CHAPTER-1

Unit VII: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 08 Periods

ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter SECTION A
Dual nature of radiation, Photoelectric effect, Hertz andLenard's (1 MARK QUESTION)
Q1. In an experiment three microscopic latex spheres are sprayed into a chamber and became
observations; Einstein's photoelectric equation-particle nature of light.
charged with charges +3e, +5e and -3e respectively. All the spheres came in contact
Experimental study of photoelectric effect simultaneously for a moment and got separated. Which one of the following possible values

Matter waves-wave nature of particles, de-Broglie relation. for the final charge on spheres?
(a) +5e, -4e, +5e (b) +6e, +6e, -7e (c) -4e, +3.5e, +5.5e (d) +5e, -8e, +7e
Unit VIII: Atoms and Nuclei 15 Periods Q2. An object has charge of 1 C and gains 5.0 x 10 18 electrons. The net charge on the object
becomes
Chapter–12: Atoms
(a) -0.80 C (b) +0.80 C (c) +1.80 C (d) +0.20 C
Alpha-particle scattering experiment; Rutherford's model of atom; Bohr
Q3. Two equal balls having equal positive charge ‘q’ coulombs are suspended by two insulating
model of hydrogen atom, Expression for radius of nth possible orbit, velocity
strings of equal length. What would be the effect on the force when a plastic sheet is inserted
and energy of electron in nth orbit, hydrogen line spectra (qualitative
between the two? (CBSE 2014)
treatment only).
Q4. Sketch the electric field line for +q and –q. [CBSE 2015]

Chapter–13: Nuclei Q5. Why do the electric field lines never cross each other? [CBSE AI 2014]
Q6. Why do the electrostatic field lines not form closed loops? [CBSE 2012,2014]
Composition and size of nucleus, nuclear force
Q7. Draw the electric field lines of a point charge Q where (i) Q>0 (ii) Q<0 [CBSE
Mass-energy relation, mass defect; binding energy per nucleon and its 2007]
variation with mass number; nuclear fission, nuclear fusion. Q8. A proton is placed in a uniform electric field directed along the positive x-axis. In which
direction will it tend to move? [CBSE 2011]

Unit IX: Electronic Devices 10 Periods

Assertion & Reason
Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and
Direction: ( FOR ALL THE ASSERTION & REASON QUESTIONS)
Simple Circuits
Two statements are given. One labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled reasoning. Select the
Energy bands in conductors, semiconductors and insulators (qualitative correct answers to their questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given below.
ideas only) Intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors- p and n type, p-n junction (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Semiconductor diode - I-V characteristics in forward and reverse-bias, (b) Both A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

application of junction diode -diode as a rectifier. (c) A is true but R is false.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 1 of 484

 (d) A is false but R is also false. Assertions & Reasons
Q9. Assertion: A point charge is brought in an electric field, then electric field at a nearby point Q15. The dimensional formula of electric flux is
may increase or decrease. (a) [M1L2T-2A-1] (b) [M-1L3T-3A1] (c) [M1L3T-3A-1] (d) [M1L-3T-3A-1]
Reason: The electric field is dependent on the nature of charge Q16. What is the SI unit of electric flux
Q10. Assertion: Electronic lines of force cross each other. 𝑁 𝑁 𝑁2
(a) x m2 (b) N x m2 (c) xC (d) x C2
Reason: Electric field at a point does not superimpose to give one resultant electric field. 𝐶 𝑚2 𝑚2

Q11. Assertion: A way from a charge filed lines gets weaker and density of field lines is less 𝐸. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
Q17. If ∮𝑠 ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑑𝑆 = 0 inside a surface, that means:

resulting in well separated lines. (a) There is no net charge present inside the surface
Reason: Only a finite number of lines can be drawn from a charge. (b) Uniform electric field inside the surface
Case Based MCQs (c) Discontinuous field lines inside the surface

Direction: Answer the questions from Q12 to Q14 on the following case. (d) Charge present inside the surface
Q18. Four charges +8Q -3Q +5Q and -10Q are kept inside a closed surface. What will be the
An electric field lines in general is a curve drawn in such way that the
outgoing flux through the surface
tangent to it at each point is in the direction of the electric field at that
(a) 26 V-m (b) 0 V-m (c) 10 V-m (d) 8 V-m
point. A field lines is a space curve, i.e. a curve in three dimensions.
Q19. Electric flux over an area in an electric field represents the ……….. crossing this area.
Electric field lines are then used to pictorially map the electric field
Q20. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is
around a charge or a configuration of charges:
doubled, then the ………. will remain the same.
The density of field lines in more near the charge. Away from the charge, the field is weak, so the
𝐸. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
Q21. If ∮𝑠 ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑑𝑆 =0 over a surface, then
density of field lines is less.
(a) the electric field inside the surface and on it is zero
Q12. Direction of electric field on field lines is determined by
(b) the electric field inside the surface is necessarily uniform
(a) Field lines moving from –ve to +ve charge.
(c) the number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines
(b) At the point of intersection of field lines.
leaving it
(c) By the tangent at that point on the field lines.
(d) all charges must necessarily be outside the surface
(d) None of above.
Q22. The electric flux through the surface
Q13. The electric field lines of negatively charged particles are
(a) Radial and outwards. (c) Radial and inwards.
(b) Circular and anti-clockwise. (d)Circular and clockwise.
Q14. The spacing between two electric field lines indicate it
(a) Charge (b) Position (c) Strength (d) None of the above

(a) In fig (iv) is the largest

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 (b) fig (iii) is the least Q32. A small metal sphere carrying a charge +Q is located at
(c) fig (ii) is same as fig (iii) but is smaller than fig (iv) the center of a spherical cavity is a large uncharged
(d) is the same for all the figures metallic spherical shell. Write the charges on the inner
Q23. Assertion- Electric flux is a vector quantity. and outer surfaces of the shell. Write the expression for
Reason- Electric flux is expressed as vector product of electric field vector and area the electric field at the point P1. [CBSE 2014]
vector. Q33. Two point charges q1 and q2 are located at point (a,0,0) and (0, b,0) respect. Find the electric
Q24. Assertion- Electric flux through closed spherical surface enclosing an electric dipole is field due to both these charges at the point (0,0, e). [CBSE 2013]
zero. Q34. What is Gaussian surface? What is its use?
Reason- Net charge enclosed inside a spherical surface when a dipole is inside it is zero. Q35. S1 and S2 are two hollow concentric spheres (S2 outer sphere and S1 inner sphere) enclosing
Q25. Assertion- Gaussian surface is purely imaginary surface. charges 9Q and 3Q respectively. What is the ratio of electric flux through S 1 and S2? What
Reason- Electric field at every point on a Gaussian surface is same. would be electric flux through S1, if air inside S1 is replaced by a medium of dielectric
Q26. Assertion- Gaussian surface can be drawn outside the body or within the body. constant 3?
Reason- It is purely imaginary surface. Q36. A hollow cube of side 5cm encloses a charge of 6C at its centre. What is the net flux through
Q27. Assertion- Electric field at a point inside spherical shell with a charge uniformly spread one of the square face of cube? How would flux through square face change if 6C charge is
on its outer surface is zero. placed as 4C and 2C inside the cube at two different points?
Reason- There is no charge enclosed within the closed shell. Three-mark questions
Q28. Assertion- Electric field at any point away from linear charge distribution decreases Q37. A particle of charge 2µC and mass 1.6g is moving with a velocity 4î ms -1. At t = 0 the particles
with distance. enters in a region having an electric field E (in N C -1) = 80î + 60ĵ. Find the velocity of
Reason- Electric field at any point away from linear charge distribution is expressed as particle at t = 5s. ( CBSE2020)
𝜆
E=
2п𝜖𝑜 r
. Q38. A particle of mass 10-3 kg and charge 5C enters into a uniform electric field of 2 x 10 5 N/C,

Two-mark questions moving with a velocity of 20 m/s in a direction opposite to that of the field. Calculate the

Q29. State the superposition principle for electrostatic force on a charge due to number of charges. distance it would travel before coming to rest. [CBSE 2012]
Q39. State and prove Gauss Theorem.
Q30. A force F is acting between two point charges q1 and q2. If a third charge q3 is placed quite
Q40. Using Gauss theorem obtain an expression for electric field intensity at a point due to
close to q2, what happens to the force between q1 and q2? (2011)
infinitely long line charge distribution. Sketch graphically variation of E with distance r.
Q31. i) The electric field E due to a point charge at any point near it is defined as E=𝑙𝑖𝑚 E/q,
𝑞→0 Q41. Using Gauss theorem obtain an expression for electric field intensity at a point due to thin
where q is the test charge and F is the force acting on it. What is the physical significance of infinite sheet.
𝑙𝑖𝑚 in this expression? Four-mark questions
𝑞→0

(ii) Draw electric field lines of a point charge Q when a. Q>0 b. Q<0 [CBSE 2007] Q42. Read the following passage and answer questions below it.
A spherical dome in an expo consists of magical fan fixed inside it. The blades of
fan have a total charge of 6 C deposited on it. The dome is also surrounded by four such

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 4 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 5 of 484
 identical fans fixed outside it, each carrying a charge of 6 C on its blade. When a fan SECTION A-ANSWER KEY
inside the dome is switched ON, the charge deposited on the blades of a fan flies off (1-MARK QUESTION)
but remains inside the dome. However, when the fans outside the dome are switched
1. (b)
ON charge deposited on the blades remain confined to blades. The dome is covered
2. (d) Q= ne
by electrosensitive glittering sheet whose glittering intensity varies directly as the electric
Q= 5 x 1018 x 1.6 x 10-15 = 0.8 C
flux falling upon its surface varies.
So net charge = q + Q = 1 – 0.8 = 0.2C
1. What is the net electric flux through the closed surface of dome, when all the fans are
3. F’ = F/K Where K= dielectric constant
switched OFF?
Hence force is reduced when plastic sheet is inserted
a) 6C/ ϵ o b) 1 C/ ϵ o c) 30C/ ϵ o d) 1 C/12 ϵ o
4.
2. What is the net electric flux through the closed surface of dome, when all the fans are
switched ON?
a) 30C/ ϵ o b) 1 C/ ϵ o c) 6C/ ϵ o d) 1 C/12 ϵ o
3. Which of the following observations is correct for glittering intensity of electrosensitive
sheet covering the dome?
a) Glittering intensity is zero when fan inside the dome is switched OFF 5. If electric field lines cross each other, then at the point of
b) Glittering intensity is maximum when fan inside the dome is switched ON intersection at P, there will be two tangents which is
c) Glittering intensity is always constant whether the fan inside is switched ON or OFF impossible.
d) Glittering intensity varies as outside fans are switched ON 6. Since electric field lines emergent from positive charge and terminate at negative charge. If
4. Name the principle which explains the observation of glittering intensity of electrosensitive there is a single charge, then emerging field lines terminate at infinity. Therefore, they never
sheet. form closed loop.
a) Coulomb’s law in electrostatics b) Gauss theorem in electrostatics 7. (i) Q>0 (ii) Q<0
c) Superposition principle of charge d) None of the above
Five-mark questions
Q43. Two point charges of +1 µC and +4 µC are kept 30 cm apart. How far from the +1µC charge
on the line joining the two charges will the net electric field be zero? (2020)
Q44. (a) Define electric field intensity. Write its SI unit. 8. The proton will move in the direction of electric field as it is positively charged. i.e. towards
(b) Two point charges 4 𝜇c & 1 𝜇c are separated by a distance of 2m in air. Find the point the positive x-axis.
on the line joining the charges at which the net electric field of the system is zero. 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c)
Q45. Obtain the expression for electric field intensity due to a 15. (c) [M1 L3 T-3A-1]
(a) Point charge and 𝑁
16. (a) x m2
(b) due to system of charge Plot the graph for the variation for E and r. 𝐶

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17. a) There is no net charge present inside the surface. 𝐸. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
By conveniently choosing the Gaussian surface one can evaluate ∮𝑠 ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑑𝑆 over it and find
18. (b) 0 V-m out expression for electric field intensity.
19.. Total number of electric field lines. 35. Electric flux through S1, Φ1=9Q/ϵo
20. Electric Flux.
Electric flux through S2, Φ2= 9Q/ ϵo +3Q/ϵo = 12Q/ϵo ∴ Φ1/ Φ2=3/4
21. (c) the number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines
When air inside S1 is replaced by a medium of ϵr=3
leaving it
Then electric flux through S1= Φ1= 9Q/ϵ= 9Q/ϵo ϵr = 9Q/3 ϵo =3Q/ϵo.
22. (d) is the same for all the figures
23. D) 24. A) 25. B) 26. A) 27. A) 28. A) 36. Electric flux through cube, ΦE= q/ϵo= 6C/ ϵo

Answer for Two-mark questions Electric flux through square face, =1/6 x ΦE= 1/6 x 6C/ ϵo =1/ ϵo

29. The principle of superposition states that the total force on a given charge is the vector sum of Flux through a square face remains same even if 6C charge is distributed ass 4 C and 2 C at
the individual forces exerted on it by all other charges, the force between two charges being two different points since total charge inside the cube remains unchanged.
exerted in such a manner as if all other charges were absent
F = F12 + F13 + ……+ F1N Answer to Three-mark questions
30. The force between q1 and q2 remains equal to F. 37. F = ma or qE= ma
31. (i) 𝑙𝑖𝑚 tells is that test charge is so small that it does not charge (affect) the source a= qE/m = 2 x 10-6 x ( 80î + 60ĵ) / 1.6 x 10-3
𝑞→0

charge. = (100x 10-3) î + (75 x 10-3) ĵ

(ii) V = u + at
= 4 î +((100x 10-3) î + (75 x 10-3) ĵ)x5
= 4.5î +0.375 ĵ
38. Acceleration, a=qE/m = 5 X 10−6 𝑋 2 𝑋 10−5 / 10−3 = 103 m/𝑠 2
Now 𝑣 2 = 𝑢2 − 2𝑎𝑠
0 = (20)2 -2 X 1000 X S
Therefore, S =400/2000 =1/5 =0.2m
32. Inner surface charge = -Q Outer surface charge = +Q
39. Let +q be the point charge located at point O. Consider
E=Q/4π𝛆0 𝑟12
spherically symmetric Gaussian surface around it as shown.
33.. ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
Enet = ⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗2
E1 + 𝐸 Let P be the point on its surrounding elemental area dS and
= K ( q1/r13 ⃗⃗⃗
r1 + ( q2/r23 ⃗⃗⃗
r2 ) 𝑟 as the position vector of point P. Electric field 𝐸⃗ due to
Where r1 = −𝑎𝑙̂ + 𝑐𝑘̂ 𝑟2 = - 𝑏𝐽̂ + 𝑐𝑘̂
⃗⃗⃗ point charge +q and ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆 are in the same direction as shown.
𝐸⃗ 𝑛𝑒𝑡 = 1/4πE0 [q1 (−𝑎𝑙̂ + 𝑐𝑘̂ )/(a2 + c2)3/2 + q2 (- 𝐽̂ + 𝑐𝑘̂)/ (b2 + c2)3/2 Then the total electric flux through closed surface S is
34. A Gaussian surface is an imaginary surface at every point of which electric field is same. ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
ΦE Total=∮𝑠 𝐸. 𝑑𝑆

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 =∮𝑠𝐸 𝑑𝑆 cos 𝜃 = ∮𝑠𝐸 𝑑𝑆 cos 0o 41. Electric field intensity due to uniformly charged
thin infinite plane sheet.
ΦE Total=E ∮𝑆 𝑑𝑆= q/4пϵor2 ∮ 𝑑𝑆 ( ∵ E= q/4пϵor2) Consider uniformly charged infinitely long thin plane

=q/4пϵo r2 x (4пr2) sheet as shown in diagram. Let ‘σ’ be the surface

charge density. In order to find out electric field
ΦE Total= q/ϵo
intensity at point ‘P’ due plane charged sheet we
consider circular elemental area ‘A’ of the sheet
carrying total charge q. Considering cylindrical
40. Electric field due to infinitely long uniformly charged
straight wire Gaussian surface enclosing the given charged area A
Consider uniformly charged infinitely long straight wire. In and applying Gauss Theorem to situation
order to find electric field intensity at point ‘P’ distance ‘r’
𝐸. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
∮𝑠 ⃗⃗⃗ 𝐸. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆= ∮𝐼 ⃗⃗⃗ 𝐸. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆+ ∮𝐼𝐼 ⃗⃗⃗ 𝐸. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆+ ∮𝐼𝐼𝐼 ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑑𝑆
from the wire we consider cylindrical Gaussian surface
but ∮𝑠 ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗ = ∮ ⃗⃗⃗
𝐸. 𝑑𝑆 ⃗⃗⃗⃗ + ∮ ⃗⃗⃗
𝐸. 𝑑𝑆 ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐸. 𝑑𝑆 (∵ ∮𝐼𝐼 ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 0)
𝐸. 𝑑𝑆
with portion of length‘l’ of charged wire as axis. r 𝐼 𝐼𝐼𝐼

= E ∮𝐼 𝑑𝑆+ E ∮𝐼𝐼𝐼 𝑑𝑆
Applying Gauss Theorem to this situation,
=E(A)+E(A)=2EA
𝐸. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
∮𝑠 ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑑𝑆= q/ϵo---------(1) 𝐸. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
but ∮𝑠 ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑑𝑆= q/ϵo= σ A/ϵo
but ∮𝑠 ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗ = ∮ ⃗⃗⃗
𝐸. 𝑑𝑆 ⃗⃗⃗⃗ + ∮ ⃗⃗⃗
𝐸. 𝑑𝑆 ⃗⃗⃗⃗ + ∮ ⃗⃗⃗
𝐸. 𝑑𝑆 ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐸. 𝑑𝑆 ∴2EA= σ A/ϵo
𝐼 𝐼𝐼 𝐼𝐼𝐼

𝐸. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
but ∮𝐼 ⃗⃗⃗ 𝐸. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆= ∮𝐼𝐼𝐼 ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑑𝑆=0 (∵ 𝐸⃗ ⊥ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆) E= σ/2ϵo

∴∮𝑠 ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗ = ∮ 𝐸.

𝐸. 𝑑𝑆 ⃗⃗⃗⃗ = ∮ 𝐸 𝑑𝑆 cos 0o
⃗⃗⃗ 𝑑𝑆 Answer for Four-mark questions
𝐼𝐼 𝐼𝐼

= E ∮𝐼𝐼 𝑑𝑆= E 2пrl ---------(2) 42. 1 a) 6C/ ϵ o 2 c) 6C/ ϵ o

From (1) &(2), we get

3 c) Glittering intensity is always constant whether the fan inside is switched ON or OFF
4 d) Gauss theorem in electrostatics
E 2пrl = q/ϵo
E= q/2пϵorl= λ/2пϵor (∵ λ= q/l is linear charge density)
Answer to Five-mark questions
E= λ/2пϵor= 2λ/4пϵor 43. Let at point P, the net electric field is
zero, then
1/ x2 = 4/ (30-x)2
After solving x = 10cm
44. a. Electric field Intensity – It is defined as the force per unit charge.
𝐸⃗ = F/q , SI unit of 𝐸⃗ = N/C or volt per meter V/m
b. Let the required point is at a distance x from 2𝜇c charge

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 10 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 11 of 484
 k 4 𝜇c / 𝑥 2 = k 1 𝜇c /(2 − 𝑥)2 = 4/𝑥 2 = 1/(4+𝑥 2 − 2𝑥) SECTION B
2 2
= (2/𝑥) = (1/2 − 𝑥) = 2/x = +- 1/(2-x) ( 1 MARK QUESTION)
x=4/3m or 4m
x= 4 does not satisfy therefore, x=4/3m Q1. Draw a pattern of electric field lines due to two positive charges placed a distance d apart?
45. Expression for intensity of electric field due to a point charge (2019) (given in NCERT book)
According to coulomb’s law, Q2. Why do the electrostatic field lines not form closed loop? (2012) (given in NCERT book)
F= 1/4π𝛆0 (𝑞0 𝑞/𝑟 2 )
E= F/𝑞0 =1/4π𝛆0 (𝑞0 𝑞/𝑞0 𝑟 2 )
Assertions and Reasons
E= 1/4π𝛆0 (𝑞/𝑟 2 ) N/C
E=9.0 X 109 𝑞/𝑟 2 Directions
In the following questions (3-8), a statement of Assertion (A) is followed be a statement of Reason
xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reasons are false.
Q3. Assertion: A negative charge in an electric field moves along the direction of the electric
field.
Reason: On a negative charge a force acts in the direction of electric field.
Q4. Assertion: Acceleration of a charged particle in non-uniform electric field does not depend
on velocity of charged particle.
Reason: Charge is an invariant quantity. That is the amount of charge on particle does not
depend on frame of reference.
Q5. Assertion: Net electric field inside a conductor is zero.
Reason: Total positive charge equals to the total negative charge in a charged conductor.
Q6. Assertion: All the charge in a conductor gets distributed on whole of its outer surface.
Reason: In dynamic system charges try to keep their potential energy minimum.
Q7. Assertion: The tires of aircrafts are made slightly conducting.
Reason: If a conductor is connected to the ground, the extra charge induced on the conductor
will flow to the ground.
Q8. Assertion: The Coulomb force is the dominating force in the universe.

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 Reason: The Coulomb force is weaker than the gravitational force. a negative charge.
Q9. Draw the pattern of electric field lines when a point charge +Q is kept near an uncharged Reason : A charged particle free to move in an electric field always move along an
conducting plate. [CBSE 2019] electric line of force.
Q10. Two point charges q1 and q2 are placed at a distance d apart as Q17. Assertion : A negative charge in an field moves along the direction of electric field.
shown in the fig. The electric filed intensity is zero at the point Reason : On a negative charge a force acts in the direction of electric field.
P on the line joining them as shown. Write two conclusions Q18. Assertion : In a non-uniform electric field a dipole will have translator as well as rotatory
that you draw from this. motion
Q11. A few electric field lines for a system of two charges Q1 and Reason : In a non-uniform electric field a dipole experience a force as well as torque.
Q2 are fixed at two different points on the x-axis are shown in
the fig. What is the nature of charges? [IIT JEE 2010] Case Study base type question
MCQ Types Question Electric field strength is proportional to the density of
Q12. Consider a uniform spherical distribution of Radius R1 centered at the origin O. In this lines of force i.e., electric field strength at a point is
distribution, a spherical cavity of Radius R2 centered at P with distance OP=a=R1-R2 is proportional to the number of lines of force cutting a
made. If the electric field inside the cavity at position 𝑟 is E(𝑟), then the correct unit area element placed normal to the field at that
statement is point. As illustrated in given figure, the electric field
(a) 𝐸⃗ is uniform, its magnitude is independent of R2, but its direction at P is stronger than at Q.
depends on 𝑟
Q19. Electric field lines are curved
(b)𝐸⃗ is uniform, its magnitude depends of R2, but its direction (a) in the field of a single positive or negative charge
depends on 𝑟 (b) in the field of two equal and opposite charges.
(c)𝐸⃗ is uniform, its magnitude is independent of a, but its direction depends on a (c) in the field of two like charges.
(d)𝐸⃗ is uniform and both its magnitude and direction depends on 𝑎 [JEE Advanced 2015] (d) both (b) and (c)
Q13. The surface densities on the surfaces of two charged spherical conductors of radii R1 Q20. Electric lines of force about a positive point charge are
and R2 are equal. The ratio of electric field intensity on the surface is (a) radially outwards (b) circular clockwise
(𝑎) 𝑅12 /𝑅22 (b) 𝑅22 /𝑅12 (c) R1/R2 (d) 1:1 (c) radially inwards (d) parallel straight lines
Assertion/Reasoning Type MCQ Q21. Which of the following is false for electric lines of force?

Q14.Assertion: Electric lines of force never cross each other. (a) They always start from positive charge and terminate on negative charges.

Reason : Electric field at a point superimpose to give one resultant electric field. (b) They are always perpendicular to the surface of a charged conductor.

Q15. Assertion : Electric lines of field cross each other. (c) They always form closed loops.

Reason : Electric field at a point superimpose to give one resultant electric field. (d) They are parallel and equally spaced in a region of uniform electric field.

Q16. Assertion : The electric lines of forces diverges from a positive charge and converge at Q22. Which one of the following patterns of electric line of force is not possible in field due

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 14 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 15 of 484
 to stationary charges? Reason- Electric field at any point due to infinitely long plain charged sheet is expressed as
E=σ/ϵo.
Q32. Assertion- A charge Q is placed on a height of h/2 above the centre of a square of height
h. The charge is displaced to point h/4 below. The flux through the square
remains unchanged.
Reason- The flux associated with the square is independent of position of the charge inside
Q23. The figure below shows the electric field lines due to two positive charges. The magnitudes
cube but depends only on magnitude of charge.
EA, EB and EC of the electric fields at point A, B and C
Q33. Assertion- Number of electric lines of forces emanating from 1 μ C charge in vacuum is
respectively are related as
1.13 x 105.
(a)EA>EB>EC (b) EB>EA>EC Reason- This follows from Gauss Theorem in Electrostatics.
(c) EA=EB>EC (d) EA>EB=EC Q34. Assertion- Electric flux through a given area changes as its orientation with field direction
changes.
Q24. A closed surface in vacuum encloses charges -q and +3q. Another charge -2q lies outside
Reason- ΦE= ∮𝒔𝑬 𝒅𝑺 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝜽
the surface. Total electric flux over the surface is
(a) Zero (b) 2q/ϵo (c) -3q/ϵo (d) 4q/ϵo Q35. Assertion- In case of charged spherical shells, E-r graph is discontinuous while V -r graph

Q25. The number of electric lines of force radiating from a closed surface in vacuum is1.13 x 1011. is continuous.

The charge enclosed by the surface is Reason- According to Gauss’s theorem only the charge inside a closed surface can produce

(a)1 C (b) 1 μC (c) 0.1 C (d) 0.1 μC electric field at some point.

Q26. The value of electric field inside a conducting sphere of radius R and charge Q will be: Q36. Assertion- Net electric flux through closed spherical surface of radius 5 cm enclosing charge
𝐾𝑄 𝐾𝑄 𝐾𝑄2 +q is halved when radius is increased to 10 cm.
(a) (b) (c) Zero (d)
𝑅2 𝑅 𝑅2
Reason- Electric flux through closed surface decreases with increase in its volume if charge
Q27. Charge Q is kept in a sphere of 5 cm radius first, then it is kept in a cube of side 15 cm,
enclosed is fixed.
the outgoing flux will be
Q37. Assertion- Displacing the charges within the closed surface does not affect net electric
(a)More in case of sphere (b)More in case of cube
flux through the closed surface.
(c)Same in both cases (d)Information incomplete
Reason- Net electric flux through a closed surface is independent of charge
Q28. Electric flux is a …….. quantity and its units are ……… .
distribution/location within the closed surface.
Q29. Net electric flux from a closed surface does not depend upon distribution of …….
Two-mark questions
inside the surface.
Q38. State the law of conservation of charge. Give two examples to illustrate it. (2009)
ASSERTION & REASONING
Q39. How does the speed of an electrically charged particle affects its mass and charge?
Q30. Assertion- A closed spherical shell has inward electric flux.
Q40. Write Coulombs law in vector form. What is the importance of expressing it in vector form?
Reason- Net charge enclosed inside spherical shell is negative.
Q41. Two-point charge 4μc and 1μc are separated by a distance of 2m in air. Find the point on the
Q31. Assertion- Electric field at any point due to infinitely long plain charged sheet is same.
line joining charges at which the net electric field of the system is zero. [OD2017]

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 16 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 17 of 484
Q42. Two identical point charges q each are kept 2m apart in air. A third point charge Q of Five-mark questions
unknown magnitude and sign is placed on the line joining the charges such that the system Q53. (a) Point charge (+Q) is kept in the vicinity of uncharged conducting plate sketch electric
remains in equilibrium. Find the position and nature of Q. [CBSE 2019] field lines between the charge and the plate.
Q43. Explain briefly, using proper diagram in difference in behavior of conductor and dielectric (b) Plot a graph showing the variation of Coulomb force (F) versus 1/r 2, where r is the
in the presence of external electric field. distance between two charges of each pair of charges (1µC, 2µC) and (1µC, -3µC).
Q44. Write any two properties of electric field lines. Interpret the graphs.
Q45. Three small spheres each of charge +q are placed on circumference of a circle such that
they form an equilateral triangle. What is the electric field intensity at the center of the **********
circle?
Q46. A surface element ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝒅𝑺 = 25𝒊̂ is placed in an electric field ⃗𝑬 ̂ . What is the
⃗ = 𝟒𝒊̂ + 𝟖𝒋̂ + 𝟏𝟒𝒌
electric flux emanating from the surface?
Q47. An infinite line charge produces a field of 9 x 104 N C-1 at a distance of 0.02 m. Calculate
the linear charge density.
Three-mark questions
Q48. Give six properties of electric charges? (Given in NCERT book)
Q49. Two point charges q1 and q2 are located at points (a,0,0) and (0, b, 0) respectively. Find
the electric field due to both these charges at the point (0, 0, c).
Q50. The electric field induced in a dielectric when placed in an external field 1/10 times the
external field. Calculate relative permittivity of the dielectric.
Q51. S1 and S2 concentric spheres such that radius of S2 is greater than that of S1 , The spheres
enclose charges of Q and 2Q respectively,
1. What is the ratio of electric flux through S1 and S2?
2. How will the electric flux through the sphere S1 change, if a medium of dielectric constant
K is introduced in the space inside S1 in place of air?
3. How will the electric flux through the sphere S1 change, if a medium of dielectric constant
K is introduced in the space inside S2 in place of air?
Q52. A metallic spherical shell has an inner radius R1 and
outer radius R2. A charge Q is placed at the centre of
the spherical cavity. What will be surface charge
density on a) the inner surface b) the outer surface?

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 18 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 19 of 484
 SECTION B -ANSWER KEY Answer for Two-mark questions
( 1 MARK QUESTION) Q38. The total charge of an isolated system remains constant.
Q1. Refer from NCERT textbook Ex: i) NaCl Na+ + Cl—
Q2. Refer from NCERT textbook As the total charge is zero before & after the ionisation, so charge is conserved.
Q3. d Q4. a Q5. c Q6. a Q7. a Q8. d ii) When a glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth it develops a positive charge. But at the same
Q9. time silk cloth develop an equal negative charge. Thus, the net charge is zero as it
was before rubbing.
Q39. According to special theory of relativity, the mass of body increases with its speed in
accordance with the relation :
m = m0 /√(1- v2/c2)
As v is less than c therefore m is greater than m0.
Q10. 1. q1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 q 2 are opposite to each other 2. q1 > 𝑞2
In contrast to mass, the charge on a body remains constant and does not change as the
Q11. Since field lines start from Q1 and end at Q2 therefore Q1 is positive and Q2 is negative
speed of the body changes.

MCQ Types Question Q40. As r21 =- r12 , therefore F21= - F12

This means that the two charges exert equal and opposite forces on each other. So
Q12. (d) Explanation : Total field, 𝐸⃗ = 𝐸⃗ 1 + 𝐸⃗ 2
Coulombian forces obey Newton’s third law of motion.
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ + ρ/3𝛆0 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
= ρ/3𝛆0 𝑂𝐴 𝐴𝑃
Q41. Therefore, E1=E2
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
= ρ/3𝛆0 (𝑂𝐴 𝐴𝑃 )
k𝑞1 /(𝑥)2 =k𝑞2 /(𝑑 − 𝑥)2
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = ρ/3𝛆0 𝑎
E= ρ/3𝛆0 𝑂𝑃
1/4π𝛆0 (4𝑥 2 ) = 1/4π𝛆0 (1/(2 − 𝑋)2 )
Q13. (d) 1:1
x/2 = 2-x
Assertion/Reasoning
therefore, 3x=4 & x=4/3
Q14. (b) Q15. (d) Q16. (c)
Q42.
Q17. (d) Both statements are false.
Explanation: A –ve charge moves in opposite direction of electric field and force also acts in
opposite direction of electric field.
Q18. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Total force on Q =0 & X=2-x Or 2x =2 or X=1m
Case Study Base Type Question
Therefore, -Q charge is placed at a midpoint between the two charges of +q each.
Q19. (d) Q20. (a) Q21. (c) Q22. (c) Q23. (a) Q24. b) 2q/ϵo Q25. a) 1 C
Q26. c) Zero Q27. c) Same in both cases Q28. Scalar, Nm 2C-1. Q29. Charges. Q30. A
Q31. C Q32. A Q33. B Q34. A Q35. B Q36. D Q37. A

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 20 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 21 of 484
Q43. In conductor, net electric field is zero. that is induced in the inner surface and +Q on the outer surface.
Answer for Five-mark questions
Q53. a) Equal charge of opposite nature induces in the
surface of the conductor nearer to the source charge.
In case of dielectric: Induced electric filed inside is less than external electric field. Electric lines of forces should fall normally on the
Q44. (i) Never intersect (ii) They are perpendicular on surface. conducting plate.

Q45. Resultant force (F=0) ⃗⃗⃗ at centre = 0

𝐸 ***********
Three equal force make angle 1200
Q46. Here, ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆 = 5𝑖̂, 𝐸⃗ = 4𝑖̂ + 8𝑗̂ + 14𝑘̂
Electric flux, Φ= 𝐸⃗ . ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆= (4𝑖̂ + 8𝑗̂ + 14𝑘̂). 25𝑖̂ or Φ= 100 units.
Q47. Here, E= 9 x 104 N C-1, r= 0.02 m, λ=?
1 0.02
As E= λ/2пϵor = 2λ/4пϵor ∴ λ= E (4пϵor)/2 = 9 x 104 x x = 10-7 C/m
9∗109 2

Answer to Three-mark questions

Q48.- Refer from NCERT textbook
Q49. Net electric filed at the points (o,o,c) due to the charge q 1 & q2 is
𝐸⃗ 𝑛𝑒𝑡 = 𝐸⃗ 1+ 𝐸⃗ 2 = 1/4πE0 [q1/r13⃗⃗⃗
r1 + q2/r23⃗⃗⃗
r2 )
But r1 = 𝑟 = −𝑎𝑙̂ + 𝑐𝑘̂
⇒ r1 = (a2 + c2)1/2
𝑟2 = - 𝑏𝐽̂ + 𝑐𝑘̂
⃗⃗⃗
⇒ r2 = (b2 + c2)1/2
𝐸⃗ 𝑛𝑒𝑡 = 1/4πE0 [q(−𝑎𝑙̂ + 𝑐𝑘̂ )/(a2 + c2)3/2 + q2 (- 𝑏𝐽̂ + 𝑐𝑘̂)/ (b2 + c2)3/2
Q50. K = E0/E0 = E0/E0/10 = 10
Q51. 1) From Gauss’s theorem electric flux through S1 is Φ1=Q/ϵo
electric flux through S2 is Φ2= Q+2Q/ϵo = 3Q/ϵo
∴ Φ1/ Φ2=1/3
2) When a medium of dielectric constant K is introduced in the space inside S 1, then

⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗

𝐸
Φ1′ =∮𝑠 𝐸. 𝑑𝑆 =∮𝑠 . ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆= Q/ Kϵo
𝐾

3) On introducing dielectric medium inside S2, electric flux through S1 will not change.
Q52. +Q is the charge which is kept at the centre of the spherical cavity. –Q is the charge

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 22 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 23 of 484
 SECTION C Assertion Reasoning
(1 MARK QUESTION) Q9. Assertion: Electric force acting on a proton and e-, moving in a uniform electric field is
same, whereas acceleration of e- is 1836 times is lighter than that of a proton.
1. Consider an uncharged conducting sphere. A positive point charge is placed outside the sphere. Reason – Electron is lighter than proton.
The net charge on the sphere is then, Q10. Assertion- As force is a vector quantity, hence electric field is also a vector quantity.
(a) Negative and uniformly distributed over the surface of sphere. Reason – The unit of electric field intensity is newton per coulomb.
(b) Positive and uniformly distributed over the surface of sphere. Q11. Assertion – The electric lines of forces from a point charge and can merge at a negative
(c) Negative and appears at a point surface of sphere closest to point charge. charge.
(d) Zero Reason – A charge of force to move in electric field moves along an electric line of force.
2. Why do the electric field lines never cross each other? Q12. Assertion – Three equal charges are situated as a circle of radius r such that they form equilateral
3. Two-point charges +8q and -2q are located at x = 0 and x = L respectively. The point on x- triangle, then the electric field intensity at the centre is zero.
axis at which net electric field is zero due to these charges is (2021) Reason – The force on unit positive charge at the centre, due to three equal charges are
(a) 8L (b) 4L (c) 2L (d) L represented by the three sides of a triangle taken in the same order. Therefore,
Q4. A point charge +Q is placed in the vicinity of a conducting surface. Draw the electric electric field intensity at centre is zero.
field lines between the surface and the charge. [CBSE 2014] Q13. Assertion –A point charge is brought in an electric field. The filed at a nearby point will
Q5. Figure shows the field lines on a positive charge. Is the work done increase whatever be the nature of the charge.
by the field in moving a small positive charge from Q to P positive Reason – The electric field is independent of the nature of charge.
or negative? Give reason. [CBSE 2014] Q14. The electric field in a certain region is acting radially outwards and is given by E= Ar.
Q6. The following fig. shows electric lines of force due to a point A charge contained in sphere of radius ‘a’ centred at origin of the field will be given by:
charges q1 and q2 placed at points A and B respectively. Write (a) Aϵoa2 (b) 4πϵoAa3 (c) ϵoAa3 (d) 4πϵoAa2
the nature of charge on them. Q15. A charge q is placed at the point of intersection of body diagonals of a cube. The electric
Q7. A few electric field lines for a system of two charges Q1 flux passing through any one of its faces is
and Q2 fixed at two different points on the x-axis as shown 𝑞 3𝑞 6𝑞 𝑞
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6𝜖𝑜 𝜖𝑜 𝜖𝑜 3𝜖𝑜
in the fig. Where can be the electric field due to two
Q16. Name the principle which is mathematical equivalent to Coulomb’s law and superposition
charges be zero?
principle.
Q8. Two-point charges +8q and -2q are located at x=0 and x =L
Q17. A charge q is placed at the centre of a cube of side ‘l’ what is the electric flux passing through
respectively. The location of a point on x-axis at which the net electric field due to these
two opposite faces of the cube?
two-point charges is zero in
a) 2L b) L/4 c) 8L d) 4L [AIEEE 2005] Two-mark questions
Q18. State Coulomb’s law in vector form and prove that F21 = - F12, where letters have their usual
meaning. (Given in NCERT book)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 24 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 25 of 484
Q19. Define electric field intensity. What is its S.I unit? What is the relation between electric time of fall in each case. Contrast the situation with that of free fall under gravity. [CBSE 2018]
field and force? [NCERT ]
Q20. An infinite number of charges each equal to 4μc Q30. What will be the total flux through the faces of the cube with side of length a if a charge
are placed along the x-axis at x=1m, x=2m & q is placed at
x=4m as so on. Find electric field at the origin due to a) A: a corner of the cube
given set of charges. b) B: mid-point of an edge of the cube
Q21. A metallic solid sphere is placed in a uniform electric field. The lines of force follow the path c) C: centre of a face of the cube
shown below. Which field lines follow the path? d) D: mid-point of B and C
Q21. If the total charge enclosed by a surface is zero, does it imply that the electric field Q31. Consider a uniform field 𝐸⃗ = 30 x 103 𝑖̂ NC-1.
everywhere on the surface is zero? Conversely, if the electric field everywhere on a surface is zero, Calculate the flux of this field through a square surface
does it imply that net charge inside is zero. area of 100 cm2
Q24. A wire AB of length L has linear charge density λ=Kx, where x is measured from the end A of the (a)When its plane is parallel to Y-Z plane. (b) When
wire. This wire is enclosed by a Gaussian hollow surface. Find the expression for electric flux through the the normal to its plane makes an angle of 60o with X -
surface. axis. (c)When parallel to X-Y plane.
Q25.A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 2.4 m diameter has a surface charge density Q32.The electric field components due to a charge inside the cube of side 0.1 m are, Ex=α x, where α =
of 180 μC/m2. 500 N/Cm-1, Ey= 0, Ez=0. Calculate flux through the cube and charge inside the cube.
(a) Find the charge on the sphere. Five-mark questions
(b) What is the total electric flux leaving the surface of the sphere?
Q33. State the principle of superposition and use it to obtain the expression for the total force
Q26. A charge of 17.7 x 10-4 C is distributed over a large sheet of area 400 cm2. Calculate the
exerted on a point charge due to an assembly of (N -1) discrete point charges. (NCERT)
electric field intensity at a distance of 10 cm from it.
Q27. A large plane sheet of charge having surface charge density 5 x 10-16 Cm-2 lies in XY plane. Find
electric flux through a circular area of radius 1 cm. Given normal to the circular area makes an angle of 60o Case based question
with Z-axis. Q34. Paragraph 1: Coulomb’s law
Three-mark questions This law is a quantitative statement of about the force between two-point charges. When the linear
Q28. Derive an expression for electric field intensity at a point due to (a) A point charge (b) A sizes of charged bodies are much smaller than the distance between them, their sizes may be
group of charges (c) Continues charge distribution. ignored and the charge bodies are called point charges. After retiring from his active services as a
Q29. An electron falls through a military engineer in 1776, Coulomb discovered a torsion balance to measure a small quantity of
distance of 1.5 cm in a uniform force and used it for determination of forces of attraction or repulsion between small charged
electric field of value field is spheres. He thus arrived in 1785 at the inverse square law relation, now known as Coulomb’s law.
reversed, a proton falls through He found that the force between two-point charges varied inversely with the square of the distance
the same distance. Compare the between the charges and was directly proportional to the product of the magnitude of the charges

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 26 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 27 of 484
and acted along the line joining the two charges. Coulomb’s law is an electrical analogue of Recently, it has been discovered that elementary particles such as protons or neutrons are
Newton’s law of Universal Gravitation in mechanics. composed of more elemental units called quarks.
Q1. Answer the following questions:
| F1| = |F2| = k (q1 x q2) / r2
1.Which of the following properties is not satisfied by an electric charge?
Q1. Answer the following questions
(a) Total charge conservation.
(I) Identify the wrong statement in the following Coulomb’s law correctly describes the (b) Quantization of charge.
(c) Two type of charge.
electric force that
(d) Circular line of force.
(a) Blinds the electrons of an atom to its nucleus. 2. Which one of the following charges is possible?
(b) Binds the protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom. (a) 5.8x 10-18C (b) 3.2x10-18C
© 4.5x10-19C (d) 8.6x10-19C
(c) Binds atoms together to form molecules. 3. If a charge on a body is 1nC, then how many electrons present on the body?
(d) Binds atoms and molecules to form solids. (a) 6.25x1027 (b)1.6x1019
© 6.25x1028 (d) 6.25x109
(II) Two charges 3 x 10-5C and 5 x 104C are placed at a distance 10cm from each other.
4. If a body gives out 109 electrons every second, how much time is required to get a total
The value of electrostatic force acting between them is charge of 1C from it?
(a) 13.5 x 1011 N (b) 40 X 1011 N © 180 x 109 N (d) 13.5 x 1010 N (a)190.19 years (b)159.12 years
© 198.19 years (d) 188, 21 years
2. Each of two point charges is doubles and their distance is halved. Force of interaction
becomes n times, where n is 5.A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative charge of 3.2x10 -7C.
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 18 (d) 16 Calculate the number of electrons transferred.
3. The minimum value of force acting between two point charges placed 1 m apart from (a) 2x1012 (b)3x1012
© 2x1014 (d)3x1014
one another is
(a) ke2 (b) ke (c) ke/4 (d) ke2/2
4. A and B are two identical spherical charged bodies which repel each other with force F, ***********
kept at a finite distance. A third uncharged sphere of same size is brought in contact with
sphere B and removed. It is then kept at a mid-point of A and B. Find the magnitude of the
force on C.
(a) F/2 (b) F/8 (c) F (d) Zero
Q35. Paragraph 2:
Smallest charge that can exist in nature is the charge of an electron. During friction it is the only
transfer of electrons which makes the body charged. Hence net charge on any body is an integral
multiple of charge of an electron [1.6x10-19C] i.e. I.e. q=ne
Where n=1, 2, 3……
Hence nobody can have a charge represented as 1.1e, 2.7e…etc.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 28 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 29 of 484
 SECTION-C SI unit of intensity is N/C.

ANSWER KEY Electrostatic force = charge x electric field.

20. E at origin, E = 9x109 [4x10-6/ (1)2 + 4x10-6/22] + ----
( 1 MARK QUESTION)
= 36x103[1+1/22+1/42 +--]
1. d (Geometric series)
2. If two lines of forces intersect, then there would be two tangents and two directions of electric Therefore, Sum = a/1-r
field at the point of intersection, which is impossible. a= first term = 1
3. c r = common ratio = ¼
4. E= 36x10 3x1/ (1-1/4) = 48x103
21. 4th
Explanation: When metallic solid sphere is placed in uniform electric field the electrons of
the sphere move against the direction of electric field. Consequently, the left face acquires
5. Work done by field is negative. Since charge is moved against the force exerted by the field.
negative charge while the right face attains +ve charge. The filed lines will terminate at the left
6. q1 and q2 must be -ve charges. As field lines are pointing towards q1 and q2.
face of sphere and restart from right face. The electric field inside the sphere is zero. On the
7. The electric field due to the system of two charges will be zero at a point to the right of charge.
other surface of the sphere, the filed lines are normal at energy point. i.e., directed towards the
MCQ Types Question
centre. Therefore, the correct field is represented.
8. (a) Explanation: Let net electric field due to two given charges be zero at P, where OP = x
22. Refer from NCERT textbook
EAP= BBP = K8q/x2=K(2q)/ (x – L)2 or 2/x = 1/x-L 23. The total charge enclosed by a surface is zero, it doesn’t imply that the electric field everywhere
Or 2x – 2L = x 𝐸. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
on the surface is zero. As ∮𝑠 ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑑𝑆 = q/ϵo, therefore, the field may be normal to the surface.
X = 2L Also, the conversely it does imply that net charge inside is zero if electric
Assertion/Reasoning field everywhere on the surface is zero.
𝑑𝑞
9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12.(B) 13. (D) 14.b) 4πϵoAa3 24. Here, λ= = Kx; ϕ=?
𝑑𝑥
𝑞
15.a) 16. Gauss’ Theorem in electrostatics dq=Kx dx
6𝜖𝑜
Total charge on the wire
𝑞
17. Flux through each face = 𝐿 𝐾𝑥 2
6𝜖𝑜
q= ∫0 𝐾𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = [ ]=KL2/2
𝑞 𝑞 𝑞 2
Flux through two opposite faces = + =
6𝜖𝑜 6𝜖𝑜 3𝜖𝑜 Total electric flux through the Gaussian hollow surface is
Answer for Two-mark questions
Φ= q/ϵo= KL2/2ϵo
18. Refer from textbook 25. (a) d=2.4m r=1.2m
19. Electric field intensity at a point defined as the electrostatic force per unit test charge Surface charge density, σ =180.0 μ C/m2 =180 x 10-6 C/m2
acting on a vanishingly small positive test charge placed at that point . Total charge on surface of sphere,

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 30 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 31 of 484
 Q =σ×4πr2=180×10-6×4×3.14× (1.2)2 When electric field is reversed
=3.25×10-3 C
q0 = +1.6 x 10-19C.
m2= 1.67 x 10-27kg.
(b) Φ Total = Q/ϵo
acceleration a2 = F2/m2 = q0E/m2
3.25∗10−3
Φ Total = 8 2 -1
−12=3.67 X 10 Nm C a = 1.6 x 10 -19x 2 x 104/ 1.67 x 10-27 = 1.92 x 1012 m/s2
8.85∗10

2𝑦2 2×1⋅5×10−2
26. Here, q= 17.7 x 10-4 C, A= 400 cm2, E=?, r =10 cm = 10-1m Similarly, t2 = √ =√
𝑎2 1.92×1012
In case of a large plane sheet, distance of the point (=r) doesn’t matter.
t1/t2 = 2.9 x 10-9/1.25 x 10-7 = 2.3 x 10-2
17.7∗10−4
E= σ/2ϵo =q/2ϵoA= =2.5 x 105 N/C Observation:
2∗(8.85∗10−12 )∗400
27. Here, σ = 5 x 10-16 Cm-2, ϕ=? Acceleration of e- = 1015 m/s2
r= 1 cm =10-2m, θ=60o Acceleration of p+ = 1012 m/s2
ϕ= E (ΔS) cos θ= (σ/2ϵo) п r2 cos 60o Acceleration of g = 9.8 m/s2 = 10 m/s2 (negligible), Effect of gravity can be ignored.
5∗10−16 ∗3.14∗(10−4 )∗1/2 30. a) When we consider the charged particle to be placed at the centre of the cube whose
= = 4.44 x 10-9Nm2C-1.
2∗8.85∗10−12
side is 2a, then the charge is equally distributed among 8 cubes. Therefore, the total flux
Answer to Three-mark questions
through the faces of the cube=q/8 ϵo.
28. Refer from NCERT textbook
29. For electron b) When the charge is placed at B, the charge is equally distributed among the 4 cubes.

Y1= 1.5 cm = 1.5 x10-2m Therefore, the total flux through the four faces is given as = q/4 ϵo.

E1= 2x104N/C c) When the charge is placed at C, the charge is shared among 2 cubes equally. Therefore,

q0 = (-) 1.6x10-19 C the total flux through these faces is given as = q/2 ϵo.

m1 = 9x10-3 kg d) When the charge is place at D, the charge is distributed among two cubes and

Y1= u1 t1+ ½ a1𝑡12 therefore, the total flux is given as = q/2 ϵo.

=0+½ a1𝑡12 31. Here, 𝐸⃗ = 30 x103 𝑖̂ NC-1

2𝑦1 2×1⋅5×10−2
A= 10-2 m2
t1 = √ =√ = 2.9 X 10-9sec
𝑎1 3.55×1015
(a)As normal to the area is in the direction of electric field, therefore θ=0o
therefore, Φ= EA cos θ= 30x103x10-2 cos 00
a1 = F1/m1 = q0 E1/m1 = 300Nm2C-1
a1 = 1.6 x 10 -19x 2 x 104/ 9 x 10-37 (b)In this case, θ=60o
a1 =3.55 x 1015 m/s2 Φ`= EA cos θ= 30x103x10-2 cos 600
For proton = 150 Nm2C-1.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 32 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 33 of 484
(c)In this case, θ=90o QUESTION BANK
Φ= EA cos θ= 30x103x10-2 cos 900 Chapter:2 Electric Potential and Capacitance
=0 Nm2C
32. Through the left face SECTION A
Φ1= Ex. A cos 180o (1 MARK QUESTIONS)
=500 x 0.1 x 10-2(-1) = -0.5 Q1. What is the net charge on a charged capacitor?
Through the right face Q2. What is an equipotential surface. Give an example. (CBSE 2003)
Φ2= Ex. A cos 0o Q3. What is the geometrical shape of equipotential surfaces due to a single isolated charge?
=500 x 0.2 x 10-2= 1.0
(CBSE 2013)
∴ Net flux through the cube
Q4. Why are electric field lines are perpendicular at a point on an equipotential surface of a
Φ=Φ1+Φ2= 0.5 Nm2C-1 conductor? (CBSE 2015)
Charge inside the cube =ϵoΦ Q5. Define dielectric constant in terms of the capacitance of a capacitor.
= 8.85 x 10-12 x 0.5= 4.425 x 10-12 C. Q6. What may be a possible reason of water having a much greater dielectric constant (=80) than

Answer to Five-mark questions say mica (=6)?

Q7.In what form is the energy stored in a charged capacitor?
Q33. Refer from NCERT textbook
Q34. Refer from NCERT textbook
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. b 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. c
Q8. If voltage applied on a capacitor is increased from V to 2V, choose the correct conclusion.
Q35. 1. d 2. b 3. d 4. c 5. a
(a) Q remains the same, C is doubled
(b) Q is doubled, C doubled
(c) C remains same, Q doubled
******************** (d) Both Q and C remain same
Q9. A parallel plate capacitor is charged. If the plates are pulled apart
(a) the capacitance increases
(b) the potential differences increase
(c) the total charge increases
(d) the charge & potential difference remain the same
Q10.Which of the following is an example of a molecule whose centre of mass of positive and
negative charges coincide each other?
(a)CO2 (b) CO (c) CH3OH (d) NH3

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 34 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 35 of 484
Q11.What is the angle between electric field and equipotential surface? SECTION-A Answer Key
(a) 90o always (b)0o always (c)0o to 90 (d)0o to 180o 1. Zero, because the two plates have equal & opposite charges.
Q12.If we carry a charge once around an equipotential path, then work done by the charge is: 2. A surface with a constant value of potential at all points on the surface. Example: Surface of a
(a) Infinity (b) Positive (c) Negative (d) Zero charged conductor.
3.For the point charge, the equipotential surfaces are concentric spherical shells with their centre
at the point charge.
2 MARKS QUESTIONS
4. If it were not so, the presence of a component of the field along the surface would destroy its
Q13.Sketch equipotential surfaces for
equipotential nature
(a) A negative point charge (CBSE 2001) 5. The ratio of the capacitance of the capacitor completely filled with dielectric material to the
(b) Two equal and positive charges separated by a small distance. (CBSE 2015) capacitance of the same capacitor with vacuum between the platesis called dielectric constant.
Q14.Deduce the expression for the potential energy of an electric dipole placed with its axis at an 6. Water molecules have permanent dipole moment.

angle θ to the external field 𝐸⃗ .Hence discuss the conditions of its stable and unstable equilibrium. 7. Electrostatic potential energy

(CBSE 2008,2019,2021 Compt.) MCQ

8. (c ) 9. (b) V = Ed , V increases as distance increases
3 MARKS QUESTIONS 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (d)

Q15. Obtain the expression for the resultant capacitance when three capacitors C 1 , C2 and C3 are 2 MARKS ANSWERS
connected (i) in series (ii) in parallel. 13.
Q16. Define the capacitance of a capacitor. Obtain the expression for the capacitance of a
parallel plate capacitor in vacuum in terms of plate area A and separation d between the plates.
5 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q17. (a) Define the SI unit of capacitance.
(b) Obtain the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor.
Q18. (a) Define potential energy of a system of two charges. 14. Work done in moving the charge q1 at the point A,
(b)Two-point charges q1 and q2, separated by a distance r12 are kept in an external electric W1 = q1V (r1) Work done in moving the charge q1 at the point B,
field. Derive an expression for the potential energy of the system of two charges in the field.

***********

1 q1 𝑞2
W2 = q2V (r2) +
4πє0 𝑟12
Total work done in assembling this configuration,
W = W1 + W 2
1 q1 𝑞2
W = q1V (r1) + q2V (r2) +
4πє0 𝑟12

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 36 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 37 of 484
 3 MARKS ANSWERS (b) Work done in moving the charge q1 at the point A,
15. Derivation from ncert book
W1 = q1V (r1)
16. Derivation from ncert book
Work done in moving the charge q1 at the point B,
5 MARKS ANSWERS 1 q1 𝑞2
W2 = q2V (r2) +
4πє0 𝑟12
17.When a charge of one coulomb produces a potential difference of one volt between the plates
Electric energy of the system,
of capacitor, the capacitance is one farad.
U = Total work done in assembling this configuration,
Capacity of a parallel plate capacitor. A U = W1 + W 2
parallel plate capacitor consists of two
1 q1 𝑞2
U = q1V (r1) + q2V (r2) +
large plane parallel conducting plates 4πє0 𝑟12

separated by a small distance. We first

take the intervening medium between the
**********
plates to be vaccum. Let A be the area of
each plate and d the separation between
them. The two plates have charges Q and
– Q. Since d is much smaller than the
linear dimension of the plates (d2 << A),
we can use the result on electric field by
an infinite plane sheet of uniform surface
charge density. Plate 1 has surface charge density σ = Q/A and Plate 2 has a surface charge density
-σ, the electric field in different region is:
In the inner region between the plates 1 and 2, the electric fields due to the two charged plates add
up, giving

The capacitance C of the parallel plate capacitor is then

18. a) The potential energy of a system of two charges is the amount of work done in assembling
the charges at their locations by bringing them in, from infinity.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 38 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 39 of 484
 SECTION-B Reason: For a system of positive test charge and point charge electric potential energy = electric

1 MARK QUESTIONS potential.

Q1. An air capacitor is given a charge of 2µC raising its potential to 200 V. If on inserting a Q7.Assertion: Two equipotential surfaces cannot intersect each other.

dielectric medium, its potential falls to 50 V. What is the dielectric constant of the medium. Reason: Two equipotential surfaces are parallel to each other.

Q2. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 8pF. What will be Q8. Assertion : If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and dielectric

the capacitance if the distance between the plates by reduced by half and the space between them constant is three times, then the capacitance becomes 6 times.

is filled with a substance of dielectric constant k =6. Reason : Capacity of the capacitor does not depend upon the nature of the material.

Q3. What is the equivalent capacitance, C, of the five capacitors connected as shown in the figure Q9. Assertion : A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a key. A dielectric
slab of dielectric constant K is introduced between the plates. The energy which is stored becomes
K times.
Reason : The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant or unchanged.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q10. Three capacitors are connected in triangle as shown
in the figure. The equivalent capacitance between the
points A and C is

(a) 1µF
(b) 2 µF
ASSERTION – REASON QUESTIONS
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. (c) 3 µF

While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four (d)1/4µF

responses. 2 MARKS QUESTIONS

(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Q11.If two charged conductors are touched mutually and then separated, prove that the charges on
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. them will be divided in the ratio of their capacitances.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect Q12. Figure shows two identical capacitors C1 and C2, each of
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect. 2 µF capacitance, connected to a battery of 5 V. Initially switch
‘S’ is left open and dielectric slabs of dielectric constant K = 5
Q4 Assertion: A spherical equipotential surface is not possible for a point charge. are inserted to fill completely the space between the plates of
Reason: A spherical equipotential surface is not possible inside a spherical capacitor. the two capacitors.
Q5.Assertion: The equatorial plane of a dipole is an equipotential surface.
Reason: The electric potential at any point on equatorial plane is zero.
Q6.Assertion: Electric potential and electric potential energy are different quantities.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 40 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 41 of 484
(i) How will the charge and Q21. A network of four capacitors each of 12μF capacitance is
(ii) potential difference between the plates of the capacitors be affected after the slabs are inserted? connected to a 500 V supply as shown in the figure.
Q13. The given graph shows variation of charge ‘q’ versus potential Determine
difference ‘V’ for two capacitors C1 and C2. Both the capacitors have (a) equivalent capacitance of the network and
same plate separation but plate area of C2 is greater than that of C1. (b) charge on each capacitor.
Which line (A or B) corresponds to C1 and why? Q22. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery to a potential difference V. It is disconnected
Q14. A metal plate is introduced between the plates of a charged parallel from battery and then connected to another uncharged capacitor of the same capacitance. Calculate
plate capacitor. What is its effect on the capacitance of the capacitor. the ratio of the energy stored in the combination to the initial energy on the single capacitor.
Q15. Two capacitors have a capacitance of 5µF when connected in parallel and 1.2µF when 5 MARKS QUESTIONS
connected in series. Calculate their capacitances. Q23. a) Explain, using suitable diagrams, the difference in the behavior of a
Q16. Why does current in a steady state not flow in a capacitor connected across a battery? (i) conductor and
However momentary current does flow during charging or discharging of the capacitor. Explain. (ii) dielectric in the presence of external electric field. Define the terms polarization of a dielectric
Q17. A capacitor is connected across a battery. and write its relation with susceptibility.
(i) Why does each plate receive a charge of exactly the same magnitude? Q24. Two identical capacitors of plate dimensions l × b and plate separation d have di-electric
(ii) Is this true even if the plates are of different sizes? slabs filled in between the space of the plates as shown in the figure.
3 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q18. Calculate the potential difference and the energy stored in
the capacitor C2 in the circuit shown i the figure. Given potential
at A is 90 V, C1 = 20 µF, C2 = 30 µF and C3 = 15 µF.
Q19. A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volts. The charge Obtain the relation between the dielectric constants K, K1 and K2.
stored in it is 300 µC. When potential across the capacitor is reduced by 100 V, the charge stored Q25. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential V by a battery. Without
in it becomes 100 V. Calculate the potential V and the unknown capacitance. What will be the disconnecting the battery, the distance between the plates is tripled and a dielectric medium of k =
charge stored in the capacitor if the voltage applied had increased by 100 V? 10 is introduced between the plates is tripled and a dielectric medium of k = 10 is introduced
Q20. A parallel plate capacitor, of capacitance 20pF, is connected to a 100 V supply. After between the plates of the capacitor. Explain giving reasons, how will the following be affected:
sometime the battery is disconnected, and the space, between the plates of the capacitor is filled (i) capacitance of the capacitor
with a dielectric, of dielectric constant 5. Calculate the energy stored in the capacitor (ii) charge on the capacitance.
(i) before
(ii) after the dielectric has been put in between its plates. ************

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 42 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 43 of 484
 When connected in parallel: Cp=C+C+C=3+3+3= 9µF
SECTION B-ANSWER KEY 14. By introducing the metal plate between the plates of charged capacitor, the capacitance of
1
1. 𝑘 = 𝑣_𝑣𝑎𝑐/𝑣_𝑑𝑖𝑒 = 200/30 = 4 capacitor increases. As C=AεO /d-t(1- ). For metal plate K is infinite so Obviously, effective
𝐾
2. With air between the parallel plates, separation between plates is decreased from d to (d – t)
𝜖0 𝐴
𝐶0 = = 8𝑃𝐹
𝑑
15. 5 = C1 + C2 ...............(1st equation)
With dielectric between the parallel plates
𝑘𝜖0 𝐴 1.2 = C1C2/(C1 + C2) ........(2nd equation)
𝐶= = 96𝑃𝐹
𝑑∕2
On solving we get C1 = 2mF and 3mF.
3. C=C3 because the combination of C1 and C2 as well as C4 and C5 have been shorted.
4.(d) 5.(b) 6.(c) 7.(c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 16. In the steady state, the displacement current and hence the conduction current, is zero as
MCQ | |E→| | between the plates, is constant.

10. (b) During charging and discharging, the displacement current and hence the conduction current is
non zero as | |E→| | between the plates, is changing with time.
2 MARKS ANSWERS
Current is non zero as | |E→| | between the plates, is changing with time.
11. Q ∝ C so the charge will be divided in proportion of their capacitances. Explanation: When
17.a. The charge from one plate gets transferred to another plate through battery. The battery
two charged conductors are touched together then the charge on them will get divided as we know
pumps the charge from one plate to another.
charge can flow. We also know Q= CV.
b. Yes size of plates does not matter.
12. (i) When switch S is open and dielectric is introduced, charge on each capacitor will be q 1 =
3 MARKS ANSWERS
C1 V, q2 = C2V
18. Given VA= 90V, C1 = 20µF, C2 = 30µF and C3= 15µF
q1 = 5CV= 5 × 2 × 5 = 50 µC, q2 = 50 µC
Since these capacitors are connected in series, net capacitance will be
Charge on each capacitor will become 5 times
1 1 1 1 3
(ii) P.d. across C1 is still 5V and across C2, = + + =
𝑐 20 30 15 20
q = (5C) V 20
𝑐= µ𝐹
3
Carge on each capacitor q = CV =600µC
Potential difference across the capacitor C2
13. A represents C2 and B represents C1
𝑞 600
Reason: From the graph the slope q/v= Capacitance is greater for A. V2 = = = 20𝑣
𝐶2 30

Also according to given conditions the capacitance C∝A Energy stored in capacitor across C2
so capacitance is larger for the C2 because the area of its plates is large and d for the two capacitor is E2= 6000J
same. Hence, A represents C2. 19. (i) Charge stored, Q = CV
Let C be the capacitance of a capacitor 300 µC = C × V ,
Given : C1 = C2 = C3 = C When connected in series: Cs=C/3=1µF So C=3µF When potential is reduced by 100 V

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 44 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 45 of 484
 100 µC = C(V – 100) = CV – 100 C 5 MARKS ANSWERS
100 µC = 300 µC – 100 C 22. (i) Behaviour of conductor in an external electric field :
⇒ 100 C = 300 µC – 100 µC
⇒ 100 C = 200 µC
Therefore, capacitance C = 2µF
(ii) Charge stored when voltage applied is increased by 100 V
Q’ = 2µF × (150 + 100) = 500µC
20. C = 20µF = 20 X 10-6 F, V= 100 V , K= 5 (ii) Behaviour of a dielectric in an external electrical field :
Charge stored Q= CV = 2000µC
New value of capacitance C’ = 100µF
𝑄2
Energy stored in a capacitor ( E) =
2𝐶

(i) Energy stored before dielectric is introduced

E1= 0.1 J Explanation: In the presence of electric field, the free charge carriers in a conductor move the
(ii) Energy stored after dielectric is introduced ( no change in the value of Q) charge distribution and the conductor readjusts itself so that the net Electric field within the
E2 = 0.02J conductor becomes zero.
21. C123 = 4µF (being in series) In a dielectric, the external electric field induces a net dipole moment, by stretching / reorienting
Ceq = C123 + C4 =16µF the molecules. The electric field, due to this induced dipole moment, opposes, but does not exactly
(i) Q1 = C4V= 6 X 10-3 cancel the external electric field.
(ii) Q2 = C123 V= 2 X 10-3 C Polarisation: Induced Dipole moment, per unit volume, is called the polarisation. For Linear
Charge on each of the capacitors C1 ,C2 ,C3 = 2 X 10-3 C isotropic dielectrics having a susceptibility x c, we have polarisation (p) as:
22.Charge stored on the capacitor q=CV p = XcE
When it is connected to the uncharged capacitor of same capacitance, 23. In first case C1=εoKx(lxb)/d……….(i)
sharing of charge takes place between the two capacitor till the potential In second case, these two apartments are in parallel, their net capacity would be the sum of two
of both the capacitor becomes 𝑉/2 individual capacitances
1 𝑣 2 1 𝑣 2 𝑐𝑣 2 C2 = C’2 + C”2
Energy stored on the combination (U2) = 𝑐 ( ) + 𝑐 ( ) =
2 2 𝑧 2 4

Energy stored on single capacitor before connecting

1
U1= 𝐶𝑣 2
2

Ratio of energy stored in the combination to that in the single capacitor

𝑈𝑧 𝑐𝑣 2⁄
= 2 4 = 1: 2 Since these are identical capacitors, comparing (i) and (ii),
𝑣1 𝑐𝑣 ∕ 2

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 46 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 47 of 484
We have C1 = C2 SECTION- C

1 MARK QUESTIONS
Q1. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two dielectric blocks in
series. One of the blocks has thickness d1 and dielectric constant
K1 and the other has thickness d2 and dielectric constant K2 as
shown in figure. This arrangement can be thought as a dielectric
24.Given : d’ = 3d, K = 10, C = ?, Q’ = ?, U’d= ?
slab of thickness d (= d1 + d2) and effective dielectric constant K.
(i) For parallel plate capacitor
Then K is
𝑘1 𝑑1 +𝑘2 𝑑2 𝑘,𝑑,+𝑘2 𝑑2
(a) (b)
𝑑1 +𝑑2 𝑘1 +𝑘2
𝑘2 𝑘1 +(𝑑1+𝑑2 ) 2𝑘1 𝑘2
(c) (d)
(𝑘1 𝑎,+𝑘2 𝑑2 ) 𝑘1+ 𝑘2

Q2. CASE BASED STUDY QUESTION

An arrangement of two conductors separated
by an insulating medium can be used to store
electric charge and electric energy. Such a
system is called a capacitor. The more charge
a capacitor can store, the greater is its
capacitance. Usually, a capacitor consists of
two conductors having equal and opposite
charge +Q and -Q. Hence, there is a potential difference V between them. By the capacitance
of a capacitor, we mean the ratio of the charge Q to the potential difference V. By the charge
on a capacitor we mean only the charge Q on the positive plate. Total charge of the capacitor
is zero. The capacitance of a capacitor is a constant and depends on geometric factors, such as
***********
the shapes, sizes and relative positions of the two conductors, and the nature of the medium
between them. The unit of capacitance is farad (F), but the more convenient units are µF and
pF. A commonly used capacitor consists of two long strips or metal foils, separated by two
long strips of dielectrics, rolled up into a small cylinder. Common dielectric materials are
plastics (such as polyestors and polycarbonates) and aluminium oxide. Capacitors are widely
used in radio, television, computer, and other electric circuits.

1.A parallel plate capacitor C has a charge Q . The actual charge on its plates are
(a) Q,Q (b) Q/2, Q/2 (c) Q ,-Q (d) Q/2, -Q/2

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 48 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 49 of 484
 2.A parallel plate capacitor is charged. If the plates are pulled apart . Find the ratio of the total electrostatic energy stored in both capacitors before and after the
(a) the capacitance increases (b) the potential difference increases introduction of the dielectric.
(c ) the total charge increases (d) the charge & potential difference
remains the same
5 MARKS QUESTIONS
3.Three capacitors of 2 , 3 & 6 µF are connected in series to a 10 V source. The charge on the
3 µF capacitor is Q8. A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volt. A charge of 120
(a) 5µC (b) 10µC (c) 12µC (d) 15µC μC is stored in it. When the potential across the capacitor is reduced by 40 V, the charge stored in
4.If n capacitors each of capacitance C are connected in series, then the equivalent capacitance the capacitor becomes 40 μC. Calculate V and the unknown capacitance. What would have been
of the combination is
the charge in the capacitor if the voltage were increased by 40 V?
(a) NC (b) n2C (c) C/n (d) C/n2
Q9. A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volt. A charge of 240
pC is stored in it. When the potential across the capacitor is reduced by 80 V, the charge stored in
2 MARKS QUESTIONS
the capacitor becomes 80 pC. Calculate V and the unknown capacitance. What would have been
Q3. A capacitor has some dielectric between its plates and the capacitor is connected to a
the charge in the capacitor if the voltage were increased by 80 V?
DC source. The battery is now disconnected and then the dielectric is removed. State whether
Q10. Find equivalent capacitance between A and B
the capacitance, electric field, charge stored and the voltage will increase, decrease or remain
in the combination given below. Each capacitor is
constant.
of 2 µF capacitance.
Q4.What is the capacitance of arrangement of 4 plates of area A
at distance d in air in fig.
Q5. A parallel plate capacitor has square plates of side 5 cm and separated by a distance of 1 mm.
**********
(a) Calculate the capacitance of this capacitor. (b) If a 10 V battery is connected to the capacitor,
what is the charge stored in any one of the plates? (The value of εo = 8.85 x 10-12 Nm2 C-2)
3 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q6. A 200 F parallel plate capacitor having plate separation of 5 mm is charged by a 100 V dc
source. It remains connected to the source. Using an insulated handle, the distance between the
plates is doubled and a dielectric slab of thickness 5 mm and dielectric constant 10 is introduced
between the plates. Explain with reason, how the (i) capacitance, (ii) electric field between the
plates, (iii) energy density of the capacitor will change ?
Q7.Two identical parallel plate capacitors A and B are
connected to a battery of V volts with the switch S closed. The
switch is now opened and the free space between the plates of
the capacitors is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant K.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 50 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 51 of 484
 SECTION-C ANSWER KEY After switch S is opened, capacitance of each capacitor = KC
1
1. (c) Here the system can be considered as two capacitors C 1 and C2 connected in series. Energy stored in capacitor A = 𝑘𝑐𝑣 2 (iii)
2
CASE BASED STUDY QUESTION For capacitor B,
2. 1.(c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4.(c) 𝐶𝑣 2
Energy stored = (iv)
2𝑘
2 MARKS ANSWERS
From equations (iii) & (iv)
3. The capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor, filled with dielectric medium of dielectric 1 𝑘 2 +1
E2 = Total energy stored = 𝑐𝑣 2 ( )
constant K is given by C=K ϵ0A/d 2 𝑘
𝐸1 2𝑘
The capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor decreases with the removal of dielectric medium as Required Ratio = =
𝐸2 𝑘 2 +1

for air or vacuum K = 1 and for dielectric K > 1. 5-MARKS ANSWERS

If we disconnect the battery from capacitor, then the charge stored will remain the same due to 8. Answer:
conservation of charge.
The potential difference across the plates of the capacitor is given by V =q/C
Since q is constant and C decreases which in turn increases V and therefore E increases as E =
V/d.
4.

Cp=3C =3 AεO /d
5. The capacitance of this capacitor is 221.2 ×10−13 F. The charge stored in any one of the plates
221.2 pC.
3 MARKS ANSWERS
5
6. Dielectric slab of thickness 5mm is equivalent to an air capacitor of thickness = mm
10

Effective separation between the plates with air in between is = 5.5 mm

5
Effective new capacitance = 200 µF X = 182 µF
5⋅5
100
(ii)Effective new electric field = =18182 V/m
5⋅5×10−3

New energy stored / original energy stored = 10/11 >

7.Given : CA= CB = C , Dielectric costant = K q3 = 600 µC would be charge on the capacitor if voltage were incresed by 120 V.
1
[Ans : V = 60 V, c = 2 pF, Q3 = 200 μC].
Energy stored = 𝐶𝑣 2 (i)
2 9.
Net capacitance with switch S closed = C+C= 2C
E1= Energy stored = CV2 (ii)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 52 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 53 of 484
 QUESTION BANK
CHAPTER 3- CURRENT ELECTRICITY
SECTION-A
1-MARK QUESTIONS
Q1.What is meant by current and conventional current?
Q2.Define SI unit of current.
Q3. 1 Ω=1V/1A From this what do you mean by 1 ohm?
Q4.How does drift velocity of electrons change with temperature?
Q5.What is the effect of temperature on the relaxation time of electrons in a metal?
Q6. A wire or resistivity ρ is stretched to double its length. What will be its new resistivity?
Q7.Which physical quantity does the voltage versus current graph for a metallic conductor depict?
Give its SI unit.
Q8.Draw the graph showing the variation of resistance of a cylindrical conductor with its radius
Q9.Draw the graph showing the variation of resistance of a conductor with rise in temperature.
Q10.Answer the following questions:

q3 = 600 µC would be charge on the capacitor if voltage were incresed by 120 V. (a) Alloys of metals usually have ___________ resistivity than that of their constituent metals.
[Answer : V = 120 V, c = 2 μF, Q = 400 μC] (b) Alloys usually have much ___________ temperature coefficients of resistance than pure
10. metals.
(c) The resistivity of the alloy manganin is _______________ rapidly with increase of temperature.
(d) The resistivity of a typical insulator (e.g., amber) is greater than that of a metal by a factor of
the order of _______________
Q11. If 2.25 × 1020 electrons pass through a wire in one minute, find the magnitude of the current
flowing through the wire.
Q12. Define EMF of a cell.
Q13. What happens to the conductivity of electrolytes as temperature is increased?
Q14. What are ohmic conductors? Give two examples.
Q15. What are non ohmic devices. Give two examples.
Q16. Draw V-I graph for GaAs.
Q17. How is temperature coefficient of resistivity for metals is different from temperature
coefficient of resistivity for semiconductor.
*****************

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 54 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 55 of 484
Q18. Name two substances for which temperature coefficient of resistivity is positive. (b) inversely proportional to the area of cross-section
Q19. Name two materials for which temperature coefficient of resistivity is negative. (c) proportional to square of the area of cross-section
Q20. How is temperature coefficient of resistivity different for metals and alloys. (d) independent of the area of cross-section
Q21.What happens to resistivity of metals with increase in temperature? Q31. Drift velocity of electrons is due to:
Q22. What happens to resistivity of semiconductors or insulators with increase in temperature? (a) motion of conduction electrons due to random collisions.

Q23.Define terminal potential difference of a cell. (b) motion of conduction electrons due to electric field E.
(c) repulsion to the conduction electrons due to inner electrons of ions.
Multiple Choice Questions (Each 1M)
(d) collision of conduction electrons with each other.
Choose the correct option(s) in the following questions.
Q32.Identify the set in which all the three materials are good conductors of electricity:
Q24. The resistance of a metal wire increases with increasing temperature on account of
(a)Cu, Ag and Au (b) Cu, Si and diamond (c) Cu, Hg and NaCl (d) Cu, Ge and Hg
(a) decrease in free electron density.
Q33.The I-V characteristics shown in figure represents:
(b) decrease in relaxation time.
(a)ohmic conductors (b)non-ohmic conductors (c)insulators (d)superconductors
(c) increase in mean free path.
Q34. In the equation AB = C, A is the current density, C is the electric field, Then B is:
(d) increase in the mass of electron. (a)resistivity (b) conductivity (c) potential difference (d) resistance
Q25. m2 V-1 s-1 is the SI unit of which of the following? Q35.If a current of 0.5 A flows in a 60 W lamp, then the total charge passing through it in two
(a) Drift velocity (b) Mobility (c) Resistivity (d) Potential gradient hours will be:
Q26. Resistivity of a given conductor depends upon (a)1800 C (b) 2400 C (c) 3000 C (d) 3600 C

(a) temperature. (b) length of conductor. (c) area of cross-section. (d) shape of the Q36.The relaxation time in conductors:
conductor. (a)increases with the increases of temperature (b)decreases with the increases of temperature

Q27. The carriers of electricity in a metallic conductor are (c)it does not depend on temperature (d)all of sudden changes at 400 K

(a) holes (b) negative ions (c) positive ions (d) electrons Q37. A steady current of 1 A is flowing through the conductor. The number of electrons flowing
through the cross-section of the conductor in 1 sec is:
Q28. The time rate of flow of charge through any cross section of a conductor is _____
(a)6.25 × 1015 (b) 6.25 × 1017 (c) 6.25 × 1019 (d) 6.25 × 1018
(a) electric potential (b) electric current(c) electric intensity (d) electric charge
Q38. Drift speed of electrons, when 1.5 A of current flows in a copper wire of cross-sectional area
Q29. When no current is passed through a conductor:
5 mm2 is v. If the electron density of copper is 9 × 1028/m3 the value of v in mm/s is close to (Take
(a) the free electrons do not move
charge of electron to be = 1.6 × 10–19 C)
(b) the average speed of a free electron over a large period of time is not zero
(c)the average velocity of a free electron over a large period of time is zero (a) 3 (b) 0.2 (c) 2 (d) 0.02
(d) the average of the velocities of all the free electrons at an instant is non-zero Q39. A current of 2 mA was passed through an unknown resistor which dissipated a power of 4.4
Q30. A steady current is flowing through a conductor of non-uniform cross-section. The charge W. Dissipated power when an ideal power supply of 11 V is connected across it is
passing through any cross-section of it per unit time is:
(a) 11 × 10–4 W (b) 11 × 10–5 W (c) 11 × 105 W (d) 11 × 10–3 W
(a) directly proportional to the area of cross-section

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 56 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 57 of 484
Q40. Nichrome and copper wires of same length and area of cross section are connected in series, (a) the charge crossing (b)Drift velocity (c)current density
current is passed through them, which wire gets heated first? (d)number density of free electrons
Q49. When a battery of internal resistance 0.5 ohm is connected to a thick copper slab, a current
(a) Nichrome (b) copper (c) both equally (d) none of them
of 12A passes through it. The emf of the cell is
Q41. The specific resistance of a conductor increases with
(a) 6V (b) 24V (c) 12V (d) 4V
(a) increase in temperature (b)increase in cross-sectional area
(c) decrease in length (d)decrease in cross-sectional area
ASSERTION AND REASONS (Each 1M)
Q42. Nichrome or Manganin is widely used in wire bound resistors because of their
Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of
(a)temperature independent resistivity (b)very weak temperature dependent resistivity reason. Mark the correct choice as:
(c)strong dependence of resistivity with temperature (d)mechanical strength
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Q43.EMF is electromotive force, what is its SI unit: (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
a) Newton b) Newton sec c) Joule / coulomb d) Newton meter (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Q44. Kirchhoff’s laws are based upon (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
a) Law of conservation of energy b) law of conservation of charge Q50.Assertion: The current density j at any point in ohmic resistor is in direction of electric field
c) both of these d) none of these E at that point.
Reason: A point charge when released from rest in a region having only electrostatic field always
Q45. In the following figure current flowing through BD is moves along electric lines of force.
(a) 0 (b)0.033 A (c) 0.066 A Q51.Assertion: The 200 W bulbs glows with more brightness then 100 W bulbs.
(d) None of these
Reason: A 100 W bulb has more resistance than a 200 W bulb.
Q52. Assertion: Bending a wire does not affect electrical resistance.
Q46. Which of the following I-V graph represents ohmic
Reason: Resistance of wire is proportional or resistivity of material.
conductors?
Q53. Assertion: Fuse wire must have high resistance and low melting point.
Reason: Fuse is used for small current flow only.
Q47.The specific resistance of a rod of Aluminium as compared to Q54. Assertion: Two electric bulbs of 50 W and 100 W are given. When connected in series 50
that of thin wire of Aluminium is: W bulb glows more but when connected parallel 100 W bulb glows more.
(a) less (b) more (c) same (d) depends upon the length and area of Reason: In series combination, power is directly proportional to the resistance of circuit. But in
cross-section parallel combination, power is inversely proportional to the resistance of the circuit.

Q48. A current passes through a wire of non-uniform cross section. Which of the following Q55.Assertion: When current through a bulb decreases by 0.5%, the glow of bulb decreases by1%.

quantities are independent of cross section Reason: Glow (Power) which is directly proportional to square of current.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 58 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 59 of 484
Q56. Assertion: Two bulbs of same wattage, one having a carbon filament and the other having a Q69. An electron moves in a circle of radius 0.15 m with a constant speed of 3.6 x 106 m s-1. What
metallic filament are connected in series. Metallic bulbs will glow more brightly than carbon electric current does this correspond to?
filament bulb. Q70.A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1 Ω at 27.5 °C, and a resistance of 2.7 Ω at 100 °C.
Reason: Carbon is a semiconductor. Determine the temperature coefficient of resistivity of silver.
Q57. Assertion: A current flows in a conductor only when there is an electric field within the Q71. Define electric power and electric energy. Give their SI units.
conductor. Q72. Define conductivity of a conductor. State its SI unit. Explain the variation of conductivity
Reason: The drift velocity of electron in presence of electric field decreases. with temperature of a metallic conductor.
Q58. Assertion: In practical application, power rating of resistance is not important. Q73. Derive an expression for electric energy consumed in a device in terms of V,I and t, where
Reason: Property of resistance remain same even at high temperature V is the potential difference applied to it, I is the current drawn by it and t is the time for which
current flows?
2 MARK QUESTIONS
Q74.Is electric current a scalar or vector quantity? Give reason.
Q59. A potential difference of 10 V is applied across a conductor of resistance 1 kΩ. Find the
Q75. Why is a Wheatstone Bridge so called?
number of electrons flowing through the conductor in 5 minutes.
Q76. What do you mean by sensitivity of Wheatstone Bridge? when is wheat stone Bridge most
Q60. Whatis drift velocity of electrons? How do you explain the flow of current in a conductor sensitive?
based on this?
Q77. What are the advantages of a Wheatstone Bridge method of measuring resistances over other
Q61. Establish the relation between drift velocity and electric current. methods?
Q62.What is non-Ohmic device? Give one example. Q78. Draw a circuit of balanced Wheatstone Bridge and label it.
Q63. Define relaxation time of electrons in a conductor. Give its SI units. Explain, how it varies Q79. Why is EMF of a cell always greater than terminal potential difference? Is there a case when
with increase in temperature of conductor? terminal potential difference is greater than emf?
Q64. State Ohm’s law. Discuss three situations which describe the failures of Ohm’s law.
Q65. A negligibly small current is passed through a wire of length 15 m and uniform cross-section 3 MARK QUESTIONS
6.0 × 10–7 m2 , and its resistance is measured to be 5.0 Ω. What is the resistivity of the material at Q80. What are the factors on which internal resistance of a cell depend?
the temperature of the experiment? Q81. Show the variation of resistivity of
Q66. What are the factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends? Give the corresponding i) copper with temperature ii) Nichrome with temperature. iii)silicon with temperature
relation. Q82. Two cells of different emfs and internal resistance are connected in series with one another
Q67. A potential difference of 6 V is applied across a conductor of length 0.12 m. Calculate the find the expressions for equivalent EMF and equivalent internal resistance of the combination.
drift velocity of electrons, if the electron mobility is 5.6 × 10-6 m² V-1 s-1 conductor.
Q83. A resistance R is connected across a cell of emf 8V and internal resistance r. A Voltmeter
Q68. A current of 1 A flows through a wire of length 0.24 m and area of cross-section 1.2 mm²,
now measures the potential difference between the terminals of the cell as V. Obtain the expression
when it is connected to a battery of 3 V. Find the number density of free electrons in the wire, if
for r in terms of E, V and R. Draw related circuit diagram also.
the electron mobility is 4.8 x 10-6 m² V-1 s-1.
Given that charge on electron = 1.6 x 10-19 C.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 60 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 61 of 484
 5 MARK QUESTIONS SECTION- A- ANSWER KEY
Q84.Define resistivity of a conductor and give its SI unit. Plot a graph showing the variation of 1. Rate of flow of charge is called as current. The current that flows from positive pole to negative
resistivity with temperature for (i). Copper ( ii).Nichrome (iii).Semiconductor. pole of a cell in the external circuit is called conventional current.
How does one explain such a behavior, using the mathematical expression of the resistivity of a 2. One ampere is that current when one Coulomb of charge flows through the conductor in one
conductor? second
Q85. Explain the variation of resistivity, of metals, semiconductors, insulators with graphs and 3.If the potential difference between the ends of conductor is 1 V and if a current of 1 A flow
hence define temperature coefficient of resistivity, write its si unit. through it, then the resistance of the conductor is 1Ω.
Q86. State Kirchhoff’s laws and explain them using appropriate circuit diagrams. Write about the 4. Inversely proportional to temperature
fundamental principles on which they are based. 5.The relaxation time of electrons decreases with the rise in temperature of the metal.
Q87. Applying the Kirchhoff’s laws in following circuit diagram, Write all relations between I 1,I2, 6.The resistivity remains the same as it does not depend upon the length of the wire.
and I3 7.It represents resistance. It is measured in ohm.
8.

************
9.

10.(a) greater (b) lower (c) nearly independent of (d) 1022

11.0.6A
2.25 × 1020 × 1.6 × 10−19
I= ne/t = = 0.6 A
60

12.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 62 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 63 of 484
 Answer: (b) 11 × 10–5 W
40. (a) Nichrome
41. (a) Increase in temperature
42. (b) very weak temperature dependent resistivity
13. Conductivity increases due to increase in movement of ions with temperature.
43. (c) Joule / coulomb
14. (a) A metallic conductor for small amounts of current.
44. (c) both of these
(b) Electrolytes such as CUSO4 solution with copper electrodes.
45. (a) 0
15.Non-ohmic devices are those that do not obey Ohm's law. Vacuum tubes and thermistors are
two examples. 46. (a)

16.The maximum potential difference which is present between two electrodes of a cell is
defined as the electromotive force of a cell or EMF of a cell.
17.The temperature coefficient of resistivity is positive for metals and negative for semiconductor.
18.Gold, silver
19.silicon, germanium
47. (c) same
20.The value of temperature co-efficient of resistance (alpha) is more for metals than for alloys.
48. (d) number density of free electrons
21. It increases with rise in temperature.
49. (a) 6V
22. Increases
Assuming copper slab to be ideal conductor i.e. R = 0
23. Terminal potential difference of a cell is defined as the potential difference between the two
⇒E=I x r
electrodes of a cell in a closed circuit
E=12×0.5
Multiple Choice Questions –answers E=6V
24.(b) 25.(b) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (b) ASSERTION AND REASONS (Each 1M)
37. (d) 50. (C) 51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (A) 55. (A) 56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (D)
38.As I = neAvd 2 MARK QUESTIONS
vd = I/neA = 1.5/(9 x 1028 x 1.6 x 10-19 x5x 10-6) 59. 1.875 x 1019
v = 0.02 x 10-3 m/s = 0.02 mm/s I = V/R = 10-2A = q/t
Answer: (d) 0.02 q = It = ne
39. Case (1)As I2R =P n = 1.875 x 1019
R = P/I2 60. When electrons are subjected to an electric field they do move randomly, but they slowly drift
in one direction, in the direction of the electric field applied. The net velocity at which these
R = (4.4)/(2 x 10-3)2= 1.1 x 106 Ω
electrons drift is known as drift velocity.
Case (2)P = V2/R = (11)2/(1.1 x 106) = 11 x 10-5 W

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 64 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 65 of 484
61.Let l is the length of the conductor and A uniforms area of cross-section. 66. The resistance of a wire depends on its length (l), cross-sectional area (A), number of electrons
Therefore, the volume of the conductor = Al 𝑚 𝑙
per m3 (n) and the relaxation time R=
𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏𝐴
If n is the number of free electrons per unit volume of the conductor, then the total number of free
electrons in the conductor=Aln. 67.Ans. 2.8 x 10-4ms-1

If e is the charge on each electron, then total charge on all the free electrons in the conductor E = V/l = 50 V/m

q=Alne vd = µE = 2.8 x 10-4ms-1

Let a constant potential differences V is applied across the ends of the conductor with the help of 68. E = V/l = 12.5 V/m
a battery vd = µE = 6 x 10-5ms-1
The electric field set up across the conductor is given by 𝐼
𝑛= = 8.68 x 1028m-3
𝐴𝑒𝑣𝑑
E=V/l
69. The electron crosses a point on the circle once in every revolution. If v is number of revolutions
t=l/vd
made by the electron in 1 s, then its motion along circle corresponds to a current,
As current I=q/t
𝑒𝑣
I=neAvd. I=𝑒𝑓=e/T = = 6.1 x 10-13 A
2𝜋𝑟

62.A device that does not obey Ohm’s law is non ohmic device. Ex. Semiconductor diode 70.
63. Relaxation time is the time interval between two successive collisions of electrons in a
conductor, when current flows
Second Inversely proportional to temperature
64. It states that the current through any two points of the conductor is directly proportional to the
71. Electric energy: The total work done by the source of emf in maintaining an electric
potential difference applied across the conductor provided that the physical conditions remains
current in a circuit for a given time is called electric energy consumed in the circuit. Its SI unit is
constant.
joule.
(a) V ceases to be proportional to I. Electric power: The rate at which work is done by a source of emf in maintaining an electric
(b) The relation between V and I depends on the sign of V. In other words, if I is the current for a current through a circuit is called electric power of the circuit. Its SI unit is Watt.
certain V, then reversing the direction of V keeping its magnitude fixed, does not produce a current 72. Conductivity (or specific conductance) of a conductor is a measure of its ability to conduct
of the same magnitude as I in the opposite direction. This happens, for example, in a diode. electricity. It is also reciprocal of resistivity of the conductor. The SI unit of conductivity is Siemen
(c) The relation between V and I is not unique, i.e., there is more than one value of V for the same per meter (S/m). The electrical conductivity of a metallic conductor will decrease with an increase
current I. A material exhibiting such behavior is GaAs. in temperature.
65.Length = 15 m
73. Electric energy consumed = W=Q×V
Area of cross section 6 x 10 -7 m2
𝑸
R= 5 Ohms I=
𝒕
𝑅𝐴 W=I×t×V
Resistivity =𝑝= =2.0 × 10–7Ωm
𝑙

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 66 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 67 of 484
 ∴W=I×t×V 81.
𝑉2t
Is also = I2Rt and
𝑅

74. Electric current is a scalar quantity the reason is that laws of ordinary algebra are used to add
electric currents and laws of vector additions do not apply to the addition of electric currents.
75.It is so called because this method was first suggested by a British physicist Charles Wheatstone
in 1843.It is called a bridge because galvanometer circuit forms a kind of bridge by connecting
two points having the same potential.
76. Wheatstone bridge is said to be sensitive if it produces more deflection in the galvanometer for
a small change of resistance in resistance arm. It is most sensitive when all four resistors P, Q, R,
S are nearly of same magnitude and null point is obtained in the middle of alloy wire. 82.Eeq = E1 + E2 +E3 ——-En = nE
77. a) It is a null point method hence the result is free from the effect of extra resistances of the req = r1 + r2 + r3 ——-rn = nr
circuit. 83. Obtain following all the steps r=
(𝐸−𝑉)𝑅
𝑉
b) As it is null point method so it is easier to detect a small change in deflection.
78.Diagram of Wheatstone bridge.
5 MARK QUESTIONS
79. The EMF of a cell is greater than its terminal voltage because there is some potential drop
𝑝𝑙
across the cell due to its small internal resistance. During charging of a cell, terminal potential 84. We know that, R=
𝐴
difference is greater than emf l=1m, A=1m2 ⇒p=R
3 MARK QUESTIONS Thus, resistivity of a material is numerically equal to the resistance of the conductor having unit
80.i. The surface area of electrodes- Larger the surface area of electrodes, less is the internal length and unit cross-sectional area and its SI unit is Ohm-m
resistance.
ii. Distance between electrodes- More the distance between the electrodes, the greater is the
internal resistance.
iii. Concentration of electrolyte - less ionic the electrolyte or higher the concentration of
electrolyte, greater is the internal resistance.
iv. Temperature of electrolyte - higher the temperature, less is the internal resistance.

The resistivity of a material is found to be dependent on the temperature. The resistivity of a

metallic conductor is given by
pT=po[1+α (T−T0)] ...........(i)
Where pT is the resistivity at a temperature T and p0 is the same at a reference temperature T0,α is

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 68 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 69 of 484
called the temperature co-efficient of resistivity. This expression shows that resistivity increases SECTION – B
with increase in temperature of the conductor
1-Mark Questions
85.Explanation using Q1. Is current density scalar or vector quantity?
Q2. Steady current is flowing in cylindrical conductor. Does electric field exist within the
conductor?
Q3. When a straight wire of resistance R bent into U-shape, does its resistance change?
Q4. If the radius of copper wire is doubled, will its specific resistance increase, decrease or remain
temperature coefficient of resistivity same?
Q5. What is the effect of heating of conductor on the drift velocity of free electrons?
Q6. A uniform wire resistance 50 ohms is into equal parts. These parts are now connected parallel.

SI unit – K-1 What the value equivalent resistance of combination?

Q7. What happens to the power dissipation if the value of electric current passing through
86. Kirchhoff’s laws explanations from book.
conductor of constant resistance doubled?
1st law is based upon law of conservation of charge and 2 nd law is based upon law of conservation
Q8. Define the resistivity and write the SI unit.
of energy.
Q9. A wire resistivity p stretched double length. What will be new resistivity?
87.I1= I2 + I3 …………………... (1) (Using KCL)
Q10.What is the Significance of positive value of temperature coefficient of resistivity?
4 I 3 +2 I1 -24 = 0 ……………………(2) (Using KVL)
Q11. What is the significance of negative value of temperature coefficient of resistivity?
4 I3 - 6 I 2 -27 =0 ………………….. (3) (Using KVL)
Q12. What happens to internal resistance of a cell after long use?
Q13. Write the relation between internal resistance, EMF, and terminal potential difference of a
************ cell
Q14. Under what condition EMF of a cell is less than terminal potential difference.
Q15. How does the relaxation time of electron in the conductor change when temperature of the
conductor decreases.
Q16. Resistors of high value are made up of carbon. Why?

Multiple Choice Questions (Each 1M)

Q17. In a current carrying conductor, the ratio of the electric field and the current density at a
point is called
(a) Resistivity (b) Conductivity (c) Resistance (d) Mobility

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 70 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 71 of 484
Q18. Consider a current carrying wire (current I) in the shape of a circle. Note that as the current V
progresses along the wire, the direction of j (current density) changes in an exact manner, while (a) T1>T2
the current I remain unaffected. The agent that is essentially responsible for is ________ (b) T1<T2
(a) source of emf. (c) T1 = T2
(d) T1 is greater or less than T2 depending on whether the resistance R of the wire is greater
(b) electric field produced by charges accumulated on the surface of wire.
or less than the ratio V/I.
(c) the charges just behind the given segment of wire which push them just the right way by
Q22. A wire has a non-uniform cross-section as shown in the figure. If a steady current is flowing
repulsion
through it, then the drift speed of the electrons:
(d) the charges ahead
Q19. Calculate the conductance and conductivity of a wire of resistance 0.01 Ω and area of cross
section 10-4 m2 and length 0.1 m. A B
(a) 10 S and 105 S m-1 (a)is constant throughout the wire
(b) decreases from A to B
(b) 100 S and 104S m-1
(c) increases from A to B
(c) 100 S and 106S m-1 (d) varies randomly
(d)100 S and 105 S m-1 Q23. The I-V characteristics shown in figure represents:
I
Q20. The V-I characteristics of four circuit elements are shown. Which of these is ohmic?
(a) I V

V (a) ohmic conductors (b) non-ohmic conductors

(b) I
(c) Insulators (d) superconductors
Q24.A metal wire is subjected to a constant potential difference. When the temperature of the
V
(c) I
metal wire increases, the drift velocity of the electron in it:
(a) increases, thermal velocity of electron increases
(b) decreases, thermal velocity of electron increases
V
(d) I (c) increases, thermal velocity of electron decreases
(d) decreases, thermal velocity of electron decreases
V Q25.Current of 4.8 amperes is flowing through a conductor. The number of electrons crossing any
Q21. The current-voltage (I-V) graph for a given metallic wire at two different temperatures T1 cross-section per second will be:
and T2 are shown in figure. It follows from the graph that: (a) 3 × 1019 (b) 7.68 × 1021 (c) 7.68 × 1020 (d) 3 × 1020
T1 Q26.Ohm’s law deals with the relation between:
T2
(a) current and potential difference
I (b) capacity and charge

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 72 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 73 of 484
(c) capacity and potential
(d) charge and potential difference
Q27. Ohm’s law is valid when the temperature of the conductor is _____:
(a) constant (b) very high (c) very low (d) varying
Q28.Ohm’s law is valid for:
(a)metallic conductors at low temperature
(b)metallic conductors at high temperature
(c)electrolytes when current passes through them
(d)diode when current flows
Q29.In gallium-arsenide material, Ohm’s law does not hold good because: Q33.Drift velocity vd varies with the intensity of electric field as per the relation

(a)current remains constant for any value of voltage (a) vd ∝ E (b) vd ∝ (c) vd = constant (d) vd ∝ E2
(b)resistance is infinite
Q34. The I-V characteristics shown in figure represents
(c)negative resistance exists in the voltage-current variation
(d)current goes to infinite at very low voltages
Q30.When the length and area of cross-section both are doubled, then its resistance:
(a) will become half
(b)will be doubled
(a) ohmic conductors (b) non-ohmic conductors
(c)will remain the same
(c) insulators (d) superconductors
(d)will become four times
Q35. In the circuit shown, if a conducting wire is connected between points A and B, the current
Q31.For a metallic wire, the ratio V/I (V = the applied potential difference, I = current flowing):
(a)is independent of temperature.
(b)increases as the temperature rises.
(c)decreases as the temperature rises.
(d)increases or decreases as temperature rises, depending upon the metal.
in this wire will
Q32. A battery consists of a variable number ′n′ of identical cells (having internal resistance ′r′ each) which
(a) flow in the direction which will be decided by the value of V
are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which
(b) be zero
of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n?
(c) flow from B to A
(d) flow from A to B

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 74 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 75 of 484
Q36.In following figure shows currents in a part of electrical Q41. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit, the point of the lowest potential is positive terminal of
circuit, then the value of I (in ampere) is given by : the battery.
Reason: The current flows towards the point of the higher potential, as it does in such a circuit
(a) 0.3 A (b) 0.5 A
from the negative to the positive terminal
(c) 1.3 A (d) None of these
2 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q37. Two batteries of emf 4 V and 8V with internal resistance 1 ohm and 2 ohm are connected in
Q42. The metallic conductor is at temperature Ꝋ 1. The temperature of metallic conductor is
a circuit with a resistance of 9 W as shown in figure.
increased to Ꝋ2. How will the product of resistivity and conductivity change? Why?
The current and potential difference between the points P and Q are Q43. Specific resistance copper, silver constantan are 1.18 x 10 -6, 1 x 10-6, and 45 x 106 ohm cm
a) 1 /3 A and 3 V (b) 1 /6 A and 4 V respectively. Which is the best electrical conductor and why? Q44.

(c) 1 /9 A and 9 V (d) 1 /12 A and 12 V Nichrome and copper wires of same length and same radius are
connected in series. Current I is passed through them. Which wire
Q38. In a Wheatstone bridge all the four arms have equal resistance 2R. If the resistance of the
gets heated up more? Justify your answer.
galvanometer arm A B is also R, the equivalent resistance of the combination as seen by the battery
Q45. I - V graph for a metallic wire at two different temperatures,
is
T1 and T2 is as shown in the figure. Which of the two temperatures is lower and why?
(a) 2 R (b) R (c)2R (d) 4 R

Assertion-Reasoning Questions Q46. What conclusion can you draw from the following observations on a resistor made of an
alloy manganin?
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason.
While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four Current A Voltage V Current A Voltage V
responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the 0.2 3.94 3.0 59.2
Assertion.
0.4 7.87 4.0 78.8
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion. 0.6 11.8 5.0 98.6

(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 0.8 15.7 6.0 118.5
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
1.0 19.7 7.0 138.2
Q39.Assertion: There is no current in the metals in absence of electric field.
2.0 39.4 8.0 158.0
Reason: Motion of free electrons is randomly.
Q40. Assertion: A wire carrying an electric current has no electric field around it.
Reason: Rate of flow of electrons in One direction is equal to rate of flow of protons in opposite Q47. An electric bulb rated for 500W at 100V is used in circuit having a 200V supply. Calculate

direction the resistance R that must be put in series with the bulb, so that the bulb delivers 500W.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 76 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 77 of 484
Q48. Why is Wheatstone Bridge method considered unsuitable for measurement of very low elements that do not obey Ohm’s law.
resistances? (c) A low voltage supply from which one needs high currents must have very low internal
Q49. Why is the Wheatstone method considered Unsuitable for measurement of very high resistance. Why?
resistances? Q61 . Two cells of different emfs and internal resistance are connected in parallel with one another
Q50.A Battery of emf 3 volt and internal resistance r is connected in series with 55 ohms through find the expressions for equivalent EMF and equivalent internal resistance of the combination.
an ammeter of resistance 1 ohm. The ammeter reads 50 mA. Draw the circuit diagram and calculate Q62.A battery of emf 12.0 V and internal resistance 0.5Ω is to be charged by a battery charger
value of r. which supplies 110 V dc. How much resistance must be connected in series with the battery to
Q51. Derive the conditions for obtaining maximum current through external resistance connected limit the charging current to 5.0 A? What will be the potential difference across the terminals of
across a series combination of n identical cells. the battery during charging?
Q52. Derive condition for obtaining maximum current through an external resistance connected to Q63. Potential differences across the terminals of a cell were measured
a parallel combination of n identical cells. (in volt) against different currents (in ampere) flowing through the cell.
Q53. Two identical cells, whether joined in series or in parallel give the same current, when A graph was drawn which was a straight-line ABC as shown in figure
connected to an external resistance of 1 ohm. Find the internal resistance of each cell.
Q54. Two wire one of copper and other of manganin have same resistance and equal length. Which Determine from graph (i) emf of the cell (ii) maximum current obtained
wire is thicker? from the cell and (iii) internal resistance of the cell.
Q55. When does the terminal voltage of a cell become (i) greater than its emf (ii) less than its emf? Q64. Four identical cells each of emf 2V, are joined in parallel providing supply of current to
Q56.A car battery is of 12V. Eight dry cells of 1.5 V connected in series also give 12V, but such external circuit consisting of two 15Ω resistors joined in parallel. The terminal voltage of the cells
a combination is not used to start a car. Why? ae read by an ideal voltmeter is 1.6V. Calculate the internal resistance of each cell.
Q57. The current flowing through a conductor is 2mA at 50V and 3mA at 60V. Is it an ohmic or Q65. Give three differences between e.m.f. and terminal potential difference of a cell.
non-ohmic conductor? Give reason. Q66. In the figure, an ammeter A, and a resistor of resistance R = 4Ω have been connected to the
3MARKS QUESTIONS terminals of the source to form a complete circuit. The emf of the source is 12V having an internal

Q58. On what factors resistivity of the material depend? Write the corresponding equation. Why resistance of 2Ω. Calculate voltmeter and ammeter reading.

copper wires are used as connecting wires?

Q59. A heating element using nichrome connected to a 230 V supply draws an initial current of
3.2 A which settles after a few seconds to a steady value of 2.8 A. What is the steady temperature
of the heating element if the room temperature is 27.0 °C? Temperature coefficient of resistance
5 MARKS QUESTIONS
of nichrome averaged over the temperature range involved is 1.70 × 10 –4 °C–1?
Q67. (a) On the basis of electron drift, derive an expression for resistivity of a conductor in terms
Q60.Answer the following questions:
of number density of free electrons and relaxation time. On what factors does resistance and
(a) A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of the non-uniform cross-section. Which of these
resistivity of a conductor depend?
quantities is constant along the conductor: current, current density, electric field, drift speed?
(b) Why alloys like constantan and manganin are used for making standard resistors?
(b) Is Ohm’s law universally applicable for all conducting elements? If not, give examples of

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 78 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 79 of 484
Q68.(a) The electron drift arises due to the force experienced by electrons in the electric field SECTION-B- Answers
inside the conductor. But force should cause acceleration. Why then do the electrons acquire a 1.Current density is vector quantity.
steady average drift speed?
2.Yes, electric field exists within the conductor because it is the electric field which imparts
(b) If the electron drift speed is so small, and the electron’s charge is small, how can we still obtain acceleration to electrons for the flow of current.
large amounts of current in a conductor? 3.No, the resistance remains same, because length and cross-sectional area of the wire remain
(c) When electrons drift in a metal from lower to higher potential, does it mean that all the ‘free’ unchanged.
electrons of the metal are moving in the same direction? 4. The specific resistance of wire depends only on the material (at given temperature). Therefore
(d) Are the paths of electrons straight lines between successive collisions (with the positive ions by changing the radius, the specific resistance of copper remains unchanged.
of the metal) in the (i) absence of electric field, (ii) presence of electric field? 𝜏
5.Vd = eE
𝑚
Q69.Define current density. Give its SI unit. Whether it is vector or scalar?
How does it vary when (i) potential difference across wire increases (ii) length of wire increases By heating conductor, the collisions electrons occur more frequently; relaxation time decreases
and hence drift velocity decreases.
(iii) temperature of wire increases (iv) Area of cross-section of wire increases justify your answer.
6. 2 ohms
Q70. State Kirchhoff’s rules for electrical networks. Use them to explain the principle of
7. Power P=I2Rt ∞ I2
Wheatstone bridge for determining an unknown resistance. How is it realized in actual practice in
the laboratory? Write the formula used. Clearly current doubled, power dissipated becomes times.

Q71. Deduce the condition for balance in a Wheatstone bridge. Write any two important 8. The resistivity of material of conductor defined the resistance offered by conductor length 1m
and area cross-section 1 m². Its unit ohm metre
precautions you would observe while performing the experiment. When is Wheatstone bridge most
9. New resistivity will be (unchanged) because resistivity independent of dimensions
sensitive?
10.Resitivity increases with increase in temperature.
11. Resistivity decreases with increase in temperature.
**************** 12. As the battery or cell is in continuous use, consuming electrolyte and the chemical reaction
keeps occurring in the cell, due to which the concentration of ions in the cell decreases and this
resists the flow of charge through it. Hence, the internal resistance increases with time.
13.E = V +Ir.
14.During charging.
15.When temperature of the conductor decreases, ionic vibration in the conductor decreases so
relaxation time increases.
16. High resistivity and low temperature Coefficient of resistance.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 80 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 81 of 484
 Multiple Choice Questions (Each 1M) -solution 40.

17.(a) 41.

18.(b) 2 MARKS QUESTIONS -ANSWERS

19. (d) 100 S and 105 S m-1 42. Product of resistivity and conductivity is constant = 1
𝑝𝑙 Product independent temperature.
R=
𝐴
43. Smaller the resistivity of substance, larger is conductivity. The resistivity of silver is least so
G = 1/R = 100 S
silver is the best conductor
Conductivity = 1/Resistivity = 105 S m-1
44. Nichrome wire gets heated up more. Heat dissipated in a wire is given by
20.(a)
𝑝𝑙
21.(b) H = 𝐼 2 𝑅𝑡 = 𝐼 2 𝑡
𝐴

22. (b) H∞𝑝

23. (b) p of nichrome>p of copper
24.(b) H of nichrome>H of copper
25. (a) 45. Answer
26. (a) R1 = V1/I and R2 = V2/I
27. (a) V2> V1 So R2> R1 and T 1< T 2
28. (a) 46.Ohm’s law is valid to high accuracy. This means that the resistivity of the alloy manganin is
29. (c) nearly independent of temperature.
30. (c) 47. Resistance of bulb=V2/P = 20 Ω, I = 5A, for the same power dissipation, current should be 5A
31. (b) when the bulb is connected to a 200V supply. The safe resistance R' = V'/I= 40Ω. Therefore, 20Ω
32. (d) resistors should be connected in series.
Here, i=nE/ n, r= E/ r Because I is totally independent of n, hence it will remain constant. 48.For measuring lower resistance all other resistances should have low value so that bridge is
33. (a) vd ∝E sensitive, this requires galvanometer of very low resistance, also the end resistance and resistance
34. (b) of connecting wires becomes comparable to the resistance measured hence error may be
35. (c) flow from B to A introduced.
36. (a) 0.3 A 49. For measuring higher resistance all other resistances forming the wheat stone bridge should be
37. (a) high but this reduces the current through the galvanometer and hence it becomes insensitive.
8−4 4
𝐼= = = 1/3 A 50.Emf = 3 V
1+2+9 12
1 Rnet = 55 +1+r = 56+r
VP – VQ = (4 − 𝑋 3) = 3 𝑉
3
I= 50 x 10-3A
38. (a) 2 R
I= E/Rnet
39

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 82 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 83 of 484
R = 4 ohm 55. (i) When the cell is being charged terminal potential difference (V) becomes greater than emf
𝑛𝐸 (E), V = E + Ir
51.I =
𝑅+𝑛𝑟
(ii) When the cell is discharged, then V < E, V = E – I r
If R>> nr
56. Dry cell used in series will have high resistance (= 10Ω) and hence provide low current, while
𝑛𝐸
I= = n x current from a single cell a car battery has low internal resistance (0.1Ω) and hence gives high current for the same emf,
𝑅

When external resistance is much higher needed to start the car.

than the total internal resistance then the cells should be connected in series to get maximum 57.The resistance of first case, R 1 = V 1 /I 1 = 50 /2 × 10 − 3 = 25, 000 Ω the resistance of second
current. case, R 2 = V 2 / I 2 = 60 / 3 × 10 − 3 = 20, 000 Ω
52. As resistance changes with current, so the given conductor is non-ohmic.

3 MARKS QUESTIONS
𝑟 58. The resistivity of a conductor depends on two factors i.e., nature of the material of the
IF >> R conductor and temperature.
𝑛

r>> Nr m
p=
ne2 τ
𝑛𝐸
I= = n X current from a single cell Copper wires are used as connecting wires because the electrical resistivity of copper is low. It
𝑟
prevents any wastage of electric current.
When external resistance is much smaller than the total internal resistance then the cells should be
connected in parallel to get maximum current. 59.The supply voltage is V = 230 V

53. ESeries= 2 E EParallel= E The initial current drawn is I1 = 3.2 A

2𝐸 𝐸 Consider the initial resistance to be R 1, which can be found by the following relation:
I= I =𝑟
2𝑟+1 +1
2
R=V/I= 71.87 Ω
2𝐸 𝐸
=𝑟 Value of current at steady state, I 2 = 2.8 A
2𝑟+1 +1
2

2 1 Value of resistance at steady state = R 2

= 𝑟 r = 1 ohm
2𝑟+1 +1
2
R 2 can be calculated by the following equation :
54.where ρ= specific resistance of wire
R2=82.14Ω
for copper wire R=ρcL/Ac,
The temperature coefficient of nichrome averaged over the temperature range involved is
for manganin wire R=ρmL/Am
1.70 x 10 – 4 ° C – 1
or ρc/Ac=ρm/Am
or Ac/Am=ρc/ρm Value of initial temperature of nichrome , T 1 = 27.0 ° C

we know ρm>ρc (as manganin is an alloy) Value of steady state temperature reached by nichrome = T 2
therefore Ac<AmHence manganin wire is thicker This temperature T 2 can be obtained by the following formula

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 84 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 85 of 484
 65.
E.M.F. OF A CELL TERMINAL VOLTAGE OF A CELL
1.It is measured by the amount of work done in 1.It is measured by the amount of work done in
moving a unit positive charge in the complete moving a unit positive charge in the circuit
circuit inside and outside the cell. outside the cell.
2.It is the characteristic of the cell i.e.; it does not 2.It depends on the amount of current drawn from
depend on the amount of current drawn from the the cell. More the current is drawn from the cell,
60. (a) Current is given to be steady. Therefore, it is a constant. The current density, electric field,
cell less is the terminal voltage
drift speed depends on the area of cross-section inversely.
3.It is equal to the terminal voltage when cell is 3.It is equal to the emf of cell when cell is not in
(b) No, examples of non-ohmic elements are vacuum diode, semiconductor diode etc.
not in use while greater than the terminal voltage use, while less than the emf when cell is in use.
(c) Because the maximum current drawn from a source = ε/r.
when cell is in use.
61.Eeq = (ε2r1+ ε1r2)/ (r1 + r2)
(1/Req) = (1/R1) + (1/R2) + (1/R3) ……. (1/Rn)
66. E = 12 V R net = 2 + 4 = 6 ohm
62. E= 110- 12= 98 V
I = 12 /6 = 2 A
98
I= , R= 19.1 ohm , V= E + ir = 12 + 5x0.5 = 14.5 Volt
𝑅+0.5 VOLTMETER READING = I R = 2 x 4 = 8 V,
63. (i) 1.4 V (ii) I max = 0.28 A (iii) r = E/Imax = 1.4/.28 = 5 ohm
Ammeter reading=2A
64. E = 2 V
req = r/4
5 MARKS QUESTIONS
Rex = R/2 = 7.5
67.
V= 1.6 V
E = V + I req
E- V = I req I = V /Rex

(𝐸−𝑉)𝑅𝑒𝑥 (2−1.6)5
req= = = 15 /8 ohm Relaxation time of free electrons drifting in a conductor is the average time elapsed between two
𝑉 1.6
𝑟 15 successive collisions.
=
4 8
Consider a conductor of length 1 and cross-sectional area A. When a potential difference V is
r = 7.5 ohm applied across its ends, the current produced is I.

If n is the number of electrons per unit volume in the conductor and v d the drift velocity electrons,
then the relation between current and drift velocity is I=−neAvd

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 86 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 87 of 484
Where -e is the charge on electron 68. (a) Each ‘free’ electron does accelerate, increasing its drift speed until it collides with a positive
𝑉 ion of the metal. It loses its drift speed after collision but starts to accelerate and increases its drift
Electric field produced at each point of wire,𝐸 =
𝑙
speed again only to suffer a collision again and so on. On the average, therefore, electrons acquire
If τ is relaxation time and E is electric field strength, then drift velocity
only a drift speed.
𝑒𝜏𝐸
vd= − (b) Simple, because the electron number density is enormous, ~1029 m–3.
𝑚

(c) By no means. The drift velocity is superposed over the large random velocities of electrons.
𝑒𝜏𝐸 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏
I=−neA(− ) or I=− AE (d) In the absence of electric field, the paths are straight lines; in the presence of electric field, the
𝑚 𝑚

𝑉
paths are, in general, curved
As E=
𝑙 69. Definition, SI unit is A / m2
𝑛𝑒 2 𝑉 𝑉 𝑚 𝑙
I= 𝜏A or =
𝑚 𝑙 𝑙 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏 𝐴 Current density is a vector quantity. Its direction is same as that of motion of positive charge.
𝐼 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏 𝐼 𝑛𝑒𝐴𝑣 𝑛𝑒𝑒𝐸τ 𝑉τ 𝑉τ
Current density J = = 𝑉 J= = = = 𝑛𝑒𝑒 = ne2
𝐴 𝑚𝑙 𝐴 𝐴 𝑚 𝑚𝑙 𝑚𝑙

This is relation between current density J and applied potential difference V.

(a) With increase in potential gradient, J increase.
Under give physical conditions (temperature, pressure) for a given conductor (b) With increase in temperature, τ decreases, so J decreases.
𝑚 𝑙 (c) With increase in length J decreases.
= Constant ∴ This constant is called the resistance of the conductor (i.e. R)
𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏𝐴
𝑚 𝑙
i.e. R= ------------------ 1 (d) With increase in area, J remains unchanged as J is independent of A.
𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏𝐴

𝑉
70. DERIVATION, CIRCUIT DIAGRAM
=R
𝐼
71.The current should not flow in the Set up for a long time, otherwise the wire will become hot and its
This is Ohm's law from equation it is clear that the resistance of a wire depends on its length (l), resistance will be changed.
cross-sectional area (A), number of electrons per m3 (n) and the relaxation time The null point should be between 45cm and 55cm.
Expression for resistivity It is most sensitive When all four registers P,Q,R,S are nearly of same magnitude and null point is
𝑝𝑙
As R= ---------------------2 obtained in the middle of alloy wire.
𝐴
************
Comparing 1 and 2, we get
𝑚
Resistivity of a conductor p=
𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏

clearly, resistivity of a conductor is inversely proportional to number density of free electrons and
relaxation time.
Resistivity of the material of a conductor depends upon the relaxation time - i.e. temperature and
the number density of free electrons. This is because constantan and manganin show very weak
dependence of resistivity on temperature.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 88 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 89 of 484
 SECTION-C 7. In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40 W, 5 bulbs of 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1 heater

Multiple Choice Questions (Each 1M) of 1 kW. The voltage of the electric mains is 220 V. The minimum capacity of the main fuse of
the building will be
(a) 14 A (b) 8 A (c) 10 A (d) 12 A
1.Consider a current carrying wire (current I) in the shape of a circle. Note that as the current
8. If a wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, its resistance will
progresses along the wire, the direction of j (current density) changes in an exact manner, while
(a) increase by 0.05% (b) increase by 0.2%
the current I remain unaffected. The agent that is essentially responsible for is:
(c) decrease by 0.2% (d) decrease by 0.05%
(a) source of emf
9. Figure shows three resistor configurations R1, R2 and R3 connected to 3 V battery.
(b) electric field produced by charges accumulated on the surface of wire.
(c) the charges just behind a given segment of wire which push them just the right way by
repulsion.
(d)the charges ahead
2.A metal rod of length 10 cm and a rectangular cross section of 1cm × 1/2 cm is connected to a
battery across opposite faces. The resistance will be:
(a) maximum when the battery is connected across 1 cm × 1/2 cm faces
If the power dissipated by the configuration R1, R2 and R3 is P1, P2 and P3, respectively, then
(b) maximum when the battery is connected across 10 cm x 1 cm faces
(a) P1> P2> P3 (b) P1> P3> P2 (c) P2> P1> P3 (d) P3> P2> P1
(c) maximum when the battery is connected across 10 cm x 1/2 cm faces
(d) same irrespective of the three faces
10. In the circuit shown, P is not equal to R, the reading of the galvanometer
3.Which of the following characteristics of electrons determines the current in a conductor?
is same with switch S open or closed. Then,
(a) Drift velocity alone
(b) Thermal velocity alone (a) IR=IG (b) Ip= IG (c) IQ = I G (d) IQ = IR
(c) Both drift velocity and thermal velocity
11. Two batteries of different emfs and different internal resistances are
4.A constant voltage is applied between two ends of a metallic wire. If the length is halved and the
connected as shown. The voltage across AB in volts is
radius of the wire is doubled, the rate of heat developed in the wire will be
(a) Increased 8 times (b) Unchanged (c) Doubled (d) Halved (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
5. A heating element has a resistance of 100 Ω at room temperature. When it is connected to a
12. Ten identical cells each of potential E and internal resistance r are connected
supply of 220 V, a steady current of 2 A passes in it and the temperature is 500°C more than room
in seriesto form a closed circuit. An ideal voltmeter connected across 3cells will read
temperature. What is the temperature coefficient of resistance of the heating element?
(a) 10E (b) 13E (c) 3E (d) 5E
(a) 1×10– 4 °C–1 (b) 2 × 10– 4 °C–1 (c) 0.5 × 10– 4 °C–1 (d) 5 × 10– 4 °C–1
13.The resistance of a wire at a temperature t and 0 degree are related as
6. A uniform wire of length l and radius r has a resistance of 100 Ω. It is recast into a wire of radius
(a) R = R0 (1 + BT) (b) R = R0 (1 - BT) (c) R = R0 (1 + B2T) (d) R = R0 (1 - B2T)
r/2.The resistance of new wire will be
(a) 400 Ω (b)100 Ω (c) 200 Ω (d)1600 Ω

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 90 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 91 of 484
14.Temperature dependence of resistivity ρ(T) of semiconductors, insulators and metals is V.S.A(1 MARK)
significantly based on the following factors: Q19. How the internal resistance of a cell changes when area of the anode is decreased?
(a) number of charge carriers can change with temperature T. Q20. Why are alloys used for making standard resistances?
(b) time interval between two successive collisions can depend on T. Q21. Write the dimensional formula of emf of a cell.
(c) length of material can be a function of T.
Q22. Alloys of metal have greater resistivity than that of their constituent metals, why?
(d) mass of carriers is a function of T.
DIRECTIONS:(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct
15.Two batteries of emf ε1 and ε2 (ε2> ε 1) and internal resistances
explanation of the Assertion.
r1 and r2 respectively are connected in parallel as shown
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(a) The equivalent emf εeq of the two cells is between ε1 and ε2, i.e.,
Assertion.
ε1<εeq< ε2
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(b) The equivalent emf εeq is smaller than ε1.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(c) The εeq is given by εeq = ε1 + ε2 always.
Q23.Assertion: The current density J at a point in ohmic resistor is in direction of electric field E
(d) εeq is independent of internal resistances r1 and r2. at that point
16. For a cell, the graph between the potential difference (V) across Reason: A point charge when released from rest in a region having only electrostatic field always
the terminals of the cell and the current (I) drawn from the cell is moves along electric lines of force
shown in the figure DIRECTIONS: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.

The e.m.f and the internal resistance of the cell are (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(a) 2V, 0.5 Ω (b) 2V, 0.4 Ω
(c) > 2V, 0.5 Ω (d) > 2V, 0.4 Ω (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
17. What is the current I for the circuit shown in the figure?
Q24. Assertion: The temperature dependence of resistance is usually given as R=R 0(1+αΔt).
(a) 3A (b) 1A (c) -5A (d) 5A The resistance of wire changes from 100 ohm to 150 ohm when its temperature is increased from
27 degree Celsius to 227 degrees Celsius. This implies that a =2.5 x 10-3 /degree Celsius.
18.Two cells of emf 2E and E with internal resistance r1 and
Reason: R=R0(1+ αΔt) is valid only when the change in temperature is small and δR <<R0
r2 respectively are connected in series to an external
DIRECTIONS: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct
resistor R (see figure). The value of R, at which the explanation of the Assertion.
potential difference across the terminals of the first cell (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
becomes zero is Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(a) r1 – r2 (b) r1 + r2 (d) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(c) (r1/2) + r2 (d) (r1/2) – r

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 92 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 93 of 484
Q 25. Assertion: EMF is potential difference between two terminals of the cells when no current 2 MARK QUESTIONS
is drawn from it. Q29. A current of 2.4 A flows through a wire of cross-sectional area 1.5 mm². Find the current
Reason: It is an effect of terminal potential difference. density in the wire. If the wire contains 8 x 1028 free electrons calculate the drift velocity of
DIRECTIONS: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct electrons per cubic meter, calculate the drift velocity of electrons.
explanation of the Assertion.
Q30. An aluminum wire of diameter 0.24 cm is connected in series to a copper wire of diameter
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
0.16 cm. The wires carry an electric current of 10 A. Find (a) current density of free electrons in
Assertion.
the aluminum wire and (b) drift velocity of electrons in the copper wire. Given that number of
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
densities of free electrons in copper = 8.4 × 1028 m-3.
(d) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
Q31. Given that resistivity of copper is 1.68 x 10-8 Ω m.
Q26. Assertion: The number density of free electrons in metals is very high. Calculate the amount of copper required to draw a wire 10 km long having resistance 10 ohm. The
Reason: Number density of metals increases with increase in temperature hence it is the cause of density of copper is 8.9 x 103 kg m-3.
increase in conductivity of metals with temperature. Q32. Which lamp has greater resistance (i) 60W and (ii) 100W when connected to the same
DIRECTIONS: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct supply? Why?
explanation of the Assertion.
Q33. Nichrome and Cu wires of the same length and same diameter are connected in series in an
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion. electric circuit. In which wire will the heat be produced at a higher rate? Give reason.
Q34. The resistance of the platinum wire of a platinum resistance thermometer at the ice point is
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
5 Ω and at steam point is 5.23 Ω. When the thermometer is inserted in a hot bath, the resistance of
(d) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
the platinum wire is 5.795 Ω. Calculate the temperature of the bath.
Q27. Assertion: Internal resistance of a cell decreases when immersed area of electrons in the
Q35. A rheostat has 100 turns of a wire of radius 0.4 mm having resistivity 4.2 × 10 -7 Ω m. The
electrolyte increases
diameter of each turn is 3 cm. What is the maximum value of resistance it can introduce?
Reason: Internal resistance of a cell in is its characteristic property.
Q36. In the figure, what is the potential difference between A and B?
DIRECTIONS: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. Q37. In the figure, if the potential at point P is 100V, what is the
potential at point Q?
(d) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
Q28. Assertion: Which of Junction rule reveals that at a junction sum of current is zero.
Reason: Kirchhoff’s Junction rule is based upon law of conservation of charge.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 94 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 95 of 484
Q38.A battery of emf 2.0 V and internal resistance 0.1Ω is being charged with a current of 5.0 A. Q45. The amount of charge passing through the cross-section of a wire in time t is given by
What is the potential difference between the terminals of the battery? q=at²+bt+c (a) What are the dimensional formulae of constants a, b and c? (b) If the values of
constants a, b, c are 3, 5 and 2 in SI units, find the value of current at t=3s.
Q39. Two resistance 5Ω and 7Ω are joined as shown to two
Q46. Apply Kirchhoff’s rules to the length PRSP and PRQP to find the
batteries of emf 2V and 3V. If the 3Vbattery is short circuited.
current I1, I2 and I3 in the circuit.
What will be the current through 5Ω?

Q40. Find the value of I in the given circuit:

Q47. A cell of e.m.f. ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘r’ is connected across a variable resistor ‘R’. Plot
a graph showing the variation of terminal potential ‘V’ with resistance ‘R’. Predict from the graph
the condition under which ‘V’ becomes equal to ‘E’. What is significance of this graph?
Q48. Four cells each of internal resistance 0.8Ω and emf 1.4V, are connected (i) in series (ii) in
Q41. Is the momentum conserved when charge crosses a junction in
parallel. The terminals of the battery are joined to the lamp of resistance 10Ω. Find the current
an electric circuit? Why or why not?
through the lamp and each cell in both the cases.

3 MARK QUESTIONS Q49. When resistance of 2Ω is connected across the terminals of a battery, the current is 0.5A.

Q42. (a) Estimate the average drift speed of conduction electrons in a copper wire of cross- When the resistance across the terminal is 5Ω, the current is 0.25A. (i) Determine the emf of the

sectional area 1.0 × 10–7 m2 carrying a current of 1.5 A. Assume that each copper atom contributes battery (ii) What will be current drawn from the cell when it is

roughly one conduction electron. The density of copper is 9.0 × 10 3 kg/m3, and its atomic mass is short circuited.

63.5 u. Q50. In the given circuit, assuming point A to be at zero

(b) Compare the drift speed obtained above with, (i) thermal speeds of copper atoms at ordinary potential, use Kirchhoff’s rules to determine the potential at

temperatures, (ii) speed of propagation of electric field along the conductor which causes the drift point B and value of R.

motion.
Q43. Two wires of equal length, one of aluminium and the other of copper have the same 5 MARK QUESTIONS
resistance. Which of the two wires is lighter? Hence explain why aluminium wires are preferred Q51. (a) The electron drift arises due to the force experienced by electrons in the electric field
for overhead power cables. inside the conductor. But force should cause acceleration. Why then do the electrons acquire a
(ρAl = 2.63 × 10–8 Ω m, ρCu = 1.72 × 10–8 Ω m, Relative density of Al = 2.7, of Cu = 8.9.) steady average drift speed?
Q44. An electric toaster uses nichrome for its heating element. When a negligibly small current (b) If the electron drift speed is so small, and the electron’s charge is small, how can we still obtain
passes through it, its resistance at room temperature (27.0 °C) is found to be 75.3 Ω. When the large amounts of current in a conductor?
toaster is connected to a 230 V supply, the current settles, after a few seconds, to a steady value of (c) When electrons drift in a metal from lower to higher potential, does it mean that all the ‘free’
2.68 A. What is the steady temperature of the nichrome element? The temperature coefficient of electrons of the metal are moving in the same direction?
resistance of nichrome averaged over the temperature range involved, is 1.70 × 10 –4 °C–1.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 96 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 97 of 484
(d) Are the paths of electrons straight lines between successive collisions (with the positive ions Q58. Find the value of unknown resistance X, in the following
of the metal) in the (i) absence of electric field, (ii) presence of electric field? circuit, if no current flows through the section AO. Also calculate
Q52. Two cells of EMF 3V and 4V and internal resistances 1 ohm and 2 ohms respectively are the current drawn by the circuit from the battery of emf 6V and
connected in parallel so as to send current in same direction negligible internal resistance.
through an external resistance of 5 ohm. Draw the circuit
diagram using Kirchhoff’s laws. Calculate the current
through each branch of the circuit and potential difference
across 5-ohm resistance.
Q53. Calculate the potential difference between the junctions ************
B and D in the Whetstone Bridge shown in figure

Q54. Determine the current flowing through the

galvanometer G of Wheatstone Bridge shown in
figure.

Q55. For the circuit given below, find the potential difference
b/w points B and D.
Q56. Calculate Equivalent Resistance of the given electrical
network b/w points A and B. Also calculate the current through
CD& ACB if a 10V dc source is connected b/w points A and B
and the value of R = 2Ω. If battery of V volt is connected find
current in circuit and current through DC.

Q57. P, Q, R and S are four resistance wires of 2,2,2 and 3 ohms

respectively. Find out the resistance with which S must be shunted in order
that bridge may be balanced.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 98 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 99 of 484
 SECTION-C-Answer Key When these combination of bulbs, fans and heater are connected to 220 V mains, current in the

Multiple Choice Questions -solutions main fuse of building is given by

1.(b) I= P/V = 2500/220 = 11.36 A ≈ 12 A
2. (a) Answer: (d) 12 A
3. (a) 8. (b) increase by 0.2%
4.Rate of heat developed, P = V2/R Resistance of wire R = ρl/A……..(1)
For given V, P ∝ 1/R = A/ρl = πr2/ρl On stretching, volume (V) remains constant.
Now, P1/P2 = (r12/r22)(l2/l1) So V = Al or A=V/l
As per question, l2 = l1/2 and r2 = 2r1 Therefore, R = ρl2/V (Using (1))
P1/P2 = (¼) x (½) = ⅛ Taking logarithm on both sides and differentiating we get,
P2 = 8P1 Answer: (a) Increased 8 times ΔR/R = 2Δl/l (Since V and ρ are constants)
5. Resistance after temperature increases by 500°C, (ΔR/R)% = (2Δl/l)%
RT = Voltage applied/Current = 220/2 = 110 Hence, when the wire is stretched by 0.1% its resistance will increase by 0.2%
Also, RT = R0 (1 + αΔT) Answer: (b) increase by 0.2%
110 = 100 (1 + (α x 500)) 9.(c) P2> P1> P3
α = 10/(100 x 500) = 2 x 10-4 0C-1
For R1 = 1 ohm For R2 = 0.5Ω R3 = 2Ω
Answer: (b) 2 × 10– 4 °C–1
As P=V2 / R and V=3 for each so P∝1/R
6. Resistance of a wire of length l and radius r is given by
R = ρl/A = (ρl/A) x(A/A) Thus, P2>P1>P3.
R = (ρV/A2) = (ρV/π2r4) (∵ V = Al) 10. (a) IR=IG
i.e., R ∝ 1/r4 The reading of Galvanometer G is the same with switch S open or closed. This implies that closing or
R1/R2 =(r2/r1)4 opening the switch does not affect the circuit. It means that no current flows through switch S.
Here, R1 = 100 Ω , r1 = r, r2 = r/2 Hence, the given arrangement of resistors is a Balanced Wheatstone bridge. Hence we can remove switch
R2= R1(r1/r2)4 = 16R1 = 1600 Ω S.
Answer: (d) 1600 Ω R and G will be in series. Hence current flows through resistor R is equal to the current flows through the
7. Power of 15 bulbs of 40 W = 15 × 40 = 600 W galvanometer G. ⇒IR=IG. Hence option (a) is correct.
Power of 5 bulbs of 100 W = 5 × 100 = 500 W 11. (b)
Power of 5 fan of 80 W = 5 × 80 = 400 W I = 6-3/3 = 3/3 = 1 A
Power of 1 heater of 1 kW = 1000 VA−6+1−VB=0
Total power, P = 600 + 500 + 400 + 1000 = 2500 W therefore VA−VB = 5
12 (c) 3E

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 100 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 101 of 484
I = 10 E / 10 r = E/ r 24. (d)R=R0(1+ αΔt) is valid only when the change in temperature is small and DR <<R0
Current through three cells I x 3r = 3 E Statement 1 is false and 2 is true
13 (b) R = R0 (1 - BT) 25. (c) statement 1 is true 2 is false
14. (a) number of charge carriers can change with temperature T. 26. (c) statement 1 is true 2 is false
(b) time interval between two successive collisions can depend on T 27. (c) statement 1 is true 2 is false
15. (a) The equivalent emf εeq of the two cells is between ε1 and ε2, i.e., ε1<εeq< ε2 SOL Internal resistance is not characteristic property but depends upon the quantity and

16. (a) 2V, 0.5 Ω concentration of electrolyte and distance between the electrodes
28. (a) Both true 2 is explanation of 1
17. c) -5A
18. (d) (r1/2) – r2 2 MARKS QUESTIONS SOLUTION
Solution 29.Ans. 1.6 × 106 A m2; 1.25 x 104
3𝐸
I= j = I/A = 1.6 x 106 Am-2
𝑅+𝑟1+𝑟2

If potential difference across terminals of first cell is zero vd= j/ne = 1.25 x 10-4 ms-1
𝜋𝐷2
VA = VB 30.a. 𝐴 = = 4.524 x 10-6 m2
4
3𝐸
2 E = i r12𝐸 = 𝑟1 j = I/A = 2.21 x 106 Am-2
𝑅+𝑟1+𝑟2
𝜋𝐷2
b. 𝐴 = = 2.01 x 10-6m2
4
2R + 2r1 + 2r2 = 3r1
vd = I/neA = 3.7 x 104 ms-1
R = (r1/2)- r2
31.Ans. 1495.2 kg
V.S.A
𝑝𝑙
R=
19. When area of the anode is decreased, the internal resistance of the cell increases. Lesser area 𝐴

of the anode decreases its tendency to attract oppositely charged ions From which A = 1.68 x 10-5m2

20. High resistivity and low temperature Coefficient of resistance m = volume x density = A x l x density = 1495.2 kg

21. ML2A−1T−3 32. Ans: Nichrome Wire

22. In an alloy like nichrome (made of nickel and chromium), the free electron finds a disordered P = I2 R

arrangement of nickel ions and chromium ions. Due to it, the electron is scattered by them P α R Heat produced is higher in Nichrome wire.

randomly and very frequently. As a result of it, the value of relaxation time of electron decreases 33. Solution R0 = 5 Ω, R100 = 5.23 Ω and Rt = 5.795 Ω

and hence resistivity increases because ρ∝1/τ.

23.(c)J = σ E
The current density at any point in ohmic resistor is in the direction of electric field at that point in
space having non-uniform electric field. Charges released from rest may not move along electric
line of force hence statement 1 is true while statement 2 is false

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 102 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 103 of 484
 37. Using KVL, ANS = -10 V.

38.

39. 2 / 5 Ampere

34.Ans. 7.875 Ω 40.On applying Kirchhoff’s current law on junction A, at junction A 2 + 3 = I + 4 so,

n = 100 I = + 1A
D = 0.03 m
41. In the circuit when an electron approaches a junction, in addition to the uniform E that faces it
l = 𝑛𝜋𝐷 = 100 x 𝜋 x 0.03m
normally (which keep the drift velocity fixed), as drift velocity (vd) is directly proportional to
𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2
Electric field (E). That’s why there is accumulation of charges on the surface of wires at the
𝑝𝑙
R= = 7.875 Ω
𝐴 junction.
35.vd = (I/neA) Now, e = 1.6 × 10–19 C, A = 1.0 × 10–7m2 , I = 1.5 A. The density of conduction
These produce additional electric fields. These fields alter the direction of momentum. Thus, the
electrons, n is equal to the number of atoms per cubic metre (assuming one conduction electron
motion of a charge across junction is not momentum conserving.
per Cu atom as is reasonable from its valence electron count of one). A
cubic metre of copper has a massof 9.0 × 103 kg. Since 6.0 × 1023 copper atoms have a mass of 3 MARKS QUESTIONS SOLUTION
63.5 g, 42.vd = (I/neA) Now, e = 1.6 × 10–19 C, A = 1.0 × 10–7m2, I = 1.5 A.
which gives The density of conduction electrons, n is equal to the number of atoms per cubic metre (assuming
one conduction electron per Cu atom as is reasonable from its valence electron count of one). A
cubic metre of copper has a mass of 9.0 × 103 kg. Since 6.0 × 1023 copper atoms have a mass of
63.5g,
(b) (i) At a temperature T, the thermal speed* of a copper atom of mass M is obtained from [ < which gives

(mv2/2) >3 kT/2 ] and is thus typically of the order of √𝑘𝑇/𝑀 , where k is the Boltzmann constant.
For copper at 300 K, this is about 2 × 102 m/s. This figure indicates the random vibrational speeds (b) (i) At a temperature T, the thermal speed* of a copper atom of mass M is obtained from [ <
of copper atoms in a conductor. Note that the drift speed of electrons is much smaller, about 10 –5 (mv2/2) >3 kT/2 ] and is thus typically of the order of √𝑘𝑇/𝑀 , where k is the Boltzmann constant.
times the typical thermal speed at ordinary temperatures. (ii) An electric field travelling along the For copper at 300 K, this is about 2 × 102 m/s. This figure indicates the random vibrational speeds
conductor has a speed of an electromagnetic wave, namely equal to 3.0 × 108 m s–1 of copper atoms in a conductor. Note that the drift speed of electrons is much smaller, about 10 –5
The drift speed is, in comparison, extremely small; smaller by a factor of 10–11 times the typical thermal speed at ordinary temperatures. (ii) An electric field travelling along the
conductor has a speed of an electromagnetic wave, namely equal to 3.0 × 108 m s–1
36. Ans. VA – VB = – 8 volt.
The drift speed is, in comparison, extremely small; smaller by a factor of 10–11

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 104 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 105 of 484
43.Length of aluminium = l1 45.Ans.(a) [I T-1], [I] and [I T]
Resistance of aluminium = R (b) 23 A
Resistivity of aluminium, ρAI =ρ1= 2.63×10−8 Ωm Here, q = a t²+bt+c
Relative density of aluminium, d1 =2.7 (a) Dimensions of each factor on R.H.S. of the above relation are that of charge i.e. current
Area of cross-section of the aluminium wire =A1 x time or [IT].
Length of copper = l2 𝑞
[a]= 2 = [IT-1]
𝑡
Resistance of copper = R2 𝑞
[b]= = [I]
Resistivity of copper, ρcu =ρ2=1.72 × 10–8 Ω m 𝑡

Relative density of copper, d2 = 8.9 [c] = [q] = [IT]

Area of cross-section of the copper wire =A2 (b) Here, a = 3, b = 5 and c = 2

Therefore, Now, I = dq/dt = 2at+b

R1=ρ1l1/ A1 and R2=ρ2l2/ A2 I (at t = 3 s) =2x3x3+5= 23 A

ρ1l1/A1=ρ2l2/ A2 46.From Kirchhoff’s I law I3 = I1 + I2 …(i)

Given l1 = l2 A1/A2=ρ1/ρ2 = 1.52 Applying Kirchhoff’s II law to loop PRSP

Mass of aluminium, m1 = Volume x density= A1l1 x d1 - 20I3 -200I2 + 5 = 0
Mass of copper = m2 = Volume x density= A2l2 x d2 => 40I2 + 4I3 = …(ii)
m1/m2 =(A1 d1 / A2d2) Applying Kirchhoff’s II law to loop PRQP
m1/m2 = (1.52) x (2.7/8.9)= (1.52) x (0.303) , m1/m2 = 0.46 - 20I3 - 60I2 + 4 = 0
44.When the current through the element is very small, heating effects can be ignored and the
=> 15I1 + 5I3 = 1
temperature T1 of the element is the same as room temperature. When the toaster is connected to
the supply, its initial current will be slightly higher than its steady value of 2.68 A. But due to
heating effect of the current, the temperature will rise. This will cause an increase in resistance and
a slight decrease in current. In a few seconds, a steady state will be reached when temperature will
𝐸
rise no further, and both the resistance of the element and the current drawn will achieve steady 47. V = I R = V= EMF, when no current is drawn from the
𝑟/𝑅+1
values. The resistance R2 at the steady temperature T2 is cell.
48. Ans. I) SERIES
R2= 230 V /2.68 A = 85.8 Ω
Using the relation R2 = R1 [1 + α (T2 – T1)] with α = 1.70 × 10–4 °C–1, Eeq = E1 + E2 +E3 ——+En = nE

we get T2 – T1 = 820 °C req = r1 + r2 + r3 ——-+rn = nr

that is, T2 = (820 + 27.0) °C = 847 °C Enet = 4 X 1.4 = 5.6 V

Thus, the steady temperature of the heating element (when heating effect due to the req= 4X.8 = 3.2-ohm R =10-ohm Rnet = 13.2 ohm
current equals heat loss to the surroundings) is 847 °C. I = 5.6 /13.2 = Iseries = 0.424A

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 106 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 107 of 484
FOR PARALLEL (d) In the absence of electric field, the paths are straight lines; in the presence of electric field, the
Eeq = E paths are, in general, curved

(1/req) = (1/r1) + (1/r2) + (1/r3) ……..(1/rn) 52.(a)1/17 A, 9/17 A, 8/17 A

Eparallel = 1.4 V (b)2.35 V

req= .8 /4=.2 ohm R =10 ohm Rnet = 10.2 ohm 53. In loop ABCEA

I = 1.4 /10.2 =Iparallel = 0.137A I1+I1=2

current through each cell is 0.03A I1=1A

49. EMF = E R net = r + 2 From loop ADCEA

I = E / r + 2 = 0.5 1.5I2+ I2=2

0.5 X2 + 0.5 r = E …………. 1) I2=0.8A

Similarly VA-VB=1x1=1V

0.25 X5 + 0.25 r = E ………………….2) VA-VD=0.8x1.5=1.2V

Solving VB-VD=1.2-1.0=0.2V

r = 1 ohm, E = 1.5 V 54. From loop ABDA

when short circuited, current = 1.5 5I1+10Ig-(I-I1)15=0

50. In 1st loop Put I=1A

−R+1+2=0 4I1+2Ig=3

⇒R=3Ω For Loop BCDB

In 2nd loop 10(I1-Ig)-20(I-I1+Ig)-10Ig=0

−2R1+2−2=0 ⇒ R1=0 Put I-1A

Now going from point, A to B via C. 3I1-4Ig=2

VA+1−0=VB ⇒ VB=1V On solving

Ig=1/22=0.0454A
5 MARKS QUESTIONS SOLUTION
55.Applying Kirchhoff’s second law to mesh BADB,
51.(a) Each ‘free’ electron does accelerate, increasing its drift speed until it collides with a positive
ion of the metal. It loses its drift speed after collision but starts to accelerate and increases its drift –2(i – i1) + 2 – 1 – 1. (i – i1) + 2i1 = 0

speed again only to suffer a collision again and so on. On the average, therefore, electrons acquire ⇒ 3i – 5i1 = 1 …(i)

only a drift speed. Applying Kirchhoff’s law to mesh DCBD,

(b) Simple, because the electron number density is enormous, ~1029 m–3. –3i + 3 – 1 – 1× i – 2i1 = 0
(c) By no means. The drift velocity is superposed over the large random velocities of electrons.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 108 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 109 of 484
⇒ 4i + 2i1 = 2 Case Based/Passage based integrated questions
Or 2i + i1 = 1 …(ii)
59. When a conductor does not have a current through it, its conduction electrons move randomly,
Multiplying equation (ii) with 5, we get
with no net motion in any direction. When the conductor does have a current through it, these
10i + 5i1 = 5 …(iii) electrons actually still move randomly, but now they tend to drift with a drift speed Vd in the
Adding (i) and (iii), we get direction opposite to the applied electric field that causes current. The drift speed is very small as
13i = 6 ⇒i = 6/13 A compared to the speeds in the random motion. For example, in the copper conductors of household
From (ii), i1 = 1 − 2i = 1 – 12/13 = 1/13 A wiring, electron drift speeds are perhaps 105 m/s to 103 m/s, where as the random speed is around

Potential difference between B and D is 10 ms-¹.

(i) The electron drift speed is estimated to be only a few mm s -1 for currents in the range of a few
VB − VD = i1 × 2 = 2/13 V
amperes? How is current established almost the instant a circuit is closed?
56.RAB= 2 Ohm
(ii) The electron drift arises due to the force experienced by electrons in the electric field inside
ICD = 0
the conductor. But force should cause acceleration. Why do the electrons acquire a steady average
IACB = V/2R= 10/4 = 2.5 A
drift speed?
𝑃 𝑅
57. Using = (iii) If the electron drift speed is so small, and the electron's charge is small, how can we still obtain
𝑄 𝑋

𝑆𝑈 large amounts of current in a conductor?

X=
𝑆+𝑈
(iv) When electrons drift in a metal from lower to higher potential, does it mean that all the 'free'
Put X=2, S=3, Find U = unknown
electrons of the metal are moving in the same direction?
U=3 ohm (v) Are the paths of electrons straight lines between successive collisions (with the positive ions
I = V /3 of the metal) in the (a) absence of electric field, (b) presence of electric field?
58.No current flows through section AO, So Wheatstone Bridge is
balanced
Case Based/Passage based integrated questions-answers
2/4 =3/X
59. (i) As soon as a circuit is closed, everywhere in conductor, electric field is set up (with the
X= 6 ohm
speed of light), and the conduction of electron at every point experience a drift.
RBAC = 6 Ohm
(ii) Each conduction electron does accelerate, and gain speed until it collides with a positive ion
RBOC = 9 ohm
of a conductor, thereby losing its drift speed after collision again it gains kinetic energy but suffers
6∗9
R= = 3.6 a collision again and so on. Therefore, on the average, electron acquire only a drift speed.
6+9

Total resistance = 3.6+2.4= 6 (iii) As number of the density of electrons (≈ 10 29 m-3) is very large, therefore current flowing is

I=6/6=1A large.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 110 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 111 of 484
(iv) No. When electric field is applied, the net drift of the electrons is from lower to higher (A) Mica (B) Ceramic (C) Mica, ceramic, Nichrome (D) Mica,
potential. But locally electrons collide with ions and may change its direction during the course of ceramic
their motion.
(v) Yes. In the (a) absence of electric field, the paths are straight lines. Case Based/Passage based integrated questions-answers
60.
Reason: As electrons were not acted upon by any kind of forces. 1.Ans. Option (B) is correct.
(b) No. In the presence of electric field paths were curved. Reason: As direction of random Explanation: The heating element is made of nichrome 80/20 (80% nickel, 20% chromium).
velocities and acceleration are not always same. 2.Ans. Option (B) is correct.
Case-Based MCQ Explanation: Nichrome 80/20 means an alloy of 80% nickel, 20% chromium.
3.Ans. Option (D) is correct.
60. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:
Explanation: Electricity consumption is measured by kWH. So, 1200W toaster will consume more
Electric Toaster: Small Industries Service Institute Takyelpat Industrial Estate Imphal has designed electricity
an Electric toaster which is operated at 220 volts A.C., single phase and available in four different 4.Ans. Option (A) is correct.
rated capacity such as 600 W, 750 W, 1000 W and 1250 W. The heating element is made of Explanation: The designed electric toaster is IN operated at 220 volts A.C., single phase.
nichrome 80/20 (80% nickel, 20% chromium), since Nichrome does not get oxidize readily at high 5.Ans. Option (D) is correct.
temperature and have higher resistivity, so it produces more heat. Explanation: The element is wound separately on Mica sheets and fitted with body of toaster with
The element is wound separately on Mica sheets and fitted with body of toaster with the help of the help of ceramic terminals.
ceramic terminals.
Case-Based MCQ
Q. 1. Heating element of the toaster is made of:
(A) copper (B) nichrome (C) chromium (D) nickel 61.Whenever an electric current is passed through a conductor, it becomes hot after some time.

Q. 2. What is meant by 80/20 Nichrome? The phenomenon of the production of heat in a resistor by the flow of an electric current through

(A) 80% Chromium and 20% Nickel it is called heating effect of current or Joule heating. Thus, the electrical energy supplied by the

(B) 80% Nickel and 20% Chromium source of emf is converted into heat. In purely resistive circuit, the energy expended by the source

(C) Purity 80%, Impurity 20% entirely appears as heat. But if the circuit has an active element like a motor, then a part of energy

(D) It is a mixture of Chromium and Nickel supplied by the source goes to do useful work and the rest appears as heat. Joule’s law of heating

Q.3. Which one will consume more electricity? forms the basis of various electrical appliances such as electric bulb, electric furnace, electric press

(A) 600 W (B) 1000 W (C) 750 W (D) 1200 W etc.

Q.4. Operating voltage of the device is: (A) 220 V AC, single phase (i) Which of the following is correct statement?

(A) 220 V AC, single phase (B) 220 V AC, three phase (C) 220 V DC (D) 220 V (a) Heat produced in a conductor is independent of the current flowing.

AC/DC (b) Heat produced in a conductor varies inversely as the current flowing.

Q. 5. Insulating materials used in the device are: (c) Heat produced in a conductor varies directly as the square of the current flowing.
(d) Heat produced in a conductor varies inversely as the square of the current flowing.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 112 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 113 of 484
(ii) If the coil of a heater is cut to half, what would happen to heat produced? difference and its value is always less than the emf of the cell in a closed circuit. It can be written
(a) Doubled (b) Halved (c) Remains same (d) Becomes four times. as V = E - Ir.
(iii) A 25 W and 100 W are joined in series and connected to the mains. Which bulb will glow
(i) The terminal potential difference of two electrodes of a cell is equal to emf of the cell when
brighter?
(a) 100 W (b) 25 W (c) Both bulbs will glow brighter (d) None will glow brighter a) during charging b) during discharging c) both a and b d) I= 0

(iv) A rigid container with thermally insulated wall contains a coil of resistance 100 Ω, carrying (ii) A cell of emf ε and internal resistance r gives a current of 0.5 A with an external resistance
1A. Change in its internal energy after 5 min will be of 12Ω and a current of 0.25 A with an external resistance of 25Ω. internal resistance of the cell
(a) 0 KJ (b) 10 KJ (c)20 KJ (d) 30 KJ and emf of the cell are
(v) The heat emitted by a bulb of 100 W in 1 min is
a)1Ω, 6.5 V b) 5Ω, 6.5 V c) 1Ω, 7.5 V d) 5Ω, 7.5 V
(a) 100 J (b) 1000 J (c) 600 J (d) 6000 J
(iii) Choose the wrong statement.

Case Based/Passage based integrated questions-answers

(a) Potential difference across the terminals of a cell in a closed circuit is always less than its
emf.
61. (i) (c) Heat produced in a conductor varies directly as the square of the current flowing
(ii) (a) Doubled (b) Internal resistance of a cell decreases with the decrease in temperature of the electrolyte.
(iii)(a) 100 W
(iv)(d) 30 kJ (c) Potential difference versus current graph for a cell is a straight line with a -ve slope
(v) (d) 6000 J
(d) Terminal potential difference of the cell when it is being charged is given as V = E + Ir.
Case Based/Passage based integrated questions (iv) An external resistance R is connected to a cell of internal resistance r, the maximum current

62.Emf of a cell is the maximum potential difference between two electrodes of the cell when no flows in the external resistance, when

current is drawn from the cell. Internal resistance is the resistance offered by the electrolyte of a (a) R = r (b) R < r (c) R> r (d) R=0
cell when the electric current flows through it. The internal resistance of a cell depends upon the
(v) IF external resistance connected to a cell has been increased to 5 times, the potential difference
following factors;
across the terminals of the cell increases from 10 V to 30 V. Then, the emf of the cell is
(i) distance between the electrodes
(ii) nature and temperature of the electrolyte (a) 30 V (b) 60V (c) 50 V (d) 40 V
(iii) nature of electrodes
SOLUTIONS:
(iv) area of electrodes.
62 (i) d) I= 0
For a freshly prepared cell, the value of internal resistance is (ii) a)1Ω, 6.5 V
generally low and goes on increasing as the cell is put to more and more use. The potential (iii) (b) Internal resistance of a cell decreases with the decrease in temperature of the electrolyte.
difference between the two electrodes of a cell in a closed circuit is called terminal potential
(iv) (d) R=0

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 114 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 115 of 484
(v) (b) 60V a) Energy b) Charge c) Current d) Momentum
63. KIRCHHOFF’S RULES 4. Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law is applied over
Electric circuits generally consist of a number of resistors and cells interconnected sometimes in a) Closed Circuit loop b) At a circuit node
a complicated way. The formulae we have derived earlier for series and parallel combinations of c) Acrossbattery d) None of the above
resistors are not always sufficient to determine all the currents and potential differences in the 5. Find the current I3 when I1=2A, I2=9A, I4=4A
circuit. Two rules, called Kirchhoff’s rules, are very useful for analysis of electric circuits. Given
a circuit, we start by labelling currents in each resistor by a symbol, say I, and a directed arrow to
SOLUTIONS:
indicate that a current I flows along the resistor in the direction indicated. If ultimately, I is
1.a) Charge
determined to be positive, the actual current in the resistor is in the direction of the arrow. If I turn
2. b) Σ I =0
out to be negative, the current actually flows in a direction opposite to the arrow. Similarly, for
each source (i.e., cell or some other source of electrical power) the positive and negative electrodes 3. a) Energy

are labelled, as well as, a directed arrow with a symbol for the current flowing through the cell. 4. a) Closed Circuit loop
5. 15A

Case Based/Passage based integrated questions

Q64. As an application of Kirchhoff’s rules consider the circuit shown, which is called the
Wheatstone bridge. The bridge has four resistors R1, R2, R3 and R4. Across one pair of diagonally
opposite points (A and C in the figure) a source is connected. This (i.e., AC) is called the battery
arm. Between the other two vertices, B and D, a galvanometer G (which is a device to detect
currents) is connected. This line, shown as BD in the figure, is called the galvanometer arm. For
simplicity, we assume that the cell has no internal resistance. In general, there will be currents
The directed sum of the potential differences (voltages) around any closed loop is zero.
flowing across all the resistors as well as a current I
1.Kirchoff 1STLaw is conservation of
g through G. Of special interest, is the case of a
a) Charge b) Energy c) Potential d) Momentum
balanced bridge where the resistors are such that I g
2.Kirchchoff junction rule can be written as
= 0. We can easily get the balance condition, such
a) Σ V=0 b) Σ I =0 c) Σ R = 0 d) Σ q = 0 that there is no current through G.
3. Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law is the conservation of

1.What is the principle of the Wheatstone bridge?

2.Name the instrument that is used as a null detector in the Wheatstone bridge.
3.Which among the following is a false statement?
a) A galvanometer is used as the null detector in a Wheatstone bridge

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 116 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 117 of 484
b) A galvanometer is an ammeter with low resistance in series Chapter 4
c) Wheatstone bridge is susceptible to high dc current MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
d) Due to the errors introduced in contact resistance, a Wheatstone bridge cannot be used for
SECTION A
accurate measurement
4.PR = QS is the equation of a balanced Wheatstone bridge. Is it true or false? MCQ
a) True b) False 1. An electron having energy 10eV is circulating in path having magnetic field 1.0 × 10−4 Tesla,

5. The equivalent resistance across AB is : the speed of the electron will be

(a) 1.9 × 106 𝑚/𝑠 (b) 3.8 × 106 𝑚/𝑠 (c) 1.9 × 1012 𝑚/𝑠 (d) 3.8 × 1012 𝑚/𝑠
2. A proton passing from a fixed place with constant velocity. If E and B are electric and magnetic
a)1 Ω
field respectively, then which statement is true?
b)2 Ω
(a) 𝐸 ≠ 0, 𝐵 = 0 (b) 𝐵 ≠ 0, 𝐸 = 0 (c) 𝐸 ≠ 0, 𝐵 ≠ 0 (d) None of the above
c)3 Ω
3. A solenoid of 1.5 metre length and 4.0 cm diameter possesses 10 turns per cm. A current 5 amp
d)4 Ω
is flowing through it. The magnetic field the axis inside the solenoid is

(a) 2𝜋 × 10−3 𝑇 (b) 2𝜋 × 106 𝑇 (c) 4𝜋 × 10−3 𝑇 (d) 2𝜋 × 103 𝑇

SOLUTIONS: 4. A particle having charge 100 times that of a electron is revolving in a circular path of radius 0.8
3. c) Wheatstone bridge is susceptible to high dc current m with one rotation per second. The magnetic field produced at the centre is
4. b) False
(a) 10 −7  0 (b) 10 −17  0 (c) 10 −6 0 (d) 10 −15  0
5. a)1 Ω
5. Biot-Savart law indicates that the moving electrons (velocity v) produce a magnetic field B
Here CDEF will represent a balanced Wheatstone bridge. As the each arm resistance is equal to
such that
2Ω so equivalent resistance for bridge is Req=2Ω. Thus, we can remove the conducting wire GH
(a) B ⊥ v.
and the corresponding circuit is as shown in figure.
(b) B || v.
Equivalent resistance between A and B is RAB=2∣∣2=2/2=1Ω (c) it obeys inverse cube law.
(d) it is along the line joining the electron and point of observation.
6. The coil of a moving coil galvanometer is wound over a metal frame in order to
(a)Reduce hysteresis
(b)Increase the sensitivity
(c)Increase moment of inertia
(d) Provide electromagnetic damping
**********

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 118 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 119 of 484
7. Two wires of same length are shaped into a square of side ‘a’ and circle of radius ‘r’. If they 18. A coil of area A carrying a steady current I has a magnetic moment 𝑚
⃗⃗⃗⃗ associated with it. Write
carry same current, the ratio of the magnetic moment is the relation between 𝑚
⃗⃗⃗⃗ , I and A in vector form. (Comptt 2016)
(a)2: π (b) π: 2 (c) π: 4 (d) 4: π
2-MARK QUESTIONS
8. Three infinitely long parallel straight current carrying wires A, B and C are
19. A current carrying loop is free to turn in a uniform magnetic field B. Under what conditions,
kept equal distance from each other as shown in the figure given. The
will the torque acting on it be (i) minimum and (ii) maximum?
wire C experiences net force F. The net force on wire C, when the current
20. A current carrying loop is free to turn in a uniform magnetic field B. Under what conditions,
in wire A is reversed will be
𝐹 will the torque acting on it be (i) minimum and (ii) maximum?
(a)Zero (b) (c) F (d) 2F 21. A steady current (I1) flows through a long straight wire. Another wire carrying steady current
2
(I2) in the same direction is kept close and parallel to the first wire. Show with the help of a
9. The nature of parallel and anti-parallel currents are
a. Parallel current repels and anti-parallel current attract diagram how the magnetic field due to current (I1) exerts a magnetic force on the second wire.
b. Parallel current attracts and anti-parallel current repel Write expression for this force. (All India 2013)
c. Both current attract
22. A moving coil galvanometer, whose coil resistance is 100 Ω, shows full scale deflection when
d. Both current repel.
1mV is put across it. How can it be converted into a voltmeter of range (0-1V)?
10. Intensity of magnetic field due to the bar magnet at a point inside a hollow steel-box is 23. How do convert a galvanometer into an ammeter? Why is an ammeter always connected in
a. Less than outside b. Same as outside c. More than outside d. Zero
series? (AI 2005)
1 MARK QUESTIONS 24. What is the behaviour of magnetic field lines due to diamagnetic material?
11. Write the expression, in a vector form, for the Lorentz magnetic force due to a charge moving
3-MARKS QUESTIONS
with velocity in a magnetic field . What is the direction of the magnetic force?
12. What is figure of merit of a galvanometer? 25. A long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a current of 50 A in north to south direction.
13. In a certain arrangement, a proton does not get deflected while passing through a magnetic field Give the magnitude and direction of B at a point 2.5 m east of the wire.
region. State the condition under which it is possible. 26. Write the expression for Lorentz magnetic force on the particle of charge q moving with velocity
14. Using the concept of force between two infinitely long parallel current carrying conductors, v in a magnetic field B. Show that no work is done by this force on the charged particle.
define one ampere of current. (All India 2014) 27. Derive the expression for the torque τ acting on a rectangular current loop of area A placed in a

15. Write the expression, in a vector form, for the Lorentz magnetic force ⃗⃗⃗
𝐹 due to a charge moving uniform magnetic field B. Show that 𝜏⃗⃗ = 𝑚 ⃗⃗⃗ where 𝑚
⃗⃗ X 𝐵 ⃗⃗ is the magnetic moment of the

⃗⃗⃗ in a magnetic field ⃗⃗⃗

with a velocity 𝑣 𝐵 . What is the direction of the magnetic force? (CBSE current loop given by 𝑚 ⃗⃗⃗ .
⃗⃗ =I 𝐴
2014) 28. Describe the working principle of a moving coil galvanometer. Why is it necessary to use (i) a
16. Why should be the spring/suspension wire in a moving coil galvanometer have low torsional radial magnetic field and (ii) a cylindrical soft iron core in a galvanometer? Write the expression
constant? (All India 2008) for current sensitivity of the galvanometer. Can a galvanometer as such be used for measuring
17. What is the underlying principle of a moving coil galvanometer? (CBSE 2019) the current? Explain.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 120 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 121 of 484
 5-MARKS QUESTIONS 36.Assertion Two parallel conducting wires carrying currents in same direction, come close to
each other.
29. (i)Explain using a labelled diagram the principle and working of a moving coil galvanometer.
Reason Parallel currents attract and anti-parallel currents repel.
What is the function of (a) uniform radial magnetic field (b) soft iron core?
37.Assertion A galvanometer cannot as such be used as an ammeter to measure the current across
(ii)Define the terms (a) Current sensitivity (b) Voltage sensitivity
a given section of the circuit.
(iii)Explain why does increasing the current sensitivity not necessarily increases the voltage
Reason For this it must be connected in series with the circuit.
sensitivity
38.Assertion Magnetic lines of force form continuous closed loops whereas electric lines of force

Assertion-Reason do not.
Reason Magnetic poles always occur in pairs as north pole and south pole.
Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) are as given 39.Assertion An electron moving along the direction of magnetic field experiences no force.
below Reason The force on electron moving along the direction of magnetic field is F = qVB sin 0° =
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. qVB
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 40. Assertion Iron is not a magnet.
(c) A is true but R is false. Reason Iron is diamagnetic substance
(d) A is false and R is also false.
30. Assertion Difference between an electric line and magnetic line of force is that electric lines
Case study based question
of force are discontinuous and the magnetic field lines are continuous. 41. Force on a moving charge
Reason Electric lines of forces do not exist inside a charged conductor but magnetic lines exist Stationary charge creates an electric field but a moving charge creates a magnetic field also
inside a magnet. that can affect other moving charges. It was observed by Oersted. He saw that if a magnetic
31.Assertion A current carrying solenoid behaves like a bar magnet. needle is placed near current carrying wire it shows slight deflection. The direction of the
Reason The circular loop in which the direction of current is clockwise behaves like the South magnetic field can be determined by using the right hand thumb rule. Magnetic field is the space
Pole and the one having anticlockwise current behaves like the North Pole. around a magnet, a current carrying conductor up to which it can attract or repel magnetic
32.Assertion Permanent magnets retain their ferromagnetic property for a long period of time. material. Force on a moving charge in magnetic field is given by the formula
Reason Steel is a diamagnetic material. ⃗)
𝐹 = q (𝑣 X𝐵
33.Assertion When a bar magnet is hung freely it points toward geographical poles. Where q = charge on particle
Reason Magnetic field lines do not intersect. v = velocity of charge particle
34.Assertion A diamagnetic specimen would move towards the weaker region of the field. B = magnetic field and
Reason A diamagnetic specimen is repelled by a magnet. F = magnetic force
35.Assertion Motion of electron around a positively charged nucleus is different from the motion When a current carrying conductor is placed in an external magnetic field, it experiences
of a planet around the sun. a mechanical force. A conductor of length 1 carrying current I held in a magnetic field B at an
Reason The force acting in both the cases is same in nature. angle θ with it, experiences a force given by F = I l B sin θ.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 122 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 123 of 484
 1. Moving charge can create ANSWER KEY
(a) Electric field (b) magnetic field
SECTION A
(c) Both electric and magnetic field (d) none of them
2. If a current is flowing from south to north in a straight wire what will be the direction of MCQ TYPE (1MARK EACH)
magnetic field to its left side 6
1.(a) 1.9 × 10 𝑚/𝑠
(a) Outward (b) inward
2.(c ) 𝐸 ≠ 0, 𝐵 ≠ 0
(c) Towards right (d) towards left
3. (a) 2𝜋 × 10−3 𝑇
3. Which of the following cannot be the source of magnetic field?
(a) Current carrying wire (b) moving electron 4. ( b) 10 −17  0
(c) Moving proton (d) stationary charge
5. (a) B ⊥ v
4. Force acting on a conductor of length 10 m carrying a current of 6A kept perpendicular to
6. (d) Provide electromagnetic damping.
the magnetic field of 2T is
7. (c ) π: 4
(a) 60N (b) 120N (c) 90N (d) 100N
5. A straight wire is of mass 100 g and length 1.0 m carrying a current of 5A. It is suspended 8. (a) Zero

in a uniform horizontal magnetic field B. The magnitude of B is (assume that g = 9.8ms") 9. (b) Parallel current attracts and anti-parallel current repel

(a) 0.196T (b) 0.46T (c) 0.15T (d) 3.26T 10. d) Intensity of magnetic field inside a steel box is zero. No magnetic lines of force pass
through the box.
1 MARK
11. 𝐹 = 𝑞(𝑣 𝑥𝐵 ⃗ ). The direction of force is perpendicular to both v and B.
***********
12. It is defined as the current which produces a deflection of one scale division in the galvanometer
13. v is parallel or antiparallel to B
14. Using F/l = µ0 I1I2 /2πr. One Ampere is the current which when flowing through two infinitely
long, straight parallel conductors of negligible cross section held 1m apart in vacuum develop force
of 2 x 10-7 N/m of the conductors
⃗ ), The force acts in a direction given by the thumb of the right hand with fingers
⃗⃗⃗ X 𝐵
15.F= q (𝑣
⃗.
circling from 𝑣 to 𝐵
16. Low torsional constant is basically required to increase the current sensitivity in an MCG.
17. A current carrying coil, in the presence of magnetic field experiences a torque which produces
proportionate deflection. Deflection α Torque
18. Magnetic Moment 𝑚
⃗⃗ = I 𝐴
2-MARKS

19. Minimum potential energy = – MB when θ = 0 (most stable position)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 124 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 125 of 484
 Maximum potential energy = MB when θ = 180° (most unstable position) 3-MARKS
20. loop will come to equilibrium when torque is zero
26. Current, I=50A, Distance, r = 2.5 m, Magnetic field, B = 2πrμoI, B = 4.0×10−6 T
So, τ = 0 = M×B
According to Maxwell’s right hand, the direction of field is upward.
=MBsinθ
27. Lorentz magnetic force F = q (V x B). As the magnetic force F acts in the direction perpendicular
=NiABsinθ
to the direction of velocity V or the direction of motion of the charge particle, so the work done is
So, angle between area vector and field is zero than only θ is 0 so that sinθ = 0.
zero. So, W = F.ds = Fds cosɵ = f ds cos90 = 0
So, for area vector along field direction plane is perpendicular to the field.
28. Torque on a rectangular current loop in a uniform magnetic field
21.
Let the given wires PQ and RS separated by a distance ‘r’. As the Let I= current through the coil

wires carry current, they produce magnetic field around them. The a, b = sides of the rectangular loop ,PQ = b & QR= a
wire Produces magnetic field of intensity B at P on RS, which is
A=ab = area of the loop
equal to µo I1 / 2πr The wire RS carrying current I 2 and placed in a
n= number of turns in the loop
Magnetic field of P Q Experiences a force given by
B= magnetic field
F = B I2 l = (µo I1 I2 / 2πr). l Similarly, RS
Θ= angle between magnetic field
also exert an equal and opposite force (attractive for like parallel
currents) on the wire PQ, which is equal to B and area vector A
Force exerted on the arm PQ inward
F = B I1 l = (µo I1 I2 / 2πr). l N/m
F1 = I b B [F = ILB]
22. Ig = V/G = 1X 10 -3//100 = 10 -5 A
Force exerted on the arm RS outward
V = Ig G + Ig R,
F3 = I b B F1 = F3
= 10 -5 (100 + R)
Therefore, two equal and opposite forces form a couple which exerts a torque.
R = 100000- 100 = 99900 ohms.
Therefore, Magnitude of the torque on the loop is,
23. We know that an ammeter has very low resistance. Thus, in order to convert a galvanometer
τ = F1 x (a/2) sin θ + F3 (a/2) sin θ
into an ammeter, a very low shunt resistance must be connected in parallel to galvanometer
= (F1 + F3). (a/2) sin θ
resistance RG so that the overall resistance of the circuit becomes very small. Thus, a galvanometer
= (IbB + IbB). (a/2) sin θ
can be converted into an ammeter by adding a low shunt resistance in parallel to the galvanometer.
 τ = 2IbB (a/2) sin θ
It is connected in series so that whole of electric current, which it has to measure, passes through it.
 = IabB sin
24. A diamagnetic material tends to move from stronger to weaker regions of the magnetic field
= IAB sinθ
and hence, decrease the number of lines of magnetic field passing through it. Relative permeability
magnetic moment of the current loop is
is 1.
M= IA
25.
τ = MB sinθ = τ = M x B

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 126 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 127 of 484
 If loop has n turns then M= nIA NIBA = kΦ
τ = nIAB sinθ Φ = (NBAI/k)
when θ = 90 then τmax = nIAB
0 ∴ΦαI

when θ=00 then τ = 0. (b) Soft Iron core can make the electromechanical field radial which in turn would increase the
29. (i) It keeps the magnetic field line normal to the area vector of the coil magnetic field.
(ii) The cylindrical soft iron core, when placed inside the coil of a galvanometer, makes the
(ii) Definition for the terms :
magnetic field stronger and radial in the space between it and pole pieces, such that whatever
the position of the rotation of the coil maybe, the magnetic field is always parallel to its plane. (a) Current Sensitivity- It is deflection produced per unit current flowing across the
galvanometer
Current sensitivity is defined as the deflection produced by the galvanometer when unit
. Is=θ/I=NBA/K
current is passed through its coil.
(b) Voltage Sensitivity- It is the minimum change in voltage which produces change in the
Is = φ/I = NBA/k radian/ampere or division A-1. output of the galvanometer.
No, the galvanometer cannot be used to measure current. it can only detect current but cannot Vs=θ/V=θ/IR=NBA/KR
measure as it is not calibrated. The galvanometer coil is likely to be damaged by currents in the (iii) Since Voltage sensitivity decreases with the increase in resistance of the coil and the effect
(mA/A) range. of an increase in the number of turns is hence nullified in case of voltage sensitivity so there is
5-MARKS no change of voltage sensitivity, whenever there is a change in current sensitivity.
30. (i)A galvanometer is an electromechanical instrument used for the detection of electric currents
flowing through electrical circuits. It is a very sensitive instrument which cannot be used for the
Assertion-Reason
30.(a) Since no electric lines of forces exist inside a charged body, the electric lines of force
measurement of large currents. It works on the principle of conversion of electrical energy into
only travel from positive to negative charge and are discontinuous. Secondly, magnetic lines of
mechanical energy while a current is flowing in a magnetic field as it experiences a magnetic torque
force travel from north to south pole and inside the magnet they are from south pole to north
and hence rotates through an angle proportional to the current flowing through it.
pole hence continuous.
Let I = the current flowing through coil, 31.(a) A solenoid is a type of electromagnet formed by a helical coil of wire whose length is
B = magnetic field parallel to the coil, and substantially greater than its diameter, its two ends can be visualised as two coils.
A = area of the coil. 32.(c) Permanent magnets retain their ferromagnetic property for a long period of
Deflection acting on the coil is time and steel is a paramagnetic material.
τ = NIBA sin 90∘ = NIBA [∵ sin 90∘=1] 33.(b) It is the property of a magnet to rest in a geographical north and south pole and another
property of magnetic field is that magnetic field lines do not intersect.
(a) By making a uniform radial magnetic field through a
34.(a) In the case of diamagnetic substances, the magnetic moments of atoms and the orbital
coil, the magnetic field lines become perpendicular to the
magnetic moments have been oriented in such a manner that the vector sum of an atom’s
magnetic moment of a galvanometer.
magnetic moment becomes zero. An external magnetic field can repel them weakly.
τ = kΦ

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 128 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 129 of 484
 35.(d) Neil Bohr proposed a model, which is familiar as a planetary model of atoms. In Bohr’s 4.(b) F=ilB Sinɵ = 6x10x2xSin 90° = 120N
model, the neutrons and protons occupy a dense central region called the nucleus, and electrons 5.(a) mg = ilB Sinɵ
orbit the nucleus much like planets orbiting the sun. Electrons are negatively charged and the 100x102 x 9.8 = 5x1xBx Sin 90° B = 0.196T
nucleus is positively charged. Force in the former case is electrostatic force but in later case it
**********
is gravitational force.
36.(a) By using the right hand thumb rule, the direction of the magnetic field can be determined
then by using Fleming's right hand rule the direction of force comes towards each other.
37.(d) As the galvanometer is used to check the current flow direction and the magnitude of the
direct current. That’s why the resistance of the galvanometer is nearly zero. This is somewhere
similar to ammeter but both are different devices. Ammeter can only show us the current
magnitude not the direction. A Galvanometer's needle can fluctuate in two directions whereas
an ammeter's needle can only show one side deflection.
38.(b) Electric lines of forces do not exist inside a charged body, the magnetic lines of force
travel from north to south pole and inside the magnet they are from south pole to north pole
hence continuous.
39.(a) If the particle is moving along the direction of magnetic field, then ɵ = 0° hence force
becomes zero.
40. c) Assertion is true reason is false. Iron is a ferromagnetic material.
Case study based question
41.
1.(c) stationary charge creates electric field but moving charge creates both electric and
magnetic field.
2.(a)

The direction of thumb is from south to north, using right hand thumb rule, if we curl our
fingers on the left side, it shows the outward direction.
3.(d) Magnetic field is created around moving charge, a stationary charge cannot create
magnetic field.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 130 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 131 of 484
 SECTION B (a)Area of loop (b) Value of current (c) Magnetic field (d) None of these
Q8. What is the magnitude of magnetic force per unit length on a wire carrying a current of 4
MCQ
amperes and making an angle of 30º with the direction of magnetic field of 2T?

Q1. Two parallel conductors carrying ‘i’ current in the same direction what will be the force (a)2 N/m (b) 3 N /m (c) 4 N/m (d) 5 N/m
being experienced by each conductor (r = distance between the conductors)
Q9. We can convert moving coil galvanometer into voltmeter by:
𝜇0 2𝑖 𝜇0 𝑖
(a)Repulsion and (b) Repulsion and (a)Introducing resistance of large value in parallel.
4𝜋𝑟 4𝜋2𝑟

𝜇0 𝑖 2 𝜇0 𝑖
(b)Introducing resistance of small value in series
(c) Attraction and (d) Attraction and
2𝜋𝑟 4𝜋2𝑟 (c)Introducing resistance of large value in series.
Q2. The magnetic field at a point midway between two parallel long wires carrying currents (d)Introducing resistance of small value in parallel
in the same direction is 10𝜇𝑇. If the direction of the smallest current among them is reversed,
the field becomes 30𝜇𝑇. The ratio of the larger to the smaller current in them is 1 MARK QUESTIONS

(a) 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 3 : 2 Q10. In a certain region of space, electric field E " and magnetic field B " are perpendicular to

Q3. An electric current is flowing through a circular coil of radius R. The ratio of the magnetic each other. An electron enters in the region perpendicular to the directions of both B E and " "
and moves undeflected. Find the velocity of the electron.
field at the centre of the coil and that at a distance 2√2𝑅 from the centre of the coil and on its
Q11. Two identical charged particles moving with same speed enter a region of uniform
axis is
magnetic field. If one of these enters normal to the field direction and the other enters along a
(a) 2√2 (b) 27 (c) 36 (d) 8 direction at 30º with the field. What would be the ratio of their angular frequencies?
Q4. A square coil of side a carries a current 𝑙. The magnetic field at the centre of the coil is Q12. An α particle and a proton are moving in the plane of the paper in a region where there is

𝜇0 𝑙 √2𝜇0 𝑙 𝜇0 𝑙 ⃗⃗⃗ directed normal to the plane of the paper. If the two particle have
a uniform magnetic field 𝐵
(a) (b) (c) (d)
𝑎𝜋 𝑎𝜋 √2𝑎𝜋
2√2𝜇0 𝑙
equal linear momenta, what will be the ratio of the radii of their trajectories in the field?
𝑎𝜋 Q13. A beam of protons projected along +x-axis experiences a force due to a magnetic field
Q5. A current loop in a magnetic field along –y-axis. What is the direction of the magnetic field?
(a) Can be in equilibrium in one orientation
2 MARKS QUESTIONS
(b) Can be in equilibrium in two orientations, both the equilibrium states are unstable
Q14. Can we decrease the range of an ammeter?
(c) Can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable while the other is unstable
Q15. An electron and proton, moving parallel to each other in the same direction with equal
(d) Experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or non – uniform in all orientations
momenta, enter into a uniform magnetic field which is at right angle to their velocities. Trace
Q6. Force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is
the trajectories in the magnetic field.
(a) BIL tan ϴ (b) BI / Lsin ϴ (c) BILsin ϴ (d) BILcos ϴ
Q7. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field. The torque acting on it does
not depend upon

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 132 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 133 of 484
 Q16.An ammeter of resistance 0.6 Ω can measure current up to 1.0 A. Calculate (i) The shunt Q20. Assertion The poles of magnet cannot be separated by breaking into two pieces.
resistance required to enable the ammeter to measure current up to 5.0 A (ii) The combined Reason The magnetic dipole moment will be reduced to half when broken into two equal pieces.
resistance of the ammeter and the shunt. (Delhi 2013) Q21. Assertion When a bar magnet is kept in an external uniform magnetic field, it starts
Q17. A square loop of side 20 cm carrying current oscillating.
of 1 A is kept near an infinite long straight wire Reason A restoring torque acts on the dipole when kept in the magnetic field.
carrying current of 2A in the same plane as shown Q22. Assertion Two parallel wires carrying currents in the opposite direction, attract each other.
in the figure. Calculate the magnitude and Reason Parallel currents repel and antiparallel currents attract.
direction of the net force exerted on the loop due Q23. Assertion Gauss's theorem is not applicable in magnetism.
to the current carrying conductor. Reason Magnetic monopoles do not exist.
Q24. Assertion Magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid is independent of its
3-MARKS QUESTIONS
length and cross-sectional area.
Q18. (a) Write the expression for the magnetic
Reason There is a uniform magnetic field inside the solenoid.
force acting on a charged particle moving with velocity v in the presence of magnetic field B.
Q25. Assertion If a charged particle is projected in a region, where B is perpendicular to
(b)A neutron, an electron and an alpha particle moving with equal velocities, enter a uniform
velocity of projection, then the net force acting on the particle is independent of its mass.
magnetic field going into the plane of the paper as shown. Trace their paths in the field and
Reason The particle is performing rectilinear motion.
justify your answer.
Q26. Assertion When a charged particle moves in a region of magnetic field such that its
5-MARKS QUESTIONS velocity is at some acute angle with the direction of field, its trajectory is a helix.

Q19. A rectangular loop of wire as shown in the Reason Perpendicular component of velocity causes a rotating centripetal force and the parallel

figure of size 4cm x 10cm carries a steady current of component of velocity does not produce any force.

2A A straight long wire carrying 5A current is kept Q27. Assertion For a current carrying wire loop of N turns, placed in a region of a uniform

near the loop as shown fig. If the loop and the wire magnetic field B, the torque acting on it is given by m x B.

are coplanar find (a) Write an expression for Reason Whenever the magnetic moment m is perpendicular to B, then torque on the loop will
be zero.
torque. (b)The torque acting on the loop and (c) the Q28. Assertion The current sensitivity of a galvanometer is the deflection of current per unit
magnitude and direction of the loop due to the current carrying wire current passing through the coil.

Assertion-Reason Reason The galvanometer can be used as a detector to check if a current is flowing in the circuit.
Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) are as given Q29. Assertion Magnetic field lines always form closed loops.
below Reason Moving charges or currents produce a magnetic field.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 134 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 135 of 484
 Case study based question
Q30. Magnetic moment
The directional property of magnets was also known since ancient times. A thin long piece of a
magnet, when suspended freely, pointed in the north-south direction. Magnetic field is
responsible for the most notable property of a magnet. It is a force that pulls on other
ferromagnetic materials, such as iron, steel, nickel, cobalt, etc., and attracts or repels other
1. If the charge q is moving under a field, the force acting on the charge depends on the
magnets. Magnet's magnetic moment is a vector that characterises the magnet's overall magnetic
magnitude of field as well as the velocity of the charge particle, what kind of field is the charge
properties. It is also called magnetic dipole moment and usually denoted by m.
moving in?
For a bar magnet, the direction of the magnetic moment points from the magnet's south to north-
pole and the magnitude relates to how strong and how far apart these poles are. (a) Electric field (b) Magnetic field

1. In a uniform magnetic field the net magnetic force on the dipole (c) Both electric and magnetic field perpendicular to each other (d) None of these

(a) Is always zero 2. The magnetic force acting on the charge ‘q’ placed in a magnetic field will vanish if
(b) Depends on the orientation of the dipole
(a) if v is small (b) If v is perpendicular to B (c) If v is parallel to B
(c) Can never be zero
(d) None of these
(d) Depends on the strength of the dipole
2. Torque acting on a magnetic dipole in uniform magnetic field at an acute angle is 3. If an electron of charge -e is moving along + X direction and magnetic field is along + Z
direction, then the magnetic force acting on the electron will be along
(a) Zero (b) Nonzero (c) Equal to force (d) None of these
3. The magnetic dipole moment of a circular coil current carrying I and area Ais (a) + X axis (b) - X axis (c) - Y axis (d) + Y axis
(a) IA (b) NIA (c) μ0nI (d) nIAB 4. The vectors which are perpendicular to each other in the relation for magnetic force acting
4. Which of the following cannot behave as a magnetic dipole on a charge particle are
(a) Electron revolving around nucleus (b) Current loop
(a) F and v (b) F and B (c) v and B (d) All of these
(c) Diamagnetic materials (d) All of them
5. A particle moves in a region having a uniform magnetic field and a parallel, uniform electric
5. The ultimate individual unit in any magnet is a
field. At some instant, the velocity of the particle is perpendicular to the field direction. The
(a) south-pole (b) north-pole (c) Quadrupole (d) Dipole
path of the particle will be
Q 31. FORCE ON A CHARGE IN ELECTRIC AND MAGNETIC FIELD
(a) A straight line (b) A circle (c) A helix with uniform pitch (d) A helix with
A point charge q (moving with a velocity v and located at r at a given time (t) in the presence
non-uniform pitch
of both the electric field E and magnetic field B. The force on an electric charge q due to both
of them can be written as F = q [ E + v x B ] = Fel + Fmag .It is called the ‘Lorentz force’. ********

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 136 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 137 of 484
 2-MARKS

ANSWER KEY 14. An ammeter is basically a permanent magnet moving coil (PMMC) instrument which deflects
SECTION B for very small amount of current (in mA range). Its only possible to increase the range of an

MCQ ammeter but we cannot decrease the range of an ammeter. The range of an ammeter can be

𝜇0 𝑖2 easily increased by adding a shunt resistance of very low value to bypass the major part of the
1. (c) Attraction and 2𝜋𝑟
current through the resistance path instead of ammeter. This increases the range of an ammeter
2. (b) 2 : 1 by reducing the actual current flow through the ammeter. There is a way to decrease the range
3. (b) 27 of an ammeter but it is not practically feasible. If we decrease the restoring torque by reducing
2√2𝜇0 𝑙
4. (d) 𝑎𝜋
spring stiffness inside the ammeter it will decrease the range of the ammeter. We are basically
increasing the sensitivity of the ammeter. But reducing spring stiffness causes large stray errors
5. (c) Can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable while the other is unstable
in the readings and is therefore not practically feasible.
6. (c) BILsinϴ
15. A magnetic field does not exert any force on a charge moving parallel or antiparallel to the field
7. (d) None of these
direction. Since they are travelling in the direction of the magnetic field, there will be no force
8. (c) 4N/m hint: BILsinϴ
acting on them. Hence their paths will remain the same after entering the magnetic field.
9. (c) introducing resistance of large value in series

1 MARK
10. Net force on electron moving in the combined electric field E and magnetic field B is
F = e (E + V X B)
16. (i) Shunt resistance, S=IgG/I –Ig
Since electron moves undeflected then F = 0
e (E + V X B) = 0 1x 0.6 /(5-1)
0.15 ohm
V = l E l/l B l
11. 1:1, The angular frequency does not depend on the speed of the particle or radius of its orbit. (ii) Total resistance,
12. 1:2 (r = mv/qB = p/qB, for equal p, r α 1/q) 1/R= 1/.6 +1/.15
= (50+ 200) /30
13. The direction of Magnetic field is towards
= 250/30
positive direction of z axis. Therefore, R = 30/250 = 0.12 0hms
17. We are given:

I1 = 2A, I2 = 1A
r1 = 10 cm, r2 = 30 cm

μo = 4 π x 10-7 TmA-1

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 138 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 139 of 484
 We have θ = 0, ∴ τ = 0

Now net force on the side will be; © we know, FB = © l × B

Force between two current carrying wires is given by
F= μo I1 I2 l (1/ r1 – 1/ r2)
F= (µ0/2π). (I1I2/r) x l = (µ0/2π) x (5 x 2/ 1 x 10-2) x 0.10
F = 2x 10-7 x 1x2x (20x10-2) [ 1/10x10-2 – 1/30x10 -2]
F= (µ0/2π). 100
F = 5.33 x 10-7 N
And F’ = (µ0/2π) x (5 x 2/ 1 x 10-2) x 0.10
The direction of force is towards the infinitely long straight wire.
F’ = (µ0/2π) x 20
Now, resultant force on the loop,
3-MARKS
Fnet = F – F’ = (µ0/2π) (100 – 20)
18. Lorentz force = magnetic force + electric force
= 2 x 10-7 x 80 = 16 x 10-6 N
F = [ Qvb sinθ + Qe]
The direction of net force is towards the straight wire i.e., attractive.
We know that a charged particle will experience a force when it enters a magnetic field.
Assertion-Reason
The magnetic field will move the charged particle in a circular path, as the force is perpendicular
to the velocity of particle. The radius of the circular path will be given by
20.(b) The magnetic dipole moment will be reduced to half when broken into two equal pieces
mv2 / r = Bqv and every atom behaves like a dipole so the dipole of a magnet cannot be separated.
21.(a) When a bar magnet is placed in a uniform magnetic field. Then the bar magnet will
r = mv / Bq
experience only torque and no force, and this torque on the bar magnet will be acting on both
As B and v are constant, we can write ends, and will be equal but opposite in direction.

r ∝ m/q 22.(d) Parallel currents attract and antiparallel currents repel.

23.(a) Gauss’s law of magnetism is different from that for electrostatics because electric charges
The neutron will move along the straight line as it has no charge.
do not necessarily exist in pairs but magnetic monopoles do not exist.
The electron will inscribe a circle of radius smaller than that of the alpha particle as the mass to 24.(b) B =μ0Ni, from this formula we see the dependence of B in current and inside a solenoid
charge ratio of the alpha particle is more than that of the electron. So, the alpha particle will it is uniform.
move in the clockwise direction and the electron will move in anticlockwise direction according 25.(c) Force =q(V x B) it is independent of mass and if v and B are perpendicular to each other,
to the right-hand rule. the particle describes a circle.
26.(a) A charged particle moves in a circle when its velocity is perpendicular to the magnetic
5 MARKS
field. When it forms an acute angle with the magnetic field, it can be resolved in two
19. (a) τ = MB sinθ = τ = M x B
components, parallel and perpendicular. The perpendicular components tend to move it in a
(b) τ = M×B = Mbsinθ circle, the parallel components tend to move along the magnetic field to form a helical motion
here M and B are in the same direction so of uniform radius and pitch.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 140 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 141 of 484
 SECTION C
27.(c) Torque, τ = mBsinθ
MCQ
Here ɵ = 90°, Sin 90° = 1 so torque will be maximum.
Q1. The magnetic force acting on a charged particle of charge −2𝜇𝐶 in a magnetic field of 2T
28.(b) A galvanometer is a device that is used to detect small electric current or measure its
acting in y direction, when the particle velocity is (2𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂) × 106 𝑚𝑠 −1 , is
magnitude. The current sensitivity of a galvanometer is the deflection of current per unit current
passing through the coil 𝐼𝑠 =
𝑁𝐴𝐵 (a) 4 N in z direction (b) 8 N in y direction
𝑘
(c) 8 N in z direction (d) 8 N in −𝑧 direction
29.(b) Assertion is the property of a magnet while reason is one of the sources of magnetic field.
Q2. Two long parallel wires carry currents 𝑖1 and 𝑖2 such that 𝑖1 > 𝑖2 . When the currents are in
Case study based question
the same direction, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wires is 6 × 10−6 𝑇. If the
𝑖1
30. 1.(a) The forces of magnitude Mb act opposite to each other on two poles, hence net force direction of 𝑖2 is reversed, the field become 3 × 10−5 𝑇. The ratio of is
𝑖2
acting on the dipole due to external magnetic field is zero.
2.(b) Forces acting on the poles are along different lines of action constituting a couple hence (a) 1/2 (b) 2 (c) 2/3 (d) 3/2
non zero torque. Q3. A straight wire carrying current l is made in circular loop. If M is the magnetic moment
3.(a) The magnetic dipole moment of a current loop is the product of the current passing through
the loop and the area inside the loop. associated with the loop, then the length of the wire is
4.(c)Materials with no unpaired, or isolated electrons are considered diamagnetic. Diamagnetic
4𝜋𝑀 2𝜋𝑀 𝜋𝑀 𝜋𝑀
substances do not have magnetic dipole moments. (a) √ (b) √ (c) √ (d) √
𝑙 𝑙 𝑙 2𝑙
5.(d)Every magnet has two poles,no monopole exists.
Q4. Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles each
31.1. (b) Magnetic field
other. The currents flowing in them are 𝐼 and 2I, respectively. The resultant magnetic field
2.(c) If v is parallel to B
induction at the centre will be
3.(d) + Y axis
√5𝜇0 𝑙 3𝜇0 𝑙 𝜇0 𝑙 𝜇0 𝑙
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4.(d) All of these 2𝑅 2𝑅 2𝑅 𝑅

5.(d) A helix with non-uniform pitch Q5. An electron is projected with uniform velocity along the axis of a current carrying long
solenoid. Which of the following is true?
(a) The electron will be accelerated along the axis.
***********
(b) The electron path will be circular about the axis.
(c) The electron will experience a force at 45° to the axis and hence execute a helical-path.
(d) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid.
Q6.In a certain region of space electric field 𝐸⃗ and magnetic field 𝐵
⃗ are perpendicular to each
other .An electron enters particularly to both fields and moves undeflected . The velocity of
electron is

(a)E / B (b) B / E (c) ⃗⃗⃗

𝐸X𝐵 ⃗ (d) ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐸.𝐵 ⃗

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 142 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 143 of 484
 Q7. A rectangle loop carrying a current ( i) is situated near a long straight 2-MARK QUESTIONS
wire such that the wire is parallel to the one of the sides of the loop and is
Q14. A wire AB is carrying a steady current of 6A and is lying on the table. Another wire CD
in the plane of the loop. If a steady current i is established in wire as shown
carrying 4A is held directly above AB at a height of 1mm. Find the mass per unit length of the
in the figure below, the loop will
wire CD so that it remains suspended at its position when left free. Give the direction of the
(a) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire (b) Move away from the wire or towards right current flowing in CD with respect to that in AB. [Take the value of g=10ms -2] [ All India
(c ) Move towards the wire or towards left (d) Remain stationary 2013]
Q8. A wire in the form of a circular loop, of one turn carrying a current, produces magnetic Q15. A galvanometer of resistance ‘G’ can be converted into a voltmeter of range (0-V) volts
field B at the centre. If the same wire is looped into a coil of two turns and carries the same by connecting a resistance ‘R’ in series with it. How much resistance will be required to change
current, the new value of magnetic induction at the Centre is its range from 0 to v/2?
(a)B (b) 2B (c) 4B (d) 8B Q16. A current loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field in the following orientations (1)
⃗⃗ rotates freely about its axis from unstable equilibrium
Q9.When a magnetic dipole of moment 𝑀 and (2). Calculate the magnetic moment in each case.
⃗ , the rotational kinetic energy gained by it is :
to stable equilibrium in a magnetic field 𝐵
2 𝑀
(a)–M.B (b) (c) 2M.B (d)
𝑀.𝐵 𝐵
Q10.The current sensitivity of a galvanometer increases by 20%. If its resistance also increases
by 20%, the voltage sensitivity will be
1.
3-MARKS QUESTIONS
(a)Decrease by 1% (b) Increased by 10% (c) Increased by 5% (d)Decrease by 4%
Q17. Three long straight parallel wires are kept as shown in the figure. The wire (3) carries a
1 MARK QUESTIONS current I

Q11. An electron, passing through a region is not deflected. Are you sure that there is no (a)The direction of the flow of current I in the
magnetic field in that region? wire 3, is such that the net force on wire 1 due
Q12.What is the value of magnetic field at point O due to current flowing in the wires? to the other two wires is zero
(b)By reversing the direction of current I , the
net force on wire 2 due to the other two wires
becomes zero. What will be the direction of
the current I in the two cases? Also obtain the magnitudes of currents I1, I2 and I.
Q13. A long straight wire carries a steady current I along the Positive y-axis in a co-ordinate
system. A particle of charge +Q is moving with a velocity 𝑣
⃗⃗⃗ along the x-axis. In which direction
will the particle experience a force?

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 144 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 145 of 484
 Q18. A long straight wire AB carries a current I. A proton P levels 24. Assertion:If the path of a charged particle in a region of uniform electric and magnetic
with a speed V, parallel to the wire at a distance d from it in a field is not a circle, then its kinetic energy will not remain constant.
direction opposite to the current. What is the force experienced by Reason: In a combined electric and magnetic field region, a moving charge experiences a net
the proton and what is its direction? force F = qE+ q(v × B), where symbols have their usual meanings.
25. Assertion: If we increase the current sensitivity of a galvanometer by increasing the number
of turns, its voltage sensitivity also increases.
Reason: Resistance of a wire also increases with N.
26. Assertion: When a magnetic dipole is placed in a non uniform magnetic field, only a torque
5-MARK QUESTIONS
acts on the dipole.
Q19. (a) State the principle of working of a galvanometer Reason: Force would not act on dipole if magnetic field were non uniform.
(b) A galvanometer of resistance G is converted into a voltmeter to measure upto V volts by connecting 27. Assertion: Galvanometer can as such be used as an ammeter to measure the value of the
a resistance R1 in series with the coil. If a resistance R2 is connected in series with it then it can measure current in given circuit
upto V/2 volts. Find the resistance, in terms of R1 and R2, required to be connected to convert it into a Reason: It gives a full-scale deflection for a current of the order of ampere.
voltmeter that can read upto 2 V. Also find the resistance G of the galvanometer in terms of R1 and R2. 28. Assertion: Diamagnetic materials can exhibit magnetism.
(c) “Increasing the current sensitivity of a galvanometer may not necessarily increase its voltage Reason Diamagnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moments.
sensitivity.” Justify the statement. 29. Assertion: Paramagnetic materials can exhibit magnetism.
Assertion-Reason Reason: Paramagnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moments.

Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) are as given
below Case study based question
Q30.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Magnetic Field due to a Solenoid

(c) A is true but R is false. Seema wound a very long insulated copper wire on a plastic pipe and carefully took the pipe
(d) A is false and R is also false. out. The two ends of the copper wires are then attached to a battery. This cylindrical shape of
20. Assertion: Steady current is the only source of magnetic field. copper wire is called a solenoid and this solenoid is used in several devices such as door bell,
Reason: Only moving charge can create magnetic field. door locks, speakers etc. The magnetic field of a solenoid is given below
21. Assertion: A magnetic field does not interact with a stationary charge.
Reason: A moving charge produces a magnetic field.
22. Assertion: When velocity of electron is perpendicular to B it will perform circular motion.
Reason: Magnetic force is perpendicular to velocity.
23. Assertion: A beam of electrons can pass undeflected through a region of E and B.
Reason: Force on moving charged particles due to magnetic field may be zero in some cases.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 146 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 147 of 484
 The magnetic field strength of a solenoid having n turns is B =μ0nI, where, I is the current over a scale. The adjacent figure shows the essentials of a galvanometer, on which both Analog
flowing in the solenoid, n is number of turns per unit length and μ0 is the permeability of free ammeters and Analog voltmeters are based. Assume that the coil is 2.1 cm high, 1.2 cm wide
space. has 250 turns and is mounted so that it can rotate about an axis (into the page) in a uniform
radial magnetic field with B = 0.23 T. for any orientation of the coil, the net magnetic field
1. A long solenoid has 400 turns per meter and it is used as an electromagnet. If 1.5A current is
through the coil is perpendicular to the normal vector of the coil (and thus parallel to the plane
flowing through it, what is the strength of the electromagnet
of coil) A spring SPSP provides a counter torque that balance the magnetic torque so that a
(a) 0.008 T (b) 0.4 T (c) 0.6 T (d) 0.007 T given steady current I in the coil results in a steady angular deflection ϕ. The greater the current
2. Solenoid has length l, N turns and carrying a current I, what will be the magnetic field inside is greater the deflection is and thus greater the torque required of the spring is A current of
the solenoid 100 µA produces an angular deflection of 28∘
𝜇0 𝑁𝐼
(a) μ0 nlI (b) (c) μ0 nl2 (d) None of these 1. What must be the torsional constant K of the spring?
𝑙

3. The strength of magnetic field in a solenoid cannot be affected by (a) 2.6 x 10-8 Nm/degree (b) 5.2x10-8 Nm/degree

(a) Increasing its length (b) Decreasing the value of current (c) 2.6 x 10-4 Nm/degree (d) 5.2x10-6 Nm/degree

(c) Decreasing the number of turns (d) None of these 2. If we reduce the value of this K to half of its value then the deflection would be

4. The strength of magnetic field outside a solenoid is (a) 280 (b) 560 (c) 140 (d) none

(a) Infinity (b) Zero 3. If the value of magnetic field is put equal to 0.69 T and K=15.6×10−8 K=15.6×10-
8 Nm/degree. Then the deflection would be
(c) Double the value of field inside
(d) Half the value of the field inside (a) <280 (b) =280 (c) 140 (d) none
5. The nature of magnetic field lines passing through the current carrying solenoid is
(a) Closed loop *********
(b) Discontinuous curve
(c) Straight line
(d) None of these

SOURCE BASED QUESTION

Q31. Analog voltmeters and ammeters work by measuring the torque exerted by a magnetic
field on a current carrying coil. The reading is displayed by means of the deflection of a pointer

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 148 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 149 of 484
 ANSWER KEY = 0.48 mg/m.

SECTION C 15. Given: resistance of galvanometer = G Ω

MCQ Range of voltmeter (RL)= (0-V) volts

1.(d) 8 N in −𝑧 direction Resistance to be connected in parallel= R

R’=? where range is (0-V/2) volts
2. (d) 3/2
In the first case ig= V/ (R+G) ….(i)
4𝜋𝑀
3. (a) √
𝑙 In the second case ig= V/2/ (R’+G) …. (ii)
√5𝜇0 𝑙 [ ig is the maximum current which can flow through galvanometer]
4. (a)
2𝑅

5. (d) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid. From equation (i) and (ii) on solving we get

6. (a) E /B (hint: qE = qvB) R’= (R-G) / 2

7. (c) Move towards the wire or towards left 16. (a) -mB (b) Zero
8. (c) 4B
9. (c) 2MB 3 MARKS

10. (d) decrease by 4% 17.(a) Net force experienced by wire (1) can be zero only when the current in wire (3) flows

1-MARK along -J i.e. downwards it means that force acting on the wire (1) due to wire (3) and wire (2)

11. No, if an electron enters parallel to a magnetic field, no force acts and the electron are equal and opposite

remains undeflected. µ0I1I/2π(2a) = µ0 I1I2/2π(a)

12. Zero, because the upper and lower current carrying conductors are identical and so the Therefore, I = 2I2
magnetic fields caused by them at the centre O will be equal and opposite.
(b) when direction of current in wire (3) is reversed then current should be along +j i.e., upwards.
13. From Fleming’s left-hand rule, thumb points along +
For this case net force on wire (2) becomes zero, which means that the force due to wire (1) and
y direction, so the direction of magnetic force will be
along + y axis (or in the direction of flow of current). wire (3) are equal and opposite

µ0I1I2/2πa = µ0 I2 I/2π(a)
14. Weight per unit length of the wire must be supported therefore I = I1
by magnetic force per unit length.
I=I1=2 I2
(m/l) g = µ0I1I2/2πr
18. Magnetic field due to the straight wire AB at a perpendicular, distance r from it.
(m/l) = (µ0I1I2/2πr) g
B = µ0I/(2πr)
= 4π x 10-7 x 6 x 4/ 2π (10-3) (10)
Therefore, force on proton moving with velocity ‘v’ perpendicular to B, is
= 2 x 10-7 x 6 x 4/ 10-3 x 10
F = qvB = µ0Iqv/(2πr)
= 48 x 10-5 kg/m

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 150 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 151 of 484
 The direction of force on proton acts in plane of paper towards right. Therefore, voltage sensitivity is the deflection per unit voltage. It depends on the
5 MARKS resistance also.

19. (a) Galvanometer works on the principle of torque on a coil carrying current in a magnetic
Assertion-Reason
field. The torque acting on the coil is proportional to the magnitude of electric current. The coil 20.(d) moving charge, electron, current carrying wire, naturally occurring magnet all these can
is connected to a pointer and the pointer of the galvanometer is calibrated to show correct create magnetic field.
deflection on a scale. 21.(a) Stationary charge doesn't get affected by magnetic field, moving charge creates magnetic
(b) Let the resistance of the galvanometer be RG. field.

Let the max. current carrying capacity be I. 22.(a) If F⟂V, at all instants then motion will be circular.
23.(b) For velocity selector the electrons can pass undeflected, when velocity and magnetic
From the given data,
field are parallel , in that case force can be zero, both are correct but reason is not correct
V = I (RG + R1)
explanation of assertion.
V/2 = I (RG + R2)
24.(a) F = q E+ q(v × B) this is called Lorentz force.
From the equations, 𝑞𝐸
Due to electric field, acceleration a = , hence velocity will not remain constant.
𝑚
2 = (RG + R1)/ (RG + R2)
𝜙 𝑁𝐴𝐵
25.(c) current sensitivity 𝐼𝑠 = =
R G = R1 - R 2 𝐼 𝑘

Let the resistance required to read 2V be R3

𝑁𝐴𝐵
2V = I (RG + R3) voltage sensitivity 𝑉𝑆 =
𝑘𝑅
𝐼𝑆
2 (RG + R1) = RG + R3 𝑉𝑠 =
𝑅

R3 = RG + 2R1 26. (d) In a non-uniform magnetic field both the torque and force will act.
R3 = 3R1 – 2R2 27.(d) Galvanometer is used to detect the direction of current in a circuit, it gives full scale

(c) Due to deflecting torque, the coil rotates and suspension wire gets twisted. A restoring deflection to the current of microampere range.
torque is set in the suspension wire. 28.(c) Diamagnetic materials get repelled in magnetic fields so they exhibit magnetism but they
NIBA = kθ (In equilibrium) don't have unpaired electrons so we can say that they don't have dipole moment.
I = k/(NBA) . θ 29.(a) Paramagnetic materials have unpaired electrons so they exhibit magnetism.

I = Gθ Case study based

Where, G = k / (NBA) 30. 1.(d) B =μ0nI
It is known as galvanometer constant. where n= 400 and I = 1.5A
θ/I = NBA / k putting values B= 0.007 T
Therefore, current sensitivity of the galvanometer is the deflection per unit current. 2. (b) Derivation of magnetic field inside a solenoid.
θ/V = (NBA/k). (I/V) = (NBA/k). 1/R

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 152 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 153 of 484
 3. (d) B =μ0nI Question Bank
where n is number of turns per unit length. Chapter-5 Magnetism and Matter
4. (b) The magnetic field outside the solenoid is so weak that it is taken to be zero.
5. (a) SECTION A

MCQ
Q1. When freely suspended, a magnet comes to rest in the direction
(a) North- South (b) East –West (c) South – East (d) None of the above
Q2. Magnetic lines of force always form
(a) Closed loops (b) open loops (c) both a and b (d) None of the above
Q3. The SI unit of magnetic field strength is
The magnetic field lines in a solenoid form closed loop.
(a) Tesla (b) Weber (c) Tesla meter (d) Tesla meter /ampere
Q4. The SI unit of magnetic pole strength is
SOURCE BASED QUESTION (a) ampere/metre2 (b) ampere –meter (c) ampere-meter2 (d) ampere2 /meter
31. Due to deflecting torque, the coil rotates and suspension wire gets twisted. A restoring Q5. The SI unit of magnetic dipole moment is
torque is set in the suspension wire. (a) ampere –meter2 (b) ampere –meter (c) ampere-meter2 (d) ampere2 /meter
Q6. Magnetic dipole moment is
τ = MB sin90
(a) Scalar (b) vector (c) none
= NiAB
Q7. The torque acting on a magnet with magnetic dipole moment M at an angle 𝜃 with the magnetic
Also, τ = K θ
field B is
K = τ/ θ = NIAB/ θ = (250 x100 x10 -6x2.1x1.2x10-4)/28
(a) τ = MBcosθ (b) τ = MB sin θ (c) τ = MB tan θ (d) None
= 5.2x10-8 Nm/degree Q8. Magnetic lines of force
(b) 5.2x10-8 Nm/degree (a) Emanate from N- pole and enter into S- pole
2. (b) 56o using τ = K θ (b) Emanate from S- pole and enter into N- pole
3. (b) =28o using θ = τ/ K (c) Emanate from S pole to infinity
(d) Emanate from N pole to infinity
Q9. The meniscus of a liquid contained in one of the limbs of a narrow U-tube is placed between
******************
the pole-pieces of an electromagnet with meniscus in a line width the field. When the
electromagnet is switched on, the liquid is seen to rise in the limb. This indicates that the liquids
is
(a) Ferromagnetic (b) paramagnetic (c) Diamagnetic (d) non-magnetic

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 154 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 155 of 484
Q10. For a paramagnetic substance, the magnetic susceptibility is directly proportional to
(a) T (b) T 2 (c) T 0 (d) 𝑇 −1 2 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q11. The domain formation is a necessary feature of Q26. (a) Define magnetic field strength. (b) Give its SI unit.

(a) Diamagnetism (b) Paramagnetism (c) ferromagnetism (d) All of these Q27. Define magnetic dipole moment. Is it scalar or vector?

Q12.If a magnetic substance is kept in a magnetic field, then which of the following substances is Q28. Give four properties of magnetic field lines.

thrown out Q29. Define intensity of magnetization of a magnetic material.

(a) Diamagnetism (b) Paramagnetism (c) ferromagnetism (d) All of these Q30. What are permanent magnets? Give examples.

Q13.Above Curie’s temperature ferromagnetic substances behaves like (CBSE 2020) Q31. Write three points of differences between diamagnetic paramagnetic and ferromagnetic-

(a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic (c) superconductor (d) no change material. (CBSE 2019)

Q14.A permanent magnet attracts 3 MARK QUESTIONS

(a) all substances (b) only ferromagnetic substances
Q32. (a) What is the name given to the curves, the tangent to which at any point gives the direction
(c) some substances and repels others (d) ferromagnetic substances and repels all others
of magnetic field at that point?
Q15.Susceptibility is positive for
(b)Can two such curves intersect each other? Justify your answer.
(a) paramagnetic substances (b) diamagnetic substances
5 MARK QUESTIONS
(c) non- magnetic substances (d) all of the above

Q33. (a) Derive an expression for magnetic field intensity due to a magnetic dipole at a point on
1 MARK QUESTIONS
Q16. What is the SI unit of magnetic dipole moment? its axial line.

Q17. Can two magnetic field lines intersect? (b)A magnetised needle of magnetic moment 4.8X10 -2JT-1 is placed at 30° with the direction of

Q18. What is the direction of magnetic dipole moment? uniform magnetic field of 3 X 10-2 T. Calculate the torque acting on the needle. (CBSE2012)

Q19. What is the torque acting on a bar magnet of magnetic moment M in a uniform magnetic Q34. Explain the following –

field B? (a) Why are the field lines repelled when a diamagnetic material is placed in an external uniform

Q20. What is the SI unit of magnetic flux density? magnetic field?

Q21. Are the magnetic moment of a bar magnet and its equivalent solenoid, having the same (b) Draw the magnetic field lines for a current carrying solenoid, when a rod made of – (i) Copper

magnetic field equal? (ii) Aluminium (iii) Iron are inserted within the solenoid.

Q22. Why do magnetic lines of force form continuous closed loops?

Q23. What is magnetic susceptibility? (CBSE 2018)
Assertion and Reason Type Questions
Q24. What is permeability of the material?
Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) are as given below
Q25(A). Which of the following substances are diamagnetic? (CBSE 2013)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Bi, Al, Na, Cu, Ca and Ni
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(B) The susceptibility of a magnetic material is 1.9 × 10-5. Name the type of magnetic materials it
(c) A is true but R is false.
represents.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 156 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 157 of 484
(d) A is false and R is also false. ANSWERS-SECTION A
Q35.Assertion: Difference between an electric line and magnetic line of force is that electric lines
of force are discontinuous and the magnetic field lines are continuous. MCQ
1. (a) North- South
Reason: Electric lines of forces do not exist inside a charged conductor but magnetic lines exist
2. (a) Closed loops
inside a magnet.
3. (a) Tesla
Q36.Assertion: A current carrying solenoid behaves like a bar magnet.
4. (b)Ampere –meter
Reason: The circular loop in which the direction of current is clockwise behaves like the South
5. (a) ampere-meter2
Pole and the one having anticlockwise current behaves like the North Pole.
6. (b) vector
Q37.Assertion: Permanent magnets retain their ferromagnetic property for a long period of time.
7. (b) τ = MB sin θ
Reason: Steel is a diamagnetic material.
8. (a) Emanate from N- pole and enter into S- pole
Q38. Assertion: When a bar magnet is hung freely it points toward geographical poles.
9. (b) Paramagnetic
Reason: Magnetic field lines do not intersect.
10. (d) 𝑇 −1
Q39. Assertion: A diamagnetic specimen would move towards the weaker region of the field.
11. (c) ferromagnetism
Reason: A diamagnetic specimen is repelled by a magnet.
12. (a) Diamagnetism
Q40.Assertion: Motion of electron around a positively charged nucleus is different from the of a
13. (a) paramagnetic
planet around the sun.
14.(b) only ferromagnetic substances
Reason: The force acting in both the cases is same in nature.
15. (a) paramagnetic substances
Q41.Assertion: Two parallel conducting wires carrying currents in same direction, come close to
each other.
1 MARK
Reason: Parallel currents attract and anti-parallel currents repel. 16. Ampere –metre2 or JT-1
Q42.Assertion: A galvanometer cannot as such be used as an ammeter to measure the current 17. No, magnetic field lines cannot intersect as at the point of intersection there are two directions
across a given section of the circuit. of magnetic field which is not possible.
Reason: For this it must be connected in series with the circuit. 18. The direction of magnetic dipole moment is from South Pole to North Pole.
Q43.Assertion: Magnetic lines of force form continuous closed loops whereas electric lines of 19. Torque 𝜏 =M X B = MBsin𝜃
force do not. 20. Weber/meter2, Tesla, Newton/ ampere -meter
Reason: Magnetic poles always occur in pairs as North Pole and South Pole. 21. Yes as the bar magnet and solenoid produces equal magnetic field
Q44. Assertion: An electron moving along the direction of magnetic field experiences no force. 22. Magnetic lines of force form continuous closed loops because a magnet is always a dipole and
Reason: The force on electron moving along the direction of magnetic field is F = qVB sin0° = 0 as a result, the net magnetic flux of a magnet is always zero.
23. The measure of the magnetisation of the material is called magnetic susceptibility.
********* 24. In electromagnetism, the measure of the resistance of a material against the formation of a
magnetic field is called permeability.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 158 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 159 of 484
25(A). Diamagnetic substances are Bi and Cu.
25(B). It represents Paramagnetic substance.
2 MARKS
26.(a) The magnetic field strength at any point in a magnetic field is defined as the force
experienced by unit north pole placed at that point. b) SI unit is Tesla.
27. Magnetic dipole moment is the product of pole strength and magnetic length of the magnet.
Consider a magnetic dipole (or a bar magnet) SN of length 2l having South Pole at S and North
28. (i) Magnetic field lines start from a North Pole and end on a South pole.
Pole at N. The strength of south and north poles are – qm and + qm respectively.
(ii) Magnetic field lines do not intersect each other.
Magnetic moment of magnetic dipole m = qm 2l, its direction is from S to N.
(iii) Magnetic field lines are crowded where the field is stronger and farther apart where the field
Consider a point P on the axis of magnetic dipole at a distance r from mid-point O of dipole.
lines are weaker.
The distance of point P from N-pole, r1= (r – l).
(iv) Magnetic field lines form closed loops.
The distance of point P from S-pole, r2= (r + l)
29. The intensity of magnetization of a magnetic material is defined as the magnetic moment
Let B1 and B2 be the magnetic field intensities at point P due to north and south poles respectively.
developed per unit volume of the material when it is placed in a magnetizing field.
The directions of magnetic field due to North Pole is away from N-pole and due to South Pole is
30. The substances which at room temperature retain their ferromagnetism for a long time are
towards the S-pole. Therefore,
called permanent magnets. Examples – Cobalt, Steel, Alnico and Ticonal.
31. 𝜇0 𝑞𝑚
B1 = from N to P and
4𝜋 (𝑟−𝑙)2
PROPERTIES Diamagnetic Paramagnetic material Ferromagnetic
material material 𝜇0 𝑞𝑚
Effect of Magnet Weakly repelled Weakly attracted by a Strongly attracted B2 = from P to S
4𝜋 (𝑟+𝑙)2
by a magnet. magnet. by a magnet
Effect of No effect. With the rise of Above curie B1>B2 and direction of resultant is from N to P and magnitude is given by
Temperature temperature, it becomes a point, it becomes 𝜇0 2(𝑞𝑚 2𝑙)𝑟
diamagnetic. a paramagnetic B = B1 - B2 =
4𝜋 (𝑟 2 −𝑙2 )2
Permeability Little less than Little greater than unity Very high But qm 2l =M magnetic dipole moment
unity 𝜇0 2(𝑀 )𝑟
B=
4𝜋 (𝑟 2 −𝑙2 )2
For a short dipole
𝜇0 2𝑀
3 MARKS B=
4𝜋 𝑟 3
32.(a) These curves are magnetic field lines. No two such lines intersect each other. (b) Torque τ = MB sin θ = 4.8X10-2X3X10-2 sin30 = 7.2x10-4 Nm.
(b) Two such curves never intersect each other, if they do so, then there will be two directions at
34. (a) Diamagnetic materials are the materials whose atoms do not possess any permanent
the point of intersection, which is not possible.
magnetic dipole moment due to the presence of electrons that are paired with each other, called
5 MARKS
paired electrons. This is the reason why when a diamagnetic material is placed in an external
33.(a)
magnetic field, the magnetic field lines are repelled.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 160 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 161 of 484
 On the application of an external magnetic field, it creates a magnetic field in the diamagnetic 39.(a) In the case of diamagnetic substances, the magnetic moments of atoms and the orbital
material opposite to the direction of the applied field which causes a repulsive force. This is magnetic moments have been oriented in such a manner that the vector sum of an atom’s
the reason why when a diamagnetic material is placed in an external magnetic field, the magnetic moment becomes zero. An external magnetic field can repel them weakly.
magnetic field lines are repelled. 40.(d) Neil Bohr proposed a model, which is familiar as a planetary model of atoms. In Bohr’s
(b) Magnetic field lines of a current carrying solenoid: When current passed through the model, the neutrons and protons occupy a dense central region called the nucleus, and electrons
solenoid, it acts as bar magnet. One end of the solenoid acts as North Pole and another end acts orbit the nucleus much like planets orbiting the sun. Electrons are negatively charged and the
as South Pole. The magnetic field starts at North Pole and ends at South Pole. The magnetic nucleus is positively charged. Force in the former case is electrostatic force but in later case it
field lines are always parallel. is gravitational force.
Copper: 41.(a) By using the right hand thumb rule, the direction of the magnetic field can be determined
Copper is a diamagnetic material. The magnetic field then by using Fleming's right hand rule the direction of force comes towards each other.
produced by the material is repulsive. Thus, the magnetic 42.(d) As the galvanometer is used to check the current flow direction and the magnitude of
field lines diverge outward. the direct current. That’s why the resistance of the galvanometer is nearly zero. This is
Aluminium: somewhere similar to ammeter but both are different devices. Ammeter can only show us the
Aluminium is a paramagnetic material. The magnetic current magnitude not the direction. A Galvanometer's needle can fluctuate in two directions
field is strengthened around the material. Thus, the whereas an ammeter's needle can only show one side deflection.
magnetic field of lines converges lightly. 43.(b) Electric lines of forces do not exist inside a charged body, the magnetic lines of force
Iron: travel from north to south pole and inside the magnet they are from south pole to north pole
Iron is a ferromagnetic material. The magnetic field is far strong around the material. Thus, the hence continuous.
magnetic field of lines converges heavily. 44.(a) If the particle is moving along the direction of magnetic field then ɵ = 0° hence force
Assertion and Reason becomes zero.
35.(a) Since no electric lines of forces exist inside a charged body, the electric lines of force
only travel from positive to negative charge and are discontinuous. Secondly, magnetic lines ***********
of force travel from north to South Pole and inside the magnet they are from South Pole to
North Pole hence continuous.
36.(a) A solenoid is a type of electromagnet formed by a helical coil of wire whose length is
substantially greater than its diameter, its two ends can be visualised as two coils.
37.(c) Permanent magnets retain their ferromagnetic property for a long period of time and
steel is a paramagnetic material.
38.(b) It is the property of a magnet to rest in a geographical north and south pole and another
property of magnetic field is that magnetic field lines do not intersect.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 162 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 163 of 484
 SECTION B Q9.In a permanent magnet at room temperature
(a) Magnetic moment of each molecule is zero
Q1. Torque acting on a coil is maximum when the coil is placed
(b) The individual molecules have non-zero magnetic moment which are all perfectly aligned.
(a) Parallel to the magnetic field
(c) Domains are partially aligned.
(b) at an angle of 30° to the magnetic field
(d) Domains are all perfectly aligned
(c) at any position in a uniform magnetic field
Q10.Ferromagnetic Material used in transformer must have
(d) Perpendicular to the magnetic field
(a) Low Permeability & High Hysteresis Loss
Q2. A long current carrying solenoid produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is
(b) High Permeability & Low Hysteresis Loss
halved and number of turns/cm is doubled, the magnetic field becomes
(c) High Permeability & High Hysteresis Loss
(a) B/2 (b) B (c) 8B (d) 2B
(d) Low Permeability & Low Hysteresis Loss
Q3. The magnetic field due to a bar magnet at an equatorial point is B, its magnetic field at an
Q11.If the magnetising field on a ferromagnetic material is increased, if permeability is
axial point at the same distance is
(a) Decreased (b) Increased (c) unaffected (d)May be decreased or increased
(a) 2B (b) B/2 (c) 4B (d) B
Q12.Electromagnets are made of Soft Iron because Soft Iron has
Q 4. Current do not flow between two charged particles when connected if they have same
(a) Small Susceptibility & Small Retentivity
(a) Capacitance (b) potential (c) charge (d) none of these
(b) Large Susceptibility & Small Retentivity
Q5. Which of the following is responsible for the earth’s magnetic field?
(c) Large Permeability & Large Retentivity
(а) Convective currents in earth’s core
(d) Small Permeability & Large Retentivity.
(b) Divertive current in earth’s core.
(c) Rotational motion of earth. 1 MARK QUESTIONS
(d) Translational motion of earth.
Q13.How does the (i) pole strength ii) Magnetic moment of each part of a bar magnet change if it
Q6. Magnetic field can be produced by
is cut into two equal pieces transverse to length?
(a) a stationary charge (b) a moving charge (c) a changing electric field (d) Both b and c
Q14. A magnetic field interacts with a moving charge and not with a stationary charge. Why?
Q7. Which of the following statements is true about magnetic field intensity?
3.The susceptibility of a magnetic materials is −4.2 × 10−6 . Name the type of magnetic material
(a). Magnetic field intensity is the number of lines of force crossing per unit volume.
it represents. (CBSE 2010)
(b). Magnetic field intensity is the number of lines of force crossing per unit area.
Q15.The susceptibility of a magnetic material is 1. 9 × 10−5 . Identify the types of magnetic
(c). Magnetic field intensity is the magnetic induction force acting on a unit magnetic pole.
material. (CBSE 2011)
(d). Magnetic field intensity is the magnetic moment per unit volume.
Q16.The susceptibility of a magnetic material is −2.6 × 10−5 . Identify the types of magnetic
Q8. The meniscus of a liquid contained in one of the limbs of a narrow U-tube is placed between
material.
the pole-pieces of an electromagnet with meniscus in a line with the field. When the electromagnet
is switched on, the liquid is seen to rise in the limb. This indicates that the liquids is
(a)Ferromagnetic (b)Paramagnetic (c) Diamagnetic (d) non-magnetic

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 164 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 165 of 484
 2 MARKS QUESTIONS Q25.Assertion The poles of magnet cannot be separated by breaking into two pieces.
Reason The magnetic dipole moment will be reduced to half when broken into two equal pieces.
Q17. When is the torque acting on a dipole (a) Maximum (b) Minimum
Q26.Assertion When a bar magnet is kept in an external uniform magnetic field, it starts
Q18. Derive an expression for torque acting on a magnetic dipole placed in a uniform magnetic
oscillating.
field.
Reason A restoring torque acts on the dipole when kept in the magnetic field.
Q19.Why is the core of an electromagnet made of ferromagnetic materials?
Q27.Assertion Two parallel wires carrying currents in the opposite direction, attract each other.
Q20.In what way is the behaviour of a diamagnetic material different from that of paramagnetic
Reason Parallel currents repel and antiparallel currents attract.
when kept in an external magnetic field.
Q28. Assertion Gauss's theorem is not applicable in magnetism.
Q21.Explain Curie's law for a paramagnetic substance.
Reason Magnetic monopoles do not exist.

3-MARKS QUESTIONS Q29.Assertion Magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid is independent of its length
and cross-sectional area.
Q22.A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.9JT -1 is placed with its axis at 30° to a uniform Reason There is a uniform magnetic field inside the solenoid.
magnetic field. It experiences a torque of 0.063J. Calculate (i) the magnitude of the magnetic field Q30. Assertion If a charged particle is projected in a region, where B is perpendicular to velocity
(ii) in which orientation the bar magnet will be in stable equilibrium? (CBSE2012) of projection, then the net force acting on the particle is independent of its mass.
Q23. (a)Define the term magnetic susceptibility and write its relation in terms of relative magnetic Reason The particle is performing rectilinear motion.
permeability. (b)Two magnetic materials A and B have relative magnetic permeabilities of 0.96 Q31.Assertion When a charged particle moves in a region of magnetic field such that its velocity
and 500. Identify the magnetic materials A and B. is at some acute angle with the direction of field, its trajectory is a helix.

5-MARKS QUESTIONS Reason Perpendicular component of velocity causes a rotating centripetal force and the parallel
component of velocity does not produce any force.
Q24. A short bar magnet of is placed with its axis at 30° to a uniform magnetic field of 0.16T. It
Q32. Assertion For a current carrying wire loop of N turns, placed in a region of a uniform
experiences a torque 0.032J (a) Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic moment of the magnet.
magnetic field B, the torque acting on it is given by m x B.
(b) In which orientation the magnet will be in stable equilibrium with the magnetic field? (c) Find
Reason Whenever the magnetic moment m is perpendicular to B, then torque on the loop will be
the PE in stable equilibrium.
zero.
Q33.Assertion The current sensitivity of a galvanometer is the deflection of current per unit
Assertion and Reason Type Questions current passing through the coil.
Assertion-Reason Reason The galvanometer can be used as a detector to check if a current is flowing in the circuit.
Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) are as given below
Q34. Assertion Magnetic field lines always form closed loops.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Reason Moving charges or currents produce a magnetic field.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
**********
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 166 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 167 of 484
 SECTION B- ANSWERS 20.A diamagnetic specimen would move towards the weaker region of the field while a
1. (d) Perpendicular to the magnetic field paramagnetic specimen would move towards the stronger region.
2. (b) B 21.Curie law states that magnetization of paramagnetic substance is directly proportional to the
3. (a) 2B external magnetic field applied. But as the substance is heated, it's magnetization is inversely
4. (b) potential proportional to the temperature of substance.
5. (а) Convective currents in earth’s core 𝐶𝐵
Thus, magnetization of paramagnetic substance M =
𝑇
6. (d) Both b and c
where C is curie constant, B is external magnetic field and T is the temperature of substance.
7. (c). Magnetic field intensity is the magnetic induction force acting on a unit magnetic pole.
3 MARKS
8. (b) Paramagnetic 𝜏 0.063
22. (i) B= = =0.14T
𝑀𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 0.9𝑠𝑖𝑛30
9. (c) Domains are partially aligned.
(ii) When 𝜃 = 0° U= -MBcos 0 = -MB
10. (b) High Permeability & Low Hysteresis Loss
P.E of the bar magnet will be minimum and it will be in stable equilibrium when it is parallel
11. (a) Decreased
to the magnetic field.
12. (b) Large Susceptibility & Small Retentivity.
23. (a) Magnetic Susceptibility: It is defined as the ratio of the magnetisation M to the magnetising
1-MARK
13.When a bar magnet of magnetic moment (M = m2L) is cut into two equal pieces transverse to field intensity H. It is denoted by 𝜒𝑚 .

its length, its (i) the pole strength remains unchanged ii) the magnetic moment is reduced to half.
𝑀
14. A moving charge experiences a force in an external magnetic field due to the interaction of 𝜒𝑚 =
𝐻
two magnetic fields, one which is produced due to motion of the charge and other due to the
Magnetic susceptibility in terms of magnetic permeability.
external magnetic field, while a stationary charge does not experience any such force. 𝜒𝑚 = 𝜇𝑟 − 1
15.Susceptibility of material is negative, so given material is diamagnetic. (b) A is a diamagnetic material, B is a ferromagnetic material.
16.The material having positive and small susceptibility is paramagnetic material.
The material having negative and small susceptibility is diamagnetic material. 5 MARKS
2-MARKS 24. (a) Torque) τ = MB sin θ
17.Torque acting on a dipole is a) Maximum when 𝜃 is 90° and b) Minimum when 𝜃 is 0° or 180
M = τ/B sin θ
18. Force on N pole = qm B along B 0.032
= sin 30
0.16
Force on S pole = qm B opposite to B
= 0.4JT-1
This give rise to a torque given by
(b) For stable equilibrium θ = 0°
𝜏 = Force X perpendicular distance
(c) PE is given by U = -MBcos0 = -0.4X 0.16 = -0.064J
= qmB X 2lsin𝜃 = MBsin𝜃

19.Ferromagnetic material has a high permeability. So on passing current through windings, it

gains sufficient magnetism immediately.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 168 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 169 of 484
 Assertion and Reason SECTION C

25.(b) The magnetic dipole moment will be reduced to half when broken into two equal pieces and Q1. The maximum torque acting on a rectangular coil of 2cm X 5cm, having 200 turns and carrying
every atom behaves like a dipole so the dipole of a magnet cannot be separated. a current of 2A is
26.(a) When a bar magnet is placed in a uniform magnetic field. Then the bar magnet will (a) 0.4 Nm (b) 4 Nm (c) 40 Nm (d) 0.04 Nm
experience only torque and no force, and this torque on the bar magnet will be acting on both ends, Q2. A toroid of n turns, mean radius R and cross-sectional radius a carries current I. It is placed
and will be equal but opposite in direction. on a horizontal table taken as X-Y plane. Its magnetic moment M
27.(d) Parallel currents attract and antiparallel currents repel. (a) is non-zero and points in the Z-direction by symmetry.
28.(a) Gauss's law of magnetism is different from that for electrostatics because electric charges (b) points along the axis of the toroid.
do not necessarily exist in pairs but magnetic monopoles do not exist. (c) is zero, otherwise there would be a field falling as 1/r3 at large distances outside the toroid.
29.(b) B = μ0nI, from this formula we see the dependence of B in current and inside a solenoid it (d) is pointing radially outwards
is uniform. Q3. A long magnet is cut into two parts such that the ratio of their lengths is 2:1. What is the ratio
30.(c) Force =q(V x B) it is independent of mass and if v and B are perpendicular to each other, pole strength of both the section?
the particle describes a circle. (a). 1:2 (b). 2:1 (c). 4:1 (d) Equal
31.(a) A charged particle moves in a circle when its velocity is perpendicular to the magnetic field. Q4. The susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material is χ at 270 𝐶 . At what temperature will its
When it forms an acute angle with the magnetic field, it can be resolved in two components, susceptibility be 0.5χ.
parallel and perpendicular. The perpendicular components tend to move it in a circle, the parallel (a) 540C (b) 3270 C (c) 6000 C (d) 237 0C
Q5. A paramagnetic sample shows a net magnetism of 8 Am -1 when placed in an external magnetic
components tend to move along the magnetic field to form a helical motion of uniform radius and
pitch. field of 0.6 T at a temperature of 4K. when the same sample is placed in an external magnetic field
32.(c) Torque, τ = mBsinθ of 0.2 T at a temperature of 16 K, the magnetization will be
32 2
Here ɵ = 90°, Sin 90° = 1 so torque will be maximum. (a) Am -1 (b) Am -1 (c) 6 Am -1 (d) 2.4 Am -1
3 3
33.(b) A galvanometer is a device that is used to detect small electric current or measure Q6. The SI unit of Magnetic Permeability is
its magnitude. The current sensitivity of a galvanometer is the deflection of current per unit (a) 𝑊𝐴−1 𝑚−1
𝑁𝐴𝐵
current passing through the coil 𝐼𝑠 =
𝑘
(b) 𝑁𝐴−1 𝑚−1
34.(b) Assertion is the property of a magnet while reason is one of the sources of magnetic field. (c) 𝑁𝐴−2
(d) 𝐵𝑜𝑡ℎ 𝑊𝐴−1 𝑚−1 and 𝑁𝐴−2
Q7.Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic

********** substance respectively. A magnet when brought close to them will

(a) Attract N1 strongly but repel N2 and N3 weakly.
(b) Attract all 3 of them
(c) Attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 170 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 171 of 484
 (d) Attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly. (ii) diamagnetic substances. How does one explain this distinguishing feature? (CBSE 2020)
Q19.Two substances A and B have their relative permeabilities slightly greater and slightly less
1MARK QUESTIONS than 1 respectively. What do you conclude about A and B as far as their magnetic materials are
Q8. When a bar magnet of magnetic moment (M = m2L) is cut into two equal pieces transverse
concerned?
to its length, its (i) the pole strength remains unchanged (ii) the magnetic moment is halved.
3 MARK QUESTIONS
Q9. The permeability of a magnetic material is 0.9983. Name the type of magnetic materials it
Q20. A rectangular current carrying loop EFGH is kept in a uniform magnetic field as shown
represents. (CBSE 2011)
below in the figure.
Q10.Susceptibility of iron is more than that of copper. What does this statement imply?
i) What is the direction of magnetic moment of current loop?
Q11. The magnetic field lines prefer to pass through iron than air. Explain why? (CBSE 2011)
ii) When is the torque acting on the loop (a) maximum (b) minimum?
Q12. Mention two characteristic properties of the material suitable for making core of a
transformer. (CBSE 2012)
E F
2 MARK QUESTIONS
Q13.A hypothetical bar magnet (AB) is cut into two equal parts. One part is now kept over the
other, so that the pole C2 is above C1. If M is the magnetic moment of the original magnet, what
H G
would be the magnetic moment of the combination, so formed?
Q14. State Gauss’s law for magnetism. Explain its significance. CBSE (2019)
Q21. Write three important properties of the magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet.
Q15. A iron rod of length L and magnetic moment M is bent in the form of a semicircle. Find its
Q22. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with a uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T
magnetic moment.
experiences a torque of 4X10-2J. Find the magnetic moment of the magnet.
Q16. How will you decide whether the magnetic field at a point is due to some current carrying
Q23. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 6 JT -1 is aligned at 60 ° with uniform external magnetic
conductor or earth?
field of 0.44T. Calculate the work done to align its magnetic moment i) normal to the magnetic
Q16(B). A small magnetised needle P is placed at the origin of x-y plane with its magnetic moment
field ii) opposite to the magnetic field.
pointing along the y-axis. Another identical magnetised needle Q is placed in two positions, one
Q24. A bar magnet of magnetic moment m and moment of inertia I (about centre perpendicular to
by one.
length) is cut into two equal pieces, perpendicular to its length. Let T be the period of oscillations
Case 1: at (a, 0) with its magnetic moment pointing along x-axis.
of the original magnet about an axis through mid-point, perpendicular to the length, in a magnetic
Case 2: at (0, a) with its magnetic moment pointing along y-axis.
field. What would be the similar Time Period T for each piece?
(a) In which case is the potential energy of P and Q minimum?
Q25. On what factors does the pole strength of a magnet depends?
(b) In which case is P and Q not in equilibrium? Justify your answers. (CBSE 2023)
Q26. Show that the time period (T) of oscillations of a freely suspended magnetic dipole of
Q17.The magnetic susceptibility of magnesium at 300K is 1.2 x 105. At what temperature will its
magnetic moment (m) in a uniform magnetic field (B) is given by T= 2 𝜋√𝐼/𝑀𝐵, where I is a
magnetic susceptibility become 1.44 x 105? (CBSE 2019)
moment of inertia of the magnetic dipole. (CBSE 2019)
Q18. Show diagrammatically the behaviour of magnetic field lines in the presence of
(i) paramagnetic and

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 172 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 173 of 484
Q27. For a magnetising field of intensity 2 x 103 𝐴𝑚−1 , aluminium at 280 K acquires intensity of Q34. Assertion If the path of a charged particle in a region of uniform electric and magnetic field
−1
magnetisation of 4.8 x 10-2 𝐴𝑚 ,. If the temperature of the metal is raised to 320 K, what will be is not a circle, then its kinetic energy will not remain constant.
the intensity of magnetisation? Reason In a combined electric and magnetic field region, a moving charge experiences a net force
5 MARK QUESTIONS F = qE+ q(v × B), where symbols have their usual meanings.
Q28. (a) Two magnets of magnetic moments m and √3m are joined to form a cross (+).The Q35. Assertion If we increase the current sensitivity of a galvanometer by increasing the number
combination is suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field. In equilibrium position the magnet of turns, its voltage sensitivity also increases.
of magnetic moment m makes an angle 𝜃 with the field. Find 𝜃. Reason Resistance of a wire also increases with N.
(b) A coil of N turns and radius R carries a current I It is unwound and rewound to make another Q36. Assertion When a magnetic dipole is placed in a non uniform magnetic field, only a torque
coil of radius R/2, current I remaining the same. Calculate the ratio of magnetic moments of the acts on the dipole.
new coil and the original coil. (CBSE 2012, 2015) Reason Force would not act on dipole if magnetic field were non uniform.
Q29. A small compass needle of magnetic moment ‘m’ is free to turn about an axis perpendicular Q37. Assertion Galvanometer can as such be used as an ammeter to measure the value of the
to the direction of uniform magnetic field ‘B’. The moment of inertia of the needle about the axis current in given circuit
is ‘I’. The needle is slightly disturbed from its stable position and then released. Prove that it Reason It gives a full-scale deflection for a current of the order of ampere.
executes simple harmonic motion. Hence deduce the expression for its time period. Q38. Assertion Diamagnetic materials can exhibit magnetism.
(CBSE 2013) Reason Diamagnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moments.

Assertion and Reason Type Questions Q39. Assertion Paramagnetic materials can exhibit magnetism.
Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) are as given below Reason Paramagnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moments.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false. Q40. MAGNETIC BEHAVIOUR OF MATERIALS

Before nineteenth century, scientists believed that magnetic properties were confined to a few
Q30. Assertion Steady current is the only source of magnetic field.
materials like iron, cobalt and nickel. But in 1846, Curie and Faraday discovered that all the
Reason Only moving charge can create magnetic field.
materials in the universe are magnetic to some extent. These magnetic substances are categorized
Q31. Assertion A magnetic field does not interact with a stationary charge.
into two groups. Weak magnetic materials are called diamagnetic and paramagnetic materials.
Reason A moving charge produces a magnetic field.
Strong magnetic materials are called ferromagnetic materials. According to the modern theory of
Q32. Assertion When velocity of electron is perpendicular to B it will perform circular motion.
magnetism, the magnetic response of any material is due to circulating electrons in the atoms. Each
Reason Magnetic force is perpendicular to velocity.
such electron has a magnetic moment in a direction perpendicular to the plane of circulation. In
Q33. Assertion A beam of electrons can pass undeflected through a region of E and B.
magnetic materials all these magnetic moments due to the orbital and spin motion of all the
Reason Force on moving charged particles due to magnetic field may be zero in some cases.
electrons in any atom, vectorially add upto a resultant magnetic moment. The magnitude and
direction of these resultant magnetic moment is responsible for the behaviour of the materials. For

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 174 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 175 of 484
diamagnetic materials X is small and negative and for paramagnetic materials X is small and
positive. Ferromagnetic materials have large X and are characterized by nonlinear relation between The torque on the needle is τ = m x B
B and H. In magnitude τ = mBsinϴ
The magnetic potential energy is given by
Questions: Answer any four of the following
Um = -m.B
1. The universal (or inherent) property among all substances is
1.A bar magnet is held perpendicular to a uniform
(a) Diamagnetism
magnetic field. If the couple acting on a magnet is to be
(b) Paramagnetism
halved, by rotating it, the angle by which it is to be rotated is
(c) Ferromagnetism
(a) 300 (b) 600 (c) 450 (d) 900
(d) Both (a) and (b)
2. The couple acting on a magnet of length 10 cm and pole strength 15 Am, kept in a field of V =
2. When a bar is placed near a strong magnetic field and it is repelled, then the material of
2 x 10-5 T at an angle 300 is
bar is
(a) 1.5 x 10-5 Nm (b) 1.5 x 10-3 Nm © 1.5 x 10-2 Nm (d) 1.5 x 10-6 Nm
a) Diamagnetic
3. The figure below shows the various positions of small
b) Ferromagnetic
magnetised needles P and Q. The arrows show the direction of
c) Paramagnetic
their magnetic moments. Which configuration corresponds to
d) Anti-ferromagnetic
lowest potential energy among all the configurations shown.
3. Magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance
(a) Decreases with temperature
(a) PQ3 (b) PQ4 © PQ5
(b) Is not affected by temperature
(d)PQ6
(c) Increases with temperature
(d) First increases then decreases with temperature
4. Two wires of the same length are shaped into a square and a circle if they carry the same current,
4. The value of the magnetic susceptibility for a super conductor is
ratio of magnetic moments is
(a) Zero (b) Infinity (c) +1 (d) -1
(a) 2 : π (b) π : 2 (c) π : 4 (d) 4 : π
5. Which of the following is weakly repelled by a magnetic field
(a) Iron (b) Cobalt (c) Steel (d) Copper
41. Torque & Potential energy of a Dipole SOURCE BASED QUESTION
The pattern of iron fillings, i.e. the magnetic field lines give us an approximate idea of magnetic 42. Gauss Law of Magnetism
field B. We may at times be required to determine the magnitude of B accurately. This is done by Consider a small area element ∆𝑆 of a closed surface S .The magnetic flux through ∆𝑆 is defined
placing a small compass needle of known magnetic moment m and moment of inertia I and as ∆𝜑𝐵 = B. ∆𝑆 .We divide area element into many small area elements and calculate the individual
allowing it to oscillate in the magnetic field. This arrangement is shown in the fig. flux through each. Then net flux 𝜑𝐵 is
∑ ∆𝜑𝐵= ∑ 𝐵. ∆𝑆 = 0

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 176 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 177 of 484
Compare this with Gauss’s Law of electrostatics. SECTION C - ANSWERS
1. (a) 0.4 Nm
The flux through a closed surface in that case is
2. (c) is zero, otherwise there would be a field falling as 1/r3 at large distances outside the toroid.
∑ 𝐵. ∆𝑆 = q/∈𝑜 3.(d). Equal
Where q is electric charge enclosed by the surface. 4. (b) 3270 C
𝑥 1 𝑇2
The difference between Gauss Law of magnetism =
𝑥 2 𝑇1
and that for electrostatics is a reflection of the fact 𝑥1 𝑇2
=
that isolated magnetic poles (monopoles) are not known to exist. There are no sources or sinks of 0.5 𝑥1 273 + 27
B: the simplest magnetic element is a dipole or a current loop. All magnetic phenomena can be 𝑇2 = 600 𝐾 = 600 − 273 = 3270 C
2
explained in terms of arrangement of dipoles and /or current loops. “The net magnetic flux through 5.(b) Am -1
3

any closed surface is zero”. Here 𝑀1 = 8 𝐴𝑚−1 and 𝐵1 = 0.6 T

𝑇1 = 4 𝐾 , 𝐵2 = 0.2 T, 𝑇2 = 16 𝐾
1. Statement 1 : We cannot separate the poles of a magnet by breaking it into 2 pieces Statement Then for Paramagnetic materials, Magnetisation, M = (CB/T) from Curies law
2 : Magnetic monopoles do not exist Now in first case ,
𝐶𝐵1
a) Both the statements are correct 𝑀1 =
𝑇1
b) Only statement 1 is correct
secondly
c) Only statement 2 is correct 𝐶𝐵2
𝑀2 =
d) Both are wrong 𝑇2
2. From Gauss’s Law in magnetism we can conclude that 𝑀1 𝐵
= 𝐵1 𝑥
𝑇2
𝑀2 2 𝑇1
a) ∑ 𝐵. ∆𝑆 = q/∈𝑜 𝑀1
= (0.6/0.2) x (16/4)
𝑀2
b) Monopoles do not exist 8
= 3𝑥4
c) Electric charges exist as monopoles 𝑀2
d) Current loop is the source of magnetism 2
Hence 𝑀2 = Am -1
3
3. Which of the following is true? 6.(𝑑)𝐵𝑜𝑡ℎ 𝑊𝐴 𝑚−1 and 𝑁𝐴−2
−1

a) Magnetic flux through a closed surface is zero 7. (d) Attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly.
b) Magnetic field lines are non-intersecting
1 MARK
c) Magnetic monopoles do not exist
8. When a bar magnet of magnetic moment (M = m2L) is cut into two equal pieces transverse to
d) All the above
its length, its (i) the pole strength remains unchanged ii) the magnetic moment is halved.
4. The surface integral of magnetic field over a closed surface is equal to
9. µ is < 1 and > 0, so magnetic material is diamagnetic.
a) Zero b) q/∈𝑜 c) total electric flux d) current loop 10. Iron is a ferromagnetic substance while and copper is diamagnetic, the susceptibility of iron is
much larger.
**********

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 178 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 179 of 484
11. The magnetic field lines prefer to pass through iron than air because the permeability of iron 𝑥1
𝑇2 = 𝑇1
𝑥2
is much larger than air.
12. Two Characteristics Properties 1.2 × 105
= 𝑋 300 = 250 𝐾
1.44 × 105
● High magnetic susceptibility
18. This distinguishing feature is because of the difference in their relative permeability. Relative
● High permeability
permeability is the ratio of the permeability of a specific medium to the permeability of free space.
2 MARKS
The relative permeability of diamagnetic substance is less than 1, so the magnetic lines of force do
13. The magnetic moment of each half bar magnet is M /2 but oppositely directed, so net not prefer passing through the substance whereas the relative permeability of paramagnetic

magnetic moment of combination

𝑀
-
𝑀
=0 (zero). substance.
2 2

14. According to Gauss’s Law in magnetism, the net magnetic flux through a closed surface is
Zero. It signifies that in magnetism, isolated monopoles do not exist.
15. M = mL
New magnetic moment is M’ = m (2R)
Relation between R and L
πR=L 19.The material which has relative permeabilities slightly greater one are paramagnetic whereas
R = L/ π the material which has relative permeabilities slightly lesser than one are diamagnetic.
M’= m (2L/ π)
A → Paramagnetic
16(A). Place a compass needle at the given point .If it stays in the North-South direction, then the
B → Diamagnetic
magnetic field is due to earth. If the needle points along any direction other than North –South,
then the field is due to some current carrying conductor. If the current is switched off, the needle 3 MARKS
will orient itself along the North-South direction. 20. (i) Direction of magnetic moment M of the current loop is perpendicular to the plane of the
16 (B). (a) Case-1 because for lowest potential energy configuration, magnetic moment should be paper and directed inward. (ii) Torque acting on the current loop is a) maximum when M is
parallel. perpendicular to B b) minimum when M is parallel to B.
(b) Case-2 because stability is inversely proportional to potential energy. 21. (i) Magnetic field lines start from a North Pole and end on a South Pole. ii) Magnetic field
17. The susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance is inversely proportional to the absolute lines form closed loops iii) Magnetic field lines do not intersect each other.
temperature. X ∝ 1/T. 22. 𝜏 = MB sin 𝜃
𝜇0
χ=𝑐
𝑇 𝜏 4𝑋10−2
M= = 0.1𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑛 30
= 0.8 JT-1
𝐵𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
i.e. χ x T = Constant , Given T1 = 300 K
𝑥 1 𝑇2 23. (i) W = MB (cos𝜃1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃2)
=
𝑥 2 𝑇1
= 6 X 0.44 X (cos 60 – cos 90)
= 1.32J

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 180 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 181 of 484
 (ii) W = 6 X 0.44 X (cos 60 – cos 180) 4.8 𝑥 10−2
𝑥1 = = 2.4 x 10-5
2 𝑥 103
= 3.96 J
𝐼
Now, according to the Curie's law, X ∝ 1/T.
24. The time period of oscillation of the magnet is T = 2𝜋√𝑀𝐵
𝑥1 𝑇
𝑥2
= 𝑇2 T2 = 320 K
1
𝑀𝐿2
But I =
12
280
When the bar magnet is cut into 2 equal pieces, perpendicular to its length, then moment of 𝑥2 = x 2.4 x 10-5 = 2.1×10-5
320
inertia of each piece of magnet about an axis perpendicular to length, passing through its centre is

𝑀(𝐿/2)2 𝑀𝐿2 1
Now, the intensity of magnetisation,
I’ = =
12𝑋 2 12 8 𝐼2 = 𝑋2 𝐻2
Also, magnetic dipole moment M’=M/2 Since, H is independent of the temperature, i.e. 𝐻1 = 𝐻2
𝐼′ 𝐼 𝐼2 = (2.1×10-5 ) x (2 x 103) = 4.2 x 10-2 2 𝐴𝑚−1
Its time period of oscillation is T’ = 2𝜋√𝑀′𝐵 =𝜋√𝑀𝐵

25. The pole strength of a magnet depends on i) its area of cross section ii) nature of its material 5 MARKS
iii) its state of magnetisation
28. Consider a magnetic dipole (or a bar magnet) SN of length 2l having South Pole at S and North
26. 𝜏 = MB sin 𝜃
Pole at N. The strength of south and north poles are – qm and + qm respectively.
Also 𝜏 = I𝛼
Magnetic moment of magnetic dipole m = qm 2l, its direction is from S to N.
MB sin 𝜃 = I𝛼
Consider a point P on the axis of magnetic dipole at a distance r from mid-point O of dipole.
MB 𝜃 = I𝛼 for small angle
The distance of point P from N-pole, r1= (r – l).
𝑀𝐵𝜃
𝛼 = The distance of point P from S-pole, r2= (r + l)
𝐼

But 𝛼 = 𝜔2 𝜃
Let B1 and B2 be the magnetic field intensities at point P due to north and south poles respectively.
𝑀𝐵
So 𝜔 = √ The directions of magnetic field due to North Pole is away from N-pole and due to South Pole is
𝐼
towards the S-pole. Therefore,
2𝜋 𝐼
T= = 2𝜋√
𝜔 𝑀𝐵 𝜇0 𝑞𝑚
B1 = from N to P and
4𝜋 (𝑟−𝑙)2
27. Given T1 = 280 K
𝜇0 𝑞𝑚
B2 = from P to S
4𝜋 (𝑟+𝑙)2
𝐻1 = 2 x 103 𝐴𝑚−1
𝐼1 = 4.8 x 10-2 𝐴𝑚 −1 B1>B2 and direction of resultant is from N to P and magnitude is given by
𝜇0 2(𝑞𝑚 2𝑙)𝑟
Using the relation, B = B1 - B2 =
4𝜋 (𝑟 2 −𝑙2 )2
𝐼1
𝑥1 =
𝐻1 But qm 2l =M magnetic dipole moment

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 182 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 183 of 484
 𝜇0 2(𝑀 )𝑟 31.(a) Stationary charge doesn't get affected by magnetic field, moving charge creates magnetic
B=
4𝜋 (𝑟 2 −𝑙2 )2
field.
For a short dipole 32.(a) If F⟂V, at all instants then motion will be circular.
𝜇0 2𝑀 33.(b) For velocity selector the electrons can pass undeflected, when velocity and magnetic field
B=
4𝜋 𝑟 3
are parallel , in that case force can be zero, both are correct but reason is not correct explanation
b. If L is the length of the wire of assertion.
L =N X 2𝜋R = N’ X 2𝜋R/2 34.(a) F = q E+ q(v × B) this is called Lorentz force.
𝑞𝐸
No of turns in the new coil N’ = 2N Due to electric field, acceleration a = , hence velocity will not remain constant.
𝑚

Original magnetic moment = M = NIA = NI X 𝜋R2 𝜙 𝑁𝐴𝐵

35.(c) current sensitivity 𝐼𝑠 = =
𝐼 𝑘
New magnetic moment M’ = N’ I A’ = 2NI X (𝜋 R/2)2 𝑁𝐴𝐵
voltage sensitivity 𝑉𝑆 =
𝑘𝑅
M’/M =1/2
𝐼𝑆
29. If magnetic compass of dipole moment m is placed at angle θ in uniform magnetic field, and 𝑉𝑠 =
𝑅

released it experiences a restoring torque 36. (d) In a non-uniform magnetic field both the torque and force will act.
37. (d) Galvanometer is used to detect the direction of current in a circuit, it gives full scale
Restoring torque, 𝜏 = – magnetic force × perpendicular distance = – qmB. (2a sin θ), deflection to the current of microampere range.
τ = – mB sin θ, where qm = pole strength, m = qm.2a (magnetic moment) 38.(c) Diamagnetic materials get repelled in magnetic fields so they exhibit magnetism but they
Negative sign shows that restoring torque acts in the opposite direction to that of don't have unpaired electrons so we can say that they don't have dipole moment.
defecting torque. In equilibrium, the equation of motion 39.(a) Paramagnetic materials have unpaired electrons so they exhibit magnetism.
𝑑2 𝜃
I = MB𝜃 as 𝜃 is very small
𝑑𝑡2

𝑑2 𝜃 𝑀𝐵 Case Study Based Question

=- 𝜃
𝑑𝑡2 𝐼
40. 1.(a) Diamagnetism
𝑑2 𝜃
= − 𝜔2 𝜃 𝛼 = -𝜔 2 𝜃
𝑑𝑡2 2.(a) Diamagnetic
It represents the simple harmonic motion with angular frequency 𝜔 3.(b) is not affected by temperature
Expression for Time period: 4.(d) -1
𝑀𝐵
We have, 𝜔2 = - 5.(d) Copper
𝐼
2𝜋 41. 1.(b) 600
But T = =2𝜋 √𝐼/𝑀𝐵
𝜔
2.(a) 1.5 x 10-5 Nm
Assertion and Reason 3.(d) PQ6

30.(d) moving charge, electron, current carrying wire, naturally occurring magnet all these can 4.(c) π : 4

create magnetic field.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 184 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 185 of 484
 Source Based QUESTION BANK
42.1. (a) Both the statements are correct CHAPTER: ELCTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION & ALTERNATING CURRENT
2. (b) Monopoles do not exist
3. (d) All the above
Section A
4. (a) Zero
1 Mark Questions
Q1. A coil of N turns and area A is rotated at the rate of n rotations per second in a magnetic field

********** of intensity B, the magnitude of the maximum magnetic flux will be

(a)NAB (b)nAB (c) NnAB (d) 2nNAB
Q2. In electromagnetic induction, the induced e.m.f. in a coil is independent of
(a)Change in the flux (b) Time (c)Resistance of the circuit (d) none of the above
Q3. Lenz's law is consequence of the law of conservation of
(a)Charge (b) Momentum (c) Mass (d) Energy
Q4. A metallic ring is attached with the wall of a room. When the north pole of a magnet is brought
near to it, the induced current in the ring will be

S
a
N

(a) First clockwise then anticlockwise (b) In clockwise direction

(c) In anticlockwise direction (d)First anticlockwise then clockwise
Q5. Lenz’s law is expressed by the following formula (here e = induced e.m.f.,  = magnetic flux
in one turn and N = number of turns)
d  
(a) e = −
dN
(b) e = −N (c) e = − d   (d) e = N d 
dt dt dt  N  dt

Q6. A moving conductor coil in a magnetic field produces an induced e.m.f. This is in accordance
with
(a) Amperes law (b) Coulomb law (c) Lenz’s law (d) Faraday’s law
Q7. The self-inductance of a coil is 5 henry, a current of 1 amp change to 2 amp within 5 second
through the coil. The value of induced e.m.f. will be

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 186 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 187 of 484
(a) 10 volt (b) 0.10 volt (c)1.0 volt (d) 100 volt Q13. Assertion : Magnetic flux can produce induced e.m.f.
Q8. The self-inductance of a solenoid of length L, area of cross-section A and having N turns is Reason: Lenz established induced e.m.f. experimentally.
0 N A2
 0 NA Q14. Assertion : An induced emf is generated when magnet is withdrawn from the solenoid.
(a) (b) (c) 0 N 2 LA (d)  0 NAL
L L
Reason: The relative motion between magnet and solenoid induces emf.
Q9. A magnet is brought towards a coil (i) speedily (ii) slowly, then the induced e.m.f will be
Q15. Assertion : A transformer cannot work on dc supply.
respectively
Reason: dc changes neither in magnitude nor in direction.
(a) More in first case and more in first case
Q16. Assertion : . EMF induce in coil when flux link with coil changes
(b) More in first case and equal in both case
Reason: It induce to oppose the cause which produce It
(c) Less in first case and more in second case
Q17. Assertion : Magnetic flux link with coil is directly proportional to current.
(d) Less in first case and equal in both case
Reason: Self-inductance will not play any role in linking of magnetic flux with coil.
Q10. The direction of induced e.m.f. during electromagnetic induction is given by Q18. Assertion : Lenz law is based on conservation of energy.
(a) Faraday's law (b) Lenz's law (c) Maxwell's law (d) Ampere's law Reason : Constant current is able to induce emf in coil.
Q11. The unit of magnetic flux is Q19. What is the SI unit of magnetic flux?
(a) weber/m2 (b) Weber (c)Henry (d) Ampere/m Q20. What is Faraday law electromagnetic induction?
Q12. Two circular coils can be arranged in any of the three situations shown in the figure. Their mutual
2-Marks Questions
inductance will be
Q21. State and Explain Lenz’s law?
Q22. What are the factors on which self-inductance depends?

3-Marks Questions
(A) (B) (C)
Q23. Define the coefficient of self-inductance (L). Write its unit. Write the two factors on which
(a) Maximum in situation (A) (b) Maximum in situation (B) the self-inductance of along solenoid depends.
(c) Maximum in situation (C) (d) The same in all situations Q24. Figure shows planar loops of different shapes
moving out of or into a region of a magnetic field
Assertion Reason Questions which is directed normal to the plane of the loop
Directions: (a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the away from the reader. Determine the direction of
assertion. induced current in each loop using Lenz’s law.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the Q25. Obtain an expression for the self-inductance of a long solenoid. Hence define one henry.
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false. **********

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 188 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 189 of 484
 Section A when Lenz law is applied to it, it will be

Answer Key E ∝ -dΦ/dt where a negative sign shows the opposing nature of induced emf. It is based on
1 (a) Since  = NBA cos ; For  to be maximum; cos = max = 1 so max = NBA. the principle of conservation of energy.
d 22. L = (μ0 N2 A) / l
2. (c) Because induced e.m.f. is given by E = −N .
dt
• It depends on number of turns N
3. (d) The energy of the field increases with the magnitude of the field. Lenz’s law infers that
• It depends on area of cross section A
there is an opposite field created due to increase or decrease of magnetic flux around a
conductor so as to hold the law of conservation of energy. • Permeability of core material μ0

4. (c) As it is seen from the magnet side induced current will be anticlockwise. 23. From self-induction, we know that if I is the strength of the current flowing through a coil at
5. (b) any time ϕ is amount of magnetic flux linked with the coil at that time.

6. (d) It is found that

di 1 ϕ ∝ I, ϕ α LI …(i)
7. (c) e = −L  e = 5  = 1 volt
dt 5
L is a constant of proportionality and is called coefficient of self induction or self inductance of
8. (a) the coil.
9. The magnitude of induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic
volt sec
flux. Induced charge doesn’t depend upon time. S.I Unit
Amp
or Henry

10. (b) The value of L depends upon the number of turn of the coil, area of cross-section and nature of
11. (b) material of the core on which coil is wound.
12. (a) As maximum linkage of magnetic flux is possible in A situation . 24. (i) The magnetic flux through the rectangular loop abcd increases, due to the motion of the loop
13. (d) E.M.F. induces, when there is change in magnetic flux. Faraday did experiment in which, into the region of magnetic field, The induced current must flow along the path bcdab so that
there is relative motion between the coil and magnet, the flux linked with the coil changes it opposes the increasing flux.
and e.m.f. induces.
(ii) Due to the outward motion, magnetic flux through the triangular loop abc decreases due to
14. (a) as there is relative motion between solenoid and magnet gives change in flux
which the induced current flows along bacb, so as to oppose the change in flux.
15. (a) Transformer works on ac only, ac changes in magnitude as well as in direction.
(iii) As the magnetic flux decreases due to motion of the irregular shaped loop abcd out of the
16. (a)
region of magnetic field, the induced current flows along cdabc, so as to oppose change in
17. (c)
flux.
18 (c)
Note that there are no induced current as long as the loops are completely inside or outside the
19. The SI unit of magnetic flux is weber or tesla – metre region of the magnetic field.
20. Whenever the magnetic flux linked with an electric circuit changes an e.m.f. is induced in
25. Consider current I flowing through a long solenoid of area A,
the circuit. The phenomenon is called electromagnetic induction.
Let N be the total number of turns in the solenoid,
21. The direction of induced current due to the change in magnetic flux through a closed-loop is
Total flux, ϕ=NBA
always such that it opposes the change or cause which produces it.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 190 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 191 of 484
Here, B=μ0nI SECTION B
Where, n is no. of turns per unit length of the solenoid, N=nl 1-Mark Questions
ϕ=nl×μ0nIA Q1. A coil of area 100 cm2 has 500 turns and magnetic field of 0.1 Wb/m2 is perpendicular to the
⇒ϕ=μ0n2AlI ........ (1) coil. The field is reduced to zero in 0.1 second. The induced e.m.f. in the coil is
Also, ϕ=LI ........ (2) (a) 1 V (b) 5 V (c) 50 V (d) Zero
From equation (1) & (2)
Q2. A coil of area A = 2 m2 is situated in a uniform magnetic field B = √3.0 wb/m2 and area vector
Iμ0n2Al=LI makes an angle of 30o with respect to the magnetic field as shown in figure. The value of the
L=μ0n2Al magnetic flux through the area A would be equal to →
A
B
L=μ0N2A where (n=N/l)
3 60o
One henry(1H) can be defined as: If current is changing at a rate of 1A/s in a coil inducing an emf (a) 2 weber (b)1 weber (c)3 weber (d) weber
2
of 1volt in it, then the inductance of the coil is one henry. Q3. In the diagram shown if a bar magnet is moved along the common axis of two single turn coils
A and B in the direction of arrow A B

(a) Current is induced only in A & not in B

N S
(b) Induced currents in A & B are in the same direction
*************** (c) Current is induced only in B and not in A
(d) Induced currents in A & B are in opposite directions
Q4. Magnetic flux  (in weber) linked with a closed circuit of resistance 10 ohm varies with time

t (in seconds) as  = 5t 2 − 4 t + 1
The induced electromotive force in the circuit at t = 0.2 sec. is
(a) 0.4 volts (b) – 0.4 volts (c)– 2.0 volts (d) 2.0 volts

ASSERTION AND REASON

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 192 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 193 of 484
Q5. Assertion : The induced e.m.f. will be same and current will be different in two identical Rear side

1
loops of copper and aluminium, when rotated with same speed in the same magnetic field. S N S N
v 2 v
Reason : Induced e.m.f. is proportional to rate of change of magnetic field while induced current
Observer
Front side
depends on resistance of wire.
(a) Plate 1 will be negative and plate 2 positive
Q6. Assertion: In the phenomenon of mutual induction, self-induction of each of the coils persists.
(b) Plate 1 will be positive and plate 2 negative
Reason: Self-induction arises when strength of current in same coil changes. In mutual induction,
(c) Both the plates will be positive
current is changing in both the individual coils.
(d) Both the plates will be negative
Q7. Assertion : Only a change in magnetic flux will maintain an induced current the coil.
Q10. A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of length l = 1.0 m is situated in a uniform
Reason : The presence of large magnetic flux through a coil maintains a current in the coil.
magnetic field B = 2T perpendicular to the plane of loop. Resistance of connector is r = 2. Two
Q8. A horizontal loop abcd is moved across the pole pieces of a magnet as shown in fig. with a
resistance of 6 and 3 are connected as shown in figure. The external force required to keep the
constant speed v. When the edge ab of the loop enters the pole pieces at time t = 0 sec. Which one
connector moving with a constant velocity v = 2m/s is
of the following graphs represents correctly the induced emf in the coil
(a) 6N (b) 4 N 

6 v
(c) 2N (d) 1 N 3

c b N
Q11. What is the principle used in the A.C. generator?
v
d a
2-Marks Questions
S
Q12. Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lying on a table without touching each other.
Loop-A carries a current which increases with time. Then what type of force is present between
e e them?
Q13. If a square loop of conducting material is moved with a constant velocity fully inside a
(a) (b)
O t O t uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the field, will the current be induced in it?
e 3-Marks Questions
Q14. Current in a circuit falls from 5.0A to 0.0A in 0.1s. If an average emf of 200V induced, give
e
an estimate of the self-inductance of the circuit.
(b) (d)
O
Q15. What is mutual induction. Derive an expression for mutual induction between two coils.
t
O t **********

Q9. The north and south poles of two identical magnets approach a coil, containing a condenser,
with equal speeds from opposite sides. Then

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 194 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 195 of 484
 Section B (Answer Key) 4
Current through the connector i = 2 + 2 = 1 A
N (B 2 − B1 ) A cos 
1. (b) e=−
t
magnetic force on connector Fm = Bil = 2  1  1 = 2 N (Towards left)
500  (0 − 0 .1)  100  10 −4 cos 0
=− = 5V
0 .1 11. In A.C. generator uses the principle of electromagnetic induction which states that when the
2.(b) Angle between normal to the plane of the coil and direction of magnetic field is  coil is rotated in a uniform magnetic field so that the flux through its continuous changes, an emf
is induced in it.
 Flux linked with coil  = BA cos = √3.0 × 2 × cos 30o   = 3 weber
12. As current In A is increasing in clock wise direction then current induce in b in anticlockwise
3. (d) direction it seems to be the current each section of both conductor is anti-parallel hence they will
d repel each other.
4. (d) e=− = −(10 t − 4 )  (e)t = 2 = −(10  0.2 − 4) = 2 volt
dt
13.If a loop of conducting material is moved with a constant velocity well inside a uniform
5. (a) Since both the loops are identical (same area and number of turns) and moving with a same
magnetic field perpendicular to the field, there will not be induced current in it because to induce
speed in same magnetic field. Therefore same emf is induced in both the coils. But the induced
a current, emf induced depends upon the rate of change of magnetic flux linked with it. In this
current will be more in the copper loop as its resistance will be lesser as compared to that of the
case, flux through the loop remains constant. Hence there will be no induced current in the loop.
aluminium loop.
14. Given that, initial current, I1=5.0A
6. (b) Mutual inductance is the phenomenon according to which an opposing e.m.f. produce flux
Final current, I2=0.0A
in a coil as a result of change in current or magnetic flux linked with a neighboring coil. But when
Change in current, dI=I1−I2=5A
two coils are inductively coupled, in addition to induced e.m.f. produced due to mutual induction,
Time taken for the change, t=0.1s
also induced e.m.f. is produced in each of the two coils due to self-induction.
Average emf, e=200V
7. (c) Presence of magnetic flux cannot produce current. For self-inductance (L) of the coil, we have the relation for average emf as,
8. (d) When loop enters in field between the pole pieces, flux linked with the coil first increases 𝑑𝐼
e=L
𝑑𝑡
(constantly) so a constant emf induces, when coil entered completely within the field, no flux
𝑒 5
L= =200/
change so e = 0. When coil exit out, flux linked with the coil decreases, hence again emf induces, 𝑑𝐼/𝑑𝑡 0.1

but in opposite direction. Therefore, the self-induction of the coil is 4H

9. (b) The direction of induce current is 2 to 1 hence electron will move from 1 to 2 hence 1 is 15 Let us consider two long co-axial solenoids each of
positive and 2 is negative length l, as shown in figure. Let the radius of the inner
10. (c) Motional emf e = Bvl  e = 2  2  1 = 4 V solenoid S1 be r1 and the number of turns per unit length by
This acts as a cell of emf E=4 V and internal resistance r = 2 . n1. Let the corresponding quantities for the outer solenoid

This simple circuit can be drawn as follows S2 are r2 and n2, respectively.

4V 4V
6 3  2
2 2

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 196 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 197 of 484
Let N1 and N2 be the total number of turns of coils S1 and S2, respectively. When a current I 2 is SECTION C
set up through S2, it in turn sets up a magnetic flux through S1. Let us denote it by Φ1. 1-MARK QUESTIONS

The corresponding flux linkage with solenoid S1 is given by, Q1. In electromagnetic induction, the induced charge in a coil is independent of
(a) Change in the flux (b)Time (c)Resistance in the circuit (d) None of the above
N1Φ1 = M12 I2 ...........................(1)
Q2. A coil of 40  resistance has 100 turns and radius 6 mm is connected to ammeter of resistance
M12 is called the mutual inductance of solenoid S1 with respect to solenoid S2.
of 160 ohms. Coil is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field. When coil is taken out of the field,
It is also referred to as the coefficient of mutual induction.
32  C charge flows through it. The intensity of magnetic field will be
The magnetic field due to the current I2 in S2 is μ0 n2 I2. The resulting flux linkage with coil
S1 is, (a) 6.55 T (b) 5.66 T (c) 0.655 T (d) 0.566 T
N1Φ1 = ( n1 l) ( π r1 ) ( μo n2 I2) = [ μo n1 n2 π r1 l ] I2 ..................(2)
2 2 Q3. A coil having n turns and resistance R  is connected with a galvanometer of resistance 4 R
where ( n1 l) is the total number of turns in solenoid S1. Thus, from Eq. (1) and Eq. (2), we get
. This combination is moved in time t seconds from a magnetic field W1 weber to W2 weber. The
M12 = μ0 n1 n2 π r12 l
induced current in the circuit is
We now consider the reverse case. A current I1 is passed through the solenoid S1 and the flux
W2 − W1
linkage with (a) − (b) − n(W2 − W1 ) (c) − (W2 − W1 ) (d) −
n(W2 − W1 )
coil S2 is, 5 Rnt 5 Rt Rnt Rt

N2Φ2 = M21 I1 Q4. An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an uniform magnetic field B directed along
M21 is called the mutual inductance of solenoid S2 with respect to solenoid S1. positive z axis. The direction of induced current as seen from the z axis will be
As done in previous case, we can also get the relation for M21 as (a) Clockwise of the +ve z axis

M21 = μ0 n1 n2 π r1 l 2 (b) Anticlockwise of the +ve z axis

Hence if the two solenoid coils are of equal length, then M12 = M21 = M = μ0 n1 n2 π r12 l (c) Zero
(d) Along the magnetic field
Q5. A coil has an area of 0.05 m2 and it has 800 turns. It is placed perpendicularly in a magnetic
********
−5
field of strength 4  10 Wb / m , it is rotated through 90 o in 0.1 sec. The average e.m.f. induced
2

in the coil is
(a) 0.056 V (b) 0.046 V (c) 0.026 V (d) 0.016 V

ASSERTION AND REASON

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 198 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 199 of 484
Q6. Assertion: The quantity L/R possesses dimensions of time. (a) Zero (b) BR 2 / 2 and M is at higher potential
Reason : To reduce the rate of increases of current through a solenoid should increase the time (c) RBV and Q is at higher potential (d) 2RBV and Q is at higher potential
constant (L/R). Q11. A conducting rod of length 2l is rotating with constant angular speed  about its
Q7. Assertion : When two coils are wound on each other, the mutual induction between the coils perpendicular bisector. A uniform magnetic field B exists parallel to the axis of rotation. The e.m.f.
is maximum. induced between two ends of the rod is
Reason: Mutual induction does not depend on the orientation of the coils. 1
(a) Bl2 (b) B l 2 (c) 1 B l 2 (d) none of these
2 8
Q8. The variation of induced emf (E) with time (t) in a coil if a short bar magnet is moved along
2-MARKS QUESTONS
its axis with a constant velocity is best represented as

S N
12. The magnetic field through a circular loop of wire, 12cm in radius and 8.5Ω resistance,
changes with time as shown in the figure. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of
E
E the loop. Calculate the current induced in the loop .
(a) (b)
t
t

(c) (d)E
E

t
t
Q9. The graph gives the magnitude B(t) of a uniform magnetic field that exists throughout a
conducting loop, perpendicular to the plane of the loop. Rank the five regions of the graph 13. A short solenoid of radius a, number of turns per unit length n, and length L is kept coaxially
according to the magnitude of the emf induced in the loop, greatest first inside a very long solenoid of radius b, number of turns per unit length n. What is the mutual
(a) b > (d = e) < (a = c) (b) b > (d = e) > (a = c) B
inductance of the system?
(c) b < d < e < c < a (d) b > (a = c) > (d = e)
3-Marks Questions
t
a b c d e
Q14. A conducting rod PQ of length L = 1.0 m is moving with a P
× × × ×

uniform speed v = 2 m/s in a uniform magnetic field B = 4 .0 T × × × × ×

Q10. A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius R is falling with its plane A
v
  
N
 
directed into the paper. A capacitor of capacity C = 10 F is B× × × × ×
vertical in a horizontal magnetic induction B. At the position MNQ, the speed     × × × × ×

    
connected as shown in figure. Find the charge store in capacitor. Q
of the ring is V and the potential difference developed across the ring is V
    
M Q

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 200 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 201 of 484
Q15. A conducting rod rotates with angular speed w with one end at the centre and other end at SECTION C (ANS KEY)
circumference of a circular metallic ring of radius R, about an axis passing through the centre of 1-Marks Questions
the coil perpendicular to the plane of the coil A constant magnetic field B parallel to the axis is d
1.(b) We know that e=
dt
present everywhere shown in fig. Show that the emf. between the centre
d d
and the metallic ring is
1
BwR2 But e=iR and i=
dq

dq
R=  dq =
2 dt dt dt R

Q16. What is mean by Self Induction. Derive an expression for self- 2. (d) q=−
N
(B2 − B1 )A cos 
R
inductance which shows that it is not depend upon emf and current induce in It.
32  10 −6 = −
100
(0 − B )    (6  10 − 3 )2  cos 0 o
Q17. A wire cd of length l and mass m is sliding without friction on conducting rails ax and by as (160 + 40 )
shown. The vertical rails are connected to each other with a resistance R between a and b. A uniform  B = 0.565 T

magnetic field B is applied perpendicular to the plane abcd such that cd moves Rwith a constant e − N ( 2 − 1 ) −n(W2 − W1 )
3. (b) i= = =
a b R R t 5 Rt
velocity v.Find the required velocity
l
c d 4. (c) Since the magnetic field is uniform therefore there will be no change in flux hence no
x y current will be induced.
NBA (cos  2 − cos 1 )
Q18. The network shown in the figure is a part of a complete circuit. If at a certain instant the 5. (d) e=−
t
3
current i is 5 A and is decreasing at the rate of 10 A / s then find VA − VB is 800  4  10 −5  0 .05 (cos 90 o − cos 0 o )
=− = 0.016 V
0 .1
A B
1 15 V 5mH 6. (b) The relation of induced emf is e=
Ldi
and current i is given by i=
e 1 L.di
= . 
dt R R dt

di R i
*************** =i = .
dt L L/R

In order to decreases the rate of increase of current through solenoid. We have to increase the time
L
constant .
R

7. (c) The manner in which the two coils are oriented, determines the coefficient of coupling
between them.
M = K 2 .L1 L2

When the two coils are wound on each other, the coefficient of coupling is maximum and hence
mutual inductance between the coil is maximum.
8. (b) As the magnet moves towards the coil, the magnetic flux increases (nonlinearly). Also
there is a change in polarity of induced emf when the magnet passes on to the other side of the
coil.
B
dB B C
9. (b) Induced emf e=A
dt
A D
t
a b c d e
Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 202 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 203 of 484
 i.e. e
dB
(= slope of B – t graph) the ends of the rod. At a certain value of emf, there is no more flow of electrons and a steady state
dt
is reached. Using Eq. (6.5), the magnitude of the emf generated across a length dr of the rod as it
In the given graph slope of AB > slope of CD, slope in the ‘a’ region = slope in the ‘c’ region = 0,
moves at right angles to the magnetic field is given by
slope in the ‘d’ region = slope in the ‘e’ region 0. That’s why b  (d = e)  (a = c)
R
10. (d) Rate of decrease of area of the semicircular ring −
dA
= (2 R ) V     
dE = BV dr . Hence E=∫ dE = ∫ BVdr = ∮0 BVdr
dt N
   

According to Faraday's law of induction induced emf      V= ωr

    
d dA
e=− =−B = − B (2 RV ) vt R BωR2
dt dt M
2R
Q E= Bω ∮0 r dr =
2
The induced current in the ring must generate magnetic field in the upward direction. Thus Q is at
16. Coefficient of Self-Induction
higher potential.
11.(d) Potential difference between Consider current I flowing through a long solenoid of area A,
1
O and A is V0 − V A = Bl 2  
2 Let N be the total number of turns in the solenoid,
1 2
O and B is V0 − V B = Bl  Total flux, ϕ=NBA
2

A B
so VA − VB = 0 O
Here, B=μ0nI

Where, n is no. of turns per unit length of the solenoid

2-MARKS QUESTIONS N=nl ⇒ϕ=nl×μ0nIA
12. .ε = --dφ/dt
⇒ϕ=μ0n2AlI ........(1)Also,
ε = --d(BA)/dt
ε = --AdB/dt ϕ=LI........(2)

0<t<2 I= -- (3.14x 0.12x0.12x1)/2x 8.5= --0.0026A From equation (1) & (2) μ0n2Al=L ⇒L=μ0n2Al
2<t<4 I=0
L=μ0N2A / l --- this equation show that it is independent on emf and current
4<t<6 I=0.0026A
13. M= μ0n1n2πa2L  Bvl  B 2 vl 2
17. (b) Due to magnetic field, wire will experience an upward force F = Bil = B  l F=
R  R  R
3-Marks Questions a b
If wire slides down with constant velocity then
14. Q = CV = C (Bvl) = 10  10– 6  4  2  1 = 80 C B 2 vl 2 mgR
c
l
d
F = mg  = mg  v = 2 2
R B l y
According to Fleming's right hand rule induced current flows from Q to P. Hence P is at higher x

potential and Q is at lower potential. Therefore A is positively charged and B is negatively charged. 18. (c) By using Kirchoff’s voltage law
1 15 V 5 mH
di
15. As the rod is rotated, free electrons in the rod move towards the outer end due to Lorentz force VA − i R + E − L = VB  VB − V A = 15 volt . A B
dt
and get distributed over the ring. Thus, the resulting separation of charges produces an emf across ************

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 204 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 205 of 484
 QUESTION BANK
Assertion & Reasoning
CHAPTER: ALTERNATING CURRENT
(A) Assertion A and reason R are both true and R is the correct explanation of A
TOPICS COVERED: Alternating currents, peak and rms value of alternating
(B) Assertion A and reason R are both true but R is not the correct explanation of A
current/ voltage, reactance and impedance.
(C) Assertion A is true but reason R is false
SECTION A
(D) Both assertion A and reason R are false
COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS Q4. A: An alternating EMF leads alternating current by phase angle π/2 in a purely inductive
Q1.An alternating current is that whose magnitude changes continuously dc circuit.
with time and direction reverses periodically why the current that R: Inductive reactance decreases when frequency of source increases.
flows with same magnitude in same direction is direct current, Q5. A: Alternating current is more dangerous than direct current.
ac R: Alternating current changes its polarity periodically.
(i)If an ammeter is used to measure alternating current in circuit, which value of current will it Q6. A: A capacitor block dc but allow ac to pass through it.
read R: Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to frequency.
(a) Peak (b) rms (c) Instantaneous (d) Average Q7. A: In an ac circuit having and inductance coil, the frequency of ac is increased, current
(ii) If T is the time period of given alternating current, then how much time it requires to reach its decreases.
peak value starting from zero R: Current is inversely proportional to frequency.
(a)T (b) T/2 (c) T/4 (d) T/8
(iii) What is the average value of alternating current over one complete cycle SA-I (2 MARKS EACH)
(a)0 (b) Io (c) Io/2 (d) Io/4 Q8.(i) Define root mean square value of an alternating current.
(iv)For a 220 V mains of alternating voltage peak value will be……………………… (ii) Write the relation between peak and root mean square value of alternating current.
220 V b)220/ √2 V c) 220 √2 V d) 110 V Q9.The EMF of an AC source is given as: Ꜫ = 100 sin 314 t
(v)How will you write an equation to represent alternating voltage with frequency 10 cycles per Find peak value of alternating emf and frequency.
second and amplitude 100? Q10.A light bulb is rated as 50 W for 220 V AC supply of 50 Hz, Calculate resistance of the bulb
Q2. A DC ammeter cannot be used to measure an alternating current because and rms current through the bulb.

(a)DC ammeter will get damage Q11.Draw the graphs showing variation of inductive reactance and capacitive reactance with
(b) average value of AC for complete cycle is zero frequency of applied ac source.
(c) alternating current cannot pass through DC ammeter
(d) alternating current changes its polarity Q12. The reactance of a capacitor at 50 Hz is 10 ohms, if frequency is doubled, then what will be
the value of reactance?
Q3. Why the use of ac voltage is preferred over dc voltage?
SA-II (3 MARKS EACH)
(a) Generation of ac is more economical than dc Q13.What is inductive reactance? If an ac voltage is applied across an inductance L, find an
(b) AC can be stepped up and stepped down
(c) It can be transmitted with lower energy loss expression for the current I flowing in the circuit. Also show the phase relationship between current
(d) All of the above and voltage in a phasor diagram.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 206 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 207 of 484
Q14.What is capacitive reactance? If an ac voltage is applied across a capacitance C, find an ANSWER KEY
expression for the current I flowing in the circuit. Also show the phase relationship between current
SECTION A
and voltage in a phasor diagram.
1.(i) b) rms
Q15.If the frequency of alternating current is tripled, how will it affect resistance R, inductive (ii) c) T/4
reactance XL and capacitive reactance XC? (iii) a) 0
(iv) c) 220 √2 V
Q16.For a given ac circuit, differentiate between resistance, reactance and impedance. (v) Ꜫ = 100 sin 20 π t
LA (5 MARKS) 2. (b) average value of AC for complete cycle is zero
Q17.(a) Differentiate between the term inductive reactance and capacitive reactance of an ac 3. (d) All of the above
circuit.
4. (c) Assertion A is true but reason R is false
(b) If an inductor and a resistor are connected in series in an ac circuit, what will be the
5. (b) Assertion A and reason R are both true but R is not the correct explanation of A
mathematical expression for the impedance of this circuit. How will the impedance get affected
6. (a) Assertion A and reason R are both true and R is the correct explanation of A
when the frequency of applied signal is decreased and why?
7. (a) Assertion A and reason R are both true and R is the correct explanation of A
8. (i) root mean square is that value of current which produces the same heating effect in a given
resistor as is produced by the given alternating current when passed for the same time. It is denoted
by Irms.

ii) Irms = Ipeak / √2 = 0.707 Ipeak

9. peak value of alternating emf = 100 V , for frequency: 2 πf = 314, so f = 50 Hz
10. Resistance of bulb R= V2rms/ P = (220 x 220)/ 50 = 968 ohms
Irms = P / Vrms = 50/220 = 0.227 A
11.

XL XC

f f
12. Capacitive reactance, XC = 1/ w C = 1/ (2 πf C) = 1/ 100 π C
XC, capacitive reactance when frequency is doubled = 1/ (2 π (2f) C) = 1/ 200 π C = XC/ 2
13. Inductive reactance is the opposition offered by the inductor in flow of ac. It is denoted by
XL.
Let Ꜫ = Ꜫo sin w t be the emf of ac source connected with inductor in the circuit

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 208 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 209 of 484
 𝑑𝐼 𝑑𝑄
Then an alternating current flows through the inductor, a back emf – 𝐿 is set up which opposes I= = d (C Ꜫo sin w t)/dt
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
the applied emf.
I = w C Ꜫo cos w t
Net instantaneous emf = Ꜫ − 𝐿 𝑑𝐼/𝑑𝑡
But this emf must be zero because there is no resistance in the circuit I = Io cos wt
𝑑𝐼
So, Ꜫ− 𝐿 =0 I = Io sin (wt + π/2)
𝑑𝑡

dI
Ꜫ=L 15. R remains unaffected, inductive reactance get tripled and capacitive reactance become one
dt
dI
third of the original value
Ꜫo sin w t = L
dt
16.
Ꜫo
𝑑𝐼 = sin 𝑤𝑡𝑑𝑡
L RESISTANCE REACTANCE IMPEDANCE
Ꜫo It can be seen in both ac It can be seen only in ac It can be seen only in ac
Integrating, ∫ 𝑑𝐼 = ∫ L
sin 𝑤𝑡𝑑𝑡 and dc circuits circuits circuits
Ꜫo Happen due to resistor Happen due to inductor or Happen due to resistor
𝐼= − cos wt +constant in a circuit capacitor in a circuit and inductor or capacitor
wL
or both in a circuit
Over the time period T, cos wt = 0 and average value of I must be 0 so ,
Represented by R Represented by X Represented by Z
Ꜫo It doesn’t have a phase It has a phase angle It has a phase angle
integration constant = 0 hence, 𝐼= − cos wt
wL
angle
Ꜫo
=− sin ( π/2 – wt)
wL
17. (a)
I = Io sin ( wt - π/2 )
14. Capacitive reactance is the opposition offered by the inductor in flow of ac. It is denoted by INDUCTIVE REACTANCE CAPACITIVE REACTANCE
Opposition offered by the inductor Opposition offered by the capacitor
XC. in flow of current in flow of current
Depends directly on frequency of Depends inversely on frequency of
Let Ꜫ = Ꜫo sin w t be the emf of ac source connected with inductor in the circuit ac ac.
Allow dc Block dc
Due to the continuous charging and discharging of capacitor plates, a continuous but alternating
current exist in the circuit. (b) Z2 = R2 + XL2, if frequency of applied signal is decreased, the term X L = ω L also decreased

At any time t, Potential difference across the capacitor plates = applied emf and as a result value of impedance decreased consequently.

V = Ꜫ = Ꜫo sin w t

But V = Q/C ***********

Or Q = CV = C Ꜫo sin w t

Current at instant t will be,

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 210 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 211 of 484
 SECTION B
COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS Q2.A: Current in purely inductive or purely capacitive circuit is wattless.
R: No power is dissipated when current flows through a purely inductive or capacitive circuit
Q3.A: If a capacitor is connected to a dc source, it will have infinite reactance.
Q1. Quantity that measures the opposition offered by a circuit to the flow of current is called
R: Reactance of capacitor is directly proportional to frequency.
impedance. For an ac circuit, reactance corresponding to inductor and capacitor is also considered,
Q4.A: At resonance, impedance is minimum.
along with resistance. So, impedance for the ac circuit can be given mathematically as
R: For an ac circuit, inductive and capacitive reactance are equal and opposite at resonance.
Z2 = R2 + X2, where X is the reactance.
Q5.For an inductive circuit with zero resistance, the current lags behind the applied voltage by an
Impedance triangle is a right-angled triangle
angle……….

Z 0o b) 30o c)60o d) 90o

given as in the diagram and satisfy the above X

mathematical equation. SA-I (2 MARKS EACH)
Also phase angle Φ between current and voltage Φ R Q6. Which one is more dangerous----- a 220 V ac or a 220 V dc, explain?
can be given by using this impedance triangle Q7. Why capacitor block dc but pass ac through it, explain?
(i) Impedance for a purely capacitive circuit depends on Q8. Why inductor provides an easy way to dc while resistive to ac?
(a) f (b) 2f (c) 1/f (d) 1/2f
(ii) Impedance for a purely inductive circuit depends on SA-II (3 MARKS EACH)
(a) f (b) 2f (c) 1/f (d) 1/2f Q9. A 50 μF capacitor is connected to a 100V, 50 Hz ac supply

(iii) For ac circuit containing resistor only, value of Φ will be (i)Determine rms value of current

(a)0 (b) π/2 (c) - π/2 (d) π (ii)What is the net power absorbed by circuit in one complete cycle.

(iv) What is the impedance of a capacitor with capacitance C in an ac circuit having source of LA (5 MARKS)
frequency 50 Hz Q10. If X, an unknown circuit element is connected to the X
(a) 1/C (b) 1/50 C (c)1/100 C (d) 1/314 C source as shown in the diagram, such
(v) What are the dimensions of impedance? that the current through X is given as
I = Io sin (wt+ π/2)
Assertion & Reasoning Ꜫ = Ꜫo sin w t

(a) Assertion A and reason R are both true and R is the correct explanation of A (i)Identify the device X?

(c) Assertion A and reason R are both true but R is not the correct explanation of A (ii)Write expression for the reactance of X.

(d) Assertion A is true but reason R is false (iii) Draw phasor diagram for device X
(iv) Draw a graph showing variation of reactance of device X with frequency.
(e) Both assertion A and reason R are false
(v) What happen if the source is replaced by a dc source?

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 212 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 213 of 484
 SECTION B-ANSWER KEY SECTION C
1.(i) c) 1/f
COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS
(ii) a) f
Q1. A device X is connected to an alternating source Ꜫ = Ꜫo sin w t. The variation of voltage, current
(iii) a) 0 and power in one cycle is shown in the graph
(iv) d) 1/314 C A
B
(V) M1 L2 T -3A-2 C
2.a) Assertion A and reason R are both true and R is the correct explanation of A. 0 π
3.c) Assertion A is true but reason R is false wt
4.a) Assertion A and reason R are both true and R is the correct explanation of A.
5.d) 90o
i) Identify X
6.peak value of 220 V ac is 220 √2 V = 311 V while for 220 V dc it is 220 V so, 220 V ac is more
ii) Which of the curves represent voltage, current and power consumed in the circuit
dangerous.
iii) How does its impedance vary with frequency?
7. For a capacitor, capacitive reactance is Xc= 1/ 2 π f C means capacitive reactance depends
inversely on frequency f
SA-I (2 MARKS EACH)
8.For dc with zero frequency, capacitor show infinite reactance and block dc while allow ac to
Q2.“An alternating current of frequency 15 cps can be used for lighting purpose”, true/ false.
pass through it.
Justify your answer.
For an inductor, inductive reactance is XL = 2 π f L
Q3.“For a very high frequency, capacitor behaves as a conductor”, true/ false. Justify your answer.
So, for dc with zero frequency, inductor will show zero reactance and give it easy way to
Q4.“At resonance, inductive reactance is equal to capacitive reactance”, true/ false. Justify your
pass.
answer.
While for ac with some finite frequency, inductive reactance will show some finite value
Q5.“An alternating current doesn’t show any magnetic effect”, true/ false. Justify your answer.
and cause opposition in the flow of current.
9.C = 50 uF, Vrms = 100 V, f = 50 Hz SA-II (3 MARKS EACH)
Irms = Vrms / Xc = 2 π f C Vrms = 1.57 A
Q6.An alternating source of 220 V is connected to a circuit having a device “A”, a current of 0.5
Pav = Vrms . Irms . cos π/2 = 0
A flows, which lag behind the applied voltage in phase by π/2. If the same voltage is applied to
10. (i) Capacitor (ii) XC = 1/wC
another device “B”, same current flows but now it is in phase with the applied voltage.
(iii)
(i) Name the devices A and B
(ii) Draw the phasor diagram for device A

***********
(iv)
(v) for dc, f = 0 so w = 0, hence capacitor block dc

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 214 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 215 of 484
 SECTION C-ANSWERS
1.(i) Device X is a capacitor. QUESTIONS ONLY
(ii) curve A represents power; curve B represents voltage and curve C represents Current Question Types Includes: 1) MCQ 2) VSA 3) SA-I 4) SA-II 5) LA 6) Assertion and reason 7)
(iii) Case study.

SECTION A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
Q1.Power delivered by the source of the circuit becomes maximum, when

(a) L =C (b)  L =1/ C (c)  L = − (1/C) 2 (d) L = √C

Q2. The power factor of LCR circuit at resonance is
2.true, in this case fluctuation will be so rapid that due to persistence of vision bulb seems glowing
(a) 0.707 (b) 1 (c) Zero (d) 0.5
3.true, at very high frequency, capacitive reactance become negligibly small and capacitor behaves
Q3. The phase difference between the current and voltage of LCR circuit in series combination at
like a pure conductor.
resonance is
4.True, at resonance value of current is maximum and impedance is minimum, which is possible
(a) 0 (b)  / 2 (c)  (d) −
if inductive reactance and capacitive reactance are equal.
Q4. What will be the phase difference between virtual voltage and virtual current, when the current
5.False, an alternating current produces a magnetic field whose magnitude and direction changes
in the circuit is wattless
periodically.
(a) 90° (b) 45° (c) 180° (d) 60°
6.i) A is inductor
Assertion Reasoning Question:
B is resistor
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
ii) Phasor diagram
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false
Q5. Assertion : A bulb connected in series with a solenoid is connected to ac source. If a soft iron
core is introduced in the solenoid, the bulb will glow brighter.
Reason : On introducing soft iron core in the solenoid, the inductance decreases.
Q6. Which of the following is constructed on the principle of electromagnetic induction:
(a) Galvanometer (b) a.c. generator (c) Generator (d) Voltmeter

Q7. A transformer is based on the principle of

************ (a) Mutual inductance (b) Self-inductance (c) Ampere's law (d) Lenz's law

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 216 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 217 of 484
Q8. A transformer is employed to Q18. State the working of ac generator with the help of a labelled diagram. The coil of an ac
(a) Obtain a suitable dc voltage (b) Convert dc into ac generator having N turns, each of area A, is rotated with a constant angular velocity ω. Deduce the

(c) Obtain a suitable ac voltage (d) Convert ac into dc expression for the alternating emf generated in the coil. What is the source of energy generation in
this device?
Q9. Quantity that remains unchanged in a transformer is
Q19. (a) Describe briefly, with the help of a labelled diagram, the working of a step-up transformer.
(a) Voltage (b) Current (c) Frequency (d) None of above
(b) Write any two sources of energy loss in a transformer.
Q10. Assertion: Soft iron is used as a core of transformer.
(c) A step-up transformer converts a low voltage into high voltage. Does it not violate the principle
Reason: Area of hysteresis is loop for soft iron is small
of conservation of energy? Explain.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE I (2MARKS EACH) CASE STUDY TYPE (4 MARKS EACH)
Q11.What is wattless current? Q20. When electric power is transmitted over great distances, it is economical to use a high voltage
Q12.Mention the two characteristic properties of the material suitable for making core of a and a low current to minimize the I 2R loss in the transmission lines. Consequently, 350-kV lines
transformer. are common, and in many areas even higher-voltage (765-kV) lines are under construction. At the
Q13.A generator developed an emf of 120V and has terminal potential difference of 115V, when receiving end of such lines, the consumer requires power at a low voltage (for safety and for
the armature current is 25A. What is the resistance of armature? efficiency in design). Therefore, a device is required that can change the alternating voltage and

SHORT ANSWER TYPE II (3MARKS EACH) current without causing appreciable changes in the power delivered. The ac transformer is that
device. In its simplest form, the ac transformer consists of two coils of wire wound around a core
Q14.A circuit is set up by connecting inductance L = 100 mH, resistor R = 100 Ω and a capacitor
of iron. The coil on the left, which is connected to the input alternating voltage source and has N1
of reactance 200 Ω in series. An alternating emf of 150√ 2 V, 500/π Hz is applied across this series
turns, is called the primary winding (or the primary). The coil on the right, consisting of N 2 turns
combination. Calculate the power dissipated in the resistor.
and connected to a load resistor R, is called the secondary winding (or the secondary). The purpose
LONG ANSWER TYPE (5MARKS EACH) of the iron core is to increase the magnetic flux through the coil and to provide a medium in which
Q15. (a) What is impedance? nearly all the flux through one coil passes through the other coil. Eddy current losses are reduced
(b) A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source having voltage V = V 0 sin ωt . Derive by using a laminated core. Iron is used as the core material because it is a soft ferromagnetic
expression for the impedance, instantaneous current and its phase relationship to the applied substance and hence reduces hysteresis losses. Typical transformers have power efficiencies from
voltage. Find the expression for resonant frequency. 90% to 99%. In the discussion that follows, we assume an ideal transformer, one in which the
Q16. Explain with the help of a labelled diagram, the principle and working of an ac generator. energy losses in the windings and core are zero.
Write the expression for the emf generated in the coil in terms of speed of rotation. Can the current 1. Name the different types of losses involve in transformer.
produced by an ac generator be measured with a moving coil galvanometer? 2. How to minimise eddy current losses in transformer?
Q17. Describe briefly, with the help of a labelled diagram, the basic elements of an ac generator. 3. What cause the Hysteresis loss?
State its underlying principle. Show diagrammatically how an alternating emf is generated by a 4. Which type of transformer used at the receiving end?
loop of wire rotating in a magnetic field. Write the expression for the instantaneous value of the
emf induced in the rotating loop. ***********

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 218 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 219 of 484
 ANSWERS-SECTION A (b)

Question Types Includes 1) MCQ 2) VSA 3) SA-I 4) SA-II 5) LA 6) Assertion and reason 7) From the circuit shown in Fig. , the resistor, inductor
Case study. and capacitor are in series. Therefore, the ac current in
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION each element is the same at any time, having the same

1. (a) L =C amplitude and phase. Let it be i = im sin(ωt+φ ) where φ

2. (b) 1 is the phase difference between the voltage across the

source and the current in the circuit
3. (a) 0

4. (a) 90°
5. (d) If the assertion and reason both are false
6. (b) a.c. generator
7. (a) Mutual inductance
8. (c) Obtain a suitable ac voltage
9. (c) Frequency
10.(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion. Let I be the phasor representing the current in the circuit. Further, let VL, VR, VC, and V represent
SHORT ANSWER TYPE I (2MARKS EACH) the voltage across the inductor, resistor, capacitor and the source, respectively. We know that VR

11. When pure inductor and/or pure capacitor is connected to ac source, the current flows in the is parallel to I, VC is π/2 behind I and VL is π/2 ahead of I. VL, VR, VC, and I are shown in Fig.

circuit, but with no power loss; the phase difference between voltage and current is 𝜋/ 2. with appropriate phase-relations.

12. Two characteristic properties: (i) Low hysteresis loss (ii) Low coercivity The length of these phasors or the amplitude of VL, VR, and VC, are:
13. R= E-V/I = 0.2Ω.
vRm = im R, vCm = im XC, vLm = i m XL
SHORT ANSWER TYPE II (3MARKS EACH)
From phasor diagram we have
14. XL = ωL = 2π𝜈L = 100Ω
VL + VR + VC = V
Z = √𝑅 2 + (𝑋𝑐 − 𝑋𝐿)2 = 100√2 Ω
Since VC and VL are always along the same line and in opposite directions, they can be combined
Pdissipated = (Vrms/Z)2 R = 225W into a single phasor (VC + VL) which has a magnitude |𝑉𝑐𝑚 − 𝑉𝐿𝑚 |Since V is represented as the
hypotenuse of a right-traingle whose sides are VR and (VC + VL),
LONG ANSWER TYPE (5MARKS EACH)
The Pythagorean Theorem gives
15.(a) The opposition offered by the combination of a resistor and reactive component to the flow 2
𝑉𝑚2 = 𝑉𝑅𝑚 + (𝑉𝐶𝑚 − 𝑉𝐿𝑚 )2
of ac is called impedance. Mathematically it is the ratio of rms voltage applied and rms current
𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠
𝑉𝑚2 = (𝑖𝑚 𝑅)2 + (𝑖𝑚 𝑋𝐶 − 𝑖𝑚 𝑋𝐿 )2
produced in circuit i.e., Z= . Its unit is ohm (Ω)
Irms
𝑉𝑚2 = 𝑖𝑚
2
[(𝑅)2 + (𝑋𝐶 − 𝑋𝐿 )2]

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 220 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 221 of 484
𝑖𝑚 = 𝑉𝑚 / √𝑅 2 + (𝑋𝑐 − 𝑋𝐿 )2 Slip Rings: The slip rings are the two metal rings to which the ends of armature coil are connected.

𝑖𝑚 = 𝑉𝑚 / Z These rings are fixed to the shaft which rotates the armature coil so that the rings also rotate along
with the armature.
Z=√𝑅 2 + (𝑋𝑐 − 𝑋𝐿 )2
Brushes: These are two flexible metal plates or carbon rods) which are fixed and constantly touch
Where Z is called impedance of the LCR series circuit which is opposition offered to the current
in LCR series circuit. the revolving rings. The output current in external load RL is taken through these brushes.
𝑉𝐶𝑚−𝑉𝐿𝑚 𝑋𝐶 −𝑋𝐿
And tan φ = = Expression for induced emf
𝑉𝑅𝑚 𝑅
When the coil is rotated with a constant angular speed ω, the angle θ between the magnetic field
Impedance Triangle
vector B and the area vector A of the coil at any instant t is θ = ωt (assuming θ = 0º at t = 0). As a
𝑉𝑚 𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝑤𝑡+ 𝜑
Instantaneous Current I = result, the effective area of the coil exposed to the magnetic field lines changes with time, the flux
√𝑅2 +(𝑋𝑐−𝑋𝐿 )2
at any time t is ΦB = BA cos θ = BA cos ωt
At resonance XC = XL
1
= ωL From Faraday’s law, the induced emf for the rotating coil of N turns is then,
𝜔𝐶
1 𝑑𝜙𝐵 𝑑 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜔𝑡
Resonance frequency ωr = Ε=-N = - NBA
√𝐿𝐶 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡

16. Principle: Rotating coil kept in magnetic field produce ac current. Thus, the instantaneous value of the emf is

ε = NBA ω sin ωt

where NBAω is the maximum value of the emf, which occurs when sin ωt = ±1.

If we denote NBAω as ε0,

then ε = ε0 sin ωt

Obviously, the emf produced is alternating and hence the current is also alternating. Current
Construction: It consists of the four main parts: produced by an ac generator cannot be measured by moving coil ammeter; because the average
Field Magnet: It produces the magnetic field. value of ac over full cycle is zero

Armature: It consists of a large number of turns of insulated wire in the soft iron drum or ring. It 17. Same as question no 2
can revolve round an axle between the two poles of the field magnet. The drum or ring serves the 18. Same as question no 2
two purposes: (a) It serves as a support to coils and (b) It increases the magnetic field due to air The source of energy generation is the mechanical energy of rotation of armature coil.
core being replaced by an iron core.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 222 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 223 of 484
19. 𝑑𝜙 𝑑𝜙
𝑣𝑠= − 𝑁𝑠 and 𝑣𝑝= − 𝑁𝑝
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡

Thus
𝑉𝑠 𝑁𝑠
=
𝑉𝑝 𝑁𝑝

If the transformer is assumed to be 100% efficient (no energy losses), the power input is equal to
the power output, and since p = i v,
𝑉 𝑝 𝑖𝑝 = 𝑉𝑠 𝑖𝑠
𝑖𝑝 𝑉𝑠 𝑁𝑠
Thus = =
𝑖𝑐 𝑉𝑝 𝑁𝑝

Principle : Based on Mutual inductance. (b)Transformer Losses

Flux Leakage: There is always some flux leakage; that is, not all of the flux due to primary passes
Construction : A transformer consists of two sets of coils, insulated from each other. They are
through the secondary due to poor design of the core or the air gaps in the core. It can be reduced
wound on a soft-iron core, either one on top of the other or on separate limbs of the core. One of by winding the primary and secondary coils one over the other.
the coils called the primary coil has N p turns. The other coil is called the secondary coil; it has Ns Resistance of the windings: The wire used for the windings has some resistance and so, energy is
turns. Often the primary coil is the input coil and the secondary coil is the output coil of the lost due to heat produced in the wire (I 2 R). In high current, low voltage windings, these are
minimised by using thick wire.
transformer
Eddy currents: The alternating magnetic flux induces eddy currents in the iron core and causes
Working : When an alternating voltage is applied to the primary, the resulting current produces heating. The effect is reduced by having a laminated core.
an alternating magnetic flux which links the secondary and induces an emf in it. The value of this Hysteresis: The magnetisation of the core is repeatedly reversed by the alternating magnetic field.
emf depends on the number of turns in the secondary. We consider an ideal transformer in which The resulting expenditure of energy in the core appears as heat and is kept to a minimum by using
the primary has negligible resistance and all the flux in the core links both primary and secondary a magnetic material which has a low hysteresis loss.
windings.
(b) When output voltage increases, the output current automatically decreases to keep the power
Let φ be the flux in each turn in the core at time t due to current in the primary when a voltage v p same. Thus, there is no violation of conservation of energy in a step up / step down transformer.
is applied to it.
Induced emf ES or voltage in secondary coil of Ns turns will be CASE STUDY TYPE (4 MARKS EACH)

𝜀𝑠= −
𝑑𝜙 20. Ans 1. Copper loss, Eddy current loss, Hysteresis loss, flux loss
𝑁𝑠 𝑑𝑡
Ans2. Eddy current losses are reduced by using a laminated core.
The alternate flux φ induced back emf in the primary coil is
Ans3. Choosing a material having small Hysteresis loop area
𝑑𝜙
𝜀𝑝= − 𝑁𝑝 Ans 4. Step down transformer.
𝑑𝑡
But εp = v p. If this were not so, the primary current would be infinite since the primary has zero
resistance (as assumed). If the secondary is an open circuit or the current taken from it is small,
then to a good approximation εs = vs ********

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 224 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 225 of 484
 SECTION B (a) Half (b) Two times (c) Four times (d) Unchanged
Q7. In a step-up transformer, the turn ratio is 1: 2. A Leclanche cell (e.m.f. 1.5V) is connected
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
across the primary. The voltage developed in the secondary would be
Q1. In LCR circuit, the capacitance is changed from C to 4C. For the same resonant frequency,
the inductance should be changed from L to (a) 3.0 V (b) 0.75 V (c) 1.5 V (d) Zero
(a) 2L (b) L / 2 (c) L / 4 (d) 4 L Q8. In a step-up transformer the turn ratio is 1:10. A resistance of 200 ohm connected across the
Q2. A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series to a source of alternating current. If its frequency secondary is drawing a current of 0.5 A. What is the primary voltage and current?
is increased, while keeping the voltage of the source constant, then
(a) 50 V, 1 amp (b) 10 V, 5 amp (c) 25 V, 4 amp (d) 20 V, 2 amp
(a) Bulb will give more intense light (b) Bulb will give less intense light
Q9. Assertion: A given transformer can be used to step-up or step-down the voltage.
(c) Bulb will give light of same intensity as before (d) Bulb will stop radiating light Reason: The output voltage depends upon the ratio of the number of turns of the two coils of the

Q3. The i -  curve for anti-resonant circuit is transformer.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE I (2MARKS EACH)
Q10.Define power factor. State the conditions under which it is (i) maximum and (ii) minimum.
Q11.In a series LCR circuit with an ac source of effective voltage 50 V, frequency ν =50/π Hz, R
= 300 Ω, C = 20 µF and L = 1.0 H. Find the rms current in the circuit.
Q12.An output voltage of an ideal transformer connected to 240 V ac mains is 24V. When the
transformer used to light a bulb 24V, 24W Calculate the current in the primary of the circuit.

Assertion-Reasoning Question: SHORT ANSWER TYPE II (3MARKS EACH)

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. Q13.A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source (200 V, 50 Hz). The voltages across the
resistor, capacitor and inductor are respectively 200 V, 250 V and 250 V.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. (i)The algebraic sum of the voltages across the three elements is greater than the voltage of the

(d) If the assertion and reason both are false source. How is this paradox resolved?

Q4. Assertion: When capacitive reactance is smaller than the inductive reactance in LCR current, (ii)Given the value of the resistance of R is 40 W,

e.m.f. leads the current. calculate the current in the circuit.

Reason: The phase angle is the angle between the alternating e.m.f and alternating current of the Q14.An inductor L of reactance XL is connected in

circuit. series with a bulb B to an ac source as shown in

Q5. Assertion: A capacitor of suitable capacitance can be used in an ac circuit in place of the figure. Explain briefly how does the brightness of

choke coil. the bulb change when (i) number of turns of the inductor is reduced (ii) an iron rod is inserted in

Reason: A capacitor blocks dc and allows ac only. the inductor and (iii) a capacitor of reactance XC = XL is included in the circuit.

Q6. If rotational velocity of an a.c. generator armature is doubled, then induced e.m.f will become

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 226 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 227 of 484
 LONG ANSWER TYPE (5MARKS EACH)
Q15. (a) An ac source of voltage V = V0 sin ωt is connected to a series combination of L, C and
R. Use the phasor diagram to obtain expressions for impedance of the circuit and phase angle
between voltage and current. Find the condition when current will be in phase with the voltage.
What is the circuit in this condition called?
(b) In a series L R circuit XL = R and power factor of the circuit is P1. When capacitor with
capacitance C such that XL = XC is put in series, the power factor becomes P2. Calculate P1/ P2 .
Q16. (a) An alternating voltage V = Vm sin ω applied to a series LCR circuit drives a current given
by i = im sin (ωt +φ) . Deduce an expression for the average power dissipated over a cycle.
(b) For circuits used for transporting electric power, a low power factor implies large power loss 1. What is resonance?
in transmission. Explain. 2. On what factors does resonance frequency depends?
Q17. Draw a schematic diagram of a step-up transformer. Explain its working principle. Deduce 3. For the metal detector to detect a small metal object the sharpness of the current versus
the expression for the secondary to primary voltage in terms of the number of turns in the two frequency graph be more or less? Justify your answer.
coils. In an ideal transformer, how is this ratio related to the currents in the two coils? How is the 4. What is impedance of the circuit at resonance?
transformer used in large scale transmission and distribution of electrical energy over long
distances?
**********
CASE STUDY TYPE (4 MARKS EACH)
Q18. An airport metal is essentially a resonant circuit. The portal you step through is an inductor
(a large loop of conducting wire) that is part of the circuit. The frequency of the circuit is tuned to
the resonant frequency of the circuit when there is no metal in the inductor. Any metal on your
body increases the effective inductance of the loop and changes the current in it. When you pass
through a metal detector, you become part of a resonant circuit. As you step through the detector,
the inductance of the circuit changes, and thus the current in the circuit changes.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 228 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 229 of 484
 ANSWERS-SECTION B 14. (i) When the number of turns in the inductor is reduced, the self-inductance of the coil

Question Types Includes 1) MCQ 2) VSA 3) SA-I 4) SA-II 5) LA 6) Assertion and reason 7) decreases; so impedance of circuit reduces and so current in the circuit increases. Thus, the
Case study. brightness of the bulb increases. (ii) When iron (being a ferromagnetic substance) rod is inserted
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION in the coil, its inductance increases and in turn, impedance of the circuit increases. As a result, a

1. Ans. (c) L / 4 larger fraction of the applied ac voltage appears across the inductor, leaving less voltage across the
bulb. Hence, brightness of the bulb decreases. (iii) When capacitor of reactance X C = XL is
2. Ans. (a) Bulb will give more intense light
introduced, the net reactance of circuit becomes zero, so impedance of circuit decreases; it becomes
3. Ans. (b)
Z = R; so current in circuit increases; hence brightness of bulb increases. Thus brightness of bulb
4. Ans. (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion. in both cases increases
5.Ans. (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
LONG ANSWER TYPE (5MARKS EACH)
assertion.
6. Ans. (b) Two times 15. (a) Refer Answer Section A1
𝑅
7. Ans. (d) Zero (b) Case1. When XL = R then Z= √2R thus power factor P1 = becomes P1 = 1/√2
𝑍

8. Ans. (b) 10 V, 5 amp Case 2. When XL = XC then power factor P2 = 1

9. Ans. (a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
Thus P1/ P2 = 1/√2
assertion.
16. In LCR series circuit
SHORT ANSWER TYPE I (2MARKS EACH)
V= Vm sinωt and i = im sin (ωt+φ)
10. The power factor (cos φ) is the ratio of resistance and impedance of an ac circuit i.e., Power
Thus instantaneous power P= Vi = (VmSinωt) (im Sin (ωt+φ))
factor, cos φ= R/ Z Maximum power factor is 1 when Z = R i.e., when circuit is purely resistive.
Minimum power factor is 0 when R = 0 i.e., when circuit is purely inductive or capacitive = (Vmim Sinωt)[ Sinωt cosφ + cos ωt sinφ] = Vmim [Sin2ωt cosφ+ cos2 ωt sinφ]

11. Irms = Vrms/ Z Thus Average power over a complete cycle

1 𝑇 1 𝑇
Here Z=√𝑅 2 + (𝑋𝑐 − 𝑋𝐿)2 XL= ωL = 100Ω and Xc= 1/ ωC = 500Ω Pav = ∫0 𝑃𝑑𝑡 = ∫0 Vmim [Sin2ωt cosφ + cos2 ωt sinφ]𝑑𝑡
𝑇 𝑇
Z= 500Ω Irms = 0.1A
Solving
12. I2=P2/E2 = 1A 𝑇 𝑇
∫0 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜔𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜙𝑑𝑡 = T/2 cosφ and ∫0 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝜔𝑡𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜙𝑑𝑡 =0
SHORT ANSWER TYPE II (3MARKS EACH)
Thus Pav = Vmim cosφ /2 = VrmsIrms cosφ
13. Ans.(i) Veff = VR +VL +VC = 200 V + 250 V + 250 V = 700V which is greater than 200V . This
(b) Pav = VrmsIrms cosφ
is due to VR,VL and VC are vectors and cannot add like a numbers
For small power factor cosφ, Irms increases for constant Vrms and power loss is = I2rmsR
increases.
Thus Veff = √𝑉𝑅 2 + (𝑉𝐿 − 𝑉𝐶 )2 Veff = √(200)2 + (250 − 250)2
17. Derivation is same as answer of Section A5.
Veff= 200V.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 230 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 231 of 484
The large scale transmission and distribution of electrical energy over long distances is done with SECTION C
the use of transformers. The voltage output of the generator is stepped-up (so that current is
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
reduced and consequently, the I 2 R loss is cut down). It is then transmitted over long distances to
Q1. An inductance of 1 mH a condenser of 10 F and a resistance of 50  are connected in series.
an area sub-station near the consumers. There the voltage is stepped down. It is further stepped
The reactance of inductor and condensers are same. The reactance of either of them will be
down at distributing sub-stations and utility poles before a power supply of 240 V reaches our
(a) 100  (b) 30  (c) 3.2  (d) 10 
homes.
Q2. An ac circuit consists of an inductor of inductance 0.5 H and a capacitor of capacitance 8 F
CASE STUDY TYPE (4 MARKS EACH) in series. The current in the circuit is maximum when the angular frequency of ac source is
18. Ans1. In LCR series circuit when inductive reactance become equal to capacitive reactance a) 500 rad/sec (b) 2  105 rad/sec (c) 4000 rad/sec (d) 5000 rad/sec
then the current in a circuit become maximum called resonance.
Q3. An inductive circuit contains a resistance of 10 ohm and an inductance of 2.0 henry. If an ac
Ans2. Resonance frequency depends on value of inductor L and capacitor C
voltage of 120 volt and frequency of 60 Hz is applied to this circuit, the current in the circuit would
Ans3. Graph should be sharper for unique resonance frequency.
be nearly
Ans4. At resonance impedance is minimum i.e. Z= R
(a) 0.32 amp (b) 0.16 amp (c) 0.48 amp (d) 0.80 amp
Q4. The power factor of an ac circuit having resistance (R) and inductance (L) connected in series

**************** and an angular velocity  is

1 1
(a) R /L (b) R/ (R2 +2 L2) (c) L / R (d) R/ (R2 - 2 L2)
2 2

Q5. A telephone wire of length 200 km has a capacitance of 0.014 F per km. If it carries an ac of
frequency 5 kHz, what should be the value of an inductor required to be connected in series so that
the impedance of the circuit is minimum
(a) 0.35 mH (b) 35 mH (c) 3.5 mH (d) Zero
Q6. An LCR series circuit with a resistance of 100 ohm is connected to an ac source of 200 V
(r.m.s.) and angular frequency 300 rad/s. When only the capacitor is removed, the current lags
behind the voltage by 60 o. When only the inductor is removed the current leads the voltage by 60
o. The average power dissipated is
(a) 50 W (b) 100 W (c) 200 W (d)400W
Q7. The figure shows variation of R, XL and X C with frequency
f in a series L, C, R circuit. Then for what frequency point, the
circuit is inductive
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) All points

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 232 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 233 of 484
Q8. Which of the following plots may represent the reactance of a series LC combination Q16.A device ‘X’ is connected to an ac source. The variation of voltage, current and power in one
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d complete cycle is shown in the figure.

Q9. A loss free transformer has 500 turns on its primary (a) Which curve shows power consumption over a full cycle?

winding and 2500 in secondary. The meters of the secondary (b) What is the average power consumption over a cycle?

indicate 200 volts at 8 amperes under these conditions. The (c) Identify the device ‘X’.

voltage and current in the primary is

(a) 100 V, 16 A (b) 40 V, 40 A (c) 160 V, 10 A (d) 80 V, 20 A
Q10. A power transformer is used to step up an alternating e.m.f. of 220 V to 11 kV to transmit
4.4 kW of power. If the primary coil has 1000 turns, what is the current rating of the secondary?
Assume 100% efficiency for the transformer
(a) 4 A (b) 0.4 A (c) 0.04 A (d) 0.2 A

SHORT ANSWER TYPE I (2MARKS EACH)

Q11.An alternating voltage E = E0 sin ωt is applied to a circuit containing a resistor R connected
in series with a unknown box. The current in the circuit is found to be I = Io sin (ωt + π/4). Long Questions (Each carry 5 marks)
(i) State whether the element in the unknown box is a capacitor or inductor. Q17. A voltage V = V0 sin ωt is applied to a series LCR circuit. Derive the expression for the
(ii) Draw the corresponding phasor diagram and find the impedance in terms of R. average power dissipated over a cycle. Under what condition is (i) no power dissipated even though
Q12.A 60 W load is connected to the secondary of a transformer whose primary draws line voltage. the current flows through the circuit, (ii) maximum power dissipated in the circuit?
If a current of 0.54 A flows in the load, what is the current in the primary coil? Comment on the Q18. (a) Draw the diagram of a device which is used to decrease high ac voltage into a low ac
type of transformer being used. voltage and state its working principle. Write four sources of energy loss in this device.
Q13. A radio wave of wavelength 300m can be transmitted by a transmission centre. A condenser (b) A small town with a demand of 1200 kW of electric power at 220 V is situated 20 km away
of capacity 2.4 µF is available. Calculate the inductance of required coil for resonance. from an electric plant generating power at 440 V. The resistance of the two wire line carrying
Q14.How much current is drawn by the primary of a transformer which step down 220V to 22V power is 0.5 Ω per km. The town gets the power from the line through a 4000-220 V step-down
to operate a device with an impedance of 220Ω? transformer at a sub-station in the town. Estimate the line power loss in the form of heat.
Q19. A 2 µF capacitor, 100 Ω resistor and 8 H inductor are connected in series with an ac source.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE II (3MARKS EACH)
(i) What should be the frequency of the source such that current drawn in the circuit is maximum?
Q15.A capacitor (C) and resistor (R) are connected in series with an ac source of voltage of
What is this frequency called?
frequency 50 Hz. The potential difference across C and R is 120 V, 90 V respectively, and the
(ii) If the peak value of emf of the source is 200 V, find the maximum current.
current in the circuit is 3 A. Calculate (i) the impedance of the circuit (ii) the value of the
(iii)Draw a graph showing variation of amplitude of circuit current with changing frequency of
inductance, which when connected in series with C and R will make the power factor of the circuit
applied voltage in a series LRC circuit for two different values of resistance R1 and R2 (R1 > R2).
unity.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 234 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 235 of 484
Q20. (i) Draw a labelled diagram of a step-up transformer. Obtain the ratio of secondary to primary ANSWER-KEY
voltage in terms of number of turns and currents in the two coils. Question Types Includes 1) MCQ 2) VSA 3) SA-I 4) SA-II 5) LA 6) Assertion and reason 7)
(ii) A power transmission line feeds input power at 2200 V to a step-down transformer with its Case study.
primary windings having 3000 turns. Find the number of turns in the secondary to get the power SECTION C
output at 220 V. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS EACH) 1. (d) 10 
Q21. Electric generators are used to produce electrical energy. To understand how they work, let
2. (a) 500 rad/sec
us consider the alternating current (ac) generator, a device
3. (b) 0.16 amp
that converts mechanical energy to electrical energy. In its
1
4. (b) R/ (R2 +2 L2)
simplest form, it consists of a loop of wire rotated by some 2

external means in a magnetic field In commercial power 5. (a) 0.35 mH

plants, the energy required to rotate the loop can be derived 6. (d) 400 W
from a variety of sources. For example, in a hydroelectric 7. (c) C
plant, falling water directed against the blades of a turbine 8. (d) d
produces the rotary motion; in a coal-fired plant, the energy
9. (b) 40 V, 40 A
released by burning coal is used to convert water to steam,
10. (b) 0.4 A
and this steam is directed against the turbine blades. As a
loop rotates in a magnetic field, the magnetic flux through
SHORT ANSWER TYPE I (2MARKS EACH)
the area enclosed by the loop changes with time; this induces an emf and a current in the loop 11(i) As the current leads the voltage by π/4, the element used in black box is a capacitor.

according to Faraday’s law. The ends of the loop are connected to slip rings that rotate with the ii) tan (π/4) =VC/VR 1= VC/VR gives XC =R
loop. Connections from these slip rings, which act as output terminals of the generator, to the
external circuit are made by stationary brushes in contact with the slip rings. Impedance Z= √𝑅 2 + 𝑋𝑐 2 Gives Z= √2 R
12. Here PL = 60 W, IL = 0.54 A . VL =60/0.54 = 111.1 V
1. Name the principle on which ac generator based.
The transformer is step-down and have ½ input voltage.
2. What is the condition for maximum induced emf in a Coil? Hence IP =1/2 IL = 0.27 A
3. An ac generator consists of 8 turns of wire, each of area A = 0.090 0 m2, and the total resistance 13. Frequency ν=C/λ = 106 Hz.
of the wire is 12.0 Ω. The loop rotates in a 0.500-T magnetic field at a constant frequency of 60.0
𝜐 2 =1/ 4π2 LC Gives L= 1.055x108 H
Hz. Find the maximum induced emf.
14. I2 = E2/ Z2 = 0.1A
4. In above case what is the maximum induced current when the output terminals are connected
I1 = E2 I2/E1 = 0.01A.
to a low-resistance conductor?
I1= E2I2/E1 = 0.1A
***********

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 236 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 237 of 484
 SHORT ANSWER TYPE II (3MARKS EACH) R1 is greater than R2
𝑉𝑠
15. (i)R= VR/I = 30Ω Xc = Vc/I = 40Ω Z= √𝑅 2 + 𝑋𝑐 2 = 50Ω 20. Ans 𝑁𝑠 = 𝑁𝑝 = 300 𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛𝑠
𝑉𝑝
(ii) XL = Xc ωL= 40 L= 40/ 2πf = 2/5π H.
16.Ans. (a) A CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS EACH)
(b) Zero 21. Answer1. Electromagnetic induction
(c) L or C or LC Series combination of L and C Answer2. Plane of coil become parallel to magnetic field so 𝜃 = 90, 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 = 1

Long Questions (Each carry 5 marks) Answer3.𝜀𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑁𝐵𝐴 𝜔 = 136𝑉

𝜀𝑚𝑎𝑥
17. Derivation same as Question B2 Answer4. 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 = = 11.3
𝑅
(i)Condition for No power loss is Pav = VrmsIrms cosφ
Cosφ= 0 i.e. φ= 900 No resistor used in circuit.
(ii)For Maximum power loss XC = XL i.e. at resonance. Cosφ =1 and power lost is maximum. ********
18.(b) Demand of electric power = 1200 kW
Distance of town from power station = 20 km
Two wire = 20 × 2 = 40 km
Total resistance of line = 40 × 0.5 = 20 Ω
The town gets a power of 4000 volts Power = voltage × current
1200x104
I= = 1200/4 = 300 A
4000

The line power loss in the form of heat = I 2 × R

= (300)2 × 20 = 9000 × 20 = 1800 kW
19.
1 1 1
𝜔𝐿 = 𝜔2 = 2𝜋𝜐 2 = 𝜐 = 39.80 𝐻𝑧 the frequency is called resonance
𝜔𝐶 𝐿𝐶 𝐿𝐶
frequency.
𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝑉𝑚 200
ii.Maximum current at resonance 𝐼𝑚 = = = 2𝐴
𝑅 100

iii.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 238 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 239 of 484
 QUESTION BANK (b)10-3m<1<10-1m

CHAPTER 8-ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES Write one use for each. (CBSE2017)

Q13. Name the Electromagnetic radiations used for
SECTION A
(i)Water purification (ii) Eye surgery (CBSE 2018)
Q14.How is displacement current produced between plates of parallel plates during charging?
1 MARK QUESTIONS
(CBSE 2020)
Q1. What is displacement current?
ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Q2. What are electromagnetic waves?
Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by
Q3. State the Maxwell’s law of induction.
a corresponding statement of Reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer
Q4. Which of the following is false for electromagnetic waves:
as:
(a) transverse (b) non-mechanical waves
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) longitudinal (d) produced by accelerating charges
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Q5. If the magnetic monopole exists, then which of the Maxwell’s equation to be modified?
(C) If the assertion is true and the reason is false.
(a) ∮E.𝑑𝑆= 𝑞/ ∈𝑜 (b) ∮ 𝐵.𝑑𝑆 =0
(D) If both assertion and reason are false.
(c)∮𝐸.dl = - 𝑑∅𝐵 /𝑑𝑡 (d) ∮ 𝐸.𝑑l = 𝜇𝑜(Ic+Id)
Q15.Assertion: Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
Q6. Which of the following is NOT true for electromagnetic waves?
Reason: The electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other and perpendicular to the
(a) They transport energy
direction of propagation.
(b) They have momentum
Q16. Assertion: The electromagnetic wave is transverse in nature.
(c) They travel at different speeds in air depending on their frequency
Reason: Electromagnetic waves propagate parallel to the direction of electric and magnetic fields.
(d)They travel at different speeds in medium depending on their frequency
Q17.Assertion: The velocity of electromagnetic waves depends on electric and magnetic
Q7. Why can light travel in vacuum, whereas sound cannot do so?
properties of the medium.
Q8. Is displacement current, like conduction current, a source of magnetic field?
Reason: Velocity of electromagnetic waves in free space is constant.
Q9. Expand the acronym LASER and RADAR.
Q10. Which of the following statement is NOT true about the properties of electromagnetic
waves? CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
(a) These waves do not require any material medium for their propagation Q18. LASER

(b) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same time Electromagnetic radiation is a natural phenomenon found in almost all areas of daily life, from
(c) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic fields radio waves to sunlight to x-rays. Laser radiation – like all light – is also a form of electromagnetic
(d) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other. radiation. Electromagnetic radiation that has a wavelength between 380 nm and 780 nm is visible
Q11. Do Electromagnetic waves carry energy and momentum? (CBSE2017) to the human eye and is commonly referred to as light. At wavelengths longer than 780 nm, optical
Q12. Identify the EM waves whose wavelength vary as radiation is termed infrared (IR) and is invisible to the eye. At wavelengths shorter than 380 nm,
(a)10-12m<1<10-8m

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 240 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 241 of 484
optical radiation is termed ultraviolet (UV) and is also invisible to the eye. The term “laser light” 2 MARKS QUESTIONS
refers to a much broader range of the electromagnetic spectrum than just the visible spectrum, Q19. Suggest reasons, why
anything between 150 nm up to 11000 nm (i.e. from the UV up to the far IR). The term laser is an (a) food in metal containers cannot be cooked in a microwave oven.
acronym which stands for “light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation”. (b) an empty glass container does not get hot in a microwave oven.
Einstein explained the stimulated emission. In an atom, an electron may move to a higher energy Q20. Electromagnetic waves with wavelength
level by absorbing a photon. When the electron comes back to the lower energy level it releases (i) λ1 is suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation.
the same photon. This is called spontaneous emission. This may also so happen that the excited (ii) λ2 is used to kill germs in water purifiers.
electron absorbs another photon, releases two photons and returns to the lower energy state. This (iii) λ3 is used to improve visibility in runways during fog and mist conditions.
is known as stimulated emission. Identify and name the part of the electromagnetic spectrum to which these radiations belong. Also
Laser emission is therefore a light emission whose energy is used, in lithotripsy, for targeting and arrange these wavelengths in ascending order of their magnitude.
ablating the stone inside the human body organ.
Apart from medical usage, lasers are used for optical disk drives, printers, barcode readers etc. 3 MARKS QUESTIONS
(I) What is the full form of LASER?
Q21. Give two uses of 1) IR radiation 2) Microwaves 3) UV radiation
(a) Light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation
Q22. Write down the properties of electromagnetic waves.
(b) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
Q23. Write short notes on 1) Microwave 2) X-ray 3) Radio waves
(c) Light amplification by simultaneous emission of radiation
(d) Light amplified by synchronous emission of radiation
(II) The “stimulated emission” is the process of:
********
(a) release of a photon when an electron comes back from higher to lower energy level.
(b) release of two photons by absorbing one photon when the electron comes back from higher to
lower energy level.
(c) absorption of a photon when an electron moves from lower to higher energy level.
(d) None of the above
(III) What is the range of amplitude of LASER?
(a) 150 nm – 400 nm (b) 700 nm – 11000 nm (c) Both the above (d) None of the above
(IV) Lithotripsy is:
(a) an industrial application. (b) a medical application.
(c) laboratory application. (d) process control application.
(V) LASER is used in:
(a) optical disk drive. (b) transmitting satellite signal.
(c) radio communication. (d) ionization.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 242 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 243 of 484
 SECTION A-ANSWER KEY CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1 MARK QUESTIONS 18. (I)B (II)B (III) C (IV) B (V) A

1.The current which comes into play in the region in which the electric field (or electric flux) is
changing with time is called displacement current. 2 MARKS QUESTIONS
19.In a microwave oven, the frequency of microwaves is selected to match the resonance frequency
Id=0 dE /dt
of water molecules, so that the energy from the waves is transferred efficiently to the kinetic energy
2.The accelerated charge produces the electromagnetic waves. They have the transverse nature. of the molecules. This raises the temperature of any food containing water. (a) The atoms of the
The electromagnetic waves are a non-mechanical wave which moves with speed equals to the metallic container are set into forced vibrations by the microwaves. Due to this, energy of the
speed of light. microwaves is not efficiently transferred to the metallic container. Owing to this, food in metallic
3. Whenever changing the electric flux (ΦE) in the region encircled by loop, then magnetic field is containers cannot be cooked in a microwave oven.
induced. (b) The molecules of the glass container do not respond to the frequency of microwaves. Due to
4(c) this, energy from the microwaves is not transferred to the glass container and hence it does not get
5. (b) hot in a microwave oven.
6 (c) 20. λ1 -Microwave
7.Light waves are electromagnetic in nature. They do not require a material medium for λ2 - ultraviolet
propagation. So, the light can travel in vacuum. On the other hand, sound waves require a material λ3- infrared
medium for propagation. They are mechanical waves and cannot travel in vacuum. Ascending order - λ2<λ3<λ1
8. Yes, displacement current is also a source of magnetic field like the conduction current .
9. LASER-Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation 3 MARKS QUESTIONS
RADAR-Radio detection and ranging. 21. IR radiation • It is used in infrared photography •TV remote as a signal carrier •Heat therapy
10. (iv) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other. for muscular pain or sprain.
11. Yes, EM waves carry both energy and momentum. Microwaves • It is used in Radio and Television communication system • It is used in cellular
12. (a)X rays - used in in detection of fractures in bones. phones (Voice communication)
(b)Gamma rays- used in radio therapy for treatment of cancer. UV radiation • It is used to destroy bacteria in sterilizing the surgical instruments. • It is used in
13. UV rays Burglar alarm • It is used to detect the invisible writing, finger prints.
14. Refer Ncert 22.Refer notes of study material/Ncert
23.(i) Microwaves are suitable for RADAR systems that are used in aircraft navigation. These rays
ASSERTION REASON BASED QUESTIONS are produced by special vacuum tubes, namely klystrons and magnetrons diodes. (ii) Infrared rays
15. (a) are used to treat muscular strain. These rays are produced by hot bodies and molecules.
16. (c) (iii) X-rays are used as a diagnostic tool in medicine. These rays are produced, when high energy
17.(b) electrons are stopped suddenly on a metal of high atomic number.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 244 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 245 of 484
 SECTION B CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1 MARK QUESTIONS Q9. The electromagnetic spectrum consists of visible light, x- rays, gamma rays, microwaves,
ultraviolet rays, radio waves and infrared waves. The waves used in radio and television
Q1.If the amplitude of the magnetic field is 3 × 10-6 𝑡𝑒𝑠𝑙𝑎, then the amplitude of the electric field
communication are the radio waves having frequency range 500 kHz to 1000MHz. In the ultrahigh
for a electromagnetic waves is
frequency bands cellular phones use the radio waves to transmit the voice. Microwaves are the
(𝑎) 100 𝑉/m (𝑏) 300 𝑉/m (𝑐) 600 𝑉/m (𝑑) 900 𝑉/m
waves having short wavelengths. In aircraft navigation, for the radar system microwaves are used
Q2.In an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space the rms value of the electric field is 3 V/m.
due to their short wavelength. Infrared waves are also called heat waves. Infrared radiation has the
The peak value of the magnetic field is,
most importance in maintaining earth’s surface temperature through the greenhouse effect. The
(𝑎) 1.414 x10-8T (𝑏) 1.0 × 10-8T (𝑐) 2.828 × 10-8T (𝑑) 2.0 × 10-8T
infrared waves have vast applications in real life such as infrared detectors that are used for military
Q3.The direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves is along
purposes and also to see the growth of crops. The waves which are visible to the human eye are
(𝑎) 𝐸 (𝑏) 𝐵 (𝑐) 𝐸.𝐵 (𝑑)E × 𝐵
the visible rays. Visible rays are having frequency range as 4x10 14Hz to 7x1014 Hz. The huge
Q4.In an electromagnetic wave:
source of ultraviolet light is the sun. Ultraviolet rays have wavelength range from 4x10-7m to 6x10-
(a) power is transmitted along the magnetic field
10m. X-rays are the rays having most importance in medical applications which have a wavelength
(b) power is transmitted along the electric field
range 10nm to10-4 nm. X-rays are used to destroy the living tissue and organisms in the medical
(c) power is equally transferred along the electric and magnetic field
field. Then gamma rays are the rays having wavelength range as 10 -10m to 10-14m which are the
(d) power is transmitted in a direction perpendicular to both the fields.
high frequency radiations mostly produced in nuclear reactions. Gamma rays are also used to
Q5.Why are infrared waves called heat waves. Explain. What do you understand by the statement
destroy cancer cells in the medical field.
“Electromagnetic waves transport momentum”? (CBSE 2018)
(I) The TV waves range from _____ which are the radio waves.
(a) 54Hz to 890Hz (b) 54 MHz to 890 MHz
ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS (c) 500 kHz to 1000 MHz (d) 1000 Hz to 1000 KHz
Q6.Assertion: Infrared radiation plays an important role in maintaining the average temperature (II) The domestic application of microwaves used is____
of earth. (a) electric induction (b) water heater (c) TV (d) microwave oven
Reason: Infrared radiations are sometimes referred to as heat waves (III) The part of the electromagnetic spectrum which is detected by human eye is having
Q7. Assertion: When a charged particle moves in a circular path, it produces electromagnetic wavelength range as
waves. a) 900 – 400 nm b) 200 – 400 mm c) 700 – 400 mm d) 700 – 400 nm
Reason: Charged particle has acceleration. (IV) Why are infrared waves also called heat waves?
Q8. Assertion: Sound waves cannot travel in vacuum but light can travel in vacuum (V) How does the ozone layer in the atmosphere play a protective role?
Reason : Sound waves are longitudinal waves and they cannot be polarised but electromagnetic
2 MARKS QUESTIONS
waves are transverse and they can be polarised.
Q10.Why are infrared radiations also referred as heat waves? Write the name of radiations which
lie next to infrared radiations in the electromagnetic spectrum. (CBSE2020)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 246 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 247 of 484
Q11.A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along z-direction. What can you say about ANSWERS (SECTION B)
the directions of its electric and magnetic field vectors? If the frequency of the wave is 30 MHz, 1 MARK QUESTIONS
what is its wavelength? 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d)
Q12. (a)Identify the part of EM spectrum used in (i)RADAR (ii)Eye surgery. Write the frequency 5.Infrared waves are known as heat waves because they produce heat.
range. (CBSE 2019) When Electromagnetic waves hit body the mass is lost by the momentum is conserved that is
(b)Prove that the average energy density of oscillating Electric field is equal to that of oscillating transferred from Electromagnetic waves to the body.
magnetic field? ASSERTION REASON BASED QUESTIONS
3 MARKS QUESTIONS 6.B 7.B 8.B

Q13.Answer the following questions. CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

(i) Show, by giving a simple example, how EM waves carry energy and momentum. 9.(I)(b) 54MHz to 890 MHz

(ii) How are microwaves produced? Why is it necessary in microwaves ovens to select the (II)(d) microwave oven

frequency of microwaves to match the resonant frequency of water molecules? (III)(d) 700 – 400 nm

(iii) Write two important uses of infrared waves. (IV)refer study material/Ncert

Q14.Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is (V)The very harmful ultraviolet rays coming from the sun are absorbed by the ozone layer in the

(i) suitable for RADAR systems in aircraft navigations. atmosphere which is at an altitude of 40 – 50 km from the earth's surface. And due to which very

(ii) used to treat muscular strain. less ultraviolet light rays from the sun reach the earth. Ultraviolet rays are very harmful to humans

(iii) used as a diagnostic tool in medicine. Write in brief, how these waves can be produced? which may cause skin cancer. In this way, the ozone layer in the atmosphere plays a very protective

Q15.(i) Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in the descending order of their wavelengths. role.

(a) Microwaves (b) Infrared rays (c) Ultraviolet radiation (d) g-rays 2 MARKS QUESTIONS

(ii) Write one use each of any two of them 10.Infrared red waves are the waves which are having frequency lower than the frequency of

Q16.Explain the Maxwell’s modification of Ampere’s circuital law. visible light range. This infrared wave causes the electrons, whole atoms or molecules also of that

Q17.Discuss the source and propagation of electromagnetic waves. material. Due to such increased vibrations the internal energy of the material gets increased and
thereby increases in the temperature of the material and heat is generated. Because of this reason

********** infrared waves are also called the heat waves.

Visible rays come next to infrared radiation in electromagnetic spectrum having shorter
wavelength.
The radiations next to infrared radiations, having longer wavelengths will be microwaves
11. As we know that, the direction of electromagnetic wave is perpendicular to both electric and
magnetic fields. Here, electromagnetic wave is travelling in z-direction, then electric and magnetic
fields are in xy-direction and are perpendicular to each other. Frequency of waves, n = 30 MHz =
30 X 106 Hz Speed, c = 3X108 m/s Using the formula, c = n.λ Wavelength of electromagnetic

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 248 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 249 of 484
waves, 𝜆 = 𝑐/ 𝑛 = (3x108)/ (30 x106) = 10 m Thus, the wavelength of electromagnetic waves is 10 15.(i) The decreasing order of wavelengths of electromagnetic waves is Microwaves > Infrared >
m. Ultraviolet radiation > γ -rays (ii) Microwaves -They are used in RADAR devices. γ -rays- It is
12.(a)(i)Microwaves range-1GHz-2GHz (ii)UV rays-range 1015-1017 Hz used in radio therapy.
(b) UE= 𝟏/𝟐∈𝒐𝑬 𝟐 UB = B2/2 ;c= 1/√𝜇𝑜∈𝑜 16.Refer study material
E=BC ; Thus ,UE = 𝟏/𝟐∈𝒐(BC) 𝟐 = B2/2 𝜇𝑜 17.Refer study material

3 MARKS QUESTIONS *******

13.(i) Consider a plane perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. An electric
charge, on the plane will be set in motion by the electric and magnetic fields of EM wave, incident
on this plane. This is only possible, if EM wave constitutes momentum and energy. Thus, this
illustrates that EM waves carry energy and momentum.
(ii) Microwaves are produced by special vacuum tube like the klystron, magnetron and Gunn
diode. The frequency of microwaves is selected to match the resonant frequency of water
molecules, so that energy is transformed efficiently to increase the kinetic energy of the molecules.
Thus, facilitating the food to cook properly.
(iii) Uses of infrared rays (a) In knowing the molecular structure and therapy to heal muscular
pain. (b) In remote control of TV, VCR, etc.
14. Microwave It is produced by special vacuum tubes such as klystron, magnetron and gun diode.
The frequency range of microwaves is 109 Hz to 1011Hz. These waves undergoes reflection can be
polarized. It is used in radar system for aircraft navigation, speed of the vehicle, microwave over
for cooking and very long distance wireless communication through satellite.
֍ X-Ray It is produced when there is sudden stopping of high-speed electrons at high atomic
number target, and also by electronic transitions among the innermost orbits of atoms. The
frequency range of X-rays is from 1017 Hz to 1019 Hz. X-rays have more penetrating power than
ultraviolet radiation. X-rays are used extensively in studying structures of inner atomic electron
shells and crystal structures. It is used in detecting fractures, diseased organs, formation of bones
and stones, observing the progress of healing bones. Further, in a finished metal product, it is used
to detect faults, cracks, flaws and holes.
֍ Radio Waves They are produced by accelerated motion of charges in conducting wires. The
frequency range is from a few Hz to 109 Hz. They show reflection and diffraction

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 250 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 251 of 484
 SECTION C vacuum also. So, we can find the velocity of a light traveling through the material medium having

1 MARK QUESTIONS permittivity € and magnetic permeability u as V = 1/√ɛμ

In this way, we proved that velocity of light also depends on the electrical and magnetic properties
Q1.The relative magnetic permeability of the medium is 2.5 and the relative electrical permittivity
of that medium through which it is traveling. The velocity of light which is constant everywhere
of the medium is 2.25. Compute the refractive index of the medium.
is having value as 3X108m/s. The most technological importance of electromagnetic waves is that
(a) 2.37 (b) 4.75 (c) 0.25 ( d) 1.05
they have a strong capacity to take energy from one place to another place. The best examples are
Q2. Compute the speed of the electromagnetic wave in a medium if the amplitude of electric and
radio waves, TV signals which also carry energy from their broadcasting stations. Also, life is
magnetic fields are 3 × 104 and 2 × 10-4tesla, respectively
possible on the earth only because of the sunlight coming from the sun to the earth which also
(𝑎)3 ×108m/s ( 𝑏) 1.5 × 108m/s (𝑐) 6 × 108 m/s (𝑑) 5 ×108 m/s
carries energy and it is nothing but the electromagnetic waves. Due to which electromagnetic
Q3.The charging current for a capacitor is 0.25 A. What is the displacement current across its
waves are considered as the transverse waves.
plates?
(i)The ratio of relative permittivity of the medium to the permittivity of vacuum is called as______.
Q4.If the Earth did not have an atmosphere, would its average surface temperature be higher or
(a)permeability (b) permittivity of free space
lower than what it is now?
(c) dielectric constant of the medium (d) electric intensity
(II) Who showed that electromagnetic waves can be polarised?
ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) Maxwell (b) Hertz (c) Ampere (d) Michelson and Morley
Q5.Assertion: The frequencies of incident, reflected and refracted beams of monochromatic light
(III) The pressure exerted by the electromagnetic waves is called as
incident from one medium to another are the same.
(a) light pressure (b) electric pressure (c) magnetic pressure (d) radiation pressure
Reason: The incident, reflected and refracted rays are coplanar.
(IV) What is the relationship between magnitude of magnetic field and electric field in case of
Q6.Assertion: The earth without its atmosphere will be inhospitably cold.
electromagnetic waves from Maxwell's equations?
Reason: All heat would escape in the absence of atmosphere.
(V) What is meant by the permittivity and permeability of the medium?
Q7.Assertion: Microwaves are better carriers of signal than optical waves.
2 MARKS QUESTIONS
Reason: Microwaves move faster than optical waves.
Q10.The electric field of an electromagnetic wave is given by E= 50 sin𝝎(t- 𝒙 /𝒄 ) N/C. Find the
Q8.Assertion: Gamma rays are more energetic than x rays.
energy contained in a cylinder of cross-section 10cm2 and length 50 cm along the X-axis.
Reason: Gamma rays are of nuclear origin but x rays are produced due to sudden deceleration of
Q11.A variable-frequency a.c. source is connected to a capacitor. Will the displacement current
high energy electrons while falling in the metal of high atomic number.
increase or decrease with increase in frequency?
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION
Q9.According to Maxwell’s electromagnetic equations it has been proved that electric and
3 MARKS QUESTIONS
magnetic field vectors are perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the direction of
Q12.The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by By =2 x 10 -7 sin [0.5 x103
propagation as shown in the figure below. If Ex is the electric field along X axis, then By will be
x+1.5 x 1011t] (in T)
the direction of magnetic field along y axis and both which are perpendicular to the z axis showing
(a) What is the wavelength and frequency of the wave?
direction of propagation. The light waves are also electromagnetic waves and may travel through
(b) Write an expression for the electric field.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 252 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 253 of 484
Q13. Answer the following questions- ANSWERS (SECTION C)
(i) Name the EM waves which are used for the treatment of certain forms of cancer. Write their 1 MARK QUESTIONS
frequency range. 1(a)
(ii) Thin ozone layer on top of stratosphere is crucial for human survival. Why? 2(b)
(iii) Why is the amount of the momentum transferred by the EM waves incident on the surface so 3.Displacement current is always equal to conduction current and hence equals to 0.25 A
small? 4.The infrared radiation emitted by earth are retained by the earth’s atmosphere due to the green
house effect and this keeps the earth warm. If the Earth did not have atmosphere, its average
temperature would have been low.
********** ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
5. B 6. A 7. D 8.B
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
9. (I) (c) dielectric constant of the medium
(I) (b) Hertz
(II) (d) radiation pressure
(III) From Maxwell’s equations, the relationship between magnitude of magnetic field and
electric field is given as Bo = (Eo/c)
(IV) Permittivity of the medium is nothing but the ability of that medium to store electric
potential energy in that medium.
While permeability of the medium is also the ability of the medium to allow the number of
magnetic field lines through it.

2 MARKS QUESTIONS
10.The average value of energy density (energy / volume) is given by
Uav = 𝟏/𝟐∈𝒐𝑬𝒐 𝟐 /Total volume of the cylinder V = A l ;
Total energy contained in the cylinder, U = (Uav) /V= (1/2 ∈𝒐𝑬𝒐 )/Al
= 𝟏/𝟐[(𝟖.𝟖𝟔 𝑿 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟐)(𝟓𝟎)𝟐]/[(10 X 10-4 )(50 X 10-2 )] = 5.5 X 10-12 J
11. If we increase the frequency, the reactance of the capacitor will decrease and consequently
conduction current will increase. Since displacement current is equal to conduction current, the
displacement current will increase with increase in frequency of a.c. source.
3 MARKS QUESTIONS
12. Here, By =2 x 10-7 sin [0.5 x 103 x+1.5 x 1011t]
(a) The Y-component of the magnetic field is given by By = BO sin2 𝜋 ( /𝝀 + 𝒕/𝑻 )

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 254 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 255 of 484
Comparing the given equation with the above equation: QUESTION BANK
2𝜋/𝜆 = 1/ (0.5 𝑥 103 𝜆) =1.257 𝑥 10−2 m RAY OPTICS
Also 2𝜋/ 𝑇 = 1.5 x 1011 Or ν = 2.387 x 1010 Hz
SECTION A
(b) Since the argument of sine in the expression for the magnetic field is of the type (kx + 𝜔𝑡), the
1-Mark Questions
direction of propagation of the e. m. wave is along negative X-axis and the magnetic field is along Q1. Which of the following does not change during the refraction of light?
negative Y-axis. frequency, velocity or wavelength of light
Hence, the electric field is along negative Z-axis and expression for it is given by Q2. State Snell’s law of refraction?
Ey = EO sin2 𝝅 ( x/𝝀 + 𝒕/ 𝑻 ) Q3. Define refractive index of the material?
Here, EO = BO c = 2 x 10-7 x 3 x 108 = 60 V/m; Q4. Which mirror is used as driver's mirror?
Ez = 60sin [0.5 x 103 x+1.5 x 1011 t] (in V/m) Q5. Define principal focus of a mirror?
13. i) γ-rays are used for the treatment of certain forms of cancer. Its frequency range is 3x10 19 Hz Q6. Show the variation of u and v in the case of a concave mirror?
to 5 x1022 Hz. Q7. Write the relation between the object distance (u), image distance (v) and focal length
(ii) The thin ozone layer on top of stratosphere absorbs most of the harmful ultraviolet rays coming (f) of a concave mirror?
from the sun towards the earth. They include UVA, UVB and UVC radiations, which can destroy Q8. If the wavelength (colour) of incident light on a concave mirror is changed, how will
the life system on the earth. Hence, this layer is crucial for human survival. the focal length of the mirror change?
(iii) An electromagnetic wave transports linear momentum as it travels through space. If an Q9. State the laws of reflection of light?
electromagnetic wave transfers a total energy U to a totally absorbing surface in time t, then total Q10. Light travelling in a medium with the velocity 3 × 108 m/s is refracted into a second
linear momentum delivered to the at surface. This means, the momentum range of EM waves is medium in which it travels with a velocity 2 × 108 m/s. What is a refractive index of
10-19 to 10- 41. Thus, the amount of momentum transferred by the EM waves incident on the surface the second medium?
is very small. Q11. Light a wavelength 5000 °𝐴 in air enters a medium of refractive index 1.4 what will
be its frequency in the medium?
Q12. What is the ratio of velocity of two light waves travelling in vacuum and having
---------------***********---------------- wavelength 4000°𝐴 and 8000°𝐴 ?
Q13. Can absolute refractive index of any material be less than one. Why?
Q14. State the principle of an optical fibre?
Q15. What do you mean by critical angle?
Q16. Write the relation between critical angle and refractive index?
Q17. What is the main use of optical fibres?
Q18. Calculate the speed of light in a medium whose critical angle is 30 °?
Q19. State the thin lens formula?
Q20. Define power of a lens and write its SI unit?

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 256 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 257 of 484
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS b) Intensity of image is halved
c) There is no change in the size of image or intensity
Q21. Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection? d) Both size and intensity of the image are changed.
a) Brilliance of diamond Q29. Which of the following produces virtual as well as real image.
b) Working of optical fibre a) Concave lens and Convex mirror
c) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond b) Convex Mirror and Convex lens
d) Mirage on hot summer days c) Convex lens and Concave mirror
Q22. An object is placed at the focus of the convex mirror. If its focal length is 20cm, the d) Concave mirror and Concave lens
distance of image from the mirror is Q30. What is the nature of the graph between 1 and 1 for a convex lens where u is the
a) 10cm 𝑢 𝑣
b) 20cm distance of the object and v is that of the image?
c) 40cm a) Straight line b) Parabola c) Ellipse d) Hyperbola
d) None of the above
Q23. An object is placed at the focus of a concave mirror. If the focal length of the mirror Q31. A ray of light passes through a plane glass slab of thickness t and refractive index µ
is 20cm, then the distance of image from the pole is = 1.5, The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray will be
a) 10cm a) 0º b) 30º c) 45º d) 60º
b) 20cm
c) 40cm Q32. A convex lens of power 4D and a concave lens of power 3D are placed in contact.
d) Infinity What is the equivalent power of the combination?
4 3
Q24. The relation between angle of incidence i , angle of prism A and angle of minimum a) 7D b) D c) 1D d) D
3 4
deviation 𝑑𝑚 for a triangular prism is
a) A+𝑑𝑚 = i Q33. A lens behaves as a diverging lens in air (n=1) and a converging lens in water (n=1.3).
b) A+𝑑𝑚 = 2i The refractive index µ of the material of the lens is
𝑑
c) 𝐴 + 𝑚 =i a) 1< n< 1.3
2
d) 2A+𝑑𝑚 = i b) n> 1.3
c) n< 1.0
1+1.3
b) n =
Q25. The critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 30º. The 2
velocity of light in the medium is Q34. For using a convex lens as a magnifying glass, where should we place the object?
a) 3 × 108 m/s a) At the principal focus
b) Nearer to the lens
b) 1.5 × 108 m/s 𝑓
c) 6 × 108 m/s c) At , where f = focal length
2
d) √3 × 108 m/s d) Anywhere
Q26. A beam of light passes from air to glass. How does the speed of light vary Q35. A lens of power 3.5D is placed is contact with a lens of power -2.5D. The
a) decreases combination will behave like
b) increases a) A convergent lens of focal length 100cm
c) remains unchanged b) A divergent lens of focal length 100cm
d) it may decrease or increase, depending on the colour c) A convergent lens of focal length 200cm
Q27. A convex length of focal length is put in contact with a concave lens of same focal d) A divergent lens of focal length 200cm
length. The equivalent focal length of the combination is
a) zero ASSERTION AND REASON
b) f
c) 2f Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason.
d) Infinity
While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four
Q28. Half of the lens is wrapped in black paper. How will it change the image
a) Size of image is halved responses.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 258 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 259 of 484
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the 2 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q46. A concave mirror is placed in water. Will there be any change in its focal length? Give
Assertion.
reason?
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Q47. An object under water appears to be at a lesser depth than in reality, why?
Assertion.
Q48. The refractive index of the material of a concave lens is n. It is immersed in a medium
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
of refractive index n1. A parallel beam of light is incident on the lens. Trace the path of
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
emergent rays in each of the following cases:
Q36. Assertion: Plane mirror may form real image
i) n1> n ii) n1< n iii) n1 = n
Reason: Plane mirror forms virtual image, if object is real.
Q49. An air bubble is formed inside water. Does it act as a converging lens or a diverging
Q37. Assertion: The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if the mirror is placed in
lens? Explain.
water.
Q50. An equi-convex lens of radius of curvature R is cut into two equal parts by a vertical
Reason: The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to f = R/2.
plane, so it becomes a Plano convex lens. If f is the focal length of the equi-convex lens,
Q38. Assertion: The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly real if the object is virtual.
then what will be focal length of Plano convex lens?
Reason: The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly virtual if the object is real.
Q51. An object is kept in front of a concave mirror as shown in figure.
Q39.Assertion: If the rays are diverging after emerging from a lens; the lens must be concave.
Complete the ray diagram showing the image formation of the
Reason: The convex lens can give diverging rays.
object.
Q40. Assertion: The optical instruments are used to increase the size of the image of the object.
How will the position and intensity of the image be affected if the lower half of the
Reason: The optical instruments are used to increase the visual angle.
mirrors reflecting surface is painted black?
Q41. Assertion: The resolving power of a telescope is more if the diameter of the objective lens
Q52. A spherical convex surface of radius of curvature 20cm made of glass of refractive index
is more.
1.5 is placed in air. Find the position of the image formed if a point object is placed
Reason: Objective lens of large diameter collects more light.
30cm in front of a convex surface on the principal axis?
Q42. Assertion: The focal length of an equiconvex lens of radius of curvature R made of material
Q53. The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex lens are 10cm and 15cm. If the
of refractive index n = 1.5, is R.
focal length of the lens is 12cm, find the refractive index of the material of the lens?
Reason: The focal length of the lens will be R/2.
Q54. An object is kept in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15cm. Calculate the
Q43. Assertion (A): The maximum intensity in interference pattern is four times the intensity
refractive index of the material of the lens?
due to each slit.
Q55. State the condition under which a large magnification can be achieved in an astronomical
Reason (R): Intensity is directly proportional to square of amplitude.
telescope?
Q44. Assertion (A): Diffraction is common in sound but not common in light waves.
THREE MARKS QUESTIONS
Reason (R): Wavelength of light is more than the wavelength of sound.
Q45. Assertion (A): Interference obeys the law of conservation of energy. Q56. State the condition for total internal reflection of light to take place at an interface

Reason (R): The energy is redistributed in case of interference. separating two transparent media. Hence derive the expression for the critical angle in terms of
the speeds of light in two media. (CBSE D 2000)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 260 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 261 of 484
Q57. (i) What is total internal reflection? Under what conditions does it occur? Q65. (a)A spherical surface of
(ii) Find a relation between critical angle and refractive index. radius of curvature, separates a
(iii) Name one phenomenon which is based on total internal reflection. rarer and a denser medium as
Q58. (i) Name the phenomenon on which the working of an optical fiber is based. shown in figure. Complete the path
(ii) What are the necessary conditions for this phenomenon to occur? of the incident ray of light,
(iii) Draw a labelled diagram of an optical fiber and show how light propagates through the optical showing the formation of a real
fiber using this phenomenon. image. Hence derive the relation
Q59.What are optical fibers? Mention their one practical application. connecting object distance ‘u’,
Q60.Write the basic assumptions in the derivation of lens maker’s formula. Hence derive this image distance ‘v’, radius of
expression. (CBSE OD 20) curvature R and the refractive indices n1 and n2 of the two media.
Q61. Using the ray diagram for a system of two lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 in contact with (b)Briefly explain, how the focal length of a convex lens changes, with increase in wavelength of
each other, show that two lens system can be regarded as equivalent to a single lens of focal length incident light. (CBSEOD 04; D 16C)
1 1 1 1 1 1
f, where =
𝑓 𝑓1
+
𝑓2
. Also write the relation for the equivalent power of the lens combination. Q66.Derive expression for the Lens Maker’s formula = (𝑛 − 1) [ − ] where the symbols
𝑓 𝑅1 𝑅2

(CBSE 17, 19, 20) have usual meanings. State the assumptions used and the convention of signs.

Q62. Draw a graph to show the variation of the angle of deviation δ with that of the angle of Q67. Trace the path of a monochromatic ray of light through a prism of refracting angle ‘A’. Draw
incidence i for a monochromatic ray of light passing through a glass prism of refracting angle A. a graph to show the variation of angle of deviation ‘δ’ with the variation of angle of incidence
𝛿 +𝐴
Hence deduce the relation: sin ( 𝑚 )
‘i’.Deduce the relation 𝑛 = 2
(CBSE F 08; D 16)
𝛿 +𝐴
sin (𝐴⁄2)
𝑠𝑖𝑛( 𝑚 )
2
𝑛= 𝐴 (CBSE D 17C)
𝑠𝑖𝑛( )
2

Q63. A concave lens made of material of refractive index ‘n 2’is held in a reference medium of
**********
refractive index ‘n1’. Trace the path of parallel beam of light passing through the lens when:
(i) n1 = n2 (ii) n1 < n2 (iii) n1 > n2 (CBSE OD 2000, 03C)
5 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q64. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show image formation when the concave mirror produces a real,
inverted and magnified image of the object.

(b) Obtain the mirror formula and write the expression for the linear magnification.

(c) Explain two advantages of a reflecting telescope over a refracting telescope. (CBSE 18)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 262 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 263 of 484
 SECTION A –ANSWER KEY 16. Critical angle 1
𝐶=sin−1 ( ) ,n is the absolute refractive index of denser medium
𝑛

1. Frequency 17. To transmit light signals from one place to another without any loss of intensity.
1 1 1
2. The ratio of sine of the angle of incidence to sine of the angle of refraction is a constant 18. Critical angle 𝐶=sin−1 ( ) or 𝑛 = = =2
𝑛 sin 𝐶 sin 30
,called the refractive index of second medium with respect to first medium 𝑐 𝑐 3× 108
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑣𝑎𝑐𝑐𝑢𝑚 𝑐
also 𝑛 = ,𝑣 = = =1.5 × 108 m/s
3. 𝑣 𝑛 2
Refractive index n= =
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑚𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚 𝑣
19. The relation connecting image distance (v), object distance (u) and focal length (f) of a
4. Convex mirror 1 1 1
lens is − =
v u f
5. Rays parallel and close to the principal axis (paraxial rays) after reflection at a concave
20. It is the reciprocal of focal length of the lens in metres.𝑃 = 1
mirror actually converge to a fixed point on the principal axis. This fixed point is called 𝑓

as the principal focus. S I unit is dioptre

6. 1 1 1
+ =
v u f
ANSWERS TO MCQ
21. a) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond
22.a) 10cm
23. d) Infinity
7. The relation connecting image distance (v), object distance (u) and focal length (f) of a
1 1 1
24.a)A+𝑑𝑚 = 2i
mirror is + =
v u f 25.1.5 × 108 m/s
8. 𝑅
For a mirror f= , the focal length is independent of the wavelength or colour of incident 26.a)Decreases
2

light. 27.d)Infinity
9. Angle of incidence= angle of reflection 28.b) Intensity of image is halved
The incident ray, reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence all lie on the same 29.c) Convex lens and Concave mirror
plane. 30.a) Straight line
10. Refractive index of second medium w r to first medium 31.a) 0°
speed of light in medium 1 3× 108 32.c) 1D
(air)= = =1.5
speed of light in medium 2 2×108
33. 1< n<1.3
11. Frequency 𝑓 = 𝑐 = 3× 108 =6 × 1014 Hz
−7 𝜆 5×10 34. b) Nearer to the lens
12. In vacuum, velocity of every wavelength is same. Hence ratio is 1:1 35.a) convergent lens of focal length 100cm
𝑐
13. 𝑛 = , since 𝑣 < 𝑐,n cannot be less than one.
𝑣

14. Total internal reflection ASSERTION AND REASON

36. b 37. D 38. C 39. D 40. D 41. A 42. C 43. B 44. C 45. a
15. The angle of incidence in the denser medium for which the angle of refraction becomes
90°.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 264 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 265 of 484
 ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS OF 2 MARKS Focal length become two times.
𝑅 51. Image formed will be real, inverted and
46. Focal length of a mirror f= where R is the radius of curvature of the mirror. Hence focal
2
diminished between C and F
length doesn’t depends on the medium in which it is immersed. So focal length remains the
There will be no change in the position of the
same.
real depth image, but its intensity will be reduced.
47. This is due to refraction of light. Refractive index n = . Since n>1, apparent
apparent depth

depth is less than the real depth. 52.R=20cm,𝑛1=1,𝑛2=1.5 ,u= -30cm

48. 𝑛2 𝑛1 𝑛2 − 𝑛𝜇1
− =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑅
1.5 1 1.5 − 1
− =
𝑣 −30 20
1.5 −1
= 𝑣 = −180𝑐𝑚
𝑣 120
𝑣
53.Given m=3 and f=-15cm m= 𝑣 = 3𝑢
𝑢
49. A ray of light parallel to the 1 1 1
+ =
principal axis, incident on the air v u f

bubble, bends away from the normal u=-20cm

as it goes from denser to rarer 54. 𝑅1 = +10𝑐𝑚 𝑅2 = −15𝑐𝑚 ,𝑓 = 12𝑐𝑚

1 1 1
medium. The refracted ray AB, =(𝑛 − 1)( − )
𝑓 𝑅1 𝑅2

suffers refraction at B and it bends 1

=(𝑛 − 1)(
1
−
1
)
12 10 −15
toward the normal. The refracted rays at B and D when produced backwards, meets the principal
(𝑛 − 1) = 0.5
axis at I, giving a virtual image. The air bubble diverges the rays of light, so it behaves like a
𝑛 = 1 + 0.5 = 1.5
diverging lens.
𝑓𝑜 𝑓
1 1 1 55. Angular magnification M=− (1 + 𝑒 ) when the final image is formed at least distance
50. =(n−1)( − ) 𝑓𝑒 𝐷
𝑓 𝑅1 𝑅2
of distinct vision
For equi-convex lens R1 = +R and R2=-R
𝑓𝑜
1 1 1 M =− in normal adjustment
=(𝑛 − 1)( + ) 𝑓𝑒
𝑓 𝑅 𝑅
(𝑛−1)
=2
𝑅 ANSWERS OF THREE MARKS QUESTIONS
For plano convex lens R1 = +R and R2= ∞
56. Conditions for total internal reflection:
1 1
1 =(𝑛 − 1)( )
𝑓 𝑅 (a) Light must travel from denser medium to rarer medium
=(𝑛 − 1)𝑅 = 2𝑓 (b) Angle of incidence in denser medium must be greater than critical angle

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 266 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 267 of 484
 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖
𝑛21 = (as per the figure above) 𝑛21 = (as per the figure above)
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑟 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑟

for total internal reflection to occur 𝑖 ≥ 𝑖𝑐 ; for total internal reflection to occur 𝑖 ≥ 𝑖𝑐 ;
at critical angle 𝑖𝑐 ; angle of refraction, 𝑟 = 900 at critical angle 𝑖𝑐 ; angle of refraction, 𝑟 = 900
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖𝑐 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖𝑐
hence 𝑛21 = = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖𝑐 hence 𝑛21 = = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖𝑐
𝑠𝑖𝑛 900 𝑠𝑖𝑛 900

1 1
𝑛21 = 𝑛21 =
𝑛12 𝑛12
1 1
= 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖𝑐 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖𝑐
𝑛12 𝑛12
1 1
𝑛12 = 𝑛12 =
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖𝑐 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖𝑐

Thus, refractive index of denser medium with respect to the rarer medium is equal to 1⁄𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖 Thus, refractive index of denser medium with respect to the rarer medium is equal to 1⁄𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖
𝑐 𝑐

57. (i) When a ray of light travels from an optically denser medium into rarer medium at an angle (iii) (a) Mirage (b) Optical fibre (c) Sparkling of diamond (d) Shinning of air bubbles in water (e)
greater than the critical angle, it reflects back into the denser medium. This phenomenon I called Totally reflecting prism
total internal reflection.
58. (i) Working of an optical fibre is based on total internal reflection.
Conditions for total internal reflection:
(ii) (a) Rays of light have to travel from optically denser medium to optically rarer medium
(a) Light must travel from denser medium to rarer medium
(b) Angle of incidence in denser medium must be greater than critical angle

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 268 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 269 of 484
(b) Angle of incidence in the denser medium should be greater than critical angle at I1. Since image I1 is real, it serves as a virtual object for the second lens B, producing the final
(iii) image at I.

For the image formed by the first lens A, we get

1 1 1
− = … … . (1)
59.An optical fibre is a device based on 𝑣1 𝑢 𝑓1

total internal reflection by which a light For the image formed by the second lens B, we get
signal may be transmitted from one place 1 1 1
− = … … (2)
to another with a negligible loss of 𝑣 𝑣1 𝑓2

energy. It is a very long and thin pipe of quartz (𝑛 = 1.7) of thickness nearly ≈ 10−4 m coated all Adding Eqs. (1) and (2), we get
around with a material of refractive index 1.5. A large number of such fibres held together from a 1 1 1 1
− = + … … (3)
light pipe and are used for communication of light signals. When a light ray is incident on one at 𝑣 𝑢 𝑓1 𝑓2

a small angle of incidence, it suffers refraction from air to quartz and strikes the quartz-coating If the two lens-system is regarded as equivalent to a single lens of focal length f we get
interface at an angle more than the critical angle and so suffers total internal reflection and strikes 1 1 1
− = … … (4)
the opposite face again at an angle greater than critical angle and so again suffers total reflection. 𝑣 𝑢 𝑓

Thus, the ray within the fibre suffers multiple total internal reflections and finally strikes the other From (3) and (4)

end at an angle less than critical angle for quartz-air interface and emerges in air. 1 1 1
+ =
𝑓1 𝑓2 𝑓
As there is no loss of energy in total internal reflection, the light signal is transmitted by this device
62. Refer question 4 of section A 5 marks questions.
without any appreciable loss of energy.
63. (i) n1 = n2
Application: Optical fibre is used (i)to transmit light signal to distant places (ii) in endoscopy.

60. Refer question 3 of section A 5 marks questions.

61.
(ii) n1 < n2

Consider two lenses A and B of focal length f1 and f2 placed in contact with each other. Let the
object be placed at a point O beyond the focus of the first lens A. The first lens produces an image

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 270 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 271 of 484
(iii) n1 > n2 From eqn (2)

𝐵 ′ 𝐴′ 𝐵 ′ 𝑃 −ℎ′ −𝑣
= ∴ =
𝐵𝐴 𝐵𝑃 ℎ −𝑢

ℎ′ 𝑣
𝑚= = −
ℎ 𝑢

SOLUTION OF 5 MARKS QUESTIONS (c) The two advantages of reflecting telescope:

(i)There is no chromatic aberration in case of reflecting telescope as the objective is a mirror.
(ii) Spherical aberration is reduced in case of reflecting telescope by using mirror objective in the
64. (a) Ray diagram:
(b) The two right- angled triangles 𝐴′ 𝐵 ′ 𝐹and MPF form of paraboloidal mirror.
are similar.
𝐵 ′ 𝐴′ 𝐵 ′ 𝐹 65. The figure shows the geometry of image
=
𝑃𝑀 𝐹𝑃 formation of image I of an object O on the principal
′ ′
𝐵𝐴 𝐵′𝐹 axis of a spherical surface with centre of curvature C,
= (∵ 𝑃𝑀 = 𝐵𝐴) … … … (1) and radius of curvature R.
𝐵𝐴 𝐹𝑃
∠𝐴𝑃𝐵 = ∠𝐴′ 𝑃𝐵 ′
Consider the aperture of surface to be small compared
The right triangles 𝐴′ 𝐵 ′ 𝑃 and ABP are also similar to other distances involved, so that the angle
𝐵 ′ 𝐴′ 𝐵 ′ 𝑃 approximation can be made.
= … … (2) 𝑀𝑁
𝐵𝐴 𝐵𝑃 𝑡𝑎𝑛∠𝑁𝑂𝑀 ≈ ∠𝑁𝑂𝑀 =
Comparing eqs. (1) and (2) 𝑂𝑀
𝑀𝑁
𝐵′ 𝐹 𝐵′ 𝑃 𝑡𝑎𝑛∠𝑁𝐶𝑀 ≈ ∠𝑁𝐶𝑀 =
= 𝑀𝐶
𝐹𝑃 𝐵𝑃
𝑀𝑁
𝐵 𝑃 − 𝐹𝑃 𝐵 ′ 𝑃
′
𝑡𝑎𝑛∠𝑁𝐼𝑀 ≈ ∠𝑁𝐼𝑀 =
= … … . (3) 𝑀𝐼
𝐹𝑃 𝐵𝑃
𝐹𝑜𝑟 ∆𝑁𝑂𝐶, ′𝑖′ 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑒𝑥𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑟 𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒.
Taking the sign conventions, 𝐵 ′ 𝑃 = −𝑣, 𝐹𝑃 = −𝑓, 𝐵𝑃 = −𝑢
∴ 𝑖 = ∠𝑁𝑂𝑀 + ∠𝑁𝐶𝑀
Using these in equation (3)
−𝑣 + 𝑓 −𝑣 𝑀𝑁 𝑀𝑁
= ∴𝑖= + … … . (1)
−𝑓 −𝑢 𝑂𝑀 𝑀𝐶
𝑣−𝑓 𝑣 𝑣 𝑣 1 1 1
= ⟹ −1= ⟹ − = … … (𝑑𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑏𝑦 𝑣) 𝐹𝑜𝑟 ∆𝑁𝐶𝐼, ∠𝑁𝐶𝑀 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑒𝑥𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑟 𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒.
𝑓 𝑢 𝑓 𝑢 𝑓 𝑣 𝑢 ∴ 𝑟 = ∠𝑁𝐶𝑀 − ∠𝑁𝐼𝑀
1 1 1
∴ = + 𝑀𝑁 𝑀𝑁
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢 ∴𝑟= − … … . (2)
𝑀𝐶 𝑀𝐼
The above equation is mirror formula. By Snell’s law
ℎ′
Linear magnification: 𝑚 = 𝑛1 sin 𝑖 = 𝑛2 sin 𝑟
ℎ

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 272 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 273 of 484
𝑛1 𝑖 = 𝑛2 𝑟 … … (𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑠𝑚𝑎𝑙𝑙 𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒𝑠) Fig(a) shows the geometry of image formation by a double convex lens. The image formation
can be seen in terms of two steps:
𝑀𝑁 𝑀𝑁 𝑀𝑁 𝑀𝑁
𝑛1 ( + ) = 𝑛2 ( − ) … … (𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 (1)&(2)) (i) The first refracting surface forms the image I1 of the object O (fig b)
𝑂𝑀 𝑀𝐶 𝑀𝐶 𝑀𝐼
(ii) The image I1 acts as a virtual object for the second surface that forms the image at I (fig
𝑛1 𝑛1 𝑛2 𝑛2
+ = − … … … (𝑑𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑏𝑦 𝑀𝑁) c)
𝑂𝑀 𝑀𝐶 𝑀𝐶 𝑀𝐼
𝑛1 𝑛2 𝑛2 − 𝑛1 Applying equation for refraction at a spherical surface to the first surface ABC,
+ =
𝑂𝑀 𝑀𝐼 𝑀𝐶 𝑛1 𝑛2 𝑛2 − 𝑛1
+ = … … (1)
𝑂𝐵 𝐵𝐼1 𝐵𝐶1
Applying the sign convention, 𝑂𝑀 = −𝑢, 𝑀𝐼 = +𝑣, 𝑀𝐶 = +𝑅 Applying equation for refraction at a spherical surface to the second surface ADC,
𝑛1 𝑛2 𝑛2 − 𝑛1
+ = 𝑛2 𝑛1 𝑛1 − 𝑛2
−𝑢 𝑣 𝑅 + = … … (2)
−𝐷𝐼1 𝐷𝐼 −𝐷𝐶2
𝑛2 𝑛1 𝑛2 − 𝑛1 For this case the refractive index of the medium on the right side of ADC is 𝑛1 while on its left it
− = … … (3)
𝑣 𝑢 𝑅
is 𝑛2 . Further 𝐷𝐼1 is negative as the distance is measured against the direction of incident light.
Equation (3) is the required equation. Also for thin lens, 𝐵𝐼1 = 𝐷𝐼1
𝜆1 𝑛2 Equation (2) becomes
(b) 𝑛21 = =
𝜆2 𝑛1
𝑛2 𝑛1 𝑛2 − 𝑛1
− + = … … (3)
𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝜆2 > 𝜆1 , 𝑛2 < 𝑛1 𝐵𝐼1 𝐷𝐼 𝐷𝐶2
Adding eqs (1) and (3)
1 1 1 𝑛1 𝑛1 1 1
𝐴𝑐𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑡𝑜 𝐿𝑒𝑛𝑠 𝑚𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑟 ′ 𝑠 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 = (𝑛 − 1) [ − ] + = (𝑛2 − 𝑛1 ) ( + ) … … (4)
𝑓 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑂𝐵 𝐷𝐼 𝐵𝐶1 𝐷𝐶2
1 Suppose the object is at infinity, 𝑂𝐵 → ∞ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐷𝐼 = 𝑓
∴𝑓∝
(𝑛 − 1) 𝑛1 1 1
= (𝑛2 − 𝑛1 ) ( + ) … … (5)
∴ 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝜆2 > 𝜆1 , 𝑛2 < 𝑛1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑓2 > 𝑓1 𝑓 𝐵𝐶1 𝐷𝐶2
By the sign conventions, 𝐵𝐶1 = +𝑅1 𝐷𝐶2 = −𝑅2
Thus, when wavelength of incident light is increased, focal length of the convex lens increases.
𝑛1 1 1
= (𝑛2 − 𝑛1 ) ( + )
𝑓 𝑅1 −𝑅2
66.
1 𝑛2 𝑛1 1 1
= ( − ) ( − ) … … … (𝑑𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑏𝑦 𝑛1 )
𝑓 𝑛1 𝑛1 𝑅1 𝑅2
1 𝑛2 1 1
= ( − 1) ( − )
𝑓 𝑛1 𝑅1 𝑅2
1 1 1 𝑛2
= (𝑛21 − 1) ( − ) … … (6) (∵ 𝑛21 = )
𝑓 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑛1
Eqn (6) is Lens Maker’s formula.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 274 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 275 of 484
Assumptions made in the derivation of Lens Maker’s formula
At 𝛿 = 𝛿𝑚 𝑖 = 𝑒 ∴ 𝑟1 = 𝑟2
1. The lens used is thin so that the distances measured from its surfaces may be taken equal
𝐴
to those measured from its optical centre. ∴ 𝑒𝑞𝑛 (3)𝑏𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠 2𝑟 = 𝐴 ∴𝑟=
2
2. The object is a point object placed on the principal
𝐸𝑞𝑛 (4) 𝑏𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠 𝛿𝑚 = 2𝑖 − 𝐴 ∴𝑖
axis. 𝐴 + 𝛿𝑚
=
3. The aperture of the lens is small. 2𝛿

4. All the rays are paraxial. According to Snell’s law

sin 𝑖
New Cartesian sign convention for spherical lenses: 𝑛21 =
sin 𝑟
𝐴+𝛿𝑚
1. All distances are measured from the optical centre of sin(
2
)
Substituting i and r in the above equation 𝑛21 = 𝐴
the lens. sin( )
2

2. The distances measured in the direction of incident

light are positive.
3. The distances measured in the opposite direction of incident light are negative. ************

67. Figure shows the passage of light through a triangular prism ABC. Ray PQ is incident on the
face AB. The angle of incidence and angle of refraction are i and r 1respectively. The ray QR
emerges from the face AC. The angle of incidence on this face is r 2 and angle of refraction or
emergence is e.
The angle between the emergent ray RS and the direction of the incident ray is called the angle of
deviation, δ
In □ AQNR, ∠𝐴𝑄𝑁 + ∠𝐴𝑅𝑁 = 90𝑂 + 90𝑂 = 180𝑂
∠𝐴 + ∠𝑄𝑁𝑅 = 180𝑂 … . . (1)
In ∆QNR, 𝑟1 + 𝑟2 + ∠𝑄𝑁𝑅 = 180𝑂 … … (2)
Comparing (1) and (2) 𝑟1 + 𝑟2 = 𝐴 … … . . (3)
In ∆MQR, 𝛿 = ∠𝑀𝑄𝑅 + ∠𝑀𝑅𝑄 … . . (𝛿 𝑖𝑠 𝑒𝑥𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑟 𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒)
𝛿 = (𝑖 − 𝑟1 ) + (𝑒 − 𝑟2 )
𝛿 = 𝑖 + 𝑒 − 𝐴 … … . . . (4)
Plot of angle of deviation (𝜹) versus angle of incidence (i) for a triangular prism:

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 276 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 277 of 484
 SECTION B MCQ
1 MARK QUESTIONS Q17. A convex lens of focal length 10 cm is placed in contact with a concave lens of focal
Q1. What happens to the focal length of a lens when it is immersed in water? length 20cm. What is the nature and focal length of the combination?
Q2. What happens to the power of a lens immersed in water? a) Concave,10cm
b) Convex, 10cm
Q3. How can a convex lens behave like a diverging lens? c) Concave, 20cm
Q4. An object is placed at the focus of a concave lens, where will be the image formed? d) Convex, 20cm
Q18. A convex lens of focal length 16cm forms a virtual image of double the size of the
Q5. Two lenses having focal lengths 𝑓1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑓2 are placed in contact. what is the focal
object. What is the distance of the object from the lens?
length of the combination?
a) 8cm b) 16cm c) 24cm d) 32cm
Q6. A converging and the diverging lens of equal focal lengths are placed co-axially in Q19. The angle of prism is 30º and ray incident at 60º on one refracting surface suffers a
contact. Find the focal length and power of the combination? deviation of 30 º. What is the angle of emergence?
Q7. A double convex lens made from a material of refractive index 𝑛2 is immersed in a a) 0 º b) 15 c) 30 º d) 45 º
liquid of refractive index𝜇1 (𝑛2 > 𝑛1 ) what change if any would occur in the nature Q20. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that the angle of incidence is

of the lens? equal to angle of emergence and the later is equal 3/4th the angle of prism. The angle

Q8. A glass lens of refractive index 1.45 is placed in a liquid, what must be the refractive of deviation is

index of the liquid in order to make the lens disappear? a) 45 º b) 39 º c) 20 º d) 30 º

Q21. A convex length of focal length 15cm is made of material having refractive index
Q9. For the same value of angle of incidence, the angles of refraction in three media are
1.2. When placed in water of refractive index 1.3 it will behave as
15°, 25° and 35° respectively. In which medium would the velocity of light be
a) Converging lens of focal length 15cm
minimum? b) Converging lens of focal length different than 15 cm
Q10. A biconvex lens made of a transparent medium of refractive index 1.5 is immersed c) Diverging lens of focal length 15cm
d) Diverging lens of focal length different than 15 cm
in water of refractive index 1.33. Will the lens behave as a converging or diverging
lens. Give reason?
ASSERTION AND REASON
Q11. Draw the path of ray of light suffering minimum deviation while passing through a
Q22. Assertion (A): We cannot get diffraction pattern from a wide slit illuminated by
prism?
monochromatic light.
Q12. Plot a graph to show the variation of angle of deviation as a function of angle of
Reason (R): In diffraction pattern, all the bright bands are not of the same intensity.
incidence for light rays passing through a prism?
Q23. Assertion (A): When a light wave travels from a rarer to a denser medium, it loses speed.
Q13. Write down the relation between the refractive index of the material of the prism,
The reduction in speed imply a reduction in energy carried by the light wave.
angle of prism and angle of minimum deviation?
Reason (R): The energy of a wave is proportional to velocity of wave.
Q14. What do you mean by angle of minimum deviation?
Q24. Assertion (A): The film which appears bright in reflected system will appear dark in the
Q15. What is the relation between refractive index and wavelength of light?
transmitted light and vice-versa.
Q16. Write down the expression for magnifying power of a compound microscope?
Reason (R): The conditions for film to appear bright or dark in reflected light are just reverse
to those in the transmitted light.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 278 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 279 of 484
Q25. Assertion (A): In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringes become indistinct if one of (c) Write the considerations that you keep in mind, while choosing lenses to be used as eyepiece
the slits is covered with cellophane paper. and objective in a compound microscope. (CBSE 19C)
Reason (R): The cellophane paper decrease the wavelength of light. Q35. (a) Draw a labelled diagram of refraction type telescope in normal adjustment.
Q26. Assertion (A): One of the conditions for interference is that the two sources should be (b) Give its two shortcomings over reflecting type telescope.
very narrow. (c) Why is eyepiece of a telescope of short focal length, while objective is of large focal length?
Reason (R): One broad source is equal to large number of narrow sources. Explain. (CBSE 17; SP 19)
2 MARKS QUESTION Q36. (a) Draw a labelled diagram of a reflecting type telescope.
Q27. Give reasons to explain why a reflecting telescope is preferred over a refracting (b) Write two important advantages justifying why reflecting type telescopes are preferred over
telescope? refracting telescopes. (CBSE F 17)
Q28 Draw a ray diagram to show as to how a right isosceles prism made of crown glass can (c) The objective of a telescope is of larger focal length and of larger aperture (compared to the
be used to obtain an inverted image? eye-piece). Why? Give reasons. (CBSE F 13; OD 17)
Q29 A ray of light incident on a equilateral prism propagates parallel to the baseline of the Q37. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of an image at the least distance of distinct
prism inside it. Find the angle of incidence of this ray, given the refractive index of the vision, by a compound microscope. Hence, obtain an expression for its angular

material of the prism is √3 ? magnification. (CBSE COMPT 2022)

Q30. What is total internal reflection and what are the conditions under which it occurs? Q38. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of an image at

Q31. The objective of a telescope is of larger focal length and of larger aperture compared to infinity, by a compound microscope. Explain the working of

the eyepiece. Give reasons? compound microscope.

3 MARKS QUESTION Q39. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of an image at
infinity, by an astronomical telescope. Explain the working of
Q32.(a) With the help of a ray diagram, show how a concave mirror is used to obtain an erect and
an astronomical telescope.
magnified image of an object.
(b) Using the above ray diagram, obtain the mirror formula and the expression for linear 5 MARKS QUESTION
magnification. (CBSE 18C, 19C) Q40. (a) A point object ‘O’ is kept in a medium
Q33. Draw the ray diagram showing refraction of light through a glass prism and hence obtain the of refractive index n1 in front of a convex
relation between the refractive index n of the prism, angle of prism and angle of minimum spherical surface of radius of curvature R
deviation. (CBSE F 17) OR which separates the second medium of
(i)Trace the path of a ray of light PQ which is incident at an angle i on one face of a glass prism of refractive index n2 from the first one, as shown in figure.
angle A. It then emerges out from the other face at an angle e. Use the ray diagram to prove that Draw the ray diagram showing the image formation and deduce the relationship between the object
the angle through which the ray is deviated is given by ∠𝛿 = ∠𝑖 + ∠𝑒 − ∠𝐴 distance and the image distance in terms of n1, n2 and R (CBSE F 17)
(ii) What will be the minimum value of δ if the ray passes symmetrically? (CBSE F 2022) (b) When the image formed above acts as a virtual object for a concave spherical surface separating
Q34. (a) Draw a ray diagram showing the image formation by a compound microscope. the medium n2 from n1 (n2> n1), draw this ray diagram and write the similar relation. Hence obtain
(b) Derive an expression for total magnification when the image is formed at infinity. the expression for the Lens Maker’s formula. (CBSE D 15)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 280 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 281 of 484
Q41. (a) A ray ‘PQ’ of light is incident on the face AB of a glass prism ABC and emerges out of SECTION B-ANSWER KEY
the face AC. Trace the path of the ray. Show that ∠𝑖 + ∠𝑒 = ∠𝐴 + ∠𝛿 where 𝛿 and e denote the 1 1 1 1 𝑛𝑔 1 1
1. = (𝑛 − 1)( − ) when the lens is immersed in water, =( − 1)( − ) .
𝑓 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑓𝑤 𝑛𝑤 𝑅1 𝑅2
angle of deviation and angle of emergence respectively.
Plot a graph showing the variation of the angle of deviation as a function of angle of incidence. The focal length increases.
2. Power of the lens immersed in water decreases as the focal length increases.
State the condition under which ∠𝛿 is minimum.
3. Convex lens behaves like a diverging lens when it is placed in a medium of refractive
(b) Find out the relation between the refractive index (𝑛) of the glass prism and A for the case
index greater than the refractive index of the lens material.
when the angle of prism(A) is equal to the angle of minimum deviation (𝛿𝑚 ). Hence obtain the
4. 1 1 1
value of the refractive index for angle of prism A = 60o (CBSE OD 15) − = for a concave lens 𝑢 = −𝑓 , 𝑣 = ∞ the image is formed at infinity.
v u f

5. 1 1 1
Q42.Draw a ray diagram for the formation of image by a compound microscope. Define its = + where, 𝑓 is the focal length of the combination.
𝑓 𝑓1 𝑓2
magnifying power. Deduce the expression for the magnifying power of the microscope. Explain, 1 1 1 1 1
6. = − =0,𝑓= =∞ power 𝑃 = =0
(i)Why must both the object and the eyepiece of a compound microscope have short focal lengths? 𝑓 𝑓1 𝑓1 0 𝑓

7. 1 1 1 𝑛2 1 1
(ii)While viewing through a compound microscope, why should our eyes be positioned not on the =(𝑛 − 1)( − ) =( − 1) ( − )
𝑓 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑛1 𝑅1 𝑅2
eyepiece but a short distance away from it for best viewing? [Foreign 2008] Since, 𝑛2 > 𝑛1 , f is positive nature of lens is the same.
Q43. Draw a ray diagram showing the image formation of a distant object by a refracting telescope. 8. Refractive index of liquid should be same as that of glass.
Define its magnifying power and write the two important factors considered to increase the 9. sin 𝑖
𝑛= when r increases, µ decreases
sin 𝑟
magnifying power. Describe briefly the two main limitations and explain how far these can be
𝑐
𝑣= when n decreases, v increases. Velocity is minimum in medium A
minimized in a reflecting telescope. (CBSE F 15, 16) 𝑛

Q44. Draw a ray diagram for the formation of image of a distant object by an astronomical
1 𝑛𝑔 1 1
telescope in normal adjustment position. Deduce the expression for its magnifying power. Write 10. =( − 1)( − ) since 𝑛𝑔 > 𝑛𝑤 focal length is positive and will behave as a
𝑓 𝑛𝑤 𝑅1 𝑅2
two basic features which can distinguish between a telescope and compound microscope. converging lens.
Q45. Draw a labelled ray diagram showing the image formation of a distant object by refracting 11.
telescope. Deduce the expression for its magnifying power when the final image is formed at
infinity.
(ii)The sum of focal lengths of the two lenses of a refracting telescope is 105 cm. The focal length
of one lens is 20 times that of the other. Determine the total magnification of the telescope when
the final image is formed at infinity. [All India 2014]
12.

************

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 282 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 283 of 484
 𝐴+𝑑𝑚
13. sin
2
29.
Refractive index 𝑛 = 𝐴 where A= angle of prism and 𝑑𝑚 is the minimum deviation.
sin
2 sin 𝑖
From figure r=30°, 𝑛 = √3𝑛 =
14. The exterior angle formed between the directions of the incident ray produced forwards sin 𝑟
sin 𝑖 = √3 sin 30
and the emergent ray drawn backwards is called angle of deviation. 𝑖 = 60
15. Refractive index 𝑛 = 𝐴 + 𝐵
where A, B are constants
𝜆2

16. M=− 𝐿 𝐷
(1 + ) 30. The phenomenon by which rays of light proceeding from an object in the denser medium
𝑓0 𝑓𝑒

MCQ returns back to the same medium when incident an angle greater than the critical angle for the
17. d) Convex, 20cm pair of media is called total internal reflection.
18. a) 8cm Conditions for TIR
19. a) 0 ° 1. Object should be placed in the denser medium.
20. d) 30° 2. Angle of incidence in the denser medium should be greater than the critical angle for

21. d) Diverging lens of focal length different than 15 cm the pair of media.

A and R 31. Telescopes should have large light gathering power and a large magnifying power.

22. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3-MARKS
23. (d) A is false and R is also false.
32.
24. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
25. (c) A is true but R is false.
26. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2 MARKS

27.i) No chromatic aberration because mirrors are used.

i) Spherical aberration can be minimised using parabolic mirrors.
ii) Image formed is bright.
28.
1.
∆𝑀𝑃𝐹~∆𝐴′𝐵′𝐹′
𝐴′ 𝐵 ′ 𝐹𝐵 ′
=
𝑀𝑃 𝐹𝑃
𝐴′𝐵′ 𝐹𝑃 + 𝑃𝐵′
=
𝐴𝑃 𝐹𝑃
Applying the new Cartesian sign convention,
𝐴′ 𝐵 ′ = +ℎ2 , 𝐴𝐵 = +ℎ1 , 𝐹𝑃 = −𝑓, 𝑃𝐵 ′ = 𝑣

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 284 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 285 of 484
ℎ2 −𝑓 + 𝑣 𝑣 (ii) The focal length of the objective should be smaller than the eyepiece.
= = − … … … (𝑢𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑚𝑖𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑟 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑎)
ℎ1 −𝑓 𝑢
35. (a)
ℎ2 𝑣
𝑚= =−
ℎ1 𝑢
2. Refer question 4 of section A 5 marks questions & Refer question 2 of section B 5 marks
questions.
(ii) 𝛿 = 𝛿𝑚𝑖𝑛 𝑖=𝑒 𝑟1 = 𝑟2
𝑖+𝑒 = 𝐴+𝛿
𝑖 + 𝑖 = 𝐴 + 𝛿𝑚𝑖𝑛
𝛿𝑚𝑖𝑛 = 2𝑖 − 𝐴
34. (a)

(b)Limitations of a refracting telescope:

(i) Suffers from chromatic aberration
(ii) Suffers from spherical aberration
(iii) Small magnifying power
(iv) Small resolving power
𝑓0
(𝑐) 𝑚 = −
𝑓𝑒
When fo >> fe, the telescope will have large magnifying power.
36. (a)

𝛽 tan 𝛽 𝐴𝐵 ′ ⁄𝐵 ′ 𝐸 ℎ′ ⁄𝑢𝑒 ℎ′ 𝐷
𝑚= = = = = . = 𝑚𝑜 𝑚𝑒 … … (1)
𝜃0 tan 𝜃0 ℎ ⁄𝐷 ℎ ⁄𝐷 ℎ 𝑢𝑒
ℎ′ 𝐿
𝑚𝑜 = =
ℎ −𝑓0
𝐷
𝑚𝑒 =
𝑓𝑒
𝐿 𝐷
𝑚 = 𝑚𝑜 𝑚𝑒 = (b)Advantages of a reflecting telescope:
−𝑓0 𝑓𝑒
Consideration while choosing objective and eyepiece: (i) No chromatic aberration, because mirror objective is used.
(ii) Spherical aberration can be removed by paraboloidal mirror.
(i) Both the lenses should have short focal lengths. (iii) Image is bright because there is no loss of energy due to refraction.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 286 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 287 of 484
 (iv) Large mirror provides an easier mechanical support over its entire back surface. (b) Refer Section A Question (3)
(c) The objective of larger focal length produces high angular magnification while that of larger 41.(a)Refer Section A Question (4). Derive up to equation (4)
aperture has a high resolving power. For graph Section A Question (4).
37. Refer question (3) of Section B 5 marks questions. Condition under which δ is minimum: At 𝛿 = 𝛿𝑚 𝑖 = 𝑒 ∴ 𝑟1 = 𝑟2
38. Refer question (3) of Section B 3 marks questions for diagram. (b) 𝐴 = 𝛿𝑚
Working: 𝐴 + 𝛿𝑚
sin ( )
2
(a) When the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision: 𝑛21 =
𝐴
The object AB to be viewed is placed at distance slightly larger than the focal length of the sin ( )
2
objective O. The objective forms a real, inverted and magnified image on the other side of 𝐴+𝐴 𝐴 𝐴
sin ( ) sin 𝐴 2 sin ( ) cos ( )
the lens. The separation between the objective and eyepiece is so adjusted that the image 𝑛21 = 2 = = 2 2 = 2 cos (𝐴)
𝐴 𝐴 𝐴 2
lies within the focal length of the eyepiece. The image formed by the objective acts as an sin ( ) sin ( ) sin ( )
2 2 2
object for the eyepiece. The eyepiece forms a virtual and magnified final image which is 120
sin ( )
inverted with respect to the object. 𝑛21 = 2 … … . (𝐴 = 600 )
60
sin ( )
(b) When the final image is formed at infinity: 2
When the image formed by the objective lies at the focus of the eyepiece, the final image sin 60
𝑛21 =
is formed at infinity. sin 30

39. Refer question (4a) of Section B, 3 marks questions for diagram. √3⁄
𝑛21 = 2 = √3
1⁄
Working: 2
(a) When the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision:
The parallel beam of light coming from the distant object falls on the objective at some 42..
angle α. The objective focusses the beam in its focal plane and forms a real, inverted and
diminished image on the other side of the lens. This image acts as an object for the
eyepiece. The separation between the objective and eyepiece is so adjusted that the image
lies within the focal length of the eyepiece. The eyepiece magnifies this image so that final
image is magnified and inverted with respect to the object.
(b) When the final image is formed at infinity:
When the image formed by the objective lies at the focus of the eyepiece, the final image
is formed at infinity. Magnifying power: The magnifying power of
a compound microscope is defined as the ratio of the angle subtended at the eye by the final virtual
5 MARKS QUESTIONS:
image to the angle subtended at the eye by the object, when both are at the least distance of distinct
40. (a)Refer Section A Question (2a)
vision from the eye.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 288 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 289 of 484
 𝛽 tan 𝛽 𝐴𝐵 ′ ⁄𝐵 ′ 𝐸 ℎ′ ⁄𝑢𝑒 ℎ′ 𝐷 All the rays from the object refracted by the objective go through the eyering. Therefore, it is an
𝑚= = = = = . = 𝑚𝑜 𝑚𝑒 … … … … … . . (𝐵 ′ 𝐸 = 𝑢𝑒 )
𝜃0 tan 𝜃0 ℎ ⁄𝐷 ℎ ⁄𝐷 ℎ 𝑢𝑒 ideal position for our eyes for
ℎ′ 𝑣0 viewing. If we place our eyes too
𝑚𝑜 = =
ℎ 𝑢0
close to the eye-piece, we shall not
𝐷 𝐷
As the eyepiece acts as a simple microscope, 𝑚𝑒 = = (1 + ) collect much of the light and also
𝑢𝑒 𝑓𝑒

𝑣0 𝐷 reduce our field of view. If we

𝑚 = 𝑚𝑜 𝑚𝑒 = (1 + )
𝑢0 𝑓𝑒 position our eyes on the eyering and
As the object AB is placed close to the focus F0 of the objective, 𝑢0 ≈ −𝑓0 the area of the pupil of our eye is
As the object 𝐴’𝐵’ is formed close to the eyelens whose focal length is short, greater or equal to the area of the
∴ 𝑣0 ≈ 𝐿 eyering, our eyes will collect all the light refracted by the objective. The exact location of the
(𝐿 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑚𝑖𝑐𝑟𝑜𝑠𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑒 𝑡𝑢𝑏𝑒 𝑜𝑟 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑏𝑒𝑡𝑤𝑒𝑒𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑡𝑤𝑜 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑒𝑠. ) eyering depends on the separation between the objective and the eyepiece and the focal length of
𝐿 𝐷 the eyepiece.
𝑚 = − (1 + )
𝑓0 𝑓𝑒
(Note: The above equation is derived for the final object at LDDV. The derivation can also be 43.

done for the case of final image formed at infinity as it is not specified in the question)
(i) The magnifying power of a compound microscope is given by:
𝑣0 𝐷
𝑚 = 𝑚𝑜 𝑚𝑒 = (1 + )
𝑢0 𝑓𝑒
𝑓0 𝐷
𝑚= (1 + )
𝑢0 − 𝑓0 𝑓𝑒
Angular magnification (m0) of objective will be large when u0 is slightly greater than
f0. Since microscope is used for viewing very close objects, so u0 is small.
Consequently, fo has to be small. Magnifying power: The magnifying power of a telescope is defined as the ratio of the angle
𝐷 𝐷 subtended at the eye by the final image formed at the least distance of distinct vision to the angle
𝑚𝑒 = = (1 + ) subtented at the eye by the object at infinity, when seen directly.
𝑢𝑒 𝑓𝑒
The angular magnification (me) of the eyepiece will be large if fe is small. Factors for increasing the magnifying power:

(ii) (i) Increasing focal length of the objective

(ii) Decreasing focal length of the eyepiece.
Limitations of a refracting telescope:
(v) Suffers from chromatic aberration
(vi) Suffers from spherical aberration
(vii) Small magnifying power
(viii) Small resolving power

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 290 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 291 of 484
Advantages of a reflecting telescope: SECTION-C
(v) No chromatic aberration, because mirror objective is used. 1MARK
(vi) Spherical aberration can be removed by paraboloidal mirror.
Q1. On what factors does the magnifying power of a compound microscope depend?
(vii) Image is bright because there is no loss of energy due to refraction.
(viii) Large mirror provides an easier mechanical support over its entire back surface. Q2. What is the nature of final image formed in a compound microscope?
44. Q3. What do you mean by normal adjustment of a telescope?
Q4. The focal length of the objective and eyepiece of a telescope are
𝑓𝑜 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑓𝑒 respectively what is the magnifying power of the telescope in normal
adjustment?
Q5. Name the two types of reflecting telescopes?
Q6. Write the important features of a good telescope?
Q7. Define the term magnifying power of a compound microscope?
Q8. Write the expression for magnifying power of a telescope when the final image is
𝛽 tan 𝛽 𝐴′ 𝐵′⁄𝐴′ 𝐶2
Magnifying power, 𝑚 = = = formed at the least distance of distinct vision
𝛼 tan 𝛼 𝐴′ 𝐵′⁄𝐴′ 𝐶1
′
𝐴 𝐶1 Q9. In a telescope objective lens is of large focal length while eyepiece is of small focal
𝑚=
𝐴′ 𝐶2 length. Why
𝑓0 Q10. Out of blue and red light which is deviated more by a prism? Give reason?
𝑚 = − 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒, 𝐴′ 𝐶1 = −𝑓0 , 𝐴′ 𝐶2 = 𝑓𝑒
𝑓𝑒 MCQ
Construction difference:
Q11. To increase the magnifying power of a telescope, we should increase
Microscope Telescope a) Focal length of the objective
1. Objective is of very short focal length and 1. Objective is of large focal length and of
of short aperture. large aperture. b) Focal length of the eyepiece
2.Eyepiece is of short focal length (but fe > fo) 2. Eyepiece is of short focal length and c) Aperture of the objective.
and large aperture. short aperture.
d) Aperture of the eyepiece.

Working difference: Q12. In a compound microscope, the objective produces a magnification of 10, while the
eyepiece produces a magnification of 5, then the overall magnification achieved by a
Microscope Telescope
1. Objective forms real and magnified 1. Objective forms image of the compound microscope is
image of an object kept just beyond distant object at, or within, the a) 2 b) 50 c) 0.5 d) 25
the focus. focus of its eyepiece.
2. It produces linear magnification, i.e., 2. It produces angular magnification Q13. If 𝑓𝑜 and 𝑓𝑒 are the focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece of an astronomical
size of the image is larger than that of i.e, the image is nearer to the eye telescope, the length of the tube is
the object. but the size does not increase.
45. (i) Refer 5 marks question, section B, question (5) a) 𝑓𝑜 + 𝑓𝑒
𝑓0 b) 𝑓𝑜 - 𝑓𝑒
(ii) 𝑓0 = 20𝑓𝑒 ∴ = 20 ∴ 𝑚 = 20
𝑓𝑒

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 292 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 293 of 484
 c) √𝑓𝑜 × 𝑓𝑒 Q22. Which two of the following lenses L1, L2 and L3 will you select as objective and eyepiece for
𝑓𝑜 𝑓𝑒 constructing best possible (i) telescope (ii) microscope? Give reason to support your answer.
d)
𝑓𝑜 + 𝑓𝑒
(CBSE D 09, 15C; OD 17)
Q14. An astronomical telescope is set for normal adjustment and the distance between the
objective and eyepiece is 1.05 metre. The magnifying power of the telescope is 20. Lenses Power (P) Aperture(A)
L1 3D 8cm
What is the focal length of the objective? L2 6D 1 cm
a) 2m b) 1m c) .5m d) .25m L3 10 D 1 cm
Q15. When a telescope is in normal adjustment, the distance of the objective from the
Q23. Four double convex lenses, with the following specifications are available:
eyepiece is 100cm. if the magnifying power of the telescope in normal adjustment is
24, the focal length of the lenses are Lenses Focal length Aperture(A)
A 100 cm 10 cm
a) 96cm, 4cm b) 90cm, 10cm c) 80cm, 20cm d) 50cm, 50cm B 100 cm 5 cm
2MARKS C 10 cm 2cm
D 5 cm 2 cm
Q16. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation by a concave mirror when the object
is placed between its focus and pole. Using this diagram, derive the magnification Which two of the given four lenses, should be selected as the objective and eyepiece to construct
produced in the image. an astronomical telescope and why? What will be the magnifying power and normal length of the
Q17. Draw a labelled diagram for the formation of image by a compound microscope when telescope tube so constructed?
the final image is formed at the near point or the least distance of distinct vision? Write the advantages of reflecting type telescope over such a telescope.
Q18. Draw a ray diagram to obtain the image at the least distance of distinct vision using an Or
astronomical telescope?
Which two of the above four lenses should be selected as objective and eyepiece of a compound
Q19 Draw a schematic ray diagram of a reflecting type telescope (Cassegrain)?
microscope and why? How can the magnifying power of such a microscope be increased? Draw a
Q20. Draw a ray diagram to obtain the image by an astronomical telescope in normal
labelled ray diagram for the image formation in such a microscope. (CBSE SAMPLE PAPER
adjustment position?
2005)
3MARKS
Q24. An optical instrument uses eye-lens of power 12.5 D and object lens of power 50D and has
Q21. Two convex lenses A and B of an astronomical telescope having focal lengths 5cm and 20
a tube length of 20 cm. Name the optical instrument and calculate its magnifying power, if it
cm respectively, are arranged as shown in the figure:
forms the final image at infinity. (CBSE D 17)
(i) Which one of the two lenses you will select to use
as the objective lens and why? Q25. A plot, between the angle of deviation (δ) and

(ii) What should be the change in the distance between angle of incidence (i), for a triangular prism is shown
the lenses to have the telescope in its normal in figure:
adjustment position?
(iii) Calculate the magnifying power of the telescope
in the normal adjustment position. (CBSE SAMPLE PAPER 2003)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 294 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 295 of 484
Explain why any given value of ‘δ’ corresponds to two values of angle of incidence. State the (b) the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision (D = 25cm)? (CBSE OD13)
significance of point P on the graph. (CBSE SAMPLE PAPER 2011) (c) What is the separation between the objective and eye lens when final image is formed at
infinity?
Q26. Define power of the lens. Why is the power of a lens measured as the reciprocal of its focal
(d) If this telescope is used to view a 100m tall tower 3km away, what is the height of the image
length? Give its SI unit and define it. Sun glasses have curved surfaces but they do not have any
of the tower formed by the objective lens?
power. Why?
(e) what is the height of the final image of the tower if it is formed at the least distance of distinct
5MARKS vision D = 25 cm.
Q27. (a) Derive mirror equation for a convex mirror. SECTION C-ANSWERS OF 1 MARK QUESTIONS
(b) Using it, show that a convex mirror always produces a virtual image, independent of the 1. M depends on the focal length of objective and eyepiece.
location of the object. (CBSE SP 20) 2. Real, inverted and magnified with respect to object.
Q28.Draw a ray diagram showing the formation of the image by a point object on the principal 3. Adjustment in which final image is formed at infinity.
axis of a spherical convex surface separating two media of refractive indices n 1 and n2, when a 4. 𝑓𝑜
Magnifying power M= -
𝑓𝑒
point source is kept in the rarer medium of refractive index n1. Derive the relation between object
5. Newtonian type and Cassegrain type
and image distance in terms of refractive index of the medium and radius of curvature of the
6. High magnifying power, large light gathering power and high resolving power.
surface. Hence obtain the expression for Lens Maker’s formula in the case of thin convex lens.
7. 𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 𝑠𝑢𝑏𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑑 𝑏𝑦 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑎𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑒𝑦𝑒
(CBSE D 09, 14, 14C, OD 16) Magnifying power M= when both are at the least
𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 𝑠𝑢𝑏𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑑 𝑏𝑦 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑎𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑒𝑦𝑒

Q29. Draw a ray diagram to show the working of a compound microscope. Deduce an expression distance of distinct vision.
for the total magnification when the final image is formed at the near point. 8. 𝑓 𝑓
Magnifying power M= - 𝑜(1+ 𝑒 )
𝑓𝑒 𝐷
In a compound microscope, an object is placed at a distance of 1.5 cm from the objective of focal
9. For larger angular magnification
length 1.25 cm. If the eye piece has a focal length of 5 cm and the final image is formed at the near
10. Deviation produced by a prism is 𝑑 = (𝑛 − 1)𝐴 and refractive index n∝ 1
.
point, estimate the magnifying power of the microscope. (CBSE D10) 𝜆2

Q30.(a) Draw a ray diagram for final image formed at distance of distinct vision (D) by a Since violet has lesser wavelength its refractive index is more, hence deviation is more for

compound microscope and write an expression for its magnifying power. violet.

(b) An angular magnification of 30X is desired for a compound microscope using an objective of ANSWERS TO MCQ

focal length 1.25 cm and eyepiece of focal length 5cm. How will you set up the compound 11. a) Focal length of the objective

microscope? (CBSE SP 20) 12. a) 50

Q31.(i) What is meant by ‘normal adjustment’ in case of an astronomical telescope? Trace the 13. a) 𝑓𝑜 + 𝑓𝑒

paths of three rays from a distant object through an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment. 14. b) 1m
(ii)A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 140 cm and an eye-piece of focal length 15. a) 96cm, 4cm
5.0 cm.What is the(a) magnifying power of telescope for viewing distant objects when the
telescope is in normal adjustment (i.e., when the final image is at infinity)?

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 296 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 297 of 484
 ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS OF 2 MARKS 19.
16.

20.

17.

3 MARKS QUESTION
18.
21. (i) The lens B should be used as objective because it has larger focal length and larger radius.
(ii) In normal adjustment, the distance between objective and eyepiece
= fo + fe = 20+5=25cm
Distance required to be increased between the two lenses = 25-15 = 10 cm
(iii) Magnifying power of the telescope in normal adjustment,
𝑓0 20
𝑚= = =4
𝑓𝑒 5
22.(i) Telescope: L1 as objective and L2 as eyepiece
Reason: The objective should have large aperture and large focal length while the eyepiece should
have small aperture and small focal length. Then the light gathering power and magnifying power
will be larger.

(ii) Microscope: L3 as objective and L2 as eyepiece

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 298 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 299 of 484
Reason: Both the lenses of the microscope should have short focal lengths and the focal length of Point P is the point of minimum deviation. This is related to the fact that the path of the ray as
the objective should be smaller than that of the eyepiece. Magnifying power will be larger for short shown in Figure can be traced back resulting in the same angle of deviation. At the minimum
focal lengths of objective and eyepiece. deviation δm, the refracted ray inside the prism becomes parallel to the base.
26.The power P of a lens is defined as the tangent of the angle by which it converges or diverges
23. For constructing astronomical telescope, lens A should be used as objective because of its
large focal length and large aperture. Lens D should be used as its eyepiece because of its small a beam of light falling at unit distant from the optical
focal length and small aperture. centre
𝑓0 100
𝑚= = = 20 ℎ
𝑓𝑒 5 tan 𝛿 =
𝑓
Normal length = 100+5 =105 cm
1
(b)Advantages of a reflecting telescope: 𝐼𝑓 ℎ = 1, tan 𝛿 =
𝑓
(a) No chromatic aberration, because mirror objective is used. 1
(b) Spherical aberration can be removed by paraboloidal mirror. 𝑃=
𝑓
OR Power of a lens is a measure of the convergence or divergence, which a lens introduces in the light
For constructing compound microscope, the lens D should be used as objective and C as the falling on it. Clearly, a lens of shorter focal length bends the incident light more. So, the power of
eyepiece because the lenses should have small focal length and the focal length of the objective a lens is measured as the reciprocal of its focal length.
should be smaller than that of the eyepiece.
SI unit of power is dioptre .One dioptre is the power of the lens whose focal length is 1m.
𝑣0 𝐷 Both the surfaces of sun glasses are equally curved i.e., 𝑅1 = 𝑅2
𝑚 = − (1 + )
𝑓0 𝑓𝑒
1 1
The magnifying power of a compound microscope can be increased by taking both 𝑓0 and 𝑓𝑒 𝑃 = (𝑛21 − 1) ( − )=0
small. 𝑅1 𝑅2
For ray diagram refer question 3 of 5marks questions, Section B 5 MARKS QUESTIONS:

24. The optical instrument is compound microscope. SECTION-C

1 100 27. (a) Refer 5 marks questions section A question (1)

𝑓𝑒 = = =8
𝑃𝑒 12.5 (b) For a convex mirror, 𝑓 > 0 and for an object on left,
1 100 𝑢<0
𝑓0 = = =2
𝑃0 50 From mirror formula,
𝐿 𝐷 20 25 1 1 1
𝑚= × = × = 31.25 = −
𝑓0 𝑓𝑒 2 8 𝑣 𝑓 𝑢
25. In general, any given value of deviation δ, (except for i = e ) corresponds to two values i and As 𝑓 𝑖𝑠 + 𝑣𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑢 𝑖𝑠 − 𝑣𝑒, 𝑠𝑜
1
>0 ∴𝑣>0
𝑣
e. This is expected from the symmetry of i and e as
Thus, a convex mirror always produces a virtual image, independent of the location of the object.
δ= i + e – A, i.e., δ remains the same if i and e are interchanged. 28. Refer Section A of 5 marks questions, Qn(2) and Qn(3)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 300 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 301 of 484
29. Refer qn 3 of Section B of 5 marks questions 1 1 1
= −
𝑓0 𝑣0 𝑢0
𝑓0 = 1 ⋅ 25𝑐𝑚
1 1 1 −6
𝑓𝑒 = 5 𝑐𝑚 = − =
1.25 −5𝑢0 𝑢0 5𝑢0
𝑢0 = −1.5 𝑐𝑚
−6
𝑢0 = × 1.25 = −1.5 𝑐𝑚
𝑣0 = −𝐷 = −25 𝑐𝑚 5
1 1 1 𝑣0 = −5𝑢0 = −5 × (−1.5) = 7.5 𝑐𝑚
= −
𝑓0 𝑣0 𝑢0 The object should be placed 1.5 cm away from the objective lens to obtain the desired
1 1 1 1 1 100 10 50 magnification.
= + = − = − =
𝑣0 𝑓0 𝑢0 1.25 1.5 125 15 375
Applying the lens formula for the eyepiece:
375
𝑣0 = = 7.5 𝑐𝑚
50 1 1 1
= −
Magnifying power, 𝑓𝑒 𝑣𝑒 𝑢𝑒
𝑣0 𝐷 7.5 25 1 1 1
𝑚 = (1 + ) = (1 + ) = −30 = −
𝑢0 𝑓𝑒 −1.5 5 𝑢𝑒 𝑣𝑒 𝑓𝑒
30. (a) Refer qn 3 of Section B of 5 marks questions
1 −1 1 6
(b) 𝑓0 = 1.25 𝑐𝑚 𝑓𝑒 = 5𝑐𝑚 𝐷 = 25 𝑐𝑚 = − =−
𝑢𝑒 25 5 25
Angular magnification of the compound microscope = 30X ∴ 𝑢𝑒 = −4.17 𝑐𝑚
Total magnifying power of the compound microscope, m = 30 Separation between the objective lens and the eyepiece = |𝑢𝑒 | + |𝑣0 | = 4.17 + 7.5 = 11.67𝑐𝑚
The angular magnification of the eyepiece is given by the relation Therefore, the separation between the objective lens and the eyepiece should be 11.67 for the
𝐷 required magnification.
𝑚𝑒 = (1 + )
𝑓𝑒
31. (a) Normal adjustment for the telescope: When the astronomical telescope is adjusted in
25
𝑚𝑒 = (1 + ) = 6 such a way that the final image is at infinity so that the eye is completely relaxed when viewing it.
5
This is called normal adjustment.
The angular magnification of the objective lens (𝑚0 )
𝑚 = 𝑚𝑜 𝑚𝑒
𝑚 30
𝑚0 = = =5
𝑚𝑒 6
𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑠
𝑚0 =
𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑠
𝑣0
5=
−𝑢0 (ii) (a)
𝑣0 = −5𝑢0 … … (1) 𝑓0 = 140𝑐𝑚
Applying the lens formula for the objective lens: 𝑓𝑒 = Fig:
5 𝑐𝑚Image formation by an astronomical telescope (for Normal adjustment)
CREDIT: File:Image at Infinity for Telescope.jpg - Wikibooks, open books for an open world

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 302 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 303 of 484
 𝑓0 140
When the final image is at infinity, 𝑚 = − =− = −28 QUESTION BANK
𝑓𝑒 5
WAVE OPTICS
(b) When the final image is at the least distance of distinct vision,
𝑓0 𝑓𝑒 140 5
𝑚=− (1 + ) = − (1 + ) = −33.6 SECTION A
𝑓𝑒 𝐷 5 25
(c) Seperation between objective and eye lens when final image is formed at infinity 1 MARK QUESTIONS
𝐿 = 𝑓0 + 𝑓𝑒 = 140 + 5 = 145𝑐𝑚
Q1. Two plane monochromatic waves propagating in the same direction with amplitudes A
(d) Let AB be tower and 𝐴’𝐵’ its image then and 2A and differing in phase by π/3 rad superpose. Calculate the amplitude of the
𝐻 ℎ resultant wave. [ CBSE 03]
=
𝑢 𝑣 Q2. Two sources of intensity I and 4I are used in an interference experiment. Find the intensity
For distance object 𝑣 = 𝑓0 at points where the waves from two sources superimpose with a phase difference is zero.
𝐻 100 Q3. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where
ℎ= 𝑓 = × 1.4
𝑢 0 3000 the path difference is λ, is k units. Find the intensity at a point where the path difference
ℎ = 4.7 × 10−2 𝑚 = 4.7 𝑐𝑚 is λ/4. [CBSE 14,17,19]

(e) Magnification produced by Q4. The intensity at the central maxima in Young’s double slit experiment is I 0. Find out the
eyepiece : intensity at a point where the path difference is λ/6. [CBSE 12,14]
𝐷 25
𝑚𝑒 = (1 + )=(1 +
𝑓𝑒 5
)=6 Q5. Find the ratio of intensities at two points in a screen in Young’s double slit experiment,
when waves from the two slits have path difference of 0 and λ/4 [CBSE2003]
ℎ2
𝑚𝑒 =
ℎ1 Q6. Laser light of wavelength 630nm incident on a pair of slits produces an interference
pattern in which the bright fringes are separated by 8.1mm. A second light produces an
ℎ2 = 𝑚𝑒 ℎ1 = 6 × 4.7 = 28.2 𝑐𝑚
interference pattern in which the fringes are separated by 7.2mm. Calculate the
wavelength of the second light. [CBSE2000,09]
******* Q7. In Young’s experiment, the width of the fringes obtained with light of wavelength 6000Å
is 2.0mm. Calculate the fringe width if the entire apparatus is immersed in a liquid
medium of refractive index 1.33. [CBSE2003]

Q8. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 800nm and 600nm is used to obtain the
interference fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment on a screen placed 1.4m away.
If the two slits are separated by 0.28mm, calculate the least distance from the central
bright maximum where the bright fringes of the two wavelengths coincide.
[CBSE12,09.]

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 304 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 305 of 484
 Q9. In Young’s double slit experiment, using light of wavelength 400nm interference fringes C) the intensity of the maximum decreases and that of minima increases.
of width ‘X’ are obtained the wavelength of light is increased to 600nm and the separation D) the intensity of Maxima decreases and the minimum has zero intensity.
between the slits is halved. If one wants the observed fringe width on the screen to be the Q21. To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference we require
same in the two cases, find the ratio of the distance between the screen and the plane of
A) two sources which emit radiation of the same frequency
the interfering sources in the two arrangements.
B) two sources which emit radiation of nearly same frequency.
Q10. A parallel beam of light of 600 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction
C) two sources which emit radiation of same frequency and have a constant phase
pattern is observed on a screen 1.2 m away. It is observed that the first minimum is a
distance of 3 mm from the centre of a screen. Calculate the width of the slit. [CBSE08] difference
D) two sources which emit radiation of different wavelength.
Q11. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is incident normally on a single slit of
width 0.2 mm to produce a diffraction pattern. Find the angular width of the central Q22. A double slit experiment is performed with light of wavelength 500 mm a thin film
maxima obtained on the screen. [CBSE17] of thickness to new m and refractive index 1.5 is introduced in the path of upper beam
Q12. A slit of width d is illuminated by red light of wavelength 6500Å. For what value of d the location of the central maximum will
will the first minimum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30˚. [CBSE09] A) remain unshifted.
Q13. When the monochromatic light travels from one medium to another its wavelength B) shift downward by 10 fringes.
changes but the frequency remains the same explain [CBSE 11] C) shift downward by nearly two fringes.
Q14. State any two essential conditions for two light waves to be coherent. D) shift upward by nearly two fringes.

Q15. How is the fringe width of an interference pattern in the young’s double slit experiment Q23. A monochromatic beam of light is used for the formation of fringes on the screen by
affected if the two slits are brought close to each other? [CBSE 17] illuminating the two slits in the young's double slit interference experiment. When a

Q16. How does the angular separation between the fringes in the single slit diffraction thin film of mica is in interposed in the path of one of the interfering beams then
experiment changes when the distance of the separation between the slit and screen is A) the fringe width increases.
doubled. [CBSE 12] B) the fringe width decreases.
Q17. Name the shape of the wave front originating from a point source. C) the fringe width remains the same but pattern shifts.

Q18. State the path difference between two waves of destructive interference. D) the fringe pattern disappears.
Q24. In young's double slit experiment an electron beam is used to obtain the interference
Q19. What is the effect on the interference fringes in the Young’s double slit experiment if
the separation between two slits is increased? pattern if speed of electron is increased then
A) distance between two consecutive fringes will increase.

MCQ B) distance between two consecutive fringes will decrease.

C) no interference pattern will be observed.
Q20. In a double slit experiment instead of taking slits of equal width, one slit is made
D) distance between two consecutive fringes remain same.
twice as wide as other. Then the interference pattern
Q25. Yellow light is used in a single slit diffraction experiment with slit width of 0.6 mm.
A) the intensity of both the maxima and the minima increase.
lf yellow light is replaced by X-rays then the observed pattern will reveal
B) the intensity of the Maxima increases and the minimum has zero intensity.
A) the central maximum is narrower.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 306 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 307 of 484
 B) more number of fringes. b) How will the fringe pattern change if the screen is moved away from the slits?
C) less number of fringes. [CBSE 2010]
D no diffraction pattern. Q32. Why cannot two independent monochromatic sources produce sustained interference
Q26. Maximum diffraction takes place in a given slit for pattern? [CBSE 2015,19]
A) Gamma rays B) UV light C) infrared light D)radio waves Q33. Does the appearance of bright and dark fringes in the interference pattern violate, in
Q27. If I is the intensity of the principal maximum in the single slit diffraction pattern then anyway, conservation of energy? Explain.
what will be its intensity when the slit width is doubled? Q34. Why is no interference pattern observed when two coherent sources are
A) I B) I/2 C) 2I D) 4I (i) infinitely closed to each other?
Q28. What happens if one of the slits, say S1 in Young’s double, slit experiment-is covered (ii) far apart from each other? [CBSE 2008]
with a glass plate which absorbs half the intensity of light from it? Q35. What changes in the interference pattern in young's double slit experiment will be
A) The bright fringes become less-bright and the dark fringes have a finite light observed when?
intensity (i) the apparatus is immersed in water?
B) The bright fringes become brighter and the dark fringes become darker (ii) light of smaller frequency is used? [CBSE 2004,09]
C) The fringe width decreases Q36. Laser light of wavelength 630 nm on appear of slits produces and interference pattern
D) No fringes will be observed in which the bright fringes are separated by 8.1 mm. A second light produces and
Q29. What happens to the interference pattern the two slits S 1 and S2 in Young’s double interference pattern in which fringes are separated by 7.2 mm. Calculate the
experiment are illuminated by two independent but identical sources? wavelength of the second light
A) The intensity of the bright fringes doubled Q37. Yellow light of wavelength 6000A produces fringes of width 0.8 mm in young's
B) The intensity of the bright fringes becomes four times double slit experiment. What will be the fringe width if the light source is replaced
C) Two sets of interference fringes overlap by another monochromatic source of wavelength 7500 A and the separation between
D) No interference pattern is observed the slits is doubled?
2 MARKS QUESTIONS Q38. The light waves from two coherent sources have intensity in the ratio 4 : 9. Find the
Q30. How does the width of interference fringes in young’s double slit experiment change ratio of intensity of maxima and minima in the interference pattern. [CBSE 2017]
when? Q39. The ratio of intensity is at maxima and minima is 25:16. What will be the ratio of
i)The distance between the slit and the screen is decreased width of two slits in young's double slit experiment? [CBSE 2006]
ii)The frequency of the source is increased. 3 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q31. In young’s double slit experiment, the two slits 0.15 mm apart are illuminated by a Q40. A plane wavefront propagating in a medium of refractive index µ 1 is incident on a plane
monochromatic light of wavelength 450 nm. The screen is 1m away from the slits. surface making the angle of incidence i as shown in the figure. It
a) Find the distance of the second (i) bright fringe(ii) dark fringe from the central enters into a medium of refractive index µ2 (µ2 > µ1). Use Huygens’
maximum

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 308 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 309 of 484
construction of secondary wavelets to trace the propagation of the refracted wavefront. Hence Q49. Yellow light (λ = 6000 Å) illuminates a single slit of width 1 x 10 -4m. Calculate the distance
verify Snell’s law of refraction. between two dark lines on either side of central maximum when the diffraction pattern is viewed
on a screen kept 1.5 m away from the slit.
Q41. How is a wavefront defined? Using Huygens’s construction draw a figure showing the
propagation of a plane wave reflecting at the interface of the two media. Show that the angle of 5 MARKS QUESTIONS

incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. Q50. (a) State Huygens’s principle. Using this principle draw a diagram to show how a plane
wavefront incident at the interface of the two media gets refracted when it propagates from rarer
Q42. Why cannot two independent monochromatic sources produce sustained interference
to a denser medium. Hence verify Snell’s law of refraction.
patterns? Deduce, with the help of Young’s arrangement to produce interference pattern, an
expression for the fringe width. (b) When monochromatic light travels from a rarer to a denser medium, explain the following,
giving reasons:
Q43. The intensity at the central maxima (O) in a Young’s double slit experiment is Io. If the
(i) Is the frequency of reflected and refracted light same as the frequency of incident light?
distance OP equals one-third of the fringe width of the pattern, show that the intensity at point P
(ii) Does the decrease in speed imply a reduction in the energy carried by light wave?
𝐼0
would be .
4
Q51. (a) (i) ‘Two independent monochromatic sources of light cannot produce a sustained
Q44. How is Huygens’s principle used to obtain the diffraction pattern due to a single slit? Show interference pattern’. Give reason.
the plot of variation of intensity with angle and state the reason for the reduction in intensity of (ii) Light waves each of amplitude a and frequency n, emanating from two coherent light sources
secondary maxima compared to central maximum. superpose at a point. If the displacements due to these waves is given by y1 = a cos t and y2 = a cos
(ωt + ϕ), what is the phase difference between the two, obtain the expression for the resultant
Q45. In a double slit interference experiment, the two coherent beams have slightly different
intensity at the point.
intensities I and I + δI (δI << I). Show that the resultant intensity at the maxima is nearly 4I while
(b) In Young’s double slit experiment, using monochromatic light of wavelength, the intensity of

that at the minima is nearly light at a point on the screen where path difference is, is K units. Find out the intensity of light at

Q46. In a single slit diffraction pattern, how does the angular width of central maximum change, a point where path difference is
when (i) width of slit is decreased (ii)distance between slit and screen is increased (iii) light of
Q52. (a) In Young’s double slit experiment, describe briefly how bright and dark fringes are
smaller visible wavelength is used?
obtained on the screen kept in front of a double slit. Hence obtain the expression for the fringe
Q47. Light of wavelength 550 nm is incident as parallel beam on a slit of width 0.1 mm. Find the width.
angular width and the linear width of the principal maxima in the resulting diffraction pattern on (b) The ratio of the intensities at minima to the maxima in the Young’s double slit experiment is
a screen kept at a distance of 1.1 m from the slit, which of these width would not change if the 9 : 25. Find the ratio of the widths of the two slits.
screen were moved to a distance of 2.2 m from the slit?

Q48. What is diffraction of light? Differentiate between diffraction and interference.

*********

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 SECTION A (ANSWER KEY) Β = D λ/d
1 MARK QUESTIONS Fringe width in liquid,

1 β´= D λ´/d = D λ/d µ = β/ µ = 2.0mm/1.33 =1.5mm

A R = √[A12 + A 22 + 2A 1 A 2cosϕ]
8 X = n λ 1 D/d = (n + 1) λ 2 D/d
=√[A 2 + (2A) 2 + 2A × 2Acos π/3]
n λ 1 = (n + 1) λ 2
= √7 A
n=3
2 The resultant intensity at a point where phase difference is ϕ is
therefore, x = 3D λ 1 /d = 12mm
I R = I 1 + I 2 + 2[√I 1 I 2 ]cosϕ
9 In first case, X = D 1 λ 1 /d
I R = I + 4I + 2[√I.4I] cosϕ = 5I+4I cosϕ
In second case, X = D 2 λ 2 / d/2
When ϕ=0, I R = 5I+4I cos0 = 9I.
Therefore, D 1 λ 1 /d = D 2 λ 2 / d/2
3 When p = λ/4, ϕ = π /2
D 1 /D 2 = 2· λ 2/ λ 1 = 2 × 600/400 = 3/1 = 3:1
Therefore, I = 4I 0 cos 2 π/4 = 4I 0 × ½ = 2I 0 = k/2.
10 position of 1 st minimum x 1 = D λ / d
4 When p = λ/6, ϕ = π/3 so I=I 0 cos 2 π/6 = 3I 0 /4.
Slit width d= 0.24 mm
5 Intensity at any point of an interference pattern is given by I=2 I 0 (1+cos ϕ)
11 Angular width of central maximum
Where I 0 is the intensity of either wave.
2θ = 2 λ / d
Here ϕ P = 0,
12 d sin θ = λ
Φ Q = 2𝜋 p/ λ = 2𝜋 (λ/4) / λ =90⸰
D = 1.3 x 10 -6 m
Therefore, I P /I Q = [1 + cos ϕ P] /[1 + cos ϕ Q]
13 Frequency is the characteristics of the source while wavelength is the characteristics
= [1 + cos0] / [ 1 + cos90⸰]
of medium when monochromatic light travels from one medium to another its speed
=[1 + 1] / [1 + 0] = 2/1 = 2:1
changes so it’s wavelength changes but frequency remain same.
6 Here λ 1 = 630 nm, β 1 = 8.1mm,
14 1. The two rays must be continuous.
β 2 = 7.2mm, λ 2 =?
2. They should have a constant or zero phase difference.
Fringe width, β = D λ/d
15 Β=Dλ/d
β 2/ β1 = λ 2 / λ 1
As the separation D between the two slits decreases French width increases
Therefore, λ 2 = [β 2 / β 1] × λ 1
16 When the distance between the slit and the screen is double the angular separation
=7.2mm / 8.1mm × 630nm = 560nm.
remains unchanged
7 Here, β = 2.0mm, µ = 1.33
17 spherical wave front
Refractive index of liquid,
18 Path difference∆ = [2n + 1] λ /2
µ = wavelength of light in vacuum/wavelength of light in liquid = λ v / λ i
Where n = 0,1,2.....
λ´ = λ/ µ
19 Both the fringe width and angular separation decreases.
Fringe width in air,

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 MCQ ANSWERS 33. In an interference pattern the average intensity is at the point of maxima and
20. A minimum are such that
21. C I(average) α a1² + a2²
22. D If there is no interference between the light waves from the two sources then the
23. C intensity at every point would be same that is
24. B I = I1 + I2 α a1² + a2²
25. D Which is same as I (average) in the interference pattern. So, there is no violation of
26. D law of conservation of energy in the interference.
27. D 34. Fringe width is inversely proportional to distance between two slits.
28. A (i) when the two coherent sources are placed in finitely close to each other the fringe
29. D width becomes very large. Even a single fringe may occupy the entire screen. The
interference pattern is not observable.

ANSWERS OF 2 MARKS QUESTIONS (ii) as the distance between the sources is increased the French with goes on
decreasing. At very large separation it becomes too small to be detected. The
30. Fringe width = D𝜆 / d = Dc/dν
interference pattern cannot be observed.
i)When D decreases fringe width decreases.
35. Fringe width β = D𝜆 / d = Dc/dν
ii) When the frequency ν is increased fringe width increases.
(i) wave length of light in water decreases so fringe width decreases.
31. (a)(i) Distance of nth bright fringe from central maximum = nD𝜆 / d = 6mm
(ii)When light of small frequency is used, fringe width increases.
(ii) Distance of nth dark fringe from central maximum = [2n-1]D𝜆 /2 d = 4.5 mm
36. Fringe width β = D𝜆 / d
(b) when D increases fringe width increases
𝜆1 / 𝜆2 = β 1 / β2
32. (i)Light is emitted by the individual items and not by the bulk of matters acting as a
𝜆2 = 𝜆1β2 / β1 = 7.2 × 630/8.1 = 560nm
whole.
37. β2 D𝜆2/2d
(ii)Even the tiniest source consists of millions of atoms and the emission of light by = = 𝜆2/ 2𝜆1
β1 𝐷𝜆1 /d
them takes place independently. β2 = [7500 x 0.8] / [2 x 6000] = 0.5 mm
(iii) Even an atom emits and unbroken wave of about 10-⁸ second due to its transition 38. Ratio r = a1 / a2 = √[I1 / I2] = √[4/ 9] =2/3
from higher energy state to lower energy state. Imax 𝑟+1 2
=[ ] = 25:1
Imin 𝑟−1
The millions of atoms of a source cannot emit wave in the same phase. The face
39. Λ = 6000 Å , a = 1 x 10-4m , D = 1.5m
difference and hence the interference pattern changes 10 times in 1 second. Our eyes
The distance between two dark lines on either side of central maximum =
cannot see such rapid changes and a uniform illumination is seen on the screen. So
width of central maximum= 2λD/a = (2x6000 x 10-10x 1.5) / (1 x 10-4)
independent light sources cannot produce a sustained interference.
=1.8 x 10-2m= 1.8cm

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 314 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 315 of 484
 3 MARKS QUESTIONS ANSWERS 44. When a plane wavefront is incident on a single slit, all the point sources of light constituting
40. the wavefront are in same phase. The wavelets coming out from the wavefront might meet over
the screen with some path difference, i.e., a phase difference is introduced between them.The
brightness at a point on the screen depends on the phase difference between the wavelets
meeting at the point. We imagine that the slit is
divided into smaller parts and the wavelets
coming out from these portions meet and
superpose on the screen with proper phase
difference.
The wavelets from different parts of the wavefront, incident on the slit, meet with zero phase
difference to constitute a central maximum. In case of secondary maxima, there are some
41. A wavefront is the locus of all points oscillating in same phase.
wavelets meeting the screen out of phase, thus, reducing intensity of secondary maxima.
A figure showing reflection of a plane
wavefront using Huygen’s construction is 45.
given below. In the figure AB is incident
wavefront and CD is reflected wavefront.
If v is speed of the wave in the medium and t is
the time taken by the wavefront to cover
distance BC, then

46. Linear width of central maximum β= 2Dλ/d

42
Angular width of central maximum β/D = 2λ/d
(i) When slit width d decreases, angular width increase.
(ii) When distance D between the slit and screen is increased, angular width does
not change.
(iii) When light of smaller wavelength is used, angular width decreases.

47. λ=550 nm, d= 0.1 mm,D = 1.1m, ω = ?, β = ?

using ω = 2θ= 2λ/d, we get ω= .011 rad

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 316 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 317 of 484
 using β=2λD/d ,we get β = 12.1 mm
When the screen is moved to 2.2 m from the slit, the angular width will not change,
linear width will increase.

48. Diffraction of light is the phenomenon of bending of light round the corners of an opaque
obstacle and spreading into the regions of the geometrical shadow.

Diffraction Interference

The phenomenon of interaction of light The phenomenon of non-uniform distribution

coming from different parts of the same of light energy (wave) due to the superposition
wave front is called diffraction. of coherent sources of light is called
interference.

In diffraction, the widths of fringes are not In interference, the width of fringes are equal.
equal.

Bands are very less in number. Bands are very large in number.

Dark fringes in diffraction are not Dark fringes in interference are perfectly dark.
completely dark.

49. λ = 6000 Å , a = 1 x 10-4m , D = 1.5m

The distance between two dark lines on either side of central maximum = width of central
maximum= 2λD/a = (2 x 6000 x 10-10x 1.5) / (1 x 10-4)
=1.8 x 10-2m= 1.8cm

5 MARKS QUESTIONS
50. (a) According to the Huygens’s principle, each
point of the wavefront is the source of secondary
disturbance and the wavelets emanating from these
points spread out in all directions with the speed of
the wave. A common tangent to all the wavelets in
the forward direction gives the new position of

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 318 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 319 of 484
wavefront at a later time.

(b) (i) Frequency remains the same. When the light of particular frequency is incident it interacts
with the atoms of the matter, which further causes forced oscillations. As the frequency of
charged oscillator and the frequency of wave emitted by charged oscillator is same, therefore the
frequency of reflected and refracted light is same.
(ii) No, energy carried by a light wave does not depend on its speed. Instead it depends on its
amplitude.

51. (a) (i) ‘Two independent monochromatic sources of light cannot produce a sustained
interference pattern’. Give reason.
(ii) Light waves each of amplitude a and frequency n, emanating from two coherent light sources
superpose at a point. If the displacements due to these waves is given by y1 = a cos t and y2 = a cos
(ωt + ϕ), what is the phase difference between the two, obtain the expression for the resultant
intensity at the point.
(b) In Young’s double slit experiment, using monochromatic light of wavelength, the intensity of
light at a point on the screen where path difference is, is K units. Find out the intensity of light at

a point where path difference is

***********
52.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 320 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 321 of 484
 SECTION B Q11. In Young’s double slit experiment, a maximum is obtained when the path difference
between the interfering waves is:
1 MARK QUESTIONS
A) nλ B) n λ/2 C) (2n + 1) λ/2 D) (2n – 1) λ/4
Q1. What is interference of light? Give an example of interference of light in everyday life. Q12. For sustained interference, we need two sources which emit radiations :
A) of the same intensity
Q2. Why are coherent sources necessary to produce a sustained interference pattern?
B) of the same amplitude

Q3. State the path difference between two waves of constructive interference. C) having a constant phase difference
D) None of these
Q4. Draw a diagram to show refraction of a plane wave front incident in a convex lens and Q13. Two sources of light are said to be coherent when both give out light waves of the
hence draw the refracted wave front.
same:
A) amplitude and phase
Q5. How would the angular separation of interference fringes in Young’s double slit
experiment change when the distance between the slits and screen is doubled? B) intensity and wavelength
C) speed
Q6. In a single-slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is made double the original D) wavelength and a constant phase difference
width. How does this affect the size and intensity of the central diffraction band. (CBSE
2012] Q14. The intensity of light emerging from the two slits, in Young’s experiment is in the ratio
1 : 4. The ratio of the intensity of the minimum to that of the consecutive maximum will
Q7. Define the term ‘coherent sources’ which are required to produce interference pattern in be:
Young’s double slit experiment.
A) 1 : 4 B) 1 : 9 C) 1 : 16 D) 2 : 3
Q15. Which of the following is conserved when light waves interfered?
Q8. One of the slits of Young’s double-slit experiment is covered with a semi-transparent paper
so that it transmits lesser light. What will be the effect on the interference pattern? A) phase B) intensity C) amplitude D) none of these
Q16. In Young double slit experiment, a minimum is obtained when the phase difference of
Q9. Draw a graph showing the intensity distribution of fringes due to diffraction at a single-
the superposing waves, is :
slit. [CBSE 2018]
A) nπ B) (n + 1/2)π C) (2n + 1)π D) zero
MCQ Q17. The fringe width (β) of a diffraction pattern and the slit width d are related as:
Q10. A single slit diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of red light What happened A) β ∝ d B) β ∝1/d C) β ∝ √d D) β ∝ 1/d²
the red light is replaced by the blue light? Q18. In Young’s double slit experiment, the central point on the screen is:
A) There is no change in diffraction pattern A) bright B) dark C) first bright and later dark
B) Diffraction fringes become narrower and crowded D) first dark and later bright
C) Diffraction fringes become broader and farther apart Q19. In Young’s double slit experiment the distance between the slit and the screen is doubled
D) The diffraction pattern disappears and the separation between the slit is reduced to half. The fringe width:
A) is doubled B) become four time C) is halved D) remain unchanged

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 322 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 323 of 484
 i) the distance of the screen is doubled
2 MARKS QUESTIONS ii) the separation between the slits is doubled.

Q20. Write two points of difference between interference and diffraction? 5 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q21. Draw the shape of the reflected wavefront when a plane wavefront is an incident on Q28. (a) Using Huygens’s construction of secondary wavelets explain how a diffraction pattern is
(a) a concave mirror. obtained on a screen due to a narrow slit on which a monochromatic beam of light is incident
(b)a prism. normally.
Q22. What is a sustained interference pattern? State the necessary conditions forobtaining (b) Show that the angular width of the first diffraction fringe is half that of the central fringe.
a sustained interference of light.
Q23. State with reason how would linear with of central maxima change if (c) Explain why the maxima at become weaker with increasing n.

(i) monochromatic yellow light is replaced with red light and Q29. (a) Write three characteristic features to distinguish between the interference fringes in
(ii) distance between the slit and the screen is increased. Young’s double slit experiment and the diffraction pattern obtained due to a narrow single slit.
Q24. How is the width of central maxima affected if (b) A parallel beam of light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting
(i)width of the slit is doubled diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 1 m away. It is observed that the first minimum is a
(ii) the wavelength of the light is increased distance of 2.5 mm away from the centre. Find the width of the slit.
What happens to the width of central maxima if the whole apparatus is immersed in
water and why? Q30. (a) Distinguish between interference and diffraction.

3 MARKS QUESTIONS (b) A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is incident normally on a single slit of width
Q25. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600nm is incident normally on a slit of width ‘a’. If 0.2 mm to produce a diffraction pattern. Find the angular width of central maximum obtained on
the distance between the slit and the screen is 0.8m and the distance of second order maximum screen.
from the centre of the screen is15mm, calculate the width of the slit.

Q26. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 6500 Ao and 5200 Ao is used to obtain *********
interference fringes. The distance between the slits is 2.0 mm and the distance between the plane
of the slits and the screen is 120 cm.

(a) Find the distance of the third bright fringe on the screen from the central maxima for the
wavelength 6500Ao

(b) What is the least distance from the central maxima where the bright fringes due to both the
wavelengths coincide?
Q27. Monochromatic light from a narrow-slit illuminates two narrow slits 0.3 mm apart
producing an interference pattern with bright fringes 1.5 mm apart on a screen 75 cm away. Find
the wavelength of the light. How will the fringe width be altered if-

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 324 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 325 of 484
 SECTION-B ANSWERS MCQ
1 MARKS 10. B
1. When two light waves of same frequency and having zero or constant phase 11. A
difference travelling in the same direction superpose each other , the intensity in the 12. C
region of superposition gets redistributed becoming minimum at some points and 13. D
maximum at others. This phenomenon is called interference of light. 14. B
Example :When thin soapy water films (or other thin films) are exposed to white 15. D
light ,they exhibit colours due to interference. 16. C
2. Coherent sources have a constant phase difference this ensures that the position of 17. B
maxima and minima do not change with time. Hence sustained interference pattern 18. A
is obtained. 19. B
3. Path difference∆ = n λ 2 MARKS
Where n = 0,1,2..... 20. Interference Diffraction
4. Interference occurs due to It is due to the superposition of the
superposition of light coming from two waves coming from different parts of
coherent sources. the same wave front
All bright fringes are of equal intensity The intensity of bright fringes
decreases with increasing distance from
the central bright fringes.
5. Angular separation θ = λ/d and it is independent of slit-screen separation
21.
∴ There will be no change
6. If the width of the diffraction slit is doubled, the size of the central diffraction band
will become half and its intensity will become four times of its original value.
7. The source which emits a light wave with the same frequency, wavelength and phase (a)
or having a constant phase difference is known as a coherent source.
8. There will be an interference pattern whose fringe width is the same as that of the
original. But there will be a decrease in the contrast between the maxima and the
minima, i.e. the maxima will become less bright and the minima will become
brighter.
(b)
9. 22. Sustained interference means the positions of that maxima and minima of light
intensity do not change with time throughout the screen.
Conditions for sustained interference :
1The two sources should continuously emit waves of same frequency or wavelength.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 326 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 327 of 484
 2The two sources of light should be coherent. Least distance = y4 = 4.D (6500Ao)/d
3The two sources of light should be narrow.
= 4 x 6500 x 10-10 x 1.2/ 2 x 10-3m
4The two sources of light should be monochromatic.
5The interfering wave must travel nearly along same direction. = 0.16cm.

23. The linear width of central maxima β0 =2D𝜆 /a 27. Given:

(i)It is replaced with red light the linear width of Central Maxima increases because
d = 0.3 mm = 3 x10-4m
𝜆 red > 𝜆yellow
(ii) If D is increased linear width of Central maximum increases. X = 1.5 mm = 1.5x10-3m
24. The linear width of central maxima β0 = 2D 𝜆 /a D = 75 cm = 0.75 m.
(i)When wavelength of light is increased the width of central maxima increases
To find wavelength: -
(ii)When width of slit increase the width of central maxima decreases.
As the wavelength of light in water decreases so the width of central maxima also λ= X d /D
decreases.
=1.5 x 10-3 x 3 x 10-4/ 0.75
3MARKS
= 6 x 10-7m
25.
Λ = 600nm , D = 0.8m = 6000 A.U.
The distance of second order maximum from the centre of the screen = 15mm = 15X10-3m
1) If distance of screen is doubled.
𝑛𝜆 𝑛𝜆𝐷 We have X = λ D/d and
𝑎= =
sin 𝜃 𝑥
X’= λ D’/d
(2𝑥600𝑥10−9 𝑥0.9)
𝑎= = 6.4𝑥10−5 𝑚
15𝑥10−3 𝑋′
=
𝐷′
𝑋 𝐷
26. (a) y3 = n. Dλ/d
𝑋′ 2𝐷
=
= 3 x 1.2m x 6500 x 10-10m / 2 x 10-3m 𝑋 𝐷

= 0.12cm 𝑋′
=2
𝑋
(b) Let nth maxima of light with wavelength 6500 Å coincides with that of mth maxima
= 2 x 1.5 x 10-3
of 5200Å.
= 3 x 10-3m
m x 6500Ao x D/d = n x 5200Ao x D/d
= 3 mm
m/n = 5200/6500
2) If separation between the slits is doubled
= 4/5

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 328 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 329 of 484
 We have X =λD/d

𝑋′ 𝑑
=
𝑋 𝑑′

𝑋′ 𝑑
=
𝑋 2𝑑

𝑋′
= 1/2
𝑋

= X/2
= 1.5 x 10-3/2
= 0.75 x 10-3m
29. (a) (i) Interference is the superposition of light waves from two different wavefronts originating
5 MARKS from the same source, while the diffraction is the interaction of light waves from different parts of
the same wavefront.
28.
(ii) In an interference pattern, fringes may or may not be of the same width, while in diffraction
a)
pattern, they are never of the same width.
(iii) In an interference pattern, bright fringes are of uniform intensity, while in diffractions pattern,
they are of varying intensity.

30. (a)
Interference Diffraction

It is due to superposition of two It is due to superposition of secondary

Waves coming from coherent sources. wavelets originating from different parts
of same wavefront.
Width of interference bands is equal Width of diffraction bands is unequal

Intensity of all fringes is same Central maxima is bright but intensity

decreases with increase in order of
maximum.
(b) given λ= 500 nm & a= 0.2 mm,
b)
we have ) ω = 2λ/a, ω= .005 rad

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 330 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 331 of 484
 SECTION C Q14. Each point of the wave front is the source of secondary disturbance and the wavelets
originating from these points spread out
1 MARK QUESTIONS A) In only one direction
B) In all directions with the speed of wave
Q1. Draw the type of wave front that corresponds to a beam of light diverging from a point C) In all directions
source. D) None
Q2. When monochromatic light is incident on a surface separating two media the reflected and Q15. Each point of the wave front is the source of secondary disturbance and the wavelets
refracted light both have same frequency as the incident frequency. Explain why. [CBSE originating from these points spread out in all directions with the speed of wave,
2011,13,16] this is called as
A) Principle of superposition B) Huygens principle
Q3. Draw intensity distribution curve for interference. C) Polarization D) None
Q16. At particular point in the medium, the resultant displacement produced by a number
Q4. Sketch the wave front emerging from (a) a point source of a light and (b) linear source of of waves is the __ of all the displacement produced by each of the waves.
light like a slit. [CBSE2000,09] A) Algebraic sum B) Vector sum C) Both a and b D) None
Q17. When the phase difference between the displacement produced by the waves does
Q5. When a light travel from a rare to a denser medium, it loses some speed does the reduction not change with time then that two sources are called as
in speed imply a reduction in the energy carried by the light wave? [CBSE 2013,16,17] A) Incoherent sources B) Coherent sources C) Collinear sources D) None
Q6. In the wave picture of light, intensity of light is determined by the square of amplitude of
the wave. What determines the intensity of light in the photon picture of light? [CBSE 16] 2 MARKS QUESTIONS

Q7. How will the intensity of maxima and minima in the young's double slit experiment change Q18. State the condition for diffraction of light to occur in the diffraction of single slit
if one of the two slits is covered by a transparent paper which transmits only half of the experiment, how would the width an intensity of central maxima changes if
light intensity?
(i) slit with is halved and
MCQ
(ii) visible light of longer wavelength is used
Q8. In a Young’s double slit experiment the distance between the slit is 1 mm and the Q19. How will the angular separation and visibility of fringes in Young's double slit
distance of screen from the slit is 1 m. If light of wavelength 6000 A is used then the
experiment change when (i) screen is moved away from the plane of the slits, and (ii)
fringe width is:
A) 0.4 mm B) 0.5 mm C) 0.6 mm D) 0.8 mm width of the source slit is increased
Q9. A phase difference of 5π corresponds to a path difference (in terms of λ) of: Q20. What two main changes in diffraction pattern of single slit will you observe when the
A) 5λ B) 10λ. C) 5λ/2 D) 2λ
monochromatic source of light is replaced by a source of white light?
Q10. Images of a distant lamp seen through a fire cloth rotate on rotating the cloth. This is
due to the phenomenon of: Q21. Find the ratio of the intensity of two points P and Q on the screen in young's double
A) interference B) diffraction C) polarization D) scattering slit experiment when waves from source S1 and S2 have phase difference of π/3 and
Q11. The phenomenon of interference of light is based on the principle of
π/2 respectively.
A) Polarisation of light waves B) Dispersion of light waves
C) Principle of superposition D) Huygens principle Q22. Show that the central maximum is twice as wide as the other maxima and the pattern
Q12. The locus of all points which oscillates in phase is called as becomes narrower as the width of the slit is increased. [CBSE2006]
A) Waves B) Wave front C) Wavelets D) Both b and c
Q13. The energy of the wave travels in a direction __ to the wavefront.
A) Parallel B) Perpendicular C) Both a and b D) None

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 332 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 333 of 484
 3 MARKS QUESTIONS SECTION C-ANSWERS
Q23. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600nm is incident normally on a slit of width ‘a’. If 1 MARKS
the distance between the slit and the screen is 0.8m and the distance of second order maximum 1.
from the centre of the screen is15mm, calculate the width of the slit.

Q24. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 6500 Ao and 5200 Ao is used to obtain
interference fringes. The distance between the slits is 2.0 mm and the distance between the plane
of the slits and the screen is 120 cm. 2. Both reflection and refractions occur due to interaction of light with the atoms at the
surface of separation. These atoms may be regarded as the oscillators .Light incident
(a) Find the distance of the third bright fringe on the screen from the central maxima for the
wavelength 6500Ao on such atoms forces them to vibrate with the frequency of light, so both the reflected

(b) What is the least distance from the central maxima where the bright fringes due to both the and refracted lights have same frequency as the frequency of incident light.
wavelengths coincide? 3.
Q25. (a) Distinguish between interference and diffraction.

(b)A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is incident normally on a Single slit of width 0.2
mm to produce a diffraction pattern. Find the angular width of central maximum obtained on
screen.

5 MARKS QUESTION 4.

Q26. State the essential condition for diffraction of light to take place.
Use Huygens’s principle to explain diffraction of light due to a narrow single slit and the
formation of a pattern of fringes obtained on the screen. Sketch the pattern of fringes formed due
to diffraction at a single slit showing variation of intensity with angle θ.

Q27. Red colour of light of wavelength λ is passed from two narrow slits which are distance d
5. No, it does not imply a reduction in the energy carried by the light wave.. The energy
apart and interference pattern is obtained on the screen distance D apart from the plane of two slits.
carried by the wave depends on the amplitude of the wave but not on the speed of the
Then find the answer to following parts assuming that slit widths are equal to produce intensity I0
wave propagation.
from each slit.
6. It is determined by the number of photons incident per unit area around that point.
(a) Intensity at a point on the screen, situated at a distance 1/4 th of fringe separation from centre.
(b) Intensity in the screen, if the sources become incoherent by using two different lamps behind 7. Intensity of maxima decreases and that of minima increases
lamps S1 and S2. MCQ ANSWERS
(c) Angular position of 10th maxima, and the angular width of that fringe.
(d) Find the distance between 5th maxima and 3rd minima, at same side of central maxima. 8. C
(e) If the phase difference between the two waves reaching two slits from the source slit is (i) 5π 9. C
and (ii) 2π, then what will be the colour of central fringe?

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 334 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 335 of 484
 10. B 22. The directions of different minima in diffraction pattern is given by
11. C 𝜃 n = Xn / D
12. B Also 𝜃 n = n 𝜆/ d
13. B Hence Xn = n 𝜆 D / d
14. B Width of secondary maxima = Xn - Xn-1 = 𝜆 D / d
15. B Width of central maxima 𝛽 0 = 2X1 = 2𝛽
16. B Thus the central maxima is twice as wide as any seconadary maximum.
17. B Since the width of the seconadary maximum is inversly proportional to the slit width
2 MARKS hence as the slit width increases the seconadary maximum becomes narrower.
18. Diffraction of light is highly pronounced If the size of the obstacle is comparable to 3 MARKS
the wavelength of the light used 23. λ=600nm , D= 0.8m
The linear width of central maxima β0 =2D 𝜆 /a
The distance of second order maximum from the centre of the screen = 15mm = 15X10-3m
(i) if slit with is half the width of the central maximum is doubled its area becomes 4
times and hence intensity becomes 1/4th of the initial intensity. 𝑛𝜆 𝑛𝜆𝐷
𝑎= =
sin 𝜃 𝑥
(ii) if visible light of longer wavelength is used the width of Central maximum
increases and hence intensity decreases. (2𝑥600𝑥10−9 𝑥0.9)
𝑎= = 6.4𝑥10−5 𝑚
19. (i) When the screen is moved away from the slits , the distance D increases . Fringe 15𝑥10−3

width increases but angular separation remains unchanged . 24.

(ii) The interference pattern becomes less and less sharp . When the source slit (a) y3 = n. Dλ/d
becomes so wide that the condition is not satisfied , the interference pattern = 3 x 1.2m x 6500 x 10-10m / 2 x 10-3m
disappears . But the angular width remains unchanged. = 0.12cm
20. Following changes are observed
(b) Let nth maxima of light with wavelength 6500 Å coincides with that of mth maxima of
(i) In each diffraction order, the diffracted image of the slit gets dispersed into
5200Å.
component colours of white light . As fringe with higher wavelength is wider than
the violet fringe with smaller wavelength . m x 6500Ao x D/d = n x 5200Ao x D/d
(ii) In higher order spectra , the dispersion is more and it causes overlapping of m/n = 5200/6500 = 4/5
different colours .
Least distance = y4= 4.D (6500Ao)/d
21. Intensity at any point of an interference pattern is given by I=2 I 0 (1+cos ϕ)
Where I 0 is the intensity of either wave. = 4 x 6500 x 10-10 x 1.2/ 2 x 10-3m
Therefore, I P /I Q = [1+cos ϕ P] /[1+cos ϕ Q] = [1+cos𝜋/3 ]/ [1+cos 𝜋/2]
= 0.16cm.
=[1+1/2] / [1+0] =3/2=3:2

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 336 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 337 of 484
25. (a)
Interference Diffraction

It is due to superposition of two It is due to superposition of secondary

Waves coming from coherent sources. wavelets originating from different parts
of same wavefront.

Width of interference bands is equal Width of diffraction bands is unequal

Intensity of all fringes is same Central maxima is bright but intensity

decreases with increase in order of
maximum.

(b) given λ= 500 nm & a= 0.2 mm,

we have ω = 2λ/a, ω= .005 rad
5 MARKS

26.

27.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 338 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 339 of 484
 Unit VII: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
CHAPTER–11: DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER

GIST OF CHAPTER
Dual nature of radiation, Photoelectric effect, Hertz and Lenard's observations; Einstein's
photoelectric equation-particle nature of light.
Experimental study of photoelectric effect
Matter waves-wave nature of particles, de-Broglie relation.

UNITS AND DIMENSIONS

Physical quantity Symbol Dimension Unit
Plank’s constant h [ML2T-2] Js
Stopping potential V0 [ML2T-3A-1] V
Work function ϕ0 [ML2T-2] J; eV
Threshold frequency ʋ0 [T-1] Hz
De-Broglie Λ [L] M
wavelength

IMPORTANT RESULTS AND FORMULAE

1. Energy of photon:
ℎ𝑐
E=hf=
𝜆

2. Momentum of photon:
ℎ ℎ𝑓
P= =
𝜆 𝑐
3. Work function:
W0=hf0=hc/λ0
4. Cut off potential:
21
eV0= 𝑚𝑣𝑚𝑎𝑥
2
5. Einstein equation:
hf= Wo + Km
Km = hf – W0 = hf – hf0
6. The de-Broglie’s wavelength og the particle of mass m and moving with velocity v is
******** given by:

ℎ ℎ
𝜆= =
𝑝 𝑚𝑣

7. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass m and kinetic energy K is given by:

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 340 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 341 of 484
 ℎ ℎ surface caused the emission of negatively charged particles (electrons) into surrounding space and
𝜆= =
𝑝 √2𝑚𝐾 enhance the high voltage sparks.
8. If a particle of mass m is carrying charge q0 is accelerated through potential V, then its
de-Broglie wavelength is given by: Hallwachs and Lenard Observation:- It was observed that if the frequency of incident light is
less than certain minimum value (Threshold frequency) emission of photo electrons do not takes
ℎ ℎ
𝜆= = place.
𝑝 √2𝑚𝑞0 𝑉

9. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with orbital electron in the nth orbit ofhydrogen Threshold frequency. The minimum frequency (𝝂𝑶), which the incident light must possess so as
atom is given by:
to eject photoelectrons from a metal surface, is called threshold frequency of the metal.
12.27 Mathematically- Work function of metal W = h𝝂𝑶
𝜆𝑛 = Å
√𝑉
Laws of photoelectric effect.
DEFINITION & CONCEPTS:-
Free electrons:- In metals, the electrons in the outer shell of the atoms are loosely bound. They 1. Photoelectric emission takes place from a metal surface, when the frequency of incident light is
move about freely throughout the lattice of positive ions. Such loosely bound electrons are called above its threshold frequency.
free electrons.
2. The photoelectric emission starts as soon as the light is incident on the metal surface.
Work function of a metal. The minimum energy, which must be supplied to the electron so that
it can just come out of a metal surface, is called the work function of the metal. It is denoted by 3. The maximum kinetic energy with which an electron is emitted from a metal surface is
𝑊0 . independent of the intensity of light and depends upon its frequency.
Work function depends on (i) nature of the metal (ii) the conditions of its surface.
4. The number of photoelectrons emitted is independent of the frequency of the incident light and
Electron emission:- The phenomenon of ejecting out the depends only upon its intensity.
electron from metal surface is called electron
emission. The Effect of Intensity The number of electrons emitted per second is observed to be directly
proportional to the intensity of light. This happens above the threshold frequency. Below this
PHOTOELECTRIC EMISSION/ EFFECT :-. The
threshold frequency there is no photocurrent at all, howsoever high the intensity of light is.
phenomenon of ejection of electrons from a metal
surface, when light of sufficiently high frequency falls
on it, is known as photoelectric effect.
The graph between the photoelectric current and
The electrons so emitted are called photoelectrons the intensity of light is a straight line when the
frequency of light used is above a specific
Hertz’s observation:-While demonstrating the existence of electromagnetic waves, Hertz found
minimum threshold value.
that high voltage sparks passed across the metal electrodes of the detector loop more easily when
the cathode was illuminated by ultraviolet light from an arc lamp. The uv light falling on metal

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 342 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 343 of 484
The Effect of the Potential
The photoelectric current increases with
increase in accelerating (positive) potential
of collector plate.For a certain positive
potential of plate A, the photoelectric current
becomes maximum and constant or saturates.
This maximum value of the photoelectric
current is called saturation current.
Saturation current corresponds to the case
when all the photoelectrons emitted by the
emitter plate C reach the collector plate A.
Saturation current increases with increase in intensity of incident radiation.
Effect of frequency on stopping potential
The photoelectric current decreases with negative potential of collector plate. ❖ Stopping potential increases on increasing frequency of incident radiation. maximum
kinetic energy of photoelectron thus depends on frequency of incident radiation
STOPPING POTENTIAL 𝑽𝟎
At certain negative potential of the collector plate the photocurrent becomes zero. This negative Graph between stopping potential and frequency
❖ Graph between stopping potential and frequency of incident radiation is always a straight
potential is called STOPPING POTENTIAL 𝑽𝟎 .
line.
The stopping potential is measure of maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron.
❖ Slope of this graph is constant and its
𝟏 𝒉
𝑴𝒂𝒙. 𝑲𝑬 𝒐𝒇 𝒑𝒉𝒐𝒕𝒐 𝒆𝒍𝒆𝒄𝒕𝒓𝒐𝒏 = 𝒆 𝑽𝒐 = 𝒎𝒗𝒎𝒂𝒙 𝟐 value is .
𝟐 𝒆
❖ Thus maximum kinetic energy of
Where 𝒗𝒎𝒂𝒙 is the maximum velocity with which the photoelectrons are emitted
photoelectron vary linearly with
Effect of intensity of incident radiation on stopping potential
frequency of incident radiation.
❖ Stopping potential does not change on changing the intensity of incident radiation.
❖ There exists a certain minimum cut-off
❖ The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron thus does not depend on intensity of
frequency 𝝂𝒐 for which the stopping potential is zero.
incident radiation.
EINSTEIN’S PHOTOELECTRIC THEORY
EFFECT OF FREQUENCY:
Effect of frequency on photocurrent Electromagnetic Radiation energy is built up of discrete units PHOTONS – the so called quanta
of energy of radiation
❖ Saturation Photocurrent does not change on changing frequency of incident radiation.
In interaction of Electromagnetic Radiation with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made up of
❖ The rate of emission of photoelectron does not depend on frequency of incident radiation.
particles called photons.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 344 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 345 of 484
Photo electric emission: Each Photon of incident radiation interacts with a single electron and if De-Broglie wavelength of electron. Consider an electron having mass m moving with final
energy of photon (𝒉𝝂) is equal to or greater than work function, the electron is emitted. velocity v when accelerated through potential V. Kinetic energy gained by electron due to work
done by electric field is eV. Then
When light of frequency ν is incident on a metal surface, whose work function is W (i.e. h ), then 𝑝2 1
𝐾. 𝐸. = 𝑒𝑉 = = 𝑚𝑣 2 ⇒ 𝑃 = √2𝑚𝐾 = √2𝑚𝑒𝑉
the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons is given by 2𝑚 2
So, If an electron accelerated through a potential difference V acquires kinetic energy E possesses
𝟏 de-Broglie wavelength,
𝑬𝑲 = 𝒎𝒗𝒎𝒂𝒙 𝟐 = 𝒉𝝂 − 𝝓𝒐 = 𝒉(𝝂 − 𝝂𝒐 )
𝟐
ℎ ℎ 12.27
𝜆= = = Å
This is called EINSTEIN’S PHOTOELECTRIC EQUATION. It can explain the laws of 𝑝 √2𝑚𝑒𝑉 √𝑉
photoelectric emission. DAVISSON AND GERMER EXPERIMENT - Experimental Demonstration of wave nature
of electrons.
Properties of Photon :-
(i) In interaction of radiation with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made of particles like photons.
The experimental setup for the Davisson and Germer experiment is enclosed within a
(ii) Each photon has energy (E= ℎ𝑣) and momentum (p=ℎ𝑣/c) vacuum chamber. Thus the deflection and scattering of electrons by the medium are prevented. The
main parts of the experimental setup are as follows:
(iii) All photons of a particular frequency 𝑣 or wavelength have same energy (E= ℎ𝑣=h c/ 𝝀) and
same momentum(p=ℎ𝑣/c= h/ 𝝀) irrespective of intensity of radiations.
• Electron gun: An electron gun is a Tungsten filament that emits electrons
(iv) Velocity of photon in different media is different due to change in it’s wave length. via thermionic emission i.e. it emits electrons when heated to a particular temperature.

(v) Rest mass of photon is zero. • Electrostatic particle accelerator: Two opposite charged plates (positive and negative plate)
(vi) During collision of photon and electron energy and momentum are conserved. are used to accelerate the electrons at a known potential.

If stopping potential is 𝑉𝑜 then , 𝑀𝑎𝑥. 𝐾𝐸 𝑜𝑓 𝑝ℎ𝑜𝑡𝑜 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑛 = 𝑒 𝑉𝑜 • Collimator: The accelerator is enclosed within a cylinder that has a narrow passage for the
⇒ 𝑒 𝑉𝑜 = ℎ𝜈 − 𝜙𝑜 = ℎ(𝜈 − 𝜈𝑜 ) electrons along its axis. Its function is to render a narrow and straight (collimated) beam of
electrons ready for acceleration.
𝒉𝝂 𝝓𝒐 𝒉
⇒ 𝑽𝒐 = − = (𝝂 − 𝝂𝒐 )
𝒆 𝒆 𝒆 • Target: The target is a Nickel crystal. The electron beam is fired normally on the Nickel
This explains why the 𝑽𝒐 versus 𝝂 curve is a straight line with slope = (h/e), independent of the crystal. The crystal is placed such that it can be rotated about a fixed axis.
nature of the material. • Detector: A detector is used to capture the scattered electrons from the Ni crystal. The detector
can be moved in a semicircular arc as shown in the diagram
DE-BROGLIE HYPOTHESIS.
Both radiation and matter have dual nature. A moving particle of momentum p is associated with
a wave called de-Broglie wave of wavelength λ .
ℎ ℎ
𝜆= =
𝑝 𝑚𝑣
This is De-Broglie wave equation the wavelength of the wave associated is called de-Broglie
wavelength of the particle.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 346 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 347 of 484
 12.27 12.27
𝜆= Å = Å = 1.67 Å
√𝑉 √54

Now the value of ‘d’ from X-ray scattering is 0.092 nm. Therefore for V = 54 V, the angle of
scattering is 500, using condition for maxima, we have:
𝑛𝜆 = 2𝑑 sin(900 − 500 ) ⇒ 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑛 = 1, 𝜆 = 2(0.092) sin(900 − 500 ) = 1.65Å

Therefore the experimental results are in a close agreement with the theoretical values got from the
de Broglie equation.

Observations of the Davisson and Germer Experiment

***********
The intensity (strength) of this electronic current received by the detector and the scattering angle is
studied. This current is called the electron intensity.

The intensity of the scattered electrons is not continuous. It shows a maximum and a minimum value
corresponding to the maxima and the minima of a diffraction pattern produced by X-rays. It is studied
from various angles of scattering and potential difference

Plots between I – the intensity of scattering (X-axis) and the angle of scattering θ for given values of
Potential difference.

Results of the Davisson and Germer Experiment

From the Davisson and Germer experiment, we get a value for the scattering angle θ and a
corresponding value of the potential difference V at which the scattering of electrons is maximum.
From these two values from the data collected by Davisson and Germer, the λ. Is obtained.

If an electron is accelerated by potential difference V then using De-Broglie Hypothesis

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 348 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 349 of 484
 QUESTION BANK Q.8 A metal’s work function is:
CHAPTER 11-DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER a) The minimum current needed to remove an electron from a metal surface
b) The highest frequency needed to remove an electron from a metal surface
Section-A
c) None of the mentioned
1 Mark Questions
d) the least amount of energy required to remove an electron from a metal surface
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While Q.9. Only when the incident light exceeds a particular threshold……… does photoelectric
answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses. emission occur.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. (a) Power (b) Wavelength (c)Intensity (d) Frequency
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. Q.10. The photoelectric effect may be described using the following theories:
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. (a) wave theory of light (b) Bohr’s theory (c) quantum theory of light

(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. (d) corpuscular theory of light.
(e) If the Assertion is false but Reason is correct
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
Q.1 Assertion: An electron is not deflected on passing through certain region of space. This
Q.11. Photoelectric emission is possible only if the incident light is in the form of packets of
observation confirms that there is no magnetic field in that region.
energy, each having a definite value, more than the work function of the metal. This shows that
Reason: The deflection of electron depends on angle between velocity of electron and direction
light is not of wave nature but of particle nature. It is due to this reason that photoelectric emission
of magnetic field.
was accounted by quantum theory of light.
Q.2 Assertion: The photon behaves like a particle.
I. Packet of energy are called
Reason: If E and P are the energy and momentum of the photon, then p = E /c.
(a)electron (b)quanta (c) frequency (d)neutron
Q.3 Assertion: Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.
Reason: The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light. II. One quantum of radiation is called
(a)meter (b)meson (c)photon (d)quark
Q.4 Photon is not a ……………., but it is a ………………..
Q.5 The minimum amount of energy required by an electron to just escape from a metal surface is III. Energy associated with each photon
called………………. of the metal. (a) hc (b) mc (c) hv (d) hk
Q.6. Which of the following statements is true regarding the photoelectric experiment?
IV. Which of the following waves can produce photo electric effect?
a. The stopping potential increases with the increase in the intensity of incident light. (a) UV radiation (b) Infrared radiation (c) Radio waves (d) Microwaves
b. The photocurrent increases with the intensity of light.
V. Work function of alkali metals is
c. The photocurrent increases with the increase in frequency (a) less than zero
d. All of the above (b) just equal to other metals
Q.7. De-Broglie equation states the: (c) greater than other metals
(a) dual nature (b) particle nature (c) wave nature (d) none of these (d) quite less than other metals

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 2 Mark Questions SECTION-A

Q.12. Write the basic features of photon picture of electromagnetic radiation on which Einstein’s Answer Key
photoelectric equation is based.
Q.1 (e) If electron is moving parallel to the magnetic field, then the electron is not deflected i.e., if
Q.13 Define the term stopping potential and Threshold frequency in relation to photoelectric effect.
electron is not deflected, we cannot be sure that there is no magnetic field in that region.
Q.14. In photoelectric effect, why should the photoelectric current increase as the intensity of
Q.2 (a)
monochromatic radiation incident on a photosensitive surface is increased? Explain.
Q3. (d) Photoelectric effect demonstrates the particle nature of light. Number of emitted
Q.15. Light of wavelength 3500 Å is incident on two metals A and B. Which metal will yield more
photoelectrons depends upon the intensity of light.
photoelectrons if their work functions are 5 eV and 2 eV respectively?
Q.4 material body, packet of energy
Q.16. The momentum of photon of electromagnetic radiation is 3.3 x10-29 kg-m/s. Find out the
Q5. Work function
frequency and wavelength of the wave associated with it.
Q.6. (b) The photocurrent increases with the intensity of light
Q.17. What is meant by work function of a metal? How does the value of work function influence
Q.7. (a) dual nature
the kinetic energy of electrons liberated during photoelectron emission?
Q.8. d) the least amount of energy required to remove an electron from a metal surface
Q.18. Why is photoelectric emission not possible at all frequencies?
Q.9. d) Frequency
3 Mark Questions Q.10. c) quantum theory of light

Q.19. Define the terms threshold frequency and stopping potential in relation to the phenomenon Q.11. CASE STUDY

of photoelectric effect. How is the photoelectric current affected on increasing the (i) frequency I. B II. C III. C IV. A V. D

(ii)intensity of the incident radiation and why? CBSE2006 Q.12. Features of the photons: (i)Photons are particles of light having energy E = hν and

Q.20 (i) State two important features of Einstein’s photoelectric equation. momentum p = h/λ

(ii) Radiation of frequency 1015 Hz is incident on two photosensitive surfaces P and Q. There is (ii) Photons travel with the speed of light in vacuum, independent of the frame of reference.

no photoemission from surface P. Photoemission occurs from surface Q but photoelectrons have (iii) Intensity of light depends on the number of photons crossing unit area in a unit time.

zero kinetic energy. Explain these observations and find the value of work function for surface Q. Q.13. The minimum retarding (negative) potential of anode of a photoelectric tube for which

Q21.Explain giving reasons for the following: photoelectric current stops or becomes zero is called the stopping potential.

(a) Photoelectric current in a photocell increases with the increase in the intensity of the incident- Threshold frequency is defined as the minimum frequency of incident radiation which can cause

radiation. photoelectric emission. It is different for different metal.

(b) The stopping potential (V0) varies linearly with the frequency (v) of the incident radiation for Q.14. The photoelectric current increases proportionally with the increase in intensity of incident

a given photosensitive surface with the slope remaining the same for different surfaces. radiation. Larger the intensity of incident radiation, larger is the number of incident photons and

(c) Maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is independent of the intensity of incident hence larger is the number of electrons ejected from the photosensitive surface

radiation. Q.15. Metal B will yield more photo electrons. work function of Metal B is lower than that of A
for the same wavelength of light. Hence metal B will give more electrons
******* Q.16. (i) Given, h = 6.63 10-34 J/s, c= 3 x108 m/s and p = 3.3 x 10 -29 - kg m/s

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 352 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 353 of 484
Momentum, p= ℎ𝜈/ 𝑐 or ν = 𝑝𝑐/ ℎ = 3.3 𝑥 10−29 x3 x 108 /6.63 x 10−34 = 1.5 x 1013 Hz
λ = 𝑐/ 𝜈 = 3 x108 /1.5 𝑥 1013 = 2 x 10-5 m
Q.17. Work Function: The minimum energy required to free an electron from metallic surface is
called the work function. Smaller the work function, larger the kinetic energy of emitted electron.
Q21. (a) The collision of a photon can cause emission of a photoelectron (above the threshold
Q.18. Photoelectric emission is possible only if the energy of the incident photon (hv) is greater
frequency). As the intensity increases, number of photons increases. Hence, the current increases.
than the work function (ω0 = hv0) of the metal. Hence the frequency v of the incident radiation
must be greater than the threshold frequency v0.
Q.19. Threshold frequency (ν 0 ) : It is the minimum frequency below which below which no
emission of photoelectron takes place is known as threshold frequency ( ν 0 ) .
Stopping potential (V 0 ) : Its is the minimum negative potential at which the photoelectric current
becomes zero.
(i) On increasing the frequency of incident radiation, the magnitude of photoelectric current
remains unchanged because increased frequency means increased energy of photon but number of hence, it depends on the frequency and not on the intensity of the incident radiation.
photon remains unchanged.
(ii) On increasing the intensity of incident radiation, the photoelectric current increases in the same
ratio, because increased intensity means increased number of incident photons which results in
increased number of ejected photoelectrons and hence increased photoelectric current. ********
Q.20. (i) Important features of photoelectric effect:
(a) Radiation behaves as if it is made of particles like photons. Each photon has energy E = hv and
momentum p = h/λ.
(b) Intensity of radiation can be understood in terms of number of photons falling per second on
the surface. Photon energy depends only on frequency and is independent of intensity.
(c) Photoelectric effect can be understood as the result of the one to one collision between an
electron and a photon.
(d) When a photon of frequency ν is incident on a metal surface, a part of its energy is used in
overcoming the work function and other part is used in imparting kinetic energy, so
KE = h(ν– ν0)
(ii) Since no photoelectric emission takes place from P, it means frequency of incident radiation
(1015 Hz) is less than its threshold frequency (v0)p. Photo emission takes place from Q but kinetic
energy of photoelectrons is zero. This implies that frequency of incident radiation is just equal to
the threshold frequency of Q.

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 Section-B a. Frequency of incident radiation alone
b. The potential difference between the emitter and the collector
1 Mark Questions
c. The work function of metal

Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. d. All of these

While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four Q. 28. Calculate the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electron which has a kinetic energy

responses. of 5 eV.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
a. 5.47 Å b. 2.7 Å c. 5.9 Å d. None of the above
Assertion.
Q.29. For a metal having a work function W0, the threshold wavelength is λ. What is the threshold
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
wavelength for the metal having work function 2W0?
Assertion.
(c)If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. a. λ/4 b. λ/2 c. 2λ d. 4λ
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. Q.30. How does the maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron vary with the frequency (ν) of
(e) If the Assertion is false but Reason is correct the incident radiation?

Q.22 Assertion : In process of photoelectric emission, all emitted electrons do not have same
kinetic energy.
Reason : If radiation falling on photosensitive surface of a metal consists of different wavelength
then energy acquired by electrons absorbing photons of different wavelengths shall be different.
Q.23 Assertion : The kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from metal surface does not depend
on the intensity of incident photon.
a.
Reason : The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is not possible with frequency of incident
photons below the threshold frequency.
Q.24 Assertion : Photoelectric saturation current increases with the increase in frequency of
incident light.
Reason : Energy of incident photons increases with increase in frequency and as a result b.
photoelectric current increases.
Q.25 The de- Broglie wavelength of a moving particle is ……………. proportional to its
momentum.
Q26. The phenomenon of photoelectric emission was discovered by………..in……….. c.
Q.27. In photoelectric effect what determines the maximum velocity of the electron reacting with
the collector?

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 IV. The concept of photoelectric effect given by Einstein explains that the light is a

(a) Photon (b) Wave (c)Particle (d) Both

V. The practical application of the phenomenon of photoelectric effect and the concept of
‘matter waves’ is
d.
(a)Photocells
Q.31. Kinetic energy of emitted electrons depends upon: (b) Automatic doors at shops and malls
(a) frequency (c) automatic light switches
(b) intensity (d) All of them
(c) nature of atmosphere surrounding the electrons
Two Marks Questions
(d) none of these
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS Q.33 Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted
is 2.0 × 10–3 W Calculate the (i) energy of a photon in the light beam and (ii) number of photons
Q.32 The discovery of the phenomenon of photoelectric effect has been one of the most important
emitted on an average by the source.
discoveries in modern science. The experimental observations associated with this phenomenon
Q.34. Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation and point out any two characteristic properties of
made us realize that our, ‘till then’, widely accepted picture of the nature of light – The
photons on which this equation is based.
electromagnetic (wave) theory of light– was quite inadequate to understand this phenomenon. A
Q.35. The Kinetic Energy (K.E.), of a beam of electrons, accelerated through a potential V, equals
‘new picture’ of light was needed and it was provided by Einstein through his ‘photon theory’ of
the energy of a photon of wavelength 5460 nm. Find the de Broglie wavelength associated with
light. This theory, regarded light as a stream of particles. Attempts to understand photoelectric
this beam of electrons.
effect thus led us to realize that light, which was being regarded as ‘waves’, could also behave like
3 Marks Questions
‘particles’. This led to the idea of ‘wave-particle duality’ vis-à-vis the nature of light. Attempts to Q.36. (a) Define photoelectric work function? What is its unit?
understand this ‘duality’, and related phenomenon, led to far reaching, and very important (b) In a plot of photoelectric current versus anode potential, how does
developments, in the basic theories of Physics. (i) Saturation current varies with anode potential for incident radiations of different frequencies
I. Which of the following phenomena explain the wave nature of light? but same intensity?
(a) Interference (b) Diffraction (c) polarization (d) all of them (ii) The stopping potential varies for incident radiations of different intensities but same frequency.
(iii) Photoelectric current vary for different intensities but same frequency of radiations? Justify
II. Wave –particle duality is shown by
your answer in each case?
(a) Light only (b) matter only (c) both light and matter (d) None of them Q.37 Draw a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with frequency of the incident
III. The experiment to explain the wave nature of light i.e electromagnetic wave theory is given radiations. What does the slope of the line with the frequency axis indicate. Hence define
threshold-frequency?
by
Q.38.(a) why photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave nature of light? Give
(a) Hertz (b) Einstein (c) Lenard (d) Huygen

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 358 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 359 of 484
reason. (b) Write the basic features of photon picture of electromagnetic radiation on which Answer Key
Einstein’s photoelectric equation is based. CBSE2013 Section-B

Q.39. The given graph shows the variation of 1 Mark’s Questions

photocurrent for a photosensitive metal: Q22. (b) Both statement I and II are true; but even it radiation of single wavelength is incident on
(a) Identify the variable X on the horizontal axis. photosensitive surface, electrons of different KE will be emitted.
(b) What does the point A on the horizontal axis Q.23(b)
represent? Q.24 (d) Photoelectric saturation current is independent of frequency. It only depends on intensity
(c) Draw this graph for three different values of frequencies of incident radiation v1, v2 and v3 (v1 > of light
v2 > v3) for same intensity. Q.25. inversely
(d) Draw this graph for three different values of intensities of incident radiation I1 I2 and I3 (I1 > Q.26. Heinrich Hertz, 1887
I2 > I3) having same frequency. Q.27 (d) All of these
Q.28 (a) 5.47 Å
Q.29. (b) λ/2
Q.30. (b)
*********
Q.31. (a) frequency
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
Q.32. I. d II. C III. A IV. B V. d

Two Mark’s Questions

Q.33. Calculating (i) Energy of a photon = hν= 6.63 × 10–34 × 6.0 × 1014 J = 3.978 × 10–19 J
(ii) Number of photons emitted per second = Power x Energy of photon
= 2 𝑥10−3 x 3.978 𝑥 10−19
= 5.03 × 1015 photons/second
Q.34. If radiation of frequency (ν) greater than threshold frequency (ν 0) irradiate the metal surface,
electrons are emitted out from the metal. So Einstein’s photoelectric equation can be given as
𝐾max= ½ m𝑣 2 = hν – h𝜈𝑂
Characteristic properties of photons:
(Q) Energy of photon is directly proportional to the frequency (or inversely proportional to the
wavelength.

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(ii) In photon-electron collision, total energy and momentum of the system of two constituents Q.37
remains constant. Slope of the graph

Q.35.

Einstein photoelectric equation

Differentiating equation (1)

3 Mark’s Questions

Q.36 (a) The minimum amount of energy required to take out an electron from the surface of metal.
Thus slope is equal to the ratio of Planck’s constant to the charge on electron.
It is measured in electron volt (eV).
Threshold frequency – The minimum values of frequency of the incident light below which
(b) (i) Saturation current depends only on the intensity of incident
photoelectric emission is not possible is called as threshold frequency.
radiation but is independent of the frequency of incident radiation.
Q.38 (a) Wave nature of radiation cannot explain the following:
(ii)
(i) The instantaneous ejection of photoelectrons.
Stopping potential does not depend on the intensity of incident
(ii) The existence of threshold frequency for a metal surface.
radiations.
(iii) The fact that kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is independent of the intensity of
light and dependence upon its frequency.
Thus, the photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave nature of light.
(b) Photon picture of electromagnetic equation is based on particle nature of light. Its basic features
are:
(i) In interaction with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made up of particles called photons.
(iii) Photoelectric current is directly proportional to the
(ii) Each photon has energy E = h ν and momentum p = h v/c and c, the speed of light
intensity of incident radiations, provided the given frequency
is greater than the threshold frequency.

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Q.39. SECTION-C
(a) ‘X’ is a collector plate potential. (b)
1 Mark Questions
‘A’ represents the stopping potential. (c)
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason.
Graph for different frequencies
While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four
responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c)If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.

********** (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

I If the Assertion is false but Reason is correct

Q.40 Assertion: When the speed of an electron increases its specific charge decreases.
Reason: Specific charge is the ratio of the charge to mass.
Q.41 Assertion: Photosensitivity of a metal is high if its work function is small.
Reason: Work function =hf0, where f0 is the threshold frequency. [AIIMS 1997]
Q.42 Assertion: Though light of a single frequency (monochromatic) is incident on a metal, the
energies of emitted photoelectrons are different.
Reason: The energy of electrons emitted from inside the metal surface, is lost in collision with the
other atoms in the metal.
Q.43. Assertion (A): The photoelectrons produced by a monochromatic light beam incident on a
metal surface have a spread in their kinetic energies.
ReasonI: The energy of electrons emitted from inside the metal surface, is lost in collision with
the other atoms in the metal. (CBSE Sample paper 2022)
Q.44. A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same potential difference. The
ratio of their de-Broglie wavelengths will be……….
Q.45. The Davison and Germer experiment established the existence of…………….
Q.46 The photoelectric current is unaffected by
1. incident light frequency

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2.metal work function also stopped. These observations proved that it was ultraviolet radiations, falling on the emitter
3.stopping potential plate, that ejected some charged particles from the emitter and the positive plate attracted them.
4.incident light intensity (I)Alkali metals like Li, Na, K and Cs show photo electric effect with visible light but metals like
(a) (i) and (iv) only Zn, Cd and Mg respond to ultraviolet light. Why?
(b) (ii) and (iii) only (a) Frequency of visible light is more than that for ultraviolet light
I (iii) only (b) Frequency of visible light is less than that for ultraviolet light
(d) (ii) only I Frequency of visible light is same for ultraviolet light
Q.47. Which of the following will emit photoelectrons when it collides with a metal? (d) Stopping potential for visible light is more than that for ultraviolet light
(a) UV radiations (b) Infrared radiation (c) Radio waves (d) Microwaves (II)Why do we not observe the phenomenon of photoelectric effect with non-metals?
Q.48. What will be the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated from rest through a (a)For non-metals the work function is high
potential difference of 100 volts? (b) Work function is low
(a) 12.3 Å (b) 1.23 Å (c) 0.123 Å (d) None of these I Work function can’t be calculated
Q.49. Two beams, one of red light and the other of blue light having the same intensity are incident (d) For non-metals, threshold frequency is low
on a metallic surface to emit photoelectrons. Which emits electrons of greater frequency? (III)What is the effect of increase in intensity on photoelectric current?
(a) Both (b) Red light (c) Blue light (d) None (a)Photoelectric current increases
Q.50. In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the electron (b) Decreases
gun can be increased by (c) No change
(a)Increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament (d) Varies with the square of intensity
(b) Increasing the flame current (IV)Name one factor on which the stopping potential depends
(c) Decreasing the flame current (a)Work function
(d) Decreasing the potential difference between anode and filament (b) Frequency
Q.51. The work function for a metal surface is 4.14 eV. The threshold wavelength for this metal © Current
surface is: (d) Energy of photon
(a) 4125 Å (b) 2062.5 Å (c) 3000 Å (d) 6000 Å (V)How does the maximum K.E of the electrons emitted vary with the work function of metal?
( CBSE Sample paper 2022) (a) It doesn’t depend on work function
(b) It decreases as the work function increases
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS (c) It increases as the work function increases

Q.52 Lenard observed that when ultraviolet radiations were allowed to fall on the emitter plate of (d) It’s value is doubled with the work function

an evacuated glass tube, enclosing two electrodes (metal plates), current started flowing in the Q.53.Name the phenomenon which is used to establish the wave nature of electrons in the

circuit connecting the plates. As soon as the ultraviolet radiations were stopped, the current flow Davisson-Germer experiment. CBSE (2020)
Q.54. Calculate the kinetic energy of an electron having de Broglie wavelength of 1Å.

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 CBSE (2017) SECTION C- Answer Key
Q.55. Name the three important features in photoelectric effect which can be explained by Q.40(b)
Einstein’s photoelectric equation . CBSE (2017) Q.41(b) Less work function means less energy is required for ejecting out the electrons
Q.42.(a) When a light of single frequency falls on the electrons of inner layer of metal, then this
TWO MARK’s QUESTIONS electron comes out of the metal surface after a large number of collisions with atom of it’s upper
Q.56. The de-broglie wavelengths associated with an electron and proton are equal. Prove that the
layer.
kinetic energy of the electron is greater than that of then proton.
Q.43 (a)
Q.57 Two lines, A and B, in the plot given below show the variation of de-Broglie wavelength, λ
Q.44. 2√2 :1
versus 1/√V, Where V is the accelerating potential difference, for two
Q.45. electron wave
particles carrying same charge. Which one of two represents a particle of
Q.46 (c) (iii) only
smaller mass? (All India 2008)
Q.47. (a) UV radiations
THREE MARK’s QUESTIONS
Q.48. (b) 1.23 Å
Q.58. A proton and an alpha particle have the same de – Broglie wavelength. Determine the ratio
Explanation: The value of V is given 100 volts.
of (i) their accelerating potentials (ii) their speeds. CBSE 2015
Equation of de Broglie wavelength of electron λ=h/2meV
Q.59. The graph in figure, shows the variation of stopping potential with frequency v of the
λ=6.6×10−34/2(9.1×10−31)(1.6×10−19)(100)
incident radiation for two photosensitive metals X and Y.
λ=6.6×10−34/2(9.1×10−31)(1.6×10−19)(100)
λ = 6.6 ×10-34 / 5.4 ×10-10m
V0 X Y
λ=1.277×1010m=1.23Å
Q.49. (c) Blue light
Explanation: Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given by Ek = hv – ϕϕ

o 0.5 1.0 Where, Ek is the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electron.
Energy of the photon of the blue light (hv)blue is higher compared to red light (hv)red. In
(i)which of the metals has large threshold wavelength? Give reason.
photoelectric emission, Ek ∝ (hv). Therefore, blue light emits electrons of greater kinetic energy
(ii) Explain giving reason, which metal gives out electrons, having large K.E. for the same
than that of red light.
wavelength of the incident radiation
Q.50. (a) increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
(iii) If the distance between the light source and metal X is doubled, how will the K.E of electrons
Explanation: if, e is the charge on electron, V is the potential difference, m is the mass of the
emitted from it change? Give reason. CBSE 2008
particle and v is the velocity of the particle then, eV = ½ mv2
Q.60. a) State three important properties of photons which describe the particle picture of
Therefore, in the Davisson and Germer experiment, velocity of electrons emitted from electron
electromagnetic radiation.
guns can be increased by increasing the potential difference between anode and filament.
(b) Use Einstein’s photoelectric equation to define the terms. (i) stopping potential and
(ii) threshold frequency. Q.51. (iii) 3000 Å

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 368 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 369 of 484
Q.52. (I)b (ii) a (III) a (IV) b (V) b THREE MARK’s QUESTIONS
Q.53. Electron diffraction.
Q.58 (i) The de -Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by
Q.54. de-Broglie wavelength
λ = 12.27/ V Å where, V is the accelerating potential of the particle.
λ = ℎ/𝑚𝑣=h/p It is given that
Kinetic Energy= p2/2m=
1 ℎ
( )2 = (6.626x10-34)2/2x9.11x10-31x(1x10-10)2 λ proton = λ alpha
2𝑚 λ
12.27 / proton = 12.27 / alpha
= 2.409x10-17J
V proton / V alpha = 1
Q.55.( i)For a given metal and frequency of incident radiation, the number of photoelectrons
(ii) The de – Broglie wavelength (λ) of a particle is also given by
ejected per second is directly proportional to the intensity of incident radiation.
λ = h /mv
(ii) Maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photo electron is independent of the intensity of
λ proton = h/m proton v proton
incident radiations.
λ alpha = h/ m alpha v alpha
(iii) Emission of photoelectrons is instantaneous
We known m alpha = 4m proton
TWO MARK’s QUESTIONS
λ alpha = h / 4m proton v alpha
Q.56. de-broglie wavelength of a particle of mass m and kinetic energy E is λ proton = λ alpha
λ = 𝒉 √𝟐𝒎𝑬 h / m proton v proton = h / 4 m proton v alpha
or E= h2/2m λ2
for particle having same λ, Eα 1/m v proton / v alpha = 4
As mass of electron as smaller than that of proton, so the electron has a higher kinetic energy and
it is moving faster. Q.59. (i) The threshold frequency for metal X is less and hence threshold wavelength of metal X
will be larger.
Q.57. (ii) As threshold frequency for X is less than that of Y and work function ϕ 0 = h ν 0 , hence work
function for X is less than that of Y. Lesser the work function, more will be its K.E.
(K.E.) max = h ν – ϕ 0, K.E. of X will be more.
(iii)If the distance between the light source and metal X is halved, intensity of incident light
becomes four times its previous value but frequency of light remains unchanged. Therefore, the
K.E. of ejected electron remains unchanged.
Q.60.(a)
Basic features of photon picture of electromagnetic radiation:
(i) Radiation behaves as if it is made of particles like photons. Each photon has energy E = hv and
momentum p = h/λ.
(ii) Intensity of radiation can be understood in terms of number of photons falling per second on

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the surface. Photon energy depends only on frequency and is independent of intensity. QUESTION BANK
(iii) Photoelectric effect can be understood as the result of one to one collision between an electron
CHAPTER 12-ATOMS
and a photon.
SECTION A
(iv)When a photon of frequency (ν) is incident on a metal surface, a part of its energy is used in
overcoming the work function and other part is used in imparting kinetic energy, so KE = h(v – Multiple Choice Questions (1 Mark each)
v0).
(b) (i) Stopping potential or cut-off potential. The minimum value of the negative potential ‘V 0‘, Q.1 In Bohr’s theory of model of hydrogen atom, name the physical quantity which equals to an

which should be applied to the anode in a photo cell so that the photo electric current becomes integral multiple of h/2π?

zero, is called stopping potential. (a) Momentum (b) Angular momentum

The maximum kinetic energy (Kmax) of photoelectrons is given by, (c)Angular frequency (d)Angular velocity
Q.2 What is the relation between ‘n’ and radius ‘r’ of the orbit of electron in hydrogen atom
according to Bohr’s theory?
(ii) Threshold frequency. The minimum frequency V0, which the incident light must possess so as (a) ‘r’ is directly proportional to n (b) ‘r’ is directly proportional to n2
to eject photoelectrons from a metal surface, is called threshold frequency of the metal. (c) ‘n2’ is directly proportional to r (d) ‘r’ is inversely proportional to n2
Q.3 What is Bohr’s frequency condition?
(a) hv=Ei-Ef (b) hv= Ef -Ei (c) hv=E-Ef (d) h=Ei-Ef
Q.4 Write the expression for Bohr’s radius in hydrogen atom?
(a) r=4ΠE0 x h2 / 4 π2me (b) r=4ΠE0 x h2 / 4 π2me2
********** (c) r=4ΠE0 x h2 / 4 πme2 (d) ) r=4ΠE0 x h/ 4 π2me2
Q.5 Name the spectral series of hydrogen atom lying in visible region?
(a) Paschen series (b)Pfund series (c)Bracket series (d) Balmer series
Q.6 The total energy of an electron in 1st excited state of hydrogen atom is about -3.4eV.
What is the kinetic energy of electron in this state?
(a) -3.4 eV (b) 3.4 eV (c) 0.34 eV (d) -0.34 eV
Q7. Which of the following spectral series in hydrogen atom gives spectral line of 4860 0A?
(a)Lyman (b) Balmer (c) Paschen (d) Brackett
Q.8 When hydrogen atom is in first excited level, its radius is
(a)same (b) half (c) twice (d) 4 times

Q.9 Rutherford model of atom was unstable because

(a)nuclei will break down (b)electron move in circular orbit

(c)orbiting electrons radiate energy (d) electrons are repelled by the nucleus

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 372 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 373 of 484
 Assertion –Reason type questions(1 mark each) electron in nth orbit, etc. Energy is also emitted due to the transition of electrons from one orbit to
another orbit. This energy is emitted in the form of photons with different wavelengths. This
Answer: A Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
wavelength is given by the Rydberg formula. When electrons make transitions between two energy
Answer: B Both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
levels in an atom various spectral lines are obtained. The emission spectrum of the hydrogen atom
Answer: C Reason is wrong.
has been divided into various spectral series like Lyman series, Balmer series, Paschen series etc.
Answer: D Both are wrong.
Q10. Assertion: According to Bohr’s atomic model the ratio of angular momenta of an electron
in first excited state and in ground state is 2:1.
Reason: In a Bohr’s atom the angular momentum of the electron is directly proportional to the
principal quantum number.
Q11. Assertion: The positively charged nucleus of an atom has a radius of almost 10−15m.
Reason: In a-particle scattering experiment, the distance of closest approach for particles is ≃
10−15m.
Q12. Assertion: For the scattering of a-particles at a large angles, only the nucleus of the atom is
responsible.
(I). The formula which gives the wavelength of emitted photon when electron jumps from higher
Reason: Nucleus is very heavy in comparison to α particle.
energy state to lower was given by
Q13.Assertion: Bohr had postulated that the electrons in stationary orbits around the nucleus do
(a) Balmer (b) Paschen (c) Lyman (d) Rydberg
not radiate
(II). What is true about Bohr’s atomic Model?
Reason: According to classical physics all moving electrons radiate.
(a) His model was unique totally different from other
Q14. Assertion: Atoms are not electrically neutral.
(b) His model is a modification of Rutherford atomic model.
Reason: Number of protons and electrons are different.
(c) His model is a modification of Thomson atomic model.

Case study based questions (4 marks) (d) None of the above

Q 15. BOHR ATOM MODEL (III). Bohr’s atomic model is applicable for
(a) All types of atoms (b) Only for hydrogen atom
Rutherford gives Rutherford's model of the atom after performing an Alpha particle scattering
(c) For hydrogen like atoms (d) For H2 gas.
experiment.
(IV). The cause of rejection of Rutherford atomic model was
This model is a modification of the earlier Rutherford Model. According to this model, an atom
(a) It was totally wrong (b) It could not justify its stability
consists of a small, positively-charged nucleus and negatively-charged electrons orbiting around
(c) Rutherford was unable to explain it (d) none of the above.
it in an orbital. These orbital can have different sizes, energy, etc. And the energy of the orbit is
also related to its size. The lowest energy is found in the smallest orbit. So if the electron is orbiting
in nth orbit then we will study about its Velocity in nth orbital, Radius of nth orbital, Energy of

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 374 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 375 of 484
 Short Answer type questions (2 marks each) ANSWERS ( SECTION A )
Q16.The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6eV. What is the kinetic energies and MCQs - Answers
potential Energies of the electron in the ground state and second excited state.
1.(b) Angular momentum
Q17. Define impact parameter. Represent diagrammatically the shape of trajectory of alpha
2. (b)‘r’ is directly proportional to n2
particles.
3.(b) hv=Ef-Ei
Q18. Show graphically the variation of radius of orbit with principal quantum number n.
4. (b) r=4ΠE0 x h2 / 4 π2me2
Q19. The radius of innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10 -11 m. What is the radius
of orbit in the second excited state? 5. (d) Balmer series

Q20. Define ionization energy. How would the ionization energy change when electron in 6. (b) kE=-E =-(-3.4)=3.4 eV

hydrogen atom is replaced by the particle of mass 200 times that of the electron but having the same 7. (b) Balmer
charge? [Given Rydberg constant, R = 107 m–1] (2016) 8. (d) 4 times
Q21.Write two important limitations of Rutherford nuclear model of the atom. (2017) 9. (c)orbiting electrons radiate energy
Q22. Calculate the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron orbiting in the n = 2 state of hydrogen Assertion and Reason- Answers
atom. (2016)
10. Correct answer: A
Q23. Derive an expression for the radius of nth Bohr’s orbit in Hydrogen atom.
11. Correct Answer: A
Short answer type questions. (3 marks each)
Q24. In a Geiger-Marsden experiment, calculate the distance of the closest approach to the nucleus 12. Correct Answer: A

of Z= 80, when an α-particle of 8 MeV energy impinges on it before it comes momentarily to rest 13. Correct Answer: B
and reverses its direction. How will the distance of the closest approach be affected when the
14. correct Answer D
kinetic energy of the a-particle is doubled?
Q25. Derive an expression for the frequency of radiation emitted when a hydrogen atom de-excites Case Study Based question- Answers
from level n to level (n – 1). Also show that for large values of n, this frequency equals to classical 15. (I) (d) Rydberg
frequency of revolution of an electron. (CBSE SQP 2020-21) (II) (b) His model is a modification of Rutherford atomic model.
Long answer type questions. (5 marks each)
(III) (c) For hydrogen like atoms
Q26. (i) Using Bohr’s postulates, derive an expression for the total energy of the electron in the
stationary states of the hydrogen atom. (CBSE 2013) (IV) (b) It could not justify its stability

(ii) Using Rydberg formula, calculate the wavelengths of the spectral lines of the first member of
Short answer type questions (2M)- Answers
the Lyman series and of the Balmer Series.
16. KE= 13.6 eV, PE= -27.2eV in the ground state
KE= 1.51 eV, PE = -3.02eV in the second excited state
*******

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 376 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 377 of 484
17. Impact parameter perpendicular distance of the velocity vector of a-particle from the central = 𝟑. 𝟒 × 𝟏. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟗 𝑱
line of the nucleus of the atom is called impact parameter (b). De Broglie’s wavelength,
for figure refer page no 115 𝒉 𝟔. 𝟔𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑𝟒
𝝀= = = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟔𝟕 𝒏𝒎
√𝟐𝒎𝑬 √𝟐 × 𝟗. 𝟏 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑𝟏 𝑬

18. Orbital radius is directly proportional to the square of principal quantum number
𝟐𝟑. 𝐟𝐫𝐨𝐦 𝐁𝐨𝐡𝐫 ′ 𝐬 𝐟𝐢𝐫𝐬𝐭 𝐩𝐨𝐬𝐭𝐮𝐥𝐚𝐭𝐞,
coloumb force F = centripetal force Fcp

𝑍𝑒 2 2
𝑚𝑒 𝑣𝑛
∴ =
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟𝑛2 𝑟𝑛

𝑍𝑒 2
𝑣𝑛2 = ……………………….(1)
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟𝑛 𝑚𝑒

according to Bohr’s second postulate,

𝑛ℎ
19. For n=1, r1 = 5.3x 10-11 m for ground state therefore r2 = 4 r1 , and r3= 9r1 𝑚𝑒 𝑟𝑛 𝑣𝑛 =
2𝜋
r2 = 2.12x10-10m r3= 4.77 x 10 -10 m 𝑛2 ℎ 2
𝑚𝑒2 𝑟𝑛2 𝑣𝑛2 =
4𝜋2
λmin =3.646×10−7m=364.6 nm. This wavelength lies in the ultraviolet region
𝑛2 ℎ2
𝑣𝑛2 = …………………(2)
20. Ionization energy: It is the minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron 4𝜋2 𝑚𝑒2 𝑟𝑛2

from the outermost orbit of an atom in its ground state. iv from equation (1) and (2)
𝑛2 ℎ2 𝑍𝑒 2
𝑚𝑒 4 =
𝐸0 = i.e., 𝐸0 ∝ 𝑚 4𝜋2 𝑚𝑒2 𝑟𝑛2 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟𝑛 𝑚𝑒
8𝜀02 ℎ 2
𝑛2 ℎ2 𝜀0
𝑟𝑛 =
Therefore, ionization energy will become 200 times. 𝜋𝑚𝑒 𝑍𝑒 2

𝜖0 ℎ 2
21. According to Rutherford’s atomic model, the electron orbiting around the nucleus 𝑟𝑛 = ( 𝑛2 )
𝜋𝑚𝑒2 𝑧𝑒 2

continuously radiates energy because of its acceleration due to which the atom will not remain this is the required equation for radius of nth orbit.
stable. So, Rutherford could not explain the stability of an atom.
Short answer type questions (3M)- Answers
(ii) Since electron spirals inwards, its angular velocity and frequency change continuously,
24. At closest approach, all K.E. of 𝛼-particles is completely converted into the P.E. of 𝛼-
therefore it will emit a continuous spectrum. Therefore, this model could not explain the particle.
line spectra of hydrogen.
𝐾. 𝐸. = 8𝑀𝑒𝑉 = 8 × 106 × 10−19 𝐽.
22. Kinetic Energy is given by the formula
K.E. is converted into P.E.
𝟏𝟑.𝟔 𝒆𝑽 𝟏𝟑.𝟔 𝒆𝑽 𝟏𝟑.𝟔 𝒆𝑽
𝑬= = = 1 𝑍𝑒2𝑒
𝒏𝟐 𝟐𝟐 𝟒 . = 12.8 × 10−13
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟0

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 378 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 379 of 484
 80×2×16×10−19 1 𝑒2
9 × 109 × = 12.8 × 10−13 P.E. 𝑈 = − .
𝑟0 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟

9×109 ×160×(1.6×10−19 )
2 𝑚𝑒 4
𝑟0 = (𝑚) =
12.8×10−13 4𝜀0 𝑛2 ℎ 2

9×1.6×1.6×1.6×10−14 1 1 𝑛ℎ 2
𝑟0 =
12.8
K.E. = 𝑚𝑣 2 = 𝑚 ( )
2 2 2𝜋𝑚𝑟

= 2.88 × 10−14𝑚 . =
𝑛 2 ℎ 2 𝜋2 𝑚 2 𝑒 4
8𝜋2 𝑚𝑒02 𝑛4 ℎ 4
1 𝑍𝑒2𝑒
As we see that K.E.= .
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟0 𝑚𝑒 4
K.E. =
8𝜀02 𝑛2 ℎ 2
1
𝐻𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒, 𝐾. 𝐸. ∝
𝑟0
T.E. = K.E. + P.E.
If K.E. become twice, closest approach will be halved. 𝑚𝑒 4
= −
𝑟0 8𝜀02 𝑛2 ℎ2
Hence, 𝑟0′ =
2
(b) Rydberg formula for first member of Lyman series
25. from Bohr’s theory frequency of the radiation emitted when an electron de- excites from
level n2 1 1 1
= 𝑅 ( 1 − 2)
𝜆 1 2
to level n1 is given as 4
𝜆=
2𝜋2 𝑚𝑘 2 𝑧 2𝑒 4 1 1 3𝑅
𝑓= [ − ]
ℎ3 𝑛12 𝑛22
For first member of Balmer Series
Given n1 =n-1, n2 =n 1 1 1
=𝑅( − )
𝜆 22 32
2𝜋2 𝑚𝑘 2 𝑧 2𝑒 4 2𝑛−1
𝑓= 36
ℎ3 (𝑛−1)2 𝑛2 𝜆=
5𝑅
For large n, 2n-1=2n, n-1=n and z=1
4𝜋2 𝑚𝑘 2 𝑒 4
Thus, 𝑓 = ***********
𝑛3 ℎ 3

Which is same as orbital frequency of electron in nth orbit

𝑉 4𝜋2 𝑚𝑘 2 𝑒 4
𝑓= =,
2𝜋𝑟 𝑛3 ℎ 3

Long answer question (5M) - Answers

𝑛ℎ
26. 𝑚𝑣𝑟 =
2𝜋

𝑚𝑣 2 1 𝑒2
=
𝑟 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟 2

𝑒2
𝑟=
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑚𝑣 2

𝜀𝑜 𝑛 2 ℎ 2
𝑟=
𝜋𝑚𝑒 2

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 380 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 381 of 484
 SECTION B Answer: D Both are wrong.
Q7. Assertion: The force of repulsion between atomic nucleus and α-particle varies with distance
Multiple choice questions (1 mark each)
according to inverse square law.
Reason: Rutherford did a-particle scattering experiment
Q.1 Why did Thomson’s atomic model fail?
Q8. Assertion : Total energy of revolving electron in any stationary orbit is negative.
(a) Thomson’s model failed to explain the scattering of alpha particles through large angles in
Reason : Energy is a scalar quantity. It can have positive or negative value.
Rutherford experiment.
Q9.Assertion:Balmer series lies in the visible region of electromagnetic spectrum
(b) Thomson’s model failed to explain the scattering of alpha particles through small angles in
Reason:1/λ=R(1/22-1/nn), where n=3,4,5…..
Rutherford experiment.
(c) Thomson’s model failed to explain the scattering of beta particles through large angles in
Case study based question (5 marks)
Rutherford experiment.
Q 10. HYDROGEN EMISSION SPECTRA
(d) ) Thomson’s model failed to explain the scattering of beta particles through small angles in
Hydrogen spectrum consist of discrete bright lines in dark background is known as Hydrogen
Rutherford experiment.
Emission spectrum. There is one more type of Hydrogen spectrum that exist where we get dark
Q.2 How much is the radius of Bohr’s inner most orbit?
lines on bright background. It is known as absorption spectra.
(a) r=0.51 0A (b) r=0.35 0A (c) r=0.23 0A (d) r=0.53 0A
Balmer found empirical formula by the observation of a small part of the spectrum and it is
Q3. The transition from the state n = 5 to n = 1 in a hydrogen atom results in UV radiation.
Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition represented by 1/λ = R(1/22-1/n2) where n = 3,4,5 …

(a) 2 → 1 (b) 3 → 2 (c) 4 → 3 (d) 6 → 2 (I) Number of spectral lines in Hydrogen atom is
Q.4 The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state is -13.6eV. The energy of level (a) 8 (b)6 (c) 15 (d) infinity
corresponding to n=5 is
(II) Which series of hydrogen spectrum corresponding to ultra violet region
(a)-0.54eV (b)-5.40eV (c)-0.85eV (d)-2.75eV
(a) Balmer series (b) Bracket series (c) Paschen series (d)Lymen Series
Q.5 Hydrogen atom are excited from ground state of the principal quantum number 4 then
(III) Which of the following lines of Hydrogen Spectrum belongs to Balmer Series
number of spectral lines observed will be
(a)1025 0A (b) 1218 0A (c)4861 0A (d)18751 0A
(a)3 (b)6 (c)5 (d) 2
(IV) Rydberg Constant is
Q.6 In Bohr model of hydrogen atom which of the following is quantised?
(a) Universal constant (b) same for same elements
(a) linear velocity of electron (b) angular velocity of electron
(c) different for different elements (d) none of the above
(c) linear momentum (d)angular momentum
(V) Hydrogen is excited from ground state to another state with a Principal quantum number equals
Assertion –Reason Type Questions (1 mark)
to 4. Then the number of spectral lines in emission spectra will be
Answer: A Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
Answer: B Both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d)2
Answer: C Reason is wrong.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 382 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 383 of 484
 Short Answer type questions (2 marks each) ANSWERS (SECTION B)
Q11.Find the ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of an electron of hydrogen ANSWERS OF MCQ(1mark)
atom from its (i) second permitted energy level to the first level (ii) the highest permitted energy
1.(a) Thomson’s model failed to explain the scattering of alpha particles through large angles in
level to the first permitted level Rutherford experiment.
Q 12. When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from the third excited state to the ground state, 2. (d) r=0.53 0A
how would the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electron change? Justify your answer. 3. (c) 4 → 3
Q.13 Define the distance of closest approach. An α-particle of kinetic energy ‘K’ is bombarded on
4. (a)-0.54eV
a thin gold foil. The distance of the closest approach is ‘r’. What will be the distance of closest
5. (b)6
approach for an α- particle of double the kinetic energy?
6. (d)angular momentum
Q.14 In the ground state of hydrogen atom, its Bohr radius is given as 5.3 × 10 –11 m. The atom is
excited such that the radius becomes 21.2 × 10 –11 m. Find (i) the value of the principal quantum Answers of Assertion Reason (1 mark)
number and (ii) the total energy of the atom in this excited state. (2016) 7. Correct Answer: B
Q.15 The energy levels of a hypothetical atom are given
8. correct Answer B
below. Which of the shown transitions will result in the
9. Correct Answer: B
emission of photon of wavelength 275 nm? (2016)
Case Study based question - Answers (5 marks)
10. (I) (d) infinity
Q.16 Show that the radius of the orbit in hydrogen atom varies as n 2, where n is the principal (II) (d)Lyman Series
quantum number of the atom. ( CBSE 2015)
(III) (c)4861 0A

Short answer type questions (3 marks each) (IV) (a)Universal constant

Q 17. A monochromatic radiation of wavelength 975 Å excites the hydrogen atom from its ground (V) (c) 6
state to a higher state. How many different spectral lines are possible in the resulting spectrum? Short answer type questions (2M)- Answers
Which transition corresponds to the longest wavelength amongst them. (CBSE Sample QP 11. ΔE= Ei – Ef Ratio=3:4
2018)
12. Wave length decreases. P = √2𝑚𝐾𝐸 = h/λ
Long answer type questions (5 marks each) E is proportional to 1/ λ
Q. 18. (i) Draw a schematic arrangement of the Geiger- Marsden experiment and describe it. 13. Distance of closest approach: It is the distance of charged particle from the centre of the
(ii) How did the scattering of a-particle by a thin foil of gold provide an important way to nucleus, at which the whole of the initial kinetic energy of the (far off) charged particle gets
determine an upper limit on the size of the nucleus? Explain briefly. converted into the electric potential energy of the system.
************
Distance of closest approach (rc) is given by

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 384 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 385 of 484
 1 2𝑍𝑒 2 The above equation show that r is directly proportional to 𝒏𝟐
𝑟𝑐 =
4𝜋𝜀0 𝐾
Short answer type questions (3M)- Answers
𝑟
'K' is doubled and rc becomes 17. The corresponding to the given wavelength
2
12400 12400
14. (i) 𝐸= = = 12.71 𝑒𝑉
𝜆 975
2
𝑟 = 𝑟0 𝑛 The excited state
21.2 𝑋 10−11 = 5.3 𝑋 10−11 𝑛2
𝐸𝑛 − 𝐸1 = 12.71
𝑛=2 13.6
− + 13.6 = 12.71
𝑛2
(ii)
13.6𝑒𝑉 ∴ 𝑛 = 3.9 ≈ 4
𝐸= −
𝑛2
𝑛(𝑛−1)
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑜 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑙 𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑠 𝑒𝑚𝑖𝑡𝑡𝑒𝑑 ∶ =6
13.6𝑒𝑉 2
= − = −3.4𝑒𝑉
22 Longest wavelength will corresponding to the transition n=1 to n=4.

ℎ𝑐
Long answer type questions (5M)- Answers
15. (i) Energy of Photon =
𝜆 214
18. (i) Geiger-Marsden experiment: Alpha particles emitted by a 83𝐵𝑖 radioactive source were
6.64×10−34 ×3×108
= eV collimated into a narrow beam by passing them through lead bricks. The beam was allowed to
275 × 10−9 ×1.6×10−18

= 4.5 𝑒𝑉 fall on a thin foil of gold of thickness 2.1×10-7 m. The scattered alpha particles were observed
through a rotatable detector consisting of zinc sulphide screen and a microscope. The scattered
(ii) The transition is B.
alpha particles on striking the screen produced brief light flashes or scintillations. These flashes
1 𝑒2 𝑚𝑣 2
16. . =
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟2 𝑟 may be viewed through a microscope.
𝑒2
𝑟=
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑚𝑣 2

𝑒2 (NCER
𝑚𝑣 2 𝑟 = ………….(1)
4𝜋𝜀0

According to the Bohr’s Postulates,

𝑛ℎ
𝑚𝑣𝑟 =
2𝜋

2 2 2 𝑛2 ℎ 2
𝑚 𝑣 𝑟 =
4𝜋2
2
Using the value of mv r from eqn. (1)
From the experiment, it was observed that only a small fraction of number of α-particles rebound
𝑒2 𝑛2 ℎ 2
𝑚𝑟 =
4𝜋𝜀0 4𝜋2 back. This shows that the number of α-particles undergoing head on collision is very small. The
𝑛2 ℎ 4𝜋𝜀0 conclusion is that the entire positive charge of atom is concentrated in a small volume called the
𝑟 = ( )( )
𝑚 2𝜋 𝑒2
nucleus.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 386 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 387 of 484
(ii) The alpha particles those are incident directly on the gold nucleus, experience a very large SECTION C
force of repulsion and undergo maximum deflection as observed in the experiment. At the
Multiple Choice Questions (1 Mark)
distance of head on approach, the entire kinetic energy of α-particle is converted into electrostatic
potential energy. This distance of head on approach gives an upper limit of the size of nucleus Q.1 What is the ratio of radii of orbits corresponding to 1 st excited state and ground state of
(denoted by r0 ) and is given by hydrogen atm?
(a) 2:1 (b)1:4 (c)4:1 (d)1:2
1 (𝑍𝑒)(2𝑒)
𝐸𝑘 = . Q.2 The ratio between Bohr radii is
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟0
1 (𝑍𝑒)(2𝑒) (a) 1: 2: 3 (b) 2 : 4 : 6 (c) 1 : 4 : 9 (d) 1 : 3 : 5
𝑟0 = .
4𝜋𝜀0 𝐸𝑘 Q3. An alpha particle of energy 5 Mega eV is scattered through 180 degree by a fixed uranium
nucleus. The distance of closest approach is of the order of
This is about 10-14 m.
(a)1 0A (b)10-10 cm (c)10-12 cm (d)10-15 cm
Q.4 The total energy of the electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. The kinetic
**************** energy of the electron in the first excited state will be
(a) 1.7 eV (b) 3.4 eV (c) 6.8 eV (d)13.6 eV
Q.5 When an electron jumps from 4th orbit to 2nd orbit,one gets the
(a) second line of paschen series (b) second line of lyman series
(c)second line of balmer series (d) first line of pfund series
Q.6 If P.E and K.E represent potential and kinetic energies of the orbital electron then
(a) K.E=-P.E/2 (b) K.E=-P.E (c) K.E=-2P.E (d) none of the above

Assertion –Reason Type Questions (1 Mark each)

Answer: A Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.

Answer: B Both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Answer: C Reason is wrong.
Answer: D Both are wrong.
Q7. Assertion: Electrons in the atom are held due to coulomb forces
Reason: The atom is stable only because the centripetal force due to Coulomb’s law is balanced
by the centrifugal force.
Q8. Assertion: Rydberg’s constant varies with the mass number of given element.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 388 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 389 of 484
Reason: The reduced mass of electron is dependent on the mass of nucleus only. Q 12. The wavelength of the second line of Balmer series in Hydrogen atom is 4861Angstrom.
Q9. Assertion: In Lyman series, the ratio of minimum and maximum wavelength is ¾ Calculate the wave length of the first line.
Reason: Lyman series constitute spectral lines corresponding to transition from higher energy to Q13. Calculate the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series of hydrogen atom. In which region
ground state of hydrogen atom. (infra-red, visible, ultraviolet) of hydrogen spectrum does this wavelength lie?

Case study based question (5 marks) Q14 The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. If an electron makes a transition from
Q10. ENERGY OF ELECTRON FOR HYDROGEN ATOM an energy level – 1.51 eV to – 3.4 eV, calculate the wavelength of the spectral line emitted and the

Electrons are revolving around the nucleus in particular stable orbits. The energy of the electron is series of hydrogen spectrum to which it belongs. (CBSE 2017)

increasing as we go from the orbit closer to nucleus to outer side. The ground state energy is the Q15 Energy of electron in first excited state in Hydrogen atom is -3.4eV. Find KE and PE of

lowest energy and it is -13.6 eV for hydrogen atom. Thus, the minimum amount of energy required electron in the ground state. (CBSE SQP 2019-20)

to remove or free the electron from the ground state is the ionisation energy and it has value +13.6
eV. When electrons jumps from higher energy orbit to lower energy orbit emits energy in the form
Short answer type questions (3 marks each)
Q16. (i) State Bohr’s quantization condition for defining stationary orbits. How does de-Broglie
of photons which are in the form of spectral lines and called as emission lines. The light emitted
hypothesis explain the stationary orbits? (ii) Find the
by the ordinary source of light consist of different wavelength. But the laser light is the
relation between the three wavelengths 𝜆1 , 𝜆2 and 𝜆3
monochromatic one which emits light of single wavelength. In case of hydrogen atom, the ground
from the energy level diagram shown below.
state energy is that energy state for which n = 1. And the states for which n > 1, all are the excited
(2016)
states. Where n shows the principal quantum number.

(I) In hydrogen atom, the energy corresponding to principal quantum number n =2 is___
Long answer type questions (5 marks
(a) -13.6 eV (b) -3.4 Ev (c) +13.6 eV (d) +3.4 eV
each)
(II) For ground state of hydrogen atom the value of principal quantum number is___
Q.17 (i) Write two important limitations of Rutherford model which could not explain the observed
(a) n = 2 (b) n = 0 (c) n = 1 (d) n = infinity features of atomic spectra. How were these explained in Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom ? Use
(III) The minimum energy required to remove the electron from the ground state of the hydrogen the Rydberg formula to calculate the wavelength of the Ha line. (Take R = 1.1 × 107 m–1).
atom is called as___ (CBSE 2015)
(a) excitation energy (b) ionisation energy
(ii) Using Bohr’s postulates, obtain the expression for the radius of the nth orbit in hydrogen atom.
(c) ground state energy (d) excited state energy
(IV) The acronym LASER stands for?
*********
(V) If n = infinity then what is the energy of the state and what does it means?

Short answer type questions (2 marks each)

Q 11. What is the maximum number of spectral lines emitted by a hydrogen atom when it is in the
third excited state? Which one will have lowest wavelength?

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 390 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 391 of 484
 ANSWERS (SECTION C) λ1=R(1/22−1/32 )=365R
For second balmer line:
MCQs- Answers (1 mark)
4861=R(1/22−1/42 )=163R Divide both equations:
1.(c)Ground state, n=1
λ=4861×27/20= 6562.35 0A
Excited state, n=2
13. For shortest wavelength in the Balmer series: n1=2 n2=∞
r proportional to n2
λmin =3.646×10−7m=364.6 nm. This wavelength lies in the ultraviolet region
r2/r1= 22/12 𝒉𝒄
14. 𝒉𝝂 = = ( 𝑬𝟐 − 𝑬𝟏 )
𝝀
r2/r1=4 =4:1 𝒉𝝂
𝝀=
2. (c) 1:4:9 ( 𝑬𝟐 − 𝑬𝟏 )
𝟔.𝟔𝟑×𝟏𝟎−𝟑𝟒 ×𝟑 ×𝟏𝟎𝟖
3. (c)10-12 cm 𝝀=
[−𝟎.𝟖𝟓−(−𝟑.𝟒)]×𝟔 ×𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟗
4. (b) 3.4 eV 𝝀 = 𝟒. 𝟖𝟕 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟕 𝒎
5. (c)second line of balmer series This wavelength belongs to Balmer series.
6. (a)K.E=-P.E/2 15. Energy of electron in n=2 is 3.4eV

Assertion Reason - Answers (1 mark) Energy ground state = -13.6eV

7. Correct Answer: C K.E. = - T.E.= +13.6eV
8. Correct Answer: B 𝑥
𝐸𝑛 =
𝑛2
9. Correct Answer: B 𝑥
= -13.6eV =
22
Case Study based question – Answers (5 marks)
Energy of ground state x=-13.6eV.
10. (I) b) -3.4 eV
P.E. = 2T.E. = -2 x 13.6 eV = -27.2 eV
(II) c) n = 1
(III) b) ionisation energy
(IV) The acronym LASER stands for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. Short answer type questions (3M) – Answers
𝑛ℎ
(V) When the principal quantum number n = infinity then the corresponding state is having energy 0 16. (i) 𝐿= i.e. angular momentum and orbiting electron is quantized
2𝜋
eV. And this energy of atom is possible only when electron is totally removed from the nucleus and
According to de-Broglie hypothesis
hence it goes to rest. ℎ
linear momentum, 𝑝=
𝜆
Short answer type questions (2M) – Answers
for circular orbit, 𝐿 = 𝑟𝑛 𝑝 where 𝑟𝑛 is radius of 𝑛𝑡ℎ orbit
11. third excited state, n2 = 4, and n1 = 3, 2, 1 Hence there are 3 spectral lines. 𝑟𝑛 ℎ
=
Greater the energy lower the wavelength 𝜆
𝑛ℎ
12. For the first line in balmer series also 𝐿=
2𝜋

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 392 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 393 of 484
 𝑟𝑛 𝑛ℎ 𝜆 = 656.3 𝑛𝑚
=
𝜆 2𝜋
′
(ii) 𝐅𝐫𝐨𝐦 𝐁𝐨𝐡𝐫 𝐬 𝐟𝐢𝐫𝐬𝐭 𝐩𝐨𝐬𝐭𝐮𝐥𝐚𝐭𝐞,
2𝜋𝑟𝑛 = 𝑛𝜆
coloumb force F = centripetal force Fcp
∴ circumference of permitted orbits are integral multiples of the wavelength λ
𝑍𝑒 2 2
𝑚𝑒 𝑣𝑛
(ii) ∴ =
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟𝑛2 𝑟𝑛

ℎ𝑐 𝑍𝑒 2
𝐸𝐶 − 𝐸𝐵 = ……(1) 𝑣𝑛2 = ……………………….(1)
𝜆1 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟𝑛 𝑚𝑒
ℎ𝑐
𝐸𝐵 − 𝐸𝐴 = …..(2) according to Bohr’s second postulate,
𝜆2
𝑛ℎ
ℎ𝑐 𝑚𝑒 𝑟𝑛 𝑣𝑛 =
𝐸𝐶 − 𝐸𝐴 = …..(3) 2𝜋
3
𝑛2 ℎ 2
According to equations (1) and (2) 𝑚𝑒2 𝑟𝑛2 𝑣𝑛2 =
4𝜋2
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 𝑛2 ℎ2
𝐸𝐶 − 𝐸𝐴 = + ……(4) 𝑣𝑛2 = …………………(2)
𝜆1 𝜆2 4𝜋2 𝑚𝑒2 𝑟𝑛2

Using equation (3) and (4), we get iv from equation (1) and (2)
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐
= + 𝑛2 ℎ2 𝑍𝑒 2
𝜆3 𝜆1 𝜆2 =
4𝜋2 𝑚𝑒2 𝑟𝑛2 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟𝑛 𝑚𝑒
1 1 1
= + 𝑛2 ℎ2 𝜀0
𝜆3 𝜆1 𝜆2 𝑟𝑛 =
𝜋𝑚𝑒 𝑍𝑒 2
Long answer type questions (5M) – Answers 𝜀0 ℎ 2
𝑟𝑛 = ( 𝑛2 )
𝜋𝑚𝑒2 𝑧𝑒 2
17. (i) Limitations of Rutherford’s atomic model are as follows:
this is the required equation for radius of nth orbit.
(1) According to Rutherford’s atomic model, the electron orbiting around the nucleus
continuously radiates energy because of its acceleration, due to which the atom will not remain
stable. So, Rutherford could not explain the stability of an atom.
(2) Since electron spirals inwards, its angular velocity and frequency change continuously, **********
therefore it will emit a continuous spectrum. Therefore, this model could not explain the
line spectra of hydrogen.
According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, Electron in an atom can revolve in certain stable
orbits without emitting the energy. Energy is released or absorbed only when an electron jumps
from one stable orbit to another stable orbit resulting in a discrete spectrum.
1 1 1
= 𝑅 ( 1 − 2)
𝜆 2 3
1 1 1
= 1.1 × 107 ( − )
𝜆 4 9

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 394 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 395 of 484
 QUESTION BANK ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
CHAPTER 13-NUCLEI
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
SECTION-A (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
MCQ (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Q1. The mass number of a nucleus is (d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(a) Always less than its atomic number (e) If assertion is false but reason is true
(b) Always more than its atomic number
Q8. Assertion : Density of all the nuclei is same.
(c) Always equal to its atomic number
Reason : Radius of nucleus is directly proportional to the cube root of mass number
(d) Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
Q9. Assertion : All the radioactive elements are ultimately converted in lead.
Q2. Nuclear binding energy is equivalent to
Reason : All the elements above lead are unstable
(a) Mass of proton
Q10. Assertion : The mass of a nucleus can be either less than or more than the sum of the
(b) Mass of neutron
masses of nucleons present in it.
(c) Mass of nucleus
Reason : The whole mass of the atom is considered in the nucleus.
(d) Mass defect of nucleus
Q3. In nuclear reaction, there is conservation of
2 MARKS QUESTIONS
(a) Mass only (b) Momentum only (c) Energy only (d) Mass, energy and momentum Q11. Why are heavy nuclei usually unstable?
Q4. Particles which can be added to the nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical Q12. Write two characteristic features of nuclear force which distinguish it from Coulomb’s force
properties are called Q13. Why do stable nuclei never have more protons than neutrons?
(a) Neutrons (b) Electrons (c) Protons (d) Alpha particles
Q14. Distinguish between isotopes and isobars. Give one example for each of the species.
Q5. The radius of a nucleus is
(a) Directly proportional to its mass number 3-MARKS QUESTIONS
(b) Inversely proportional to its atomic weight
Q 15. Define nuclear fusion. Nuclear fusion is not possible in laboratory. Explain.
(c) Directly proportional to the cube root of its mass number
Q16. Calculate binding energy per nucleon of 56Fe nucleus. Given that mass of 56Fe =
26 26
(d) None of these
55.934939u, mass of proton = 1.007825u, mass of neutron = 1.008665 u and 1 u = 931 MeV.
Q6. The mass of an atomic nucleus is less than the sum of the masses of its constituents. This mass
1) 3He and 3H1 nuclei have same mass number. Do they have the same Binding energy
2
defect is converted into
Explain
(a) Heat energy (b) Light energy (c) Electrical energy (d) Energy which binds nucleons
2) If both the number of neutrons and the numbers of protons are conserved in each nuclear
together
reaction, in what way is mass converted into energy in a nuclear reaction? Explain
Q7. The neutrons and protons are collectively called as
a) Neutrons (b) Mass (c) Nucleons (d) None

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 396 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 397 of 484
 5-MARKS QUESTIONS Q 20. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions :

Q 17. Distinguish between nuclear fission and fusion. Show how both these processes energy is Neutrons and protons are identical particle in the sense that their masses are nearly the same and
released. Calculate the energy release in MeV in the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction the force, called nuclear force, does into distinguish them. Nuclear force is the strongest force.
1H
2+
1H
3 → 2He4 + n Stability of nucleus is determined by the neutron proton ratio or mass defect or packing fraction.
using the data mass of 1H2= 2.014102 u, mass of 1H3 = 3.016949 u, mass of 2He4 = 4.002603 Shape of nucleus is calculated by quadrupole moment and spin of nucleus depends on even and
u, mass of neutron = 1.008665 u, u = 931.5 MeV odd mass number. Volume of nucleus depends on the mass number. Whole mass of the atom
Q18. i) What characteristic property of nuclear force explains the constancy of binding energy per (nearly 99%) is centred at the nucleus
nucleon (B.E/A) in the range of mass number ‘A’ lying 30<A< 170. ii) Show that the density of (I) The correct statements about the nuclear force is/are
nucleus over a wide range of nuclei is constant independent of mass number A. (a) charge independent
(b) short range force
3-MARKS QUESTIONS- CASE STUDY
(c) non-conservative force
Q19. As per the population rise in our country, energy demand is also increasing especially the (d) all of these.
electrical energy. For fulfilment of such demand, one of the option is to utilize nuclear sources. (II) The range of nuclear force is the order of
Nuclear energy is obtained through the nuclear fission process, where a bi nucleus gets split into (a) 2 x 10-10 m (b) 1.5 x 10-20 m (c) 1.2 x 10-4 m (d) 1.4 x 10-15 m
two or more than two smaller nuclei along with tremendous amount of energy. This energy can be (III) A force between two protons is same as the force between proton and neutron. The nature of
used for either constructive purpose or destructive purpose for the humans. Nuclear reaction is of the force is
two types- nuclear fission and nuclear fusion. In nuclear reactor, controlled nuclear fission reaction (a)Electrical force (b) weak nuclear force (c) gravitational force (d) strong nuclear force
is carried out. (IV) All the nucleons in an atom are held by
(a) nuclear forces (b) vander waal’s forces (c) tensor forces (d) coulomb forces
(I) The process taking out in the sun, due which we get light and heat energy
(A) Nuclear fission (B) Nuclear fusion (C) Thermal reactions (D) Nuclear holocaust
*********
(II) The atomic energy programme in our country was launched under the leadership of
(A) C V Raman (B) H J Bhabha (C) A P J Abdul Kalam (D) Amit Bhatnagar
(III) The temperature of the core of the sun is about
(A) 103 to 104 K (B) 106 to 107 K (C) 109 to 1010 K (D) None of the above
(IV) To slow down the fast moving neutrons in nuclear reactor by
(A) Control rods (B) Moderator (C) Coolant (D) Plasamon.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 398 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 399 of 484
 ANSWER KEY-SECTION A Mass defect = Total mass – mass of Fe = 56.4334 – 55.934939 = 0.528468 u
MCQ: 1) b 2) d 3) b 4) a 5) c 6) d 7) c Binding energy = mass defect x 931.5 MeV = 0.528468 x 931.5 MeV
= 492.267942 MeV
ASSERTION AND REASON: 8) a 9) a 10) e
Binding energy per nucleon = Binding energy/ mass number = 492.267942/56

2-MARKS QUESTIONS = 8.790 MeV

11.Due to large repulsive force between the large numbers of protons in the nucleus
12.Characteristic Features of Nuclear Force 1) No, the binding energy of 1H3 is greater since more energy is required to bind 2 neutrons
Nuclear forces are short range attractive forces (range 2 to 3 fm) while Coulomb’s forces have and 1 proton in 1H3 than 2 protons and 1 neutron in 2He3
range up to infinity and may be attractive or repulsive. 2) As the number of nucleons is conserved in a nuclear reaction, the total rest mass of protons
Nuclear forces are charge independent forces; while Coulomb's force acts only between charged and neutrons on each other side of the reaction remains same. But the binding energies of
particle nuclei on the two sides of the reaction different. It is this difference in B.E that appears as
13.Protons are positively charged and repel one another electrically. This repulsion becomes so the energy released in the nuclear reactions.
great in nuclei with more than 10 protons or so, that an excess of neutrons which produce only
attractive forces, is required for stability 5 MARKS QUESTIONS
14.Atoms of same elements having same atomic number but different mass numbers known as
isotopes. Eg. 17Cl35, 17Cl
36 and
17Cl
37 17.
Atoms of different elements with different atomic number but same mass number known as Nuclear Fission Nuclear Fusion
isobars. Eg 40 40
18Ar , 20Ca
When the nucleus of an atom splits into lighter Nuclear fusion is a reaction through which
nuclei through a nuclear reaction the process is two or more light nuclei collide with each
3-MARKS QUESTIONS termed nuclear fission. other to form a heavier nucleus.

15.In nuclear fusion reaction, two or more than two smaller nucei get combine together to more When each atom split, a tremendous amount of The energy released during nuclear fusion is
energy is released several times greater than the energy released
stable nucleus. Nuclear fusion is not possible in laboratory because it requires very high during nuclear fusion.
temperature such as 106 to 107K. Such high temperature are often generated in nuclear fission.
Fission reactions do not occur in nature Fusion reactions occur in stars and the sun
That is why fission precedes fusion. These processes cannot be carried out in laboratory naturally
16.Mass of proton = 1.007825 u
Little energy is needed to split an atom in a High energy is needed to bring fuse two or
Mass of neutron = 1.008665 u fission reaction more atoms together in a fusion reaction
Mass of Fe = 55.934939 u
Atomic bomb works on the principle of nuclear Hydrogen bomb works on the principle of a
Mass of 26 protons = 26 x 1.007825 u = 26.2035 u fission nuclear fusion bomb.
No of neutrons = 56-26 = 30
Mass of 30 neutrons = 30 x 1,008665 u = 30.25995 u In both reactions there is a mass defect which is converted into energy.
Total mass of 56 nucleons = 26.2035 + 30.25995 = 56.4334 u Now energy released in the reaction

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 400 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 401 of 484
 Q = [ mass( 1H2) + mass(1H3) – mass(2He4) – mass of neutron]c2 SECTION-B

= [ 2.014102 + 3.016049 -4.002603-1.008665] x 931.5 MeV MCQ

Q1. Binding energy per nucleon of a stable nucleus is
= 0.018883 x 931.5 MeV = 17.58 MeV (a) 8 eV (b) 8 KeV (c) 8 MeV (d) 8 BeV
Q2. The binding energy per nucleon is almost constant for many nuclei. It shows that nuclear
18.i) The approximate constancy of BE/A over most of the range is saturation property of nuclear force. In
forces are
heavy nuclei, nuclear size > range of the nuclear force.
(a) Charge independent
So a nuclear sense approximately a constant number of neighbhors and thus the nuclear BE/A levels off at
(b) Saturated in nature
high A. This saturation of the nuclear force
(c) Short range in nature
ii) The mass of the nucleus of the atom of the mass number A (d) Attractive in nature
A= A a.m.u. Q3. The electrons cannot exist inside the nucleus because
= A ×1.660565×10-27kg (a) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in β -decay is much less than the size of nucleus
The volume of the nucleus is 4/3 πr3=4/3π(ROA-3)3=4/3πR03A (b) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in β -decay is much greater than the size of
∴Volume=4/3π(1.1×10-15)3×Am3 nucleus
Now the density of the nucleus= m/V; where m is mass and V is the volume of the nucleus. (c) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in β -decay is equal to the size of nucleus
ρ = A ×1.660565×10-27kg /4/3π(1.1×10-15)3=2.97×1017 Kgm−3 (d) Negative charge cannot exist in the nucleus
Thus, we can see the density of the nuclei is independent of mass number and it is constant for all nuclei Q4. Which one of the following has the identical property for isotopes?
3 MARKS QUESTIONS- CASE STUDY (a) Physical property (b) Chemical property (c)Nuclear property (d) Thermal property
19. (I) b (II) b (III) b (IV) a Q5. When the number of nucleons in nuclei increases, the Binding energy per nucleon
(a) Increases continuously with mass number
20.(I) a (II) d (III) d (IV) a
(b) Decreases continuously with mass number

********** (c) Remains constant with mass number

(d) First increases and then decreases with increase of mass number
Q6. Fusion reactions take place at high temperature because
(a) Atoms are ionised at high temperature
(b) Molecules break up at high temperature
(c) Nuclei break up at high temperature
(d) Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion
Q7. The tritium which is the isotope of hydrogen contains
(a)One proton, one neutrons
(b)One proton, two neutrons

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 402 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 403 of 484
(c)Two protons, one neutrons (3 MARKS QUESTIONS)
(d)None
Q15.A given coin has a mass of 3.0 g . Calculate the nuclear energy that would be required to
Q8. Heavy stable nuclei have more neutrons than protons. This is because of the fact that
separate all the neutrons and protons from each other. For simplicity assume that the coin is entirely
(a)Neutrons are heavier than protons.
made of 63 29Cu atoms (of mass 62.92960 u)
(b)Electrostatic force between protons is repulsive.
Q16. Calculate binding energy per nucleon of 209Bi nucleus. Given that mass of 209Bi =
83 83
(c) Neutrons decay into protons through beta decay.
55.934939u, mass of proton = 1.007825u, mass of neutron = 1.0086 MeV665 u and 1 u = 931
(d)Nuclear forces between neutrons are weaker than that between protons
MeV.
ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS Q17. Suppose, we think of fission of a 56Fe26 nucleus into two equal fragments, 28Al13. Is the fission
energetically possible? Mass of 56Fe26 = 55.934939u, mass of 28Al13 = 55.934939u
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
1) How is the size of a nucleus experimentally determined? Write the relation between
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
the radius and mass number of the nucleus is independent of its mass number
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
***********
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(e) If assertion is false but reason is true

Q9. Assertion : Fragments produced in the fission of 235 U are radioactive.

Reason : The fragments have abnormally high proton to neutron ratio.
Q10. Assertion : All the radioactive elements are ultimately converted in lead.
Reason : All the elements above lead are unstable.

Q11. Assertion : It is not possible to use Cl 35 as the fuel for fusion energy.
Reason : The binding energy of Cl 35 is too small.

Q12. Assertion : Electron capture occurs more often than positron emission in heavy elements.
Reason : Heavy elements exhibit radioactivity.

(2 MARKS QUESTIONS)

Q13. For a given nuclear reaction the B.E./nucleon of the product nucleus/nuclei is more than that
for the original nucleus/nuclei. Is this nuclear reaction exothermic or endothermic in nature?
Justify your choice
Q14. Calculate the energy equivalent of 1amu in MeV.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 404 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 405 of 484
 ANSWER KEY-SECTION B
MCQ: 1. C 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. 8. B 16.Bismuth nucleus contains 83 protons
Number of neutrons=209−83=126 neutrons
ASSERTION AND REASON: 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. B
Now, Mass of 83 protons=83 X 1.007825=83.649475amu

2 MARKS QUESTIONS Mass of 126 neutrons=126X1.008665=127.091790amu

13. As BE/nuleon of the product nuclei is more than that of original nuclei. So more mass has been Therefore, total mass of nucleons=83.649475+127.091790=210.741260amu
converted into energy. This would result in release of energy so it is exothermic Given, mass of nucleus=208.980388amu
14.One atomic mass unit (1 a.m.u.) is defined as one twelfth 112 of the mass of an atom of carbon- Now, mass defect △m =210.741260−208.980388=1.760872
12. Total binding energy=1.760872 X 931.5=1640.26MeV
1 a.m.u. = 1.66×10 -27kg Therefore, average binding energy per nucleon = 1640.26/ 209 =7.848Mev
According to Einstein’s mass-energy equivalence relation, 17.It is given that The atomic mass of Fe = 55.93494.0 u
𝐸 = (𝛥𝑚)c2 The atomic mass of Al = 27.98191 u
So, we need to find energy equivalent of 1 a.m.u. The Q value of this nuclear reaction is given as 𝑄 = [(𝑚ass of Fe ) –(2 mass of Al )] c2
E=(1.66×10-27 kg)×(3×108 m/s)2 = [55.93494 – 2 × 27.9819119] c2
=1.49×10-10 joules 𝑄 = (−0.02888 c2) u
But 1 MeV = 1.6×10-13 J But we know that 1 u = 931.5 Mev/c2 𝑄𝑄 = −0.02888 × 931.5 = −26.902 MeV
E=1.49×10-10 x 1.6×10-13 MeV The Q value of the fission is negative. Therefore, fission is not possible. For a possible
=931.5 MeV fission reaction, the Q value should be positive
Thus, 1 amu of mass is equivalent to 931.5 MeV of energy. 1) It was possible to obtain the size of the nucleus through Rutherford’s experiment. We can
calculate the size of the nucleus, by obtaining the point of closest approach of an alpha
3-MARKS QUESTIONS
particle
15.Number of atoms in a 3g coin=6.023×1023 ×3 / 63=2.868×1022
If R is the radius of nucleus having mass number A, then R = R0 A1/3
Each copper atom has 29 protons and 34 neutrons.
Where R0= 1.2 X 10-15 m which is the range of order of nuclear size and A is mass number
Mass of the copper nucleus = 62.92960
Thus, the mass defect of each atom is 29×1.00783+34×1.00867−62.92960=0.59225u.
Total mass defect of all atoms = 0.59225u×2.868×1022 =1.6985× 1022u.
Thus, the nuclear energy required=1.6985×1022×931MeV=1.58×1025 MeV.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 406 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 407 of 484
 SECTION-C ANSWER KEY-SECTION C
(3 MARKS QUESTIONS) 1.The nuclear reaction is
Q1. A heavy nucleus X of mass number A= 240 and B.E/A = 7.6MeV is split into two nearly equal X240→Y110+Z130+Q
fragments Y and Z of mass numbers A1= 110 and A2= 130. The binding energy of each one of As per given data
these nuclei is 8.5MeV per nucleon. Calculate the total binding energy of each one of the nuclei Q=110×8.5+130×8.5−240×7.6
X, Y and Z and hence the energy Q released per fission in MeV =240(0.9) MeV=216MeV

Q2.Four nuclei of an element fuse together to form a heavier nucleus. If the process is accompanied 2.Since the unstable parent nuclei fuse to form a heavier stable daughter nuclei in a nuclear fusion

by release of energy, which of the two the parent or the daughter nucleus would have higher reaction releasing some energy. So, daughter nuclei is more stable than parent nuclei.

binding energy Thus daughter nucleus has more binding energy per nucleon than parent nucleus
3.In a nuclear reaction, the aggregate of the masses of the target nucleus (1H2) and the bombarding particle
(2 MARKS QUESTIONS)
may be greater or less than the aggregate of the masses of the product nucleus (2He3) and the outgoing
particle (0n1).
Q3. In tropical nuclear reaction e.g., 2H1 + 2H1− − −>3He2+ 1n0+ 3.27 MeV, although number of
So, from the law of conservation of mass- energy some energy (3.27 Mev) is evolved or involved in a
nucleons is conserved, yet energy is released. How? Explain
nuclear reaction. This energy is called Q-value of the nuclear reaction.
Q4. Obtain approximately the ratio of the nuclear radii of the gold isotope 79Au197 and the silver
4. Let RAu be the nuclear radius of the gold isotope and RAg be the nuclear radius of the silver isotope.
isotope 47Ag107
We have the mass number of the gold (Au )is 197
the mass number of the silver(Ag) is 107.
**************
The ratio of the radii of te two nuclei is related with their ass number as:
(RAu / RAg ) =(197/107) 1/3 = 1.2256 = 1.23

*********

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 408 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 409 of 484
Unit IX: Electronic Devices 10 Periods conduction band is empty at zero kelvin. The electrons cross from valence band to
Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple conduction band even when a small amount of energy is supplied. The semiconductor
acquires a small conductivity at room temperature.
Circuits
Insulators: Electrons, however heated, cannot practically jump to conduction band from
GIST OF THE CHAPTER:
valence band due to a large energy gap (>3 eV). Therefore, conduction is not possible in
Energy bands in conductors, semiconductors and insulators (qualitative ideas only) Intrinsic insulators.
and extrinsic semiconductors- p and n type, p-n junction Semiconductor diode - I-V
characteristics in forward and reverse bias, application of junction diode -diode as a INTRINSIC SEMICONDUCTORS:
rectifier. ● Intrinsic Semiconductor is a pure semiconductor.
● The energy gap in Si is 1.1 eV and in Ge is 0.74 eV.
Energy bands in solids:
● Si: 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s2, 3p2. (Atomic No. is 14)
⮚ Due to influence of high electric field between the core of the atoms and the shared ● Ge: 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p2. (Atomic No. is 32)
electrons, energy levels are split-up or spread-out forming energy bands. ● Both Si and Ge have four valance electrons. The four valance electrons form four covalent
⮚ The energy band formed by a series of levels containing valance electrons is called valance bonds by sharing the electrons with neighbouring four atoms.
band and the lowest unfilled energy level just above the valance band is called conduction ● In intrinsic semiconductor, the number of thermally generated electrons always equals the
band. number of holes. So, if ni and pi are the concentration of electrons and holes respectively,
then ni = pi. The quantity ni or pi is referred to as the ‘intrinsic carrier concentration’.
⮚ Filled energy levels are separated from the band of unfilled energy levels by an energy gap ● At 0 K, a semiconductor is an insulator i.e., it possesses zero conductivity. When
called forbidden gap or energy gap or band gap. temperature is increased, a few covalent bonds break up and release the electrons. These
electrons move to conduction band leaving behind equal number of holes in valence band.
Energy band diagram for, Conductors Semiconductors and Insulators
The conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor is due to both electrons and holes.

DOPING:
Conductors (Metals):The conduction band and valance band partly overlap each other and ● Doping a Semiconductor: Doping is the process of deliberate addition of a very small
there is no forbidden energy gap in between.Large number of electrons are available for amount of impurity (1% of crystal atoms) into an intrinsic semiconductor.
electrical conduction , hence the resistance is low of such materials.Even if a small electric ● The impurity atoms are called dopants.
field is applied across the metal, these free electrons start moving.Hence metals behave as ● The semiconductor containing impurity is known as ‘Extrinsic semiconductor’.
a conductor. ● Doping of a semiconductor increases its electrical conductivity to a great extent.
Semiconductors: The conduction and valance bands are separated by the small energy gap ● The pentavalent impurity atoms are called donor atoms, while the trivalent impurity
( 1 eV) called forbidden energy gap. The valence band is completely filled, while the atoms are called acceptor atom.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 410 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 411 of 484
 Extrinsic semiconductor. Electrical conductivity of a semiconductor:
A semiconductor doped with a suitable impurity (pentavalent or trivalent), so as to possess The conductivity of a semiconductor is determined by the mobility (µ) of both electrons
conductivity much higher than the semiconductor in pure form is called an extrinsic and holes and their concentration. Mathematically- σ = e (neμe + nhμh)
semiconductor.
P-N JUNCTION.
Extrinsic semiconductors are of two types:
The device obtained by bringing a p-type semiconductor crystal into close contact with n-
1) n-type semiconductor type semiconductor crystal is called a p-n junction. It conducts in one direction only. It is
2) p-type semiconductor
also called a junction diode
1) n-type semiconductor: Depletion layer. It is a thin layer formed between the p and n-sections and devoid of holes
When a pentavalent impurity, such as arsenic or antimony or phosphorus is added to a pure and electrons. Its width is about 10-8 m. A potential difference of about 0.7 V is produced
semiconductor, the four of the five valance electrons of the impurity atoms form covalent
across the junction, which gives rise to a very high electric field (= 10 6 V/ m).
bonds by sharing the electrons with the adjoining four silicon atoms, while the fifth electron
is very loosely bound with the parent impurity atom and is comparatively free to move. Potential Barrier: The difference in potential between p and n regions across the junction
makes it difficult for the holes and electrons to move across the junction. This acts as a
The number of free electrons become more than the holes in the semiconductor and such
an extrinsic semiconductor is called n-type semiconductor. In other words, in a n-type barrier and hence called ‘potential barrier’. Potential barrier for Si is nearly 0.7 V and
semiconductor, electrons are majority carriers and holes are minority carriers. for Ge is 0.3 V. The potential barrier opposes the motion of the majority carriers.

2) p-type semiconductor: Forward biasing:

When a trivalent impurity, such as indium or gallium or boron is added to a pure The p-n junction is said to be forward biased, when the positive terminal of the external
semiconductor, three valance electrons of the impurity atoms form covalent bonds by battery is connected to p-section and the negative terminal to n-section of the junction diode.
sharing the electrons with the adjoining three silicon atoms.
Due to the deficiency of an electron, there is one incomplete covalent bond.The vacancy
that exists with the fourth covalent bond with fourth Si atom constitutes a hole.
The semiconductor becomes deficient in electrons i.e. number of holes become more than
the number of electrons. Such a semiconductor is called p-type semiconductor. It has holes
as majority carriers and electrons as minority carriers.

Reverse biasing: The p-n junction is said to be reverse biased, when the positive
terminal of the battery is connected to n-section and the negative terminal to p-section of
the junction diode.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 412 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 413 of 484
Junction diode as rectifier: GRAPHS
Because of its unidirectional conduction property, the p-n junction is used to convert an a,c. 1) I -V CHARACTERISTICS:
voltage into d. c, voltage, It is, then, said to be acting as a rectifier.
Forward Bias & Reverse Bias Characteristics of a P-N Junction Diode
1. Half wave rectifier: A rectifier, which rectifies only one half of each a.c. input supply cycle,
is called a half wave rectifier. A half wave rectifier gives discontinuous and pulsating d.c.
output. As alternative half cycles of the a.c. input supply go waste, its efficiency is very low.

2. Full wave rectifier: A rectifier which rectifies both halves of each a.c. input cycle is called a 2) INPUT AND OUTPUT VOLTAGE GRAPHS OF
full wave rectifier. The output of a full wave rectifier is continuous but pulsating in nature.
However, it can be made smooth by using a filter circuit.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 414 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 415 of 484
ENERGY BAND DIAGRAMS IN EXTRINSIC SEMICONDUCTORS TABLES
1) DIFFERENCE BETWEEN INTRINSIC AND EXTRINSIC SEMICONDUCTORS
S.NO INRINSIC SEMICONDUCTOR EXTRINSIC SEMICONDUCTOR
1 Pure form of semiconductor. Impure form of semiconductor.
2 Conductivity is low Conductivity is higher than intrinsic
semiconductor.
3 The no of holes is equal to no of free In n-type, the no. of electrons is greater
electrons than that of the holes and in p-type, the
no. holes is greater than that of the
electrons.

ENERGY BAND DIAGRAMS IN CONDUCTORS, INSULATORS AND

SEMICONDUCTOS 4 The conduction depends on The conduction depends on the
temperature. concentration of doped impurity and
temperature.

2) DIFFERENCE BETWEEN HALF WAVE AND FULL WAVE RECTIFIER

S.NO HALF WAVE RECTIFIER FULL WAVE RECTIFIER

1 Only half cycle of AC is rectified. Both cycles of AC are rectified.

2 Requires only one diode Requires two diodes.

3 The output frequency is equal to input The output frequency is double of the
supply frequency. (F) input supply frequency. (2F)

4 The electric current through the load is A continuous electric current flow
not continuous through the load.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 416 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 417 of 484
 FORMULAE
1) Electron and hole concentration in a semiconductor in thermal
equilibrium
nenh= ni 2
2) Resistance of a Diode:
a) Static or DC Resistance R dc= V/I
b) Dynamic or AC Resistance

MNEMONICS
1) TO REMEMBER NAMES OF IMPURITIES IN SEMICONDUCTORS
BIG PAA
Boron, Indium, Gallium (all three are trivalent impurities)
Phosphorus, Antimony, Arsenic (all three are pentavalent impurities)
2) TO REMEMBER THE P AND N SECTIONS OF A DIODE.
The arrow in the schematic symbol for diodes points in the direction of Conventional
(positive) current flow.

P N
3) Current is unidirectional in a diode. It flows from anode to cathode only. To remember
this, remember the mnemonics ‘ACID’ (ANODE CURRENT IN DIODE)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 418 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 419 of 484
 QUESTION BANK Reason :A p- type semiconductor is an uncharged crystal
8. Assertion :Silicon is preferred over germanium for making semiconductor devices.
CHAPTER-14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple
Reason :The energy gap in germanium is more than the energy gap in silicon.
Circuits
9. Assertion :The diffusion current in a p-n junction is from the p-side to the n-side.
SECTION A Reason :The diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current when the junction
is in forward biased
MCQ-1 MARK SECTION
10. Assertion: The energy gap between the valance band and conduction band is greater in silicon
1. The energy band gap is maximum in than in germanium.
(a) metals (b) superconductors (c) insulators (d) semiconductors Reason: Thermal energy produces fewer minority carriers in silicon than in germanium.
2. At absolute zero, silicon (Si) acts as
(a) non-metal (b) metal (c) insulator (d) none of these CASE BASED / SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS
3.The process of adding impurities to a pure semiconductor is called 11. On the basis of energy bands materials are also defined as metals, semiconductors and
(a) Mixing (b)Doping (c)Diffusing (d)None of the above insulators. These semiconductors are classified as intrinsic semiconductors and extrinsic
4. Silicon is doped with which of the following to obtain P type semiconductor semiconductors also. Intrinsic semiconductors are those semiconductors which exist in pure form.
(a) Phosphorus (b) Gallium (c) Germanium (d) Bismuth And intrinsic semiconductors have number of free electrons is equal to number of holes. The
5.When an impurity is doped into an intrinsic semiconductor, the conductivity of the semiconductors doped with some impurity in order to increase its conductivity are called as
semiconductor extrinsic semiconductors. Two types of dopants are used they are trivalent impurity and
(a) Increases (b) decreases (c) remains the same (d) becomes zero pentavalent impurity also. The extrinsic semiconductors doped with pentavalent impurity like
Arsenic, Antimony, Phosphorus etc are called as n – type semiconductors. In n type
ASSERTION –REASONING TYPE QUESTIONS
semiconductors electrons are the majority charge carriers and holes are the minority charge
Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by statement of carriers. When trivalent impurity is like Indium, Boron, Aluminium etc are added to extrinsic
Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as. semiconductors then p type semiconductors will be formed. In p type semiconductors holes are
A ; If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the majority charge carriers and electrons are the minority charge carriers.
assertion. (I)What is extrinsic semiconductor?
B: If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion. (II)What is ratio of number of holes and number of electrons in an intrinsic semiconductor?
C :If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. (III)Why doping is necessary?
D: If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. (IV) Majority charge carriers in p-type semiconductor are___________.
6.Assertion :A pure semiconductor has negative temperature coefficient of resistance.
12. From Bohr's atomic model, we know that the electrons have well defined energy levels in an
Reason :In a semiconductor on raising the temperature, more charge carriers are
isolated atom. But due to interatomic interactions in a crystal, the electrons of the outer shells are
released,conductance increases and resistance decreases.
forced to have energies different from those in isolated atoms. Each energy level splits into a
7. Assertion :A p-type semiconductors is a positive type crystal.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 420 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 421 of 484
number of energy levels forming a continuous band. The gap between top of valence band and 15.Distinguish between a metal and an insulator on the basis of energy band diagram.
bottom of the conduction band in which no allowed energy levels for electrons can exist is called 16.Explain, how a depletion region is formed in a junction diode?
energy gap. Following are the energy band diagrams for conductor fig (ii), for insulators fig (b) 17. Carbon and silicon both have four valence electrons each, then how are they distinguished?
and for semiconductors fig (c). 18. The graph shown in the figure represents a plot of current versus
voltage for a given semi-conductor. Identify the region, if any, over
which the semi-conductor has a negative resistance.
19. Plot a graph showing variation of current versus voltage for the
material GaAs.

3 MARKS QUESTIONS

20.Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier using p-n junction diode. Explain its working
and show the output and input waveforms. (CBSE-2011 )

5 MARKS QUESTION
21. Indicate which of the following p- n
diodes are forward biased and which are
reverse biased:
(I) In an insulator energy band gap is
(a) Eg= 0eV (b) Eg> 3eV (c) Eg< 3eV (d) None of this
(II)In a semiconductor, separation between conduction and valence band is of the order of 22. (i) Sn, C and Si, Ge are all group 14

(a) Eg= 0eV (b) Eg> 3eV (c) Eg< 3eV (d) None of this elements. Yet Sn is a conductor, C is an

(III) Based on the band theory of conductors, insulators and semiconductors, the forbidden gap is insulator while Si and Ge are

smallest in semiconductor. Why?

(a)conductor (b) insulators (c) semiconductors (d) All of these (ii)Germanium and silicon junction diodes are connected in parallel. A resistance R, a 12 V battery,

(IV) Solids having highest energy level partially filled with electrons are a milli ammeter (mA) and key (K) are connected as shown in figure. When Key (K) is closed,

(a)semiconductor (b) conductor (c) insulator (d) none of these current begins to flow in milli ammeter. What will be the maximum reading of voltmeter connected
across resistance R?
2 MARKS QUESTIONS

13.What happens to the width of depletion layer of a p-n junction when it is

(i)forward biased? (ii)reverse biased?
14. Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of a p-n junction diode as a half- wave
******
rectifier.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 422 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 423 of 484
 SECTION A- ANSWERS 17.The four valence electrons of carbon are present in second orbit while that of silicon in third
orbit. So, energy required to extricate an electron from silicon is much smaller than
(1 MARKS)
carbon.Therefore, the number of free electrons for conduction in silicon is significant on contraryof
1.c 2.c 3.b 4.b 5. A 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. b carbon. This makes silicon conductivity much higher than carbon. This is the main distinguishable
11. CASE BASED STUDY 1: property.
18.Between the region B and C, the semiconductor has a negative resistance.
(I) Definition of extrinsic semiconductor (II) 1:1 (III) to increase conduction (IV) holes
19. A Graph showing variation of current versus voltage for
12. CASE BASED STUDY 2: GaAs
(I) (c) (II) (b) (III) (a) (IV) (b)

(2 MARKS) (3 MARKS)

13.(i) Width of depletion layer’s decreases in forward bias 20. The labelled diagram of a full wave rectifier is given below:
(ii) Width depletion layer increases in reverse bias.
14. P-n Junction Diode as a Half-Wave Rectifier The working principle of the full-

AC voltage to be rectified is connected to the primary coil of a step-down transformer. Secondary wave rectifier is as follows.

coil is connected to the diode through resistor load resistance, across which output is obtained.
Working: During positive half cycle of the input AC, the p-n junction is forward biased. Thus,the The ac source is connected to the ac source that produces an emf and the

resistance in p-n junction becomes low and current flows. Hence, we get output in the load. During respective current through the transformers. The secondary winding of the transformed is center

negative half cycle of the input AC, the p-n junction is reverse biased. Thus, resistance of p-n tapped which means that it provides the current with two paths to travel in during the positive

junction is high and current does not flow. Hence, no output in the load. So, for complete cycle of and negative halves of the cycle respectively.

AC, current flows through the load resistance in the same direction. This means that during the positive half of the cycle the potential at A will be at a positive

15. (i) Metal For metals, the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band can have potential and hence the p junction of the diode is connected to the positive terminal and hence

two possibilities either it is partially filled with an extremely small energy gap between the valence it is forward biased which makes the diode D2 reverse biased and hence current will only flow

and conduction bands or it is empty, with two bands overlapping each other.
(ii) On applying a small even electric field, metals can conduct electricity.
16.With the formation of p-n junction, the holes from p-region diffuse into the n-region and
electrons from n-region diffuse into p-region and electron-hole pair combine and get
annihilated.This input produces potential barrier, VB across in junction which opposes the further
diffusion through the junction. Thus, small region forms in the vicinity of the junction which is
depleted of free charge carrier and has only immotile ions is called the depletion region.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 424 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 425 of 484
 through the path with the D1. SECTION B
Similarly when the polarity gets shifted during the negative half of the cycle the diode D 2 gets
MCQ-1 MARK
forward biased and current flows though path shown by the dotted lines in the diagram since B
will be at positive potential in this cycle. 1. The mobility of free electrons is greater than that of free holes because
This in-turn produces a pulsating dc (a) they are light (b) they carry negative charge
signal and filters can be further applied to (c) they mutually collide less (d) they require low energy to continue their motion
converting into a complete dc signal. 2.The forbidden gap for germanium is
Hence, the principle behind a full wave (a) 0.12 eV (b)0.72 eV (c)7.2 eV (d)None of these
rectifier is to convert ac to dc signal. 3. Semiconductor devices require
(a)large evacuated space (b)external heating arrangement
The input waveform (ac source) given to (c)low operating voltages (d)high power
the is shown below 4. When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction, it
(a) raises the potential barrier. (b)reduces the majority carrier current to zero.
(5 MARKS)
21. A p-n diode is forward biased if p-side is at a higher potential than n-side. (c) lowers the potential barrier (d)None of the above.

(a) The p-side is at a higher potential (+7V) than the n-side (+ 5V) the diode is forward biased. 5. In a full wave rectifier, input AC has a frequency ‘ν’. The output frequency of current is

(b) The p-side is at a higher potential (zero, earthed) than the n-side (+ 2V), the diode is (a) ν /2 (b) ν (c) 2 ν (d) None of these

reverse-biased.
(c) The p-side is at a lower potential (- 10 V) than the n-side (zero), the diode is reverse biased. ASSERTION/REASONING QUESTIONS
(d) The p-side is at a higher potential (- 5V) than the n-side (-12V), the diode is forward biased. Directions :In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement
(e) The p-side is at a higher potential (zero) than the n-side (-10V), the diode is forward-biased. of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
22. i.) The conduction level of any element depends on the energy gap between its conduction A: If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
band and valence band. In conductors, there is no energy gap between conduction band and valence Assertion.
band. For insulator, the energy gap is large and for semiconductor the energy gap is moderate. The B: If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
energy gap for Sn is 0 eV, for C is 5.4 eV for Si is 1.1 eV and for Ge is 0.7 eV related to their Assertion.
atomic size. Therefore, Sn is a conductor, C is an insulator and Ge and Si are semiconductors. C:If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
ii.) The potential barrier of germanium junction diode is 0.3 V and of silicon is 0.7 V. Both D: If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect
germanium and silicon are forward biased. Therefore, for conduction the minimum potential 6. Assertion (A):If the temperature of a semiconductor is increased then its conductivity increases.
difference across junction diode is 0.3 V. Reason (R):The energy gap between conduction band and valence band is very small
Maximum reading of voltmeter connected across R = 12-0.3 = 11.7 7. Assertion (A): When a p-n junction diode is reverse biased, a feeble reverse-current flows
known as reverse saturation current.
Reason (R ): In reverse bias condition, the minority carries can cross the junction.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 426 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 427 of 484
8. Assertion: The p-n junction diode primarily allows the flow of) current only in one direction (IV) A p-n junction (D) shown in the figure can act as a rectifier. An alternating current source V
(forward bias) is connected in the circuit. The current (I) in the resistor(R) can be shown by
Reason: The forward bias resistance is low as compared to the reverse bias resistance.
9. Assertion: For a half wave rectifier the output frequency is half of input.
Reason: Half wave rectifier got its name from such phenomena.
10. Assertion: Diode is an Ohmic conductor.
Reason: Diodes obey Ohm’s law
. CASE BASED / SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS

11. Rectifier is a device which is used for converting alternating current or voltage into direct
12.
current or voltage. Its working is based on the fact that the resistance of p-n junction becomes low
when forward biased and becomes high when reverse biased. A half-wave rectifier uses only a
single diode while a full wave rectifier uses two diodes as shown in figures (a) and (b).

(I)If the rms value of sinusoidal input to a full wave rectifier is V0/√2 then A p-n junction is a single crystal of Ge or Si doped in such a manner that one half portion of it
the rms value of the rectifier's output is acts as p-type semiconductor and other half functions as n-type semiconductor. As soon as a p-n
(a) V0/√2 (b) V0√2 (c) V02 junction is formed, the holes from the p-region diffuse into the n-region and electron from n
(d) V0/2 region diffuse in to p-region. This results in the development of VB across the junction which
(II) In the-diagram, the input ac is across the terminals A and C. The output opposes the further diffusion of electrons and holes through the junction. The current set up by
across B and D is minority charge carriers under the influence of VB is drift current .Diffusion current and drift
(a) same as the input (b) half wave rectified (c) zero (d)full current are in opposite directions and no net flow of charge across the junction.
wave rectified (I) In an unbiased p-n junction electrons diffuse from n-region to p-region because
(III) A bridge rectifier is shown in figure. Alternating input is given (a) holes in p-region attract them
across A and C. If output is taken across BD, then it is (b) electrons travel across the junction due to potential difference
(a) zero (b) same as input (c) half wave rectified (d) (c) electron concentration in n-region is more as compared to that in p-region
full wave rectified (d) only electrons move from n to p region and not the vice-versa versa

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 428 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 429 of 484
 (II) In the depletion layer of unbiased p-n junction 5 MARKS QUESTIONS
(a)it is devoid of charge carriers (b) has only electrons(c) has only holes (d) p-n junction has a
21. i) How are p- type semiconductors produced?
weak electric field
ii) The forbidden band energy of silicon is 1.1eV. What does it mean?
(III) The potential of depletion layer is due to
iii) What is an ideal diode?
(a) electrons (b) hole (c) ions (d) forbidden band
iv) Figure shows two p-n junction diode along with a resistance and a d.c battery E.
(IV) Name the two important processes involved in the formation of a p-n junction.
Indicate the path and the direction of appreciable current in the circuit.

2 MARKS QUESTIONS
13. Why does the Resistivity of Semiconductors go down with Temperature?
14. What is meant by intrinsic semiconductor and extrinsic semiconductor? What are the
differences between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductor?
15. What is meant by doping and doping agent?
16. Draw the voltage-current characteristic of a p-n junction diode in forwarding bias and reverse
bias.
17.Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of a p-n junction diode as a full- wave
rectifier. (CBSE-2011)
******
18. Determine the current I in the circuit shown below. Assume the diodes to be of silicon and
forward resistance of diodes to be zero.

3 MARKS QUESTIONS

19. Write any two distinguishing features between conductors, semiconductors and insulators on
the basis of energy band diagrams.
20 (i) Name two important processes that occur during the formation of a p-n junction.
(ii) Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier along with the input and output waveforms.
Briefly explain how the output voltage/current is unidirectional. (CBSE 2016)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 430 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 431 of 484
 SECTION B-ANSWERS 16. The characteristics are as shown.

1. A
2. b
3. C
4. c
5. c
6. A
7. A
8. A
9. D
17. Full Wave rectifier
10. D
18.The conditions of the problem suggest that diode D1 is forward biased and diode D2 is reverse
11. I (a) II (d) III (a) IV (c)
biased. We can, therefore, consider the branch containing diode D2 as open as shown in the figure
12. I (c) II (a) III (c) IV diffusion and drift
Further, diode D1 can be replaced by its simplified equivalent circuit.

2 MARKS

13. The difference in resistivity between conductors and semiconductors is due to their difference
in charge carrier density. 3 MARKS
The resistivity of semiconductors decreases with temperature because the number ofcharge carriers
19. (on the basis of diagram any two distinguish features)
increases rapidly with increase in temperature, making the fractional change i.e. the temperature
coefficient negative.
14. Any two differences
15. The technique of adding impurities to a pure semiconductor is known as doping and the
added impurity is called doping agent.

20. (i)Two important processes that occur during the formation of p-n junction are diffusion and
drift.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 432 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 433 of 484
(ii) solution given in previous questions 2. As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance
(a)Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
5 MARKS (b)Decreases for both conductors and semiconductors
21.
i) When a trivalent impurity like aluminum, indium, boron, gallium etc. is doped with a (c)Increases for conductors but decreases for semiconductors

pure germanium (or silicon), then the conductivity of the silicon increases due to (d) Decreases for conductors but increases for semiconductors

deficiency of electrons i.e., and such a crystal is said to be p-type semiconductor while 3. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal

the impurity atoms are called acceptors. (a)it becomes a p-type semiconductor

ii) This means if energy 1.1 eV is given to an electron in the valence band, it will jump to (b)the antimony becomes an acceptor atom

the conduction band. (c)there will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor

iii) An ideal diode is one which behaves as a perfect conductor when forward biased Under (d) its resistance is increased

this situation, the forward resistance of diode is assumed to be zero and potential barrier 4. In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statement is true

is neglected. (a)Holes are minority carries and pentavalent atoms are dopants.

iv) Diode D1 is reverse biased so on current flows through it due to majority carriers. And (b)Holes are majority carries and trivalent atoms are dopants.

diode D2 is forward biased. So a current flows through (c)Electrons are majority carries and trivalent atoms are dopants.

D2 and the resistance R as shown in the figure. (d)Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants

5. Which of the following diode is reverse biased?

SECTION C
MCQ- 1 MARKS SECTION

1. In the energy band diagram of a material shown below, the open circles and filledcircles denote
holes and electrons respectively. The material is

(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV

ASSERTION AND REASONING QUESTIONS

6. Assertion: A Pure semiconductor has negative temperature coefficient of resistance.

Reason: On raising the temperature, more charge carriers are released, conductance increases
and resistance decreases.
(a) insulator (b)metal (c)n-type semiconductor (d)p-type semiconductor 7. Assertion: The number of electrons in a p-type silicon semiconductor is less than the number

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 434 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 435 of 484
 of electrons in a pure silicon semiconductor at room temperature.
(a) a,b and d (b) c only (c) c and a (d) b and d
Reason: It is due to law of mass action.
ii) Based on the V-I characteristics of the diode, we can classify diode as
8. Assertion: The diffusion current in a p-n junction is from the p-side to the n-side.
(a) bi-directional device(b) ohmic device
Reason: The diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current when the
(c) non-ohmic device(d) passive element
junction is in forward biased.
iii) In the case of forwarding biasing of a p-n junction diode, which one of the following statementis
9. Assertion : The drift current in a p-n junction is from the n-side to the p-side.
correct?
Reason : It is due to free electrons only.
(a)effective barrier potential decreases
10. Assertion: When diode is used as a rectifier, its specified reverse breakdown voltage should
(b)majority charge carriers begins to flow away from junction
not be exceeded.
(c) width of depletion layer increases
Reason: When p-n junction diode crosses the reverse break down voltage, it gets destroyed
(d)effective resistance across the junction increases
CASEBASED / SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS iv) If an ideal junction diode is connected as shown, then the value of the current I is

11. When the diode is forward biased, it is found that beyond forward voltage V = V k, called knee
voltage, the conductivity is very high. At this value of battery biasing for p-n junction, the
potential barrier is overcome and the current increases rapidly with an increase in forwarding (a) 0.005 A (b) 0.02 A (c) 0.01 A (d) 0.1A

voltage. When the diode is reverse biased, the reverse bias voltage produces a very small 12. If an alternating voltage is applied across a diode in series with a load and a pulsating voltage
current about a few microamperes which almost remains constant with bias. This small current will appear across the load only during the half cycles of the ac input during which the diode
is reverse saturation current. is forward biased. Such rectifier circuit is called a half-wave rectifier. The reverse saturation
current of a diode is negligible and can be considered equal to zero for practical purposes.
i) In which of the following figures, the p-n diode is forward biased

i)If input frequency of signal in half wave rectifier is 50 Hz then the output frequency will be
(a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz (c) 100 Hz (d) Uncertain
ii)In a half wave rectifier, the r.m.s. value of the a.c. component of the wave is

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 436 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 437 of 484
 (a) equal to d.c. value (b) more than d.c. value (c) less than d.c. value (d) Zero b) Both diffusion current and drift current flow but diffusion current is more than drift
iii)Rectifier converts- current.
(a) AC to DC (b) DC to AC (c) AC to AC of different waveform c) Only drift current flows.
(d) All of these d) Both diffusion and drift current flow but drift current exceeds the diffusion current
iv)Full wave rectifier can be used over half wave rectifier because Full wave rectifier is- .2 MARKS QUESTIONS
(a) More energy efficient (b) More energy consuming
14.What are energy bands? Write any two distinguish features between conductors,
(c) More handy to use (d) More cost effective to manufacture
semiconductors and insulators on the basis of energy band diagrams.
13. There are different techniques of fabrication of p-n junction. In one such technique, called
15.What is the result of doping germanium metal with a little quantity of indium?
fused junction techniques, an aluminium film is kept on the wafer of n-type semiconductor and
16. Who are the major charge carriers in n-type and p-type semiconductors?
the combination is then heated to a high temperature (about 600oC). As a result, aluminium
17. Explain with the help of a diagram how the depletion region and potential barrier are formedin
fused into silicon and produces p-type semiconductor and in this way a p-n junction is formed.
a junction diode.
i) When a p-n junction is reverse biased, then
3 MARKS QUESTIONS
a) No current flows. c) Height of potential barrier is decreased.
b) The depletion region is reduced. d) Height of potential barrier is increased. 18. Draw V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode. Answer the following questions, giving
ii) The cause of potential barrier in p-n junction is : reasons:
a) Depletion of positive charges near the junction. (i) Why is the current under reverse bias almost independent of the applied potential up to a
b) Concentration of –ve charges near the junction. critical voltage?
c) Concentration of +ve charges near the junction. (ii) Why does the reverse current show a sudden increase at the criticalvoltage.
d) Concentration of +ve and –ve charges near the junction. 19. (i)In the following diagram, which bulb out of B1 and B2 will glow and why ?
iii) The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. What is the current
flowing in the circuit ?

(ii) In the following diagram,is the junction diode forward biased or reverse biased?

a) 1.17 A c) 2.0 A
b) 2.0 A d) 1.33 A
iv) When a pn junction is forward biased, then
a) Only diffusion current flows.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 438 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 439 of 484
20. An a.c. signal is fed into two circuits X and Y and the corresponding output in the two cases SECTION-C ANSWERS
have the wavefront shown in figure. Name the circuit X and Y. Also draw their detailed circuit
(1 MARK)
diagram.
1. c
2. c
3. c
4. a
5. d
5 MARKS QUESTIONS 6. b
7. a
21.(a)Explain with the help of a diagram, how depletion region and potential barrier are formed in
8. a
a junction diode.
9. a
(b)If a small voltage is applied to a p-n junction diode how will the barrier potential be affected
10. a
when it is (i) forward biased, and (ii) reverse biased ?
11. CASE BASED STUDY I:(I) b (II) c (III) a (IV) c
22. Draw the circuit diagram of a full-wave rectifier using p-n junction diode. Explain its working
12. CASE BASED STUDY II:(I)b(II) c (III)a (IV) a
and show the output and input waveforms.
(2 MARKS)

13.In n-type semiconductors, electrons are the major charge carriers. In p-type semiconductors,
holes are the major charge carriers.
************ 14. P-type semiconductors are made from germanium impurities that include indium. Impurities
of a trivalent nature can be added to germanium to generate the P-type material. They are called
acceptor impurities because they are trivalent.
15. Because the n-type has more electrons and the p-type
has more holes when a p-n junction is formed, the
electrons from the n-side diffuse into the p-side & the
holes from the p-side diffuse into the n-side.

Potential Barrier
A potential difference between the two regions is established by the buildup of electric charges of
opposing polarities in the two regions across the junction. This is referred to as the potential or
junction barrier. The potential barrier that has formed across the junction prevents charge carriers
from moving from p to n and vice versa. There is a zone on each side of the intersection where

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 440 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 441 of 484
mobile charges have depleted and only immobile charges remain. The depletion layer or zone is ( 3 MARKS)
the area around the junction that is devoid of any mobile charge carriers. 17. V-I Characteristics

16: Energy bands : In a solid , the energy of electrons lie within certain range. The energy levels
of allowed energy are in the form of bands, these bands are separated by regions of forbidden
energy called band gaps.
Distinguish features :
(a) In conductors : valence band and conduction band overlap each other.
In semiconductors : Valence band and conduction band are separated by a small energy gap. (i) When p-n junction is reverse biased, the majority carriers in p and n region are repelled
In insulators : They are separated by a large energy gap. away from the junction. There is small current due to the minority carriers. This current attains
(b) In conductors : Large number of free electrons are available in conduction band. its maximum or saturation value immediately and is independent of the applied reverse
In semiconductor : A very small number of electrons are available for electrical conduction. voltage.
In insulators : Conduction band is almost empty i.e., no electron is available for conduction. (ii) As the reverse voltage is increased to a certain value, called break down voltage, large
Effect of temperature : (i) In conductors : At high temperature , the collisions of electrons become amount of covalent bonds in p and n regions are broken. As a result of this, large electron-
more frequent with the atoms / molecules at lattice site in the metals as a result the conductivity hole pairs are produced which diffuse through the junction and hence there is a sudden rise in
decreases (or resistivity increases). the reverse current. Once break down voltage is reached, the high reverse current may damage
(ii) In semiconductors : As the temperature of the semiconducting material increases, more the ordinary junction diode.
electrons hole pairs becomes available in the conduction band and valence band , and hence the 18.(a) Bulb-B1 will go as the diode D1is forward biased
conductivity increases or the resistivity decreases. (b) Reversed biased.
(ii) In insulators : The energy band between conduction band and valence band is very large , so
it is unsurpassable for small temperature rise. So , there is no change in their behaviour.
(5 MARKS)
19.
a) Two important processes involved during the formation of p-n junction are:
(i) Diffusion and (ii) drift.
As soon as p-type semiconductor comes in contact with n-type semiconductor due to the
different concentration gradient to charge carries, the electrons start moving towards p-side
and the holes start moving from p-side to n-side. This process is called drift.
Due to diffusion, the positive space charge region is created on the n-side of the junction
and the negative space charge region is created on the p-side of the junction. Thios charge
develops an electric field (junction field) from n-side to p-side. This field forces the free
charges to move. This process is called drift.
Formation of potential barrier : Electrons are the majority charge carries in n-type
semiconductor. They move towards p-type semiconductor leaving behind the positive

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 442 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 443 of 484
 charged ions. Similarly, holes being in majority in the p-type semiconductor, move towards ii) (c)
the n-type semiconductor. They leave behind the negatively charged ions. This way the iii) (b) Reason : D3 is in R.B. and D1 is in F.B.
accumulation of charges takes place near the junction. This stops further diffusion of the ∴2 Ω and 4 Ω are in series and are connected to 12 V.
charges and the potential drop across the function due to these fixed charges is called
potential barrier.
iv) (d)

*********

b) (i) In forward bias, the barrier potential decreases.

(ii) In reverse bias, the barrier potential increases.
20. During the first half of the
cycle, if A is at higher potential
with respect to centre-tap and B is
at lower potential, the diode D1
being forward biased conducts
and the diodeD2 being reverse
biased does not conduct. The current flows through the load in thesense H to L.During the second
half of the cycle, conditions get reversed and only diodeD2 conducts Again, the current flows
through the load in the sense H to L.
Thus, in the output we get a unidirectional current.

21.
i) (d) Reason : In reverse biased p-n junction, potential difference across a junction
becomes (V+VB)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 444 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 445 of 484
 Question Paper for 10 Years 8) An ac source of emf V = Vo sinwt is connected to a capacitor of capacitance C. Deduce the

CBSE Board Questions March 2020, March 2022 expression for current (I) flowing in it. Plot the graph of i) V vs wt ii) I vs wt.

March 2020 Section C-3 marks questions

Section A-1 Marks Questions 1) A capacitor of 4 uF is charged by a battery of 12 V. The battery is disconnected and a dielectric

1) Define the term threshold frequency in photoelectric emission. slab of dielectric constant 8 is inserted in between the plates of the capacitor to fill the space

2) What is the impedance of a capacitor of capacitance C in an ac circuit using source of frequency completely. Find the change in the a) charge store in the capacitor, b) potential difference between

n Hz? the plates of capacitor, and c) energy stored in the capacitor.

3) What is the value of impedance of a resonant series LCR circuit? 2) What is the difference in the construction of an astronomical telescope and a compound

4) The threshold frequencies of two photosensitive surfaces are v1 and v2, respectively. What is microscope? The focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece of a compound microscope are 1.25

the ratio of the velocities of the photoelectrons emitted from these surfaces when light of frequency cm and 5.0 cm, respectively. Find the position of the object relative to the objective in order to

v is incident on them and photo emissions occurs? obtain an regular magnification of 30 when the final image is formed at the near point.

5) Draw the graph showing variation of the value of the induced emf as a function of rate of change 3) The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted I doubled when the wavelength of

of current flowing through an ideal inductor. light incident on the photosensitive surface changes from λ1 to λ2. Deduce the expression for the
threshold wavelength and work function for the metal surface in terms of λ1and λ2.
Section B-2 Marks Questions
4) a) Draw the graph of radius of orbit (rn) in hydrogen atom as a function of orbit number (n).
1) Which of the following electromagnetic waves has a) minimum wavelength and b) minimum
b) In a hydrogen atom, find the ratio of time taken by the electron to complete one revolution in
frequency? Write one use of each of these two waves.
the first excited and in the second excited states.
Infrared waves, Microwaves, y ray, X rays
5) a) Derive the condition balance for Wheatstone meter bridge.
2) A circular loop carrying a current 5A, produce a magnetic field of π mT, at its centre. Find the
b) Draw the circuit diagram of a meter bridge to explain how it is based on Wheatstone bridge.
value of magnetic moment of the loop.
Section D-5 marks questions
3) Draw V-I characteristics of PN junction diode. Explain why current under the reverse bias is
almost independent of applied voltage up to the critical voltage. 1) a) Derived lens maker's formula for a biconvex lens.

4) Define the term mobility of charge carriers in a current carrying conductor. Obtain the relation b) A point object is placed at a distance of 12 cm on the principal axis of a convex lens of focal

for mobility in terms of relaxation time. length 10 cm. A convex mirror is placed Coaxially on the other side of the lens at a distance of 10

5) Define the term drift velocity of electron in a current carrying conductor. Obtain the relationship cm. If the final image coincides with the object, sketch the ray diagram and find the focal length

between the current density and drift velocity of electrons. of the convex mirror.

6) An object is placed in a front of convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. It produces an image that 2) a) What is the wavefront? How does it propagate? Using Huygens principle, explain the

is half the size of the object. Find a) Position of the object, b) nature of the image and c) draw the reflection of plane wavefront from a surface and verify the laws of reflection.

ray diagram of image formation. b) A parallel beam of light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction

7) a) Explain the term 'sharpness of resonance ' in ac circuit. pattern is obtained on a screen 1 m away. If the first minimum is formed at a distance of 2.5 mm

b) In a series LCR circuit, Vl = Vc ≠ Vr. What is the value of power factor for this circuit?

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 446 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 447 of 484
from the centre of the screen, find the i) width of the slit, and ii) distance of first secondary March 2022
maximum from the centre of the screen.
Section A-1 marks questions
3)a) Use gauss's law to show that due to a uniformly charge spherical shell of radius R, the electric
1) Give reason: The resistance of a pn junction is low when it is forward biased and is high when
field at any point situated outside the shell at a distance r from its centre is equal to the electric
it is reversed biased.
field at the same point, when the entire charge on the shell were concentrated at its centre. Also
2) Doping of intrinsic semiconductors is a necessity for making electronic devices.
plot the graph showing the variation of electric field with r, for r ≤ R and r≥ R.
Section B-2 marks questions
b) Two point charges of + 1 μ C and + 4 μ C are kept 30 cm apart. How far from the +1 μ C charges
1) What is mean by energy band gap in solid? Draw the energy band diagrams for a conductor, an
on the line joining the two charges, will the net electric field be zero?
4) a) A circular loop of radius R carries a current I. Obtain an expression for the magnetic field at insulator and a semiconductor.

a point on its axis at a distance x from its centre. 2) Name the spectral series for hydrogen atom which lies in the visible region. Find the ratio of

b) A conducting rod of length 2 m is placed on a horizontal table in north South direction. It carries maximum to the minimum wavelength of this series.

a current of 5A from south to north. Find the direction and magnitude of magnetic force acting on 3) What are matter waves? A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated through a same potential

the rod. Given that the Earth magnetic field at the place is 0.6 × 10 ^ -4 T and angle of dip is π/6. difference. Find the ratio of the de Broglie wavelength associated with the portion to that with the

5)a) Obtain the expression for the deflecting torque acting on the current carrying rectangular coil alpha particle.

of a galvanometer in a uniform magnetic field. Why is radial magnetic field employed in the 4) Not in syllabus

moving coil galvanometer? Section C-3 Marks Questions

b) Not In syllabus 1) Differentiate between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
2) a) In Geiger Marsden experiment calculate the distance of closest approach for an alpha particle
with energy 2.56 × 10^ -12 joule. Consider that the particle approaches gold nucleus (Z= 79) in
********* head on position.
b) In the above experiment is repeated with a proton of the same energy, then what will be the
value the distance of closest approach?
3) Briefly explain how bright and dark fringes are formed on the screen in Young’s double slit
experiment. Hence derived the expression for the fringe width.
4) i) Draw a labelled ray diagram showing the formation of the image at infinity by an astronomical
telescope.
ii) A telescope consists of an objective of focal length 150 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 6
cm. If the final image is formed at infinity, then calculate:
i) the length of the tube in this adjustment and
ii) the magnification produced.

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 448 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 449 of 484
5) i) Draw a labelled ray diagram showing the formation of the image at least distance of distinct QUESTION PAPER MARCH 2018 AND 2019
vision by a compound microscope.
Section A
ii) A small object is placed at a distance of 3cm from a magnifier of focal length 4cm Find
I) the position of the image formed, and 1)A proton and electron travelling along parallel path enter a region of uniform magnetic field,
II) the linear magnification produced. acting perpendicular to their path. Which of them move in a circular Path with higher frequency?
6) a) Use Einstein’s photoelectric equation to depict the variation of the maximum kinetic energy 2)Name the electromagnetic radiation, and frequency used for a) water purification b) eye surgery.
(Ek) of electrons emitted, with the frequency (v) of the incident radiation. c) radar.
b) A photosensitive surface is illuminated with a beam of i) yellow light, and ii) red light both have 3)Draw graph showing variation of photoelectric current with applied voltage for two incident
the same intensity. radiation of equal frequency and different intensities. Mark the graph for the radiation of higher
In which case will intensity. (2018)
I) photoelectrons have more Ek? 4)Four nuclei of an element undergo fusion to form a heavier nucleus, with release of energy.
Ii) more numbers of electrons be emitted? Justify your answer in each case. Which of the two the parent or daughter nucleus would have higher binding energy per nucleon?
7) a) Identify electromagnetic waves which 5) Two electric bulb P and Q have their resistance in the ratio of 1:2. They are connected in series
i) are used in radar system across the battery. Find the ratio of the power dissipation in these bulbs? (2018)

ii) affect a photographic plate 6)Draw the pattern of electric field lines, when a point charge -Q is kept near an uncharged
iii) are used in surgery. conducting plate. (2019)
Write their frequency range. 7)How does mobility of electron in a conductor charge, if the potential difference applied across
8) A plane wavefront is propagating from a rarer into a denser medium. Use Huygens principle to the conductor is doubled, keep the length and temperature of the conductor constant? (2019)
show the refracted wavefront and verify Snell’s law. 8) Define the term “Threshold frequency” in context of photoelectric emission. (2019)
9)State Bohr’s quantization condition of angular momentum. Calculate the shortest wavelength of
Bracket series and State to which pat of the electromagnetic spectrum does it belong. (2019)
********
10) Define the term wave front. Using Huygen’s wave theory, verify the law of conservation.
11) Define mutual induction and write its SI unit. (2019)

Section B

Q1) A 10 V cells of negligible internal resistance is connected in parallel

across a battery of emf 200 V and internal resistance 38 Q as shown in
figure . Find the value of current in the circuit. (2M) (2018)
Q2) a) Why are infrared waves often called heat waves? Explain
b) What do you understand by the statement,’’ Electromagnetic wave transport momentum?
(2M) (2018)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 450 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 451 of 484
Q3) Four charges Q, q, Q and q are placed at the corner of a square of side ‘a’ as shown in figure. b) Derive an expression for the electric potential at any point along the axial line of an electric
Find a) resultant electric force on a charge Q and b) potential energy of this system. (2018) dipole. (2019)
Q4) a) Define the term ‘conductivity’ of a metallic wire. Write its SI unit. Q13) a) State Gauss law for magnetism. Explain it’s significance. b) write the four important
b) Using the concept of free electron in a conductor, derive the expression for conductivity of a properties of the magnetic field line due to a bar magnet. (2019)
wire in terms of number density and relaxation time hence obtain the relation between current
density and applied electric field E. (2018)
Q5) a) The Bohr’s postulate to define stable orbits in hydrogen atom. How does De-Broglie’s Section C
hypothesis explain the stability of these orbit. Q1) A bar magnet of magnetic moment 6 J/T is aligned at 600 with uniform external magnetic
b) A hydrogen atom initially in the ground state absorbs photon which excites it to the n=4 level. field of 0.44 T Calculate
Estimate the frequency of the photon. (2018)
a) The work done in turning the magnet to align its magnetic moment
Q6) a) A student wants to use two p-n junction diodes to convert alternating current into direct
b) Normal to the magnetic field
current. Draw the labelled diagram would use and explain how it work
c) Opposite the magnetic field
b) Give the truth table and circuit symbol for NAND gate. (2018)
b) the torque on the magnet in the final orientation in case c (2018)
Q7) a) Define electric flux, Is it scalar or a vector quantity? A point charge q is at a distance of d/2
Q2) a) Show using proper diagram how unpolarized light can be linearly polarized by reflection
is directly above the center of a square of side ‘d’ use gauss law to explain the expression for
from transparent glass surface. (2018)
electric flux through the square
Q3) a) If one of the two identical slit producing interference in Youngs experiment is covered with
b) If the point charge is now moved to a distance ‘d’ from the center of a square and the side of
glass, so that the light intensity passing through it is reduce to 50% find the ratio of the maximum
the square is doubled, explain how the electric flux will be affected? (2018)
and minimum intensity of fringes in the interference pattern b) what kind of fringes do you expect
Q8) Draw the ray diagram to show image formation when the concave mirror produces a real,
to observe if white light is used instead of monochromatic light. (2018)
inverted and magnified image of the object.
Q4) Why the wave theory of electromagnetic radiation not able to explain photoelectric effect?
b) Obtain the mirror formula and write the expression for the linear magnification. (2018)
How does photon picture resolve this problem? (2019)
Q9) Two bulbs are rated (P1, V) and (P2, V). If they are connected i) in series and ii) in parallel
Q5) Plot the graph showing variation of de Broglie wavelength associated with a charge particle
across a supply V, find the power dissipated in two combination in terms P1 and P2.
of masses m, versus 1/V, where V is potential difference through which the particle is accelerated.
Q10) Calculate the radius of curvature of an equi-concave lens of refractive index 1.5, when it is How does this graph give the information regarding the magnitude of the charge of the particle?
kept in a medium of refractive index 1.4, to have a power of -5D ? (2019)
Q6) a) Derive the expression for the torque acting on a current carrying loop placed in a magnetic
Q11) An particle and a proton of the same kinetic energy are in turn allow to pass through a
field. b) Explain the significance of radial magnetic field when a current carrying coil is kept in
magnetic field B, acting normal to the direction of motion of the particle. Calculate the ratio of
it. (2019)
radii of circular paths describe by them. (2019)
Q7) a) Three photo diodes D1, D2, and D3 are made of semiconductor having band gapes of 2.5
Q12) a) Draw equipotential surface corresponding to a uniform electric field in the z- direction.
eV, 2eV and 3eV resp. Which of them will not be able to detect the light of wavelength 600nm?
b) Why Photodiodes are required to operate in reverse bias? Explain. (2019)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 452 of 484 Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 453 of 484
 CBSE question paper March 2016 and March 2017

Q8) a) In a series LCR circuit connected across an ac source of variable frequency, obtain the
SECTION A
expression for its impedance and draw a plot showing its variation with frequency of the ac source Q1) Define mutual inductance. (CBSE Delhi 2016) (1m)
b) What is the phase difference between the voltage across the inductor and capacitor at resistance Q2) Define self inductance of a coil. Obtain the expression for the energy stored in an inductor
in the LCR circuit? (2019) L connected across a source of emf. (CBSE 55/1 2017) (3m)
Q9) Describe briefly the process of transferring the charge between the two plates of a parallel Q3) Define mutual inductance between a pair of coils. Derive an expression for the mutual
plate capacitor when connected to a battery. Derive an expression for the energy stored in inductance of two long coaxial solenoids of same length wound one over the other
capacitor. b) A parallel plate capacitor is charge by a battery to a potential difference V, It is (CBSE 55/1 2017) (3m)
disconnected from battery and then connected to another uncharged capacitor of the same SECTION B
capacitane. Calculate the ratio of energy stored in the combination to the initial energy on the Q1) A bar magnet is moved in the direction indicated by the arrow between two coils PQ and
single capacitor. (2019) CD. Predict the direction of the induced current in each coil (CBSE 55/2 2017) (1m)

*******

Q2) Predict the polarity of the capacitor C connected to coil, which is situated between two bar
magnets moving as shown in figure. (CBSE 55/1 2017) (1m)

Q3) A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If the current in one coil changes
from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 s, what is the change of flux linkage with the other coil?
(CBSE Delhi 2016) (2m)
Q4) A rectangular coil of area A, having number of turns N is rotated at 'f' revolutions per
second in a uniform magnetic field B, the field being perpendicular to the coil. Prove that
maximum emf induced in the coil is 2πfNBA. (CBSE 55/1/C 2016) (3m)

Previous Year CBSE Questions Page 454 of 484

Page 455 of 484
 SECTION C ANSWER KEY:
Q1) What is the direction of induced currents SECTION A:
in metal rings 1and 2 when current I in the wire 1.Mutual Inductance is the property of a pair of coils due to which an emf induce in one of the
is increasing steadily? (CBSE 55/3 2017)(1m) coils due to the change in the current in the other coil.
𝑑𝑖1
Mathematically, e2= -M
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑖1
Q2) Sketch the change in flux, emf and force Therefore, M= -e2/
𝑑𝑡

when a conducting rod PQ of resistance R and 2.Self Inductance of a coil equals the flux linked with it when a unit current flows through it.
length L moves freely to and fro between A and The work done against induced emf is stored as magnetic potential energy.
C with speed v on a rectangular conductor place The rate of work done, when a current I is passing through the coil, is
𝑑𝑊 𝑑𝑖
in uniform magnetic field as shown in the figure. = |𝜀| i =(L )i
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
(CBSE 55/1/N 2016) (3m) 𝐼
Therefore, W =∫ 𝑑𝑊 =∫0 𝐿𝑖𝐷𝑖 =1/2 Li2

3.Mutual inductance is numerically equal to the magnetic flux linked with one coil/secondary
Q3) When a bar magnet is pushed towards (or away) from the coil connected to a galvanometer,
coil when unit current flows through the other coil/ primary coil.
the pointer in the galvanometer deflects. Identify the phenomenon causing this deflection and
Let a current i2, flows in the secondary coil
write the factors on which the amount and direction of the deflection depends. State the laws
𝜇0𝑁2 𝑖2
describing this phenomenon. (CBSE 55/1/N 2016)(3m) Therefore, B2 =
𝑙
𝜇0𝑁2 𝑁1 𝐴1 𝑖2
∴ Flux linked with the primary coil = N 1A1B2 = =M12i2
𝑙
𝜇0𝑁2 𝑁1 𝐴1
Hence, M12 = = µ0n2n1A1l (n1=N1/l ; n2= N2/l )
𝑙
******

SECTION B
2.A is positive and B is negative
3. Change of flux for small change in current
dφ =MdI =1.5 (20-0) weber = 30 weber
4.

Flux at any time t,

Page 456 of 484 Page 457 of 484

 ΦB= BAcosθ = BA cosωt CBSE QUESTION PAPER MARCH 2016 AND 2017
Form Faraday’s law, induced emf
SECTION A
𝑑∅𝐵 𝑑
e = -N = NBA (cosωt) Q1) Write the function of a transformer. State its principle of working with the help of a
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡

Thus the instantaneous value of emf is diagram. Mention various energy losses in this device. (CBSE 55/1/1/D 2016) (3m)
E = NBAωsinωt Q2) Draw a labelled diagram of an generator. Obtain the expression for the EMF induced in
For maximum value of emf sinωt = ±1 the rotating coil of N turns each of cross section area A, in the presence of a magnetic field B.
i.e, e0= NBAω = 2πfNAB (CBSE 55/1 2017)(3m)
Q3) Draw a labelled diagram of a step up transformer. Obtain the ratio of secondary to primary
SECTION C
voltage in terms of number of turns and current in the two coils.
1. 1- clockwise, 2- anticlocwise Q4) (i)Draw a labelled diagram of a step down transformer. State the principle of its working.

2. (ii)Express the turn ratio in terms of voltages.

(iii) Find the ratio of primary and secondary currents in terms of turn ratio in an ideal
transformer. (CBSE 55/1/C 2016) (5m)
Q5) A power transmission line feeds input power at 2200V to a step-down transformer with its
primary windings having 3000 turns. Find the number of turns in the secondary to get the power
output at 220V. (CBSE 55/1/1 2017) (2m)

SECTION B
Q1) An a.c source of voltage V= V 0sin ωt is connected to an ideal inductor. Draw graphs of
voltage V and current i versus omega t. (CBSE 55/1/E 2016 ) (1m)
Q2) An a.c source of voltage V = Vo sin ωt is connected to a series combination of L,C and R.

3.The phenomenon involved is electromagnetic induction Use the phasor diagram to obtain expressions for impedance of the circuit and phase angle

For the deflection: between voltage and current. Find the condition when current will be in phase with the voltage.

Amount depends upon the speed of movement of the magnet. What is the circuit in this condition called? (3m) (CBSE 55/1/1/D 2016)

Direction depends on the sence (towards, or away) of the movement of the magnet. Q3) The primary coil of an ideal step up transformer has 100 turns and transformation ratio is

The law describing the phenomenon is: also 100. The input voltage and power are respectively 220V and 1100W. Calculate

The magnitude of the induced emf, in a circuit, is equal to the time rate of change of a) number of turns in secondary

the magnetic flux through the circuit. b) current in primary

𝑑∅ c) voltage across secondary
ε=-
𝑑𝑡
d) current in secondary
******* e) power in secondary. (CBSE 55/1/1/D 2016) (3m)
Q4) How much current is drawn by the primary of a transformer connected to 220 volt supply
when it delivers power to a 110V - 550W refrigerator? (CBSE 55/1/C 2016)

Page 458 of 484 Page 459 of 484

Q5) The power factor of an AC circuit is 0.5. What is the phase difference between voltage and
current in the circuit? (CBSE 55/1/S 2016) (1m)
SECTION C

Q1) (i) When an AC source is connected to an ideal

inductor show that the average power supplied by the
source over a complete cycle is zero. 6.a) identify the device 'X'

(ii)A lamp is connected in series with an inductor and an AC source. What happens to the b) which of the curves A,B and C represent the voltage, current and the power consumed in the

brightness of the lamp when the key is plugged in and an iron rod is inserted inside the inductor? circuit? Justify your answer

Explain. (CBSE 55/1/C 2016) (3m) c) how does its impedance vary with frequency of the a.c source? Show graphically.

2.(i)When an AC source is connected to an ideal capacitor, show that the average power d) obtain an expression for the current in the circuit and its phase relation with a.c voltage.

supplied by the source complete cycle is zero. (CBSE 55/1 2017) (5m)
7. A horizontal conducting rod 10 m long extending from east to west is falling with the speed
5.0 m/s at right angle to the horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field, 0.3 x 10^ -4
Ab/m^-2 . Find the instantaneous value of the emf induced in the rod. (CBSE 55/1 2017) (2m)

(ii)A bulb is connected in series with the variable capacitor and an AC source as shown. What
*********
happens to the brightness of the bulb when the key is plugged in and the capacitance of a
capacitor is gradually reduced?(CBSE 55/1/N 2016) (3m)
3.A capacitor of unknown capacitance, register of 100 ohm
an inductor of self inductance L= (4/π 2) henry are connected
in series to an AC source of 200V and 50Hz. Calculate the
value of the capacitance and impedance of the circuit when
the current is in phase with the voltage. Calculate the power
dissipated in the circuit. (CBSE 55/1/S 2016) (3m)
4.(i)Find the value of the phase difference between the current and the voltage in the series
LCR circuit shown below. Which one lead in phase: current or voltage?
(ii)Without making any other change, find the value of the additional capacitor C1, to be
connected in parallel with the capacitor C, in order to make the power factor of the circuit unity.
(CBSE 55/1/1 2017) (3m)
5. A circular coil of cross-sectional area 200 m2 and 20 turns is rotated about the vertical
diameter with angular speed of 50 rad s -1 in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 3.0x 10 -2
T. Calculate the maximum value of the current in the coil. (CBSE 55/1/1 2017) (2m)

Page 460 of 484 Page 461 of 484

 Answer Key
SECTION A
1.Function: A Transformer is an electrical device for converting an alternating current at low
voltage into that at high voltage or vice versa.

Principle: It works on the principle of mutual induction i.e., when a changing current is passed
through one of the two inductively coupled coils, an induced emf is set up in the other coil.
Energy losses in transformer:
i) Copper loss
ii) Eddy current loss
iii) Hysteresis loss
iv) Flux leakeage 3.NP = 100 Transformation ratio = 100
v) Humming loss a) No. of turns in secondary coil N S = 100
x100 = 10000
2.Let ω be the angular speed of rotation of the coil. We then b) Input Power = Input Voltage x current in
have primary
Φ(t) = NBA cosωt 1100 = 220 x IP
∴ E=
𝑑∅
= NBAω sinωt =E0 sin ωt (E0 = NBAω ) ∴ IP =5A
𝑑𝑡
𝑁𝑆 𝑉
𝑁 𝑉 c) = 𝑉𝑠
5. 𝑁 𝑆 = 𝑉 𝑠 𝑁𝑃 𝑃
𝑃 𝑃

𝑁𝑆 220 ∴ VS = 2.2 x 104 V

=
3000 2200
𝐼𝑃 𝑁𝑆
d) 𝐼𝑆
=
∴ NS = 300 𝑁𝑃
∴ IS = 0.05 A
SECTION B e) Power in secondary = Power in primary
1. = 1100 W
4.We have, iP VP = iS VS = 550 W
. VP = 220 V
IP = 550/220 = 2.5 A
5. given power factor is 0.5
Cosφ = 0.5 = 1/2
phase angle φ = cos -1 (1/2) = 60°

From fig. SECTION C

1.(i) Pav = Iav x eav cosφ
For an ideal inductor , φ =π/2
𝜋
∴ Pav = Iav x eav cos
2

Pav =0
(ii) Brightness decreases because as iron rod is inserted inductance increases. Thus, current
decreases and brightness decreases.

Page 462 of 484 Page 463 of 484

2.(i) Let the applied voltage be V = V 0 sinωt c) Xc = 1/ωc
The current through an ideal capacitor, would be d) V=V0 sinωt
I = I0 sin (ωt + π/2 ) = I0 cosωt Q = CV = C V0 sinωt
∴ Pi nst = VI 𝑑𝑞
I = = ωC V0 cosωt = I0 sin (ωt + π/2)
𝑇 𝑑𝑡
∴ PAV = 1/T ∫0 𝑉𝐼𝑑𝑡
Current leads the voltage, in phase by π/2
∴PAV = V0I0/2 sin(2ωt) = 0
7.Induced emf = BIV
(ii) The brightness of the bulb would also reduce gradually.
∴ E = 0.3x 10-4 x 10 x 5 volt
XC= 1/ωC
E = 1.5 x 10-3 V = 1.5mV
∴ XC increases as C decreases. Hence, with decreasing C, the brighness of the bulb
would decreases.
1 1 ----------------------------
3.Capacitance C = = 4 F = 2.5 x 10-5 F
𝐿𝜔 2 (2𝜋 𝑥 50)2
𝜋2

Impedence = resistance ( since V and I are in phase)

∴Impedence =100Ω
𝐸𝑟𝑚𝑠 2 2002
Power dicipated = = = 400 watt
𝑅 100

4.(i) XL = ωL = ( 1000x100 x 10 -3) Ω = 100 Ω

1 1
XC = =( )𝛺 = 500𝛺
𝜔𝐶 1000 𝑥2 𝑥 10−6
𝑋𝐿 −𝑋𝐶 100−500
Phase angle =tan φ = = = -1
𝑅 400
𝜋
Φ=-
4

As XC >XL ( phase angle is negative), hence current leads voltage

(ii) To make power factor unity
XC’ = XL
1
= 100
𝜔𝑐

C’ = 10 µ𝐹
C’ = C + C1
10 = 2 + C1
C1 = 8 µF
𝑒0 600
5.Maximum induced current i0 = = mA
𝑅 𝑅

Since, R is not given value of max. current cannot be calculated

6.a) the device name is a capacitor
b) curve B = voltage, curve C= current, curve A = power
Reason: The current lead the voltage in phase, by π/2, for capacitor.

Page 464 of 484 Page 465 of 484

 March 2014 and March 2015 Question Papers Q13) Two capacitors of unknown capacitances C 1 and C2 are connected first in series and then
in parallel across a battery of 100 V. If the energy stored in the two combinations is 0.045 J
SECTION – A and 0.25 J respectively, determine the value of C 1 and C2. Also calculate the charge on each

Q1) What is the electric flux through a cube of side 1 cm which encloses an electric dipole? capacitor in parallel combination.

Q2) A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 1.65. Q14) State the principle of working of a galvanometer.

What is the nature of the lens? A galvanometer of resistance G is converted into a voltmeter to measure upto V volts by

Q3) How are side bands produced? connecting a resistance R 1 in series with the coil. If a resistance R 2; is connected in series with

Q4) Graph showing the variation of current versus voltage for a material GaAs is shown in the it, then it can measure upto V/2 volts. Find the resistance, in terms of R 1 and R2, required be

figure. Identify the region of connected to convert it into a voltmeter that can read upto 2 V. Also find the resistance G of

a) Negative resistance the galvanometer in terms of R 1 and R2.

b) Where Ohm’s law is obeyed Q15) With what considerations in view, a photodiode is fabricated? State its working with the

Q5) Define capacitor reactance. Write its S.I. units. help of a suitable diagram.

Section – B Even though the current in the forward bias is known to be more than in the reverse bias, yet
the photodiode works in reverse bias. What is the reason?
Q6) Show that the radius of the orbit in hydrogen atom varies as n2 , where n is the principal
Q16) Draw a circuit diagram of a transistor amplifier in CE configuration.
quantum number of the atom.
Define the terms: (i) Input resistance and (ii) Current amplification factor. How are these
Q7) Distinguish between ‘intrinsic’ and ‘extrinsic’ semiconductors.
determined using typical input and output characteristics?
Q8) Use the mirror equation to show that an object placed between f and 2f of a concave mirror
Q17) Answer the following questions:
produces a real image beyond 2f.
a) In a double slit experiment using light of wavelength 600 nm, the angular width of the fringe
OR
formed on a distant screen is 0.1°. Find the spacing between the two slits.
Find the expression for intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet is rotated between
two crossed polaroids. In which position of the polaroid sheet will the transmitted intensity be b) Light of wavelength 5000 propagating is air gets partly reflected from the surface of
maximum? water. How will the wavelength and frequencies of the reflected and refracted light be affected?
Q9) Use Kirchhoff’s rules to obtain conditions for the balanced condition in a Wheatstone Q18) An inductor L of inductance X L is connected in series with a bulb B and an ac source.
bridge. How would brightness of the bulb change when (i) number of turn in the inductor is reduced,
Q10) A proton and an α -particle have the same de-Broglie wavelength. Determine the ration (ii) an iron rod is inserted in the inductor and (iii) a capacitor of reactance X c=XL is inserted in
of (i) their accelerating potentials (ii) their speeds. series in the circuit. Justify your answer in each case.
Section – C Q19) Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is
a) Suitable for radar system used in aircraft navigation.
Q11) Draw a block diagram of a detector for AM signal and show, using necessary processes
b) Used to treat muscular strain.
and the waveforms, how the original message signal is detected from the input AM wave.
c) Used as a diagnostic tool in medicine.
Q12) A cell of emf ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘r’ is connected across a variable load resistor
Write in brief, how these waves can be produced.
R. draw the plots of the terminal voltage V versus (i) R and (ii) the current I.
Q20) a) A giant refracting telescope has an objective lens of focal length 15 m. If an eye piece
It is found that when R = Ω 4 , the current is 1 A and when R is increased to 9Ω , the current
of focal length 1.0 cm is used, what is the angular magnification of the telescope?
reduces to 0.5 A. Find the values of the emf E and internal resistance r.

Page 466 of 484 Page 467 of 484

b) If this telescope is used to view the moon, what is the diameter of the image of the moon Section – D
formed by the objective lens? The diameter of the moon is 3.48 × 10 6m and the radius of lunar
Q23) A group of students while coming from the school noticed a box marked “Danger H.T.
orbit is 3.8 × 108m.
2200 V” at a substation in the main street. They did not understand the utility of a such a high
Q21) Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation and mention which important features in
voltage, while they argued, the supply was only 220 V. They asked their teacher this question
photoelectric effect can be explained with the help of this equation.
the next day. The teacher thought it to be an important question and therefore explained to the
The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons gets doubled when the wavelength of light
whole class.
incident on the surface changes from λ 1 to λ2 to. Derive the expressions for the threshold
Answer the following questions:
wavelength λ0 and work function for the metal surface.
a) What device is used to bring the high voltage down to low voltage of a.c. current and what
Q22) In the study of Geiger-Marsdon experiment on scattering of α particles by a thin foil of
is the principle of its working?
gold, draw the trajectory of α -particles in the coulomb field of target nucleus. Explain briefly
b) Is it possible to use this device for bringing down the high dc voltage to the low voltage?
how one gets the information on the size of the nucleus from this study. From the relation R =
Explain.
R0 A1/3, R0 is constant and A is the mass number of the nucleus, show that nuclear matter
c) Write the values displayed by the students and the teacher.
density is independent of A.
OR
Section – E
Distinguish between nuclear fission and fusion. Show how in both these processes energy is
released. Q24. a) Using Huygen’s construction of secondary wavelets explain how a diffraction pattern
is obtained on a screen due to a narrow slit on which a monochromatic beam of light is incident
Calculate the energy release in MeV in the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction:
normally.
b) Show that the angular width of the first diffraction fringe is half that of the central fringe.

c) Explain why the maxima at become weaker with increasing n.

Using the data:
OR
a) A point object ‘O’ is kept in a medium of refractive index n1 in front of a convex spherical
surface of radius of curvature R which separates the second medium of refractive index n 2 from
the first one, as shown in the figure.
Draw the ray diagram showing the image formation and deduce the relationship between the
object distance and the image distance in term of n 1, n2 and
R.

b) When the image formed above acts as a virtual object for a concave spherical surface
separating the medium n 2 from n1 (n2 > n1), draw this ray diagram and write the similar (similar
to (a)) relation. Hence obtain the expression for the lens maker’s formula.

Page 468 of 484 Page 469 of 484

Q25. a) An electric dipole of dipole moment consists of point charges +q and –q separated
CBSE Question Paper 2015

by a distance 2a apart. Deduce the expression for the electric field due to the dipole at a SECTION – A
Q1) A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 1.65.
distance x from the centre of the dipole on its axial lien in terms of the dipole moment .
What is the nature of the lens?

Hence show that in the limit x>>a, . Q2) How are side bands produced?
Q3) Graph showing the variation of current versus voltage for a material GaAs is shown in the
b) Given the electric field in the region , find the net electric
figure. Identify the region of
flux through the cube and the charge enclosed by it.
(i) negative resistance (ii) where Ohm’s law is obeyed.
Q4) Define capacitor reactance. Write its S.I. units.
Q5) What is the electric flux through a cube of side 1 cm which encloses an electric dipole?
OR
a) Explain, using suitable diagrams, the difference in the behavior of a (i) conductor and (ii) SECTION B
Q6) Distinguish between ‘intrinsic’ and ‘extrinsic’ semiconductors.
dielectric in the presence of external electric field. Define the terms polarization of the
Q7) Use the mirror equation to show that an object placed between f and 2f of a concave mirror
dielectric and write its relation with susceptibility.
produces a real image beyond 2f.
b) A thin metallic spherical shell of radius R carries a charge Q on its surface. A point
OR

charge is placed at its centre C and an other charge +2Q is placed Find an expression for intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet is rotated between
outside the shell at a distance x from the centre as shown in the figure. two crossed polaroids. In which position of the polaroid sheet will the transmitted intensity be
Find (i) the force on the charge at the centre of shell and at the point A, maximum? Note: Not in syllabus
(ii) the electric flux through the shell. Q8) Use Kirchhoff’s rules to obtain conditions for the balance condition in a Wheatstone
Q26. a) State Ampere’s circuital law. Use this law to obtain the expression for the magnetic bridge.
field inside an air cored toroid of average radius ‘r’, having ‘n’ turns per unit length and Q9) A proton and an α-particle have the same de-Broglie wavelength. Determine the ratio of
carrying a steady current I. (i) their accelerating potentials (ii) their speeds.
b) An observer to the left of a solenoid of N turns each of cross Q10) Show that the radius of the orbit in hydrogen atom varies as n2, where n is the principal
section area ‘A’ observes that a steady current I in it flows in the quantum number of the atom.
clockwise direction. Depict the magnetic field lines due to the
solenoid specifying its polarity and show that it acts as a bar magnet of magnetic moment m = SECTION C
NIA. Q11) State the principle of working of a galvanometer.
OR A galvanometer of resistance G is converted into a voltmeter to measure upto V volts by
a) Define mutual inductance and write its S.I. units.
connecting a resistance R 1 in series with the coil. If a resistance R 2 is connected in series with
b) Derive an expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial solenoids of same length
it, then it can measure upto V/2 volts. Find the resistance, in terms of R 1 and R2, required to be
wound one over the other.
connected to convert it into a voltmeter that can read upto 2 V. Also find the resistance G of
c) In an experiment, two coils c 1 and c2 are placed close to each other. Find out the expression
the galvanometer in terms of R 1 and R2.
for the emf induced in the coil c 1 due to a change in the current through the coil c 2.

Page 470 of 484 Page 471 of 484

Q12) With what considerations in view, a photodiode is fabricated? State its working with the From the relation R = R 0 A1/3, where R0 is constant and A is the mass number of the nucleus,
help of a suitable diagram. show that nuclear matter density is independent of A.
Even though the current in the forward bias is known to be more than in the reverse bias, yet OR
Distinguish between nuclear fission and fusion. Show how in both these processes energy is
the photodiode works in reverse bias. What is the reason? Note: Not in syllabus
released.
Q13) Not in syllabus
Calculate the energy release in MeV in the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction:
Q14) Answer the following questions:
(a) In a double slit experiment using light of wavelength 600 nm, the angular width of the fringe
formed on a distant screen is 0.1°. Find the spacing between the two slits. Using the data:

(b) Light of wavelength 5000 propagating in air gets partly reflected from the surface of
water. How will the wavelengths and frequencies of the reflected and refracted light be
affected?
Q15) An inductor L of inductance X L is connected in series with a bulb B and an ac source.
Mn = 1.008665u
How would brightness of the bulb change when (i) number of turn in the inductor is reduced,
1u = 931.5 MeV/c2
(ii) an iron rod is inserted in the inductor and (iii) a capacitor of reactance X C = XL is inserted
Q20) Not in syllabus
in series in the circuit. Justify your answer in each case.
Q21) A cell of emf ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘r’ is connected across a variable load resistor
Q16) Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is
R. Draw the plots of the terminal voltage V versus (i) R and (ii) the current I.
(a) suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation.
It is found that when R = 4 Ω, the current is 1 A and when R is increased to 9 Ω, the current
(b) used to treat muscular strain.
reduces to 0.5 A. Find the values of the emf E and internal resistance r.
(c) used as a diagnostic tool in medicine.
Q22) Two capacitors of unknown capacitances C 1 and C2 are connected first in series and then
Write in brief, how these waves can be produced.
in parallel across a battery of 100 V. If the energy stored in the two combinations is 0.045 J
Q17) (i) A giant refracting telescope has an objective lens of focal length 15 m. If an eye piece
and 0.25 J respectively, determine the value of C 1 and C2. Also calculate the charge on each
of focal length 1.0 cm is used, what is the angular magnification of the telescope?
capacitor in parallel combination.
(ii) If this telescope is used to view the moon, what is the diameter of the image of the moon
SECTION D
formed by the objective lens ? The diameter of the moon is 3.48 × 10 6 m and the radius of lunar Q23) A group of students while coming from the school noticed a box marked “Danger H.T.
orbit is 3.8 × 108 m. 2200 V” at a substation in the main street. They did not understand the utility of a such a high
Q18) Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation and mention which important features in voltage, while they argued, the supply was only 220 V. They asked their teacher this question
photoelectric effect can be explained with the help of this equation. the next day. The teacher thought it to be an important question and therefore explained to the
The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons gets doubled when the wavelength of light whole class.
incident on the surface changes from λ 1 to λ2. Derive the expressions for the threshold
wavelength λ0 and work function for the metal surface. Answer the following questions:

Q19) In the study of Geiger-Marsdon experiment on scattering of α particles by a thin foil of (i) What device is used to bring the high voltage down to low voltage of a.c. current and what

gold, draw the trajectory of α-particles in the coulomb field of target nucleus. Explain briefly is the principle of its working?

how one gets the information on the size of the nucleus from this study. (ii) Is it possible to use this device for bringing down the high dc voltage to the low voltage?

Page 472 of 484 Page 473 of 484

Explain. Q26) (a) Using Huygens’s construction of secondary wavelets explain how a diffraction pattern
(iii) Write the values displayed by the students and the teacher. is obtained on a screen due to a narrow slit on which a monochromatic beam of light is incident
normally.
SECTION E (b) Show that the angular width of the first diffraction fringe is half that of the central fringe.
Q24) (a) An electric dipole of dipole moment consists of point charges +q and –q separated

by a distance 2a apart. Deduce the expression for the electric field due to the dipole at a (c) Explain why the maxima at become weaker and weaker with increasing n.
distance x from the centre of the dipole on its axial line in terms of he dipole moment → p. OR
(a) A point object ‘O’ is kept in a medium of refractive index n 1 in front of a convex spherical
Hence show that in the limit x >> a, (4πε0 x3).
surface of radius of curvature R which separates the second medium of refractive index n 2 from
(b) Given the electric field in the region find the net electric flux through the cube the first one, as shown in the figure.
and the charge enclosed by it. Draw the ray diagram showing the image formation and deduce the relationship between the
OR object distance and the image distance in terms of n 1, n2 and R.
(a) Explain, using suitable diagrams, the difference in the behaviour of a (i) conductor and (ii) (b) When the image formed above acts as a virtual object for a concave spherical surface
dielectric in the presence of external electric field. Define the terms polarization of a dielectric separating the medium n 2 from n1 (n2 > n1), draw this ray diagram and write the similar (similar
and write its relation with susceptibility. to (a)) relation. Hence obtain the expression for the lens maker’s formula.
(b) A thin metallic spherical shell of radius R carries a charge Q on its surface. A point

charge is placed at its centre C and an other charge +2Q is placed outside the shell at a
distance x from the centre as shown in the figure. Find (i) the force on the charge at the centre
of shell and at the point A, (ii) the electric flux through the shell.
Q25) (a) State Ampere’s circuital law. Use this law to obtain the expression for the magnetic
field inside an air cored toroid of average radius ‘r’, having ‘n’ turns per unit length and
carrying a steady current I.
(b) An observer to the left of a solenoid of N turns each of cross section area ‘A’ observes that
a steady current I in it flows in the clockwise direction. Depict the magnetic field lines due to
the solenoid specifying its polarity and show that it acts as a bar magnet of magnetic moment
m = NIA.
OR
(a)Define mutual inductance and write its S.I. units.
(b) Derive an expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial solenoids of same
length wound one over the other.
(c) In an experiment, two coils c 1 and c2 are placed close to each other. Find out the expression
for the emf induced in the coil c 1 due to a change in the current through the coil c 2.

CBSE Question Paper 2013

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 Q5) (a) An em wave is travelling in a medium with a velocity . Draw a sketch showing the
SECTION A propagation of the em wave, indicating the direction of the oscillating electric and magnetic
fields.
Q1) What are permanent magnets? Give one example. 1
(b) How are the magnitudes of the electric and magnetic fields related to the velocity of the em
Q2) What is the geometrical shape of equipotential surfaces due to a single isolated charge?1
wave? 2
Q3) (a) Write the necessary conditions for the phenomenon of total internal reflections to occur.
Q6) A metallic rod of length ‘l’ is rotated with a frequency v with one end hinged at the centre
(c) Write the relation between the refractive index and critical angle for a given pair of
and the other end at the circumference of a circular metallic ring of radius r, about an axis
optical media.2
passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring. A constant uniform
Q4) (a) Why photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave nature of light? Give
magnetic field B parallel to the axis is present everywhere. Using Lorentz force, explain how
reasons.
emf is induced between the centre and the metallic ring and hence obtain the expression for it.3
(d) write the basis features of photon picture of electromagnetic radiation on which
Q7) (a) & b) Not in syllabus
Einstein’s photoelectric equation is based.3
Q5) (a) Draw a ray diagram showing the image formation by a compound microscope. Hence
OR
obtain expression for total magnification when the image is formed at infinity. (a) State Kirchhoff’s rules for an electric network. Using Kirchhoff’s rules, obtain the balance
(e) Not in syllabus condition in terms of the resistances of four arms of Wheatstone bridge.
OR (b) In the meter bridge experimental set
(a) State Huygen’s principle. Using this principle draw a diagram to show how a plane wave up, shown in the figure, the null point
front incident at the interface of the two media gets refracted when it propagates from a rarer ’D’ is obtained at a distance of 40 cm
to a denser medium. Hence verify Snell’s law of refraction. from end A of the meter bridge wire. If
(b) When monochromatic light travels from a rarer to a denser medium, explain the following, a resistance of 10 Ω is connected in
giving reasons: series with R1, null point is obtained at AD=60 cm. Calculated the values of R1 and R2. 5
(i) Is the frequency of reflected and reflected light same as the frequency of incident light?
(ii) Does the decrease in speed imply a reduction in the energy carried by light wave?
SECTION C

SECTION B Q1) The given graph shows the variation of photo-electric

Q1) A capacitor has been charged by a dc source. What are the magnitudes of conduction and current (I) versus applied voltage (V) for two different

displacement currents, when it is fully charged? 1 photosensitive materials and for two different intensities of

Q2) Write the relationship between angle of incidence ‘i’, prism ‘A’ and angle of minimum the incident radiation. Identify the pairs of curves that

deviation for a triangular prism. 1 correspond to different materials but same intensity of

Q3) State Lenz’s Law. A metallic rod held horizontally along east-west direction, is allowed incident radiation. 1

to fall under gravity. Will there be an emf induced at its ends? Justify your answer. 2
Q4) A convex lens of focal length 25 cm is placed coaxially in contact with a concave lens of
focal length 20 cm. Determine the power of the combination. Will the system be converging
or diverging in nature? 2

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 Q7) Using Bohr’s postulates, obtain the expression for the total energy of the electron in the
Q2) A 10 V battery of negligible internal resistance is connected stationary states of the hydrogen atom. Hence draw the energy level diagram showing how the
across a 200 V battery and a resistance of 38Ω as shown in the line spectra corresponding to Balmer series occur due to transition between energy levels.3
figure. Find the value of the current in circuit. 1 Q8) (a) In what way is diffraction from each slit related to the interference pattern in a double
slit experiment?
Q3) The emf of a cell is always greater than its terminal voltage. Why? Give reason. 1 (b) Two wavelength of sodium light 590 nm and 596 nm are used, in turn, to study the
Q4) An ammeter of resistance 0.80 Ω can measure current upto 1.0A. diffraction taking place at a single slit of aperture 2 x10 -4
m. The distance between the slit and
(f) What must be the value of shunt resistance to enable the ammeter to measure current the screen is 1.5.m. Calculate the separation between the positions of the first maxima of the
upto 5.0A? diffraction pattern obtained in the two cases. 3
(ii) What is the combined resistance of the ammeter and the shunt? 2 Q9) In a series LCR circuit connected to an ac source of variable frequency and voltage draw
Q5) A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volts. The charge a plot showing the variation of current (I) with angular frequency for two different values of
stored in it is360C. When potential across the capacitor is reduced by 120 V, the charge stored resistance R1 and R2 (R1>R2). Write the condition under which the phenomenon of resonance
in it becomes120µC. occurs. For which values of the resistance out of the two curves, a sharper resonance is
Calculate: produced? Define Q-factor of the circuit and give its significance. 3
(g) The potential V and the unknown capacitance C. Q10) (a) Derive the expression for the torque on a rectangular current carrying loop suspended
(ii) What will be the charge stored in the capacitor, if the voltage applied had increased by in a uniform magnetic field.
120V? (i) A proton and a deuteron having equal momenta enter in a region of uniform magnetic
field at right angle to the direction of the field. Depict their trajectories in the field.
OR OR
2
A hollow cylindrical box of length 1m and area of cross-section 25cm is placed in a three- (a) A small compass needle of magnetic moment ‘m’ is free to turn about an axis perpendicular
dimensional coordinate system as shown in the figure. The electric field in the region is given to the direction of uniform magnetic field ‘B’. The moment of inertia of the needle about the
-1
by, where E is in NC and x is in metres. Find: axis is ‘I’. The needle is slightly disturbed from its stable position and then released. Prove that
(h) Net flux through the cylinder. it executes simple harmonic motion. Hence deduce the expression for its time period.
(ii) Charge enclosed by the cylinder. (b) A compass needle, free to turn in a vertical-plane orients itself with its axis vertical at a
certain place on the earth. Find out the values of (i) horizontal component of earth’s magnetic
Q6) (a) In a typical nuclear reaction, e.g. field and (ii) angle of dip at the place.

VALUE BASED QUESTION

Q1) While travelling back to his residence in the car, Dr. Pathak was caught up in a
Although number of nucleons is conserved, yet energy is released. How? Explain. thunderstorm. It became very dark. He stopped driving the car and waited for thunderstorm to
(b) Show that nuclear density in a given nucleus is independent of mass number A.3 stop. Suddenly he noticed a child walking alone on the road. He asked the boy at his residence.
The boy insisted that Dr. Pathak should meet his parents. The parents expressed their gratitude

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to Dr. Pathak for his concern for safety of the child. Answer the following questions based on CBSE Question Paper 2012
the above information:
(a) Why is it safer to sit inside a car during a thunderstorm? SECTION A
(b) Which two values are displayed by Dr. Pathak in his actions?
Q1) Show on a graph, the variation of resistivity with temperature for a typical semiconductor.1
© Which values are reflected in parents’ response to Dr. Pathak?
Q2) Why should electrostatic field be zero inside a conductor? 1
(d) Give an example of a similar action on your part in the past from everyday life.
Q3) Name the physical quantity which remains same for microwaves of wavelength 1 mm and

******** UV radiations of 1600 Å in vacuum. 1

Q4) State de-Broglie hypothesis. 1
Q5) When an ideal capacitor is charged by a de battery, no current flows. However, when an
ac source is used, the current flows continuously. How does one explain this, based on the
concept of displacement current? 2
Q6) Draw a plot showing the variation of (i) electric field (E) and (ii) electric potential (V) with
distance r due to a point charge Q. 2
Q7) Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier using p-n junction diode. Explain its
working and show the output, input waveforms. 3
Q8) Write Einstein's photoelectric equation. State clearly how this equation is obtained using
the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation. Write the three salient features observed in
photoelectric effect which can be explained using this equation. 3
Q9) Use Huygens's principle to explain the formation of diffraction pattern due to a single slit
illuminated by a monochromatic source of light. When the width of the slit is made double the
original width, how would this affect the size and intensity of the central diffraction band? 3
Q10) (a) Define electric flux. Write its S.I. units.
(b) Using Gauss's law, prove that the electric field at a point due to a uniformly charged infinite
plane sheet is independent of the distance from it. (c) How is the field directed if (i) the sheet
is positively charged, (ii) negatively charged? 5

SECTION B

Q1) Under what condition docs a biconvex lens of glass having a certain refractive index act
as a plane glass sheet when immersed in a liquid? 1
Q2) When electrons drift in a metal from lower to higher potential, does it mean that all the
free electrons of the metal are moving in the same direction? 1
Q3) The susceptibility of a magnetic material is – 2.6 x 10 . Identify the type of magnetic
-5

material and state its two properties. 2

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 Q5) A metallic rod of 'L' length is rotated with angular frequency of 'w' with one end hinged at
Q4) Define self-inductance of a coil. Show that magnetic energy required to build up the the centre and the other end at the circumference of a circular metallic ring of radius L, about
2
current I in a coil of self inductance L is given by 1/2 LI . 2 an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring. A constant and
Q5) (i) What characteristic property of nuclear force explains the constancy of binding energy uniform magnetic field B parallel to the axis is present everywhere. Deduce the expression for
per nucleon (BE/A) in the range of mass number 'A' lying 30 < A < 170? the emf between the centre and the metallic ring. 2
ii) Show that the density of nucleus over a wide range of nuclei is constant independent of mass Q6) The figure shows a series LCR circuit with L = 5.0 H, C=
number A. 3 80 uF, R = 40Ω connected to a variable frequency 240 V
Q6) (a) Why are coherent sources necessary to produce a sustained interference pattern? source. Calculate

(b) In Young's double slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength ,the

intensity of light at a point on the screen where path difference is , is K units. Find out the (i) The angular frequency of the source which drives the circuit at resonance.

intensity of light at a point where path difference is /3. 3 (ii) The current at the resonating frequency.
(iii) The rms potential drop across the capacitor at resonance. 3
SECTION C Q7) A rectangular loop of wire of size 4 cm x 10 cm carries a
steady current of 2 A. A straight long wire carrying 5 A
Q1) Predict the directions of induced currents in metal rings 1
current is kept near the loop as shown. If the loop and the wire
and 2 lying in the same plane where current I in the wire is
are coplanar, find
increasing steadily. 1

Q2) A ray of light, incident on an equilateral glass prism (µg = √3) moves parallel to the base
line of the prism inside it. Find the angle of incidence for this ray. 1 (1) the torque acting on the loop and
Q3) A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected to two external resistances R1and R2 (ii) the magnitude and direction of the force on the loop due
and a perfect ammeter. The current in the circuit is measured in four different situations: 2 to the current carrying wire. 3
(i) without any external resistance in the circuit Q8) (a) Using Bohr's second postulate of quantization of orbital angular momentum show that
(ii) with resistance R1 only the circumference of the electron in the n" orbital state in hydrogen atom is n times the de
(iii) with R1 and R2 in series combination Broglie wavelength associated with it.
(iv) with R1 and R2 in parallel combination (b) The electron in hydrogen atom is initially in the third excited state. What is the maximum
The currents measured in the four cases are 0.42 A 1.05 A, 1.4 A and 4.2 A, but not necessarily number of spectral lines which can be emitted when it finally moves to the ground state? 3
in that order. Identify the currents corresponding to the four cases mentioned above. 2 Q9) Using Kirchoff's rules determine the value of unknown
Q4) Two identical circular wires P and Q each of radius R and carrying resistance R in the circuit so that no current flows through 4Ω
current 'l' are kept in perpendicular planes such that they have a common resistance. Also find the potential difference between A and
centre as shown in the figure. Find the magnitude and direction of the net D. 3
magnetic field at the common centre of the two coils. 2

Page 482 of 484 Page 483 of 484

Q10) Define magnifying power of a telescope. Write its expression. A small telescope has an
objective lens of focal length 150 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5 cm. If this telescope is
used to view a 100 m high tower 3 km away. find the height of the final image when it is formed
25 cm away from the eye piece.
OR
How is the working of a telescope different from that of a microscope? The focal lengths of
the objective and eyepiece of a microscope are 1.25 cm and 5 cm respectively. Find the position
of the object relative to the objective in order to obtain an angular magnification of 30 in normal
adjustment.

*****************

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