CLASSROOM TEST

[Time: 2 Hrs.] [Total Marks: 360]

INSTRUCTIONS
• This Paper has 90 Objective type questions. All questions are
compulsory.
• The Maximum marks for each question is 4.
• 1 mark will be deducted against each negative response from the
total marks.
• Use of calculator, slide rule, graph paper and trigonometric tables is
NOT PERMITTED.
• Ensure that you fill in the OMR SHEET correctly. If any of the
following details (Name, Roll number, Phone number) are missing
or filled wrong, your result will be withheld.

BFBM
06

[DATE : 02nd OCTOBER 2024]

PHYSICS : W.E.P, Circular Motion, Centre of Mass & Collision

CHEMISTRY : Atomic Structure, Stuctural Isomerism & P.T
BIOLOGY : Biomolecules, Living World, Plant Anatomy, Animal Tissue
& Breathing and Exchange of Gases.

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 BFBM-06
Time : 2 Hrs. | Total Marks : 360
PHYSICS 09. The angular speed of a flywheel making 120
revoltuions/ minute is
01. When the kinetic energy of a body is doubled,
its momentum increases by .... times. (1) 4 rad/s (2) 42rad/s
(3)  rad/s (4) 2 rad/s
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 2 2
10. A 500 kg car takes a round turn of radius 50m
02. The potential energy of a system increases if with a velocity of 36 km/hr. The centripetal
work is done : force is
(1) upon the system by a non-conservative force (1) 1000 N (2) 750N (3) 250 N (4) 1200 N
(2) by the system against a conservative force 11. A particle of mass 0.1 kg is whirled at the end
of a string in a vertical circle of radius 1.0 m at
(3) by the system against a non-conservative a constant speed of 5 m/s. The tension in the
force string at the highest point of its path is
(4) upon the system by a conservative force (g = 10 m/s2)
03. If force and displacement of particle in direction (1) 0.5 N (2) 1.0N (3) 1.5 N (4) 2.0 N
of force are doubled. Work would be 12. A car is moving on a circular road of radius 500 m.
(1) Double (2) 4 times At some instant its speed is 30 m/s and is
(3) Half (4) 1/4 times increasing at th e rate of 2 m/s 2 . Th e
magnitude of its acceleration is
04. In which of the following cases the potential
energy is defined (1) 2 m/s2 (2) 2.7 m/s2
(1) both conservative and non-conservative (3) 4 m/s2 (4) 4.8 m/s
forces 13. A particle performs uniform circular motion
(2) conservative force only with an angular momentum L. If the angular
frequency of the particle is doubled and kinetic
(3) non-conservative force only energy is halved, its angular momentum
(4) neither conservative nor-conservative becomes :
forces (1) 4L (2) 2L (3) L/2 (4) L/4
05. When a conservative force does positive work 14. A particle is moving along a circular path of
on a body, then the radius 2 m with uniform speed of 5 ms–1. What
(1) Potential energy of body increases will be the change in velocity when the particle
completes half of the revolution ?
(2) Potential energy of body decreases
(1) Zero (2) 10 ms–1
(3) Total mechanical energy of body increases
(4) Total mechanical energy of body decreases 10
(3) 10 2 ms –1 (4) ms –1
2
06. A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. He
does 15. If the body is moving in a circle of radius r with
a constant speed v, its angular velocity is :
(1) Negative work
(1) v2 / r (2) vr (3) v/r (4) r/v
(2) Positive but not maximum work
16. A non-zero external force acts on a systems of
(3) No work at all particles. The velocity and acceleration of the
(4) Maximum work centre of mass are found to be vo and ao at an
07. Work done by frictional force instant t. It is possible that
(1) Is always negative (1) vo = 0, ao = 0 (2) vo = 0, ao  0
(2) Is always positive (3) vo  0, ao = 0 (4) None of these
(3) Is zero 17. Centre of mass of three particles of masses
1 kg, 2 kg and 3 kg lies at the point (1, 2, 3) and
(4) May be positive, negative or zero centre of mass of another system of particles
08. When milk is churned, cream gets seperated 3 kg and 2 kg lies at the point (–1, 3, –2). Where
due to should we put a particle of mass 5 kg so that
the centre of mass of entire system lies at the
(1) centripetal force (2) centrifugal force
centre of mass of 1st system ?
(3) frictional force (4) gravitational force (1) (0, 0, 0) (2) (1, 3, 2) (3) (–1, 2, 3) (4) (3, 1, 8)
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18. 3 particles of mass 2 kg each are placed such 22. A dog weighing 5 kg is standing on a flat boat so
that 1st one lies on –ve x-axis, 2nd one lies on – that it is 10 m from the shore. The dog walks 4
ve y-axis and the third one lies on +ve z-axis at m on the boat towards the shore and then halts.
distances of 2m, 3m and 1m respectively from The boat weighs 20 kg and one can assume that
the origin. Then the square of the distance of there is no friction between it and the water.
centre of mass of the system from the origin is : How far is the dog from the shore at the end of
this time ?
(1) 1.55 m2 (2) 1.55 m2
(1) 3.2 m (2) 0.8 m (3) 10 m (4) 6.8 m
(3) 1.55 m (4) 1.25 m2 23. A particle of mass m moving with velocity v
19. A block Q of mass M is placed on a horizontal collides with a stationary particle of mass 2m,
frictionless surface AB and a body P of mass m making completely inelastic collision. The
is released on its frictionless slope. speed of the system, after collision, will be
(1) v/2 (2) 2v (3) v/3 (4) 3v
C
24. A ball is dropped from a height of 1 m. If
P coefficient of restitution between surface and
M ball is 0.6 the ball rebounds to a height of
(1) 60 cm (2) 40 cm (3) 36 cm (4) 27 cm
Q
 25. A body of mass 2 kg collides with a wall with
A B speed 100 m/s and rebounds with same speed.
If the time of contact was 1/50 second, the force
As P slides by a length L on this slope of exerted on the wall is :
inclination , the block Q would slide by a
(1) 8 N (2) 2×104N
distance :
(3) 4 N (4) 104 N
m m
(1) L cos  (2) (M  m) L 26. A body of mass m is at rest. Another body of same
M mass moving with velocity V makes head on
elastic collision with the first body. After
(M  m) mL cos  collision the first body starts to move with
(3) mL cos  (4) (m  M) velocity.

20. A man of mass m climbs a rope of length L (1) V (2) 2V

suspended below a balloon of mass M. The (3) Remain at rest (4) No predictable
balloon is stationary with respect to ground. If
27. If a skater of weight 3 kg has initial speed 32m/
the man begins to climb up the rope at a speed
s and second one of weight 4 kg has 5 m/s. After
vrel. (relative to rope) in what direction and with
collision, they have speed (couple) 5 m/s. Then
what speed (relative to ground) will be balloon
the loss in K.E. is
move ?
(1) 48 J (2) 96 J
 m  m
(1) V  v rel. (2) V   v rel. (3) zero (4) None of these
M M
28. A mass of 10g moving with a velocity of 100 cm/
 –m   M  s strikes a pendulum bob of mass 10g. The two
(3) V  (m  M) v rel. (4) V   (m  M) v rel. masses stick together. The maximum height
reached by the system now is (g=10m/s2)
21. A 500 kg boat is 9 m long and is floating without
(1) Zero (2) 5 cm
motion on still water. A man of mass 100 kg is
at one end and if he runs to the other end of the (3) 2.5 cm (4) 1.25 cm
stops, the displacement of the boat is :
29. A ball of mass m collides with a wall with speed
(1) 1.5 m in the direction of displacement of the v and rebounds on the same line with the same
man speed. If the mass of the wall is taken as
(2) 0.75 m in the direction of displacement of infinite, then the work done by the ball on the
the man wall is :
(3) 1.5 m in the direction opposite to the 1
displacement of the man (1) mv2 (2) mv 2
2
(4) 0.75 m in the direction opposite to the
displacement of the man (3) 2 mv (4) zero

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30. A block of mass 1kg is moving with a speed of (3) 5, 0, 0, +½ (4) 4,0,1, +½
2 m/s on a smooth surface. It strikes another 41. CH 3 — CO — CH 3 and CH 3 — CH 2 — CHO
mass of 2kg and then they move together as a represents which type of isomerism
single body. The energy loss during the collision
(1) Chain isomerism
is
(2) Position isomerism
(1) 1.3 J (2) 1.6 J (3) 0.67 J (4) 0.34 J
(3) Functional isomerism
(4) Ring-chain isomerism
CHEMISTRY
42. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OCH3 I
31. Which of the following atoms contains the least
number of neutrons? CH3
240
CH – O – CH3 II
(1) 235
92 U (2) 238
92 U (3) 239
93 Np (4) 93 Np H3C
32. The particle with 13 protons and 10 electrons CH3 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3 III
is : I is the metamers of
(1) Al atom (2) Al3+ ion (1) II only (2) III only
(3) nitrogen isotope (4) none of these (3) Both II and III (4) None of these
33. Which of the following pairs represents isobars?
43. In what respect 1-propene and 2-butene are
25 similar :
24
(1) 32 He and 42He (2) 12 Mg and Mg (1) They are position isomers of each other
12
40 (2) They have different chemical properties
(3) 19 K and 40
20Ca
40
(4) 19 39
K and 19 K
(3) They are homologous of each other
34. What is the approximate size of the nucleus of (4) None of these
Nickel  64
28 Ni  atom ? 44. & are
(1) 5.30 × 10–13 cm (2) 5.32 × 10–13 cm (1) chain isomers
(3) 5.32 × 10–10 cm (4) None of these
(2) positional isomers
35. The ratio of first Bohr radius of Li2+ to that of
(3) metamers
second orbit of H-atom is
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 12 : 1 (3) 1 : 12 (4) 2 : 5 (4) functional isomers
36. The distance between 3rd and 2nd orbits in the 45. Isomers have:
hydrogen atom is : (1) Same physical properties but different
(1) 2.646 × 10–8 cm (2) 2.116 × 10–8 cm chemical properties
–8
(3) 1.058 × 10 cm (4) 0.529 × 10–8 cm (2) Same chemical properties but different
37. Bohr radius for hydrogen atom is approximately physical properties
0.53 Å. The radius of orbit in first excited state (3) Same physical and chemical properties
is :
(4) Different physical and chemical properties
(1) 0.13 Å (2) 1.06 Å (3) 4.77 Å (4) 2.12 Å
46. Chain isomers are those
38. What is the atomic number of the element
which has 3d10 as in its penultimate shell : (1) Which differ in number of carbon atom in
their parent chains
(1) 12 (2) 32 (3) 28 (4) 29
(2) Number of carbon atom in their rings are
39. In the discharge tube emission of anode ray
same
requries :
(1) Low potential and low pressure (3) Position of an atom or group are same
(2) Low potential and high pressure (4) Functional groups are same
(3) High potential and low pressure 47. Functional isomers are those which differ in
(4) High potential and high pressure (1) No. of C-atom in their parent chains
40. The quantum numbers of outer most shell (2) No. of C-atoms in their ring
electron of zinc atom when it is in ground state: (3) Position of an atom or group
(1) 4, 0, 0, +½ (2)4, 1, 2, +½ (4) Functional groups

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48. Two isomers can be metamers if they have 58. An element belongs to group 17. It is present in
(1) equal distribution of alkyl groups on either third period and its atomic number is 17. What
side of the functional group is the atomic number of the element belonging
(2) Unequal distribution of alkyl groups on to same group and present in fifth period?
either side of the functional groups (1) 25 (2) 53 (3) 35 (4) 33
(3) Different functional groups 59. Column-I Column-II
(4) Different positions of an atom or group on A. Law of triad (i) Newland
the rings of same size B. Law of octave (ii) Mendeleev
49. The compound HCN and HNC are : C. Periodic law (iii) Moseley
(1) position isomers (2) tautomers isomers D. Modified periodic law (iv) Dobereiner
(3) functional isomers (4) Both (2) & (3) The correct match of contents in column-I with
50. The structures (CH3)3CBr and CH3[CH2] 3Br those in column-II is:
represent : (1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii) D-(iv)
(1) Chain isomerism (2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii) D-(i)
(2) Position isomerism (3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii) D-(iii)
(3) Chain as well as position isomerism
(4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv) D-(ii)
(4) Functional isomerism
60. The screening effect of d-electron is :
51. Most electronegative element is :
(1) much more than s-electron
(1) Al (2) C (3) Si (4) Be
(2) equal to s-electrons
52. Beryllium and alumini um exh ibit many
properties which are similar. But, the two (3)equal to p-electrons
elements differ in : (4) much less than s-electron
(1) Forming covalent halides
(2) Forming polymeric hydrides
BIOLOGY
(3) Ex hi bi ti ng max imu m co vale ncy in
compounds 61. What is heam
(4) Exhibiting amphoteric nature in their (1) Co-enzyme (2) Holoenzyme
oxides (3) Prosthetic group (4) Apoenzyme
53. The atomic radius of elements of the following 62. One of the following is almost not found in living
series should be nearly the same : organism :
(1) Na, K, Rb, Cs (2) Na, Mg, Al, Si (1) Si (2) Mg
(3) Fe, Co, Ni, Cu (4) F, Cl, Br, I (3) Ca (4) S
54. The ionic radius of Cr is minimum in which of 63. The inorganic compounds like sulphate,
the following compounds ? phosphate, etc., are found in :
(1) CrF3 (2) CrCl3 (1) Acid soluble pool
(3) Cr2O3 (4) K2CrO4 (2) Acid insoluble fraction
55. Which one of the following pair of elements has (3) Both acid soluble pool and acid insoluble
similar properties ? fraction
(1) 10, 12 (2) 11, 20 (3) 21, 33 (4) 13, 31 (4) Not found in cellular pool
56. Which of the following properties shows a clear
64. Biomolecules are :
periodic variation along a group ?
(1) Inoganic materials
(1) First ionisation energy
(2) Organic materials
(2) Molar mass of the element
(3) All the carbon compounds obtained from
(3) Number of isotopes of the atom
living tissues
(4) All of the above
(4) Only DNA, RNA
57. The elements with atomic numbers 90 to 103
65. Amino acid is a:
are known as:
(1) d-block elements (1) Substituted methane
(2) lanthanides (2) Substituted ethane
(3) actinides (3) Any acid having amino group
(4) transition elements (4) Derivative of indoacetic acid

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66. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by 74. Some vascular bundles are describe as open
(1) de Vries because these
(2) Carolus Linnaeus (1) Possess conjunctive tissue between xylem
and pholem
(3) Prantl
(2) Are not surrounded by pericycle
(4) Bentham and Hooker
(3) Are surroun ded by pericycle but no
67. Taxonomic group of any rank is endodermis
(1) taxon (2) tribe (4) Are capable of producing secondary xylem
(3) race (4) variety and phloem
68. Which of the following is correctly sequenced? 75. Ground tissue includes
(1) Phylum, class, order, family (1) All tissues internal to endodermis
(2) Phylum, order, class, genus (2) All tissues external to endodermis
(3) Phylum, class, family, order (3) All tissues except epidermis and vascular
bundles
(4) Phylum, order, family, class
(4) Epidermis and cortex
69. Family placed between
76. Smooth muscles are found in :
(1) genus and species (2) order and class
(1) Stomach and intestine
(3) class and genus (4) order and genus
(2) Lungs, urinogenital tract and urinary
70. ICBN stands for bladder
(1) Indian Congress of Biological Names (3) Iris of eye and blood vessels
(2) In tern atio nal Code for Botanical (4) More than one option is correct
Nomenclature
77. Cardiac muscle tissue :
(3) International Congress of Biological Names (1) Is a contractile tissue
(4) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature (2) Is voluntary in nature
71. Phellogen cuts off derivatives on the inner side (3) Lacks intercalated discs
to form ............ and on the outer side to form.....
(4) both (1) and (2)
(1) cork, secondary cortex
78. The main function of connective tissue is to
(2) secondary cortex, cork
(1) Store nutrients
(3) cork cambium, cork
(2) Facilitate diffusion
(4) cork cambium, secondary cortex
(3) Hold other tissue together
72. In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from
(4) Conduct impulses
the tip upward, the four zones occur in the
following order. 79. Which of the following is false?
(1) Ce ll division, cel l en larg emen t, (1) Adipose tissue is located mainly below skin
cellmaturation, root cap. (2) Tendon consists of white fibrous tissue
(2) Ce ll division, cel l maturation , ce ll (3) Tendon connects a bone with another bone
enlargement, root cap (4) Ligaments connect a bone with another
(3) Root cap, cell division, Cell enlargement, cell bone
maturation 80. Cartilage is formed by
(4) Root cap, cell division, cell maturation, cell
(1) chondroblast (2) osteoblasts
enlargement.
(3) osteoclasis (4) fibroblasts
73. Select the incorrect pair out of the following.
81. Which of the following is a wrongly matched
Type of tissue Function
pair?
(1) Parenchyma – Storage, photosynthesis
(1) Unicellular glandular cells – Goblet cell
(2) Sclerenchyma – Mechanical strength
(2) Saliva – Exocrine secretion
(3) Xylem – Ascent of sap
(3) Fusiform fibres – Smooth muscle
(4) Phloem – Conduction of water and
(4) Cartilage – Areolar tissue
minerals

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82. The type of epithelial cells which line the inner (3) Squamous epithelium + tunica media of
surface of Fallopian tubes, bronchioles and blood vessel
small bronchi are known as
(4) None of these
(1) squamous epithelium
87. Which of the following sequences is correct to
(2) columnar epithelium initiate expiration ?
(3) ciliated epithelium I. Relaxation of external intercostal muscles
(4) cubical epithelium and return of diaphragm and sternum to
83. Whi ch o f th e fo llow ing is true for CO 2 their normal position .
concentration ? II. Air expelled from lungs
(1) More in alveolar air than in expired air III. Volume of thorax decreases
(2) More in expired air than in alveolar air IV. Intrapulmonary pressure increases
(3) More in inspired air than in alveolar air (1) I, III, IV, II (2) II, IV, III, I
(4) More in inspired air than in expired air. (3) IV, III, II, I (4) I, II, III, IV
84. Visiting high mountains may cause altitude 88. Whi ch o f th e fo llow ing dise ases is/are
sickness in man living in plain are . Prime occupational respiratory disorder ?
cause of this is (1) Fibrosis
(1) excess of CO2 in blood (2) Emphysema
(2) decreased efficiency of haemoglobin (3) Asthama
(3) decreased partial pressure of oxygen (4) Pneumonia
(4) decreased proportion of CO2 in air 89. Respiratory control centre lies in
85. During winter a person died during sleep the (1) Pons
room was closed and a container with burnt
charcoal was found in the room. What may be (2) Medulla oblongata
the possible reason of his death? (3) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Non-availability of oxygen (4) Cerebellum
(2) Hb has more affinity to combine with carbon 90. Where is ATP synthesized in glycolysis ?
monoxide (1) When 1,3 di PGA is changed into 3 PGA
(3) Hb-has more affinity to combine with carbon (2) When PEP is changed into pyruvic acid
dioxide
(3) When Fr. 1, 6 di P is broken in Triose
(4) combined effect phosphate (2 molecules)
86. In Lungs the air is separated from the venous (4) Both (1) and (2)
blood through
(1) transitional epithelium + tunica externa of
blood through
(2) squamous epithelium + endothelium of blood
vessel

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 Space for Rough Work

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 BFBM-06
02 - 10 - 2024
Answer Key
01. (1) 46. (1)
02. (2) 47. (4)
03. (2) 48. (2)
04. (2) 49. (4)
05. (2) 50. (1)
06. (3) 51. (2)
07. (4) 52. (3)
08. (2) 53. (3)
09. (1) 54. (4)
10. (1) 55. (4)
11. (3) 56. (1)
12. (2) 57. (3)
13. (4) 58. (2)
14. (2) 59. (3)
15. (3) 60. (4)
16. (2) 61. (3)
17. (4) 62. (1)
18. (1) 63. (1)
19. (4) 64. (3)
20. (3) 65. (1)
21. (3) 66. (2)
22. (4) 67. (1)
23. (3) 68. (1)
24. (3) 69. (4)
25. (2) 70. (2)
26. (1) 71. (2)
27. (4) 72. (3)
28. (4) 73. (4)
29. (4) 74. (4)
30. (1) 75. (3)
31. (1) 76. (4)
32. (2) 77. (1)
33. (3) 78. (3)
34. (2) 79. (3)
35. (3) 80. (1)
36. (1) 81. (4)
37. (4) 82. (3)
38. (4) 83. (2)
39. (3) 84. (3)
40. (1) 85. (2)
41. (3) 86. (4)
42. (2) 87. (1)
43. (3) 88. (1)
44. (1) 89. (3)
45. (4) 90. (4)

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