SUPERVISOR TO ATTACH PROCESSING LABEL HERE

Letter
STUDENT NUMBER

Victorian Certifi cate of Education

2021

BIOLOGY
Written examination
Friday 29 October 2021
Reading time: 9.00 am to 9.15 am (15 minutes) Writing time: 9.15 am
to 11.45 am (2 hours 30 minutes)

QUESTION AND ANSWER BOOK

Structure of book
Section Number of Number of Number of
questions questions to be marks
answered
A 40 40 40
B 11 11 80
Total 120
• Students are permitted to bring into the examination room: pens, pencils,
highlighters, erasers, sharpeners and rulers.
• Students are NOT permitted to bring into the examination room: blank sheets
of paper and/or correction fl uid/tape.
• No calculator is allowed in this examination.
Materials supplied
• Question and answer book of 39 pages
• Answer sheet for multiple-choice questionsInstructions
• Write your student number in the space provided above on this page.
• Check that your name and student number as printed on your answer sheet
for multiple-choice questions are correct, and sign your name in the space
provided to verify this.
• Unless otherwise indicated, the diagrams in this book are not drawn to scale.
• All written responses must be in English.At the end of the examination
• Place the answer sheet for multiple-choice questions inside the front cover of
this book.
 Students are NOT permitted to bring mobile phones and/or any other unauthorised electronic devices
into the examination room.
© VICTORIAN CURRICULUM AND ASSESSMENT AUTHORITY 2021

2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 2

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 3 2021 BIOLOGY EXA

SECTION A – Multiple-choice questions

Instructions for Section A
Answer all questions in pencil on the answer sheet provided for multiple-choice questions.
Choose the response that is correct or that best answers the question.
A correct answer scores 1; an incorrect answer scores 0.
Marks will not be deducted for incorrect answers.
No marks will be given if more than one answer is completed for any question.
Unless otherwise indicated, the diagrams in this book are not drawn to scale.

Question 1
Cells synthesise diff erent molecular chains using distinct monomers, as shown in the two examples below.
AREA

Monomer Molecular chain

Example 1 R R3
R1 R2

H2NCOOH C
IN THIS

COOH
H2 N
H
X

Example 2 P P

P
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The formation of chemical bonds X and Y

A. requires a water molecule as a reactant.
B. involves condensation polymerisation.
C. releases energy for use in the cell.
D. occurs in the Calvin cycle.
2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 4
Use the following information to answer Questions 2–4.
One method that is used to identify and measure quantities of mRNA molecules is called fl uorescence in situ
hybridisation (FISH).
The fl uorescent chemical is attached to the DNA probe. When the DNA probe binds to the target mRNA sequence,
as shown in the diagram below, the fl uorescent chemical allows the mRNA molecule to be visualised.
DNA probe
F fluorescent
chemical

C GC C U U AC
G C CU GG A
5ƍ CGU 3ƍ

mRNA molecule containing the

target sequence

Source: adapted from LVJC Mannack, S Eising and A Rentmeister, ‘Current techniques for visualizing RNA in cells’,
F1000 Research, 5:F1000 Faculty Rev-775, 28 April 2016, <https://doi.org/10.12688/f1000research.8151.1>

Question 2
To make the mRNA molecule containing the target sequence, a cell must
A. synthesise DNA polymerase.
B. attach a poly-A tail to the 3′ end of the gene.
C. create a nucleotide chain with a ribose–phosphate backbone.
D. have a ready supply of the N-containing bases adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine.

Question 3
The mRNA molecule identifi ed by FISH is used by the cell to produce a new type of molecule.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes one aspect of the production of this new molecule?
A. The rRNA and its associated proteins create a binding site for the mRNA.
B. The tRNA delivers and attaches a nucleotide to the new growing molecule.
C. The mRNA anticodons are complementarily matched with the tRNA codons.
D. The mRNA attaches to the smaller sub-unit of the ribosome to initiate transcription.

Question 4
Using the information provided in the diagram above and your own knowledge of genetic coding, which of the
following is correct? Assume that there are no STOP codons in the target mRNA sequence.

Probe sequence Number of amino acids coded by

the mRNA target sequence
A. 3′ GCAGGCAUUCCGAUCCGA 5′ 5

B. 3′ CGGAGCGGAATGCCTGCA 5′ 5

C. 3′ CGGAGCGGAAUGCCUGCA 5′ 6

D. 3′ CGGAGCGGAATGCCTGCA 5′ 6

SECTION A – continued
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 SECTION A – continued

5 2021 BIOLOGY EXA

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 Question 5
Consider the process of photosynthesis.

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Which of the following shows correct information about each of the two stages of photosynthesis?

Light-dependent stage Light-independent stage

A. produces oxygen produces carbon dioxide

IN THIS

B. requires water requires NADH

C. occurs in the stroma occurs in the grana
D. energy is provided by light energy is provided by ATP molecules
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Question 6
In a series of experiments, the rate of photosynthesis in plant cells was measured in environments with diff erent
concentrations of carbon dioxide. All other variables were kept constant.
Which one of the following graphs refl ects the trend that would be shown by the results of these experiments?

A. B.

rate ofrate of

photosynthesisphotosynthesis

0 carbon dioxide 0 carbon dioxide concentration concentration

C. D.

rate ofrate of

photosynthesisphotosynthesis

0 carbon dioxide 0 carbon dioxide concentration concentration

SECTION A – continued
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2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 6

Question 7
Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase (Rubisco) is an enzyme found in green
plants. Rubisco is important in two reactions. These reactions are
shown below.

Reaction 1
Rubisco
ribulose1,5-bisphosphate + oxygen2 phosphoglycolate + 3 phosphoglycerate

Reaction 2
Rubisco
ribulose1,5-bisphosphate + carbon dioxide3 phosphoglycerate

A Biologystudent hypothesised that the same active site on Rubisco is used

in Reaction 1 and Reaction 2.
Which one of the following observations
would support this hypothesis? A. The rate of
Reaction 2 increases when the temperature
is increased.
B. The rate of Reaction 2 decreases when the concentration of oxygen
is increased.
C. The rate of both reactions decreases when the concentration of Rubisco
is increased.
D. The rate of Reaction 1 increases when the concentration of carbon
dioxide is increased.

Question 8
The graph below shows the relationship between the predicted and actual
concentrations of chlorophyll a in phytoplankton.

The predicted and actual concentrations

of chlorophyll a in phytoplankton
3.0
2.8
2.6
2.4
2.2
2.0
1.8
predicted concentration 1.6
of chlorophyll a (mg/L) 1.4
1.2
1.0
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0.0
0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4 1.6 1.8 2.0 2.2 2.4 2.6 2.8 3.0

actual concentration of chlorophyll a (mg/L)

Source: Fairooz Binti Johan et al, ‘Chlorophyll a concentration of fresh water

phytoplankton
analysed by algorithmic based spectroscopy’, Journal of Physics:
Conference Series, 1083 (2018) 012015,
<https://iopscience.iop.org/article/10.1088/1742-6596/1083/1/012015/pdf>; licensed
 CC-BY 3.0 <https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by/3.0/>

From the graph, it can be inferred that

A. the actual concentration of chlorophyll a was lower than the predicted
concentration in all recorded measurements.
B. at 2.4 mg/L actual concentration of chlorophyll a, the predicted
concentration of chlorophyll a was 2 mg/L.
C. at 0.8 mg/L, the predicted concentration and the actual concentration of
chlorophyll a were the same.
D. at zero predicted concentration of chlorophyll a, photosynthesis did not
occur.
SECTION A – continued
 7 2021 BIO

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Scientists studied cells in the embryos
Use theof
following
the nematode
information
worm Caenorhabditis
to
Ced-3,
answer Questions
elegans.
9– They identifi ed three p
Ced-4 and Ced-9, that are involved in programmed11. cell death.

Ced-4, as shown in Diagram 1.

When no death-signalling molecule was detected by an embryonic cell, Ced-9 inhibited the action of Ced-3 an
IN THIS
no longer inhibited and their activity resulted in the changes shown in Diagram
When a death-signalling molecule was detected, Ced-9 changed shape and became inactive. Ced-3 and Ced-4
Diagram 2
2. Diagram 1 blebs

nucleus
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active active
Ced-4 Ced-3 other
prote
nucleas
Ced-4 Ced-3
inactive proteins

receptor for inactive Ced-9

death-signalling death-signalling
molecule mitochondrion
molecule
active Ced-9

Question 9
The cell in Diagram 2 is undergoing
A. apoptosis.
B.
C.

Question 10
The Ced-3 protein is most likely to be a
A. mitochondrial protein.
B. transcriptional factor.
C. coenzyme.
D. caspase.

Question 11
The purpose of most of the programmed cell deaths in C. elegans embryos is to
A. remove ageing, worn-out cells.
B. destroy pathogen-infected cells.
C. eliminate abnormal cells that could cause cancer.
D. ensure appropriate formation of developing organs.
2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 8

Use the following information to answer Questions 12–14.

Growth hormone (GH) is a peptide hormone that is made by cells in the pituitary gland. GH is transported to the
plasma membrane of the cells in the pituitary gland and then released into the blood. Liver cells respond to GH by
secreting another hormone called insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1). IGF-1 stimulates muscle cells to increase in
size and bone cells to produce mineralised bone. Fat cells respond to GH by breaking down triglycerides into fatty
acids and glycerol. Question 12
Which organelle transports GH to the plasma membrane of cells in the pituitary gland?
A. vesicle
B. ribosome
C. Golgi apparatus
D. endoplasmic reticulum

Question 13
The receptors that are responsible for detecting GH in liver cells and fat cells are located
A. in the cytosol.
B. within the nucleus.
C. on the plasma membrane.
D. on the nuclear membrane.

Question 14
In this scenario, the secretion of IGF-1 by liver cells is called
A. signal reception.
B. a cellular response.
C. signal transduction.
D. a stimulus-response model.

Question 15
Neutrophils
A. secrete complement proteins.
B. migrate to the site of infection and engulf invading pathogens.
C. increase the diameter of blood vessels to make them more permeable.
D. release histamine following the binding of the antigen to receptors on the neutrophil’s surface.

Question 16
In humans, an example of a chemical barrier that prevents the entry of pathogens into the internal environment woul
be
A. histamine.
B. interferons.
C. lysozymes.

SECTION A – continued
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D. complement proteins.
SECTION A –
continued

9 2021 BIO

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 Question 17
The role of the lymphatic system in an immune response includes

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A. carrying mast cells to the site of infection.
B. activation of platelets to help heal wounds.
C. transport of antigen-presenting cells, including dendritic cells.
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D. delivery of injected monoclonal antibodies to specifi c target cells.

Question 18
One method of assessing the progress of multiple sclerosis (MS) in patients detects fragments of the protein N
These protein fragments are released into spinal fl uid and blood when nerves are damaged.
It can be expected that patients with progressive MS will have
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A. an increased number of T helper lymphocytes.

B. lower levels of the NfL protein in the blood.
C. thicker myelin sheaths around nerves.
D. lower levels of antibodies.

Question 19
A new treatment for some cancers includes the use of conjugated monoclonal antibodies, which have an anti-
cancer drug attached.
The main advantage of using conjugated monoclonal antibodies in this new cancer treatment is that they
A. decrease the amount of the anti-cancer drug delivered to cancerous cells.
B. reduce the eff ects of the anti-cancer drug on non-cancerous cells.
C. cause an increase in the number of memory T cells.
D. stimulate B cells to produce antibodies.

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2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 10

Question 20
The diagram below shows the chromosomes from two diff erent but related plant species.

Plant species 1

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Plant species 2

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Compare the chromosomes of the two plant species.

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The diff erences seen in the chromosomes of Plant species 2 compared to the chromosomes of Plant species 1 can
be described as A. aneuploidy.
B. polyploidy.
C. triploidy.
D. trisomy.
NO
Question 21
Which of the following shows some of the organisms on the fossil record in the correct order in which they fi rst
appear? DO
A. fi sh, green algae, mammals, fl owering land plants
B. green algae, fi sh, fl owering land plants, mammals
C. fi sh, mammals, green algae, fl owering land plants
D. green algae, fi sh, mammals, fl owering land plants

SECTION A –
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 11 2021 BIOLOG

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Question 22
The graph below shows when the fi ve major mass extinction events and several other mass extinction events occurr
also shows the percentage of species that were lost in each event.

Percentage (%) of species lost from the fossil record in

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mass extinction events in the last 600 million years
100 Key
major mass
90
extinction
80 events other
70 mass extinction
events
60
species lost
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(%) 50
40
30
20
10
0
600 500 400 300 200 100 0
million years ago (mya)
According to the graph, to be classifi ed as a major mass extinction event, the percentage of species that are lost h
least
A. 10%
B. 50%
C. 74%
D. 97%

Question 23
Mass extinction events
A. allow new species to evolve to occupy available niches.
B. allow all species that survive to recover and diverge.
C. result from a constant global climate.
D. aff ect all species equally.

Question 24
Sea stars are soft-bodied marine animals that have survived periods of mass extinction. The oldest sea star fossils ha
dated to 480 million years ago. The number of sea star fossils found is relatively low.
One reason why the number of sea star fossils found is relatively low is that sea stars A. are
easily eroded from rock layers after exposure to wind.
B. live in seawater that fl uctuates widely in temperature.
C. are unlikely to be covered in sediment after death.
D. have bodies that decompose quickly.

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2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 12

Question 25
Below are two photographs (Image A and Image B) of arthropod fossils
found in tree resin (amber) and a drawing of an arthropod (Image
C). Each image has a scale in micrometres (μm).
Image A Image B

100µm 100µm

Image C

height

length
50µm

Sources:ErnieCooper/Shutterstock.com(ImageA);BjoernWylezich/
CShutterstock.com(ImageB);JDStilwell,ALangendam,
Mays et al, ‘Amber from the Triassic to Paleogene of Australia and
New Zealand as exceptional preservation of poorly known
terrestrial ecosystems’, Scientific Reports, 10, 5703 (2020),
<https://doi.org/10.1038/s41598-020-62252-z> (Image C),
licensed CC-BY 4.0
<https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by/4.0/>

From the images shown, it can be

concluded that the arthropod A. fossils are
examples of trace fossils.
B. in Image C is less than 90 μm in height.
C. fossil inImage A is greater than 100 μm in length.
D. that was fossilised in Image B was buried in sediment before it
was surrounded by amber.

Question 26
Until May 2019, Denisovan fossils had been found in only two locations:
Siberia and Tibet. Since then, Denisovan DNA has been discovered in
some present-day populations. These populations are found on several continents,
including Australia.
This suggests that the ancient Denisovan hominin group
was or its descendants were A. only fossilised in
 Siberia and Tibet.
B. genetically identical to Homo sapiens.
C. extinct prior to the presence of Neanderthals.
D. more widespread than fossil evidence suggests.
SECTION A – continued
 13 2021 BIO

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Question 27
The BMP4 gene in African cichlid fi sh is responsible for
A. the great range of colours and scale patterns observed in adult fi sh of diff erent species.
B. the amount of bone laid down in the jaws of cichlid fi sh embryos.
IN THIS

C. convergent evolution between diff erent species of cichlids.

D. sex determination in cichlid fi sh living in African lakes.

Question 28
Small amounts of DNA can be collected from items such as cigarette butts and hair follicles that are found at c
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scenes. This DNA can be replicated for analysis and used as evidence in court cases.
Which of the following identifi es the method of DNA replication and the enzyme used?

Method Enzyme used

A. polymerase chain reaction Taq polymerase

B. DNA profi ling DNA ligase
C. polymerase chain reaction DNA ligase
D. DNA profi ling Taq polymerase

Question 29
A four-month investigation was undertaken in the classrooms of a large number of Year 2 and Year 3 students
four primary schools. For the fi rst two months, half of the classes from each school used an antimicrobial gel
sanitiser, while the other half used soap and water for regular hand hygiene. The students then switched hand-
cleaning methods for the fi nal two months. No signifi cant diff erences in illness were observed between the g
The purpose of this investigation was most likely to
A. reduce water use in schools.
B. encourage students to wash their hands more often.
C. reduce the number of students who are away from school due to illness.
D. decide if purchasing antimicrobial gel hand sanitiser for students was worthwhile.

SECTION A – continued
2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 14

SECTION A – continued
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 Use the following information to answer Questions 30–33.
The short-beaked echidna (Tachyglossus aculeatus) can be found in Australia and New Guinea. This species is
sometimes a target of the illegal wildlife trade.

AR

Source: Kristian
Bell/Shutterstock.com
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A university Biology student set out to compare DNA from four diff erent short-beaked echidnas living in four
diff erent locations. The student aimed to determine the country of origin of each echidna. This was achieved
using primers that amplifi ed a 430 base pair (bp) sequence from the echidna’s mitochondrial genome.
A fl ow chart of the steps taken by the student is shown below. IN
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Step 1 – Isolate mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) from the short-beaked echidna’s quills (spines).

Step 2 – Amplify the mtDNA at a precise location.

Step 3 – Verify that mtDNA amplification was successful using gel electrophoresis. NO

Step 4 – Sequence the mtDNA fragments from the gel and compare the samples.
DO

Question 30
Which one of the following would be a requirement of either Step 1 or Step 2?
A. Step 2 would require the use of a thermocycling machine to maintain the temperature at 37 C.
B. Step 1 would require the quill samples to have been stored at a very high temperature.
C. Step 1 would require the extraction of DNA from the nuclei of quill epithelial cells.
D. Step 2 would usually require a reaction mixture containing two primers.

SECTION A – continued
 15 2021 BIO

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Use the following additional information to answer Questions 31 and 32.
Results from Step 3 – Verifi cation that DNA amplifi cation was successful
std 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 std
position of wells
IN THIS

Key
std – standard lanes consisting of 100, 200, 300,
400 and 500 bp fragments
lanes 1 and 5 – Echidna sample A
lanes 2 and 6 – Echidna sample B
lanes 3 and 7 – Echidna sample C
lanes 4 and 8 – Echidna sample D
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Question 31
In order for the student’s experiment to be valid, the student would need to
A. ensure the amplifi ed DNA region is from the correct locus of the echidna’s mitochondrial genome.
B. be able to have the same set of results replicated by a diff erent observer at a diff erent time.
C. demonstrate that the results from the amplifi ed samples were precise.
D. repeat the experiment a minimum of three times.

Question 32
Attempts to reach a conclusion based on these electrophoresis results may be aff ected by
A. an unidentifi ed systematic error.
B. the presence of several outliers in the results.
C. a degree of uncertainty in the results for Echidna sample D.
D. a random error causing the position of the DNA sample in lane 7.

Question 33
The results from Step 4 are shown in the table below. They compare a sequence of 20 bases between the echid
samples. Of the four samples, three were determined to be from Australia and one was determined to be from
New Guinea.
Echidna sample Mitochondrial DNA sequence
A … ATAGGCATTGCTCTGGGAAT …
B … ATTGGCATGGCTCTCGGATT …
C … ATAGGCATTGCTCTGGCAAT …
D … ATAGGCATTGCTCTGAGAAT …
Considering the information provided, which echidna sample is most likely to be from New Guinea?
A. Echidna sample A
B. Echidna sample B
C. Echidna sample C
SECTION A – continued
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D. Echidna sample D

SECTION A – continued
2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 16

SECTION A – continued
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Question 34
The World Health Organization (WHO) runs a campaign to eliminate cervical cancer globally. In response to this
campaign, a study was conducted to model the impact of cervical cancer screening along with a human
papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination program in low-income and lower-middle-income countries. HPV is the cause of
most cervical cancers. The results of the modelling are shown below.

The impact of cervical cancer screening and HPV vaccination

on low-income and lower-middle-income countries

25

20
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no screen and no vaccination
cervical cancer 15 vaccination only
incidence vaccination and one lifetime screen
(per 100000 vaccination and two lifetime screens TH
women)
10

5
IN
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0
2020 2040 2060 2080 2100 2120
year

NO
Source: adapted from M Brisson et al, ‘Impact of HPV vaccination and cervical screening on cervical cancer elimination:
A comparative modelling analysis in 78 low-income and lower-middle-income countries’,
The Lancet, vol. 395, 22 February 2020, <https://doi.org/10.1016/S0140-6736(20)30068-4>

Which one of the following conclusions is supported by the data in the graph?
DO
A. The incidence of cervical cancer would be unaff ected by a cervical cancer screening program.
B. The largest factor in reducing the incidence of cervical cancer in the long term is vaccination.
C. With vaccination only, it is possible to achieve fewer than 10 cervical cancer cases per 100 000 women by
2050.
D. Vaccination and one lifetime screen would be more eff ective than vaccination and two lifetime screens by
2070.

SECTION A – continued
17 2021 BIO

SECTION A – continued
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 Question 35
Prior to modern human pregnancy test kits, Xenopus frogs were used. Urine samples from women were inject

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the legs of female frogs. The frogs were then placed back into water tanks and, the following day, the tanks w
checked for eggs. If a female frog had laid eggs, the woman who had provided the urine sample was diagnose
pregnant.
Which one of the following factors may result in a false diagnosis of pregnancy?
A. using male frogs instead of female frogs
IN THIS

B. maintaining an optimum tank temperature

C. replacing the water in the tanks with fresh water each day
D. female frogs laying eggs naturally around the time of the injection

Question 36
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A study assessed the eff ectiveness and safety of a drug called doxycycline. One hundred and fi fty adults
hospitalised with malaria were involved. These adults were randomly placed into two groups of equal size. On
group received doxycycline in addition to standard care. The other group received standard care only. The gro
receiving standard care only was the A. control group.
B. variable group.
C. unsupported group.
D. experimental group.

Question 37
Viruses can be detected in sewage. Human faecal matter is the main source of pathogenic viruses in sewage. I
individuals shed viral particles in their faeces.
Which one of the following is an advantage of testing sewage for viral particles in order to control possible vi
outbreaks?
A. Infected individuals can be prevented from shedding the virus.
B. Infection in a community can be rapidly identifi ed.
C. Infected individuals can be located quickly.
D. Sewage can be treated for the virus.

Question 38
Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) is caused by a virus that does not encode any neuraminidase prote
This means that the antiviral drug Relenza would
A. reduce the number of MERS viral particles released from infected cells.
B. be useful to consider as a prevention method against MERS infections.
C. be unlikely to improve the recovery of MERS-infected patients.
D. target other cell surface proteins of MERS-infected cells.

SECTION A – continued
2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 18

Use the following information to answer Questions 39 and 40.

An experiment investigated the eff ect of two plant hormones, BA and TIBA, on seedlings of the Douglas fi r tree,
Pseudotsuga menziesii.
There were three treatment groups of one-month-old P. menziesii seedlings. Each group was sprayed with a buff
detergent solution containing BA or TIBA or BA + TIBA.
The solutions were sprayed onto the seedlings once a week for 12 weeks. The seedlings were kept in the same
greenhouse under identical temperature and light conditions during the experiment.
The stem length of each seedling was measured and lateral shoots were counted at the start and end of the 12-week
period. The average results for each group are displayed in the graph below.

Effect of BA and TIBA on stem length and number of lateral shoots when applied weekly to
leaves of one-month-old P. menziesii seedlings for 12 weeks
180
Key
160 stem length (mm)
lateral shoots
(number)
140

120

100

80

60

40

20

0
0 5 50 5 50 5+5 50 + 50
control BA TIBA BA + TIBA
concentration of plant hormone (mg/L)
Source: adapted from LG Nickell (ed.), Plant Growth Regulating Chem
volume II, 1st reprint edition, CRC Press, 2018

SECTION A – continued
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Question 39
An appropriate treatment for the control group of seedlings would be
A. spraying with buff ered detergent solution at the same intervals as the treatment group.
B. spraying with distilled water at the same intervals as the treatment group.
C. spraying with tap water at the same intervals as the treatment group.
D. not spraying at all during the 12-week period.

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SECTION A – continued
 19 2021 BIO

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Question 40
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from this data with respect to the growth of P. menziesi
seedlings?
A. BA in low concentrations promotes stem elongation but has no signifi cant eff ect on the number of latera
IN THIS
B. The stems of seedlings exposed to high concentrations of BA grow to one-third of the length of the stems
treated seedlings.
C. TIBA reduces the eff ect of BA on the number of lateral shoots when both BA + TIBA are applied at high
concentrations.
D. TIBA in high concentrations inhibits stem elongation but increases the number of lateral shoots when com
the seedlings in the control group.
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TURN OVER
2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 20

SECTION B
Instructions for Section B
Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
Unless otherwise indicated, the diagrams in this book are not drawn to scale.
Question 1 (5 marks)
The diagram below shows a small part of a cross-section of the plasma membrane of a cell.
outside cell

phospholipid AR
bilayer

inside cell
TH
Some substances can move directly through the phospholipid bilayer.

a. Complete the table below by naming one small hydrophilic substance and one small hydrophobic substance
that can move through the phospholipid bilayer. Provide an example of a situation when IN
each small substance would move through the phospholipid bilayer. The first row has been completed W
for you. 2 ma
Name of small Hydrophilic or Example of situation when substance moves
substance hydrophobic through phospholipid bilayer
oxygen hydrophobic
Oxygen diffuses out of a photosynthetic plant
cell. NO
water hydrophilic 12H20 enters as a input for light dependent stage of
photosynthesis

Carbon dioxide hydrophobic Enters photosynthetic plant cell as input of light independent DO
stage.

END OF SECTION A SECTION B – Question 1

– continued
21 2021 BIO

SECTION B – continued
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 b. Some very large substances and/or large particles that do not dissolve in the phospholipid bilayer can
still move into or out of a cell.

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Using one example, explain how the phospholipid bilayer transports these very large substances
and/or large particles without the use of channel or carrier proteins either into a cell or out of a cell.
Select a direction of transport for your response by ticking () the box beside it:
into a
IN THIS

cell
out of a 3
cell m
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– continued
2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 22

SECTION B – continued
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 Question 2 (9 marks) 3 mar
Baker’s yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is a unicellular, eukaryotic organism. Biologists have studied its
proteome. A single yeast cell contains approximately 6000 diff erent proteins.

a. Consider the 6000 diff erent proteins. The concentration of each protein may change with a change in
environmental conditions.

Give one example of a type of protein within a yeast cell that may change in concentration and explain
why this change is necessary.

2 mar
AR

TH

b. There are several cellular activities that directly alter the number of proteins within a yeast cell. These
include transcription, RNA processing, translation and breakdown of protein.
IN
For each cellular activity listed in the table below, state the immediate end product of the activity.
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Cellular activity Immediate end product

transcription

RNA processing
NO
translation

DO
breakdown of
protein

SECTION B – Question 2

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23 2021 BIO

SECTION B – continued
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 c. Four S. cerevisiae genes and the functions of their gene products are outlined in Table 1 below.

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Table 1. S. cerevisiae genes and the functions of their gene products
Gene Function of gene product

HSP82 active on the plasma membrane to pump protons out of cell

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ADR1 binds to DNA and acts as a transcriptional factor

GCN4 controls the activity of RNA polymerase

AQY1 a water channel in the plasma membrane

Identify the regulatory genes in Table 1 and justify your response.
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d. One particular S. cerevisiae protein, PFY1, assists with the organisation of a cell’s cytoskeleton.
In the diagram below, the gene for the PFY1 protein is shown with a promoter region (labelled P), start
and stop transcription sequences, and a single intron (labelled B).

start sequence stop sequence

3'5' P A B C

Give the general name of the sections labelled A and C, and outline the function of these sections.

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2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 24

SECTION B – continued
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 Question 3 (6 marks)
Scientists measured the metabolic activity of mammalian cells by measuring the uptake of glucose into the cells.
The cells were maintained at 37 °C with a pH of 7.4 and suspended in a nutrient solution containing glucose.
The uptake of glucose into the cells was recorded for the next 30 minutes.

a. Explain why the uptake of glucose into the cells could be used to measure the metabolic activity of the
cells. 2 ma

AR

b. The scientists repeated the experiment. They kept all conditions the same as for the fi rst experiment, except
that the cells were kept in low-oxygen conditions.
TH
Would the uptake of glucose into the cells be expected to be higher, lower or the same as for the fi rst
experiment? Justify your response. 4 ma

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NO

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Question 4 (10 marks)
Varicella (chickenpox) is a highly contagious disease caused by the varicella zoster virus. A live, attenuated
varicella zoster virus vaccine is recommended for children at age 18 months. In Australia, this vaccine is
provided free of charge under the National Immunisation Program.
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a. Once the varicella zoster virus vaccine is injected into the arm of a child, an immune response occurs.

Summarise the immune response that occurs within the child to result in long-term protection from
chickenpox.
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b. If a person has not been vaccinated and is older than 14 years, it is recommended that this person has
two doses of the varicella zoster virus vaccine. The second dose should be given at least four weeks
after the fi rst dose.

What is the benefi t of having two doses instead of one

dose? Justify your response.

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c. Outline similarities and/or diff erences in active and passive ways of acquiring immunity.

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2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 26

SECTION B – continued
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 Question 5 (6 marks) 2 mar
a. Outline what is meant by the term ‘cell signalling’.

AR
b. The diagrams below show two diff erent modes of cell signalling that occur over short distances.

Mode X Mode Y
action potential TH
signalling cell

signalling
molecules
signalling cell
IN
W
signalling molecules
target cell
target cell

2 mar
Sources: adapted from Art of Science/Shutterstock.com (Mode X); NO
adapted from Excellent Dream/Shutterstock.com (Mode Y)

Complete the table below by naming an example of the signalling molecule and target cell for each
mode of cell signalling shown above. DO
Mode of cell Example of signalling molecule Example of target cell
signalling

SECTION B – Question 5

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27 2021 BIO

SECTION B – continued
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 c. Cell signalling has been observed in honey bees (Apis mellifera) that live in large colonies in hives
(nests). If a hive is disturbed, guard bees secrete a substance that smells like bananas from sting glands
in their abdomens. The guard bees stand at the entrance of the hive, and raise their abdomens to

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expose the glands and release the secretion, while moving their wings like fans.
Name the type of signalling molecule secreted by A. mellifera that causes this banana-like smell and
give a reason why the guard bees fan their wings.
IN THIS
DO NOT WRITE

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2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 28

Question 6 (6 marks)
Many species of octopus can be found in the oceans surrounding Australia and New Zealand. Populations
of octopus can be found on both the east and west coasts of Australia and on the north coast of
New Zealand. The distribution of the populations is shown shaded on the map below.

Australia

Indian Ocean

0 2000 km New Zealand

W E
S

Pacific Ocean

Source: adapted from MD Amor, MD Norman, HE Cameron and JM Strugnell,

‘… within a cryptic species complex of Australasian octopuses’,
PLOS ONE, vol. 9, issue 6, e98982, June 2014,
<https://doi.org/10.1371/journal.pone.0098982>

a. Scientists investigated whether the octopus populations on Australia’s east coast are a separate species
from the populations on the west coast. After analysing both molecular and morphological results, the
scientists concluded that all populations share a distant common ancestor. They also concluded that
the populations of octopus on the east coast of Australia are a distinct species from the populations of
octopus on the west coast of Australia.

Describe the process that may have led to the formation of the two distinct species of octopus from the
distant common ancestor. 4 mar

SECTION B – continued
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SECTION B – Question 6

29 2021 BIO

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NO

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– continued
 b. The scientists also compared the populations of east Australian octopus with the populations of the
New Zealand octopus. No signifi cant genetic diff erences between these populations of the New
Zealand octopus and east Australian octopus were found. It is known that young octopi can be carried

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long distances by water currents. Occasionally, adult octopi have been seen on pieces of fl oating wood.

IN THIS
DO NOT WRITE Give two reasons that may account for the lack of genetic diversity between the populations.

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2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 30

Question 7 (10 marks) 2 mar

Lemurs belong to the order Primates and are found in the wild only on the African island of Madagascar.

a. Identify two structural features that are common to most primates and that distinguish them from other
mammal groups.

2 mar

A team of biologists combined morphological data from extinct and living lemur species, along with genetic
data, to produce a phylogenetic tree for lemurs. The biologists used published sequences from
mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) as a molecular clock.

b. Give two advantages of using mtDNA as a molecular clock.

A small part of the phylogenetic tree for lemurs, constructed by the biologists, is shown below.
Lemur catta

Hapalemur simus
Hapalemur aureus
Hapalemur meridionalis

Hapalemur occidentalis

Eulemur coronatus
Eulemur macaco
Eulemur flavifrons

Eulemur rubriventer
Eulemur mongoz
Eulemur collaris
Eulemur cinereiceps
Eulemur rufus

23.0 17.1 11.1 5.3 2.60.0

million years ago (mya)

Source: adapted from JP Herrera and LM Dávalos, ‘Phylogeny and divergence times of lemurs inferred
– continued
 with recent and ancient fossils in the tree’, Systematic Biologists, 65(5), 2016, p. 781
SECTION B – Question 7

31 2021 BIO

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 c. Describe the phylogenetic relationships between Lemur catta, Eulemur coronatus and Eulemur
fl avifrons, as shown in the phylogenetic tree on page 30.

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IN THIS

d.
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Biologists isolated DNA from diff erent species of present-day lemurs and performed DNA
hybridisation.
Outline the main steps in the process of DNA hybridisation and explain how DNA hybridisation
supports the relationships shown in the phylogenetic tree on page 30.

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2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 32

Question 8 (6 marks)
Ancient cave drawings contribute evidence of cognitive changes that are unique to modern humans, sapiens. Hom
argue that these unique cognitive changes in H. sapiens allowed cultural evolution that would have been impossible
other hominin species.

a. Describe how ancient cave drawings contribute evidence of cultural evolution in H. sapiens.

Cave drawings depicting animals have been found on stalagmites in the Ardales Cave in south-west Europe.
ed and form
A stalagmite is a rock formation that grows upwards from a cave fl oor, as shown in the image below. Over a long
period of time, water, containing minerals, dripped from the cave roof, solidifi transparent layer on top of the
drawings on the stalagmites.

stalagmi

Source:
lapas77/Shutterstock.com

b. A team of scientists dated the mineral deposits in the solid, transparent layer using uraniu dating. They m–thori
found that some of the mineral deposits are 65 000 years old.

What conclusion can be made about the age of the ancient drawings on the stalagmites? J ustify yo

SECTION B – continued
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 response. 2 mar

SECTION B – Question 8

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 c. The table below shows the arrival dates of some hominin species to the European continent as well as
their extinction dates. The dates are the best estimates based on fossil evidence from multiple sites and

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genetic data.
Hominin species First appearance in Europe Time of extinction
(years before present) (years before present)

Homo sapiens 45 000 not extinct

IN THIS

Homo neanderthalensis 130 000 30 000

Homo heidelbergensis 800 000–600 000 400 000–200 000

Homo erectus 1 200 000–600 000 143 000

How does the discovery of the drawings in the Ardales Cave challenge the view that the art of cave
drawing fi rst arose in H. sapiens? In your response, refer to the evidence provided in the table above
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and the information on page 32.

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2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 34

Question 9 (6 marks) 1 ma
The following table provides information on three commonly grown genetically modifi ed (GM) crops in
Australia.
Crop Genetic modifi cation Characteristic given by
modifi cation
GM cotton several bacterial genes inserted insect resistance and herbicide
tolerance
GM canola two genes from two diff erent tolerance to several herbicides
bacterial species inserted
GM saffl ower a selection of genes silenced within elevated levels of oleic acid in its 1 ma
the saffl ower genome seeds
a. Select one of the GM crops in the table above and justify whether or not this crop could be described as
transgenic.

Crop selected

b. One issue with GM canola is the accidental release, during transport, of seeds along roadsides.
Usually, unwanted plants that grow on the side of the road are killed using the herbicide glyphosate.
However, GM canola is resistant to glyphosate.

Suggest one practical solution for treating GM canola that is found growing along roadsides.

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SECTION B – Question 9

35 2021 BIO

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SECTION B – continued
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 c. A new GM canola crop has been approved for use in Australia. It contains increased levels of omega-3
fatty acids, which are important, in humans, for building healthy cell membranes and for general
growth and development, and also protect against a wide variety of diseases.

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Omega-3 has traditionally been sourced from fi sh. Due to the growing demand for sources of omega-3,
bioengineers have been encouraged to continue developing GM canola crops as a sustainable
alternative.
Discuss one social implication and one biological implication of using GM canola with increased
IN THIS

levels of omega-3. Use a diff erent implication in each response.

Social implication
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Biological implication

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2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 36
Question 10 (7 marks)
The path to human insulin
In the 1970s, recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid methods for
cloning and expressing genes in the bacteria Escherichia coliwere under
intense development. An important question that arose at the
time was: Can humans design and chemically synthesise genes that
function in bacteria? This question was answered in
the late 1970s with the successful expression of human
insulin using E. coli. For the first time, this provided a
practical source of recombinant human insulin for the treatment
of diabetes. Prior to this, insulin was isolated from either cows
or pigs.
When recombinant human insulin was first developed, researchers had
knowledge of the amino acid sequence and the structure
of insulin. Researchers investigated cloning the human insulin gene using
plasmids found in E. coli. They knew of the presence of
an EcoR1 recognition site (GAATTC) within these plasmids.
When research began, the safety of recombinant plasmids was being
actively discussed. Safety regulations were put in place to
identify, evaluate, minimise and manage the risks involved.
Researchers tested the first recombinant human insulin in cell
cultures in the laboratory and in live animals. This was
followed by clinical trials where information was gained about the
effectiveness and side effects of using this insulin to treat
diabetes.
The first recombinant human insulin that was produced and tested
established that the use of recombinant plasmids was
successful. Facilities were built for recombinant plasmid research
and the commercial production of recombinant human insulin. One
of insulin’s first researchers, Arthur Riggs, stated, ‘It is
interesting to think about how much progress has been
made since [the 1970s]. For example, in 2020, the genes for
insulin can be made in a few hours by automated
instruments, then cloned and expressed by a single person in
about a week’.
Reference: AD Riggs, ‘Making, cloning, and the expression of
human insulin genes in bacteria: The path to
humulin’,Endocrine Reviews, vol. 42, issue 3, June
2021, pp. 374–380,
<https://doi.org/10.1210/endrev/bnaa029>; licensed CC-BY-NC-
ND 4.0
<https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-nc-nd/4.0/
>

a. What is meant by recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid in the

context of this article?

1
b. The article states that the researchers knew the structure of
insulin and the amino acid sequence before mark
 they created the recombinant human insulin in the laboratory. 2
How would the researchers have used this information to genetically
marks
engineer a human insulin gene and how might this engineered
insulin gene have differed from a natural insulin gene isolated from
human DNA?

SECTION B – Question 10 – continued

 37 2021 BIO

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c. Outline the steps that are required for the human insulin gene to be cloned and expressed in bacteria
in 2020.

IN THIS
DO NOT WRITE

d.

What ethical response would have been expected from the researchers in the 1970s if, during their
clinical trials, they discovered that the recombinant human insulin was signifi cantly more eff ective
than using insulin from either cows or pigs?

SECTION B – continued
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2021 BIOLOGY EXAM 38

Question 11 (9 marks)
Two students designed an experiment to investigate antibiotic resistance in Escherichia coli bacteria. They
began with an E. coli culture. The following procedure was conducted in a fi ltered air chamber using
aseptic techniques:
• On Day 0, spread 1 mL of E. coli culture onto a nutrient agar plate containing 0 μg/mL (micrograms per
millilitre) of the antibiotic ampicillin. Spread 1 mL of the E. coli culture onto a separate nutrient agar
plate containing 1 μg/mL of ampicillin. Cover each plate with an airtight lid.
• On Day 1, transfer a sample of bacteria from one of the Day 0 plates to one of the Day 1 plates containing
2 μg/mL of ampicillin. Transfer a sample of bacteria from the other Day 0 plate to the other Day 1 plate,
which also contains 2 μg/mL of ampicillin. Cover as before.
• On Day 2, transfer a sample of bacteria from one of the Day 1 plates to one of the Day 2 plates containing
4 μg/mL of ampicillin. Transfer a sample of bacteria from the other Day 1 plate to the other Day 2 plate,
which also contains 4 μg/mL of ampicillin. Cover as before.
• On Day 3, transfer a sample of bacteria from one of the Day 2 plates to one of the Day 3 plates containing
6 μg/mL of ampicillin. Transfer a sample of bacteria from the other Day 2 plate to the other Day 3 plate,
which also contains 6 μg/mL of ampicillin. Cover and seal the plates.
All plates were incubated at 37 °C for each 24-hour period. Used plates were refrigerated until the end of the
experiment. They were then photographed to compare the amount of bacterial growth and disposed of safely.
The students drew a diagram (Figure 1) to help explain the experimental design and to show their predicted results
in each condition at the end of each day.
End of Day 0 End of Day 1 End of Day 2 End of Day 3
bacterial
colony
Experimental
group

1 μg/mL 2 μg/mL 4 μg/mL 6 μg/mL

ampicillin ampicillin ampicillin ampicillin

E. coli agar
plate Control
culture
group

0 μg/mL 2 μg/mL 4 μg/mL 6 μg/mL

ampicillin ampicillin ampicillin ampicillin

Figure 1

a. Identify any two controlled variables for this experiment. 2 marks

b. Write a suitable hypothesis for this experiment. 2 marks

 39 2021 BIOLO

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The refrigeratedDayplates
0 kept from Days 0, 1, 2 and Day3 of2 the experiment were photographed. Day
The 3
diagrams in Figure 2 represent the bacterial growth seen in the photographs.

Results obtained at the end of Days 0, 1, 2 Exper

group
and 3 Day 1
IN THIS

4 μ g/mL 6 μg/mL
ampicillin ampicillin

AR
DO NOT WRITE

Cont
2 μ g/mL grou
ampicillin

bacterial
4 μ g/mL
ampicillin
colonies 6 μg/mL
ampicillin
TH

Figure 2

c. i. 2 μ g/mL IN
ampicillin
W

Analyse the results of the experiment shown in

Figure 2.

NO

DO

ii.Explain whether the results of the students’ experiment shown in Figure 2 support the predicted results sho
in Figure 1.

SECTION B – Question 11 – continued END OF QUESTION AND ANSWER BOOK