16-08-2024

1015CMD303054240010 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 100 divisions in its circular scale. The
pitch of the screw gauge is :

(1) 1.0 mm
(2) 0.01 mm
(3) 0.25 mm
(4) 0.5 mm

2) Vernier callipers has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the Vernier
scale, which coincide with 16 divisions of the main scale, the least count of the callipers is :

(1) 0.02 mm
(2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.5 mm
(4) 0.2 mm

3) Two resistance R1 = (3 ± 0.2)Ω and R2 = (5 ± 0.1)Ω are connected in series. The equivalent
resistance is :

(1) (2 ± 0.1)Ω
(2) (8 ± 0.2)Ω
(3) (8 ± 0.3)Ω
(4) (2 ± 0.3)Ω

4) The area of a rectangular field (in m2) of length 51.8 m and breadth 27 m after rounding off the
value for correct significant digits is :

(1) 1382
(2) 1382.5
(3) 14 × 102
(4) 138 × 101

5) If velocity of a particle is given by v = (2t + 3) m/s, then average velocity in interval 0 ≤ t ≤ 1s is :

(1)
m/s

(2)
m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

6) Magnitude of slope of the shown graph.

(1) First increases then decreases

(2) First decreases then increases
(3) Increases
(4) Decreases

7) The acceleration a of a particle starting from rest varies with time according to relation a = αt +
β. The velocity of the particle after a time t will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A stone is released from the top of a tower. If its velocity at half of the height is 10 m/s, then
height of the tower is :- (g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 8 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 12 m
(4) 16 m

9) A ball is thrown upward with a velocity of 20 m/s from top of a tower having a height of 50 m.
What time elapsed when it again passes from the top of tower ? (g = 10 ms2)

(1) 2 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 8 s
(4) 5 s

10) A particle starts from rest at t = 0 and moves in a straight line with an acceleration as shown
below. The velocity of the particle at t = 3 s is

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

11)

Figure shows the distance-time graph of the motion of a car. it follows from the graph that the car is
:

(1) at rest
(2) in uniform motion
(3) in non-uniform acceleration
(4) uniformly accelerated

12) A projectile is projected with kinetic energy K. If it has the maximum possible horizontal range,
then its kinetic energy at the heighest point will be :

(1) 0.25 K
(2) 0.5 K
(3) 0.75 K
(4) 1.0 K

13) Particle is projected upward with velocity 100 m/s at an angle of 30° with horizontal. Find the
time when its velocity is perpendicular to the acceleration :-

(1) 10 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 20 s
(4) 15 s

14) A body covers first one-third of the distance with a velocity 20 ms–1, the second one-third with a
velocity of 30 ms–1 and last one-third with a velocity of 40 ms–1. The average velocity is nearly:-

(1) 28 m/s
(2) 38 m/s
(3) 18 m/s
(4) 8 m/s

15) In the given v-t graph the distance travelled by the body in 5 second will be :

(1) 100 m
(2) 80 m
(3) 40 m
(4) 20 m

16) If two projectile are projected from ground at angle 30º and 60º wrt horizontal, and their
horizontal range are same, then ratio of their max height attained -

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

17) A person moves 30 m north and then 20 m towards east and finally 30 m in south-west
direction. The displacement of the person from the origin will be

(1) 10 m along north

(2) 10 m along south
(3) 10 m along west
(4) Zero

18) The equation of projectile is then the horizontal range is.

(1) 16 m
(2) 8 m
(3) 64 m
(4) 12.8 m

19) A train moves in north direction with a speed of 54 km/h and a monkey running on the roof of
the train, against its motion with a velocity of 18 km/h with respect to the train, then the velocity of
monkey as observed by a man standing on the ground :

(1) 5 ms–1 due south

(2) 25 ms–1 due south
(3) 10 ms–1 due south
(4) 10 ms–1 due north

20) The maximum vertical height to which a man can throw a ball is 136 m. The maximum horizontal
distance upto which he can throw the same ball is

(1) 192 m
(2) 136 m
(3) 272 m
(4) 68 m

21) A body is thrown vertically upwards. If air resistance is to be taken into account, then the time
during which the body rises is :-

(1) Equal to the time of fall

(2) Less than the time of fall
(3) Greater than the time of fall
(4) Twice the time of fall

22) The direction of magnetic field due to a current element i at a point, distance r from it,
when a current i passes through a long conductor is in the direction :-

(1) of position vector of the point

(2) of current element

(3) Perpendicular to both and

(4) Perpendicular to only

23) A small current carrying element of length dℓ and carrying current I in –x direction is placed at
origin in xy plane (as shown in figure). Magnetic field at point P (a, b) will be –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
24) Assertion : A current element is a source of magnetic field.
Reason : A moving charge is a source of magnetic field.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

25) A beam of electrons and protons move parallel to each other in the same direction, then they

(1) Attract each other

(2) repel each other
(3) No relation
(4) Neither attract nor repel

26) A loaded grocery cart is rolling across a parking lot in a strong wind. You apply a constant force
to the cart as it undergoes a displacement . How much

work does the force you apply do on the grocery cart ?

(1) 150 J
(2) 390 J
(3) –150 J
(4) 270J

27)

If and A + B = C than angle between & :-

(1) 0
(2) 90º
(3) 120º
(4) 180º

28)

What is value of ?

(1) AB sin θ
(2) A2B2 sin θ
(3) A2B2 sin θ
(4) –A2B2 sin2 θ

29)

Find angle between vectors and :-

(1) π rad

(2)
rad

(3)
rad
(4) Zero

30) Which of the following is true statement :-

(1) β > α
(2) α > β
(3) α = β
(4) None

31) Which of the following forces cannot be a resultant of 15 N force and 11 N force ?

(1) 2 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 14 N
(4) 5 N

32) A small telescope has objective lens of focal length 144 cm and eye piece of focal length 6.00 cm.
What is magnfying power of telescope and separation between objective and eye piece, when final
image is at infinity ?

(1) 24, 150.0 cm

(2) 18, 100 cm
(3) 12, 125 cm
(4) 6, 100 cm

33) The radius of curvature of the convex surface of a thin plano-convex lens is 15 cm and the
refractive index of its material is 1.6. The power of the lens is :-

(1) +1D
(2) –4D
(3) +3D
(4) +4D

34) Two lenses of focal length + 10 cm and –15 cm when put in contact behave like a convex lens.
They will have zero longitudinal chromatic aberration if their dispersive powers are in the ratio

(1) + 3/2
(2) + 2/3
(3) – 3/2
(4) – 2/3

35) In Galilean telescope, if the powers of an objective and eye lens are respectively + 1.25 D and –
20 D, then for relaxed vision, the length of tube and magnification will be :-

(1) 21.25 cm and 16

(2) 75 cm and 20
(3) 75 cm and 16
(4) 8.5 cm and 21.25

SECTION-B

1) Planck's constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton's gravitational constant (G) are
three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of
time ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) At what angle to the horizontal should a ball be thrown so that its range R is related to the time of
2 –2
flight T as R = 5T ? Take g = 10 ms :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

3) A boat which has a speed of 5 km/h in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest
possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river water (in km/hr) is :

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 40

4) Two balls are thrown simultaneously, (A) vertically upwards with a speed of 20 m/s from the
ground and (B) vertically downwards from a height of 40 m with the same speed and along the same
line of motion. At which point the balls will collide : (take g = 10 m/sec2)
(1) 15 m above from the ground
(2) 15 m below from the top of the tower
(3) 20 m above from the ground
(4) 20 m below from the top of the tower

5) During the first 18 min of a 60 min trip, a car has an average speed of 14 ms–1. What should be the
average speed for remaining 42 min so that car is having an average speed of 21 ms–1 for the entire
trip ?

(1) 24 ms–1
(2) 30 ms–1
(3) 36 ms–1
(4) 20 ms–1

6) A particle is dropped from the top of a tower. the distance covered by it in the last one second is
equal to that covered by it in the first three seconds. Find the height of the tower.

(1) 100 m
(2) 120 m
(3) 125 m
(4) 95 m

7) A particle is moving on a circular path of radius r with uniform velocity v. The change in velocity

when the particle moves from P to Q is (∠POQ = 40°) :-

(1) 2v cos 40°

(2) 2v sin 40°
(3) 2v sin 20°
(4) 2v cos 20°

8) The graph shows the variation of velocity of a rocket with time. Then, the maximum height

attained by the rocket is :-

(1) 1.1 km
(2) 5 km
(3) 55 km
(4) none of these

9) The relation between time and distance is t = αx2 + βx, where α and β are constants. The
retardation is :-

(1) 2αv3
(2) 2βv3
(3) 2αβv3
(4) 2β2v3

10) A current flow in a conductor from east to west. The direction of the magnetic field at a point
above the conductor

(1) towards north

(2) towards south
(3) towards east
(4) towards west

11) A bird moves from point (1, –2) to (4, 2). If the speed of the bird is 20 m/s, then the velocity
vector of the bird is

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

12)

If the sum of two unit vectors is an unit vector, the magnitude of difference is :-

(1)
(2)
(3) 2
(4)

13) Two lenses in contact made of materials with dispersive powers in the ratio 2 : 1, behaves as an
achromatic lens of convex nature of focal length 10 cm. The individual focal length of the lenses are
:

(1) 5 cm, –10cm

(2) –5 cm, 10 cm
(3) 10 cm, –20 cm
(4) –20 cm, 10 cm

14) A compound microscope has an eye-piece of focal length 10 cm and objective of focal length 4
cm. Calculate the magnifying power if final image of an object kept at a distance of 5cm, forms at
least distance of distinct vision :-

(1) +12
(2) –12
(3) +14
(4) –14

15) Figure shows an object and its image formed by thin lens. Then the nature and focal length of

lens is

(1) f = 4.8 cm; converging lens

(2) f = 4.8 cm; diverging lens
(3) f = 2.18 cm; converging lens
(4) f = 2.18 cm; diverging lens

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1)

For the reaction : PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the forward reaction at constant temperature is favoured by
:-
(a) Introducing inert gas at constant pressure.
(b) Introducing inert gas at constant volume.
(c) Introducing PCl5 at constant volume.
(d) Introducing Cl2 at constant volume.

(1) (a), (b)

(2) (a), (c)
(3) (b), (c)
(4) (a), (d)

2) In the reaction if at equilibrium partial pressure of O2 & total pressure is 2

atm & 10 atm respectively then find initial pressure of SO3 gas ?

(1) 2 atm
(2) 4 atm
(3) 6 atm
(4) 8 atm

3)
A graph is given for the reaction so tell about favourable conditions for more yield of product ?
3A(g) + B(g) 2C(g)

(1) high pressure & high temperature

(2) high pressure & low temperature
(3) low pressure & high temperature
(4) low pressure & low temperature

4) Rate of reaction curve for equilibrium can be like :

[rf = rate of forward, rb = rate of backward]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The equilibrium constant (Kp) for the reaction

PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) is 16. If the volume of the container is reduced to one half of its original
volume, the value of Kp for the reaction at the same temperature will be :

(1) 32
(2) 64
(3) 16
(4) 4

6) Equilibrium constant for following reactions are K1, K2 and K3 respectively :

; K1
 ; K2

; K3

; K4
Which of the following relation is incorrect.

(1)

3
(2) K4 = K1 × K2/(K3)

(3)

(4)

7) The relation between Kp and Kc in equilibrium is :

(1)
(2) Kp = Kc × RT
(3)
(4) Kc = Kp × Δng

8) For a gas reaction, 3H2(g) + N2(g) 2NH3 (g), the partial pressures of H2 and N2 are 0.4 and 0.8
atmospheric at equilibrium respectively while the total pressure of the entire system is 2.8
atmospheric. What will be the value of KP :

(1) 32 atm–2
(2) 20 atm–2
(3) 50 atm–2
(4) 80 atm–2

9) Check the following statements :

(i) A catalyst does not alter the equilibrium state.
(ii) For the equilibrium, H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI, the value of equilibrium constant increases with increase in
concentration of H2.
(iii) For any reaction greater the value of equilibrium constant greater is the extent of completion of
reaction.
(iv) For the reaction, N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2, Kc = Kp/RT.
(v) For the reaction PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2, the degree of dissociation of PCl5 increases with increase in
pressure.
(vi) The value of equilibrium constant does not depend upon pressure.
How many of these statements are correct :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

10) The equilibrium constant expression for reaction is :-

4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) ⇌ 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Assertion : If volume is kept constant and an inert gas such as argon is added which does not
take part in the reaction, the equilibrium remains undisturbed.
Reason : Addition of an inert gas at constant volume does not change the partial pressure or the
molar concentrations of the substance involved in the reaction.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

12) The pKa of a weak acid, HA, is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base, BOH, is 4.80. The pH of an aqueous
solution of the corresponding salt. BA, will be :-

(1) 9.58
(2) 4.79
(3) 7.0
(4) 9.22

13) The first and second dissociation constants of an acid H2A are 1.0 × 10–5 and 5.0 × 10–10
respectively. The overall dissociation constant of the acid will be:-

(1) 5.0 × 1015

(2) 5.0 × 10–15
(3) 0.2 × 105
(4) 5.0 × 10–5

14)

Which one is correct relationship at 25ºC :-

+ –
(1) Kw = [H ] + [OH ]
(2)
pH = –log
(3) pH = 14 + log[OH–]
(4) pH = log(pOH)

15)

Which of the following has the highest degree of ionisation?

(1) 1 M NH3
(2) 0.001 M NH3
(3) 0.1 M NH3
(4) 0.0001 M NH3

16) Which two orbitals are located along the axis, and not between the axis ?

(1) dxy,
(2) dxy, pz
(3) dyz, px
(4)

17) In an atom which has 2K, 8L, 8M and 2N electrons in the ground state, the total number of
electrons having ℓ = 1 are :

(1) 20
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 10

18) The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p-orbitals are respectively :

(1) 2, 0
(2) 0, 2
(3) 1, 2
(4) 2, 1

19) Which of the following set of quantum numbers is impossible for an electron ?

(1)
n = 1, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(2)
n = 9, ℓ = 7, m = – 6, s = –

(3)
n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = 0, s = +
(4)
n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = – 3, s = +

20) The electronic configurations of 24Cr and 29Cu are abnormal because

(1) Due to extra stability of exactly half filled and exactly fully filled sub shells
(2) Because they belong to d-block
(3) Both of the above
(4) None of the above

21) The number of orbitals in a subshell designated by quantum numbers n = 4 and ℓ = 3 is :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 14
(4) 7

22) Shortest wavelength line in the Paschen series of Li2+ ion will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23)

Which of the following compound is most basic:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

24)

For which carboxylic acid, the pka is the lowest :

(1) CH3–CH2–COOH
(2) HC ≡ C –COOH
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–COOH
(4) CH2=CH–COOH

25)

Which of the following is most acidic among the given carboxylic acids ?

(1)
(2) CH3COOH
(3)
(4)

26) Correct decreasing order of basic strength for following :-

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > III > I > IV
(3) II > IV > I > III
(4) II > III > IV > I

27) Arrange the following in correct order of acidic strength.

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I > II > IV > III
(3) II > I > III > IV
(4) II > III > IV > I

28) Most stable carbocation among following is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Most stable carbanion is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) In which of the following lone pair is involved in resonance ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)
31) (A). Most stable resonating structure of (A) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Least basic compound among the following is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33)

Which resonating structure of vinyl chloride is least stable

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) All have equal stability

34) Which of the following is not aromatic :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Which is most basic in nature ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) For the reaction A(g) + 3B(g) 2C(g) at 27°C, 2 moles of A, 4 moles of B and 6 moles of C are
present in 2 litre vessel. If KC for the reaction is 5, the reaction will proceed in :-

(1) Forward direction

(2) Backward direction
(3) Neither direction
(4) None of these

2) For the equilibrium,

2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl2(g), the value of the equilibrium constant, KC is 3.75 × 10–6 M at 1069 K. What
will be the KP (in atm) for the reaction at this temperature.
(1) 5.6 × 10–4
(2) 3.29 × 10–4
(3) 6.23 × 10–4
(4) 8.12 × 10–4

3) Which will increase the degree of ionisation of CH3COOH ?

(1) Decrease the temperature

(2) Addition of water
(3) Add HCl to its solution
(4) All

4) The pH of 0.02 M NH4Cl(aq.) (pKb = 4.73) is equal to :

(1) 3.78
(2) 12.7
(3) 5.48
(4) 7.00

5) What is the percentage degree of hydrolysis (approx.) of KCN in N/80 solution when the
dissociation constant for HCN is 1.6 × 10–9 and Kw = 10–14.

(1) 5.26%
(2) 2.24%
(3) 8.2%
(4) 1.5%

6) Which is correct statement :

When electrons jump from 6th to around state in multiple step then maximum spectral line
(1)
obtain are 15
(2) Bohr model applicable for H, He, Li
(3) angular node for p orbital is 2
(4) Radial node of 4d is 2

7) Which among the following is correct for 5B in normal state ?

(1)
: Against Hund's rule

(2)
: Against Aufbau principle as well as Hund's rule

(3)
: Violation of Pauli's exclusion principle and not Hund's rule

(4)
: Against Aufbau principle
8) The volume of a drop of water is 0.0018 mL then the number of water molecules present in two
drop of water at room temperature is :

(1) 12.046 × 1019

(2) 1.084 × 1018
(3) 4.84 × 1017
(4) 6.023 × 1023

9) 500 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon when burnt in excess of O2 gave 2.5 L of CO2 and 3.0 L of water
vapours under same conditions. Molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is -

(1) C4H8
(2) C4H10
(3) C5H10
(4) C5H12

10) What is pH when 0.002 g of NaOH is dissolve in 200 ml water.

(1) 3.6
(2) 2.3
(3) 5.3
(4) 10.4

11)

Compare the acidic strength in the following compound?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) a > d > b > c

(2) a > b > d > c
(3) c > b > a > d
(4) b > a > c > d

12) In which of the following anion is not involved in resonance?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Most stable carbocation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)

Most acidic compound is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

15) Which of the following is not the correct resonating structure of C6H5NH2 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Statement A : Tight junction helps to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
Statement B : Compound squamous epithelium occurs in stomach, intestine and trachea.

(1) Statement A and B, both are correct

(2) Statement A and B, both are incorrect
(3) Statement A is correct and statement B is incorrect
(4) Statement A is incorrect and statement B is correct

2) Statement - A : The matrix of bone is hard, non pliable and does not resist compression.
Statement - B : The matrix of cartilage is solid and pliable and resist compression.

(1) Statement A and B both are correct

(2) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect
(3) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct
(4) Statement A and B both are incorrect

3) Statement-I : The functions of simple squamous epithelium is forming a diffusion boundary.

Statement-II : The main functions of simple cuboial epithelium are secretion and absorption.

(1) Only Statement-I is correct

(2) Only Statement-II is correct
(3) Statement-I & 2 both are correct
(4) Statement-I & 2 both are incorrect

4) Which one of the following gland is correctly matched with the accompanying description ?

(1) Thyroid – hyperactivity in young children causes cretinism

(2) Thymus – Starts undergoing atrophy after puberty
Parathyroid – Secretes parathormone which promotes movement of calcium ions from blood to
(3)
bones during calcification
Pancreas – Delta cells of the Islets of Langerhans secrete a hormone which stimulates glycolysis
(4)
in liver

5) Which hormone stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions from pancreas ?

(1) Gastrin
(2) Secretin
(3) CCK
(4) GIP

6) The hormone glucagon :-

(1) Has the opposite effect as that of insulin

(2) Is produced in the beta cells of pancreas
(3) Converts glucose into glycogen
(4) Is used in the treatment of diabetes mellitus

7) Select the correctly matched pair

(1) hyperpituitarism after puberty - acromegaly

(2) FSH - ovulation hormone
(3) LH - folliculogenic hormone
(4) LTH- milk ejection hormone

8) Which of the following is not a diabetogenic hormone ?

(1) Glucagon
(2) Insulin
(3) GH
(4) Cortisol

9) Melatonin hormone of pineal gland stimulates different body functions except :-

(1) Sleep wake cycle

(2) Body temperature
(3) Red blood cell formation
(4) Defence capability

10) Identify the structure labelled as A,B,C and D in the following figure, showing the mode of action
of a steroid hormone. :-

(1) A-Uterine cell membrane, B-Receptor protein, C-CAMP

(2) A-Ovarian cell membrane, B-Hormone-receptor complex, D-Biochemical response
(3) A-Uterine cell membrane, B-Hormone-receptor complex, D-Tissue growth and differentiation
(4) B-C-AMP, C-Protein, D-Tissue growth and differentiation

11) Release and deposition of Ca+2 in bone is regulated by two specific endocrine glands of body
respectively :-

(1) Thyroid, Parathyroid

(2) Parathyroid, Anterior pituitary
(3) Thyroid, Pineal
(4) Parathyroid, Thyroid

12) Osteoporosis, an age–related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to :-

(1) Decreased level of estrogen
(2) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints.
(3) Immune disorder affecting neuro–muscular junction leading to fatigue.
(4) High concentration of Ca++ and Na+

13) Which of the following gland is ectodermal in origin?

(1) Adrenal Cortex

(2) Parathyroid
(3) Pancreas
(4) Pineal gland

14) In following hormonal mechanism hormone (A) could be :-

(1) Oestrogen
(2) Epinephrine
(3) Cortisol
(4) Thyroxine

15) Find out correctly matched :-

(A) Thymus – AMI
(B) PTH – Ca+2 absorption
(C) Adrenal – glucocorticoids
(D) Thyroid – Anti-inflammatory response

(1) A, B, D
(2) A, B, C
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, C, D

16)

Which unpaired gland is present at the base of urinary bladder ?

(1) Bartholin gland

(2) Cowper's gland
(3) Prostate gland
(4) Saminal vesicle
17) LH is secreted by :-

(1) Leydig cell

(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Anterior pituitary
(4) Posterior pituitary

18) What is not correct about uterus ?

(1) Also known as womb

(2) Inverted pear shape
(3) Paired
(4) Site of implantation

19) Ampulla of vas deferens of each side recieves the seminal vesicle of that side and forms :-

(1) Ejaculatory duct

(2) Prostatic urethra
(3) Penile urethra
(4) Epididymis

20) The Hormone Responsible for ovulation and development of corpus luteum is :-

(1) TSH
(2) FSH
(3) LH
(4) Prolactin

21) Select the correct anatomical sequence.

(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Epididymis
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Epididymis
(4) None of these

22) The testes are situated ____ the abdominal cavity within a pouch called ____.

(1) inside, testicular lobules

(2) outside, scrotum
(3) outside, vas deferens
(4) inside, scrotum

23) Sertoli cells are found in–

(1) Ovaries and secrete progesterone

(2) Adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
(3) Seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells
(4) Pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin

24) In which one of the following structure and its functions are incorrectly stated related to human
reproduction?

(1) Seminiferous tubule - Secretion of estrogen.

Male reproductive glands - Secretes seminal plasma which is rich in fructose, calcium and
(2)
certain enzymes.
The male external genitalia - It is made up of special tissue that help in erection of the penis to
(3)
facilitate insemination.
(4) Male accessory ducts - Help in transport of sperms.

25) Which of the following option is a set of accessory sex organs of female :-

(1) Oviduct, Uterus, Vagina

(2) Ovary, Oviduct, Uterus
(3) Oviduct, Bulbourethral gland, Vagina, Ovary
(4) Oviduct, Ovary, Vagina

26) The scientist, who first observed densely stained reticular structures near the nucleus is :

(1) Robert Hooke

(2) Robert Brown
(3) Strasburger
(4) Camillo Golgi

27) Arrangement of microtubules in flagellum axoneme and a centriole is respectively :

(1) 9 + 2 and 9 + 1
(2) 9 + 1 and 9 + 0
(3) 9 + 0 and 9 + 2
(4) 9 + 2 and 9 + 0

28) Abrin is which type of secondary metabolites :-

(1) Alkaloids
(2) Toxin
(3) Lectin
(4) Drug

29) Which of the following statement is not correct :-

(1) Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities.

(2) Prokaryotes lack membrane bound cell organelles.
(3) Centriole is non membrane bound organelle.
(4) Ribosome found only in eukaryotes.

30) Developmental and environmental heterophylly are exhibited by A and B respectively.

(1) A - Coriander, B - Cotton

(2) A - Cotton, B - Buttercup
(3) A - Buttercup, B - Coriander
(4) A - Cotton, B - Larkspur

31) Which one of the following is known as suicidal bag of cell

(1) Lysosome
(2) Vacuole
(3) Golgi apparatus
(4) Plastid

32) Which of the following possess DNA ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Golgi apparatus
(4) (1) and (2) both

33) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II
Flat membrane sac in
(a) Cristae (i)
stroma
Infoldings in
(b) Cisternae (ii)
mitochondria
Disk shaped sacs in Golgi
(c) Thylakoids (iii)
apparatus
(1) a - ii, b - iii, c - i
(2) a - iii, b - ii, c - i
(3) a - i, b - ii, c - iii
(4) a - i, b - iii, c - ii

34)

Every chromosome essentially has the .......... on the sides of which disc shaped structures called
......... are present.
Choose the correct words for the blanks respectively

(1) Centrosome, centrioles

(2) Kinetochore, centrosome
(3) Centromere, Kinetochores
(4) DNA, RNA

35) Which type of chromosome has maximum arm ratio?

(1) Telocentric
(2) Acrocentric
(3) Metacentric
(4) Submetacentric

SECTION-B

1) The example of unicellular and multicellular glands are subsequently :

(1) Salivary gland and sweat gland

(2) Goblet cells and salivary gland
(3) Sweet gland and mammary gland
(4) Salivary gland and goblet cell

2) Which one of the following is incorrect for compound epithelium ?

(1) It is made up of more then one layer of cells

(2) Limited role in secretion and absorption
(3) Main function is protection.
(4) Main functions are secretion & absorption

3) Which one of the following is not an example of compound epithelium ?

(1) Dry surface of skin

(2) PCT of Nephron
(3) Moist surface of buccal cavity
(4) Inner lining of pancreatic duct

4) In the dense regular connective tissue, the collagen fibers are present in rows between many
parallel bundles of fiber, these type of tissues examples are-

(1) Tendon and ligament

(2) Skin and cartilage
(3) Cartilage and bone
(4) Bone and ligament

5) Structure present in outer ear joints is :-

(1) Cartilage
(2) Bone
(3) Cardiac muscle
(4) Osteocytes
6) Which one of the following animal tissue is not correctly matched with its location and function ?

Tissue Location Function

Connects skin to
(1) Areolar tissue Beneath the skin
the muscles

Stratified
(2) Skin (Epidermis) Protection
epithelium

Simple columnar
(3) Alimentary Canal Absorption
epithelium

(4) Cartilage Tip of Nose Weight bearing

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7)

Lable 'a' correctly :-

(1) loose connective tissue

(2) dense connective tissue
(3) compact bone tissue
(4) compact cartilagenous tissue

8) What is decreased if adrenal medulla secrete catecholamines ?

(a) Alertness (b) Salivation
(c) Urination (d) Pupillary dilation
(e) Piloerection

(1) a, b, e
(2) b and c
(3) a, d and e
(4) b, c and d

9) Assertion : Pineal gland found on the epithalamus of Diencephalon.

Reason : It is a type of exocrine gland which is active in later age of life.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

10) Assertion : Aldosterone is known as salt retaining hormone.

Reason : It reduces Na reabsorption from urine to increase its loss from the body.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

11) Algal cell wall is made up of :-

(1) Hemicellulose, Xylan only

(2) Cellulose, hemicellulose, Pectin only
(3) Cellulose, Galactan, Mannans, Minerals
(4) Cellulose, Hemicellulose, Proteins, Pectins only

12) An action spectrum of photosynthesis was first described by :

(1) Jan Ingenhousz

(2) Julius von Sachs
(3) T.W. Engelmann
(4) Cornelius van Niel

13) The correct order of chemical composition of living tissues/cells in term of % of the total cellular
mass :-

(1) Nucleic acid > proteins > H2O > carbohydrates > ion > lipids
(2) H2O > proteins > nucleic acid > carbohydrates > lipids > ions
(3) H2O > proteins > carbohydrates > nucleic acid > lipids > ions
(4) Lipids > ions > carbohydrates > H2O > proteins > nucleic acid

14) F0–F1, particular present in mitochondria are also known as-

(1) Episomes
(2) Sphaerosomes
(3) Oxysomes
(4) Lysosome

15)

RuBisCo enzyme presents in :-

(1) Matrix of Mitochondria

(2) Stroma of chloroplast
(3) Thylakoid membrane
(4) Ribosome

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Who proposed “fluid mosaic model” for plasma membrane

(1) C. Cramer and C. Nageli

(2) Singer and Nicholson
(3) Denielli and Davson
(4) J.D. Robertson

2) Packaging and transport of materials is the principle function of :

(1) ER
(2) Lysosome
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Golgi body

3) First stable product of calvin cycle is :-

(1) Arabinitol bisphosphate

(2) PGA
(3) Phosphoglycolate
(4) OAA

4) The photosynthetic pigments are absorb maximum light in which region of the absorption
spectrum-

(1) Red and green

(2) Yellow and green
(3) Blue and red
(4) Brown and red

5) "CO2 is required for photosynthesis". This conclusion can be drawn by performing:

(1) Variegated leaf experiment

(2) Moll's Half leaf experiment
(3) Bell-jar experiment
(4) C.Niel experiment

6)
In aerobic respiration oxygen is actually utilized at:-

(1) ETS
(2) Krebs cycle
(3) Link reaction
(4) Glucose

7) The copper containing cytochrome in mitochondrial ETS is :-

(1) PC
(2) FMN
(3) Cyto-a3
(4) cyto. b

8) Respiratory Quotient of glucose is :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.7
(3) 1.0
(4) 1.5

9)

Select the wrong statement with respect to glycolysis :-

(1) It occurs outside the mitochondria

(2) It is common between anaerobic and aerobic respiration
(3) Glucose undergoes partial oxidation to form 2 molecules of pyruvic acid.
(4) Glucose is phosphorylated to glucose-6- phosphate by isomerase enzyme

10) How many of the following respiratory reactions occur in cytoplasm of eukaryotic cell ?
(a) PGAL → 1, 3 di PGA
(b) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid
(c) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA
(d) PEP → Pyruvate
(e) Fructose 1, 6 di phosphate → DHAP + 3PGAL

(1) (a) and (e) only

(2) (a), (d) and (e) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
(4) (a) and (e) only

11) The plant growth regulator which helps to produce new leaves, chloroplast in leaves, lateral
shoot growth and adventitious shoot formation is:-

(1) Auxin
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellin
(4) Light

12) Which is not a physiological effect of auxins ?

(1) Cell elongation

(2) Development of parthenocarpic fruits
(3) Prevention of abscission of leaves and fruits
(4) Reversal of genetic dwarfism

13) Which hormone promote flowering in pineapple ?

(1) Cytokinin
(2) Auxin
(3) Gibberellin
(4) ABA

14) The form of growth where new cells are always being added to the plant body by the activity of
meristem is called the

(1) Open form of growth

(2) Closed form of growth
(3) Determinate growth
(4) Both (1) and (3)

15) Triple response hormone on stem is :

(1) Abscisic acid

(2) Ethylene
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Auxin

16) Which of the following phytohormones is used to speed up the malting process in brewing
industry?

(1) GA3
(2) 2, 4-D
(3) Kinetin
(4) Ethylene

17) In which one of the following enzymes, zinc is necessarily associated as an cofactor ?

(1) Tyrosinase
(2) PEPcase
(3) Carboxy peptidase
(4) Rubisco
18) The statement "All biological enzymes are proteins" is no longer valid after the discovery of -

(1) Ribozyme
(2) Pepsin
(3) Lysozyme
(4) Ligase

19)

The process which makes major difference between C3 and C4 plants is :-

(1) Photorespiration
(2) Respiration
(3) Glycolysis
(4) Calvin Cycle

20) The adjoining graph shows change in conc. of substrate of enzyme activity. Identify A, B and C.

A B C
(1) Ki Km Kmax
(2) Km Ki

(3) Vmax Km

(4) Km Vmax

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Enzyme which catalyse transfer of hydrogen between two substrate are called

(1) Transferases
(2) Oxidoreductases
(3) Isomerases
(4) Hydrolases

22) Assertion (A) : The inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by Malonate is competitive inhibitor.
Reason (R) : Inhibitor that closely resembles the substrate in molecular structure and inhibit the
activity of enzyme is known as competitive inhibitor.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

23) Here X, Y and Z represent :-

(1) X–Glycerol, Y–fatty acid, Z–Protein

(2) X – Fatty acid, Y – Glycerol, Z–Organic acid
(3) X – Fatty acid, Y – Glycerol, Z–protein
(4) X – Organic acid, Y – Glycerol, Z–Carbohydrate

24) Assertion (A) :- It is better to consider respiratory pathway as an amphibolic pathway.

Reason (R) :- Respiratory pathway comes into the picture both during breakdown and synthesis of
substrates.

(1) Assertion is true but reason is false

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

25) RQ is less than one if the respiratory substrate is :-

(1) organic acids

(2) Fats and proteins
(3) Sucrose
(4) Glucose

26) Refer the given equation and answer the question.

The R.Q of above reaction is :

(1) 1
(2) 0.7
(3) 1.45
(4) 1.62
27) In Krebs cycle, No of decarboxylation and dehydrogenation will be respectively :

(1) 2, 3
(2) 2, 4
(3) 3, 2
(4) 4, 2

28) TCA cycle starts with the :

(1) Condensation of acetyl CoA with OAA

(2) Isomerisation of citrate to isocitrate
(3) Oxidative decarboxylation of Pyruvic Acid
(4) Formation of OAA from malic acid

29) Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Peroxisomes
(3) Golgi bodies
(4) Polysomes

30) Which one of the following is attached to the surface of mitochondrial cristae :-

(1) Ribosome
(2) Oxysome
(3) Peroxysome
(4) Mesosome

31) Which is not found in bacteria ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) DNA
(3) Ribosome
(4) Cytoplasm

32) Salt linkage between larger and smaller subunit of ribosome is formed with the help of :-

(1) Ca2+
(2) Na+
(3) Mg2+
(4) K+

33) Eukaryotic cell is divided into compartments due to presence of :-

(1) Membrane bound cell organelles

(2) DNA
(3) Cell wall
(4) Cell membrane

34) Identify the figure given below :-

(1) Tracheid
(2) Nerve cell
(3) Lipid bilayer
(4) RBC

35) Space between parallel nuclear membranes is called perinuclear space which is :-

(1) 10–50 nm
(2) 0.1 – 0.4 mm
(3) 10 – 50 Å
(4) 1 – 4 nm

SECTION-B

1) How many cell types does the leaf have that fix CO2 in sugarcane plant ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

2) During complete oxidation of Fat, Carbohydrate and Protein, Common intermediate is :-

(1) Pyruvate
(2) DHAP
(3) F 1, 6 di phosphate
(4) Acetyl CoA

3) The last electron acceptor of respiration in an aerobic organism is :-

(1) Cytochrome
(2) Oxygen
(3) Hydrogen
(4) Ferredoxin

4) Avena curvature test is suitable for :-

(1) Auxin
(2) GA
(3) ABA
(4) Ethylene

5) The plant hormone, __________ , plays a role in closing of stomata.

(1) auxin
(2) Cytokinin
(3) gibberellin
(4) ABA

6) Plasticity can be seen in :-

(1) Cotton
(2) Coriander
(3) Buttercup
(4) All of these

7) Which factor is necessary conditions for growth :

(1) Water
(2) Oxygen
(3) Nutrients
(4) All of these

8) Which of the following is competitive inhibitor of succinate ?

(1) Fumarate
(2) PABA
(3) Sulpha drugs
(4) Malonate

9) The enzymes are sensitive to

(1) Changes in pH
(2) Changes in temperature
(3) Substrate concentration
(4) All of these

10) Before entering respiratory pathway, amino acids are :

(1) Hydrolysed
(2) Deaminated
(3) Decarboxylated
(4) Phosphorylated

11) How many ATP molecules produced by complete oxidation of 2 molecules of acetyl Co-A

(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 30
(4) 36

12) The total number of 4-carbon containing compound in krebs cycle :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2

13) Proteins are synthesized by:

(1) Ribosomes
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Golgi bodies
(4) Centrosomes

14) Spindle fibres are composed of :

(1) Collagen
(2) Actin
(3) Spectrin
(4) Tubulin

15) Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Organisms are composed of cells.
(b) Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms.
(c) Unicellular organism are capable of independent existance.

(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and c
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 2 4 2 2 1 1 2 3 3 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 3 2 1 1 2 1 4 4 1 1 1 4 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 2 1 1 3 3 3 1 1 4 2 1 4 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 4 2 1 3 2 1 3 3 1 1 3 2 3 4 4 3 1 4 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 3 2 4 4 2 3 2 4 3 3 3 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 2 2 3 2 1 3 1 4 4 2 3 4 1 3

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 1 3 2 2 1 1 2 3 3 4 1 4 2 2 3 3 3 1 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 2 3 1 1 4 4 2 4 2 1 4 1 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 2 1 1 4 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 3 2

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 2 3 2 1 3 3 4 2 2 4 2 1 2 1 3 1 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 1 3 4 2 2 2 1 3 2 1 3 1 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 4 2 1 4 4 4 4 4 2 2 3 1 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

L.C. =

⇒ 0.01 mm = ⇒ Pitch = 1 mm

2)

L.C. = 0.2 mm

3)

Req = R1 + R2
= (3 + 5) ± (0.2 + 0.1)
Req = (8 ± 0.3)Ω

4)

Area = Length × Breadth

= 51.8 × 27
= 1398.6
= 14 × 102

5)

6)

From A to B : θ is acute and decreases, so slope (tan θ) will decreases.

From B to C : θ is obtuse and increases
but magnitude will be positive.
So, B to C magnitude will increases.

7) a = αt + β
 8) ∵ V2 = U2 + 2as

∴ 100 = 10 h ∴ h = 10 m

9)

Here, u = 20 m/s, v = 0,
a = –g = –10 ms2; t = ?
From, v = u + at
0 = 20 – 10t or t = 2sec.
This is the time taken by the ball to reach the highest point from the top of the tower. Time taken to
come back to top of tower = 2 sec.
Therefore, time that elapses in passing the edge of the tower = 2 + 2 = 4 second.

10) Area of according time graph = change in velocity

3×2–1×3=V–0
V = 6 – 3 = 3 m/s

11)

By Theory

12)

Since, range is maximum, therefore θ = 45°. Hence, vx = v cos 45° = . At the highest point, the
net velocity of the projectile is, vx = v cos 45°.

KE = = 0.5 K

13)

Velocity will be perpendicular to acceleration at highest point.

14)

vavg =

15) Distance

=
 = 60 + 30 + 10 = 100 m

16)

17)

From figure,

=
∴ Net displacement,
=

= 10 m

18) y = ...(i)

y=

y= ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
R = 64m

19)

Vmt = Vm – Vt

= 10 ms–1 due north

 20)

= 2(136) = 272 m

21)

Let the initial velocity of ball be u

Time of rise t1 = and height reached =

Time of fall t2 is given by

22)

According to Biot-Savart's law, the magnetic induction due to a current element is given by :

This is perpendicular to both and .

23)

26)
W = 30 × 9 + 40 × 3
= 270 + 120
= 390

31)
Rmax = A + B
Rmin = |A – B|
 32)

33)

= (1.6 – 1)

P=

35)

0
f = × 100 = 80 cm

fe = = –5 cm

MP =
L.O.T = f0 – |fe| = 75 cm

36)

0 0
M L T1 = (ML2T–1)x (M–1L3T–2)y (LT–1)z
= Mx–y L2x+3y+z T–x–2y–z
Equating :

37)

R = 5T2

⇒
⇒ tan θ = 1 ⇒ θ = 45°

38)
 for shortest path.

39)

h + h' = 40
40 = 2ut
40 = 2 × 20 × t
t = 1 sec

= 20 – 5 = 15 m above from ground

40) vavg =

21 =
1260 = 252 + 42 v
∴ v = 24 m/s

41)

Let time of fall be ‘n’

g(2n – 1) = g(3)2
⇒ n = 5 sec.

Height of tower = g(5)2 = 125 m.

42)

Change in velocity

43)

Maximum height = × 110 × 1000 = 55 km

 44)

∴ Retardation = 2αv3

45)

Use right hand palm rule.

46)

0
49) m =

me =

∴ MP = m0 × me = –4 × 3.5 = –14

50)

Here u = –8cm, v = –3cm

so

CHEMISTRY

52)

P–x x x/2
P–4 4 2 x=4
P + 2 = 10
P = 8 atm

59) i, iii, iv, vi are correct

60)

NCERT Pg. # 231

67) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2

 ℓ=1 ℓ=1

69)

NCERT, Pg.# 51

m = - ℓ to + ℓ & n > ℓ ,

70)

NCERT, Pg.# 60

75) CH3OH has maximum pKa because it is least acidic among all options.

77) –SO3H > –COOH > >

80) NCERT XIth Page No. # 345, Part IInd Edition 2017

85)

l.p. of N-atom is sp3 hybridized and does not show resonance.

86)

A + 3B 2C
2 mol 4 mol 6 mol

concn.

QC =
QC < KC → forward direction

87) Kp = Kc(RT)Δng
= 3.75 × 10–6 × (0.0821 × 1069)
= 3.29 × 10–4

89) pH = [pKw – pKb – log C]

= [14 – 4.73 – log 0.02]

= [14 – 4.73 + 1.698] = 5.48

 90)

94)

CxHy(g) + O2 (excess) → CO2 (g) + H2O(g)

500 mL = 0.5 L 2.5 L 3 L
ratio of vol. 1 5 6
CxHy + O2 (excess) → 5 CO2 + 6H2O
comparing both sides
x=5 y = 12
Hence hydrocarbon would be C5H12

95)

= 3.6
pH = 10.4

97) For resonance compound should have conjugated system.

BIOLOGY-I

101)

NCERT- Pg. # 102

102)

NCERT- Pg. # 104, 105

103)

Module

104) NCERT Pg#243

105) NCERT Pg#247

106) NCERT Pg#245

 107) NCERT Pg#241

108) NCERT Pg#245

109)

NCERT Pg#242

110)

NCERT Pg#249, fig. 19.5

111) NCERT Pg#242,243

113) NCERT Pg#242

114) NCERT Pg#248

115) NCERT Pg#242

116) NCERT-XII Pg#28

117) NCERT Pg#31

118) NCERT Pg#30

119)

NCERT Pg#27

121) NCERT Pg#27

122) NCERT Pg#27

123) NCERT Pg#27

124) NCERT Pg#28

125)

NCERT Pg#29

129) NCERT Pg. # 126

 131) The isolated lysosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in almost all types of
hydrolytic enzymes (hydrolases – lipases, proteases, carbohydrases) optimally active at the
acidic pH. Lysosome is known as suicidal bag of cell

132) NCERT XI, Pg # 134 to 135

137)

Module

138)

Module, Pg. # 102

139)

NCERT Pg. # 103

142) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 104

143)

NCERT Pg#245

144) NCERT Pg#242

145) NCERT Pg#244

146) Algal cell wall is made up of Cellulose, Galactan, Mannans, Minerals

147) NCERT Pg # 208

BIOLOGY-II

153) NCERT Pg. No # 217 (Photosynthesis)

154)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 210

157)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 233

160)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 229

161)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 250

163) NCERT Pg. # 248

164)

NCERT Page No. 244

166)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 249

167) NCERT XI Pg. # 159

171) NCERT XI Pg # 117

172)

NCERT Page No # 158

173)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 236

174)

NCERT, Pg # 162

180) NCERT, Pg. # 97

183)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 91

184)

NCERT XI Pg. # 127, Figure 8.1

186)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 221

191)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 246

192)
NCERT, Pg # 171

195)

NCERT, Pg # 162

197) In krebs cycle 4C compound = Succinyl Co-A, Succinnic acid, Fumaric acid, malic acid,
Oxaloacetic acid.

199) NCERT Page No. # 164