Mock 1

1. In a water molecule, hydrogen atoms are attached to oxygen atoms through which type
of bond?
(A) hydrogen bond
(B) nonpolar covalent bond
(C) polar covalent bond
(D) ionic bond

2. The attraction between the partially positive charge on a hydrogen atom on one water
molecule and the partially negative charge on an oxygen atom on another water molecule is
called a(n)
(A) hydrogen bond.
(B) nonpolar covalent bond.
(C) polar covalent bond.
(D) ionic bond.

3. Water’s high specific heat is due to

(A) the lower density of solid ice compared to that of liquid water.
(B) the amount of energy required to break the covalent bonds within a water molecule.
(C) the amount of energy required to break the hydrogen bonds between water molecules.
(D) the low electronegativity of oxygen atoms compared to that of hydrogen atoms.

4. Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of H+?

(A) stomach acid with a pH of 2
(B) acetic acid with a pH of 3
(C) coffee with a pH of 5
(D) bleach with a pH of 12
5. Solution A has a pH of 4; solution B has a pH of 7. How do the [H+] in these solutions
compare?
(A) Solution A has 3 times the [H+] concentration of solution B.
(B) Solution A has 30 times the [H+] concentration of solution B.
(C) Solution A has 1,000 times the [H+] concentration of solution B.
(D) Solution A has 3,000 times the [H+] concentration of solution B.

6. Coastal areas near large bodies of water tend to have more stable climates than inland
areas at the same latitude. Which of the following is the property of water that best
explains this difference in climate?
(A) high surface tension
(B) high specific heat
(C) capillary action
(D) density of ice

7. Small, lightweight insects can walk on the surface of water, as seen in the following
figure:

Which of the following is the property of water that best explains this phenomenon?
(A) high surface tension
(B) high specific heat
(C) capillary action
(D) density of ice
8. Arctic seals and walruses rely on ice floes for survival. Which of the following best
explains why these ice floes exist?
(A) high surface tension
(B) high specific heat
(C) capillary action
(D) density of ice

9. Redwood trees, which are over 200 feet tall, can move water upward from their roots to
other parts of the tree, despite the downward pull of gravity. Which of the following
properties of water best explains this?
(A) high surface tension
(B) high specific heat
(C) capillary action
(D) density of ice

10. In hot weather, humans can cool their body temperature by sweating. Which of the
following properties of water makes this possible?
(A) high surface tension
(B) high specific heat
(C) capillary action
(D) density of ice

11. COVID-19 is a single-stranded RNA virus. Which molecules would most likely be found
in a single-stranded RNA virus, such as COVID19?
(A) adenine, cytosine, deoxyribose, guanine, thymine
(B) adenine, cytosine, deoxyribose, guanine, uracil
(C) adenine, cytosine, ribose, guanine, thymine
(D) adenine, cytosine, ribose, guanine, uracil
12. A scientist conducted an experiment to find out what type of macromolecule a virus
injects into a cell. Using radiolabeled atoms, the scientist found that phosphorus from the
virus entered the cell but sulfur did not. Which of the following molecules would most
likely be injected from this virus into the cell?
(A) carbohydrate
(B) nucleic acid
(C) protein
(D) steroid

13. Which of the following best describes the formation of the primary structure of a
protein?
(A) A dehydration reaction forms an ionic bond between the carboxyl group of one amino acid
and the amino group of another amino acid.
(B) A dehydration reaction forms a covalent bond between the carboxyl group of one amino acid
and the amino group of another amino acid.
(C) A hydrolysis reaction forms an ionic bond between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and
the amino group of another amino acid.
(D) A hydrolysis reaction forms a covalent bond between the carboxyl group of one amino acid
and the amino group of another amino acid.

14. Which of the following best describes the differences between saturated and
unsaturated lipids?
(A) Saturated lipids have at least one C=C double bond and tend to be solid at room temperature.
Unsaturated lipids have no double bonds and tend to be liquid at room temperature.
(B) Saturated lipids have at least one C=C double bond, which makes them amphipathic.
Unsaturated lipids have no double bonds and are hydrophilic.
(C) Saturated lipids have no C=C double bonds and tend to be solid at room temperature.
Unsaturated lipids have at least one C=C double bond and tend to be liquid at room temperature.
(D) Saturated and unsaturated lipids both have C=C double bonds. Saturated lipids are
hydrophobic, and unsaturated lipids are hydrophilic.
15. The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. The molecule maltose is formed by a
dehydration reaction that links two glucose molecules together. What is the molecular
formula for maltose?
(A) C2H4O2
(B) C6H10O5
(C) C12H22O11
(D) C12H24O12

16. In an aqueous environment like the cytosol, the most stable tertiary protein structures
would have hydrophilic amino acids in which part of the protein’s structure?
(A) in the interior of the protein, interacting with water in the cytosol
(B) in the interior of the protein, avoiding water in the cytosol
(C) on the surface of the protein, interacting with water in the cytosol
(D) on the surface of the protein, avoiding water in the cytosol

17. Which level of protein structure is formed by peptide bonds between amino acids?
(A) primary
(B) secondary
(C) tertiary
(D) quaternary

18. Which of the following drives the formation of a protein’s secondary structure?
(A) Hydrophobic interactions form between R-groups of amino acids.
(B) Hydrogen bonds form between amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
(C) Disulfide bridges form between amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
(D) Multiple subunits/domains of a protein are connected by covalent bonds.

19. Which of the following is common to both DNA and RNA?

(A) the nitrogenous bases: adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine
(B) a double-stranded antiparallel helix
(C) a phosphate group attached to the 5′ carbon
(D) the five-carbon sugar ribose

20. Which of the following correctly describes DNA but not RNA?
(A) It contains adenine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil.
(B) A hydroxyl group is attached to the 5′ carbon.
(C) Nucleotides are linked by phosphodiester bonds.
(D) It contains the five-carbon sugar deoxyribose.

21. An animal cell that lacks glycolipids and glycoproteins in its plasma membrane would
likely be unable to carry out which of the following functions?
(A) cell recognition
(B) maintaining the fluidity of the phospholipid bilayer
(C) endocytosis
(D) creating a membrane potential

22. When some bacteria are exposed to antibiotics, the bacteria use ATP to try to pump the
antibiotics out of their cells. Which of the following processes is most likely used to do this?
(A) osmosis
(B) diffusion
(C) active transport
(D) endocytosis

23. Which of the following is NOT a component of the cell membrane?

(A) phospholipids
(B) cellulose
(C) proteins
(D) glycolipids
24. Muscle cells require large amounts of energy to function. Which cellular organelle is
most likely found in high concentrations in muscle cells?
(A) lysosome
(B) Golgi complex
(C) amyloplast
(D) mitochondria

25. Niemann-Pick disease is caused by the cell’s inability to break down large lipid
molecules. Which cellular organelle is most likely not functioning properly in an individual
with Niemann-Pick disease?
(A) rough endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Golgi complex
(C) lysosomes
(D) ribosomes

26. A student has access to four dyes that stain different components of cells, as shown in
the following table.

Which dye would be the best choice to use to distinguish prokaryotic cells from eukaryotic
cells?
(A) Nile red
(B) Hoechst 33342
(C) DRAQ9
(D) Coomassie blue
27. Which types of molecules pass through the cell membrane unassisted most easily?
(A) small and hydrophilic
(B) small and hydrophobic
(C) large and hydrophilic
(D) large and hydrophobic

28. A cell is not able to modify and package proteins for secretion from the cell. Which of
the following organelles is most likely not functioning correctly?
(A) ribosomes
(B) lysosomes
(C) vacuoles
(D) Golgi complex

29. Which of the following is NOT evidence that supports the endosymbiosis hypothesis?
(A) Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own circular DNA.
(B) Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own ribosomes.
(C) Mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce by binary fission.
(D) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are found in all eukaryotic cells.

30. A molecule is moving from an area of higher concentration outside of a cell to an area of
lower concentration inside the cell. Which process best describes the movement of this
molecule?
(A) active transport
(B) diffusion
(C) endocytosis
(D) exocytosis

31. The solute potential of distilled water is

(A) negative.
(B) zero.
(C) positive.
(D) dependent on the temperature.

32. A solution has a solute concentration of 0.25 moles per liter and is at a temperature of
37°C. The ionization constant of the solute is 1. What is the solute potential of this solution?
(A) –0.64 bars
(B) –0.77 bars
(C) –6.44 bars
(D) –7.70 bars

33. A cell has a solute potential of –5.42 bars and a pressure potential of 0.48 bars. What is
its total water potential?
(A) –5.42 bars
(B) –4.94 bars
(C) 0.48 bars
(D) 4.94 bars

34. A blood cell with a water potential of –7.7 bars is placed in distilled water. Which of the
following correctly describes what will occur?
(A) Water will flow out of the blood cell because the blood cell has a higher water potential than
distilled water.
(B) Water will flow into the blood cell because the blood cell has a higher water potential than
distilled water.
(C) Water will flow out of the blood cell because the blood cell has a lower water potential than
distilled water.
(D) Water will flow into the blood cell because the blood cell has a lower water potential than
distilled water.
35. A plant cell with a solute potential of –4.0 bars and a pressure potential of 0.5 bars is
placed into a solution with a water potential of –5.0 bars. What will happen to the plant cell
in this solution?
(A) Water will flow into the plant cell because the plant cell has a total water potential that is
lower than that of the surrounding solution.
(B) Water will flow into the plant cell because the plant cell has a total water potential that is
higher than that of the surrounding solution.
(C) Water will flow out of the plant cell because the plant cell has a total water potential that is
lower than that of the surrounding solution.
(D) Water will flow out of the plant cell because the plant cell has a total water potential that is
higher than that of the surrounding solution.

36. Four solutions of covalent compounds are in beakers that are open to the atmosphere.
Which of the following solutions has the highest water potential?
(A) 0.5 molar glucose at a temperature of 21°C
(B) 0.75 molar fructose at a temperature of 21°C
(C) 1.0 molar sucrose at a temperature of 21°C
(D) 1.25 molar lactose at a temperature of 21°C

37. A freshwater fish is placed in a saltwater aquarium. Predict the most likely effect this
will have on the fish, and justify your prediction.
(A) The fish will gain water because it likely has a lower water potential than its new
surroundings.
(B) The fish will lose water because it likely has a lower water potential than its new
surroundings.
(C) The fish will gain water because it likely has a higher water potential than its new
surroundings.
(D) The fish will lose water because it likely has a higher water potential than its new
surroundings.
38. Potato slices that are immersed in distilled water for 24 hours become stiff and hard.
Potato slices that are immersed in 0.5 molar sucrose solution for 24 hours become limp and
soft. Which of the following is the most logical conclusion based on this information?
(A) The potato slices are hypotonic to both distilled water and the 0.5 molar sucrose solution.
(B) The potato slices are hypertonic to both distilled water and the 0.5 molar sucrose solution.
(C) The potato slices are hypotonic to distilled water and hypertonic to the 0.5 molar sucrose
solution.
(D) The potato slices are hypertonic to distilled water and hypotonic to the 0.5 molar sucrose
solution.

39. Human cells have an approximate NaCl concentration of 0.15 moles per liter. Seawater
has an approximate NaCl concentration of 0.45 moles per liter. Which of the following is
the most likely effect if a person drank seawater?
(A) The lower water potential in the human cells would cause water to flow out of the human
cells into the seawater that was consumed.
(B) The lower water potential in the human cells would cause NaCl to flow out of the human
cells into the seawater that was consumed.
(C) The higher water potential in the human cells would cause water to flow out of the human
cells into the seawater that was consumed.
(D) The higher water potential in the human cells would cause NaCl to flow out of the human
cells into the seawater that was consumed.

40. A dandelion plant is growing in an environment with a temperature of 21°C. The water
potential in the root cells of a dandelion plant is –1.2 bars. If a 0.1 molar sodium chloride
solution at 21°C was poured on the dandelion roots, what would be the most likely result?
(A) Sodium chloride would move into the dandelion cells, raising the water potential of the
dandelion cells.
(B) Water would flow out of the dandelion cells because the water potential in the dandelion cells
would be higher than the water potential of the 0.1 molar sodium chloride solution.
(C) There would be no effect on the dandelion cells because they would be open to the
atmosphere and have a pressure potential of zero.
(D) Water would flow into the dandelion cells because the water potential in the dandelion cells
would be lower than the water potential of the 0.1 molar sodium chloride solution.
41. Catalase, an enzyme found in aerobic organisms, catalyzes the following reaction:
A filter paper disk is saturated with the enzyme catalase and then placed at the bottom of a
beaker of H2O2.

As the reaction proceeds, oxygen bubbles will cling to the paper and eventually the paper will
float to the top of the liquid. By measuring the time it takes for the catalase-saturated disk to
float, one can compare the relative rates of decomposition of H2O2 under different experimental
conditions.
An experiment was performed using catalase extracted from potatoes, with varying
concentrations of H2O2. Multiple trials were conducted, and the means and the standard errors
of the mean are shown in the following table:

41. Which of the following would be a suitable control for this experiment?
(A) changing the temperature of the H2O2 in one of the beakers
(B) changing the solution the paper disk is soaked in from catalase to water in one of the beakers
(C) changing the source of the catalase from potato to liver
(D) changing the pH of the H2O2 in one of the beakers

42. Predict what would happen if the catalase solution was boiled before performing the
experiment, and justify your prediction.
(A) The average time for the disks to float would increase because boiling denatured the
enzymes.
(B) The average time for the disks to float would increase because enzyme-catalyzed reactions
are always slower at higher temperatures.
(C) The average time for the disks to float would decrease because boiling increased the number
of molecular collisions between the enzymes and substrates.
(D) The average time for the disks to float would increase because enzyme-catalyzed reactions
are always faster at higher temperatures.

43. A student graphs this data, showing 95% confidence intervals. Based on the 95%
confidence intervals, which concentrations of enzyme are least likely to have statistically
significant differences?
(A) 1% and 3%
(B) 1% and 6%
(C) 3% and 6%
(D) None of the enzyme concentrations used are likely to have statistically significant
differences.

44. BCR-ABL is an enzyme found in cancer cells in chronic myelogenous leukemia. ATP
binds to the active site of BCR-ABL, which then stimulates cell division in cancer cells.
Which of the following would most likely slow the rate of cell division in cancer cells with
the BCRABL enzyme?
(A) adding a cofactor of BCR-ABL
(B) adding a coenzyme of BCR-ABL
(C) adding a competitive inhibitor of BCR-ABL
(D) adding a transcription factor of BCR-ABL
Questions 45–47
Refer to the following figure.

45. Which of the following represents the activation energy of an enzyme catalyzed
reaction?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

46. Which of the following represents the activation energy of an

uncatalyzed reaction?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

47. Which of the following represents the overall free energy change in the reaction?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

48. Which of the following correctly describes how enzymes increase the rate of a chemical
reaction?
(A) Enzymes decrease the overall free energy change of the reaction.
(B) Enzymes decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
(C) Enzymes increase the free energy of the reactants of the reaction.
(D) Enzymes increase the free energy of the products of the reaction.

49. Which of the following correctly describes the differences between competitive
inhibitors and noncompetitive inhibitors?
(A) Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site of the enzyme; noncompetitive inhibitors bind
to the allosteric site of the enzyme.
(B) Competitive inhibitors bind to the substrate; noncompetitive inhibitors bind to the products.
(C) The effects of a noncompetitive inhibitor can be mitigated by adding large amounts of
substrate.
(D) Competitive inhibitors increase the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions; noncompetitive
inhibitors slow the rate of enzymecatalyzed reactions.

50. Which of the following statements about enzymes is true?

(A) Enzymes can change endergonic reactions into exergonic reactions.
(B) Both proteins and RNA can have catalytic functions.
(C) Enzymes always function optimally at a pH of 7.
(D) Enzymes are consumed during chemical reactions.

Questions 51–55 refer to the following passage.

The following table lists the intracellular osmolality concentrations of four
osmoconforming organisms that are known to mimic the osmotic conditions of their
surroundings.
51. If a large amount of salt was added to the sealed tank where organism 4 was being kept,
what would be the effect on the intracellular osmolality of organism 4?
(A) Increase initially and then return to the initial state
(B) Increase and maintain the increased state
(C) Decrease and then return to the initial state
(D) Decrease and maintain the decreased state

52. Which of the following would likely have the largest direct effect on data in the table?
(A) A mutation in a cytoskeleton protein
(B) A mutation in a protein in the sodium-potassium pump complex
(C) A mutation in a lipid in the outer chloroplast membrane
(D) A mutation in a nuclear pore channel protein

53. Which could decrease the osmolalities of the organisms?

(A) Sodium is added to the sealed tank.
(B) Chloride is injected into the organism.
(C) Glucose is ingested by the organism.
(D) Water is added to the sealed tank.
54. Which of the following statements best describes the insides of these organisms
compared to the environment in the tank when they reach osmoconformity?
(A) Due to the influx of water into the organisms’ cells, the organisms’ insides are hypertonic
when compared to the tank.
(B) Compared to the tank, the loss of water out of the organisms’ cells makes the organisms’
insides hypotonic.
(C) The organisms’ insides are isotonic since the intracellular osmolality concentrations match
the osmolality concentrations of the tank.
(D) The flow of water into and out of the organisms’ insides causes the cells to be retrotonic.

55. A population of organisms that are not osmoconformers is dropped into the tank with
Organism 1. The intracellular osmolality of Organism 1 begins to slightly decrease. Which
of the following could explain this?
(A) The new organisms were hypotonic compared to the tank and they lost water via osmosis.
(B) The new organisms expelled waste products that increased the tank’s osmolality.
(C) The new organism competed with organism 1 for food and caused it to become active.
(D) The new organism ingested large amounts of fluid and the tank fluid level decreased.

Questions 56–59 refer to the following passage.

The active site of the enzyme Ritzolinine (RZN45) contains three positively charged lysine
residues. When ascorbic acid is present, binding of JB-76, the substrate of RZN45,
decreases. The reaction rate is affected by the presence of ascorbic acid as shown in the
figure below. It is thought that a daily supplement of Vitamin C might aid those suffering
from Ritzolierre’s Disease, which is caused by elevated levels of RZN45.
56. Which of the following is likely true?
(A) RZN45 and JB-76 have similarly charged amino acids at their active sites.
(B) Ritzolinine is stabilized in the presence of Vitamin C.
(C) Ascorbic acid and JB-76 each have a pocket of negatively charged amino acids.
(D) JB-76 and ascorbic acid have an identical number of amino acids.

57. Which is the best explanation for the differing effects on reaction rate caused by
ascorbic acid at low and high concentrations of JB-76?
(A) At high concentrations of JB-76, there are fewer free active sites for the ascorbic acid to bind
to.
(B) At low concentrations of JB-76, there are fewer free allosteric sites for the RZN45 to bind to.
(C) At high concentrations of JB-76, there are more free allosteric sites for the ascorbic acid to
bind to.
(D) At low concentrations of JB-76, there are more free active sites for the RZN45 to bind to.
58. A patient with Ritzolierre’s Disease would likely benefit from which of the following:
I. Injections of RZN45
II. Injections of JB-76
III. Injections of ascorbic acid
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) II and III

59. If Figure 1 were to include additional data for higher concentrations of JB-76, how
would the reaction rate change?
(A) The reaction rate would be lower than any reaction rate shown in Figure 1.
(B) The reaction rate would be higher than any reaction rate shown in Figure 1.
(C) The reaction rate would be equal to the highest reaction rate shown in Figure 1.
(D) The reaction rate would increase gradually for each concentration of JB-76 added.

60. In general, animal cells differ from plant cells in that only animal cells
(A) perform cellular respiration
(B) contain transcription factors
(C) do not contain vacuoles
(D) lyse when placed in a hypotonic solution

STOP END OF SECTION I IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION. DO NOT GO ON TO SECTION II UNTIL
YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
PART TWO
1. The melting temperature (Tm) is defined as the temperature at which 50% of double-
stranded DNA is separated into single-stranded DNA. The greater the guanine-cytosine
(poly-GC) of the DNA, the higher the Tm compared to DNA with more adenine-thymine
(poly-AT) content. The following graph shows the Tm of a poly-AT DNA strand, a poly-GC
DNA strand, and DNA from two different organisms (A and B).

(a) Describe how the Tm of DNA from organism A compares to the Tm of DNA from
organism B.

(b) Describe the differences between the Tm of poly-AT and the Tm of poly-GC DNA.

(c) DNA sequencing finds that DNA from organism A has a GC content of 39% and that
DNA from organism B has a GC content of 48%. A student claims that DNA from
organism C (with a GC content of 55%) would have a Tm greater than 85° Celsius. Using
the data from the figure, evaluate the student’s claim.
 (d) Explain how these experimental results relate to the structure of DNA.

2. Genomes with a higher GC content are more likely to resist denaturation. A plant
biologist hypothesized that plants with a higher GC content in their genomes are
more likely to be found in colder climates. Four species of plants were examined for
the percentage of GC content in their genomes. Brachypodium pinnatum and
Dioscorea caucasica are native to areas with cold winters. Juncus inflexus and Carex
acutiformis are native to areas with warmer winters. DNA was examined from 50
plants of each species. Results are shown in the table.

(a) Using what you know about DNA structure, explain why genomes with a higher GC
content might be more stable than genomes with a lower GC content.

(b) On the axes provided, construct an appropriately labeled graph of the mean percent of
GC content in each species’s genome. Include 95% confidence intervals.

(c) Do the data support the claim that plants in colder climates have a higher GC content
in their genomes? Use the data provided to support your answer.

(d) A plant species has a genome with a GC content of 43.4%. Predict whether that plant
is more likely to be native to an area with cold winters or an area with warmer winters.
Justify your prediction.

3. A student conducts an experiment to investigate which cell shape would allow for
the most efficient exchange of materials with its environment. Agar blocks
(containing bromothymol blue dye) are cut into three different shapes to model
three differently shaped cells. The agar blocks are then placed in a vinegar solution.
As the vinegar diffuses into the agar models, the acid in the vinegar will turn the
bromothymol blue dye yellow. The time required for each agar model to turn
completely yellow is measured and is an indication of the efficiency of movement of
materials into the agar models. The shape, volume, and surface area of each agar
block is shown in the table.
(a) Describe the measurement that would best predict the efficiency of each agar block’s
exchange of materials with its environment. Calculate that measurement for each agar block.

(b) Identify the independent variable and the dependent variable in this experiment.

(c) Predict which cell would turn completely yellow first.

(d) Justify your prediction from part (c).

4. Two different molecules, A and B, can enter a cell using passive transport. A cell that did
not initially contain molecule A or molecule B was placed in a beaker with a solution
containing equal concentrations of both molecules for 30 minutes. The cell was removed
from the beaker, and the concentration of each molecule inside the cell was measured. The
experiment was repeated with different, but equal, starting concentrations of molecules A
and B in the beaker. The data are shown in the table.

(a) Describe two types of passive transport.

(b) Using the axes provided, construct a graph of this data. Include 95% confidence intervals.

(c) Based on the data, make a claim about which molecule (A or B) uses simple diffusion and
which molecule uses facilitated diffusion. Justify your claim with evidence from the data.

(d) This experiment is repeated with the addition of a molecule that irreversibly binds to
transport proteins in the cell membrane. Make a prediction about what, if any, changes this
would lead to in the data. Justify your prediction.

5. Apoptosis is programmed cell death. Apoptosis is often triggered by mutations that could
cause a cell to form a tumor if the cell continued to grow and multiply.
(a) Describe the organelle in a eukaryotic cell that is most likely to participate in apoptosis.

(b) Explain other functions the organelle from part (a) would have in the cell besides
participating in apoptosis.

(c) A mutation causes the enzymes in the organelle from part (a) to become nonfunctional.
Predict what effects this would have on the cell.

(d) Justify your prediction from part (c).

6. Enzymes are important biological molecules.

(a) Describe how an enzyme interacts with a substrate.
(b) Explain the difference between competitive inhibitors and allosteric inhibitors of enzymes.
(c) An enzyme has its maximum efficiency at an optimum temperature of 25° Celsius. Predict
what effect a decrease in temperature to 5° Celsius would have on the enzyme’s efficiency.
(d) Justify your prediction from part (c).