CL LAST Mock

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Warmup Mock 04 (CLAT) 2025
English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Passage – 1
Becoming an entrepreneur when you are close to 50 isn't easy. It's harder in a business - online retailing of beauty, personal care and fashion
products - where the target consumers are Generation Z and Millennials. Falguni Nayar has defied all stereotypes, becoming India's only second
self-made woman billionaire after Biocon's Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw. Not only was the Rs. 5,352-crore initial public offering of Nayar's FSN E-
Commerce Ventures Ltd oversubscribed nearly 82.5 times, but its shares debuted at Rs 2,001 in the BSE on Wednesday, against the issue price of
Rs. 1,125. At Friday's closing price of Rs. 2,359, the Nayar family's 52.56 per cent stake in her company was worth $7.9 billion. That makes her the
country's second richest woman after Savitri Jindal, ahead of Mazumdar-Shaw, Leena Tewari of USV, Mallika Srinivasan of Amalgamations, Smita
Crishna of Godrej and Anu Aga of Thermax. All of them, barring Mazumdar-Shaw and Nayar, are inheritors of businesses originally promoted by
men.
Nayar's company - better known as Nykaa, an apt take on the Sanskrit word 'nayika' or heroine - is also interesting in other ways. It reported a profit
of Rs 62 crore on operational revenues of Rs. 2,441 crore for the year ended March 31, 2021. This is rare for any digital startup, including the likes of
Zomato and One 97 Communications (Paytm) that have been burning cash despite being around for more than a decade. One reason could be that
a lot of what is sold through the company's websites, mobile apps and 73 physical stores are under its own Nykaa and Kay Beauty brands. This is
unlike Amazon or Flipkart that largely hawk others' brands/products, whose gross monetary value paid by consumers would be many times the
actual revenue accruing to the company. Nykaa has also been different from other tech startups in not receiving much venture capital funding. Most
of its investors have been high-net worth individuals.
Whether or not Nykaa's future performance meets its post-IPO expectations, Nayar's story should hopefully inspire more women to become job
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creators, not just job seekers. Dismantling patriarchy requires many more such entrepreneurs to emerge, particularly from India's small towns and
hinterlands. Nykaa's own business model has been about leveraging rising female workforce participation and aspirations. The fact that 64 percent of
its sales last fiscal came from Tier 2 and 3 cities points to not just a huge untapped market; the demand for skincare and beauty accessories is
ultimately a reflection of growing aspirations.
Q 1. 60260388 Which of the following has not been identified as something distinct about Nykaa as compared to other digital start ups?
I. Most of its investors are venture capitalists
II. It is not a profit making enterprise
III. It mostly sells its own products
a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III
Q 2. 60260388 The author says "more such entrepreneurs to emerge" to:
a) Establish a matriarchal form of society b) Counter the narrative of women being bad businessperson
c) Counter male domination and consequent prejudice d) Counter the exploitation of women in corporate world
Q 3. 60260388 Which of the following challenges has not been mentioned by the author in context of the start of entrepreneurial journey of Falguni
Nayar?
a) Age b) Nature of business c) Gender d) Demography of the consumers
Q 4. 60260388 As per the passage, which of the following would be closest to the total valuation of Nayar’s company?
a) $10 billion b) $15 billion c) $20 billion d) $25 billion
Q 5. 60260388 Which of the following will best describe the trait of Falguni Nayar as expressed by the author in the expression 'defied all
stereotypes'?
a) Pioneering b) Philanthropist c) Evangelist d) Thespian
Q 6. 60260388 What is the synonym for the word "defied" as used in the passage?
a) Resisted b) Obeyed c) Challenged d) Surrendered

Passage – 2
The recent Allahabad High Court verdict that a sexual assault on a 10-year-old boy by an offender did not amount to an aggravated form of the crime
appears to be per incuriam. The offence that was proven in the trial, and endorsed without demur by the High Court, involved the child being sexually
abused. The Court agrees that it was a "sexual assault" as defined by the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act. However, it did
not amount to "aggravated sexual assault", a crime punishable with a minimum prison term of 10 years that can go up to life, Justice Anil Kumar Ojha
has said. Instead, it was punishable under Section 4 of POCSO, which prescribes a minimum seven years. Accordingly, he reduced the trial court
sentence of 10 years in jail to seven years. The High Court is palpably in error, as it failed to note that a sexual offence takes the character of an
aggravated form of the same offence in certain circumstances under POCSO. The main circumstances involving aggravation given in Section 5 are
where the offender is a police officer, a member of the armed forces, a public servant or someone on the staff of a jail, remand home, hospital,
educational or religious institution, or any place of custody or care and protection.
However, these are not the only circumstances. Where the crime involves a group of offenders, or is done repeatedly, or when it pertains to the use
of deadly weapons or causes grievous harm or injury, or leads to physical or mental incapacitation, pregnancy, or disease, it is also an aggravated
form of the offence. Significantly, Section 5(m) adds "whoever commits sexual assault on a child below 12 years" to this list. The High Court seems to
have missed either this legal provision while reducing the sentence, or the fact that the child was about 10 years old when the offence took place.
The fact that the convicted person will stay in jail for seven years will not obviate the deleterious effect of the ruling - that a particular act, amounting
to a sexual act, does not attract the punishment prescribed for its aggravated form - will have on lower courts trying similar cases. It is a matter of
coincidence that this ruling came from the Allahabad High Court on the same day as the Supreme Court's judgment underscoring the importance of
not diluting the gravity of an offence against a child by ignoring the plain meaning of POCSO's provisions. The verdict in Sonu Kushwaha vs State of
U.P. is a fit case for review, as it seems to be based on an error of law.
Q 7. 60260388 Which of the following is the most suitable title of the passage?
a) Court demurs: POSCO setback in a landmark judgment
b) Abuse eye opener: On Allahabad Court's ruling on POSCO
c) Child protection: POSCO on sexual abuse

d) POCSO shocker: On Allahabad High Court verdict on child sexual assault
Q 8. 60260388 Which of the following best captures the essence of the passage?
a) HC applied the law correctly but missed the spirit of the law
b) HC ruling highlights the apathy that all Courts exhibit towards sexual assault victims
c) HC ruling ignores specific provision defining aggravated form of sexual offence
d) HC ruling misinterpreted the POSCO as envisaged by the Supreme Court
Q 9. 60260388 Which of the following is closest in meaning to per incuriam?
a) A ruling handed down without due regard to the law and facts
b) Beneficiary heir receives the inheritance should the beneficiary die before the testator
c) A ruling issued by an appellate court of multiple judges in which the decision rendered is made by the court acting collectively
d) A situation where a litigant represent themselves without a lawyer
Q 10. 60260388 Which of the following can be concluded about the case mentioned in the passage above?
a) The name of the victim is Sonu Kushwaha b) The victim was a teenager
c) The perpetrator was a minor d) The incident took place in UP
Q 11. 60260388 Which of the following has not been mentioned as one of the factors which can make a sexual offence takes the character of an
aggravated form of the same offence?
a) Profession of the offender b) Number of the offenders c) Frequency of the offence d) Duration of the offence
Q 12. 60260388 What is the main idea conveyed in the passage regarding the recent Allahabad High Court verdict on a sexual assault case
involving a 10-year-old boy?
a) The High Court upheld the trial court's decision, endorsing a 10-year prison sentence for the offender.
b) The High Court reduced the sentence in a sexual assault case involving a child, citing the absence of aggravating circumstances.
c) The High Court highlighted various circumstances under which a sexual offense is considered aggravated according to the POCSO Act.
d) The Supreme Court's judgment on the same day emphasized the need to dilute the gravity of offenses against children.
Passage – 3
We, the people, have a right to be aghast and police have a duty to answer. Bengaluru Police Commissioner Kamal Pant must answer: Why did the
police force of one of India's most cosmopolitan cities, where the future is daily re-imagined and innovated on, disgrace itself by submitting to and
enforcing a heckler's veto? How else does one describe the act of the Bengaluru police writing to the organisers of a ticketed comedy show by
Munawar Faruqui and "suggesting" that they cancel it because "organisations opposed to" Faruqui's comedy "could create chaos …and lead to law
and order problems"? Faced with threats from right-wing organisations, Faruqui and the show's organisers found they could not depend on what is
taken for granted in functional democracies - that the state would defend their right to stage a show against a mob. Instead, the police were found
upholding the right to be offended of those who have repeatedly used the threat of violence to force a majoritarian consensus. Alas, their confidence
in the robustness of India's democratic ethos was misplaced and how!!
The police is, indeed, responsible for keeping peace, no one denies that. But that does not empower it to impose a prior restraint on an act of
speech. The Supreme Court has several times spoken against the use of such pre-censorship - most recently, in a case last year involving a
provocative show by Sudarshan TV. In the 1989 S Rangarajan case, when a Tamil film was sought to be denied clearance on the grounds that it
would lead to violent protests, the SC had asked: "What good is the protection of freedom of expression if the state does not take care to protect it?
…it cannot be suppressed on account of threats of demonstration and processions or threats of violence. Unfortunately, the hounding of Munawar
Faruqui, which began last year in Indore over a joke he might not have even cracked, illustrates precisely a surrender to this politics of "blackmail
and intimidation". An organised campaign of harassment has brought the young comic to the brink of quitting his career.
In the last several months, Faruqui's shows have been cancelled in several cities, from Mumbai to Raipur to Surat, after threats of violence by Hindu
right-wing organisations. The political class, irrespective of the party in office, has silently allowed this campaign to grow louder, even while making
lofty declamations on Constitution Day.
Q 13. 60260388 Which of the following will best describe the two questions mentioned at the beginning of the passage?
a) Rhetorical b) Inquisitive c) Interrogative d) Accusatory
Q 14. 60260388 The author is MOST likely to disagree with which of the following?
a) The Constitution promises Faruqui the freedom of speech and liberty.
b) Freedom of speech is not an absolute right and needs to be calibrated.
c) Police action is tantamount to surrendering to blackmail and intimidation.
d) The state and its police must go back to its job of defending those rights.
Q 15. 60260388 Which of the following set of emotions cannot be attributed to the author in the following statement "An organised campaign of
harassment has brought the young comic to the brink of quitting his career"?
a) Pity, Sympathy and Empathy b) Regret, Rue and Remorse c) Agony, Angst and Aghast d) Infuriated, Incensed and Irate
Q 16. 60260388 Which of the following will not describe the tone of the passage?
a) Excited b) Agitated c) Hyperbole d) Anguished
Q 17. 60260388 What is the author's chief complaint?
a) Vociferous protests against the comedian b) Cancellation of the shows
c) The apathy of the police d) The increasing cultural intolerance
Q 18. 60260388 What is the synonym for the term "heckler's veto" as used in the passage?
a) Applauder's authorization b) Audience's endorsement c) Disruptor's approval d) Interferer's permission
Passage – 4
In a recent turn of events, Lok Sabha passed the bill that sought to repeal the three controversial farm legislations which saw farmers mobilise at the
Delhi borders for over a year. This was completely out of the blue, especially the timing. After months of steadfast denial, the craven surrender was
sprung up on nation, without nigh a warning. It is equally shocking - but hardly a surprise - that the government refused to heed the Opposition's
demand for a discussion in the House on the subject that had been debated extensively on different platforms across the nation. This is reminiscent
of the manner in which the controversial laws were rammed through in Parliament in September 2020 without due consideration, as demanded by
the Opposition, leading to deep distrust about the reforms itself in the society, particularly among a section of the farmer community. In fact, the
obstinacy of the government was a major reason why it failed to convince the protestors despite 11 rounds of talks and the intervention of the
Supreme Court about crucial reforms.
A televised address to the nation is no substitute for a detailed statement and discussion in Parliament since these Acts had been passed by the
House. What was against the national interest was never explained. So, what were the imperatives? Was the government's failure merely a case of
miscommunication? What has been the outcome of similar "reform" measures in the states? Should the Centre henceforth let the states decide their
own agriculture reform paths as per the demands of local political economy rather than push centralised solutions on a sector rich in diverse
cultivation practices and markets? Then, there is the continuing demand among farmers for making the minimum support price a legal right, which
raises several fraught issues. It also seems even those who had opposed the farm laws agree that Indian agriculture is in a crisis and needs radical
solutions. So what is the way forward? All these and much more needs vigorous debate in Parliament. Prime Minister Modi is wont to call the
Constitution a holy book and Parliament a temple. But his government has been found wanting in living up to the letter and spirit of that holy book
and has frequently used its electoral majority to impose its will on Parliament by stomping out dissenting voices and ignoring custom and procedure.
Q 19. 60260388 In the first paragraph, the author accuses the government of all of the following in context of the farm bills except:
a) Being intransigent and rigid in its stance of not allowing discussion.
b) Arrogant towards parliamentary norm of engaging with other parties.
c) Non-accommodative in its attitude while tabling and withdrawing the bill.
d) Resorting to techniques of shocking and surprising the opposition.
Q 20. 60260388 Which of the following, if true, will strengthen the author's point of view?
a) It just took four minutes for the Lok Sabha on Monday to pass a bill.
b) The decision to repeal the Acts was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Guru Purab.
c) Union ministers hailed the PM's climb down as a great gesture in the national interest.
d) The arrest of a central minister's son on allegations running over five persons accelerated the decision.
Q 21. 60260388 Which of the following is unlikely to be the author's opinion about parliamentary debates?
a) They can help create trust among various stakeholders.
b) Their absence will diminish the institution of the Parliament.
c) They can help find solutions to the agricultural crisis.

d) They deepen the already hardening fault lines.
Q 22. 60260388 Which of the following strengthen(s) the author's push for more debate on agricultural reforms? I. Agriculture is an uncontested
territory and policy-making has broad consensus across fences. II. Farming community including those in the forefront of protests, have gone through
a period of deep introspection about farm practices.
a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Neither nor II
Q 23. 60260388 The citing of ____________ in the statement "Prime Minister Modi is wont to call the Constitution a holy book and Parliament a
temple" conveys ________________ of the author.
a) Similes, cynicism b) Metaphors, skepticism c) Examples, suspicion d) Irony, mindset
Q 24. 60260388 What is the synonym for the term "craven surrender" as used in the passage?
a) Fearful capitulation b) Courageous defiance c) Bold confrontation d) Valiant opposition
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1
Karpoori Thakur, a prominent Gandhian socialist leader and former [1] Chief Minister will be awarded the 'Bharat Ratna' posthumously. He served as
Chief Minister from December 1970 to June 1971 and from December 1977 to April 1979. Karpoori Thakur died on February 17, 1988. The Bharat
Ratna, the highest civilian award in the country, has been granted to 49 individuals so far, with 17 posthumously. Instituted in [2], this award is open
to anyone, regardless of race, occupation, position, or gender.
It is awarded in recognition of outstanding service or performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour. The prime minister makes
recommendations directly to the President, and no formal recommendations are required. The annual awards are limited to a maximum of three per
year. Upon receiving the award, the recipient is presented with a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion. The Bharat Ratna does
not come with any monetary grant, according to the ministry of home affairs (MHA).
Q 25. 60260388 Karpoori Thakur, a prominent Gandhian socialist leader and former [1] Chief Minister will be awarded the 'Bharat Ratna'
posthumously. He served as former [1] Chief Minister, which of the following states has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Uttar Pradesh b) Bihar c) Odisha d) Kerala
Q 26. 60260388 Who among following refused the Bharat Ratna, but was received award later?
a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad b) Ustad Vilayat Khan c) Khushwant Singh d) Jivatram Bhagwandas Kripalani
Q 27. 60260388 Who among the following former Presidents of India had not been conferred the Bharat Ratna?
a) Zakir Hussain b) VV Giri c) Dr.A. P. J. Abdul Kalam d) K. R. Narayanan
Q 28. 60260388 Bharat Ratna which is the highest civilian award of India was instituted in [2], which of the following years has been redacted with
[2] in the passage above?
a) 1950 b) 1952 c) 1954 d) 1956
Q 29. 60260388 Who among the following have been conferred the Bharat Ratna in 2019?
a) Mukesh Chand Mathur and Kuppalli Sitaramayya Sudarshan b) Kishore Kumar and Thakur Ram Singh
c) Jagjit Singh and Ashok Singhal d) Bhupen Hazarika and Nanaji Deshmukh
Q 30. 60260388 Who was the first foreigner to be bestowed with Bharat Ratna?
a) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan b) Nelson Mandela c) Mother Teresa d) Annie Besant
Passage – 2
On December 29, 2023, the pro-talks faction of the ULFA signed a tripartite peace deal with the Centre and the Assam government. Unlike similar
pacts with other Assam-based outfits, the formal agreement with the ULFA faction did not signal the end of extremism in Assam. This is because the
hardline ULFA (Independent) faction headed by Paresh Baruah continues to wage war against the "Indian occupational forces" from its hideouts in
Myanmar.
The Chief Minister, however, has claimed the accord with the 1979-born ULFA has paved the way to ensure legislative and land rights for the
Assamese people. He said the pact has two major clauses - a commitment to following the principles applied for the 2023 delimitation exercise for
future delimitation exercises in Assam and checking demographic changes by preventing people of one constituency from being registered as voters
in another.
Q 31. 60260388 Recently, the pro-talks faction of the ULFA has signed a historic tripartite peace deal with the Government of India and the State
government of Assam. What is the full form of ULFA?
a) Union Liberation Front of Assam b) United Liberation Front of Assam
c) United Liberty Front of Assam d) United Liberation Freedom of Assam
Q 32. 60260388 What was the primary objective of the recent peace pact signed between the pro-talks faction of ULFA, the Centre, and the Assam
government?
a) To establish an independent Assam through armed struggle
b) To address ULFA's concerns regarding Assamese identity, culture, and land rights
c) To continue armed resistance against the Indian state
d) To escalate the conflict and demand greater autonomy for Assam
Q 33. 60260388 What key commitment did ULFA make as part of the peace pact?
a) To intensify armed struggle against the Indian state b) To join the democratic process and renounce violence
c) To seek support from neighboring countries for their cause d) To establish new training camps in Myanmar and Pakistan
Q 34. 60260388 What legislative safeguards were included in the peace pact?
a) Restrictions on indigenous communities' representation in the Assam Assembly
b) Exemptions from specific sections of the Citizenship Act of 1955
c) Imposition of President's rule in Assam
d) Expansion of non-indigenous communities' representation in the Assam Assembly
Q 35. 60260388 What is the significance of Clause 6 of the Assam Accord?
a) It establishes the cut-off date for the detection of illegal immigrants in Assam.
b) It defines the criteria for determining who qualifies as an "Assamese person."
c) It outlines the responsibilities of the Government of India in addressing the concerns of the Assam Movement.
d) It sets the framework for the implementation of citizenship-related policies in Assam.
Q 36. 60260388 Who among the following headed the committee appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs to work on the implementation of Clause
6 of the Assam Accord?
a) Utpal Sarma b) Samujjal Bhattacharya c) Biplab Kumar Sarma d) Prakash Das
Passage – 3
India's 655-strong contingent wrapped up the 14th day of the [1] Asian Games on October 7 with a record-breaking 107 medals, marking a historic
achievement for the nation. This remarkable feat has solidified India's position as a powerhouse in Asian sports, surpassing all previous records in a
single edition of the quadrennial showpiece.
As the curtains come down on the 2023 [1] Games, India stands tall with an impressive medal tally of 28 gold, 38 silver, and 41 bronze medals,
showcasing the country's incredible depth and talent in a wide range of sporting disciplines.
This monumental accomplishment has shattered India's previous best haul of medals, which stood at 70, achieved during the Jakarta 2018 Asian
Games. That achievement was celebrated for the 16 gold medals it included, but the 2023 [1] Games have eclipsed it in both quantity and quality.
On October 7, 2023, India has demonstrated an impressive performance at the 2023 Asian Games, amassing a grand total of 107 medals,
comprising 28 gold, 38 silver, and 41 bronze. [2] stands at the top of the overall Asian Games 2023 medal tally, boasting a remarkable 187 gold
medals, leading ahead of Japan with 47 gold medals and the Republic of Korea with 36 gold medals.
Q 37. 60260388 Which of the following cities in China hosted the 2023 Asian Games which has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Beijing b) Guangzhou c) Hangzhou d) Shanghai
Q 38. 60260388 What is the India rank in the overall medals tally at the Asian Games 2023?
a) Second b) Third c) Fourth d) Sixth
Q 39. 60260388 Which of the following sports made its debut at this edition of the Asian Games 2023?
a) Cricket b) Hockey c) Archery d) Kabaddi
Q 40. 60260388 What are the names of the three mascots of the 2023 Asian Games?
a) Congcong, Lianlian, and Mingming b) Congcong, Lianlian, and Chenchen
c) Hanghang, Zhouzhou, and Yangyang d) Xi, Jin, and Ping
Q 41. 60260388 What is the slogan for the 19th Asian Games 2023?
a) "One Continent, One Vision" b) "Heart to Heart, @Future" c) "Unity in Diversity" d) "Strength through Sports"
Q 42. 60260388 Which of the following countries tops in the overall medals tally at the Asian Games 2023 which has been redacted with [2] in the
passage above?
a) China b) Russia c) Singapore d) Indonesia
Passage – 4
[1] and Karnataka are embroiled in a boundary dispute, with [1] claiming Belgaum, a district in Karnataka, on linguistic grounds. "The entire matter
got tense after a Kannada group made some comments over [1]'s claims," a police officer from Kolhapur said. "There were chances of a law and
order situation, so buses to and from Karnataka were suspended for a day."
The dispute between [1] and Karnataka over Belgaum and other border areas is a longstanding issue between the two states, and has been pending
before the Supreme Court for many years.
The erstwhile Bombay Presidency, a multilingual province, included the present-day Karnataka districts of Bijapur, Belgaum, Dharwar and Uttara-
Kannada (previously North Kanara).
In 1948, the Belgaum municipality requested that the district, having a predominantly [2]-speaking population, be incorporated into the proposed [1]
state.
However, the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, which divided states on linguistic and administrative lines, made Belgaum a part of the then Mysore
State (which was renamed Karnataka in 1973).
The [1] government contested the inclusion and lodged a protest with the Centre in September 1957. This led to the formation of the [3] under former
Chief Justice [3] in October 1966.
The Commission, which submitted its report in August 1967, recommended that 264 villages be transferred to [1] and that Belgaum and 247 villages
remain with Karnataka. [1] rejected the report and demanded another review.
Q 43. 60260388 Which of the following states of India is having a boundary dispute with Karnataka whose name has been redacted with [1] in the
passage above?
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Kerala c) Maharashtra d) Tamil Nadu
Q 44. 60260388 The first state in India to be formed under the State reorganisation act in 1956 is:
a) Punjab b) Gujarat c) Madhya Pradesh d) Andhra Pradesh
Q 45. 60260388 In 1948, the Belgaum municipality requested that the district, having a predominantly [2]-speaking population, be incorporated into
the proposed [1] state. Which of the following has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Telugu b) Malayalam c) Tamil d) Marathi
Q 46. 60260388 The States Reorganisation Act was enacted on 31 August 1956. Before it came into effect on 1 November, 1956, an important
amendment was made to the Constitution of India. Which of the following is that amendment act?
a) Fourth Constitutional Amendment Act b) Fifth Constitutional Amendment Act
c) Sixth Constitutional Amendment Act d) Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act
Q 47. 60260388 What was the name of the commission formed under former Chief Justice [3] in the passage above?
a) Mahajan Commission b) Mukherjea Commission c) Patanjali Sastri Commission d) Sudhi Ranjan Das Commission
Q 48. 60260388 Name the person who undertook a hunger strike for 56 days in support of having separate state for Andhra Pradesh and he died in
the process.
a) Tanguturi Prakasam Panthulu b) Potti Sreeramulu c) Kandukuri Veeresalingam d) Gurajada Venkata Apparao
Passage – 5
As the premier forum for international economic cooperation, the Group of Twenty (G20) plays a critical role in steering the global economy through
the significant challenges it faces. Each year, the presidency invites guest countries to participate. [1] is invited as a permanent guest.
The G20 brings together the world's major and systemically important economies. Its members represent 85% of global GDP, 75% of international
trade and two-thirds of the world's population.
The forum has met every year since its inception in 1999 after the Global Financial Crisis of 1997-98, with leaders meeting for an annual G20
Leaders' Summit since 2008. In addition to the Summit, ministerial meetings, sherpa meetings, working groups and special events are organised
throughout the year.
[2] is holding the G20 presidency in 2024. An events calendar can be found on the G20 website. India held the G20 presidency in 2023, with the New
Delhi Leaders' Declaration released on 9 September 2023. South Africa will host the G20 in 2025, followed by the United States of America in 2026.
The G20 continues to play a significant role in shaping and strengthening global architecture and governance on all major international economic
issues.
Q 49. 60260388 Which of the following countries is invited "Permanent Guest Invitee" to the G20 summits, which has been redacted with [1] in the
passage above?
a) South Africa b) Ukraine c) Spain d) Poland
Q 50. 60260388 Which of the following countries is holding the G20 presidency in 2024 which has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) China b) Russia c) Brazil d) Saudi Arabia
Q 51. 60260388 Who among the following two leaders were conspicuously absent from the G20 Summit in 2023 and were represented by their
officials?
a) Joe Biden and Ursula von der Leyen b) Xi Jinping and Vladimir Putin
c) Joe Biden and Boris Johnson d) Emmanuel Macron and Rishi Sunak
Q 52. 60260388 Which of the following organization was granted full membership at the G20 Summit in 2023?
a) African Union b) ASEAN Countries Union c) Gulf Cooperation Council d) European Union
Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose
the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.
Passage – 1
The Oxford Dictionary defines a denomination as, 'a branch of a Christian church'. A religious denomination, in a sociological context, has been
defined as a subgroup within a religion that operates under a common name, tradition, and identity. The constitution does not define the term. As a
result, the Supreme Court stepped in and give it a definition. The Supreme Court defined the term was in the case of Commissioner, Hindu Religious
Endowments V. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt. The court referred to the Oxford Dictionary and defined a religious denomination
as a group having a 'common faith, common organization and a common name'. The Supreme Court further clarified this term in SP Mittal V. Union
of India where it elaborated on the aforementioned essentials.
Another very significant aspect is that religious denomination must arise from a particular religion. Hence, a group of people having a set of common
beliefs that do not arise from a particular religion cannot be deemed to constitute a religious denomination for the purpose of Article 26. The court
also made this clear in SP Mittal when it held that the followers of Sri Aurobindo do not constitute a religious denomination, as the followers do not
come together for the purpose of one religion. Moreover, the common system of beliefs followed by the religious denomination must include religious
tenants or principles peculiar to itself. This means that the denomination must also follow practices and beliefs that are not exclusively a part of that
religion, but are followed in addition or in the place of other practices and beliefs of that religion.
For several years, the country has witnessed the acquisition of temples and temple properties by state governments. This is a practice that originated
in independent India due to the passing of the Hindu Religious and Charitable Endowments Act, 1951 by the Parliament. The act gives state
governments the power to take control of temples. Out of 9 lakh temples in the country, about 4 lakh temples are under the control of state
governments.
15 state governments across the nation have control over temples in their respective states. This is something that the Supreme Court has frowned
upon on several occasions. In Ratilal V. State of Bombay, the Supreme Court made it clear that transferring administrative powers of a temple from a
religious denomination to secular authority is in violation of Article 26. The state can pass a law to regulate the affairs of a religious institution, but it
cannot extinguish the right all together.
However, what must be seen here is that the court has taken this stand only with respect to 'religious denominations'. Therefore, the definition given
in Shirur Mutt will apply. This was pointed out by the Orissa High Court in Ramchandra. This stand has not been applied to all temples and
institutions that are there for the Hindu public in general. For ex- if the followers of Ramanuja construct a temple for themselves, and if the
government takes over the administration of the temple, then the acquisition of the temple by the state can be challenged on the ground of it being in
violation of Article 26.
Q 53. 60260388 Rajapaksha was an organization where people across religion and belief came together under a common belief that Yogic sciences
is the future and Patanjali is the ultimate Guru. The organization had members from various religions and countries. Can Rajapaksha be called as a
denomination according to the passage?
a)
Rajapaksha can be considered under the term denomination in accordance with the definition laid down by the supreme court in the case of Shirur
Mutt.
b) Rajapaksha cannot be considered under a denomination as the important requisites of the same are not being fulfilled.
c)
Rajapaksha does not come within the ambit of article 26 and hence there is no necessity of considering whether it will come under the term
denomination or not.
d) Rajapaksha is more of nature-scientific organization and does not fall within the ambit of denomination.
Q 54. 60260388 Ramakrishna Mathh and mission is an organization that considers the Hindu monk Shri Ramakrishna as an avatar of God Vishnu
and also prays for his disciple Swami Vivekananda. It has hundreds of centers across India and abroad. Can this organization be considered as a
religious denomination under article 26?
a) Ramakrishna Mission can be considered as a religious denomination under article 26 of the constitution.
b) Ramakrishna mission has its centers abroad too and people of various religion attend the same, it is not a denomination.
c) The facts in the passage are not sufficient to conclude whether it is a denomination or not.
d) Ramakrishna mutt is not a religion as Ramakrishna is not accepted as a god in Hindu religion.
Q 55. 60260388 Tirupura Ramaswami was a famous temple in the state of Harkand. Over the years the popularity of the temple had grown
immensely leading to an immense influx of devotees round the year. With tremendous money collection the government felt there was a necessity of
handing the power of administration and maintenance of the temple to the government. The same was done by taking away the rights from a
religious denomination. Is it violative of article 26?
a) The act is not violative of article 26 as it was done for the public welfare and maintenance of economic accounts.
b) The act is violative of article 26 and the power of the denomination to manage a religious institution cannot be taken away.
c) The power of a religious denomination to manage a temple can be taken away for the maintenance of accounts and public funds.
d) None of the above.
Q 56. 60260388 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above-given passage?
a)
The practice of acquiring temples originated in independent India due to the passing of the Hindu Religious and Charitable Endowments Act, 1951.
b) The Supreme Court elaborated on the essentials of a denomination in the case of SP Mittal V. Union of India.
c)
The denomination must also follow practices and beliefs that are not exclusively a part of that religion, but are followed in addition or in the place of
other practices and beliefs of that religion.
Q 57. 60260388 In which of the following situations can the acquisition of the temple by the government be challenged?
a) A temple D is being governed by the government, gives it to a denomination to govern the same and takes it back after some years.
b)
A temple C which was in ruins due to non-maintenance by a denomination was improvised by the government. The denomination now claims it back
c) Temple B was built by a denomination. After 5 years the government wants to take over the same.
d)
A religious tree was being planned to be chopped down as a part of the denomination's culture. The government takes it over and stops the same.
Passage – 2
According to Indian Contract Act, 1872 "Offer" is define under Section 2(a): "When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain
from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a Proposal". The person who is
making the proposal is called offeror or promisor or proposer and the person to whom the proposal is made is called as offeree or promise.
Offer must be communicated-

Communication of offer is the most primary thing which is to be done for a valid offer. The offeror must communicate the offer to the offeree. The
communication can be either in oral or written form. The offer can directly communicate to the person specific to whom it is offered or it can be in
general in nature. In case of Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt, The High Court of Allahabad that knowledge and acceptance of a proposal must be
communicated to people are the basic essentials in order to constitute a valid contract. The person can claim reward if he gives his consent and
performs the terms of the proposal.
Must create a legal obligation-

A valid offer creates a legal relationship which means there must be an intention of the offeror to work under legal obligation or to be legally bound by
law not under social obligation. In case of Balfour v. Balfour, There were married couple. Husband promised to his wife to send £30 per month. But
my husband failed to do so. Then wife filed the case against him and it was held that there was no intention to create a legal relationship. Thus, the
agreement was not valid.
Definite, unambiguous and certain in nature:

Offer must be certain as specified in [Section 29], it must be unambiguous means that the thing offered must be clearly specified.
It must be distinguished from invitation to offer-
The offer makes a person enter into a legally binding contract whereas invitation to offer invites the person to enter into the contract.
It may be general or specific in nature-

The offer can be given to the public at large in general by advertisement in newspapers etc. or it can be given to a specific person too.
Offer must be made with a view to obtain the assent - The offeror must obtain consent which should be "free" in nature as define under Section
14 as it define it should not be taken under coercion [section 15], undue influence
Q 58. 60260388 D says to B that he might be interested in buying C's car which C was looking to sell. D also mentioned that he wouldn't pay more
than 5 lakhs for the same. B mentioned to C that D was interested in the car. B prepared the documents to sell the car to D for 10 lakhs. Is there an
offer in the given case?
a) There is an offer from D to B in the given case.
b) The offer in the given case flows from B to C and not D to C and hence the document cannot be deemed to be legal.
c) There is no offer in the given case.
d) There is a conditional offer in the given case and accepting the same is up on B.
Q 59. 60260388 B was roaming around in a mall. The mall had a fitness center which had a banner stating 'Run 2 km in 10 mins on our treadmill
and win Rs. 1000". B tried the same on the allotted treadmill and completed 2 kms in 8 mins. Now the fitness center refuses to give the money. Pick
the right answer.
a) Fitness center is not liable to pay the money as the offer was not made to B particularly.
b) Fitness center is not liable to pay B as he did not inform them before trying out the challenge.
c) Fitness centers are liable to pay only to that extent which they want to and not the entire full amount of 1000 rupees.
d) Fitness center is liable to pay B the amount of 1000 rupees.
Q 60. 60260388 A and B were class 5th students. Once A borrowed B's eraser. A promised B that he will give an extra-large candy the next day.
However, A did not bring the candy. B was upset and down regarding the same. Now B's parents want to issue a legal notice against A's parents for
not giving the candy. Decide.
a) H's parents can issue a legal notice against A's parents in the given case.
b) In the given case a legal action can be initiated only by B against A and not their parents for breaking the promise.
c) There can be no legal action as there was never a contract in the first place.
d) There was an implied contract in the given case and a legal notice can be issued for injunction.
Q 61. 60260388 Which of the following statements is contradictory to the idea that is being presented in the passage?
a) Every offer that is being made must be with the view of obtaining consent.
b) Intention to create legal obligation is an essential part of a contract.
c) Offeror can indirectly communicate the offer to the offeree.
d) Offer must be definite, certain and unambiguous in nature.
Q 62. 60260388 C mentions to D that he might be willing to sell his car in the coming two months or after 1 year. He also mentions that he is looking
for customers like D. Is there a valid offer in the given case?
a) There is a valid offer in the given case as C has offered to sell his car.
b) There is a valid offer in the given case as C has established his intention to sell his car to D.
c) There isn't a valid offer in the given case as the offer is not definite.
d) There is a valid and legally binding offer.
Passage – 3
Originalism is the view that the Constitution should be interpreted according to its original meaning. This school of thought came to the fore with the
arguments of Herbert Wechsler on neutral principles to guide constitutional interpretation. In his article in the Harvard Law Review, Wechsler argues
that the courts should practice constraint on adjudication i.e., the grounds for decisions must be neutral and general. Criticizing the decision in Brown
v. Board of Education, Wechsler observed that courts must choose principles which they are willing to apply neutrally to all cases that may fairly be
said to fall within them, which, in his opinion, were essential if the Supreme Court was not to be a naked power organ.
The "textualist" theory or the "plain meaning" theory of interpretation is, according to Robert Post, not a theory at all; it is nothing but a description of
what happens when the meaning of the constitutional text is not problematic. This approach was championed by Justice Scalia of the Supreme Court
of the United States and Judge Easterbrooke of the United States Court of Appeal for the Seventh Circuit. Both Justice Scalia and Judge
Easterbrooke emphasize the need to imagine a 'reasonable reader' whose mission is to find out "what Congress meant by what it said. In short,
textualists advocate that interpretation should focus upon what the text would reasonably be understood to mean, rather than upon what it was
intended to mean.
The Doctrinalist approach involves resolving contemporary constitutional controversies by interpreting past precedents. The focus of this school of
thought is the idea that the principle underlying a past decision provides the standard for interpreting the Constitution in future cases. Mark Graber
provides a simple example to demonstrate this thought: if constitutional decision-makers have declared that the Constitution protects the right to burn
the flag of the United States (U.S.), then the same principle should unequivocally compel constitutional decision-makers to declare that the
Constitution protects the right to burn a map of the United States or the state flag of Texas.
Structuralists use the overall constitutional arrangement of offices, powers, and relationships or rather "the meaning of the Constitution as a whole",
to solve hard cases. The U.S. Constitution's leading structural principles are federalism, separation of powers and democracy even though none are
stated explicitly in the constitutional text. Charles Black, the main proponent of structuralism, maintains that structuralism provides an "inference from
the structures and relationships created by the constitution in all its parts or in some principal part" rather than an "exegesis of a particular textual
passage". In doing so, a structuralist refuses to answer questions concerning the origin of law, the legislative intent or the consequences and
concerns himself only with the relationship that exists among legal texts. The structuralist sees laws only as signs that in turn refer to other signs. In
doing so, the structuralist sets aside any arguments made to justify the existence of laws or to criticize them.
Q 63. 60260388 How can one differentiate the idea of originalism from the idea of textualist theory in terms of constitutionalism?
a) The idea of originalism clings on to the originality of the text while the textualist approach is the interpretation of simple straight reading.
b)
The textualist approach is far more meaningful in terms of presentation of structuralized ideas while the originalism revolves around the idea of
universal approach.
c)
The originalism revolves around contemporary constitutional controversies while the textualist approach makes the interpretation simple and
straightforward.
d)
The textualist approach is not a theory at all and neither is originalism. Both are presentations of analysis of textual interpretation in a structuralized
manner.
Q 64. 60260388 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?
a)
The U.S. Constitution's leading structural principles are federalism, separation of powers and democracy even though none are stated explicitly in
the constitutional text.
b)
If constitutional decision-makers have declared that the Constitution protects the right to burn the flag of the United States (U.S.), then the same
principle should unequivocally compel constitutional decision-makers to declare that the Constitution protects the right to burn a map of the United
States or the state flag of Texas.
c) Wechsler appreciated the brown v board of education for upholding the idea of originalism.
Q 65. 60260388 Pick the option which is not rightly matched from the following.
a)
The structuralists- Use the overall constitutional arrangement of offices, powers, and relationships or rather "the meaning of the Constitution as a
whole", to solve hard cases.
b)
The textualists- Criticize the concept of a well-established constitution as it constricts the ability of law to evolve according to the needs of the time.
c) The originalists- - are of the view that the Constitution should be interpreted according to its original meaning.
d) The Doctrinalist- involves resolving contemporary constitutional controversies by interpreting past precedents.
Q 66. 60260388 How does Mark Gaber explain the idea of the Doctrinalist in the passage?
a) Mark Gaber elaborately explains the idea of the doctrinalists by taking a real life example from the colonial period.
b) Mark Gaber explains the idea of doctrinalists with the help of an analogy.
c) Mark Gaber explains the idea of doctrinalists with the help of a reference.
d) Mark Gaber explains the idea of doctrinalists by taking reference of the previous socio-philosophical thinkers.
Q 67. 60260388 Which of the following can be considered as a criticism to the idea of Structuralists?
a) The idea of structuralists is way more general than what it ought to be in real life.
b) Structuralists refuse to answer the questions concerning the origin of law, the legislative intent or the consequences whichare very important.
c) Structuralists basically condemn the ability of the Supreme court in handling very well-knit cases.
Passage – 4
Right of private defence of body and property is the inherent right of an individual which must be encouraged in every citizen of the society in order to
maintain fundamental freedom in the society. The right of private defence is available against all those persons who threaten to cause acts which are
illegal and forbidden by law. The offences caused by the wrongdoer shall be of that nature which automatically creates the reasonable apprehension
of threat and danger in the mind of a person for which he shall take the protection of public authorities.
In the instant case of Darshan singh v. state of Punjab anr on 15 Jan. 2010 guidelines regarding right to private defence was stated-
• Self-help is the basic rule of law
• When there is an imminent threat or danger to the life of a person the right of private defence can be exercised.
• Reasonable apprehension of threat can also give rise to the right of private defence.
• Proportionate force must be used by the person while exercising the right.
• The accused is not required to prove the presence of private defence beyond the reasonable doubt.
• Whenever there is an imminent threat or danger to the life of a person or of sustaining such bodily injury, a person can cause death or other harm to
the assailant.
The right of private defence is the right recognized by law for the protection of an individual from any kind of external threat to the body and property.
Such rights are nowadays being misused in various ways. This right is often used for giving unlawful justifications for the crime committed. This right
is also used with the malicious intention to take revenge or vengeance. Such misuse puts pressure on courts to decide a matter with full reasonability
and rationality. Every aspect of the matter is to be dealt with critical analysis so that justice must prevail.
The right to private defence in certain situations may not be available to a person. As stated in section 99 of IPC following are the limitations-
• If a person does an act with a benevolent intention which does not give rise to the assumption of any kind of threat or danger.
• Proportionate force is to be used
• When the person has time to recourse and take protection of the public official.
• Killing another person merely on the apprehension of death.
• If an act is done or directed by a public official with bonafide intention, that is, for the welfare of the general public, and when the act was of such
nature that the person has time to take remedial measures and protection of the public authorities.
Q 68. 60260388 B a thief broke into C's house at night. He took a knife as his weapon. C realized the presence of a thief in his house and got his
pistol. Seeing the pistol, B started running. C shot B which seriously injured him. C claims the right of private defense. Decide.
a) The act of C was in pursuance of right of private defense as he was defending his house from a thief.
b) The act of C was not a private defense as B had already started running after seeing the pistol.
c) The act of C is a private defense as he shot B with the intention of handing him over to the police.
d) The act of C is a private defense as the action was committed within his property and B was still committing trespass.
Q 69. 60260388 A, a rowdy and a goon once started harassing B, a small statured man in a local Dhaba. A started slapping B. A was unaware that B
was a martial arts expert. Losing his cool B showcased his martial arts skills over A. At the first instance A fell on the ground semi-conscious. B
attacked further which sent A to a coma. Was there private defense in the given case?
a) There was private defense in the given case as he initiated an attack on B and slapped him vigorously.
b) There was no private defense from the moment A fell on the ground semi-conscious.
c) There was private defense available in the given case as A was a rowdy and a Goon.
d) There was no private defense as B was a martial arts expert and his skills are better than that of A.
Q 70. 60260388 A was a hard-working farmer. After a lot of dedication his crops had come up beautifully and were ripe for sowing. B a lazy and
loathsome person was jealous of A's success. He along with some others came to A's field and started setting the crops on fire. A brought a stick and
beat the miscreants and chased them away. Is there a right of private defense in the given case?
a) No, there was no private defense as there was no harm to A's body or for his family members.
b) There was private defense as the right to private defense extends to private defense of property too.
c) There was no private defense as he could have called up the police or could have found other possible solutions.
d) There was private defense but the defense could have been executed by setting fire to B's farm.
Q 71. 60260388 B was kidnapped by a group of armed robbers. B was asked to kill A with a gunpoint at his head. He was threatened that failing to
kill A he would be killed. With no choice B killed A. Is there the right of self-defense in the given case?
a) There is a right of self defense as his acts were under necessity and failing to do the act would lead to his death.
b) There is a right of self defense in the given case as this is an exceptional circumstance.
c) There is no right of self defense as the right of self defense does not extend to killing another on the apprehension of one's death.
Q 72. 60260388 Which of the following is wrong in the light of the above given passage?
a) Basic guidelines regarding the right of private defense has been mentioned in the case of Darshan Singh v. State of Punjab anr.
b) Right of private defense is not available if an act is done or directed by a public official with bonafide intention.
c) Right of defense is often used for giving unlawful justifications for the crime committed.
Passage – 5
Harmonious construction is a principle of statutory interpretation used in the Indian legal system. It holds that when two provisions of a legal text
seem to conflict, they should be interpreted so that each has a separate effect and neither is redundant or nullified. When there is a conflict between
two or more statues or two or more parts of a statute then the rule of harmonious construction needs to be adopted. The rule follows a very simple
premise that every statute has a purpose and intent as per law and should be read as a whole. The interpretation consistent of all the provisions of
the statute should be adopted. In the case in which it shall be impossible to harmonize both the provisions, the court's decision regarding the
provision shall prevail. The rule of harmonious construction is the thumb rule to interpretation of any statute. An interpretation which makes the
enactment a consistent whole, should be the aim of the Courts and a construction which avoids inconsistency or repugnancy between the various
sections or parts of the statute should be adopted. The Courts should avoid "a head on clash", in the words of the Apex Court, between the different
parts of an enactment and conflict between the various provisions should be sought to be harmonized. The normal presumption should be
consistency and it should not be assumed that what is given with one hand by the legislature is sought to be taken away by the other. The rule of
harmonious construction has been tersely explained by the Supreme Court thus, "When there are, in an enactment two provisions which cannot be
reconciled with each other, they should be so interpreted, that if possible, effect should be given to both. A construction which makes one portion of
the enactment a dead letter should be avoided since harmonization is not equivalent to destruction."
Harmonious Construction should be applied to statutory rules and courts should avoid absurd or unintended results. It should be resorted to making
the provision meaningful in the context. It should be in consonance with the intention of Rule makers. Rule of Harmonious construction is applicable
to subordinate legislatures also.
The rule of harmonious construction can also be used for resolving a conflict between a provision in the Act and a rule made under the Act. Further
this principle is also used to resolve a conflict between two different Acts and in the making of statutory rules and statutory orders. But in case there
are two remedies for a situation, one general and one specific, and both are inconsistent with each other, they continue to hold good for the
concerned person to choose from, until he elects one of them.
In Venkataramana Devaru v. State of Mysore, AIR 1958 SC 255 the Supreme Court applied the rule of harmonious construction in resolving a conflict
between Articles 25(2)(b) and 26(b) of the Constitution and it was held that the right of every religious denomination or any section thereof to manage
its own affairs in matters of religion [Article 26(b)] is subject to a law made by a State providing for social welfare and reform or throwing open of
Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus [Article 25(2)(b)].
Q 73. 60260388 Which of the following is not one of the purposes of the rule of harmonious construction?
a) Harmonious Construction should be applied to statutory rules and courts should avoid absurd or unintended results
b) Harmonious construction should be applied to make sure that the court would be able to come to the best possible conclusion out of the conduct.
c) Harmonious construction is applied to safeguard executive positions when there is a seemingly possible threat though a legal process.
d) Rule of harmonious construction is primarily used to dissuade clashes between the statutes.
a) Harmonious construction should be resorted to making the provision meaningful in the context of the said case.
b) An interpretation which makes the enactment a consistent whole, should be the aim of the Courts.
c)
In case there are two remedies for a situation, one general and one specific, and both are inconsistent with each other, they continue to hold good for
the concerned person to choose from, until he elects one of them.
d) The rule follows a very simple premise that every statute should be read in light of another statute or an enactment.
Q 75. 60260388 What did the court analyze in the case of Venkataramana Devaru v. State of Mysore?
a) The Supreme Court applied the rule of harmonious construction in resolving a conflict between Articles 25(2)(b) and 26(b) of the Constitution.
b) The court used the application of harmonious construction to arrive at a standpoint regarding the constitutional ambit of a law.
c) The court in the case of Venkataramana Devaru used the principle of harmonious construction for the first time.
d) Both (a) and (b).
Q 76. 60260388 According to the passage what should the courts avoid while interpreting the statutes?
a)
The Courts should avoid "a head on clash", in the words of the Apex Court, between the different parts of an enactment and conflict between the
various provisions should be sought to be harmonized.
b)
In case there are two remedies for a situation, one general and one specific, and both are inconsistent with each other, they continue to hold good for
the concerned person to choose from, until he elects one of them.
c) Courts should avoid inconsistency or repugnancy between the various sections or parts of the statute should be adopted.
d) Both (a) and (c)
Q 77. 60260388 Is the rule of Harmonious provision applicable to the subordinate provision also?
a) Yes, always.
b) Only in criminal laws and statutes.
c) No, only the higher provisions and national laws can be analyzed through this rule.
d) The passage does not provide an answer to the question.
Passage – 6
The right to a fair hearing requires that individuals should not be penalized by decisions affecting their rights especially their fundamental rights
unless it is done according to all the procedures established by the law in Article 21 of the Constitution of India, that means they should be given prior
notice of the case and definitely a fair opportunity to answer and present their own case.
Notice means that before any action is taken, the affected party must be given the notice to show cause against the proposed action and the court
should seek his explanation. And hearing means that a reasonable amount of opportunity to provide evidence should be provided to the person
affected by it and if it is passed without providing sufficient chances the decision should be stated as invalid and must be set aside.
The maxim Audi Alteram Partem is considered the principle of fundamental justice or equity or the principle of natural justice. This principle includes
the rights of a party to be heard or to have a fair opportunity to challenge the evidence presented by the other party, rights to present evidence or to
have a council. The principle basically means no person shall be condemned, punished or have any property or legal right being compromised by the
law without being heard. In the case of Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works, the plaintiff was a builder who was being employed to build a house
within the Wandsworth district Section 76 of the Metropolis Local Management Act empowers the district board to alter or demolish a house only
where the builder was in negligence to give prior notice of building. The board, without giving any further information, demolished the house. The
demolition of the house was considered unlawful just because the metropolitan board didn't give the plaintiff a hearing opportunity. It was clearly
mentioned in the case that no one can be deprived of his/her property by an administrative authority, without an opportunity of being heard.
The maxim Nemo judex in causa sua is applied to the appearance of any possible bias, even if there is none, forjustice should not only be done but
also should be seen to be done. The legal effect of a breach of natural justice is to stop the procedures and render any judgement invalid, to be
quashed or appealed but can be remitted for a valid re-hearing. The principle of the maxim is not only confined to the case where the judge is an
actual party to the case, but applies to a cause in which he has a legal or pecuniary interest such that the judges deciding the matter should not be
influenced by their personal interest, but to avoid the appearance of labouring under such an influence. This principle is based on the case of Dimes
vs Grand Junction Canal in which it was held that 'the judgement was done on the grounds of interest and that the decree of the judgement was
therefore voidable and must be consequently reversed'.
It is an insignificant necessity of the characteristic equity that the authority giving the decision must be unbiased, acting reasonably without prejudice.
The maxim ensures that the adjudicator must not have any interest or bias in the case he is deciding.
Q 78. 60260388 In the state of Rajghar, a woman was sexually assaulted and murdered by setting her off on fire. The incident shook the entire
country and it was all over the news. Due to extreme pressure, the police conducted an extremely sophisticated investigation and two accused were
taken into custody, Overwhelming evidence was found against both the accused. The lawyer's association of Rajghar decided not to represent the
accused. The judge sentenced the two accused to life imprisonment without allowing the two to be heard. Is the action of the judge justified?
a) The action of the judge is justified as there was overwhelming evidence against the two accused and speedy justice was necessary.
b) The action of the judge is not justified as it is violative of principle of natural justice and audi alteram partem.
c) Since it is an exceptional case, the action of the judge is justified and there are precedents for this action.
d) The action of the judge is not justified as it is violative of the principle of Sue generis.
Q 79. 60260388 B was a judicial magistrate in the city of Raj Nagar. A case came before B in which B's nephew was the primary accused. There
were also rumors that B's personal pecuniary interest was also involved in the case. Decide the most suitable answer from the following.
a) If the allegations stand to be true, the principle of Nemo judex in causa sua will be violated.
b) In the given case, there are only allegations and the same are not to be taken into consideration.
c)
A judge is devoid of all familial ties when hearing a case, hence the possible bias towards his nephew and his own pecuniary interest should be ruled
out.
d) The prosecution can contest the change of judge because of B's relationship with the accused, not because of his primary interests.
Q 80. 60260388 The people living in Banswal colony were given notice to move to their newly allotted piece of land as the colony was being
acquired by the government for construction of a railway line. The residents were asked to leave before the 25th of the same month. On the 26th
morning the municipality brought in cranes and destroyed the buildings. One C whose family had still not left were all injured. Later it was revealed
that C could not leave owing to ill health of his son. Has the principle of audi alteram partem been violated?
a) The principle of audi alteram partem has not been violated as a notice to vacate before the 25th was already given.
b) The principle of audi alteram partem is being violated in the given case.
c) The given case does not involve the principle of audi alteram partem.
d) None of the above
Q 81. 60260388 D was one of the judges of the High court of Har Pradesh. A case about LGBTQ rights came before D. D had a history of being
hostile towards LGBTQ and had rejected their rights earlier in a couple of cases. The petitioners applied for the change of judge owing to the
possibility of bias. Is their contention valid?
a) The contention of the petitioners is not valid as they are questioning the authority and credibility of the judge.
b) The contention of the petitioners is valid as there is a possibility of bias and it would defeat the principle of natural justice.
c) The contention of the petitioners is only to deviate the attention of the matter and create a media trial about the case.
d) The contention of the petitioners is valid as it is important to uphold the rights of the LGBTQ community who form a part of the minority.
a)
The principle of the maxim Nemo judex in causa sua is not only confined to the case where the judge is an actual party to the case, but applies to a
cause in which he has a legal or pecuniary interest.
b)
Notice means that before any action is taken, the affected party must be given the notice to show cause against the proposed action and the court
should seek his explanation.
c) The maxim Audi Alteram Partem is considered the principle of fundamental justice or equity or the principle of natural justice
d)
The principle of sui generis basically means no person shall be condemned, punished or have any property or legal right being compromised by the
law without being heard.
Q 83. 60260388 In the principle of Nemo judex in causa sua, what is considered essential to avoid in judicial decisions?
a) Avoiding delay in the delivery of justice.
b) Avoiding any appearance of bias or personal interest by the judge.
c) Ensuring that all parties have legal representation.
d) Ensuring that the decision is based solely on the evidence presented.
Q 84. 60260388 The maxim "Audi Alteram Partem" encompasses several rights within the principle of natural justice. Which of the following is NOT
a right included under this maxim as described in the passage?
a) The right of a party to be heard in their own defense.
b) The right to have a decision reviewed by a higher court.
c) The right to challenge the evidence presented by the opposing party.
d) The right to present evidence and have legal counsel.
Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages and answer the questions that follow.
Passage – 1
Of all the racist episodes that the Yorkshire cricketer Azeem Rafiq recounted in his witness statement to a UK parliamentary committee, it's the
memory failure of two individuals that tells the tale of the state of affairs. The current England Test captain Joe Root, who Rafiq called a "good guy",
has said he couldn't recollect any unsavoury episodes. Azeem has made it clear that Root was present when others called him "Paki" on many
occasions but he did not intervene. Former captain Michael Vaughan has denied that he ever told Rafiq and three other Asian-origin cricketers that
"there are too many of you lot". When celebrated captains don't feel the need to confront the problem, it is no wonder that racists, by and large, get
away with it. Telling people to "sit near the loos" or calling them "elephant washers" (as Rafiq says Matthew Hoggard, former bowler, would do) isn't
banter. When the system covers it up, this toxicity takes a toll on those like Rafiq who are at the receiving end.
Dr Thomas Fletcher, whose report about community engagement in the Yorkshire and England Cricket board was referenced in Rafiq's witness
statement, told this newspaper that he didn't hear a word from the establishment after he had tabled it. His study tried to find out why only very few
British Asians progress through the professional ranks when about 30 per cent of young people who play cricket in the country belong to these
groups. Racism and other hurdles conspire to make sure that the system turns whiter and whiter as they go forward. With Lord Kamlesh Patel taking
over Yorkshire cricket, discussion in parliament over racism in cricket, public shaming of big names, England cricket finds itself at a watershed
moment.
Q 85. 60260388 Which of the following will capture the meaning of the first paragraph?
a) When others behave in a racist way, then a good guy has the obligation to step in.
b) When a good guy withdraws, little hope that the conscience of others will be stirred.
c) When good guys turn racist, then one shouldn't have any expectation from others.
d) The best illustration of the extent of the problem is that even good guys are racist.
Q 86. 60260388 Which of the following, if true, will not weaken the assertion by the author?
a) British Indian cricketers did not regularly call native Britishers by names which mocked their culture or heritage.
b) Hoggard called all British cricketers as "elephant washers", not just the immigrants or non-native Britishers.
c) New and young players in a cricket team are often asked to sit near loo, in the dressing room.
d) Azeem Rafiq is not from Pakistan, yet he never corrected those who called him Paki.
Q 87. 60260388 Which of the inference can be drawn from the following statement and its context:" Dr Thomas Fletcher, whose report about
community engagement in the Yorkshire and England Cricket board was referenced in Rafiq's witness statement, told this newspaper that he didn't
hear a word from the establishment after he had tabled it"?
a) Board was not interested in reading the report. b) Board was not concerned about the racial discrimination.
c) Board wanted to brush the whole issue under the carpet. d) Board did not believe in the credibility of Thomas Fletcher.
Q 88. 60260388 Which of the following does NOT strive to weaken the idea of the author as expressed in the statement "Racism and other hurdles
conspire to make sure that the system turns whiter and whiter as they go forward"?
a) Many hurdles can still be leaped over by ambition and hard work.
b) Will a parent willingly send their kid into an apparently poisoned environment?
c) Most of those who claim being racism victims were rejected early on in their career.
d) Most of those who were racially abused preferred not to complain.
Q 89. 60260388 Which of the following is an assumption inherent in the statement 'When celebrated captains don't feel the need to confront the
problem, it is no wonder that racists, by and large, get away with it"?
a) Captains have a right to interfere in a private conversation between players.
b) Captains are obliged to interfere if something unseemly is said or done between players.
c) Celebrated captains carry more pull with the players than other captains and hence must interject.
d) Players feel protected if they are not castigated publicly for their wrongdoing, by their captains.
Q 90. 60260388 In the context of the passage, what is the significance of, “Telling people to "sit near the loos" or calling them "elephant washers"
(as Rafiq says Matthew Hoggard, former bowler, would do) isn't banter.” ?
a) It implies that Matthew Hoggard engaged in friendly banter with Azeem Rafiq.
b) It suggests that the terms "sit near the loos" and "elephant washers" are acceptable banter in cricket culture.
c) It argues that Azeem Rafiq's accusations against Matthew Hoggard are unfounded.
d) It emphasizes that the actions described are not harmless jokes or banter, but rather offensive and unacceptable behavior.
Passage – 2
The move by Sudan's military to dissolve the Sovereignty Council where it shared power with civilian leaders has thrown the African country's fragile
transition from dictatorship to democracy into chaos. Almost three years ago, tens of thousands of Sudanese rose against the regime of Omar al-
Bashir in what they call a "revolution" that eventually led to the dictator's fall in April 2019. Ever since, the military and leaders of the civilian
movement came together to form a transitional government. In their agreement, the acting Prime Minister would run the day-to-day affairs while the
military chief would remain the leader of the Sovereignty Council for two years. Lt. Gen. Abdel Fattah al-Burhan, the military chief, was scheduled to
hand over the leadership of the transitional government to the civilian leadership in a few weeks. Instead, he disbanded the government, proclaimed
himself the new leader, declared a state of emergency and imprisoned the civilian leaders, including Prime Minister Abdalla Hamdok. Tensions were
brewing in recent weeks. Pro-military mobs had been carrying out protests demanding the government's removal amid soaring prices of essentials.
Port Sudan, the country's largest port, on the Red Sea, had been blockaded by a tribal group, with help from the military, which worsened the
economic situation, including acute shortages of food, currency and fuel. The civilian leadership had accused the military of exploiting the economic
crisis. The overthrow of the Bashir regime and the promised democratic transition were the best hopes for Sudan to end its international isolation,
heal the wounds of decades of oppression and state violence, and build a stable economic and political order in an otherwise violence-ridden Horn of
Africa. Sudan had taken the steps in that direction. The country was also gearing up to organise its first free and fair elections in decades. But the
power-hungry generals appear to be more concerned about protecting their interests, which they feared would be at risk had a democratic
government taken full control of the country. After all, Sudan's military cannot absolve itself from whatever allegations Bashir is facing.
Q 91. 60260388 Which of the following will the author disagree with?
a) Political parties should seek military help from other countries.
b) The military should restore the transition government and allow free elections.
c) Neither (a) nor (b)
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 92. 60260388 In the context of the passage, which of the following solution for the future is the author most likely to agree with?
I. Military should desist from more violence.
II. Military should release all the arrested leaders and restore the transition government.
III. Military should let free elections decide the future of the country.
a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III
Q 93. 60260388 Which of the following would make the position of the military generals MOST untenable?
a) Military rulers face a stiff challenge from the aggrieved public.
b) The protesters who brought down Bashir are back on the streets fighting for democracy.
c) A violent showdown between democratic parties and military is most likely.
d) International pressure is mounting on Sudan to extradite Bashir and others involved in war crimes.
Q 94. 60260388 Which of the following can inferred to be the biggest fear of the military rulers in handing over the reins to the civilian government?
a) That the political parties will seek retribution.
b) That military might lose some of its might and control in a democratic set-up.
c) That the old power sharing agreement may not be honored.
d) That military will be kept out of the democratic power structure.
Q 95. 60260388 Which of the following will strengthen the idea of the statement "Sudan had taken the steps in that direction"?
a) Five years back, U.S. removed Sudan from the list of state sponsors of terrorism and announced financial aid.
b) IMF had reached a $50 billion loan agreement with the transitional government.
c) The civilian leaders were going to send Bashir to The Hague to be prosecuted for war crimes.
d) Some of the countries with dictatorship government like North Korea etc. have broken off ties with Sudan.
Q 96. 60260388 The author states that, “The overthrow of the Bashir regime and the promised democratic transition were the best hopes for Sudan
to end its international isolation, heal the wounds of decades of oppression and state violence, and build a stable economic and political order in an
otherwise violence-ridden Horn of Africa.” For this statement to be true, with which of the following statements must the author most likely agree?
a) The military's dissolution of the Sovereignty Council was a necessary step for Sudan's stability.
b) The economic crisis in Sudan was primarily caused by the civilian leadership.
c) The military generals are justified in prioritizing their interests over a democratic government.
d) The overthrow of the Bashir regime and a promised democratic transition were crucial for Sudan's progress and stability.
Passage – 3
The time may have come for a more concerted effort by the Government and the protesting farmers to find a solution to the prolonged impasse over
the three agriculture-related laws enacted last year. The Supreme Court has emphasised that public roads cannot be blocked indefinitely by
protesters. In an observation in the context of more petitions from members of the public, complaining that their right of free movement has been
curtailed by the ongoing protests by farmers, the Court has said a solution has to be found, that roads cannot be blocked for long and there is no
reason for it to lay down the law again and again. Even while denying that they are responsible for the hardship faced by the public, and blaming the
police for the blockade, the farmers say they should be allowed to continue their agitation at the Ramlila Maidan. The conflict between the two
competing rights is not the only aspect that requires immediate attention. There seems to be no attempt to break the deadlock on the core issue, with
the farmers demanding an outright repeal of the laws and statutory validation for the claim that the MSP regime will not come to an end. The two core
demands have not seen any breakthrough. It is not out of place to recall that an expert committee constituted by the Court has submitted its report,
but nothing has been heard about it after that. To an extent, the fact that the Court has not taken it up again or made the report public may be a factor
in the continuing impasse. An expedited hearing that involves further review of the panel's recommendations, or any such similar initiative from the
Government, is needed to arrive at a solution. The objective must not be merely to resolve the incidental issue of blocked roads, but to reconcile or
eliminate the deep differences over what the Government sees as necessary reforms in the farm sector. Any reform that seeks to eliminate
distortions in the sector must also win the confidence of farmers, the principal stakeholders.
Q 97. 60260388 Which of the following action by the government will be MOST strongly endorsed by the author?
a) Government must immediately accede to both the core demands of the farmers.
b) Government is trying to sidestep the core issues and whiling time as the blockade continues.
c) Government must enforce Supreme Court's orders by removing the blockade.
d) Government needs to devise a solution for core issues, and not merely for road blocks.
Q 98. 60260388 What is the primary message of the author in the passage?
a) It's time to end the impasse. b) The prolonged unnecessary impasse.
c) The impasse over three farm laws. d) The impasse overshadows key issues.
Q 99. 60260388 Which of the following can definitely not be inferred from the Supreme Court's observations about the blockade?
a) The reference was to last year's judgment on the Shaheen Bagh protest against the Citizenship. (Amendment) Act.
b) Public ways and public spaces cannot be blocked indefinitely even during a peaceful protest.
c) The observation can be seen as a disapproval of the tactic of holding interminable protests.
d) The observation can be seen as an implicit criticism of the Government for being unable to find a solution. to the farmers' grievances.
Q 100. 60260388 Which two rights are being referred to in the statement "The conflict between the two competing rights is not the only aspect that
requires immediate attention"?
a) Freedom to select the protest venue and right to allocate the venue.
b) Right to enact the legislation and freedom to protest unencumbered.
c) Freedom to assemble peacefully and right to commute safely.
d) Freedom to protest freely and the right to free movement of the public.
Q 101. 60260388 Which of the following if true would be an example of a goodwill gesture by the government towards the farmers to win their trust?
I. To not prosecute the farmers for the unsavory violent incidents caused by them on Republic Day when the protest rolled into the Capital
II. Compromise to a partial agreement on decriminalizing stubble-burning and safeguarding power subsidies as demanded by farmers.
a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
Q 102. 60260388 Based on the information provided, the right of free movement can be best described as?
a) A privilege enjoyed only by the protesting farmers.
b) A right that should be curtailed for the sake of resolving the road blockades.
c) A fundamental right that the public feel has been curtailed by the ongoing protests.
d) A responsibility that the farmers must prioritize over their agitation at the Ramlila Maidan.
Passage – 4
Union Home Minister Amit Shah's first visit to Jammu & Kashmir after August 5, 2019 when Parliament diluted Article 370 of the Constitution that
granted it a "special status" and downgraded and bifurcated the State into two Union Territories, took place against the grim background of the
killings of 11 civilians by terrorists in one month. J&K has been under central rule since June 2018 and the political and parliamentary subterfuge in
reorganising the erstwhile State still rankles as a discordant chapter of India's experiments in federalism. Mr. Shah used the three-day visit to
underscore the progress J&K has made since its reorganisation - the uptick in tourist inflow and the string of development and welfare projects. As
for the stringent curbs that the people have had to endure meanwhile, Mr. Shah said those were bitter pills that helped save lives. He said "three
families" had held J&K to ransom. Whether or not politics in J&K has been any more or less corrupt than other parts of the country is anyone's guess,
but it is a matter of fact that the former State had a poverty rate of 10.35% against the national average of 21.92%. The Centre has been successful
in removing the question of independence or even autonomy from the conversation on Kashmir. But to pretend that there is no political question in
Kashmir to be discussed or resolved is reckless. Besides trying to systematically delegitimise the mainstream parties, the policy also sought to build
an entirely new political apparatus in the Union Territory. Mr. Shah's messaging over three days emphasised the divisions between the people of the
Valley and Jammu, and berated political leaders. True, he made the right gestures in terms of visiting victims of recent violence and interactions with
locals but that is far from enough. More than 700 people had to be detained ahead of his visit, which is instructive of the continuing volatility in the
Valley.
Q 103. 60260388 Which of the following correctly captures the primary argument of the passage?
a) The Centre seems unclear about the political process to be followed in Jammu and Kashmir.
b) The Center is oblivious to the need for establishing normalcy in Jammu and Kashmir.
c) Policy confusion resulting in mixed messaging is the bane of the Center's efforts to restore peace.
d) The prospects of peace and happiness looks dim during Amit Shah's three-day visit to J&K.
Q 104. 60260388 Which of the following would be an apt logical corollary to the last paragraph of the passage?
a) Mr. Shah's trip is the latest in a series of visits by Ministers.
b) The Centre's outreach is indeed a welcome step for the valley.
c) Center needs to be more honest and open to be effective.
d) Center has started on the right note but needs to do more.
Q 105. 60260388 Which of the following cannot be inferred to be a message in Amit Shah's proclamations?
a) To undermine the Valley against Jammu. b) To highlight the contrast in the situation.
c) To evoke the promise of economic growth. d) To reiterate the denouncement of the local politicians.
Q 106. 60260388 Which of the following if true will underline the earnestness of the Center in establishing an atmosphere of trust in the valley?
a) Mr. Shah ruled out any talks with Pakistan, but said he was willing to talk to the youth.
b) Centre has made the pledge to restore the statehood in due course of time.
c) Center has established a mechanism for dialogue with the people of the Valley.
d) Prime Minister Modi had recently invited and met political leaders from J&K in Delhi.
Q 107. 60260388 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the statement "J&K has been under central rule since June 2018 and the political
and parliamentary subterfuge in reorganising the erstwhile State still rankles as a discordant chapter of India's experiments in federalism"?
a) India as a nation and a parliamentary democracy is committed to the principle of federalism.
b) The J&K action was announced, by the government in 2018, brazenly, with much fanfare and amid a lot of self-congratulatory noise.
c) Author is not favorably inclined towards the policy change and the present state of affairs in J&K.
d) With the reorganization J&K may have lost some of the rights assured under the federal arrangement.
Q 108. 60260388 Which one of the following is not a reckless attitude showcased by the Centre?
a) Removing the question of independence or autonomy from the conversation on Kashmir.
b) Emphasizing the divisions between the people of the Valley and Jammu.
c) Detaining more than 700 people ahead of Home Minister Amit Shah's visit.
d) Making efforts to underscore the progress in J&K and highlighting development projects.
Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 109 to 114: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The distribution of people traveling by Blue line in Delhi metro and Violet line in Delhi metro on different days of the week is given below. The average
amount for a trip spent by a traveler on Blue line and Violet line is Rs.25 and Rs.30 respectively.
Blue Line: The percentage of people traveling on Monday and Friday are equal. The number of people traveling on Tuesday and Saturday
respectively were 50% and 60% more than those traveling on Wednesday. The ratio of the number of people traveling on Wednesday, Thursday and
Friday was 5 : 6 : 9 respectively. On Sunday 55000 people traveled, which accounted for 11% of the total number of travelers during the week.
Violet line: The total number of people traveling by Blue and Violet lines on Friday and Saturday was 130000 and 110000 respectively. The ratio of
the number of people traveling on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday was 17 : 13 : 12 respectively. The total number of travelers on Tuesday and
Thursday were equal whereas the number of travelers on Saturday was 50% more than that on Sunday.
Q 109. 60260388 What is the difference between the number of people traveling by Blue line on Monday and Tuesday?
a) 12000 b) 15000 c) 18000 d) 16000
Q 110. 60260388 Find the ratio of the number of people traveling by Violet line on Friday and Sunday respectively
a) 4 : 5 b) 2 : 1 c) 3 : 1 d) 3 : 2
Q 111. 60260388 The number of people traveling by Violet line on Wednesday was 48% of that on Blue line, then how many people traveled by
Violet line on Monday and Tuesday together?
a) 60000 b) 50000 c) 72000 d) 75000
Q 112. 60260388 If the ratio of the number of people traveling by Violet line and Blue line on Thursday was 13 : 20 respectively, then what was the
total number of people traveling by Violet line in Delhi metro during the week?
a) 225000 b) 325000 c) 255000 d) 195000
Q 113. 60260388 If the total revenue from Blue and Violet lines on Monday was Rs.32.7 lakh, then what was the total revenue from both lines on
Thursday?
a) Rs.19,80,000 b) Rs.22,80,000 c) Rs.27,80,000 d) Rs.28,20,000
Q 114. 60260388 If the people traveling by Violet line on Friday, Saturday and Sunday forms 45% of the total number of travelers during the week,
then find the revenue from the passengers traveling on Tuesday and Wednesday by Violet line.
a) Rs.12.5 lakh b) Rs.17.5 lakh c) Rs.18 lakh d) Rs.15 lakh
Directions for questions 115 to 120: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The data given below is regarding an oil mill that produces and exports two types of oils - Groundnut and Mustard - during the period 2019 to 2023.
All quantities are in liters.
The quantity of Mustard oil produced and exported in 2023 was 4x and 4y respectively and these are the same as the quantities of Groundnut oil
produced and exported in 2020. In 2023 out of the total quantity of mustard oil produced 800 liters were not exported.
The production of mustard oil in 2023 increased by 600 liters from that in 2022, which had increased by 400 liters from the previous year. In 2019 the
production was 2x + 800 whereas in 2020 the production of Mustard oil was 3x – 100. The quantity of mustard oil exported each year during the five
year period increased by 500 liters year after year.
In 2023 the quantity of Groundnut oil produced was 5x, which was 1200 liters more than that in 2020. In 2022 the export of Groundnut oil was 200
liters more than the export during 2021. In 2022 and 2023 the quantity of Groundnut oil that was not exported were 600 liters and 500 liters
respectively. In 2019 the quantity of groundnut oil produced was 300 liters less than in 2020 and quantity exported was 500 less than in 2020. In
2021 the quantity of groundnut oil produced was 5y + 500 whereas 5y liters were exported.
Q 115. 60260388 What was the average quantity of mustard oil produced annually during the period 2019 to 2023?
a) 3700 liters b) 3800 liters c) 3900 liters d) 3600 liters
Q 116. 60260388 What was the total quantity of groundnut oil exported during 2020 to 2023?
a) 16900 liters b) 17600 liters c) 18500 liters d) 19700 liters
Q 117. 60260388 What was the ratio of quantity of groundnut oil not exported in 2019 and 2020 respectively?
a) 2 : 3 b) 5 : 4 c) 4 : 3 d) 7 : 5
Q 118. 60260388 The quantity of mustard oil exported in 2021 was what percentage more or less than the groundnut oil exported during the same
year?
a) 40% less b) 30% more c) 35% less d) 45% more
Q 119. 60260388 The cost of production of mustard oil is Rs.80 per liter, export price is marked at 25% above cost price whereas marked price for
oil that is not exported is 10% above cost price. What is the total profit from the sale of mustard oil during 2023?
a) Rs.88,400 b) Rs.84,480 c) Rs.89,680 d) Rs.86,400
Q 120. 60260388 In 2021 the ship carrying the exported groundnut oil met with an accident and 1000 liters of oil got spilled. What percent above the
cost price should the remaining oil be marked so that there is no loss?
a) 20% b) 18% c) 25% d) 28%

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10/07/2024, 17:53 myzone.careerlauncher.com/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?

Warmup Mock 04 (CLAT) 2025

a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III

Q 2. 60260388 The author says "more such entrepreneurs to emerge" to:

a) Age b) Nature of business c) Gender d) Demography of the consumers

a) $10 billion b) $15 billion c) $20 billion d) $25 billion

a) Pioneering b) Philanthropist c) Evangelist d) Thespian

a) Resisted b) Obeyed c) Challenged d) Surrendered

a) Court demurs: POSCO setback in a landmark judgment

b) Abuse eye opener: On Allahabad Court's ruling on POSCO

c) Child protection: POSCO on sexual abuse

d) POCSO shocker: On Allahabad High Court verdict on child sexual assault

c) HC ruling ignores specific provision defining aggravated form of sexual offence

d) HC ruling misinterpreted the POSCO as envisaged by the Supreme Court

Q 9. 60260388 Which of the following is closest in meaning to per incuriam?

c) The perpetrator was a minor d) The incident took place in UP

a) Rhetorical b) Inquisitive c) Interrogative d) Accusatory

a) The Constitution promises Faruqui the freedom of speech and liberty.

b) Freedom of speech is not an absolute right and needs to be calibrated.

c) Police action is tantamount to surrendering to blackmail and intimidation.

a) Excited b) Agitated c) Hyperbole d) Anguished

Q 17. 60260388 What is the author's chief complaint?

a) Vociferous protests against the comedian b) Cancellation of the shows

c) The apathy of the police d) The increasing cultural intolerance

a) Applauder's authorization b) Audience's endorsement c) Disruptor's approval d) Interferer's permission

a) Being intransigent and rigid in its stance of not allowing discussion.

b) Arrogant towards parliamentary norm of engaging with other parties.

c) Non-accommodative in its attitude while tabling and withdrawing the bill.

d) Resorting to techniques of shocking and surprising the opposition.

a) They can help create trust among various stakeholders.

b) Their absence will diminish the institution of the Parliament.

c) They can help find solutions to the agricultural crisis.

a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Neither nor II

a) Similes, cynicism b) Metaphors, skepticism c) Examples, suspicion d) Irony, mindset

a) Fearful capitulation b) Courageous defiance c) Bold confrontation d) Valiant opposition

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

a) Uttar Pradesh b) Bihar c) Odisha d) Kerala

a) Zakir Hussain b) VV Giri c) Dr.A. P. J. Abdul Kalam d) K. R. Narayanan

a) 1950 b) 1952 c) 1954 d) 1956

a) Union Liberation Front of Assam b) United Liberation Front of Assam

c) United Liberty Front of Assam d) United Liberation Freedom of Assam

a) To establish an independent Assam through armed struggle

c) To continue armed resistance against the Indian state

d) To escalate the conflict and demand greater autonomy for Assam

a) Restrictions on indigenous communities' representation in the Assam Assembly

b) Exemptions from specific sections of the Citizenship Act of 1955

c) Imposition of President's rule in Assam

d) Expansion of non-indigenous communities' representation in the Assam Assembly

Q 35. 60260388 What is the significance of Clause 6 of the Assam Accord?

b) It defines the criteria for determining who qualifies as an "Assamese person."

d) It sets the framework for the implementation of citizenship-related policies in Assam.

a) Utpal Sarma b) Samujjal Bhattacharya c) Biplab Kumar Sarma d) Prakash Das

a) Beijing b) Guangzhou c) Hangzhou d) Shanghai

a) Second b) Third c) Fourth d) Sixth

a) Cricket b) Hockey c) Archery d) Kabaddi

a) Congcong, Lianlian, and Mingming b) Congcong, Lianlian, and Chenchen

c) Hanghang, Zhouzhou, and Yangyang d) Xi, Jin, and Ping

a) China b) Russia c) Singapore d) Indonesia

a) Andhra Pradesh b) Kerala c) Maharashtra d) Tamil Nadu