–
(3) C2O4 > OH¯ < H2O
(4) None of these

11) Value of spin only magnetic moment for [Pt (NH3)2Cl2] is:-

(1) 0
(2) 2.82
(3) 4.92
(4) None of these

12) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : - Both [Co(NH3)6]3+ and [CoF6]3– complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic
behaviour.
Statement-II : - [Co(NH3)6]3+ is diamagnetic whereas [CoF6]3– is paramagnetic.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and II are true.
(4) Both statement I and II are false.

13) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : [Co(NH3 )6]3+ is a homoleptic complex whereas [Co(NH3)4 Cl2]+ is a heteroleptic
complex.
Statement II : Complex [Co(NH3)6]3+ has only kind of ligand but [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ has more than one
kind of ligands.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

14) What is the oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+ ion?

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +1
(4) 0

15) Which of the following is true about metal-EDTA complex (if it is a 3d metal)

(1) The ratio of moles of metal & EDTA in complex is 1:6

(2) The ratio of moles of metal & EDTA in complex is 6:1
(3) The ratio of moles of metal & EDTA in complex is 1:1
(4) 3d metal ion cannot bonded with EDTA

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs :

(1) In the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division

(2) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube
(3) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
(4) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum

2) Correct sequence in development is :

(1) Fertilization → Zygote → Cleavage → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula

(2) Fertilization → Zygote → Blastula → Morula → Cleavage → Gastrula
(3) Fertilization → Cleavage → Morula → Zygote → Blastula → Gastrula
(4) Cleavage → Zygote → Fertilization → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula

3) What is true for cleavage :-

(1) Size of embryo increases

(2) Size of cells decrease
(3) Size of cells increase
(4) Size of embryo decreases

4) The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is

(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from Sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous
(3)
tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from
(4)
Sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.

5) Arrange the sequence of different hormones for their role during gametogenesis.
(A) Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and secretion of Androgen
(B) Gonadotropin releasing hormone from hypothalamus
(C) Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis
(D) Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of spermiogenesis
(E) Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (E), (A), (D), (B), (C)

(2) (C), (A), (D), (E), (B)
(3) (B), (E), (A), (C), (D)
(4) (D), (B), (A), (C), (E)

6) Which of the following events occurs at the same time that menstruation beginning ?

(1) The levels of oestrogen and progesterone in the ovarian hormone are in the rise
(2) The corpus luteum degenerate
(3) Ovulation occuring
(4) The level of LH and FSH are spiking

7) Hormones secreted by the corpus luteum are:

(1) hCG, hPL, Progesterone, Prolactin

(2) hCG, hPL, Estrogen, Relaxin, Inhibin
(3) Progesterone, Estrogen, Relaxin, Inhibin
(4) LH, Progesterone, Estrogen, Glucocorticoids

8) In a normal, Healthy 25 year old woman with a menstrual cycle of 28 days :-

(1) The proliferation of the uterus is caused by estrogen produced by ovarian follicle
(2) Menstruation is caused by progesterone secreted from the corpus luteum
Injections of estrogens and progesterone will cause an enlargement of the ovaries and an
(3)
increase in the production of mature ovarian follicles.
The concentration of estrogen in the blood plasma begins to fall prior to ovulation and continous
(4)
to decrease until menstruation.

9) The clitoris is derived from the same embryonic tissue as the

(1) penis
(2) scrotum
(3) testes
(4) prostate

10) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II
Maturation of graaffian
(a) Progesterone (I)
follicle
(b) Estrogen (II) Contraction of uterine wall
Regeneration of
(c) FSH (III)
endometrium
Makes endometrium ready
(d) LH (IV)
for implantation
Development of corpus
(V)
luteum
(1) a - IV, b - III, c - I, d-V
(2) a - III, b - II, c - V, d - I
(3) a - IV, b - V, c - III, d - II
(4) a - I, b - II, c - IV, d - III

11)

Select the option which include all correct statements:-

(a) Formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution
(b) Chemical evolution was preceded by formation of life
(c) Big bang theory attempts to explain us the origin of solar system

(d) First form of life arouse slowly through evolutionary forces from non-living molecules
(1) a,b and c correct
(2) c & d correct
(3) a & b correct
(4) a & d correct

12) Protobionts without lipid coat were synthesized by:-

(1) Oparin
(2) Sydney fox
(3) Miller
(4) Hugo-de-Vries

13) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?
A. Formation of protobionts
B. Formation of macromolecules
C. Formation of DNA based system
D. Formation of monomeric compounds

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) D, C, A, B
(3) D, B, A, C
(4) D, C, B, A

14) The sequence of origin of life may be :

(1) Inorganic materials → Organic materials → Colloidal aggregates → Eobiont → Cell

(2) Organic materials → Inorganic materials → Colloidal aggregates → Eobiont → Cell
(3) Inorganic materials → Organic materials → Eobiont → Cell → Colloidal aggregates
(4) Organic materials → Inorganic materials → Eobiont → Cell → Colloidal aggregates

15) In 1953 __(A)__ an American Scientist created similar conditions in Laboratory scale. This
experiment was evidence of __(B)__ theory. Select the option which fills A and B correctly.

A–S.L. Miller
(1)
B–Special creation
 A–Oparin
(2)
B–Oparin-Haldane
A–Lemaitre
(3)
B–Big bang
A–S.L. Miller
(4)
B–Oparin-Haldane

16) Which of the following is correct about origin and evolution ?

A – Universe originated about 20 billion years ago.
B – Universe is formed by a galaxy, known as ''milky way''.
C – Considering size of universe, earth is indeed a speck.
D – Big-bang theory attempts to explain us the origin of life.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) A, B and C
(4) Only A and C

17) Which of the following statement is incorrect :

(1) There was no atmosphere on early earth

(2) The UV-rays from the sun broke up water into hydrogen and oxygen and the lighter H2 escaped
(3) Oxygen combined with NH3 and CH4 to form water
(4) Life appeared 5 billion years after the formation of earth

18) Mark the incorrect statement regarding big bang theory that attempts to explain the origin of
universe ?

(1) It happened about 20 BYA

(2) Single huge explosion
(3) Unimaginable in physical terms
(4) Series of multiple explosion

19) Protobionts have :-

(1) Non-enzymatic protein & replicable nucleic acid

(2) Non-replicable nucleic acid & enzymatic protein
(3) Non-enzymatic & non-structural protein
(4) Structural protein & non-replicable nucleic acid

20) In 1953, 5L miller created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory, that include :-

(1) High temperature, Volcanic storms, Non reducing atmosphere

(2) Low temperature, volcanic storms, Reducing atmosphere
(3) High temperature, Volcanic storms, Reducing atmosphere contain CH4, NH3.
(4) Low temperature, Volcanic storms, atmosphere rich in oxygen.
21) Coacervates belongs to the category of:

(1) protozoans
(2) cyanobacteria
(3) molecular aggregates of protein and carbohydrates
(4) molecular aggregates surrounded by lipid membrane

22) Origin of life on earth today is prevented due to :-

(1) Presence of living beings

(2) Availability of free oxygen
(3) Non-availability of simple organic molecules
(4) Presence of U-V radiation

23) Evolution from simple cell till today is called :-

(1) Chemical evolution

(2) Biological evolution
(3) Organic evolution
(4) Inorganic evolution

24) Though the earliest evolved life forms were anaerobic, there was an eventual predominance of
aerobes on earth. Which of the following is the most likely reason for it ?

(1) Evolution of non-photosynthetic eukaryotic organization.

(2) Evolution of photosynthetic organisms.
(3) Evolution of heterotrophic organisms.
(4) Evolution of terrestrial aerial organisms.

25) Theory of chemical evolution postulates

(1) Formation of inorganic molecules from organic molecules.

(2) Formation of living organisms from rotten matter
(3) Formation of living organisms from preexisting life
(4) Formation of diverse organic molecules from inorganic constituents

26) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Earth is very old-almost 20 billion year old.

(2) Huge clusters of galaxies comprise the earth.
(3) Considering the size of universe, earth is indeed a speck.
(4) Big bang talks of a plural small explosion.

27)

Non cellular form of life appeared about :-

(1) 4.5 Bya
(2) 4 Bya
(3) 3 Bya
(4) 2 Bya

28) The scientist related with the theory of spontaneous generation and experiments with swan
necked flask is :-

(1) Von Helmont

(2) Miller
(3) Louis pasteur
(4) Weisman

29) Mark the correct statement for following fig :

(1) A = organic compounds, B = Condensor

(2) B = Electrode, C = Gaseous mixture
(3) D = Vacuum pump, C = Condensor
(4) A = Electrodes, D = Organic compound

30) Life cannot originate from inorganic materials now because of :-

(1) Low atmospheric temperature

(2) High degree of pollution
(3) Absence of raw material
(4) High atmospheric oxygen

31) According to ‘Big-bang theory’ a flat disc like structure is formed by thermonuclear explosion,
this disc like structure is called :-

(1) Big-bang
(2) Solar-nebula
(3) Solar-system
(4) Lemaitre

32) Miller experiment was done in _______ :-

(1) 1951
(2) 1953
(3) 1857
(4) 1957

33) According to which concept unit of life were transferred to different planets

(1) Panspermia
(2) Theory of spontaneous generation
(3) Theory of special creation
(4) Biogenesis

34) Early on earth oxygen combined with which gases to produce carbon dioxide and water

(1) Methane
(2) Ammonia
(3) Water vapour
(4) Both (1) and (2)

35) S.L. Miller obtained in his experiment :-

(1) Amino acid

(2) Ketones
(3) Glycerol
(4) Aldehydes

SECTION-B

1) In which duration menstrual cycle both LH & FSH attain a peak level?

(1) In last week

(2) Middle of cycle
(3) Initial days of cycle
(4) 4th day of cycle

2) Morphogenetic movements of blastomeres result in:-

(1) morula stage

(2) blastocyst stage
(3) gastrula stage
(4) zygote

3) How many of the following features are common for both male and female gametes in humans?
a. Presence of Locomotory structure-
b. Number of chromosome
c. Arrangement of mitochondria
d. Similar size and shape

(1) a,c
(2) b,c
(3) c, d
(4) b

4) Which statement is wrong ?

(1) Mammary lobes containing clusters of cells called alveoli

(2) Uterus is also called womb
(3) The last part of the oviduct is called ampulla
(4) Stroma of ovary is divided into two zones

5) Which statement is not true ?

(1) The ovarian and uterine cycles run parallel to each other
(2) Both are of 28 days duration
(3) The uterine cycle is not dependent on the ovarian cycle.
(4) Both (1) & (3)

6) Coacervates and microspheres are two important examples of

(1) Eukaryotic cells

(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Prokaryotic cells
(4) Protobiont

7) S.L. Miller performed his experiment at which temperature ?

(1) 800°C
(2) 200°C
(3) 800°F
(4) 1000°C

8) Assertion : Universe expanded.

Reason: Temprature of universe came down.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

9) Coacervates were :-

(1) Colloidal complexes

(2) Prokaryotes
(3) Eukaryotes
(4) Eobionts

10) First life appeared on earth on about :-

(1) 4BYA
(2) 3BYA
(3) 2BYA
(4) 500MYA

11) The study of life forms on earth is called as :-

(1) Pedigree
(2) Developmental biology
(3) Evolutionary biology
(4) Palaeontology

12) First life was originated in :-

(1) Sea water (water environment)

(2) Land
(3) Air
(4) Both (1) and (2)

13)

Abiogensis means :-

(1) Spontaneous generation

(2) Germplasm theory
(3) Origin of panspermia
(4) Organic evolution

14) How many components among following were not used by S.L. Miller in his experiment ?
CH4, NH3, H2O vapour, H2, Amino acid

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Two

15) Our universe is originated around, how many years ago ?

(1) 20 BYA
(2) 50 BYA
(3) 20 MYA
(4) 4.5 BYA

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Special creation theory was challenged by :-

(1) Lamark
(2) Darwin
(3) Miller
(4) Lyell

2) From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask :

(1) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 600°C

(2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C
(3) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapour at 800°C
(4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 600°C

3) According to chemical evolution theory :

(1) Life came from outside in the form of spore

(2) Life came out of decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud etc.
First form of life could have come from pre-existing non living organic molecules (eg.
(3)
RNA, protein, etc.)
(4) Both (1) and (3)

4) Some of primitive cells had the ability to release O2. The reaction could have been similar to the
light reaction in photosynthesis where water is split with the help of

(1) Solar energy

(2) Energy obtained from oxidation of inorganic molecules
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Direct oxidation of organic molecules

5) During evolution the first living being were prokaryotic cell like.
(1) Bacteria
(2) Virus
(3) Blue green algae
(4) Actinomycetes

6) Big bang theory was proposed by :

(1) Kant
(2) Miller
(3) Lemaitre
(4) Darwin

7) Find the odd one out regarding the primitive conditions on earth :-

(1) High temperature

(2) Lightening
(3) Oxidising atmosphere
(4) Volcanic storms

8) One of the possible early source of energy during origin of life, was :-

(1) Green plants

(2) UV rays, Cosmic rays, Volcanic eruption
(3) Chlorophyll
(4) CO2

9) What is paramount necessity for origin of life?

(1) Water
(2) Light
(3) Air
(4) Oxygen

10) Which of the following amino acids was not found to be synthesised in Millers experiment ?

(1) Alanine
(2) Glycine
(3) Aspartic acid
(4) Glutamic acid

11) In 1953 S.L. Miller performed an experiment which proves :-

(1) Chemical evolution of Louis Pasteur

(2) Organic evolution of Charlers Darwin
(3) Chemical evolution of Charles Darwin
(4) Chemical evolution of Oparin

12) Who proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non living organic
molecules (e.g. RNA, proteins etc) :-

(1) Darwin
(2) Weismann
(3) Alfred russel wallace
(4) A. I. Oparin

13) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

Species diversity was same and

(1) Theory of special creation
will be same in future.

New life can be originated on earth

(2) Theory of Biogenesis
by decaying and rotting matter

Life came from outer space

(3) Cosmic panspermia theory
through spores

First life have come from pre

(4) Oparin-Haldane theory
existing non-living organic molecule
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(1) First life was chemoautotroph

(2) Chemical evolution theory was presented by A.I. oparin
(3) First formed compound were urea and lipids
(4) Both (1) & (2)

15) Believers of spontaneous generation theory believed that :

(1) Life originated from other similar organisms or spontaneously

(2) Life originated only spontaneously
(3) Life originated from similar organisms
(4) Life originated from air

16) Which of the following amino acids were obtained in Miller's experiment ?

(1) Arginine, aspartic acid, histidine

(2) Glycine, arginine, glutamic acid
(3) Arginine, aspartic acid, glutamic acid
(4) Alanine, aspartic acid, glycine
17) The following are some major events in the early history of life.
(P) First heterotropic prokaryotes.
(Q) First nucleo-protein.
(R) First eukaryotes
(S) First autotrophic prokaryotes
(T) First animals
Which option below places these events in the correct sequence ?

(1) PQRST
(2) QSPTR
(3) QPSRT
(4) QSPRT

18) In barrier methods of contraception

(1) sterilisation is done

(2) Implantation is avoided
(3) chemicals and hormones are used
(4) male and female gametes are retained separated

19) What happens after vasectomy ?

(1) Absence of semen formation.

(2) Sperm are dead or inactive.
(3) Sperm immediately disappears in semen.
(4) Sperm gradually disappears in semen.

20) Which one of the following methods is not an infertility control method ?

(1) Intra uterine insemination - IUI

(2) Intra uterine transfer - IUT
(3) Intra Uterine device - IUD
(4) In - vitro fertilization - IVF

21) Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone ?

(1) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives pills

(2) Barrier method
(3) CuT, Pills
(4) Pills, Barrier methods

22) Which of the following function is performed by multiload 375 ?

(1) Inhibit ovulation

(2) Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
(3) Increases activity of phagocytic cells of uterus.
(4) Suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperm.

23) 'Saheli' a female contraceptive pill is used :-

(1) Daily
(2) Weekly
(3) Quarterly
(4) Monthly

24) Cu ions relesed from copper–releasing intra uterine devices (IUDs) :-

(1) Prevent ovulation

(2) Make uteres unsuitable for implantation
(3) Increase phagocytosis of sperms
(4) Suppress sperm motility

25) Which of the following contraceptive method protects from STDs ?

(1) Today
(2) Mirena
(3) Femsheild
(4) Multiload

26) In test tube baby programme, the embryo up to 8 blastomeres is transferred to fallopian tube,
this is called as:

(1) ZIFT
(2) GIFT
(3) IUT
(4) ICSI

27) Match the column–I with column–II

Column-I Column-II

(A) Copper releasing IUDs (i) Inhibit ovulation

(B) Oral pills (ii) Suppress sperms motility

Make the uterus unsuitable

(C) Sterilisation methods (iii)
for implantation

(D) Hormonal releasing IUDs (iv) Block gametes transport

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

28)
Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is

(1) natural, legal abortion

(2) Induced, legal abortion
(3) Induced, illegal abortion
(4) Natural, illegal abortion

29) Assertion : Natural method includes periodic abstinence, coitus interruptus and lactational
amenorrhea.
Reason : Natural method work on the principal of avoiding chances of ovum and sperm meeting.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

30) Which of the following is non - medicated IUD -

(1) LNG - 20
(2) Lippe's loop
(3) Progestasert
(4) Multi-load 375

31) Which of the following statements accurately describe intrauterine devices (IUDs)?
a. IUDs reduce the phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus.
b. The copper ions released by IUDs hinder sperm motility.
c. IUDs do not create a hostile environment for sperm in the cervix.
d. IUDs diminish the fertilization capacity of sperm.
e. Surgical intervention is necessary for the insertion of IUDs into the uterine cavity.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (a), (d), and (e) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (d) only
(4) (d) only

32) If male is having a very low sperm count and female is normal then which of the following
technique can be used to treat Infertility?

(1) ZIFT
(2) AI
(3) GIFT
(4) IUT

33) Select the copper releasing & hormone releasing IUDs respectively.

(1) Lippes loop, LNG-20

(2) CuT, LNG - 20
(3) Progestasert, Multiload - 375
(4) Lippes loop, CuT

34) Identify the chemical method of contraception :-

(1) LNG-20
(2) Today
(3) Progestasert
(4) Lippes Loop

35) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) MTP is safe during the first trimester of pregnancy.

(2) Removal of gonads is best and permanent method of contraceptive.
(3) ‘Saheli’ is a nonsteroidal oral contraceptive pill
(4) Intense lactation helps as a natural method of contraception

SECTION-B

1) Who proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic
molecules (eg RNA protein etc) :-

(1) Louis pasteur

(2) Oparin
(3) Darwin
(4) Weisman

2) The term "Prebiotic soup" was coined by :-

(1) Oparin
(2) Haldane
(3) Harvey
(4) Darwin

3) The Big bang theory attempts to explain us the origin of:

(1) Life
(2) Universe
(3) Human
(4) All of the above

4) According to theory of spontaneous generation?

(1) Life came from pre-existing life

(2) Life came from both living and non-living matter
(3) Life came from pre-existing, non-living, organic molecules
(4) Life originated from decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud etc.

5)
In the above diagram, identify A :-

(1) CH3, HCN, SO2, N2

(2) CH4, NH3, H2O, H2
(3) CH3, NH3, H2O, N2
(4) CH4, NH3, N2O, H2

6) Stellar distance is measured in :-

(1) Kilometer
(2) Light year
(3) Nano meter
(4) Toco meter

7) Early earth have which gases

(1) Water vapour and methane

(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Ammonia
(4) All of these

8) Which scientist by careful experimentation demonstrated that life comes only from pre-existing
life?

(1) Oparin and Haldane

(2) Darwin
(3) Louis Pasteur
(4) Lamarck

9) Population explodes because of either of the following reasons. Identify the correct choice

(1) increased maternal mortality rate

(2) decreased infant natality rate
(3) decrease in mortality and increase in natality
(4) increase in mortality and decrease in natality

10) Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transfer into :-

(1) Fallopian tube

(2) Uterus
(3) Ovary
(4) Vagina

11) Which of the following can be used as an emergency contraceptives ?

(1) Mala-D
(2) Saheli
(3) i-pills
(4) Condom

12) Which of the following is not a natural method of birth control ?

(1) Lactational Amenorrhea

(2) Withdrawl Interruptus
(3) Periodic abstinence
(4) Use of condoms during coitus

13) Inability to conceive or produce children inspite of unprotected sexual cohabitation is called ?

(1) Impotancy
(2) Infertility
(3) Female sterility
(4) Both (1) and (2)

14) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its
implantation into a woman and select the correct option for the two together :

Contraceptive
Site of implant
device
(1) LNG – 20 Fallopian tube
(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall
(3) Implants Subcutanceous
(4) Multiload 375 Uterine cavity
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Which is not a suitable method for population control?

(1) Oral pills

(2) I.U.C.D
(3) Condoms
(4) M.T.P.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 3 4 1 1 2 3 1 1 3 3 3 1 1 1 1 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 3 3 3 2 1 3 2 4 3 4 4 3 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 3 4 3 1 3 3 2 1 2 2 3 3 3 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 4 3 2 2 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 3 1 1 3 3 1 1 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 4 1 1 1 4 4 1 1 3 3 3 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 1 1 2 2 4 3 2 1 1 1 3 3 3 3

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 1 2 4 3 2 3 1 1 1 4 1 3 1 4 4 4 4 3 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 3 2 4 3 3 3 3 4 2 2 1 4 1

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 4 3 3 4 1 2 1 1 3 1 1 3 1

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 3 1 1 3 3 2 1 4 4 4 2 2 2 4 3 4 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 4 2 4 3 1 3 2 1 2 3 2 2 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 2 2 4 2 2 4 3 3 2 3 4 2 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

q1 = q6 =
q2 = 3Q – q1 = 2Q
q3 = –q2 = –2Q
q4 = –2Q – q3 = –2Q + 2Q = 0
q5 = –q4 = 0
q6 = Q

3)

Due to induction charge induced on shell

Before Induction After Induction

inner σ =

outer σ =

4) for sphere

5)

6)
 7)
From the figure -

8)

0
E =

E1 =

9)

0
V = =

10)

U = –PE cos θ if θ = 180° Umax = + PE

11) =0
⇒ q' =

12) τ = PE sin 30

13) E = 0 in case (iii) → minimum

14)

15) For bigger drop R = n1/3 r ⇒ R = 2r = 2mm

Q = 8q ⇒ Q = 8 × 0.066 × 10–12

⇒
= 2.37V

16) V = V1 + V2 + V3
 =

17)

Wext = – Wfield = Δu = q (ΔV), here ΔV > 0

⇒ Wfield negative and Δu > 0

18)

= – [slope of V - r graph]

19)

E=– =–

Ex = – = – (10x + 5y) = – 10 + 10 = 0

Ey = – = – 5x = –5
∴ = –5 V/m ∴ (2)

20) R = = =

21) For same potential difference

(length of conductor)

22) q = i t
q = 5 × 4 × 60 = 1200 C

23)

For a conductor of non-uniform cross-section

24)

i=
i = (t2 + 2t)
= (2t + 2)
it = 2s = (2 × 2 + 2)
= 6A

25)

I = neAvd,
Momentum of all free electrons/length

p=

26)

Volume remains same ⇒ AL = A'(2L)

A' = ; Ri =

Rf = = 4Ri

%change = = 300%

27)

28)

I = n e A vd
L1 = 2L2
R1 = R2

A1 = 2A2

vd ∝

29)

Mobility μ =
 30)

i = neAvd
5 = 5 × 1026 × 1.6 × 10–19 × 4 × 10–6 vd

m/sec

31) Because ⇒ ϕ only along x-axis.

⇒ ϕnet = ϕin + ϕout = 0 + E0(a)2(a2)=E0a4
⇒ By gauss theorem qin = ε0(ϕnet) = ε0E0a4

32)

From the Gauss law in which qenclosed enclosed is the net charge inside an imaginary
closed surface (a Gaussion surface) flux does not depend on radius of imagenary closed surface.

33)

Area of I-t curve is always equal to charge flow :-

So qtotal =
= 45 μC

34) R = tanθ
{θ angle with current axis}
here, R = tan(90- θ)
R = cot θ

35) Resistivity and conductivity both are inverse of each other.

36) Wext = qΔv = q(vB-vA) = q (vs - vp)

=–

⇒ Wfield= – Wext =

37) For dipoles placed on vertical line

 for dipole placed on horizontal line –

⇒ at origin =

38) * Net force on dipole in uniform electric field is zero.

* = PE sin θ when θ = 90° ⇒ = τmax = PE.

39)

The system can be considered as combination of –ve sphere with +ve sphere of smaller radius but
have same charge density

40)

Considering outer spherical shell is non-conducting

Electric field inside a metal sphere is zero.

r<R⇒E=0;

Option (2)
Considering outer spherical shell is conducting

r < R, E = 0

, E=0
 41)

Electric field due to both the plates will be cancelled out for all the points. So the net electric field at
the points will be governed only by the sphere. Farther the point from the sphere, lesser the
magnitude of electric field.
Therefore E3 = E4 > E2 > E1

42) By COME - ΔK = ΔU (To cover distance = d)

Hence, v = vmin

43)

F = qE ⇒ a =

⇒x= at2 =

k.E = WE = qE

44)

So

45)

Given, A = 0.3 m2, n = 2 × 1025 /m3,

q = 3t2 + 5t + 2C

At t = 2 & I = 6 × 2 + 5 = 17

∴ Drift velocity,

46)

47) Theoretical

48) Increase in temperature causes atoms to vibrate more, which increases the number of
collisions electrons suffer and decrease the drift velocity.

OR $

49) Inverse of slope of E-V curve is resistance.

50) For circular path potential v = const, W = qΔv=0

CHEMISTRY

51) Fact and conceptional.

52) At high altitudes the partial pressure of oxygen is less than that at the ground level. This
leads to low concentrations of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high altitudes
or climbers. Low blood oxygen causes climbers to become weak and unable to think clearly,
symptoms of a condition known as anoxia.

54)

Hg2Cl2 ⇌ Hg22+ + 2Cl–

n=3

α=

0.8 =
i = 2.6
 55) When a salt like NaCl is molten, in molten state its ions becomes mobile and those mobile
ions are charge carrier which are responsible for conduction of electricity.

56) 1 F ⇒ 1 mol e– , means charge one mole e–

So, AgNO3
↓

57)

Statement-I : EMF of cell is intensive property

Statement-II : EMF of cell = cell voltage which is intensive

58)

Charging : Electrolytic cell

Discharge: Galvanic cell

59)

because

60)

At cathode : 2H2O + 2e– → H2(g) + 2OH–(aq)

At anode : 2H2O → O2(g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e–

61)

Rate is always depends upon temperature.

62) Equivalent conductance

For KCl v.f. = 1, So N = M

N ⇒ λeq ↓ or M ⇒ λeq ↓

63) Given :
Specific conductance (κ) = 1.061×10–45cm–1

Now Molar conductance

=
= 10.61 S cm2mol–1
 64) NH3 reacts with water

65)

Ni2+ (3d8) with NH3 and C.N. = 6

Hybridisation sp3d2 (outer orbital complex)

66)

Cr.6NH3.Cl3 → [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
Secondary valency ‘6’ satisfied by only NH3, all Cl– satisfy only primary valency.
Cr.5NH3.Cl3 → [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
Secondary valency ‘6’ satisfied by five NH3 and one Cl– while all three Cl– satisfy primary
valency.

67)

68) In square planar complexes (dsp2), is used

69)

70)

[Cr(CO)6]
EAN = Z–(O.S.) + 2 × C.N
EAN = 24 + 0 + 12 = 36
 71)

Benzene is a π-donar while NH3 & H2O are sigma donar ligand.

72)

In SCN– Sulphur & Nitrogen both are donor but at one time only one atom will act as donor. In
CN– both carbon and nitrogen are donor but at one time only one of them will act as donor.

73)

In case of [Co(NH3)6]3+ → All ligand are same

[Cu(CN)4]2– → All ligand are same
[Fe(CO)5] → All ligand are same
Hence, in option (i) & (iii) complexes are Homoleptic.

74) IUPAC name to [Cr(NH3)6]3+ is Hexammine chromium (III) ion.

75)

[Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 → [Cr(NH3)6]3+ + 3Cl¯

number of ions = 4 (maximum number of ions among these)
so, maximum conductivity.

76)

[CO(NH3)4(SO4)]Cl
x + 0 × 4 + (–2) –1 = 0
x = +3, Oxidation state = +3
Coordination no. = 6
NH3 is monodentate and SO4–2 acts as bidentate ligand.

77) Potash alum, mohr's salt and carnalite are double salt.

78) gly¯, acac¯ and dien, are chelating ligand.

79)

Number of chelating ring = Denticity –1 = 1 – 1 = 0

80) As +ve charge on central metal ↑, Synergic bonding↓, CO bond strength ↑

81)

(A) Ethylenediamine with two donor site (bidentate)

 (B) Hydrazine with only one donor site or site (Monodentate ligand)

(C) Dimethylglyoximato (dmg–) can form hydrogen bond

(D) Dien with three donor site (Tridentate ligand)

82)

EAN = Z – O.S + 2(CN)

(1) Fe(CO)5 EAN = 26 – 0 + 2(5) = 36
(2) [Cr(CO)6] EAN = 24 – 0 + 2(6) = 36
(3) Mn(CO)5 EAN = 25 – 0 + 2(5) = 35
(4) Ni(CO)4 EAN = 28 – 0 + 2(4) = 36

83)

Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 ⇌ 4fe3+ + 3[Fe(CN)6]4– ; (Fe = x)

x + 6(–1) = –4
x = +2

84)
 (1) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]
(2) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 → [Pt(NH3)5Cl]3+ + 3Cl¯
75%
2+
(3) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2 → [Pt(NH3)4Cl2] + 2Cl¯
50%
+
(2) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl → [Pt(NH3)3Cl3] + Cl¯
25%

85)

Ligands which are σ donor and π acceptors are non-classical.

e.g. CO, NO+ etc.

86) ΔTf ∝ i

87)
=
To substract molar conductance of Na+ and Cl– We required .

88)

For a spontaneous cell reaction

Ecell = +ve and = –ve

89)

⇒ E°cell =

90)

One Eq of of charge will result in deposition of one Eq of all species

Moles =
Ag+ : Cu2+ : Fe3+
Eq. 1 1 1

Moles : :

91) As per theory

92)
µ = 4.9 B.M. ; octahedral

µ = 0 ; octahedral

93)

94)

In both, cases Pd and Pt is present is +2 oxidation state, i.e. d 8 configuration. 4d & 5d series
elements in +2 oxidation state with 4 coordination no. forms square planar inner orbital i.e. low spin
complex (dsp2), as :-

Hence, both are square planar & diamagnetic ( all the e– are paired).
i.e. no unpaired e– is present.

95)

According to spectro chemical series, ligand field strength OH¯ < C2O42– < H2O

96)

NH3 being strong field ligand, pairs up 2e– of 5d subshell.

Hence hybridisation is dsp2 i.e.

Hence, no. unpaired e¯ means;

µs = = 0 B.M.

97)

Co+3 → d6

In case of Co+3, NH3 acts as SFL so, pairing of e¯ occurs.

No unpaired e¯ is available hence diamagnetic.

While in case of F¯ pairing of e¯ not occurs because F¯ is a weak field ligand, hence paramagnetic.

98)

[Co(NH3)6]3+ has all ligands same so homoleptic.

[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ do not have all ligands same so heteroleptic.

99)

x + 0 × 5 + 1 = +2
x = +1, so, oxidation state = +1

100)

EDTA is hexadentate ligand,

So, metal & EDTA ratio is 1 : 1
For eg. [Ca(EDTA)]–2

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