CHRA 2023 - Practice Test
CHRA 2023 - Practice Test
CHRA 2023 - Practice Test
CHRA 2023
The basic functions of the management process include all of the following EXCEPT
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Outsourcing
d. Leading
2. Which one of the following is the person responsible for accomplishing an organization's goals by managing the
efforts of the organization's people?
a. Manager
b. Entrepreneur
c. Generalist
d. Marketer
3. Which function of the management process requires a manager to establish goals and standards and to develop
rules and procedures?
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Staffing
d. Leading
4. Consuela, a manager, delegates the authority for a project to Lee, her subordinate. Consuela is most likely involved in
which function of the management process?
a. Staffing
b. Organizing
c. Motivating
d. Leading
5. When managers use metrics to assess performance and then develop strategies for corrective action, they are
performing the function of the management process.
a. Planning
b. Leading
c. Controlling
d. Organizing
6. In the management process, which one of the following is an activity associated with the leading function?
a. Motivating subordinates
b. Setting performance standards
c. Training new employees
d. Developing procedures
7. Personnel activities associated with human resource management most likely include all of the following EXCEPT
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a. Orienting and training new employees
b. Appraising employee performance
c. Building employee commitment
d. Developing customer relationships
8 A line manager's human resource responsibilities most likely include all of the following EXCEPT
I l . Wilmer works in the HR department and is in charge of developing the plans for how people are paid and how the
employee benefits program is run. Wilmer is most likely holding the position of
a. Training specialist
b. Recruiter
c. Compensation manager
d. Job analyst
12. An HR generalist at Wilson Manufacturing has been assigned to the sales department to provide HR management
assistance as needed. Which of the following best describes the structure of the HR services provided at Wilson
Manufacturing?
a. Shared HR teams
b. Embedded HR teams
c. Centers of expertise
d. Corporate HR teams
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1 3. Which organization of the human resource function involves dedicated HR members that assist top management in
issues such as developing the personnel aspects of the company's long-term strategic plan?
a. Embedded HR teams
b. Corporate HR teams
c. Centers of expertise
d. Shared services
14. What term refers to the knowledge, skills, and abilities of a firm's workers?
a. Human resources
b. Human capital
c. Intangible assets
d. Contingent personnel
1 5. What is the term for workforces like those at the company Uber, where freelancers and independent contractors
work when they can, on what they want to work on, and when the company needs them?
a. Tele-commuters
b. Human capital
c. Job-analysts d On-demand workers
16. The recent trend where in some occupations (such as high-tech) unemployment rates are low, while in others
unemployment rates are still very high and recruiters in many companies can't find candidates, while in others
there's a wealth of candidates is called
a. Talent analytics
b. Globalization
c. Unbalanced labor force
d. Human capital
17. Which one of the following best exemplifies recent trends in technology that are affecting human resource
management?
a. Listing open positions on Monster.com, Careerbuilder.com, and similar websites.
b. The use of gaming features to enhance training and performance appraisal
c. Allowing workers to telecommute
d. Providing employees with laptops or tablets so they can work offsite
18. Evidence-based human resource management relies on all of the following types of evidence EXCEPT
a. Scientific rigor
b. Existing data
c. Research studies
d. Qualitative opinions
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19. In small organizations, line managers frequently handle all personnel duties without the assistance of a human
resource staff.
a. True
b. False
20. What are the two distinct functions carried out by human resource managers?
a. Life Function and Staff Function
21. A reliable employment test will most likely yield
a. Consistent scores when a person takes two altemate forms of the test
b. Improved scores when a person takes the same test more than once in a single day
c. High scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test on different occasions
d. Similar scores when two different people are administered the test at different times
22. Which one of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was
designed?
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Expectancy d. Consistency
23. Selection tests should be used as supplements to other tools like interviews and background checks.
a. True or
b. False?
24. As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which
one of the following is most likely being measured by UPS?
a. Motor ability
b. Personality
c. Cognitive
d. Interest
25. Carlos recently participated in a selection test for a position at Northern Aeronautics. The test measured Carlos's
finger dexterity and reaction time, so it was most likely a(n) test. a Interpersonal skills b Cognitive skills
c. Physical abilities d
Achievements
26. The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following EXCEPT
a. Neuroticism
b. Optimism
c. Extroversion
d. Conscientiousness
27. Which one of the following terms refers to training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks and then
assessing the candidates' performance prior to hire?
a. Achievement testing
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b. Work sampling technique
c. Management assessment center
d. Miniature job training
28. Which one of the following is the primary reason that firms conduct background investigations of job applicants?
a. Adhere to legal hiring practices
b. Limit the number of applicants
c. I-Jncover false information
d. Report criminals to police
29. A(n)is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations
and are scored on their performance
a. Work sampling event
b. Situational judgment test
c. Management assessment center
d. Applicant personality test
30. In an effective talent management system, an employee's perfonmance appraisal would initiate training and
development opportunities.
a. True
b. False
31. Effective talent management focuses on developing employee competencies that align with strategic goals.
a. True
b. False
32. All of the following types of information will most likely be collected by a human resources specialist through a job
analysis EXCEPT
a. Job description
b. Job specification
c. Job analysis
d. Job context
33. Al of the following types of information will most likely be collected by a human resources specialist through a job
analysis EXCEPT
a. Work activities
b. Human behaviors
c. Performance standards
d. Employee benefits options
34. Jennifer, a manager at an engineering firm, has been assigned the task of conducting a job analysis. What should
be Jennifer's first step in the process?
a. Deciding how the gathered information will be used
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b. Collecting data on job activities and working conditions
c. Selecting representative job positions to assess
d. Reviewing relevant background information
35. All of the following requirements are typically addressed in job specifications EXCEPT
a. Desired personality traits
b. Required education levels
c. Necessary experience
d. Working conditions
36. Which one of the following indicates the division Of work within a firm and the lines of authority and
communication?
a. Process chart
b. Employee matrix
c. Organizational chart
d. Corporate overview
37. Which one of the following is an example of business process reengineering?
a. Using computerized systems to combine separate tasks
b. Creating a visual chart for workflow procedures
c. Assigning additional activities to new employees
d. Developing employee skills and behaviors
38. While performing the fifth step of a job analysis, it is essential to confirm the validity of collected data with the
a. EEOC representative
b. HR manager
c. Legal department
d. Worker
39. Which one of the following terms refers to systematically moving workers from one job to another?
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job enlargement
d. Job adjustment
40. Conducting the job analysis is the sole responsibility of the HR specialist.
a. True
b. False
41. Jerome, a manager at an electronics company, needs to gather job analysis information from a large number of
employees who perform similar work. Which one of the following would be most appropriate for Jerome?
a. Observing all employees
b. Interviewing the HR manager
c. Holding a group interview with a supervisor
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d. Conducting telephone surveys of all employees
42. One of the problems with direct observation is , which is when workers alter their normal activities
because they are being watched.
a. Flexibility
b. Falsification
c. Reactivity
d. Diversion
43. Informal interviews provide quantitative job analysis information, which is why they are frequently used by
managers who need to determine the relative worth of a job for pay purposes.
a. True
b. False
44. Joaquin records every activity in which he participates at work along with the time it takes him to complete each
activity. Which of the following approaches to job analysis data collection is most likely being used at Joaquin's
workplace?
a. Diaries
b. Interviews
c. Observations
d. Questionnaires
45. Which one of the following terms refers to the process of evaluating an employee's current and/or past
performance relative to his or her performance standards?
a. employee selection
b. performance appraisal
c. employee orientation
d. Organizational development
46. The primary purpose of providing employees with feedback during a performance appraisal is to motivate
employees to
a. Apply for managerial positions
b. Remove any performance deficiencies
c. Revise their performance standards
d. Enroll in work-related training programs
47. All of the following are reasons for appraising an employee's performance EXCEPT
48. In most organizations, who is primarily responsible for appraising an employee's performance?
a. Employee's direct supervisor
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b. Company appraiser
c. Human resources manager
d. Employee's subordinates
49. What is the first step of any performance appraisal?
a. Giving feedback
b. Setting work standards
c. Making plans to provide training
d. Assessing the employee's performance
50 What usually occurs when employees rate themselves for performance appraisals?
a. Ratings are reliable but invalid.
b. Ratings are subject to halo effects
c. Ratings are higher than when provided by supervisors.
d. Ratings are about the same as when determined by peers
51 Which one of the following terms refers to the process of allowing subordinates to rate their supervisor's
performance anonymously?
a Supplemental evaluation b
Upward feedback
c. Paired evaluation d
Peer evaluation
52. Which one of the following terms refers to a performance appraisal based on surveys from peers, supervisors,
subordinates, and customers?
a. 360-degree feedback
b. Team appraisals
c. Upward feedback
d. Rating committee
53. Supervisors should provide employees with feedback, development, and incentives necessary to help employees
eliminate performance deficiencies or to continue to perform well.
a. True
b. False
54. The HR department monitors the performance appraisal system, but it is typically not involved in rating employees.
a. True
b. False
55. In order to ensure that performance appraisals are effective, Felicia, a line supervisor, should make sure to schedule
a feedback session to address each subordinate's performance, progress, and future development plans
a. True
b. False
56. Which one of the following is the easiest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance?
a. Alternation ranking
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b. Graphic rating scale
c. Forced distribution
d. Constant sum rating scale
57. Rolf, the supervisor of the manufacturing department at a computer firm, is in the process of evaluating his staffs
performance. He has determined that 15% of the group will be identified as high performers, 20% as above average
performers, 30% as average performers, 20% as below average performers, and 15% as poor performers. Which
performance appraisal tool has John chosen to use?
a. Behaviorally anchored rating scale
b. Forced distribution
c. Alternation ranking
d. Paired comparison
58. Which term refers to ranking of employees from best to worst on a trait or traits, choosing highest than lowest until
all are ranked?
a. Performance management
b. Paired comparison
c. Alternation ranking
d. Direction sharing
59. Management by objectives requires a manager to set specific measurable, organizationally relevant goals with each
employee and then periodically discuss the employee's progress toward these goals
a. True
b. False
60. What is the first step in the recruitment and selection process? a Performing initial screening interviews b Building a
pool of candidates c. Performing candidate background checks d Deciding what positions to fill
61. Marcus, an HR manager for Samsung, must decide what positions the firm should fill in the next six months, which
means Marcus is currently working on
a. screening job candidates
b. personnel planning
c. interviewing job candidates
d. writing job descriptions
62. The process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm is known as
a. Internal recruiting
b. Succession planning
c. Long-term forecasting
d. Advanced interviewing
63. Which one of the following terms refers to studying a firm's past employment needs over a period of years to
predict future needs?
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a. Ratio analysis b. Trend analysis c. Graphical analysis d. Computer analysis
64. Newton Building Supplies hopes to generate an extra $4 million in sales next year. A salesperson traditionally
generates $800,000 in sales each year. Using ratio analysis, how many new salespeople should Newton hire?
c. 10
d. 20
65. Which one of the following contains data regarding employees' education, career development, and special skills
and is used by managers when selecting inside candidates for promotion?
a. Computerized forecasting tools
b. Skills inventories
c. Trend records
d. Scatter plots
66. When managers need to determine which current employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will most
likely use
a. Scatter plots
b. Skills inventories
c. Estimated sales trends
d. Personnel forecasts
67. Al of the following are methods used by firms to develop high-potential candidates for future positions EXCEPT
68. Smith Industries is thinking of having another company take care of its benefits management. This is called
a. Competency modeling
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b. Performance analysis
c. Strategic training needs analysis d Screening
86. What is the first step in the ADDIE training process? a Assessing the program's successes
b. Appraising the program's budget
c. Analyzing the training need d Acquiring training materials
87. Amy, an accounting supervisor, has been asked to provide training for her subordinates about new tax
laws. In order to motivate the individuals who attend her training session, Amy should most likely do all
of the following EXCEPT
a. Job rotation
b. Understudy
c. Job expansion
d. Informal learning
92. A structured process by which people become skilled workers through a combination of classroom instruction and
on-the-job training is called
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a. Job instruction training
b. Programmed learning
c. Apprenticeship training
d. Coaching technique
93. Ian is currently being trained on the job and is at the first step in the OJT process, which involves
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