MICROBIOLOGY

ANIKET ITEKAR
B.SC NURSING FIRST

9741558295 YEAR
MRUDHUL
DIVAKARAN
6238232150
7356550216
UNIT I 3. Define Koch’s phenomenon
INTRODUCTION Medical Definition of Koch's phenomenon
SHORT ANSWERS : the response of a tuberculous animal
1. Define medical microbiology to reinfection with tubercle bacilli
marked by necrotic lesions that develop
Medical microbiology, also known as clinical
rapidly and heal quickly and caused by
microbiology, is a subdiscipline of
hypersensitivity to products of the
microbiology dealing with the study of
tubercle bacillus.
microorganisms (parasites, fungi, bacteria,
viruses, and prions) capable of infecting
and causing diseases in humans (Baron et
al. 2007; Isenberg 2003).
4. Name two contributions of Joseph Liste
He was the first person to
2. Name two contribution of Robert Koch isolate bacteria in pure culture
in microbiology (Bacillus lactis) using liquid
He discovered the anthrax disease cycle (1876) and the cultures containing either
bacteria responsible for tuberculosis (1882) and cholera Pasteur's solution of turnip
(1883). For his discoveries in regard to tuberculosis, he infusion and a special syringe to
received the Nobel Prize for Physiology or Medicine in
dilute the inoculum and so can be
1905.07-Dec-2021
Subjects Of Study: Bacillus anthracis anthrax b...
considered a co-founder of
Awards And Honors: Nobel Prize (1905) medical microbiology with Koch,
Born: December 11, 1843 Germany who later isolated bacteria on solid
Died: May 27, 1910 (aged 66) media.
UNIT II 2. Draw a neat labeled bacterial cell and
GENERAL CHARACTERS OF MICROBES describe functions of bacterial cell
SHORT ESSAY structure.
1. Draw a neat labeled diagram of bacterial
cell and explain cell membrane.

The cell membrane, also called the plasma

membrane, is found in all cells and separates
the interior of the cell from the outside
environment. The cell membrane consists of a
lipid bilayer that is semipermeable. The cell It is a gel-like matrix composed of water, enzymes, nutrients, wastes,
and gases and contains cell structures such as ribosomes, a chromosome,
membrane regulates the transport of materials and plasmids. The cell envelope encases the cytoplasm and all its
entering and exiting the cell. components. Unlike the eukaryotic (true) cells, bacteria do not have a
membrane enclosed nucleus.
3. Draw a neat labeled bacterial cell. 4. Draw a neat labeled bacterial cell. Explain
Explain ribosomes mesosomes with its functions.

Ribosomes are minute particles consisting Mesosome is a convoluted membranous structure

formed in a prokaryotic cell by the invagination of the
of RNA and associated proteins that
plasma membrane. Its functions are as follows :
function to synthesize proteins. Proteins are (1) These extensions help in the synthesis of the
needed for many cellular functions such as cell wall and replication of DNA. They also help in the
repairing damage or directing chemical equal distribution of chromosomes into the daughter
cells.
processes. Ribosomes can be found floating
within the cytoplasm or attached to the
endoplasmic reticulum.
A ribosome functions as a micro-machine for
making proteins
5. Explain the steps in gram staining 6. Explain negative staining
with a neat labeled diagram

Gram-staining
Procedure
1.Crystal Violet (the
Primary Stain)
2.Iodine Solution (the
Mordant)
3.Decolorizer
(ethanol is a good
choice)
4.Safranin (the
Counterstain)
5.Water (preferably in
a squirt bottle)
 7. Explain enriched culture media 8. Explain the method of hanging drop preparat
Enrichment culture is the use of certain
growth media to favor the growth of a
particular microorganism over others,
enriching a sample for the microorganism of
interest. This is generally done by introducing
nutrients or environmental conditions that
only allow the growth of an organism of
interest.

The hanging drop technique is a well-established method for

examining living, unstained, very small organisms. The traditional
procedure employs a glass slide with a circular concavity in the centre
into which a drop of fluid, containing the 'microorganisms', hangs from
a coverslip.
What is the importance of hanging drop preparation?

Advantages
1.It is an important tool to study the bacterial motility along
with the shape, size and arrangement of the bacteria.
2.It does not distort the cell shape and arrangement.
3.Besides, the hanging drop method provides a better view
of motility in bacteria than the wet mount method.
9. Explain special staining method
(Albert staining and Impregnation
method) with examples
Albert's staining technique is a type of special staining technique
since it is used to demonstrate a special structure in bacteria. It
is chiefly used to demonstrate metachromatic granules found in
Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This bacterium is responsible for the
disease diphtheria.
Procedure of Albert Staining
1.Prepare a smear on clean grease free slide.
2.Air dry and heat fix the smear.
3.Treat the smear with Albert’s stain and allow it to react for about 7
mins.
4.Drain of the excess stain do not water wash the slide with water.
5.Flood the smear with Albert’s iodine for 2 minutes.
6.Wash the slide with water, air dry and observe under oil immersion
lens.

impregnation in staining?
Silver and Gold impregnation are older staining
techniques that were commonly used years ago. They
are still used today occasionally to. observe detailed
structures and biological processes, such as.
intercellular junctions, motor end-plates and as seen
here, neuronal. cell processes.

The Golgi silver impregnation technique relies

on chemical preparation of thick blocks of tissue,
after which grains of metallic silver crystallize inside the Golgi's staining is achieved by impregnating aldehyde fixed nervous tissue
membranes of individual cells, producing a dense with potassium dichromate and silver nitrate. Cells thus stained are filled by
microcrystallization of silver chromate.
black precipitate that highlights every detail of the cell
{ ith ans nokane examples kude nokane
body and dendrites against a golden background.
examples kitunilla }
 Examples of differential media include: Blood
10. Explain differential culture media
agar (used in strep tests), which contains
bovine heart blood that becomes transparent
in the presence of hemolytic.
Streptococcuseosin methylene blue (EMB),
which is differential for lactose and sucrose
fermentation.0

ANIKET ITEKAR
9741558295

Differential media contain compounds that

allow groups of microorganisms to be
visually distinguished by the appearance of
the colony or the surrounding media,
usually on the basis of some biochemical
difference between the two groups.
 11. Draw a neat labeled bacterial cell. 12. Draw a neat labele diagram of bacterial
Explain bacterial nucleus growth curve. Explain stationary phase
Unlike the eukaryotic (true) cells, bacteria and decline phase.
do not have a membrane enclosed
Stationary Phase: Eventually, the
nucleus. The chromosome, a single,
population growth experienced in the log
continuous strand of DNA, is localized,
phase begins to decline as the available
but not contained, in a region of the cell
nutrients become depleted and waste
called the nucleoid. All the other cellular
products start to accumulate. Bacterial
components are scattered throughout the
cell growth reaches a plateau, or stationary
cytoplasm
phase, where the number of dividing cells
equal the number of dying cells.

What is decline phase in biology?

{ CHILA QUE ANS NJN ADD In the last phase of the growth curve, the
CHEYUNNILLA death or decline phase, the number of
KETTO ATH REPEAT VARUNNATH viable cells decreases in a predictable (or
ANNU exponential) fashion.
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 13. Draw a neat labeled diagram of 14. Draw a neat labeled bacterial cell.
bacterial growth curve. Explain Explain bacterial capsule.
about lag phase
bacterial growth curve The bacterial capsule is a large
This lag phase is the period when the structure common to many bacteria. It
bacteria are adjusting to the is a polysaccharide layer that lies outside
environment. Following the lag phase is the cell envelope, and is thus deemed
the log phase, in which population grows in part of the outer envelope of a bacterial
a logarithmic fashion. As the population cell. It is a well-organized layer, not
grows, the bacteria consume available easily washed off, and it can be the
nutrients and produce waste products. cause of various diseases.
What does lag phase mean?
: the period of time between the
introduction of a microorganism into a
culture medium and the time it begins
to increase exponentially.

ANIKET ITEKAR
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15. Explain anaerobic transport medium 16. Define culture method. Explain any two
culture methods in detail.
Anaerobic Transport Med. ( ATM) is a Culture methods involve taking samples
mineral salt based semi-solid media. from the field and detecting the presence of
Designed as a non-nutritive holding microbe by culturing them. From the amount
Med., it maintains viability of of microbial species their influence on
microorganisms through collection & corrosion is estimated. Culture media to grow
transport of clinical specimens. This different microbes have been established.
media is prepared, dispensed, &
packaged under oxygen-free conditions.

streaking is a technique used to isolate a pure strain

from a single species of microorganism, often
bacteria. Samples can then be taken from the resulting
colonies and a microbiological culture can be grown on
a new plate so that the organism can be identified,
studied, or tested.
17. Draw a neat labeled bacterial cell. 18. Draw a neat labeled diagram of bacterial
Explain Pili and Fimbriae. growth curve. Explain about log phase.

The log phase (sometimes called the

logarithmic phase or the exponential phase)
is a period characterized by cell
doubling. ... If growth is not limited,
doubling will continue at a constant rate so
both the number of cells and the rate of
population increase doubles with each
consecutive time period.

Fimbriae and pili are hair-like appendages present

log phase important?
on the bacterial cell wall similar to flagella. ... For bacterial transformation the fact of
They are involved in the bacterial conjugation, using log phase bacteria is the idea of
attachment to the surface and motility. They are fitness, your bacteria are constantly in
present in both Gram-positive and Gram-negative
bacteria but more prevalent in Gram-negative division at this phase so when you
bacteria. transform at this point you increase the
Pili or fimbriae are protein structures that probability that the bacterium
extend from the bacterial cell envelope for a transformed will divide rapidly
distance up to 2 μm (Figure 3). They function
to attach the cells to surfaces. E. coli cells
can have up to 300 of these organelles.
 19. Describe lawn culture and surface 20. Explain the stages of sporulation with the
plating (streaking) help of neat labeled diagram.
streaking is a technique used to
isolate a pure strain from a single
species of microorganism, often
bacteria. ... If the agar surface grows
microorganisms which are all genetically
same, the culture is then considered as a
microbiological culture

The lawn culture provides a

uniform layer of bacterial
growth on a solid medium. It
is carried out by flooding the
surface of the solid media plate
with a liquid culture or
suspension of bacteria, pipetting
off the excess inoculum, and
finally incubating the plate
overnight at 37°C

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Stages of sporulation:
•Stage 0.
•Stage I: Axial filament formation stage.
•Stage II: forespore formation.
•Stage III: engulfment of forespore.
•Stage IV: synthesis of exosporium.
•Stage V: synthesis of dipicolonic cacid.
21. Draw a neat labeled diagram of 22. Define culture. Explain stab culture and
bacterial growth curve. Explain stroke culture.
stationary phase and decline phase. Culture: In microbiology, the propagation of
microorganisms in a growth medium. Any body tissue or
fluid can be evaluated in the laboratory by using culture
techniques to detect and identify infectious processes.
Culture techniques can be used to determine sensitivity to
antibiotics. Cells may also be grown in culture.

STROKE CULTURE • Stroke culture is made

in tubes containing agar slope / slant. • Uses –
Provide a pure growth of bacterium for slide
agglutination and other diagnostic tests. 31.

STAB CULTURE • Prepared by puncturing

a suitable medium – gelatin or glucose agar
with a long, straight, charged wire.

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23. Explain the effect of oxygen and Ph 24. Explain harmful effects of microorganism
on bacterial nutrition. The harmful effects of microorganisms are
In biochemistry, the oxygen effect refers to a tendency for stated below. Bacteria: Causes diseases
increased radiosensitivity of free living cells and
organisms in the presence of oxygen than in anoxic or
like typhoid, diarrhoea and cholera. Fungi:
hypoxic conditions, where the oxygen tension is less than 1% Causes numerous diseases in plants and
of atmospheric pressure (i.e., <1% of 101.3 kPa, 760 mmHg or
760 torr).
animals such as rust diseases in plants, fruit
rot in apple, red rot in sugar cane and ring
worm disease in human beings.

Bacteria are generally neutrophiles. They grow best at neutral

pH close to 7.0. Acidophiles grow optimally at a pH near 3.0.
Alkaliphiles are organisms that grow optimally between a pH of
8 and 10.5.
 3. Name the four phases of bacterial growth
SHORT ANSWERS
Bacterial colonies progress through four phases of growth: the lag
1. Define anaerobic culture media phase, the log phase, the stationary phase, and the death phase.
The generation time, which varies among bacteria, is controlled by
Anaerobic culture media contains reducing agents such as many environmental conditions and by the nature of the bacterial
cysteine. Various types of anaerobic culture media used in species.
diagnostic bacteriology laboratory. Pre-reduced, anaerobically
sterilized media are produced by different commercial suppliers,
which have extended shelf life of up to six months.

4. Mention any two transport media

2. Name the parasites whose ova are detected

in stool microscopy
{ check cheyane orapilla }
 5. Name the parasites whose cysts are 6. Define negative staining
detected in stool microscopy
This includes pathogens such as Ascaris
spp. (roundworm), Necator americanus (hookworm),
Trichuris trichiura (whipworm), Strongyloides spp.,
and Entamoeba histolytica amongst others
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{CHECK CHEYANE }
7. Define sensitivity test 8. Define precipitation reaction
A sensitivity analysis is a test that determines the
“sensitivity” of bacteria to an antibiotic. It also
determines the ability of the drug to kill the bacteria.
The results from the test can help your doctor
determine which drugs are likely to be most effective
in treating your infection.

13. Define agglutination

Agglutination is the clumping of particles. The word A precipitation reaction refers to the formation of an
agglutination comes from the Latin agglutinare (glueing to). insoluble salt when two solutions containing
Agglutination is the process that occurs if an antigen is mixed
soluble salts are combined. The insoluble salt that
with its corresponding antibody called isoagglutinin. This term
falls out of solution is known as the precipitate,
is commonly used in blood grouping. hence the reaction's name. Precipitation reactions
can help determine the presence of various ions in
solution.
9. Define slide agglutination 11. Name two types of precipitation test
•Types of precipitation test.
•A) Gel diffusion.
•i) Agar gel single immunodiffusion test (Mancini test)
•ii) Agar Gel double immunodiffusion test (Ouchterlony test)
•B) Immunoelectrophoresis.

12. Define pili

Pili, also known as fimbriae, are proteinaceous, filamentous
polymeric organelles expressed on the surface of bacteria. They
range from a few fractions of a micrometer to > 20 μm in length and
vary from < 2 to 11 nm in diameter. Their functions include mediation
of cell-to-cell interactions, motility, and DNA uptake.
10. Define tube agglutination

14. Name two bacterial exotoxins

•enterotoxin.
•neurotoxin.
•hemotoxin.
•cardiotoxin.
•phototoxin.
{ NAMES ONNU CHECK CHEYANE }

Exotoxins are a group of soluble proteins that are secreted by the

bacterium, enter host cells, and catalyze the covalent modification of
a host cell component(s) to alter the host cell physiology. Both Gram-
negative and Gram-positive bacteria produce exotoxins.
UNIT III 2. Define sterilization. Explain sterilization by
INFECTION CONTROL SHORT ESSAYS moist heat

1. Define sterilization .Explain sterilization by

hot air oven
Sterilization may be defined as the statistically complete
destruction of all microorganisms including the most
resistant bacteria and spores. Sterilization may be defined
as the statistically complete destruction of all microorganisms
including the most resistant bacteria and spores.
Sterilization refers to any process that removes, kills, or
deactivates all forms of life (in particular referring to
microorganisms such as fungi, bacteria, spores, unicellular
eukaryotic organisms such as Plasmodium, etc.)

Hot air ovens use

extremely high
temperatures over
several hours to
destroy
microorganisms
and bacterial
spores. The ovens
use conduction
to sterilize
items by heating
the outside
surfaces of the
item, which then
absorbs the heat
and moves it
towards the center
of the item
3. Define sterilization. Explain sterilization 4. Define nosocomial infection. Explain
by radiation urinary tract infection in detail.

A urinary tract infection (UTI) is an infection

in any part of your urinary system —
your kidneys, ureters, bladder and
urethra. Most infections involve the lower
urinary tract — the bladder and the urethra.
Women are at greater risk of developing a
UTI than are men.
 5. Define sterilization. Explain the
principles and working of autoclave.
Sterilization refers to any process that removes, kills, or deactivates all
forms of life (in particular referring to microorganisms such as fungi,
bacteria, spores, unicellular eukaryotic organisms such as Plasmodium,
etc.) ... After sterilization, an object is referred to as being sterile or aseptic.
 7. Define sterilization. Explain 8. Define nosocomial infection. Explain
sterilization by filtration wound infection in detail
Nosocomial infections also referred to as healthcare-associated
infections (HAI), are infection(s) acquired during the process of
receiving health care that was not present during the time of
admission.

Filtration is an interesting sterilization method in laboratories. It's

the only method that uses force to separate rather than to
kill. When you filter a liquid or gas, it passes through a pore,
which stops, or filters out, the passage of larger particles. ...
Pore sizes can be as small as .

6. Explain iatrogenic infections and

congenital infections
Iatrogenic infection was defined as an infection after medical
or surgical management, whether or not the patient was
hospitalized. Relationship between prescription or procedure
and iatrogenic disease. Drug-Induced Disease.

Congenital infections affect the unborn fetus or newborn A wound infection occurs when germs, such as bacteria,
infant. They are generally caused by viruses that may be grow within the damaged skin of a wound. Symptoms can
picked up by the baby at any time during the pregnancy up include increasing pain, swelling, and redness. More
through the time of delivery. severe infections may cause nausea, chills, or fever.
9. Define sterilization. Explain 10. Define nosocomial infection. Explain
sterilization by pasteurization bacteremia and septicemia
Nosocomial infections also referred to as healthcare-associated
infections (HAI), are infection(s) acquired during the process of
receiving health care that was not present during the time of
admission.

Bacteremia is the
simple presence of
bacteria in the
blood while
Septicemia is the
presence and
multiplication of
bacteria in the blood.
Septicemia is also
known as blood
poisoning.

Bacteremia is the presence of viable bacteria in the circulating blood.

Most episodes of occult bacteremia spontaneously resolve, particularly those
caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Salmonella, and serious sequelae
are increasingly uncommon

The process of pasteurisation involves heating milk to

71.7°C for at least 15 seconds (and no more than Septicemia, or sepsis, is the clinical name for blood poisoning
25 seconds). Because of the nature of the heat by bacteria. It is the body's most extreme response to an infection.
Sepsis that progresses to septic shock has a death rate as high as
treatment it sometimes referred to as the 'High 50%, depending on the type of organism involved.
Temperature Short Time' (HTST) process. Once the
milk has been heated, it is then cooled very quickly to
less than 3°C.
11. Define disinfection. Explain gaseous disinfection 12. Define infection. Describe the methods
Disinfection describes a process that eliminates many or all
pathogenic microorganisms, except bacterial spores, on inanimate of transmission of infection
objects .In health-care settings, objects usually are disinfected by liquid
chemicals or wet pasteurization. Infection occurs when germs enter your body and multiply,
resulting in disease. The four main types of infections
are viral, bacterial, fungal, and parasitic. Infection occurs
when germs enter your body and multiply, resulting in
disease.

The mode of transmission can include direct contact, droplets, a

vector such as a mosquito, a vehicle such as food, or the airborne
route. The susceptible host has multiple portals of entry such as the
mouth or a syringe.
 13. Define disinfection. Explain 14. Define bio-medical waste .Describe the
disinfection using phenol (carbolic acid) different methods of bio-medical waste
treatment.
Biomedical waste is defined as any waste, which is generated during the
diagnosis, treatment or immunisation of human beings or animals, or in
research activities pertaining thereto, or in the production or testing of
biologicals

Phenolic compounds used as antiseptics or disinfectants include pure

phenol and substitution products with halogens and alkyl groups. They
act to denature and coagulate proteins and are general protoplasmic
poisons. Phenol (carbolic acid) is one of the oldest antiseptic
agents.
Can phenol be used as disinfectant? What are the different bio waste treatment methods?
Phenol is an antiseptic and disinfectant. It is active The primary methods of treating medical waste
against a wide range of micro-organisms including some are: Incineration. Autoclaves. Mechanical/Chemical Disinfection
fungi and viruses, but is only slowly effective against
spores. Phenol has been used to disinfect skin and to { ANS NOKANE }.
relieve itching.
 15. Define disinfection. Explain 16. Define infection. Describe the sources of
disinfection by using halogens infection.
Infection: The invasion and multiplication of
microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses,
and parasites that are not normally present
within the body.
Common sources of infection

Sources, e.g. airborne, blood borne,

sexually transmitted, fecal, oral,
environment, stagnant water, warm-water
systems, animals.

Halogens. Other chemicals commonly used for disinfection

are the halogens iodine, chlorine, and fluorine. Iodine works
by oxidizing cellular components, including sulfur-containing
amino acids, nucleotides, and fatty acids, and destabilizing the
macromolecules that contain these molecules.
Why are halogens used as disinfectants?
They kill bacteria and other potentially harmful
microorganisms through a process known as sterilization.
Chlorine and bromine are also used in bleaching. Sodium
hypochlorite, which is produced from chlorine, is the active
ingredient of most fabric bleaches.
17. Define disinfection. Explain 18. Describe the role of nurse in infection
disinfection by using alcohols. control programme.
Disinfection describes a process that
eliminates many or all pathogenic
microorganisms, except bacterial
spores, on inanimate objects (Tables 1
and 2). In health-care settings, objects
usually are disinfected by liquid
chemicals or wet pasteurization.
How are alcohols used as
disinfectants?
Isopropyl alcohol, particularly in
solutions between 60% and 90%
alcohol with 10 – 40% purified water,
is rapidly antimicrobial against
bacteria, fungi, and viruses. Once
alcohol concentrations drop below
50%, usefulness for disinfection drops
sharply.

What type of alcohol is used as a disinfectant?

Ethyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol are
commonly used as disinfectants and antiseptics. An infection control nurse is a registered nurse
Both alcohols are effective at killing germs when (RN) who implements best practices for
used in concentrations over 60 percent, but there's halting the spread of viruses and bacteria
some evidence that ethyl alcohol is less damaging
to your skin.
and delivers top care to patients who have
contracted infectious diseases.
{ ITHINTE ANS NOKANE }
 SHORT ANSWERS 3. Name two bacteria causing nosocomial infectio
1. Name two gaseous disinfectants According to the CDC, the most common pathogens that cause
nosocomial infections are Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas
aeruginosa, and E. coli.
Bacteria are the most common cause of nosocomial infections.
Common bacteria include E. coli and staph.
Nosocomial pathogens. Pathogens responsible for nosocomial
infections are bacteria, viruses and fungal parasites. These
microorganisms vary depending upon different patient populations,
medical facilities and even difference in the environment in which the
care is given.

2. Define pasteurization
pasteurization, heat-treatment process that
destroys pathogenic microorganisms in
certain foods and beverages. ... The
4. Define antiseptic treatment also destroys most of the
microorganisms that cause spoilage and so
What is an antiseptic? An antiseptic is a prolongs the storage time of food
substance that stops or slows down the
growth of microorganisms. They're
frequently used in hospitals and other
medical settings to reduce the risk of
ANIKET ITEKAR
infection during surgery and other
procedures.
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 5. Define contagious disease 7. Define harmless waste
A contagious disease is a disease that is readily
spread (that is, communicated) by transmission
of a pathogen from an infected person to another
person.
6. Define Primary infection
A primary infection is the first time you are exposed
to and infected by a pathogen. During a primary
infection, your body has no innate defenses against
the organism, such as antibodies.

8. Give two functions of Alcohols

Alcohols are among the most common organic compounds.

They are used as sweeteners and in making perfumes,
are valuable intermediates in the synthesis of other
compounds, and are among the most abundantly produced
organic chemicals in industry.
9. Define Secondary infection 11. Define carrier
A secondary infection is an infection that A carrier (colonized individual) is a person in
occurs during or after treatment for whom organisms are present and may be
another infection. It may be caused by multiplying, but who shows no clinical
the first treatment or by changes in the response to their presence.
immune system. Two examples of a Carrier state. a condition in which a human
secondary infection are: A vaginal yeast who is not himself sick harbors an infective
infection after taking antibiotics to treat an organism which may cause disease in
infection caused by bacteria those to whom it is transmitted.

12. Give two functions of Halogens

10. Name two disinfectant used in hospital
3 useful applications of halogens
What is the best disinfectant for •Fluorine is used in the manufacturing of
hospitals? toothpaste.
•#1 Lysol Disinfectant Spray. •Chlorine is used in the purification of water.
•#2 Clorox Healthcare Bleach •Bromine is used in the production of
Germicidal Spray. photographic films as well as pesticides and
•#3 Clorox Hydrogen Peroxide Spray. fumigants.
•#1 Clorox Disinfecting Wipes.
•#2 CaviWipes Disinfecting Towelettes.
•#3 Clorox Hydrogen Peroxide Wipes.
 13. Define sterilization 15. Give two examples of Acridine dyes
Sterilization may be defined as the
statistically complete destruction of
all microorganisms including the
most resistant bacteria and spores.
Sterilization may be defined as the
statistically complete destruction of all
microorganisms including the most
resistant bacteria and spores.

14. Define nosocomial infection

16. Define fumigation
Nosocomial infections also referred to
as healthcare-associated infections Fumigation is a method of pest
(HAI), are infection(s) acquired control or the removal of harmful
during the process of receiving micro-organisms by completely
health care that was not present filling an area with gaseous
during the time of admission. pesticides—or fumigants—to
suffocate or poison the pests within.
ventilator-associated pneumonia,
17. Name two opportunistic infections 19. Mention two functions of Glutaraldehyde
associated with HIV infection
A glutaraldehyde solution of 0.1% to
Common opportunistic infections associated with HIV include:
•cryptococcal meningitis. 1.0% concentration may be used as a
•toxoplasmosis. biocide for system disinfection and as
•PCP (a type of pneumonia)
•oesophageal candidiasis. a preservative for long-term storage. It
•certain cancers, including Kaposi's sarcoma. is a sterilant, killing endospores in
addition to many microorganisms and
viruses.

20. Define cross infection

A cross infection is the transfer of

harmful microorganisms, usually
18. Define cold sterilization bacteria and viruses. The spread of
What is cold sterilization in microbiology? infections can occur between people,
Immersion of heat-sensitive instruments pieces of equipment, or within the body.
into microbicidal fluids (such as These infections can cause many
complications. So, medical professionals
glutaraldehyde, orthophthalaldehyde, or
work hard to ensure equipment safety and
concentrated hydrogen peroxide) to rid them of a clean environment.
bacteria, fungi, mycobacteria, or viruses. See
also: sterilization
 21. Name two cutaneous infection 23. Give two examples of Aniline dyes
Cutaneous fungal infections are commonly caused by
Other aniline dyes followed, such as fuchsin,
dermatophytes. The prevalent dermatophytic infections in the
United States include tinea pedis, tinea corporis, tinea cruris, safranin, and induline. At the time of mauveine's
tinea capitis, and tinea unguium. discovery, aniline was expensive.
For example,: Definition of aniline dye
•Bacteria cause cellulitis, impetigo, and staphylococcal a dye made by the use of aniline or one chemically related
(staph) infections. to such a dye broadly : a synthetic organic dye.
•Viruses cause shingles, warts, and herpes simplex.
•Fungi cause athlete's foot and yeast infections. 24. Define iatrogenic infection
•Parasites cause body lice, head lice, and scabies. Iatrogenic infection was defined as an infection after
medical or surgical management, whether or not the
{ CHECK CHEYANE } patient was hospitalized
Iatrogenic: Due to the activity of a physician or
22. Name two methods of hospital waste therapy. For example, an iatrogenic illness is an illness
that is caused by a medication or physician.
disposal

The primary methods of treating medical 25. Define sterilization

waste are:
•Incineration. Sterilization refers to any process that
•Autoclaves. removes, kills, or deactivates all forms of
•Mechanical/Chemical Disinfection. life (in particular referring to microorganisms
•Microwave. such as fungi, bacteria, spores, unicellular
•Irradiation. ANIKET ITEKAR eukaryotic organisms such as Plasmodium,
etc.)
•Vitrification.
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UNIT IV
PATHOGENICORGANISMS
LONG ESSAYS
1. Explain in detail the morphology,
cultural characteristics, pathogenicity,
laboratory diagnosis of streptococcus
pyogenes.
2. Explain the morphology, habitat life
cycle, disease caused and laboratory
diagnosis of Wucheria Bancrofti.

habitat of Wuchereria bancrofti?

Wuchereria bancrofti, occurring in tropical Africa, parts of
Central and South America, as well in South-East Asia,
Brugia malayi, occurring in South and South-East Asia, as well
as Brugia timori (occurring on the island of Timor) are the
causative agents of lymphatic filarioses.
ANIKET ITEKAR
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3. Explain in detail the morphology,
cultural characteristics, pathogenicity,
laboratory diagnosis of Diplococci
(Pneumococcs).
the shape of Diplococcus pneumoniae?
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram-positive,
α-hemolytic, lancet-shaped diplococcus and
is bile soluble and optochin sensitive.
Diplococci characteristics
coccus arrangement
Pairs of cocci are called diplococci; rows or chains
of such cells are called streptococci; grapelike
clusters of cells, staphylococci; packets of eight or
more cells, sarcinae; and groups of four cells in a
square arrangement, tetrads.
6. Classify the genus salmonella.
Salmonella is a genus of rod-shaped (bacillus) Gram-
negative bacteria of the family Enterobacteriaceae.
 Explain in detail the morphology, cultural Morphology Family Enterobacteriaceae;
characteristics, laboratory diagnosis, S. typhimurium is a gram
pathogenicity and prophylaxis of Enteric negative rod; motile,
aerobic and anaerobic.
fever. This bacteria is one of the
Enteric fever is a bloodstream infection caused by the
bacteria Salmonella Typhi or Salmonella Paratyphi A, B, or C. non-typhoid strains of
It is common in low resource settings and linked to poor water salmonella common in the
quality and sanitation. US.
What is the laboratory
diagnosis of enteric fever?
Testing for typhoid fever LB broth/agar (37°C);
Growth Conditions
Aerobic.
A diagnosis of typhoid
fever can usually be
confirmed by analysing
samples of blood, poo, or
pee. These will be
examined under a
microscope for the
Salmonella typhi
bacteria that cause the
condition

The pathogenesis of typhoid fever depends upon a number of factors,

including infectious species, virulence, host's immunity, and infectious dose.
The larger the infectious dose, the shorter the incubation period, and the
higher the attack rate.

How can enteric fever be prevented?

Frequent hand-washing in hot, soapy water is the best way to
control infection. Wash before eating or preparing food and after using
the toilet. Carry an alcohol-based hand sanitizer for times when water
isn't available. Avoid drinking untreated water.
4. Classify the genus clostridium.
Explain in detail the cultural
characteristics, pathogenesis,
laboratory diagnosis, prophylaxis of
clostridium tetani.
7. Name two medically important
spirochetes. Explain in detail the
morphology, cultural characteristics,
laboratory diagnosis, pathogenicity
and prophylaxis of Syphilis.
 ANIKET ITEKAR
How is syphilis prevented? 9741558295
Prevention
1.Abstain or be monogamous. The only certain way to
avoid syphilis is to avoid (abstain from) having sex. ...
2.Use a latex condom. Condoms can reduce your risk
of contracting syphilis, but only if the condom covers
the syphilis sores.
3.Avoid recreational drugs.
8. Classify the genus Staphylococcus.
Explain in detail the morphology,
cultural characteristics, laboratory
diagnosis, pathogenicity of
Staphylococcus aureus.

What is the structure of Staphylococcus aureus? What is the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus?
Staphylococcus aureus is an extraordinarily versatile pathogen that can
Cell Structure and Metabolism
survive in hostile environmental conditions, colonize mucous membranes
and skin, and can cause severe, nonpurulent, toxin-mediated disease or
Staphylococcus aureus is a gram positive bacteria, which means
that the cell wall of this bacteria consists of a very thick invasive pyogenic infections in humans.
peptidoglycan layer. They are spherical, form clusters in 2 planes
and have no flagella
 .
9. Explain in detail the morphology,
cultural characteristics, laboratory
diagnosis, pathogenicity and
prophylaxis of vibrio cholerae.

Are all Vibrio cholera pathogenic?

Numerous free-living vibrios are known, some potentially
pathogenic. Until 1992, cholera was caused by only two serotypes,
Inaba (AC) and Ogawa (AB), and two biotypes, classical and El Tor, of
toxigenic O group 1 V cholerae.
10. Classify the genus Mycobacterium.
Explain in detail, about the morphology,
cultural characteristics, laboratory
diagnosis, pathogenicity and prophylaxis
of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

What is the laboratory diagnosis of tuberculosis?

There are two kinds of tests that are used to detect TB bacteria in the
body: the TB skin test (TST) and TB blood tests. A positive TB skin
test or TB blood test only tells that a person has been infected with TB
bacteria.

What is the prophylaxis for TB?

6.1.

The standard regimen for treatment of latent

TB infection is nine months isoniazid, also
known as isoniazid prophylaxis therapy (IPT).
Pyrodoxine should be given with isoniazid
(Udani et al. 1971).
pathogenicity of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How can you prevent Mycobacterium

tuberculosis?
The risk of infection can be
reduced by using a few simple
precautions:
1.good ventilation: as TB can remain
suspended in the air for several hours
with no ventilation.
2.natural light: UV light kills off TB
bacteria.
3.good hygiene: covering the mouth
and nose when coughing or sneezing
reduces the spread of TB bacteria.
11. Explain in detail the morphology,
pathogenicity, clinical symptoms and
prophylaxis of Rabies virus
The rabies virus is a negative-sense, non-segmented,
single-stranded RNA virus measuring approximately
60 nm × 180 nm. It is composed of an internal protein
core or nucleocapsid, containing the nucleic acid, and
an outer envelope, a lipid-containing bilayer covered
with transmembrane glycoprotein spikes

What is prophylaxis of rabies?

Bite by all warm blooded animals
necessitates post-exposure prophylaxis.
As rabies is practically 100% fatal, bites by
dogs and cats in particular must be
considered as a “medical emergency” and
the “life-saving” post exposure prophylaxis
must be provided immediately.
12. Explain in detail about the
morphology, pathogenicity, clinical
symptoms, lab diagnosis and
prophylaxis
What of HIV.
is HIV microbiology?
HIV is an RNA retrovirus that infects specific white
blood cells with the CD4 receptor on their surface
(CD4+ cells). CD4 is hijacked by HIV which uses it to
gain access to the cell. Once inside the cell, the virus's
genetic material, RNA, is converted to DNA in a
process called reverse transcription.
Pre-exposure prophylaxis (or PrEP) is
What is the pathogenesis for HIV?
HIV pathogenesis is thought of as a chronic infection medicine taken to prevent getting HIV.
involving slow degradation of immunity that PrEP is highly effective for preventing
ultimately leads to AIDS. This scenario, however, HIV when taken as prescribed. PrEP
could reflect the decay of an immune system mortally
wounded during acute HIV infection reduces the risk of getting HIV from
Symptomatic HIV infection sex by about 99%. PrEP reduces the
•Fever. risk of getting HIV from injection drug
•Fatigue. use by at least 74%.
•Swollen lymph nodes — often one of the first
signs of HIV infection.
What is the first drug given for HIV prophylaxis?
•Diarrhea.
•Weight loss.
FDA Approves Truvada PrEP, First Drug for
•Oral yeast infection (thrush) HIV Prevention.
•Shingles (herpes zoster)
•Pneumonia.
13. Explain the morphology, pathogenicity, 14. Explain the morphology, life cycle,
clinical symptoms, laboratory diagnosis pathogenicity, laboratory diagnosis of
of HBsAg (Hepatitis ‘B’ virus). Entamoeba histolytica.
clinical
symptoms?
The bacteria life cycle consists of the lag
Definition. phase, the log or exponential phase, the
Any
objective
stationary phase and the death phase.
evidence Factors that influence bacterial growth bear
of disease
or of a
heavily on this cycle.
patient's
condition
founded
{ EE 2 QUE ANS CHECK CHEYANE }
on clinical
observatio
n.

morphology, in biology, the study of the size, shape, and

structure of animals, plants, and microorganisms and of
the relationships of their constituent parts. The term refers
to the general aspects of biological form and arrangement of the
parts of a plant or an animal.
Pathogenicity can be defined as the capacity of a
microbe to cause damage in a host while virulence
refers to the degree of damage caused by the microbe
(Casadevall and Pirofski, 1999).
A laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis B (HBV) infection is
dependent upon the detection of hepatitis B surface antigen
in serum. The distinction between acute and chronic infection
relies on the detection of other serological markers. Serum-
based assays can now detect and quantify the viral DNA.
15. Explain the morphology, Signs and symptoms,
pathogenesis, clinical symptoms, which can last up to
10 days, include:
laboratory diagnosis and prophylaxis •Fever.
The viral particle is about 30 nm in diameter with icosahedral
of polio virus.
symmetry. Because of its short genome and its simple composition—
•Sore throat.
only RNA and a nonenveloped icosahedral protein coat that •Headache.
encapsulates it, poliovirus is widely regarded as the simplest •Vomiting.
significant virus. pathogenesis of poliovirus? •Fatigue.
Virus: Poliovirus During intestinal replication, the virus •Back pain or stiffness.
Family: Picornaviridae invades local lymphoid tissue and may •Neck pain or stiffness.
Species: Enterovirus C enter the bloodstream, and then infect
•Pain or stiffness in the
Genus: Enterovirus cells of the central nervous system.
arms or legs.
Poliovirus-induced destruction of
motor neurons of the anterior horn of
the spinal cord and brain stem cells
results in distinctive paralysis.

The best prevention against polio is a series

of four vaccine shots in the arm or leg. The
inactivated polio vaccine used in the United
States is very effective and safe, and cannot
cause polio. The recommended vaccination
schedule for children is based on age: First
shot when 2 months old

{ANS CHECK CHEYANE }

16. Name the malarial parasites. Explain
morphology, life cycle, pathogenicity,
laboratory diagnosis of Malarial Parasite

Parasite morphology: Malarial parasites form four

developmental stages in humans (hepatic schizonts
and then intraerythrocytic trophozoites, schizonts and
gamonts) and three developmental stages in
mosquitoes (ookinetes, oocysts and sporozoites).

Malarial infection begins when a person is bitten by

an infected female anopheles mosquito and
Plasmodium spp (species) parasites in the form of
sporozoites are injected into the bloodstream. The
sporozoites travel to the liver, multiplying asexually
over the next 7–10 days. During this time there are no
symptoms.
17. Explain the morphology, life cycle, lesions caused,
laboratory diagnosis of Ascaris lumbericosides.
18. Explain in detail the morphology, cultural
laboratory diagnosis of Ascaris lumbricoides? characteristics, pathogenictiy, laboratory
The standard method for diagnosing ascariasis is
by identifying Ascaris eggs in a stool sample using a
diagnosis, prophylaxis of corynebacterium
microscope. Because eggs may be difficult to find in light diptheriae.
morphology of
infections, a concentration procedure is recommended.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
morphology of Ascaris? C. diphtheriae is a pleomorphic,
Adult: The round worm resembles to earthworm. It club-shaped, Gram positive
is elongated tapering to both end, anterior being bacillus that is catalase
positive, non-motile, non-spore
thinner than posterior. Freshly excreted worm is
forming, and non-acid fast. On
yellowish pink in color, which gradually changes to Gram stain, the organisms are
white. typically described as having
a “picket fence” or
“Chinese character”
morphology

Corynebacterium diphtheriae
diagnosis?
Doctors usually decide if a
person has diphtheria by
looking for common signs and
symptoms. They can swab
the back of the throat or
nose and test it for the
bacteria that cause
diphtheria. A doctor can also
take a sample from an open
sore or ulcer and try and grow
the bacteria.
19. Explain the morphology, life cycle, 20. Explain the pathogensis, clinical features,
disease caused and laboratory diagnosis of Salmonella typhi.
diagnosis of Ancylostoma duodenale.

What are the features of Salmonella?

Salmonellosis is a disease caused by the bacteria Salmonella. It is usually
characterized by acute onset of fever, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, nausea
Intestinal hookworm disease in humans and sometimes vomiting. The onset of disease symptoms occurs 6–72
hours (usually 12–36 hours) after ingestion of Salmonella, and illness lasts
is caused by Ancylostoma duodenale, A. 2–7 days.

ceylanicum, and Necator americanus How is Salmonella typhi diagnosed?

The only way to know for sure if an illness is typhoid fever or paratyphoid
fever is to have a sample of blood or stool (poop) tested for Salmonella Typhi
or Salmonella Paratyphi. If you have a fever and feel very ill, see a doctor
immediately.
What is diagnosis of ancylostoma
Duodenale?
The standard method for diagnosing the
presence of hookworm is by
identifying hookworm eggs in a stool
sample using a microscope. Because
eggs may be difficult to find in light
infections, a concentration procedure is
recommended.
 3. Name two RNA viruses
SHORT ANSWERS
RNA Viruses. Human diseases causing RNA
1. Name two gram positive bacteria viruses include Orthomyxoviruses, Hepatitis C
Virus (HCV), Ebola disease, SARS, influenza,
The Gram-positive bacteria polio measles and retrovirus including adult
include staphylococci ("staph"), Human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-
streptococci ("strep"), pneumococci, 1) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
and the bacterium responsible for
diphtheria (Cornynebacterium 4. Name two DNA viruses
diphtheriae) and anthrax (Bacillus
anthracis) DNA viruses comprise important pathogens
such as herpesviruses, smallpox viruses,
2. Name two specific test done for Syphilis
adenoviruses, and papillomaviruses, among
detection
many others.
Tests used to screen for syphilis include:
•Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL)
test. The VDRL test checks blood or spinal fluid
for an antibody that can be produced in people
who have syphilis. ...
•Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test. The RPR test
also finds syphilis antibodies.
•Rapid immunochromatographic test.

{ ITHANO ENN ARIYILLA CHECK

CHEYANE }
5. Name the specific test done for Enteric fever7. Give two examples of Gram positive cocci
Gram-positive cocci include Staphylococcus
The Widal test is one method that may be (catalase-positive), which grows clusters, and
used to help make a presumptive diagnosis Streptococcus (catalase-negative), which grows in
of enteric fever, also known as typhoid chains. The staphylococci further subdivide into
fever. coagulase-positive (S. aureus) and coagulase-
negative (S. epidermidis and S

6. Name 4 viruses causing aseptic meningitis Examples of high G+C gram-positive bacteria that are
human pathogens include Mycobacterium tuberculosis,
Viral causes include the following: Enteroviruses -which causes tuberculosis; M. leprae, which causes
coxsackievirus, echovirus, poliovirus. Herpes leprosy (Hansen's disease); and Corynebacterium
simplex virus (HSV) types 1 and 2 (HSV-1, HSV-2) diphtheriae, which causes diphtheria. Clostridia spp.
Varicella-zoster virus.

8. Give two example of Aerobic bacterias

Aerobic Bacteria List:

•E. Coli.
•Citrobacter.
•Klebsiella.
•Proteus.
•Salmonella.
•Achromobacter.
9. Mention the use of TAB vaccine
11. Name three diseases caused by clostridium
Vaccine TAB is the vaccine that Diseases Caused by Clostridia
has the killed bacteria in it. •Botulism. Botulism may occur without
Complete answer: The vaccine infection if toxin is ingested, injected, or
TAB is used for the prevention inhaled. ...
of the Typhoid. This vaccine •Clostridioides (formerly, Clostridium)
helps in preventing the typhoid, difficile–induced colitis. ...
paratyphoid A and the •Gastroenteritis. ...
paratyphoid B. •Soft-tissue infections. ...
•Tetanus. ...
•Clostridial necrotizing enteritis. ...
•Neutropenic enterocolitis (typhlitis)

12. Name two diseases caused by spirochetes

Of mammalian pathogens, some of the most

invasive come from a group of bacteria known
as the spirochetes, which cause diseases such
as syphilis, Lyme disease, relapsing fever
and leptospirosis.
 13. Name two acid fast bacteria 14. Give two examples of Gram negative cocci

Common acid-fast bacteria of

medical importance
include Mycobacterium
tuberculosis, Mycobacterium
leprae,Mycobacterium avium-
intracellulare complex, and
Nocardia species.

16. Name two sexually transmitted

diseases
Sexually transmitted diseases
(STDs) are infections transmitted
from an infected person to an
uninfected person through sexual
contact. STDs can be caused by
bacteria, viruses, or parasites.
Examples include gonorrhea,
genital herpes, human
papillomavirus infection,
HIV/AIDS, chlamydia, and
syphilis.
17. Mention the purpose of Coombs test 19. Name two nematodes

The Coombs test will help your doctor Six intestinal nematodes commonly infect
determine if you have antibodies in humans: Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm
your bloodstream that are causing Trichuris trichiura (whipworm), Ascaris
your immune system to attack and lumbricoides (large roundworm), Necator
destroy your own red blood cells. If americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale
your red blood cells are being destroyed, (hookworms), and Strongyloides stercoralis.
this can result in a condition called
hemolytic anemia.

24. Name two bacteria causing diarrhea

20. Name three bacteria causing urinary
tract infection
he most frequently identified organisms
causing bacterial diarrhea Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a severe
are Escherichia coli (most common public health problem and are caused by a
worldwide), Shigella, Salmonella, range of pathogens, but most commonly
Campylobacter (most common in by Escherichia coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae,
children), Yersinia, and Clostridium spp. Proteus mirabilis, Enterococcus faecalis
and Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
 21. Name four clinical syndromes
23. Give two examples of Gram negative bacilli
caused by E.coli
Escherichia coli is the most common gram-negative
pathogen. Other gram-negative organisms responsible
for HAI are Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, Enterobacter,
Acinetobacter, Serratia, Haemophilus, and Salmonella
spp.
Gram-negative bacteria are the most common primary
pathogens: ○ Often, these organisms are part of the
normal flora, but they may become opportunistic. ○
Commonly isolated Gram-negative organisms include
Pseudomonas, Klebsiella, Proteus, Salmonella,
Providencia, Escherichia, Morganella, Aeromonas, and
Citrobacter.

22. Name the motility test done to detect

Escherichia coli is one of the most vibrio cholera
frequent causes of many common
bacterial infections, Isolation and identification of Vibrio cholerae
including cholecystitis, bacteremia, serogroup O1 or O139 by culture of a stool
cholangitis, urinary tract infection (UTI), specimen remains the gold standard for the
and traveler's diarrhea, and other clinical laboratory diagnosis of cholera. Cary Blair media is
infections such as neonatal meningitis and ideal for transport, and the selective
pneumonia. thiosulfate–citrate–bile salts agar (TCBS) is ideal for
isolation and identification. { CHECK CHEYANE }
 25. Name two zoonotic disease 27. Name two vectors and the diseases
The zoonotic diseases of most concern in transmitted by them
the U.S. are:
•Zoonotic influenza.
•Salmonellosis.
•West Nile virus.
•Plague.
•Emerging coronaviruses (e.g., severe acute
respiratory syndrome and Middle East
respiratory syndrome)
•Rabies.
•Brucellosis.
•Lyme disease.

26. Give two examples of spore bearing

Gram positive bacilli
28. Define Focal sepsis

Infection present, or assumed to be present, in a

The gram-positive spore-forming bacilli are limited area of the body, such as the teeth, tonsils or
the Bacillus and Clostridium species. sinuses. In the past, all sorts of disorders were said
to be due to focal sepsis, but as medical knowledge
has grown, such attribution has become rare.
29. Name four parasites causing anemia 31. Give two examples of Gram positive bacilli
Gram Positive Bacilli
In addition to the nutritional status, iron
•Amoxicillin.
deficiency anemia has also been
•Spore.
associated with infection by intestinal
•Metronidazole.
parasites, namely Schistosoma
•Toxin.
mansoni, hookworms, T. trichiura and
•Diarrhea.
A. lumbricoides
•Gram Staining.
ANIKET ITEKAR •Anthrax.
•Bacterium.
9741558295
30. Define zoonoses

A zoonosis is an infectious disease 32. Name two E.coli causing diarrhea

that has jumped from a non-human coli (EIEC), enterohaemorrhagic
animal to humans. Zoonotic E. coli (EHEC) and
pathogens may be bacterial, viral or enteroaggregative E. coli
parasitic, or may involve (EAggEC) produce an inflammatory
unconventional agents and can diarrhoea. ETEC are a major cause of
spread to humans through direct diarrhoea in infants (up to three
contact or through food, water or the episodes per year) and travellers.
environment.
 33. Name two parasites transmitted by
faeco oral route
Many common infections are spread by fecal-
oral transmission, including E. coli,
adenovirus, campylobacter, coxsackie
virus, giardia, hepatitis A, Salmonella, and
Shigella.

34. Define Mycoplasma

Mycoplasma (plural mycoplasmas or
mycoplasmata) is a genus of bacteria that
lack a cell wall around their cell membranes.
This characteristic makes them naturally
resistant to antibiotics that target cell wall
synthesis (like the beta-lactam antibiotics).
They can be parasitic or saprotrophic.
Domain: Bacteria
Genus: Mycoplasma; J.Nowak 1929
 UNIT V 2. Define immunity .Explain Herd immunity
and local immunity
IMMUNITY SHORT ESSAY
1. Define carriers. Describe the types of carriers. Immunity is a biological term that describes
a state of having sufficient biological
A carrier (colonized individual) is a person in whom
organisms are present and may be multiplying, but who defences to avoid infection, disease, or
shows no clinical response to their presence. other unwanted biological invasion. Innate, or
The types of carrier are:
nonspecific, immunity is the natural resistance
•common carriers. with which a person is born.
•private carriers.
•other types of carriers with special rights and duties.
 3. Define immunization. Describe 4. Define vectors. Describe the types of vectors
immunization schedule A vector is a living organism that transmits an infectious
agent from an infected animal to a human or another
Immunization: A process by which a person becomes
animal. Vectors are frequently arthropods, such as
protected against a disease through vaccination.
mosquitoes, ticks, flies, fleas and lice.
This term is often used interchangeably with vaccination
or inoculation. The four major types of vectors are plasmids, viral vectors,
cosmids, and artificial chromosomes. Of these, the most
Vaccine Schedule commonly used vectors are plasmids.

BCG, Hep B birth At Birth

dose, OPV-O
Pentavalent (DPT + 6 weeks, 10 weeks
Hep B + Hib), OPV and 14 weeks
Measles and 9-12 months
Vitamin A
DPT booster, OPV 16-24 months
booster, Measles2*
DPT booster 5-6 years

A vaccination schedule is a series of vaccinations,

including the timing of all doses, which may be
either recommended or compulsory, depending on the
country of residence.
 5. Define auto immunity. Explain any two 6. Define vaccines. Differentiate between Sa
autoimmune diseases. vaccine and Sabin vaccine
Vaccine: A preparation that is used to stimulate the
autoimmunity, the state in which the immune system reacts body's immune response against diseases. Vaccines ar
against the body's own normal components, producing disease
or functional changes.
usually administered through needle injections, but some
Autoimmunity is the system of immune responses of an organism
can be administered by mouth or sprayed into the nose.
against its own healthy cells, tissues and other body normal
constituents. Any disease resulting from this type of immune response is
termed an "autoimmune disease".

According to The
Autoimmune
Registry, the top
10 most common
autoimmune
diseases
include:
•Rheumatoid
arthritis.
•Hashimoto's
autoimmune
thyroiditis.
•Celiac disease.
•Graves' disease.
•Diabetes mellitus,
type 1.
•Vitiligo.
•Rheumatic fever.
•Pernicious
anemia/atrophic
gastritis.
 8. Define hypersensitivity reactions. Explain type IV
7. D ef i ne ant i body. W r i t e t he
hypersensitivity reactions
functions of IgM immunoglobulin
Hypersensitivity reactions (HR) are immune responses that are exaggerated
or inappropriate against an antigen or allergen

IgM not only serves as the first line of

Type four hypersensitivity reaction is a cell-
host defense against infections but
mediated reaction that can occur in
also plays an important role in immune
response to contact with certain allergens
regulation and immunological tolerance.
resulting in what is called contact dermatitis or
For many years, IgM is thought to
in response to some diagnostic procedures as
function by binding to antigen and
in the tuberculin skin test. Certain allergens
activating complement system
must be avoided to treat this condition.
 10. Define hypersensitivity. Explain type
9. Define antibody. Write the functions of I Anaphylactic reaction in detail.
IgE immunoglobulin
An excessive or abnormal sensitivity to a substance. A person
who is hypersensitive to a certain drug will often suffer a severe
An antibody (Ab), also
allergic reaction (see allergy) if given the drug.
known as an
immunoglobulin (Ig), is a Hypersensitivity reactions are exaggerated or inappropriate
large protein produced by immune responses to benign antigens. It is the immune
B-cells that is used by the response, not the antigens that are harmful to the host.
immune system to
identify and neutralize
foreign objects, such as
bacteria and viruses. ...
Using this binding
mechanism, an antibody
can tag a microbe or an
infected cell

Immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies are well known for their role

in mediating allergic reactions, and their powerful effector functions
activated through binding to Fc receptors FcεRI and FcεRII/CD23.

Type I hypersensitivity is also known as an

immediate reaction and involves immunoglobulin
E (IgE) mediated release of antibodies against
the soluble antigen. This results in mast cell
degranulation and release of histamine and other
inflammatory mediators
11. Explain the effect of water in bacterial nutrition. 12. Explain ELISA reaction
If you measure the water activity of any material, you will know which Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
bacteria, molds, or fungi can grow on and in it. By reducing water
activity, you can rule out the growth of certain classes of microbes. (ELISA) is a method of target antigen (or
At low water activities you can preclude the growth of anything at all. antibody) capture in samples using a

specific antibody (or antigen), and of target

What is the effect of water in bacterial nutrition?
For growth and nutrition of bacteria, the minimum nutritional molecule detection/quantitation using an
requirements are water, a source of carbon, a source of enzyme reaction with its substrate.
nitrogen and some inorganic salts. Water is the vehicle of
entry of all nutrients into the cell and for the elimination of
waste products.
What is the effect of bacteria in water?
The presence of coliform bacteria, specifically E. coli (a type of
coliform bacteria), in drinking water suggests the water may
contain pathogens that can cause diarrhea, vomiting, cramps,
nausea, headaches, fever, fatigue, and even death sometimes.

Why do bacteria need water?

Moisture – Bacteria need moisture in
order to grow. This is why they grow on
foods with high moisture content such as
chicken. Foods that are dehydrated or
freeze-dried can be stored for much longer
as the moisture has been removed. Food
– Food provides energy and nutrients for
bacteria to grow.
 14. Define immunity. Explain
13. Define antibody. Write the functions of
IgA immuniblobulin natural passive immunity.
Immunity is a biological term that describes a state of
having sufficient biological defences to avoid infection,
disease, or other unwanted biological invasion. Innate, or
nonspecific, immunity is the natural resistance with which a
person is born.

Passive immunity can occur naturally, such as when an infant receives a

mother's antibodies through the placenta or breast milk, or artificially,
such as when a person receives antibodies in the form of an injection
(gamma globulin injection).

Immunoglobulin A (IgA) is
the most abundant type of
antibody in the body,
comprising most of the
immunoglobulin in
secretions and a significant
amount of circulating
immunoglobulin. In
secretions, it serves to
protect the mucosal
tissues from microbial
invasion and maintain
immune homeostasis with
the microbiota.
 15. Describe antibiotic sensitivity test (AST)16. Explain Widal test
Antibiotic susceptibility testing, or AST, is a widely-used The Widal test measures the capacity of antibodies against LPS
method of evaluating antibiotic resistance and and flagella in the serum of individuals with suspected typhoid
determining patient treatment plans in clinical fever to agglutinate cells of S. Typhi; the test was introduced over a
settings. There are a number of different methods of century ago and it is still widely used [20].
AST such as agar dilution, broth dilution and disc
What is the normal range of Widal test?
diffusion assays. Conclusion: In case of singular Widal test, baseline values for the normal
range was found to be 1:20 - 1:80 for all the antigens (TO, TH, AO, AH, BO,
BH), except BH, for which it was 1:20-1:40.

What is AST system?

A next-generation phenotyping system is seeking to
revolutionize antibiotic susceptibility testing (AST) in
an effort to begin treating patients faster and to combat Widal Test is an agglutination test which detects the presence of
antibiotic resistance. serum agglutinins (H and O) in patients serum with typhoid and
paratyphoid fever
 17. Define immunity. Explain 18. Define immunity. Explain artificial active
natural passive immunity immunity
the quality or state of being immune especially : a
condition of being able to resist a particular
An active immunity acquired
disease especially through preventing by vaccination (i.e. the injection of vaccine
development of a pathogenic microorganism or by containing active antigens to prevent the
counteracting the effects of its products — see development of the disease in the future).
acquired immunity, active immunity, natural immunity,
passive immunity. immunity.
Passive immunity can occur naturally, such as when
an infant receives a mother's antibodies through Vaccine-induced immunity
the placenta or breast milk, or artificially, such as
when a person receives antibodies in the form of an
Also known as artificial active immunity, a
injection (gamma globulin injection). person can build a resistance to a disease
following an immunization. An
immunization is defined as the process by
which someone becomes protected
against a specific disease via the
administration of a vaccine

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 19. Explain VDRL test 20. Explain Oral Polio Vaccine
Definition. The VDRL test is a screening test
for syphilis . It measures substances
(proteins), called antibodies , which your body
may produce if you have come in contact with
the bacteria that cause syphilis

What oral polio vaccine means?

The action of oral polio vaccine (OPV) is two-
pronged. OPV produces antibodies in the blood
Blood is generally drawn from a vein at the ('humoral' or serum immunity) to all three types
crease of the elbow or the back of the hand. of poliovirus, and in the event of infection, this
This blood sample will then be sent to a protects the individual against polio paralysis by
preventing the spread of poliovirus to the
laboratory and tested for the antibodies
nervous system.
produced as a result of syphilis. The VDRL
test doesn't require you to fast or stop taking
any medications.
 21. Define immunity. Explain natural 22. Define immunity .Explain innate immunity
active immunity
Immunity is a biological term that describes a state of having
sufficient biological defences to avoid infection, disease, or
other unwanted biological invasion. Innate, or nonspecific, immunity
.
is the natural resistance with which a person is born

Naturally acquired active immunity occurs when the person

is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease, and
becomes immune as a result of the primary immune
response. Once a microbe penetrates the body's skin,
mucous membranes, or other primary defenses, it interacts
with the immune system.

INNATE IMMUNITY. Innate, or nonspecific, immunity is the defense

system with which you were born. It protects you against all
antigens. Innate immunity involves barriers that keep harmful materials
from entering your body. These barriers form the first line of defense in
the immune response.

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23. Define vaccine. Describe BCG vaccine.
Vaccine: A preparation that is used to
stimulate the body's immune
response against diseases. Vaccines
are usually administered through
needle injections, but some can be
administered by mouth or sprayed into
the nose.
What is the BCG vaccine and why is it
given?
This vaccine is used to prevent
tuberculosis (TB) in people who have
not been infected with the disease but
are at a high risk of getting it.

vak-SEEN) A vaccine used to prevent tuberculosis (TB) in people who

are at a high risk of TB or where TB is common. It is rarely given in the
U.S. It is made from a weakened form of a bacterium called
Mycobacterium bovis (bacillus Calmette-Guérin), which is similar to the
bacteria that cause TB.
 SHORT ANSWERS Mention the four types of blood group
Define active immunity
There are 4 main blood groups (types of blood)
– A, B, AB and O. Your blood group is
determined by the genes you inherit from your
parents. Each group can be either RhD
positive or RhD negative, which means in total
there are 8 blood groups.

Name two live vaccines

Name two types of hyper sensitivity
The four types of hypersensitivity are:
•Type I: reaction mediated by IgE antibodies.
•Type II: cytotoxic reaction mediated by IgG or
IgM antibodies.
•Type III: reaction mediated by immune
complexes.
Live-attenuated vaccines
•Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR combined vaccine) •Type IV: delayed reaction mediated by cellular
•Rotavirus. response.
•Smallpox.
•Chickenpox.
•Yellow fever.
 Name two bacterial vaccine Give two examples of biological vecto
The bacterial vaccines (i.e., diphtheria,
Mosquitoes, ticks, fleas and lice are
tetanus, pertussis, H. influenzae type b, and
examples of biological vectors and are
pneumococcus) should be administered to all
often responsible for serious blood-
HIV-infected children according to the routine
borne diseases, such as malaria.
childhood schedule.

Name two autoimmune disease of thyroid gland

Autoimmune thyroid diseases consist of two
subgroups: autoimmune thyroiditis (AIT)
and Graves' disease. The AIT is the most Define immunity
common human autoimmune disease. Immunity is a biological term that
What are the most common autoimmune diseases? describes a state of having
Here are 14 of the most common ones. sufficient biological defences to
1.Type 1 diabetes. The pancreas produces the hormone
insulin, which helps regulate blood sugar levels. ... avoid infection, disease, or other
2.Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) ... unwanted biological invasion. Innate,
3.Psoriasis/psoriatic arthritis. ... or nonspecific, immunity is the
4.Multiple sclerosis. ...
5.Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) ...
natural resistance with which a
6.Inflammatory bowel disease. ... person is born.
7.Addison's disease. ...
8.Graves' disease.
 Mention four types of immunoglobulin
Mention two uses of ELISA test Classes of immunoglobulins. The five primary
classes of immunoglobulins are IgG, IgM, IgA,
IgD and IgE. These are distinguished by the
type of heavy chain found in the molecule.

Define antibodies

antibody, also called immunoglobulin, Mention two uses of immunofluorescence

a protective protein produced by the
Immunofluorescence can be used on tissue
immune system in response to the sections, cultured cell lines, or individual cells,
presence of a foreign substance, and may be used to analyze the distribution of
called an antigen. Antibodies recognize proteins, glycans, and small biological and non-
and latch onto antigens in order to biological molecules. This technique can even be
remove them from the body. used to visualize structures such as intermediate-
sized filaments.
 Define antigen Differentiate between viable
count and total count

(AN-tih-jen) Any substance that causes the body to make an immune response
against that substance. Antigens include toxins, chemicals, bacteria, viruses, or
other substances that come from outside the body. Body tissues and cells, including
cancer cells, also have antigens on them that can cause an immune response.

Define immunization
Immunization is the administration of antigenic
solution, usually orally or via injection, to protect
against infectious bacterial and viral diseases.