Target NEET-2023-24 (Round-I) : Biology - 100 Chemistry - 50 Physics - 50
Target NEET-2023-24 (Round-I) : Biology - 100 Chemistry - 50 Physics - 50
me/RCCtestseries
11
P-11 on your Answer
Sheet)
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[ NCERT Page-236] modulus Y1 and Y2 and coefficients of thermal
expansion 1 and 2 are fixed between two
1) material of the wire rigid supports. The rods are heated to the same
2) length of the wire temperature. If there is no bending of the rods
3) radius of the wire the thermal stresses developed in these rods
are equal provided. [ NCERT Page-239, 281]
4) shape of the cross-section
9. The Young’s modulus of the material of the wire Y1 2 Y1 1
1) 2)
of length L and radius r is Y Nm–2. If the length Y2 1 Y2 2
is reduced to L/2 and radius r/2, the Young’s
modulus will be [ NCERT Page-239] Y1 1 Y1 2
1) Y/2 2) Y 3) Y 4) Y
2 2 2 1
3) 2Y 4) 4Y
13. A uniform cube is subjected to volume
10. The graph below shows compression. If each side is decreased by 1%,
the extension (l) of a then bulk strain is [ NCERT Page-243]
wire of length 1m 1) 0.01 2) 0.06
suspended from the top 3) 0.02 4) 0.03
of a roof at one end and 14. A particle moves in a circular path with a
with a load W uniform speed. Its motion is [ NCERT Page-342]
connected to the other
1) periodic 2) oscillatory
end. If the cross-sectional area of the wire is
3) simple harmonic 4) all are correct.
10–6 m2, calculate the Young’s modulus of the
material of the wire. [ NCERT Page-247] 15. Differential equation of a SHM is given
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executing simple harmonic motion is as shown
in given figure. The time period of its oscillation
y1 10 sin 10t and y2 12 sin 8t
3 4 is (in sec) [ NCERT Page-348]
at t = 0.5 s is [ NCERT Page-345]
11 13
1) 2)
12 12
17
3) 4)
12
18. The phase difference in radians between 1) /2 2) 2
displacement and velocity in simple harmonic
3) 4) /4
motion is [ NCERT Page-349]
22. The maximum velocity and acceleration
1) /4 2) /2 of a particle in S.H.M. are 100 cm/sec and
3) 4) 2 157 cm/sec2 respectively. The time period in
19. A particle executing SHM has a time period of seconds will be [ NCERT Page-348]
4 s. After how much interval of time from t = 0 1) 4 2) 1.57
will its displacement be half of its amplitude
3) 0.25 4) 1
from mean position. [ NCERT Page-345]
23. x vs t graph for SHM of particle is shown, then
1 1 its KE vs t graph will be [ NCERT Page-351]
1) s 2) s
3 2
2 1
3) s 4) s
3 6
20. The velocity-time diagram of a harmonic
oscillator is shown in the adjoining figure. The
frequency of oscillation is [ NCERT Page-342]
1) 2)
3) 4)
1) 25 Hz 2) 50 Hz
3) 12.25 Hz 4) 33.3 Hz
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is a hollow metallic a wave travelling along y-axis?
sphere is T. The [ NCERT Page-370]
period is T 1 when
the bob is filled 1) y A sin( kx t ) 2) y A sin( ky t)
with sand, T2 3) y A sin ky cos t 4) y A cos ky sin t
when it is filled with mercury and T3 when it
28. The equation of a wave is represented by
is half filled with mercury. Which of the
following is true? [ NCERT Page-355] x
1) T = T1 = T2 > T3 2) T1 = T2 = T3 > T y 10 4 sin 100t . The velocity of the
10
3) T > T3 > T1 = T2 4) T = T1 = T2 < T3
25. A system is shown in the figure. The time wave will be [ NCERT Page-373]
period for small oscillations of the two blocks 1) 100 m/s 2) 250 m/s
will be [ NCERT Page-365] 3) 750 m/s 4) 1000 m/s
29. Equation of standing wave is given by,
y 10 (cm) sin( / 4 x )cos( t )
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gas to that in helium gas, at 300 K is two closed organ pipes of the same diameter but
[ NCERT Page-375] of different lengths. If shorter pipe is of 10 cm
length and speed of sound in air is 300 m/s,
1) 2/7 2) 1/ 7 length of other pipe is [ NCERT Page-380]
1) 10.06 cm 2) 11.22 cm
3) 3/5 4) 6/5
3) 16 cm 4) 14 cm
34. A tuning fork when sounded with tuning fork
38. What will be the sound level for painful
of frequency 260 produces 6 beats/sec and
intensity of sound for human being?
when sounded with another of frequency
250 produces 4 beats/sec. The frequency of the 1) 110 dB 2) 120 dB
fork is [ NCERT Page-382] 3) 0 dB 4) 60 dB
1) 266 2) 254 39. In the figure, intensity
3) 256 4) 246 of waves arriving at
35. For a body executing SHM [ NCERT Page-350] D from two coherent
sources S 1 and S 2 is
A) Potential energy is always equal to its K.E.
I0. The wavelength of
B) Average potential and kinetic energy over the wave is = 4 m.
any given time interval are always equal
Resultant intensity at D will be
C) Sum of the kinetic and potential energy at
any point of time is constant 1) 4I0 2) I0
D) Average K.E. in one time period is equal to 3) 2I0 4) Zero
average potential energy in one time period 40. The equation of a simple harmonic progressive
Choose the most appropriate option from the wave is given by y = A sin(100t – 3x). Find
options given below: the distance between 2 particles having a
phase difference of /3. [ NCERT Page-371]
1) (C) and (D) 2) Only (C)
3) (B) and (C) 4) Only (B)
1) m 2) m
Section : B 9 18
36. If tuning fork with frequency 600 Hz produces
resonance in a resonance column tube with 3) m 4) m
6 3
upper end open and lower closed by water
surface. Successive resonance are observed at 41. A particle executes simple harmonic motion
length and 13.75 cm, 41.25 cm, 68.75 cm, then with a frequency f. The frequency of its
speed of sound in air is [ NCERT Page-380] potential energy will be [ NCERT Page-351]
1) 330 m/s 2) 115 m/s 1) f/2 2) f
3) 320 m/s 4) 340 m/s 3) 2 f 4) 4 f
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motion. At a point x = A/3, kinetic energy of 1 kg in motion along the x-axis is given by
the particle is K, where A is the amplitude. At U = 4 (1–cos 2x) J (x is in meter). The period of
small oscillation (in second) is [NCERT Page-349]
a point x = 2A/3, kinetic energy of the particle
1) 2 2)
will be [ NCERT Page-350]
3) /2 4) 2
1) 2K 2) K 2
47. A ball falling in a lake of depth 200m shows a
5 5 decrease of 0.1% in its volume at the bottom.
3) K 4) K The bulk modulus of elasticity of the material
8 3
of the ball is (take g = 10 m/s2) [ NCERT Page-243]
43. The Total vibrational energy of a particle in 1) 109 N/m2 2) 2 × 109 N/m2
simple harmonic motion is E. Its kinetic 3) 3 × 109 N/m2 4) 4 × 109 N/m2
energy at half the amplitude from mean 48. When a weight of 10 kg suspended from a
position will be [ NCERT Page-350] copper wire of length 3 m and diameter 0.4 mm.
1) E/2 2) E/3 Its length increases by 2.4 cm. If the diameter
3) E 4) 3E/4 of the wire is doubled, then the extension in
its length will be [ NCERT Page-236]
44. The maximum velocity of a simple harmonic
1) 7.6 cm 2) 4.8 cm
3) 1.2 cm 4) 0.6 cm
motion represented by y 3sin 100t m. is 49. The strain-stress curves of
6
given by [ NCERT Page-348] three wires of different
materials are shown in the
3 figure. P, Q and R are the
1) 300 ms–1 2) ms –1
6 elastic limits of the wires.
The figure shows that [ NCERT Page-238]
3) 100 ms–1 4) ms –1 1) elasticity of wire P is maximum
6
2) elasticity of wire Q is maximum
45. A particle perform SHM according to equation 3) tensile strength of R is maximum
4) None of the above is true
x A sin t , where x is in metre and 50. The stress-strain graph for
6
a metal wire is as shown
time is in second. Find time instant at which in the figure. In the graph,
it stop first time. [ NCERT Page-348] the region in which Hooke’s
law is obeyed, the ultimate
2 strength and fracture points
1) 2)
3 are represented by [ NCERT Page-238]
1) OA, C, D 2) OB, D, E
3) 4) None 3) OA, D, E 4) OB, C, D
6
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CHEMISTRY:
CHEMISTRY HYDROCARBONS
SECTION : A 54. In the following reaction
51. Assertion : Friedel-Crafts reaction between CH 3
|
benzene and acetic anhydride in the presence of i. Conc. H2SO 4 / Δ
CH 3 C CH CH 3 A + B
(Major)
(Minor)
anhydrous AlCl3 yields acetophenone and not | |
H OH
poly substituted products.
HBr
A C +
(Major) D
Reason : Acetophenone formed poisons the (Minor)
catalyst preventing further reaction. The major product A and C are respectively
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the CH 3 CH 3
correct explanation of (A) | |
1) CH 3 C CH CH 3 and CH 3 C CH2 CH3
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the |
correct explanation of (A) Br
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct CH 3 CH 3
| |
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 2) CH 3 C CH CH 3 and CH 3 C CH CH 3
| |
52. Bond length of H Br
i. Ethane ii. Ethene CH 3 CH 3
iii. Acetylene | |
3) CH 2 C CH 2 CH 3 & Br– CH 2 C CH 2 CH 3
iv. Benzene |
H
The correct order regarding bond length
CH 3 CH 3
1) i > ii > iii > iv 2) i > ii > iv > iii | |
3) i > iv > ii > iii 4) iii > iv > ii > i 4) CH 2 C CH 2 CH 3 and CH 3 C CH2 CH3
|
53. The major products (P, Q) in the given reaction Br
–
are: dil. KMnO4/OH
A
55. CH 3 –CH=CH–CH 3
AlCl i.O ,Δ
+Cl.CH2CH2CH
3
P ii.H2
Q + Phenol Acidic KMnO4
3 2O B
A and B are respectively
1) CH 3 CH CH CH 3 and CH3COOH
| |
1) & CH3CHO 2) & CH3COCH3 OH OH
2) CH3COOH and CH 3 CH CH CH 3
| |
OH OH
3) & CH3COCH3 4) & CH3CH 2CHO 3) Both are CH3 CH CH CH 3
| |
OH OH
4) Both CH3COOH
Space For Rough Work
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Coloumn-I Column-II not undergo-Friedel-Craft is reaction easily is
(Compound) (Boiling point in K) 1) Methyl benzene 2) Ethyl benzene
c. iii. 309.1
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deactivating group for electrophilic potential energy?
substitution when attached with benzene 1) Eclipsed
ring
2) Skew
O 3) Staggered
||
1) –Cl 2) C H 4) All will have equal potential energy
70. 2-Methylbutane on reaction with bromine in
O
|| the presence of sunlight gives mainly
3) C OH 4) –CN 1) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane
NaNH 2) 2-bromo-3-methylbutane
66. CH 2 CH 2 Br KOH(alc.)
A B
2
| 3) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
Br
4) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
A and B are respectively
HBr (i)Mg/ether
1) CH2=CH2 and CHCH 71. Propene A
(ii) H 2O/Boil
B
H Br
1) C 2 H2 2) Major (Y)
Peroxide
Major (Z)
Major final product (Z) is
3) C 2 H4 4) Br
1) 2)
68. Cl2/ hv Br
Find out number of monochlorinated products
Br
(including stereoisomers) which are possible
Br
in the above reaction. 3) 4)
1) 2 2) 3
3) 4 4) 5
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A
77. HBr/H2O2
Na ,NH 3 (l)
CC–R Product B
A and B are respectively
C C–R CH 2CH 2R
1) 2) 1) and
Br Br
Br Br
H R
CH 2CH 2R C=C
3) 4) 2) and
H
Br
74. Which of the following will not show
geometrical isomerism?
3) and
H F F Br
F
1) C=C 2) C=C Br
Cl D Cl Cl
4) and
H3C C2H5 H3C CH3 Br
3) C=C 4) C=C
H5C2 CH3 H3C C2H5 78. Which products are not formed during the addition
of Br2 on propyne in presence of aqueous NaI
OH solution
CHO
75.
Zn Hg/HCl
P ; P should be i) CH 3 CH CH 2 Br ii) CH 3 CH CH 2 Br
| |
Br OH
CHO CH3 iii) CH 3 CH CH 2 OH
1) 2) |
OH
1) i and iii only 2) ii and iii
OH OH
CH3 3) i, ii and iii 4) iii only
3) OH 4)
79. C C – C C Li
/ NH
3( l)
Product :
76. Which of the following is an example of polythene ?
1) n(CH CH) 1) 2)
( CH 2 CH 2
2) )n
( C C
3) )n
( CH 2 CH 2
4) )n 3) Both (1) and (2) 4)
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CH = CH2 HI
80. O2N Product the following structural formula.
Correct statement regarding the product
I
| It is cyclic and has conjugated 8-electron system
1) The product is O2N CH – CH3 formed
but it is not an anti-aromatic compound.
by electrophilic addition reaction Reason : (4n) -electron rule does not hold good
and ring is not planar.
2) The product is O 2N CH2 – CH2I 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
formed by electrophilic addition reaction correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
I
| correct explanation of (A)
3) The product is O2N CH – CH3 formed
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
by nucleophilic addition reaction 4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
83. Column I Column-II
4) The product is O 2N CH2 – CH2I
(Reaction) (Reagent used)
formed by nucleophilic addition reaction a) CH3COCH3 CH3CH2CH3 i. Soda-lime
b) CH3CH2Br CH2 = CH2 ii. Zn dust
c) C6H5COOH C6H6 iii. KOH (alc.)
81. d) C6H5OH C6H6 iv. HI/red P
1) a-i; b-iv; c-ii; d-iii 2) a-ii; b-i ; c-iv; d-iii
The alkene formed as a major product in the 3) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii 4) a-iv; b-ii; c-iv; d-i
above elimination reaction is 84. The major product of reaction is :
1) CH2 =CH2 H3C HBr
CH–CH=CH 2
H3C
2) H3C H3C
CH–CH–CH3 C–CH2–CH 3
1) H3C 2) H3C
Br Br
3) CH 3
H 3C |
CH–CH2–CH2 CH 3 C CH 2 Br
4) 3) H 3C 4) |
Br CH 3
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AlCl
89. CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2– CH3 Δ3 (A)
reaction:
What is the correct statement regarding (A)
i) This is called isomerisation and the product is 2-
methylbutane
ii) This is called isomerisation and the product is 2,
1) 2) 2-dimethylpropane
iii) This is called aromatisation and the product is
benzene
3) 4) 1) i and iii only 2) i and ii only
3) ii and iii only 4) i, ii and iii
SECTION : B
90. Which one of the following is not an isomer
86. The dihedral angle of the least stable conform of 3-methylbut-1-yne
of ethane is 1) Pent-1-yne 2) Buta-1, 3-diene
1) 60°, elipsed form 3) Pent-2-yne 4) Penta-1, 3-diene
2) 60° staggered form
3) 0°, eclipsed form 91. The reaction of CH3CH = CH OH with HBr
1) CH 3CHBrCH2 OH
H PO
87.
3
4
OH 2) CH3CH2CHBr OH
In this reaction which of the following
product is not formed 3) CH3CHBrCH2 Br
1) 2) 4) CH3CH2CHBr Br
HBr /H O aq.NaOH
3) 4) 92. CH3 –CH2–CH=CH2 Y
2 2
Z
What is Z
88. Reactivity of hydrogen atoms attached to
1) CH3 –CH=CH–CH3
different carbon atoms in alkanes has the
order 2) CH3–CH2 –CH2–CH2 OH
1) Tertiary > Primary > Secondary OH
|
2) Primary > Secondary > Tertiary 3) CH 3 CH2 CH2 CH CH 3
3) Tertiary > Secondary > Primary
4) CH3 CH2 –CH2 CH2 Br
4) Both (1) and (2)
Space For Rough Work
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acid on Kolbe electrolysis gives alkanes
containg
1) Twice the number of carbon atom of alkyl 97.
group present in sodium salt of carboxylic acid
2) One carbon atom less than alkyl group present
in sodium salt of carboxylic acid Which of the following reagent-systems is
3) Same the number of carbon atom of alkyl most suitable for this reaction?
group present in sodium salt of carboxylic acid 1) Zn–Hg/HCl/ 2) N2H4/KOH/
4) Two carbon atom less than alkyl group present 3) both of these 4) none of these
in sodium salt of carboxylic acid
98. Assertion: CHBr = CHCl exhibits geometrical
94. An alkene on ozonolysis gives formaldehyde isomerism but CH2Br–CH2Cl does not.
as one of the product. Its structure is
Reason : Presence of C=C is only one of the
CH2CH2CH3 CH2CH2CH3 conditions of geometrical isomerism.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
1) 2) correct explanation of (A)
CH=CH–CH3 CH2–CH=CH2 2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
3) 4) 3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
95. The most suitable reagent form the following
Hydrolysis HgSO4 dil .H 2 SO4
conversion is 99. CaC2 A B.
H3C CH 3 B is
CH3–CC–CH3
C=C
H H 1) Acetylene 2) Acetaldehyde
1) H2 Pd/C or BaSO4 2) Na/Liquid NH3 3) Acetone 4) Acetic acid
3) Hg2+ /H+, H2 O 4) Zn/HCl 100. Which of the following orders regarding
96. The alkane that gives only one monochloro acidic strength is correct
product on chlorination with Cl2 in presence 1) CH 3COOH CH 3CH 2OH CH CH
of sunlight
2) CH 3COOH CH CH CH 3CH 2OH
1) 2, 2 dimethyl butane
2) neopentane 3) CH CH CH 3COOH CH 3CH 2 OH
3) n-pentane
4) CH CH CH 3CH 2OH CH 3COOH
4) isopentane
Biology : Plant Growth & Development + Body Fluids & Circulation + Chemical Coordination
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Section-C : Biology 107. ______ stimulates the synthesis and secretion
of glucocorticoids. [Old NCERT Pg. 333]
Section-A Fill in the blanks with the correct option.
101. Hormone receptors present on the cell 1) TSH 2) ACTH
membrane of the target cells are called
3) FSH 4) ADH
[Old NCERT Pg. 339, 340]
108. The hormone that regulates the growth of the
1) Intracellular receptors mammary glands and formation of milk in
2) Nuclear receptors them is [Old NCERT Pg. 333]
3) Membrane bound receptors 1) Oxytocin 2) Prolactin
4) Both (1) and (2)
3) FSH 4) Both (2) and (3)
102. Prolactin in responsible for milk formation,
109. The gland located on the dorsal side of brain
but milk ejection occurs due to effect of
is [Old NCERT Pg. 334]
[Old NCERT Pg. 333]
1) Thymus 2) Thyroid
1) Oxytocin 2) Pitressin
3) Calcitonin 4) Cortisol 3) Pineal 4) Adrenal
103. Pituitary gland is divided anatomically into 110. Thyrocalcitonin [Old NCERT Pg. 335]
an adenohypophysis and a neurohypophysis. 1) Is a protein hormone
Adenohypophysis consists of two portions, 2) Regulates blood calcium level
[Old NCERT Pg. 333] 3) Is a hypercalcemic hormone
1) Pars distalis and pars intermedia 4) Both (1) and (2) are correct
2) Pars distalis and pars nervosa
111. In adult women, hypothyroidism may cause
3) Pars intermedia and nervosa
[Old NCERT Pg. 335]
4) Pars vasculosa and pars nervosa
1) Weight loss
104. Pars distalis region of pituitary gland is
2) Increased heart rate
commonly called [Old NCERT Pg. 333]
1) Anterior pituitary 3) Menstrual cycle to become irregular
2) Posterior pituitary 4) All of the above
3) Intermediate pituitary 112. How many parathyroid glands are present in
4) None of these human beings? [Old NCERT Pg. 335]
105. ____ and _____ stimulate gonadal activity and 1) Five 2) Three
hence are called gonadotrophins. 3) Four 4) Six
Fill in the blanks with the correct option. 113. _____ Islets of Langerhans are present in
[Old NCERT Pg. 333] normal human pancreas.
1) Luteinizing hormone, prolactin Fill in the blanks with the correct option.
2) Follicle stimulating hormone, androgen [Old NCERT Pg. 337]
3) Growth hormone, thyroid stimulating 1) 10-20 million 2) 1-2 million
hormone 3) 5-7 million 4) 20-25 million
4) Luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating 114. Patients with diabetes mellitus have
hormone [Old NCERT Pg. 337, 338]
106. The neuroendocrine structure is 1) Hyperglycemia
[Old NCERT Pg. 333] 2) Loss of glucos through urine
1) Pancreas 2) Thymus 3) Formation of harmful ketone bodies
3) Hypothalamus 4) Ovary 4) All of the above
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1) Zona fasciculata 2) Zona glomerulosa 1) Prolactin and Vasorpressin
3) Zona reticulosa 4) Zona nodularis 2) Thyroid stimulating hormone and Oxytocin
116. The atrial walls of heart secrete a very
3) Oxytocin and Vasorpressin
important peptide hormone called atrial
naturiuretic factor (ANF) which 4) Follicle stimulating hormone and Leutinizing
[Old NCERT Pg. 339] hormone
1) Increases blood pressure 124. What does the following figure represent?
2) Lowers blood pressure [Old NCERT Pg. 241]
3) Causes vasodilation
4) Both (2) and (3)
117. Which of the following is not exclusively a
gastrointestinal hormone? [Old NCERT Pg. 339]
1) Secretin 2) GIP
3) CCK 4) Somatostatin
118. The cells of pancreas secrete a hormone
which
[Old NCERT Pg. 337]
1) Stimulates glycogen breakdown
2) Stimulates gluconeogenesis
3) Increases cellular glucose uptake and
1) The growth of pollen tube is measured in term
utilization
of surface area.
4) Promotes lipolysis
2) Detection of the zone of elongation by the
119. Oxytocin is [Old NCERT Pg. 334]
parallel line technique.
1) Used to induce labour
3) Detection of the zone of maturation by parallel
2) Called birth hormone
line technique.
3) Milk ejecting hromone
4) Detection of zone of meristematic activity by
4) All are correct
the parallel line technique.
120. Which of the following is a steroidal
hormone? 125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. growth in
plant. [Old NCERT Pg. 240]
[Old NCERT Pg. 340]
1) Thyroxine 2) Calcitonin 1) An irreversible permenent increase in size.
3) Testosterone 4) Epinephrine 2) Primary meristem mainly contributes to the
121. Mark the mismatched pair. elongation
[Old NCERT Pg. 334, 336] 3) Intercalary meristem mainly contributes
1) Calcitonin - Calcium homeostasis secondary growth
2) Cortisol - Anti-inflammatory hormone 4) Apical meristem does not show diffused
3) Glucagon - Hyperglycemic hormone growth
4) Thymosin - Skin pigmentation 126. Secondary meristem in plants
122. Which one of the following hormones is not 1) Divides to form secondary permanent tissues
involved in sugar metabolism? 2) Are exemplified by cork cambium and
[Old NCERT Pg. 337] cambium of dicot roots
1) Aldosterone 2) Insulin 3) Are formed when primary permanent tissues
3) Glucagon 4) Cortisol get dedifferentiated
4) All of these
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1) Bacteria in laboratory I. _A_ is the most widely used PGR in
2) Stages during embryo development in plants agriculature.
3) Root elongation at a constant rate II. _B_ is used to initiate flowering and for
4) All expect (3) synchronizing fruit set in pineapple.
128. The increase in the girth of plant organs due A B
to meristematic activity of lateral meristems 1) Ethylene Auxin
is seen in 2) Auxin Ethylene
1) All angiosperms 3) Auxin Cytokinin
2) Some pteridophytes and gymnosperms 4) Ethylene Ethylene
3) All embryophytes 134. Apical dominance means [Old NCERT Pg. 248]
4) Angiosperms and gymnosperms 1) Suppression of growth of apical bud by
129. All of the following are characteristics of axillary buds.
meristematic phase of growth, except 2) Suppression of growth of axillary buds by the
[Old NCERT Pg. 242] presence of apical buds.
1) Cell walls are thin, cellulosic with abundant 3) Stimulation of growth of apical bud by
plasmodesmata connections removal of axillary buds.
2) Presence of large prominent nucleus 4) Inhibition of growth of axillary buds by
3) Increase in the size of vacuoles removal of apical buds.
4) High respiratory rate 135. The discovery of gibberellin is related to which
of the following plant diseases?
130. Two types of leaf development in buttercup is
due to [Old NCERT Pg. 246] [Old NCERT Pg. 248]
1) Presence and absence of light 1) Late blight of potato
2) Availability and non-availability of nutrients 2) Foollish seedling disease of rice
3) Difference in environment 3) White rust disease of mustard
4) Variation in temperature 4) Black rust disease of wheat
131. Development is controlled by Section-B
[Old NCERT Pg. 246] 136. Read the following statements w.r.t. conditions
a. Environment factors. required for growth.
b. Plant growth regulators a. Oxygen helps in releasing metabolic
energy essential for growth activities.
c. Intracellular factors
b. Micro and macronutrients are required by
1) Only b 2) a and b
plants for the synthesis of protoplasm and
3) b and c 4) a, b and c act as a source of energy.
132. The correct sequence of the development c. Every plant organism has an optium
process in a plant cell is [Old NCERT Pg. 246] temperature range best suited for its
1) Plasmatic growth, differentiation, senescence growth.
and maturation d. Environment signals such as light and
2) Plamatic growth, differentiation, maturation gravity also effect certain phases of growth.
and senescence Correct statements are :
3) Maturation, plasmatic growth, differentiation 1) a and b only 2) a, c and d only
and senescence
3) b, c and d only 4) a, b, c and d
4) Differentiation, plasmatic growth, maturation
and senescnce
PCB TEST : 09(47) 16 Date : 26/12/2023
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
137. Assertion : Oxytocin is also known as anti- 141. Identify the wrong match.
diuretic hormone (ADH). [Old NCERT Pg. 340]
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Reason : Oxytocin can cause an increase in the 1) Insulin - Peptide hormone
renal reabsorption of water. 2) Erythropoietin - Steroid hormone
[Old NCERT Pg. 334] 3) Androgen - Steroid hormone
1) If both assertion and reason are true and 4) Glucagon - Peptide hormone
reason is the correct explanation of the 142. The tissue is a woody dicotyledonous plant
assertion. that formed through redifferentitation are
2) If both assertion and reason are true, but [Old NCERT Pg. 245]
reason is not the correct explanation of the
a. Interfascicular combium
assertion.
b. Secondary xylem
3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
c. Phellogen
4) If both assertion and reason are false.
d. Phellem e. Secondary cortex
138. Match Column I with Column II :
1) b, d and e 2) a and c
[Old NCERT Pg. 337]
3) a, c and d 4) c, d and e
Column-I Column-II 143. Statement I : Hormones which interact with
a Zona glomerulosa i Glucocorticoids membrane-bound receptor, enter the target cell
b Zona fasciculata ii Sex corticoids and generate the secondary messengers that
c Zona reticularis iii Mineralocorticoids regulate cellular metabolism.
1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii 2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii Statement II : Estrogen has the membrane
bound receptor. [Old NCERT Pg. 339, 340]
3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii 4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
139. Assertion : TCT and PTH are antagonistic
2) Both statement I and statement II are false.
hormones. [Old NCERT Pg. 335]
3) Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
Reason : TCT increases the Ca2+ level in blood,
while PTH decreases Ca2+ in the blood. 4) Statement I is false, but statement II is true.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and 144. Go through the following statements :
reason is the correct explanation of the i. Widely applied for plant propagation by
assertion. horticulturist.
2) If both assertion and reason are true, but ii. Controls morphogenesis in tissues culture.
reason is not the correct explanation of the iii. Promote apical dominance.
assertion. iv. Promote flowering in pineapple.
3) If assertion is true, but reason is false. The above functions are carried out by
4) If both assertion and reason are false. 1) Auxin 2) Gibberellin
140. Statement I : The parathyroid glands are said to 3) Cytokinin 4) Ethylene
be under the feedback control of blood calcium 145. Match Column I with Column II :
levels. [Old NCERT Pg. 334, 338]
Statement II : Parathormone of parathyroid
Column-I Column-II
glands mobilizes calcium from the bones to the
blood plasma. [Old NCERT Pg. 335] (Endocrine Gland) (Hormone)
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) Cork cambium acts as defifferentiated tissue. i. Kideny ii. Heart
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) prevent sunlight for changing its colour 1) neutrophils 2) monocyte
2) prevent aerobic respiration by checking the 3) lymphocyte 4) eosinophils.
entry of O2
161. Match column I with column II.
3) prevent ethylene formation due to injury
[Old NCERT Pg. 247]
4) make the apples look attractive
Column-I Column-II
156. How many functions are associated with
cytokinin? [Old NCERT Pg. 249, 250] (PGR) (Derivatives)
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) P wave 2) T wave 1) arteriosclerosis
3) R wave 4) Q wave 2) atherosclerosis
167. In humans, the volume of blood pumped out 3) irregularity of heartbeat
by each ventricle per minute is
4) hypertension
[ NCERT Pg. 285]
174. Which one of the following is absent in the
1) 1040 mL 2) 5 L
human beings? [ NCERT Pg. 286]
3) 2.5 L 4) 1290 mL
1) Hypothalamohypophyseal tract
168. Select the correct statement from the following.
[ NCERT Pg. 286] 2) Hepatic portal vein
1) ECG is of great clinical insignificance. 3) Renal portal vein
2) By counting the number of QRS complexes 4) None of these
(in given time period), we can find the pulse 175. An atrioventricular valve prevents the back
rate. flow or leakage of blood from the
3) The contraction of atria starts with starting of
[ NCERT Pg. 285]
Q wave.
4) T wave represents repolarisation of atria 1) right ventricle into the right atrium.
169. In adult man, normal BP is [ NCERT Pg. 288] 2) left atrium into the left ventricle.
1) 100/80 mm of Hg 2) 120/80 mm of Hg 3) aorta into the left ventricle.
3) 80/120 mm of Hg 4) 120/80 cm of Hg 4) pulmonary vein into the right atrium
170. Vasoconstriction causes [ NCERT Pg. 287] 176. Bundle of His comprises of [ NCERT Pg. 283]
1) increase in heartbeat.
1) nervous tissues supplied to ventricles.
2) decrease in heartbeat.
2) nervous tissues supplied to heart.
3) increase in blood pressure.
4) decrease in blood pressure. 3) muscular tissues supplied to ventricles.
171. Why is blood that flows from the lungs to the 4) muscular tissues supplied to heart
heart bright red rather than dark red? 177. Cardiac output will be the –––––– if heart has
[ NCERT Pg. 287] a stroke volume of 0.07 L min"l and is beating
1) Oxygen makes it red. at the rate of 80 per minute. [ NCERT Pg. 285]
2) Carbon dioxide makes it red. 1) 56.0 L min–1 2) 0.56 L min–1
3) Gastric juices produce the red colour of the 3) 5.6 L min–1 4) .56.8 L min–1
blood
178. The volume of blood each ventricle pumps out
4) The lungs add a pigment (dye) to blood as it during a cardiac cycle is about
flows through them
[ NCERT Pg. 285]
172. The cardiac cycle includes all of the following
events except [ NCERT Pg. 285] 1) 7 L 2) 40 mL
1) the closing and opening of the heart valves 3) 70 mL 4) 5000 mL
during each heartbeat. 179. Pacemaker is [ NCERT Pg. 284]
2) the movement of impulse from the SA node
1) an instrument for measuring heartbeat
to all regions of the heart wall.
2) an instrument for measuring pulse rate
3) the number of times the heart beats in one
minute. 3) an auriculo-ventricular node that provides
4) the changes in blood volume in all chambers impulse for heartbeat
of the heart 4) a sino-auricular node that provides impulse
for heartbeat
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
70 mL). [ NCERT Pg. 284] tricuspid valve of human heart is partially
1) 5000 mL 2) 6300 mL non-functional, what will be the immediate
3) 4200 mL 4) 4900 mL effect? [ NCERT Pg. 283]
1) The flow of blood into aorta will be slowed
181. Pulmonary veins carry [ NCERT Pg. 287]
down.
1) oxygenated blood from heart to lungs 2) The pacemaker will stop working.
2) oxygenated blood from lungs to heart 3) The blood will tend to flow back in left atrium.
3) deoxygenated blood from lungs to heart 4) The flow of blood into pulmonary artery will
4) deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs be reduced
182. Which of the following statements is false? 187. Consider the following statements and select
the option that correctly fill in the blanks.
[ NCERT Pg. 279]
[Old NCERT Pg. 249, 250]
1) Erythrocytes/RBCs are the least abundant of i. _A_ is used to induce the dormancy of buds
all the cells in blood. and storage organs.
2) The number of RBCs in adult man per mm3 ii. _B_ speeds up the malting process in
of blood is 5 million to 5.5 million brewing industry.
3) RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow in iii. Senescence is prevented by _C_.
the adults. A B C
4) RBCs are enucleate in most of the mammals 1) ABA GAs Cytokinin
183. Pick the incorrect statement. [ NCERT Pg. 279] 2) ABA Auxin Cytokinin
1) Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or 3) Cytokinin Gas Auxin
coagulation of blood. 4) Ethylene Cytokinin Gibberellin
2) Globulins primarily are involved in defence 188. SA node is called pacemaker of the heart.
mechanism Why? [ NCERT Pg. 284]
3) Albumins primarily involved in defence 1) It can change contractile activity generated by
mechanism AV node.
4) Plasma without the clotting factors is called 2) It delays the transmission of impulse between
serum. the atria and ventricles.
184. Lymph [ NCERT Pg. 282] 3) It gets stimulated when it receives neural
signal.
1) transports O2 to brain
4) It initiates and maintains the rhythmic
2) transports CO2 to lungs
contractile activity of heart
3) returns interstitial fluid to blood 189. Find out the incorrect statement from the
4) returns RBCs and WBCs to lymph nodes following [ NCERT Pg. 286]
185. Find out the incorrect statement. 1) ECG is a graphical representation of the
[ NCERT Pg. 279]
electrical activity of the heart during cardiac
cycle.
1) Globulins are primarily involved in defence
2) For a detailed evaluation of heart's function,
mechanism of body.
multiple leads are attached to the chest region
2) Albumin is main osmotic protein of blood. (chest leads).
3) Plasma without clotting factor is called serum. 3) P, R and T are positive waves, whereas Q and
4) Factors for coagulation of blood are also S are negative wave in standard ECG.
present in the plasma in an active form. 4) Starting of T wave marks the end of systole of
ventricles.
PCB TEST : 09(47) 21 Date : 26/12/2023
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
190. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose 194. Which of the following statements is not true
the correct option. [ NCERT Pg. 282] about blood pressure? [ NCERT Pg. 287]
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Column - I Column - II 1) Blood pressure is measured with an
a. Fishes i. Single circulation instrument called sphygmomanometer.
b. Amphibians ii. Double circulation 2) If the blood pressure of an individual is 140/
90 mm Hg or higher, it shows hypertension.
c. Reptiles iii. Mixed circulation
3) The normal systolic pressure is 120 mm Hg
d. Birds and diastolic pressure is 80 mm Hg.
1) a-ii, b-ii, c-iii, d-i 4) Hypertension is caused by vasodilation which
2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iii, d-ii 195. What is the correct order of these events?
3) a-i, b-i, c-ii, d-ii [ NCERT Pg. 281]
4) a-i, b-iii, c-iii, d-ii a) Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
191. Bundle of His consists of [ NCERT Pg. 283] b) Retraction of clot and leakage of serum
a. right bundle branch c) Formation of thromoboplastin
b. left bundle branch d) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
c. purkinje fibres 1) c b a d
d. AV bundle 2) c d a b
1) a, b and c 2) a, b, c and d 3) c d b a
3) b, c and d 4) c and d 4) d a c b
192. Identify the PGR on the basis of given 196. Assertion : Plants retain their meristematic
physiological role. activity at certain locations, throughout their life.
A. The help to prevent fruit and leaf drop at Reason : Plants show open form of growth.
early stages but promote abscission of older, [Old NCERT Pg. 248]
mature leaves and furits. [Old NCERT Pg. 248] 1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
B. It helps seeds to withstand desiccation and reason is the correct explanation of the
other factors unfavourable for growth. assertion.
[Old NCERT Pg. 250] 2) If both assertion and reason are true, but
reason is not the correct explanation of the
A B
assertion.
1) Cytokinin Gibberellin
3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
2) Auxin ABA 4) If both assertion and reason are false.
3) Auxin Ethylene 197. Match column I with column II.
4) Cytokine Gibberellin results in
Column-I Column-II
increased resistance to blood flow
a IAA i Overcoming genetic
193. Which of the following statements is wrong
dwarfing
about the closed circulatory system?
b GA ii Most widely used PGR
[ NCERT Pg. 282]
in agriculture
1) Blood remains within blood vessels and never c Cytokinin iii Induced parthenocarpy
comes in direct contact with the body cells. in tomato
2) In this flow of fluid can be more precisely d Ethylene iv Coconut milk factor
regulated.
1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 2) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
3) There is no blood capillary.
3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 4) a-iv, b-iii, c-iv, d-iii
4) Blood flow is more rapid due to higher
pressure.
PCB TEST : 09(47) 22 Date : 26/12/2023
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
198. Which of the following events do not occur 200. Given below are four statements (a)–(d)
during joint diastole? [ NCERT Pg. 285] regarding human blood circulatory system:
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
a) All four chambers of heart are in relaxed [ NCERT Pg. 287, 288]
state. a) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow
b) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves open. lumen as compared to veins.
c) Action potential is conducted from SA node b) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood
to AV node. circulation to the brain is reduced.
d) Blood from the pulmonary veins and vena c) Persons with blood group AB can donate
cava flows into the left and right ventricles blood to any person with any blood group
respectively through the left and right atria. under ABO system.
e) The semilunar valves are closed. d) Calcium ions play a very important role in
1) Only (e) 2) Only (c) blood clotting.
3) Only (d) 4) (a) and (b) Which two of the above statements are
199. Match the following. [ NCERT Examplar] correct?
1) (a) and (d) 2) (a) and (b)
Column-I Column-II
3) (b)and(c) 4) (c) and (d)
a IAA i Herring sperms DNA
b ABA ii Bolting
c Ethylene iii Stomatal closure
d GA iv Weed-free lawns
e Cytokinins v Ripening of fruits
1) a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-ii, e-i
2) a-v, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii, e-i
3) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-iii, e-ii
4) a-v, b-iii, c-ii, d-i, e-iv